BACTERIAL ANATOMY MCQs TEST

1. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?
A. Cyanobacteria

B. Mycoplasmas

C. Bdellovibrios

Spirochetes
D.

2.A cluster of polar flagella is called

A. lophotrichous

B. amphitrichous

C. monotrichous

D. PeritrichouS
3. The protein from which hook and filaments of flagella are composed of, is
A. Keratin

B. Flagellin

C. Gelatin

D. Casein

4.The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are

A. Streptococci

B. Diplococci

C. Tetracocci

D. None of these

5.Which of the following may contain fimbriae?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

B. Gram-negative bacteria

C. Both (a) and (b)

 D. None of these

6.Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria
A. 50% or more

B. About 10%

C. 11%+ 0.22%

D. About 20%

7.Bacteria having no flagella are unable to

A. Move

B. Reproduce

C. stick to tissue surfaces

D. grow in nutrient agar

8.Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?

A. It consists of multiple layers

B. It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative bacteria

C. It contains teichoic acids

D. All of these

9.The cell wall of

A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-negative bacteria

B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-positive bacteria

C. both have same thickness but composition is different

D. none of thes

10.Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in

A. nucleoid

B. chromatin
C. nuclear material

D. all of these
BACTERIOLOGY MCQ s
Multiple Choice Question on Enteric Bacteria (E. coli, Salmonella spp and Shigella spp)

1) Intestines of human and other mammals are the natural habitat of enteric organisms, a large
family of bacteria is present as a normal flora, which of the following is not the normal flora of
intestine?
a) Escherichia spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Staphylococcus spp
d) Proteus spp

2) Some enteric bacteria are part of normal inhabitants and incidentally cause disease but others
such as.........are regularly pathogenic for humans.
a) Pseudomonas spp
b) Streptococcus spp
c) Salmonella spp
d) Proteus spp

3) All are the general characteristics of enteric bacteria, EXCEPT?

a) Catalase positive
b) Non-spore forming
c) Grow in media with bile salts
d) Nitrate negative

4) Enteric bacteria are mainly classified based on their ability to ferment various sugars
including lactose. Which of the following bacteria is a non-lactose fermenter?
a) Klebsiella spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Enterobacter spp
d) Citrobacter spp

5) Escherichia coli is one of the major enteric bacteria that causes diarrhea and is characterized
according to its virulence properties. All are the types of E. coli, EXCEPT?
a) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
b) Enteropathogenic E. coli
c) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
d) Enterolysogenic E. coli

6) After the bacteria is ingested, enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attaches to the mucosal cells of
the small intestine which results in malabsorption and diarrhea, mostly infecting infants in
developing countries. Symptoms include watery diarrhea, vomiting, non-bloody stools which
lasts for short duration mostly 1-3 days. What are the two important factors of pathogenesis?
a) The chromosomal locus of enterocyte effacement (LEE)
b) The bundle-forming pilus encoded by a plasmid adherence factor (EAF)
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

7) Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) are nonmotile, non-lactose or late lactose fermenters which are
predominantly found in developing countries infecting children and travelers. Which of the
following infection is similar to EIEC infection?
a) Bacillary dysentery
b) Shigellosis
c) Traveler’s diarrhea
d) Enteric fever

8) Enterobacteriaceae expresses a variety of virulent antigens, all of the following are the
antigens, EXCEPT?
a) O antigen
b) K and Vi antigen
c) H antigen
d) D antigen

9) E. coli is one of the most common enteric bacteria in urinary tract infection (UTI) followed
by Proteus mirabilis. All of the followings are the characteristic feature Proteus mirabilis,
EXCEPT?
a) Facultative aerobes
b) Urease positive
c) Motile
d) Citrate positive

10) Shigellosis is caused by Shigella dysenteriae in humans causing fever, abdominal cramps,
diarrhea sometimes with blood. The infection is attributed to the …........ activity of Shiga toxin
which increases the severity by tissue invasion of the large intestine.
a) Exotoxic
b) Enterotoxic
c) Cytotoxic
d) Neurotoxic

11) Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) produces two major types of toxins, heat labile (LT) and heat
stable (ST) toxins. LT or cholera-like toxin activates adenylate cyclase (cAMP) whereas ST
activates.............causing Travelers’ diarrhea.
a) Ribosomal dysfunction
b) Decarboxylase reaction
c) Guanylate cyclase
d) Fermentation of sugars

12) Which of the following is a rapid lactose fermenter, motile enteric bacteria and is the major
cause of a broad range of hospital-acquired infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract
infections, and wound and device infections?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Enterobacter aerogenes

13) Salmonella typhi enter the human body through oral route penetrating into the intestine
and reaching the lymphatics and the bloodstream ultimately causing the infection
"Typhoid".Which of the following are most correct examples of the region of infection caused by
the S. typhi?
a) Mononuclear phagocytic cells in the liver and Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
b) Liver, spleen, lymph nodes and large intestine
c) Isolated follicles and Peyer’s patches of a large intestine
d) None of the above

14) Which type of salmonellae is primarily infectious for humans?

a) Salmonella typhi A
b) Salmonella paratyphi A, B, and C
c) Salmonella paratyphi A and B
d) Salmonella paratyphi A
15) The symptoms of typhoid fever develop in one to three weeks after exposure to S. typhi, all of
the given below are the major symptoms, EXCEPT?
a) Weight gain
b) Headache
c) High-grade fever
d) Rashes

16) Which of the following Shigella spp produces a heat labile exotoxin that affects both the gut
and central nervous system resulting in diarrhea and meningismus?
a) Shigella sonnie
b) Shigella dysenteriae type 1
c) Shigella dysenteriae type 2
d) Shigella dysenteriae type 3

17) S. enteritidis and S. typhimurium causes enterocolitis and gastroenteritis in humans. What
is the most common food for the transmission of this infection?
a) Raw meat
b) Eggs
c) Canned beans
d) Yogurt

18) The biochemical test used to identify and determine the ability of a bacteria to convert
tryptophan into indole is?
a) IMViC test
b) MRVP test
c) TSI test
d) Citrate test

19) Which one is not the selective culture media for salmonellae and shigellae?
a) Deoxycholate citrate agar
b) Xylose-lysine decarboxylase agar
c) Salmonella –shigella agar
d) Blood agar

20) The Widal test is used for the detection of Salmonella typhi and other subspecies. This test
is based on the principle where?
a) the antigens are detected using the neutralization assay
b) the antigen combines with its soluble antibody and form a lattice and develops a visible
precipitate
c) the antigens bind to RBCs and form the agglutination
d) None of the above
Multiple Choice Answers
1)-c,
2)-c,
3)-d,
4)-b,
5)-d,
6)-c,
7)-b,
8)-d,
9)-a,
10)-b
11)-c,
12)-d,
13)-a,
14)-c,
15)-a,
16)-b,
17)-b,
18)-a,
19)-d,
20)-b

Multiple Choice Question on Mycobacteria tuberculosis and Mycobacteria leprae

1) Mycobacteria are acid-fast positive bacteria because of:

a) the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the bacterial cell wall
b) the presence of mycolic acid in the bacterial cell wall
c) the presence of lipids
d) Both B and C options given above

2) Which of the following first-line antibiotics are usually resistant to Mycobacterium

tuberculosis?
a) Isoniazid and ciprofloxacin
b) Isoniazid and Rifampin
c) Rifampin and ciprofloxacin
d) Rifampin and streptomycin

3) What is the mechanism responsible for antibiotic resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a) Mutations in DNA gyrase gene
b) Alterations in beta-lactamase
c) Mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene
d) Alterations in RNA polymerase

4) All of the following are the examples of selective media used for culture of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, except?
a) Inspissated egg media
b) Middlebrook 7H10/7H11 media with antibiotics
c) Dubos media
d) Middlebrook 7H10 media without antibiotics

5) Which of the following statement is true about the tuberculin test and purified protein
derivative (PPD)?
a) The presence of intradermal skin induration is observed in 6 to 8 hours after being applied
b) The redness of skin or erythema is also measured while reading the tuberculin test
c) A positive tuberculin test means that a person was infected with M. tuberculosis in the past
and continues to carry the viable organism
d) A positive PPD test indicates that a person can never be infected with M. tuberculosis

6) Which of the following is fast growing, non-chromogenic rod bacilli?

a) Mycobacterium ulcerans
b) Mycobacterium avium complex
c) Mycobacterium leprae
d) Mycobacterium fortuitum

7) All of the following are the symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis, EXCEPT?

a) Weakness and fatigue
b) Decreased body temperature
c) Weight loss
d) Severe prolonged cough with sputum or blood

8) Which of these following categories of people do not require the test for TB infection?
a) A 30 years old man traveling from India to the USA for the first time
b) A 45 years old woman contradicted with HIV infection
c) A 7 years old healthy girl living together with her grandmother who has tuberculosis infection
d) None of the above

9) Which of the following bacteria causes lung infection and is the most common non-
tuberculous mycobacterial infection associated with AIDS patients?
a) Mycobacterium avium complex
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium gordonae
d) Mycobacterium gastri

10) A 40 years old patient who has clinical symptoms pulmonary tuberculosis for the past two
months. The chest x-ray examination revealed a typical feature of tuberculosis infection. A
photochromogenic (orange pigment when exposed to UV light) acid-fast rod bacterium was
isolated from the sputum sample. The identified bacteria is:
a) Mycobacterium avium
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycobacterium kansasii
d) Mycobacterium leprae

11) All of the given are the distinguishing characteristics of Mycobacterium leprae, EXCEPT:
a) Acid-fast bacilli
b) cannot be isolated by in-vitro culture method
c) is a human and as well as animal pathogen
d) can be isolated by in-vivo culture method

12) Which one of the following acid-fast rod bacilli can take up to ten years for its growth in host
cells and causes skin infections?
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Mycobacterium avium complex
c) Mycobacterium leprae
d) Nocardia spp

13) Other than Mycobacterium tuberculosis which of the given bacteria causes tuberculosis
infection in animals and can be transmitted to human by consumption of milk and other animal
products?
a) Mycobacterium ulcerans
b) Mycobacterium leprae
c) Mycobacterium bovis
d) Mycobacterium abscessus

14) The treatment regimen for initial therapy of tuberculosis caused by M.

tuberculosis includes?
a) Streptomycin and rifampin
b) Isoniazid, streptomycin, and ethambutol
c) Rifampin, isoniazid, and ciprofloxacin
d) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol

15) What is the interferon-gamma release assay?

a) The antigen detection test for the Mycobacterium spp
b) The DNA detection test in Mycobacterium spp
c) The test used as an alternative tuberculin skin test in latent tuberculosis
d) The test used as an alternative tuberculin skin test in active tuberculosis

Multiple Choice Answers Review

1-d) Both B and C options given above
2-b) Isoniazid and Rifampin
3-c) Mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene
4-d) Middlebrook 7H10 media without antibiotics
5-c) A positive tuberculin test means that a person was infected with M. tuberculosis in the past
and continues to carry the viable organism
6- d) Mycobacterium fortuitum
7- b) Decreased body temperature
8- d) None of the above 9-a) Mycobacterium avium
10-c) Mycobacterium kansasi
11-c) is a human and as well as animal pathogen
12-c) Mycobacterium leprae
13-c) Mycobacterium bovis
14-d) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
15-a) The antigen detection test for the Mycobacterium spp

Multiple Choice Question on Pseudomonas & Acinetobacter

1) Which one of the given statements is not true about Pseudomonads?
a) Rod-shaped, often curved
b) Motile
c) Found in soil and water and plants
d) All species cause diseases in humans only

2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a water-soluble blue color pigment called pyocyanin and
…............ color pigment pyoverdin.
a) Green
b) Blue-green
c) Red
d) Pink-red

3) Patients with cystic fibrosis infection suffer from a chronic lung infection caused
by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacterial growth results in …........formation and clogs the
lung airways.
a) Pigment
b) Biofilm
c) White blood cells
d) Endotoxin

4) Isolation of Pseudomonas aeruginosa from a mucoid sputum specimen obtained from a

patient with cystic fibrosis is usually done by standard culture method. After the incubation,
mucoid bacterial colonies can be seen on the agar media which have a grape-like odor, what are
the best growth temperature and incubation period for the given bacteria?
a) 42 degree Celsius for 48 hours
b) 37 degree Celsius for 48 hours
c) 42 degree Celsius for 24 hours
d) 37 degree Celsius for 42 hours

5) All of the following statements for Pseudomonas aeruginosa are true, except;
a) It is oxidase positive
b) It does not grow well at 42c
c) It is an opportunistic pathogen
d) It contains fimbriae

7) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is frequently associated with the hospital-acquired bacterial

infection, mostly affecting immunocompromised patients. Which of the following is/are
example/examples of the various means by which bacteria can transfer and cause infection to
the susceptible patient?
a) Healthcare workers
b) Contaminated equipment
c) Air droplets
d) All of the above

8) Multiple virulence factors play an important role in the mechanism of pathogenesis

by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, one of the main virulent structural components is pili, which
helps the bacteria to adhere to the cell surfaces. Which one is not the virulence
factor Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a) Hemolysins
b) Pigments
c) Phospholipase B
d) Extracellular protease
9) Apart from Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which one of the following gram-negative bacteria can
be frequently associated with nosocomial infections?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Candida albicans
c) Eikenella corrodens
d) Acinetobacter baumannii

10) Which one of the following is not the general characteristic of the HACEK ( Haemophilus,
Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Eikinella, Kingella) organisms?
a) Normal flora of the oral cavity
b) Require CO2 for growth
c) Grow well on MacConkey agar
d) Causative agents of infectious endocarditis

11) Burkholderia pseudomallei is aerobic, gram-negative, motile, aerobic, saprophytic bacteria.

It grows at 42-degree celsius in standard agar media forming mucoid colonies, cream to orange
in color.
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Burkholderia mallie
c) Acinetobacter baumannii
d) Burkholderia pseudomallei

12) Which are the most common bacteria found in a specimen taken from burned patients?
a) Streptococcus epidermis
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Acinetobacter baumannii
d) Moraxella catarahalis

13) Acinetobacter baumannii is one of the most ............ gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria.
a) Multidrug resistant
b) Fastidious
c) Active
d) Infectious

14) Which of the following is a small, capnophilic, gram-negative, oxidase positive bacillus is
frequently found in human bite infections.
a) Eikenella corrodens
b) Moraxella spp
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Burkholderia mallie

15) Capnophiles are microorganisms that can grow in high concentrations of..............
a) Oxygen
b) Sugar
c) Carbon dioxide
d) pH

16) The isolation of this gram-negative bacteria associated with cystic fibrosis can be done by
culturing the specimen in selective media containing colistin. A sputum sample is taken and
cultured, colonies appear only after 72 hours of the incubation period, these bacteria are oxidase
positive and further identification is done by using molecular methods, which bacteria is this?
a) Enterobacter aerogenes
b) Burkholderia cepacia
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Acinetobacter johnsonii

17) …............is the part of the normal flora and is one of the most common causes of acute septic
arthritis seen in children.
a) Moraxella catarrhalis
b) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c) Cardiobacterium hominis
d) Kingella kingae

18) Which of the following gram-negative bacteria is a plant pathogen?

a) Pseudomonas syringae
b) Burkholderia glanders
c) Chryseobacterium spp
d) Capnocytophaga spp

19) Name the bacteria used as bioremediation agents which have the ability to degrade organic
solvents such as toluene.
a) Pseudomonas syringae
b) Acinetobacter baumannii
c) Pseudomonas alcaligens
d) Pseudomonas putida

20) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to most of the antibiotics and this is mainly due to
chromosomally encoded antibiotic resistance genes and the............ of the bacterial cellular
envelopes.
a) Low susceptibility
b) High permeability
c) Low permeability
d) High susceptibility

Multiple Choice Answer Review

1-d) All species cause diseases in humans only
2-a) Green
3-b) Biofilm
4-a) 42 degree Celsius for 48 hours
5-d) All of the above
7-d)All of the above
8)- c) Phospholipase B
9-d) Acinetobacter baumannii
10-d) Causative agents of infectious endocarditis
11- d) Burkholderia pseudomallei
12-b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
13-a) Multidrug resistant
14-a) Eikenella corrodens
15-c) Carbon dioxide
16-b) Burkholderia cepacia
17-d) Kingella kingae
18-a) Pseudomonas syringae
19-d) Pseudomonas putida
20-c) Low permeability
Multiple Choice Question on Vibrios, Campylobacters, Helicobacter

1) A stool specimen from 5 years old child is cultured in selective media having high pH
concentration. After the incubation, colonies appear smooth and round and identified as a
comma-shaped, gram-negative, motile bacteria. Name the bacteria isolated?
a) Aeromonas spp
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Streptococcus pyogens
d) Vibrio cholerae

2) Vibrio cholerae causes Cholera and mostly occurs in developing countries, symptoms include
diarrhea and vomiting within 2-3 days after the ingestion of contaminated water or food. Name
the type of diarrhea caused by V.cholerae?
a) Acute watery diarrhea with blood
b) Acute watery diarrhea resembling rice water
c) Mild watery diarrhea resembling rice water
d) Acute watery diarrhea with no blood

3)What is the most common food that causes foodborne gastro-enteritis by Vibrio
parahaemolyticus?
a) Chicken
b) Fish
c) Oysters
d) Rice

4) Which of the following statements is/are not correct about Aeromonas spp and Plesiomonas
spp?
a) Both are oxidase positive
b) They can be found in freshwater and soil
c) They are gram-negative rods
d) Grow well on TCBS (thiosulphate citrate bile salt) media

5) Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common causes of food poisoning, which also has
been associated with post diarrheal syndrome, the syndrome is called..........…......?
a) Toxic shock syndrome
b) Guillain-Barre syndrome
c) Short bowel syndrome
d) Rett syndrome

6) Campylobacter jejuni is a microaerophilic bacteria, which of the following statement is true

for the culture of this bacteria?
a) An atmosphere of increased O2 (10%) with added CO2 (5%)
b) An atmosphere of reduced O2 (5%) with added CO2 (10%)
c) An atmosphere of reduced CO2 (5%) with added CO2 (10%)
d) An atmosphere of increased CO2(10%) with added O2 (5%)

7) What is/are not the growth characteristics of Campylobacter spp? Select from all the options
given below.
a) Oxidase and catalase positive
b) Produce H2S
c) Ferment carbohydrates
d) Have darting motility

8) Helicobacter pylori is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT?

a) Malt lymphoma
b) Gastric carcinoma
c) Peptic ulcer
d) Burkitt lymphoma

9) Which one of the following virulence factors may be associated with the pathogenesis of
infection caused by Helicobacter pylori?
a) Flagella
b) Lipopolysaccharides
c) Exotoxins
d) Endotoxins

10) Which one of these is not the common laboratory tests for the identification of Helicobacter
pylori?
a) Biopsy test
b) Urease breath test
c) Stool antigen test
d) Urine test

11) Which of the following biotypes of Vibrio cholerae is prevalent in developing countries?
a) EL Tor
b) Classic
c) Biotype 0139
d) Biotype 139

12) Aeromonas hydrophila mostly causes infections to fish and amphibians and less pathogenic
to humans, one of the most common infection in human is gastroenteritis. What is the other
common human disease caused by bacteria?
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Cellulitis
c) Asthma
d) Gastritis

13) Helicobacter pylori infection is most prevalent in developing countries, in what age people
the chances of infection is the highest?
a) 10 to 30
b) 30 to 50
c) 60 and above
d) Infant

14) Vibrio vulnificus and V. parahaemolyticus both gram-negative, motile bacteria are mostly
found in warm coastal areas. What is/are the common source through which these bacteria can
be transferred to human and cause infections?
a) Water
b) Oysters
c) Shellfish
d) All of the above

15) …............... is less likely to cause gastroenteritis or diarrheal disease in humans.

a) Vibrio spp
b) Salmonella spp
c) Plesiomonas spp
d) Campylobacter spp

Multiple Choice Answers Review

1-d) Vibrio cholera
2-b) Acute watery diarrhea resembling rice water
3-c) Oysters
4-d) Grow well on TCBS (thiosulphate citrate bile salt) media
5-b) Guillain-Barre syndrome
6-b) An atmosphere of reduced O2 (5%) with added CO2 (10%)
7- c) Ferment carbohydrates
8-d) Burkitt lymphoma
9-d) Endotoxins
10-d) Urine test
11- a) EL Tor
12-b) Cellulitis
13-c) 60 and above
14-d) All of the above
15-c) Plesiomonas spp
STAPH ,STREP,MYCOPLASMA,CORNY,CLOSTRIDIA,HAEMOPHILUS

Which of the following Staphylococcal haemolysins does not cause lysis of human RBCs?

A. β haemolysin

B. γ haemolysin

C. α haemolysin

D. δ haemolysin

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that may result into scalded skin syndrome is
A. Enterotoxin

B. Leucocidin

C. Epidermolytic toxin

D. Haemolysin

Answer: Option C

Which of the following genus of bacteria causes gastroenteritis in humans?

a) Salmonella
b) Enterobacter
c) Escherichia
d) Shigella

The X factor and/or the V factor is required by which genus of bacteria?

a) Pasteurella
b) Haemophilus
c) Actinobacillus
d) Zymomonas

Which is the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the US?

a) Syphilis
b) AIDS
c) Lymphogranuloma venerum
d) Nongonococcal urethritis
Mycoplasmas can be cultivated in vitro on nonliving media as _____________
a) facultative aerobes
b) obligate aerobes
c) facultative anaerobes
d) microaerophile

The colonies of Mycoplasmas in agar plate can be observed by means of a _______________

a) low-power microscope
b) high-power microscope
c) phase contrast microscopy
d) bright-field microscopy

What type of colonies are formed by Mycoplasmas on the agar plate?

a) colourless
b) coloured
c) lawn formation
d) fried-egg

Among the following which is positive for coagulase test?

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
d) E.coli

Which of the following species of streptococci belongs to Lancefield group N?

a) S.pyogenes
b) S.mutans
c) S.pneumoniae
d) S.cremoris

S.pneumoniae produces which of the following type of colonies?

a) alpha-haemolytic
b) beta-haemolytic
c) non-haemolytic
d) alpha-, beta-haemolytic

Which of the following is the causative agent of dental caries?

a) S.pneumoniae
b) S.pyogenes
c) S.mutans
d) S.faecalis

C.perfringens is the major causative agent of __________________

a) botulism
b) tetanus
c) gas gangrene
d) anthrax

Volutin granules stain which colour with dilute methylene blue?

a) Violet
b) Blue
c) Red
d) Reddish purple
The causative agent of leprosy is __________
a) M.intracellulare
b) M.leprae
c) M.kansasii
d) M.phlei

1.Which of the following Haemophilus spp require both the X (hemin) and V (NAD) factors for
its growth? ANS:HAEMOPHILUS HAEMOLYTICUS
 BACTERIAL CULTURE,CLASSIFICATION,GROWTH CURVE,MICROSCOPY
1.Which of the following instrument is used for the bacterial count?
a) Petroff-Hausser counting chamber
b) Microscope
c) Chemostat
d) Turbidostat

2.The portion of the growth curve where rapid growth of bacteria is observed is known as ____________
a) Lag phase
b) Logarithmic phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Decline phase

3.Lag phase is also known as ___________

a) period of initial adjustment
b) transitional period
c) generation time
d) period of rapid growth

4.The generation time for E.coli is ________

a) 20 minutes
b) 35 minutes
c) 2 minutes
d) 13 minutes

5.During exponential phase, growth rate is _______

a) same as generation time
b) reciprocal of generation time
c) time required for population to double
d) rate of doubling population

6. The GasPak system is suitable for which of the following?

a) Aerobic bacteria
b) Anaerobic bacteria
c) Facultatively anaerobic bacteria
d) Microaerophilic bacteria

7, Nutrient broth, a liquid media contains beef extract and peptone respectively in how much amounts?
a) 0.2%, 0.4%
b) 0.1%, 0.6%
c) 0.3%, 0.5%
d) 0.7%, 0.3%
9. What is the correct order of staining reagents in Gram-Staining?
a) Crystal violet, alcohol, iodine solution, safranin
b) Crystal violet, iodine solution, alcohol, safranin
c) Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine solution
d) Iodine solution, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin

10. Which bacteria appears purple-violet colour after staining?

a) Gram-positive
b) Gram-negative
c) Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative
d) Neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative

11. Which of the staining technique helps in demonstrating spore structure in bacteria as well as free
spores?
a) Acid-fast stain
b) Endospore stain
c) Capsule stain
d) Flagella stain

12. . Which of the following is used in electron microscope?

a) electron beams
b) magnetic fields
c) light waves
d) electron beams and magnetic fields

13. Which of the following are true for electron microscopy?

a) specimen should be thin and dry
b) image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
c) electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
d) specimen should be thin and dry, image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen and electron beam
must pass through evacuated chamber

14. Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture of the specimen?
a) Transmission Electron Microscope
b) Scanning Electron Microscope
c) Compound Microscope
d) Simple Microscope

15. Which of the following techniques are used in Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM) for examining
cellular structure?
a) Negative-Staining
b) Shadow Casting
c) Ultrathin Sectioning
d) Negative-Staining, Shadow Casting, Ultrathin Sectioning, Freeze-Etching
16. Which part of the compound microscope helps in gathering and focusing light rays on the specimen to
be viewed?
a) Eyepiece lens
b) Objective lens
c) Condenser lens
d) Magnifying lens

17. What is the minimum distance for the eye to focus any object?
a) 11 cm
b) 25 cm
c) 32 cm
d) 4 2 cm

18. Resolving power of a microscope is a function of ____________

a) Wavelength of light used
b) Numerical aperture of lens system
c) Refractive index
d) Wavelength of light used and numerical aperture of lens system

19. Oil immersion objective lens has an NA value of____________

a) 0.65
b) 0.85
c) 1.33
d) 1.00

20. In fluorescence microscopy, which of the following performs the function of removing all light except
the blue light?
a) Exciter filter
b) Barrier filter
c) Dichroic mirror
d) Mercury arc lamp

21. In Phase contrast microscopy, the rate at which light enters through objects is __________
a) Constant
b) Inversely proportional to their refractive indices
c) Directly proportional to their refractive indices
d) Exponentially related to their refractive indices

22. Which part of the light microscope controls the intensity of light entering the viewing area?
a) Coarse adjustment screw
b) Fine adjustment screw
c) Diaphragm
d) Condenser lens
23. Which among the following kingdoms were proposed by Whittaker?
a) Monera
b) Protista, Fungi
c) Plantae, Animalia
d) Monera,Protista,Fungi,Plantae,Animalia

24. According to Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology, prokaryotes that lack a cell wall belong to
the group?
a) Gracilicutes
b) Firmicutes
c) Tenericutes
d) Mendosicutes

25. Which of the following are characteristics of archaebacterial different from eubacteria?
a) methane-producers
b) extreme halophiles
c) thermoacidophiles
d) methane-producers, extreme halophiles, and thermoacidophiles
1.Whatis the color coding of the bag used in hospitals to dispose off human
anatomical wastes such as body parts:

a.red b.yellow c.blue d.black

2.When you find biomedical waste in regular waste, which of these things should
you do?
Fill out an AEMS report
Notify the area leader
Notify your Service Coordinator
All of the above

3. diaper contaminated with cytotoxic is considered biomedical waste

True
False

4. You should never transport a grey tote when the liner is visible on the outside of
the container.

True
False

5. Cytotoxic should be placed in which container?

Yellow Container
Grey Container
Red Container
White Container

6. Biohazardous sharps containers must be rigid, leak resistant and puncture proof.

True
False
7.Biohazardous waste must have the "Biohazardous Waste" symbol visible and
legible on the container.
True
False
8. What are the steps to take if you are exposed to blood or other infectious
materials?

Needle sticks or sharps injuries should be immediately washed with soap and
water
Irrigate eyes with an eye wash for 10 to 15 mintues
Report the incident to your supervisor and seek immediate medical treatment
All of the above

9. Which container would anatomical waste go in?

Grey tote
Red pail
Pharma pail
Yellow pail
10. Where would you put a syringe?

Pharma pail
Sharps container
Gray tote/yellow pail
Red pail

11. What container would you put a cytotoxic vial in to?

Red pail
Sharps container
Pharma pail
Grey tote/yellow pail

12. What container would you choose for a placenta?

Red pail
Grey tote
Yellow pail
Regular waste
13. Where would you put pills?

Down the toilet

In the regular waste
Pharma pail
Red pail

14. Where would you put a blood product pack?

Red pail
Grey tote/Yellow pail
Regular waste
Pharma pail

15. Where would you put a scalpel?

Yellow pail
Red pail
White pail
Sharps containe
ANTIGEN ANTIBODIES REACTION

Commercially available ELISA kits are used for the detection of

A. rotavirus

B. hepatitis B surface antigen

C. anti-HIV antibodies

D. all of these
Answer: Option D

1. VDRL test is an example of

A. Tube test

B. Ring test

C. Slide test

D. none of these
Answer: Option C

gglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for the detection of

A. antigens

B. antibodies

C. complement

D. antigen-antibody complexes
Answer: Option A

Precipitation reaction is relatively less sensitive for the detection of

A. antigens

B. antigen-antibody complexes

C. antibodies

D. complement
Answer: Option C
ANTIGEN ANTIBODIES REACTION

MCQs -Antibodies

1. Which of the following antibody is an important host defense against encapsulated bacteria?
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4
2. Which of the following immunoglobulin is the most abundant immunoglobulin in newborns?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
3. Whch of the following immunoglobulin is produced early in the primary response to infection?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. igM
4. Which of the following immunoglobulin is the main host defense against parasititc infections?
a. Secretory IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
5. Which of the following immunoglobulin has the highest avidity of the immunoglobulins?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgG
6. The order of percent of total immunoglobulin in serum is,
a. IgM, IgA, IgG, IgD, IgE
b. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
c. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
d. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE
7. Which of the following antibody is prominent antigen receptor expressed on B Cells?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
8. The antibody which is found in secretions is:
a. IgD
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgA
9. Which of the following antibody directly take part in opsonization process?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE
10. Complement fixation is one of the most important host defense against infections. The complement is
activated by;
ANTIGEN ANTIBODIES REACTION

a. IgM Only
b. IgG only
c. both IgM and IgG
d. all five classes of antibodies activate complements.
1. b
2.c
3. d
4. d
5. b
6. d
7. c
8. d
9. b
10. c

IMMUNITY

1. Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which of the following
processes?
a. vaccination
b. drinking colostrum
c. natural birth
d. infection with disease causing organism followed by recovery.
2. Which of the following convey the longest lasting immunity to an infectious agent?
a. Naturally acquired passive immunity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. All of these
e. None of these
3. Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response unless they are bound to
a larger molecule?
a. Antigen
b. Virus
c. Hapten
d. Miligen
e. Antibody
4. B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in:
a. Bone marrow
b. The liver
c. The circulatory system
d. The spleen
e. The lymph nodes
5. B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the
a. Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
b. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
c. Bone marrow and GALT/Thymus
d. Liver/Kidneys
6. Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular
pathogens?
ANTIGEN ANTIBODIES REACTION

a. T helper cells
b. B cells
c. Antibodies
d. Complement
e.T cytolytic cells
7. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered:
a. A toxoid
b. Dormant
c. Virulent
d. Attenuated
e. Denatured
8. B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called:
a. Memory cells
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Killer cells
e. Neutrophils
9. The specificity of an antibody is due to
a. its valence
b. The heavy chains
c. The Fc portion of the molecule
d. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
10. In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a………
in precipitation reactions, the antigen is a……………
a. whole cell/soluble molecule
b. Soluble molecule/whole cell
c. Bacterium/virus
d. Protein/carbohydrates
e. Protein/Antibody
11. B Cells are activated by
a. Complement
b. Antibody
c. Interferon
d. Memory cells
e. Antigen
12. Fusion between a plasma cell and a tumor cell creates a
a. Myeloma
b. Natural killer cell
c. Lymphoblast
d. Lymphoma
e. Hybridoma
13. Cell mediated immunity is carried out by………….. while humoral immunity is mainly carried out
by………………..
a. B cells/T cells
b. Epitopes/Antigens
c. T cells/B cells
d. Antibodies/Antigens
e. Antibodies/Phagocytes
14. The ability of the immune system to recognize self antigens versus nonself antigen is an example
of:
a. Specific immunity
b. Tolerance
c. Cell mediated immunity
d. Antigenic immunity
e. Humoral immunity
ANTIGEN ANTIBODIES REACTION
1.The epidemic that infected Europe, Middle East and North Africa and killed tens of millions of people was
known as the Black Death.
The disease was caused by

) Anthrax

b) Breathing of foul air

c) Bubonic plague

d) Small pox

e) Swine flu

2.The event that triggered the development and establishment of microbiology as a science is the

a) Development of Microscope

b) Germ theroy of disease

c) Spontaneous generation

d) Use of disinfectants

e) Vaccinations

3.Which of the following pioneers of Microbiology is credited with the discovery of microorganisms using high
quality magnifying lenses (early microscopes)?

a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

b) Louis Pasteur

c) Robert Hooke

d) Robert Koch

e) Semmelweis

4.Which scientists’ first disproved spontaneous generation by showing that maggots only appear
on decaying meat that has been exposed to flies?

a) Francesco Redi

b) Joseph Lister

c) Louis Pasteur

d) Robert Hooke
e) Robert Koch
5.The purpose of swan-necked flasks that Louis Pasteur designed to disprove spontaneous
generation is to:

a) Allow the multiplication of microbes in the broth

b) Implicate the role of flies in the development of maggots on rotting meat

c) Pasteurize the meat broth

d) Prevent air from entering the flask

e) Trap the microbes and prevent them from reaching the broth

7.The Alpha helical structure of DNA was discovered by:

a) Edward Tatum

b) Eile Metchnikoff

c) James Watson and Francis Crick

d) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin McLeod

e) Paul Ehrlich

8.Who is known as the father of medical microbiology

a)Koch

b)Pasteur

c)Jenner

d)Tautum

9.Who is known as father of microbiology

a)Robert hook

b)Pasteur

c)Leewenhoek

10.Who developed smallpox vaccine for the first time

a)koch

b)Jennrer

c)Lister

d)Pasteur
 MENINGITIS & STD MCQ
1.What is meningitis?

A. an infection of the heart

B. an infection of the coverings around the brain and spinal cord
C. an infection of the dura mater
D. a sickness of the mind

2. Is not as common but is very serious, it needs to be treated right away to prevent brain
damage and death

A. Viral meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Bacterial spinal tap
D. Viral Meningis

3.Is fairly common but can be severe in some cases which can cause prolonged fever
and seizures

A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Viral Meningitis
C. Chordalia
D. Bacterial plague

4. Which is not a symptom of Meningitis?

A. Fever
B. Headache
C. seizures
D. insomnia

5.How is meningitis not transmitted?

A. coughing
B. sneezing
C. kissing
D. playing ping pong

6. The cytomegalovirus (CMV) can be spread by sexual contact and also by:
A. Kissing
.B .Sharing an office with an infected person
C. Changing a child's wet diapers
D. A and C
7. Which major organ can be affected by untreated syphilis?
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Liver
D. A and B

8. Gonorrhea is treated with antibiotics. What problem has occurred recently in

treatment?

A. Antibiotics have been in short supply

B. The bacteria that cause gonorrhea have become resistant to certain antibiotics
C. People have developed an allergic reaction to certain antibiotics
D. All of the above

9. Which is the most common STI caused by bacteria?

A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. Genital warts

10. Which of these is a health problem that can be caused by STIs in women?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Higher risk for cervical cancer
D. All of the above
1. Which of the following fungi is most likely to be found within reticuloendothelial cells.
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Candida albicans
2. Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of
a. Metachromatic granules
b. Psuedohyphae
c. Septate hyphae
d. Budding cells
3. Fungi often colonize lesions due to other causes. Which of the following is least likely to be present as
colonizer
a. Candida
b. Sporothrix
c. Mucor
d. Aspergillus
4. A girl who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule that progresses to
an ulcer. Several nodules then develop along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely agent is
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Candida albicans
5. Immunocompromised persons are suffered from several fungal diseases. Which of the following is the
least frequently associated
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Malassezia furfur
d. Mucor species
6. Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans are correct EXCEPT
a. Its natural habitat is the soil, especially associated with pigeon feces
b. Budding yeasts are found in the lesions
c. The initial site of infection is usually the lung
d. Pathogenesis is related primarily to the production of exotoxin A.
7. Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients with
a. Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis
b. Mycetoma, candidiasis and mucormycosis
c. Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor
d. Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor
8. Which of the following is not the characteristics of histoplasmosis
a. Person to person transmission
b. Specific geographic distribution
c. Yeasts in tissue
d. mycelial phase in the soil
9. Infection with dermatophyte is most often associated with
a. intravenous drug abuse
b. inhalation of the organism from contaminated bird feces
c. adherence of the organism to perspiration moist skin
d. Fecal-oral transmission
10. Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is correct except
a. C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms psuedohyphae when it invades tissue
b. C. albicans causes thrush
c. C. albicans is transmitted primarily by respiratory aerosol
d. Impaired cell mediated immunity is an important predisposing factor to disease

Answers Key (MCQ Mycology)

 1. a 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. c

A 33-year-old HIV-positive man complains of headache and blurred

vision. Physical examination reveals papilledema and ataxia. A head CT
scan is normal, but CSF obtained by lumbar puncture reveals
encapsulated organisms visible by India ink. Which of the following is
true concerning this organism?

It can also be seen as "spaghetti and meatballs" on KOH stain

It is an encapsulated non dimorphic yeast found worldwide

It exists as a mycelial form at room temperature and a yeast at 37°C

It is a nonencapsulated dimorphic yeast that reproduces by budding

It consists of branching septate hyphae

Aspergillus fumigatus can be involved in a variety of clinical conditions.

Which one of the following is LEAST likely to occur?

• Thrush

• Allergy following inhalation of airborne particles of the fungus

• Colonization of tuberculous cavities in the lung

• Tissue invasion in immunocompromised host

You suspect that your patient’s disease may be caused by Cryptococcus

neoformans. Which one of the following findings would be MOST useful
in establishing the diagnosis?

• A positive heterophil agglutination test for the presence of antigen

• A history of recent travel in the Mississippi River valley area

• Recovery of an acid-fast organism from the patient’s sputum

• The finding of encapsulated budding cells in spinal fluid

Your patient is a woman with a vaginal discharge. You suspect, on
clinical grounds, that it may be due to Candida albicans. Which one of
the following statements is LEAST accurate or appropriate?

• Culture of the discharge on Sabouraud’s agar should produce a white mycelium with aerial
conidia.

• A Gram stain of the discharge should reveal budding yeasts.

• The clinical laboratory can use germ tube formation to identify the isolate as C. albicans.

• Antibiotics predispose to Candida vaginitis by killing the normal flora lactobacilli that keep the
vaginal pH low.

A 55-year-old man who recently recovered uneventfully from a heart

valve transplant presents to the emergency room with pleuritic chest
pain, hemoptysis, fever, and chills. While he is being examined, he has a
myocardial infarction and the medical team is unable to revive him. An
autopsy revealed septate, acutely branching hyphae in many tissues.
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be identified?

• Histoplasma capsulatum

• Mucor species

• Blastomyces dermatitidis

• Cryptococcus neoformans

• Aspergillus fumigatus

A 35-year-old man with a CD4 count of 50 presents with a skin nodule

on his chest. The nodule is about 3 cm in diameter and is not red, hot, or
tender. He says it has been slowly growing bigger for the past 3 weeks.
You biopsy the nodule, and the pathologist calls to say that the patient
has disseminated cryptococcosis. Which one of the following is the
BEST description of what the pathologist saw in the biopsy specimen?

• Non-septate hyphae

• Budding yeasts with a thick capsule

• Septate hyphae with low-angle branching

• Germ tubes

• Spherules
parasitology

• Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating

inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:

Clonorchis sinensis

Diphyllobothrium latum

Ancylostoma duodenale This is the correct answ

Paragonimus westermani

Four weeks after his arrival from Africa, a 24-year-old graduate student
presents with blood in his urine. Microscopic examination of his urine
reveals the presence of eggs with terminal spines. In the interview he
admits that he has been working on his family's rice field occasionally
since his early childhood. The most likely etiologic agent of his complaint
is

• Schistosoma haematobium

• Entamoeba histolytica

• Schistosoma japonicum

• Fasciolopsis buski

• Schistosoma mansoni

The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly
and scratching his anal area. You suspect the child may have pinworms.
Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis?

• Examine the stool for the presence of cysts

• Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism

• Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs

• Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria

 • Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites

Larval stage of Taenia saginata is called

• hydatid cyst

• cysticercus cellulosae

• cysticercoid

• cysticercus bovis

Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct

EXCEPT:
Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow.

Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani.

Kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies.

Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural Latin America.

Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:

• quadrinucleate cyst

• trophozoite

• filariform larvae

• sporozoite

Each of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquitoes EXCEPT:

• Plasmodium vivax

• Wuchereria bancrofti

• Leishmania donovani

• Plasmodium falciparum
Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii is
correct EXCEPT:

• T. gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool.

• T. gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.

• T. gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.

• T. gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus.

Each of the following statements concerning Schistosoma

haematobium is correct EXCEPT:

• S. haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the skin.

• S. haematobium infection predisposes to bladder carcinoma.

• S. haematobium eggs have no spine.

• Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium.

Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct

EXCEPT:

• G. lamblia causes hemolytic anemia.

• G. lamblia can be diagnosed by the string test in which a weighted string is swallowed and
passes into the upper GI tract.

• G. lamblia is transmitted by the fecal–oral route from both human and animal sources.

• G. lamblia has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in its life cycle.

A 35-year-old captain in the army reserves has been plagued by a

painful, erosive lesion near his ear lobe since his return from Operation
Desert Storm several years ago. He denies exposure to the toxic by-
products of burning oil fields. Punch biopsy of the leading edge of the
erosion reveals macrophages distended with oval amastigotes. How was
this infection acquired?
Bite of Anopheles mosquito

Contact with contaminated drinking water

Fecal contamination of food

Bite of sandfly Th

Bite of tsetse fly

Bite of reduviid bug

Each of the following parasites has an intermediate host as part of its life
cycle EXCEPT:
Toxoplasma gondii

Echinococcus granulosus

Taenia solium

Trichomonas vaginalis

Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct EXCEPT:

• The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract.

• The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector.

• Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes.

• Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes periodic fever and chills.

Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human
infection EXCEPT:
Wuchereria bancrofti This is the correct answer

Strongyloides stercoralis

Necator americanus

Ascaris lumbricoides

The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni adult worms is:

 • Intestinal venules

• Bone marrow

• Renal tubules

• Lung alveoli

Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is

correct EXCEPT:

• Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool.

• Hookworm infection can cause anemia.

• Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.

• Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin.

A 24-year-old primiparous woman in her eighth month of gestation

develops a positive IgM titer to Toxoplasma gondii for the first time. She
should be advised by her physician that

• a newborn with a positive anti-Toxoplasma IgG response should be treated with anti-parasitics

• retinochoroiditis can be prevented by drug treatment of an infant with a positive IgM response

• major organ damage can be reversed by prompt treatment of the newborn

• future infections can be avoided by proper vaccination and worming of cats

• this child and all future fetuses are likely to be infected

Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is

correct EXCEPT:

• A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.

• A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.

• Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides.

• A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.

Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following
parasites EXCEPT:

• Ascaris lumbricoides

• Taenia solium

• Echinococcus granulosus

• Trichinella spiralis

Mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica is:

• octanucleate

• uninucleate

• quadrinucleate

• binucleate
1.______________ is the most commonly acquired hospital infection
A. Surgical wound infection
B.Urinary tract infection
C. Respiratory tract infection
D. Infectious diarrhea

2._________ and _________ are the most common causes of infection in hospitals.
A. Bacterial and fungal
B. Staphylococci and e.coli
C. Staphylococci and p.aeruginosa
D. E.coli and p.aeroginosa

3. E.coli is......
A. Gram negative
B. Gram positive
C. A protozoan
D. A spirocete

4. Which of the following bacteria are gram (-) and tend to colonize in moist areas?
A. E.coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Mycobacteria
D. Pseudomonas
E. Acinetobacter

5. Hand-washing hygiene is so important because ____________ are not usually part of the resident skin
flora, but are readily carried on the hands.
A. Gram negative cocci
B. Gram negative rods
C. Gram positive cocci
D. Gram positive rods

6. A 3-fold increased risk of C.diff infection has been associated worldwide with the widespread use of
what drug?
A. Cephalosporins
B. Macrolides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Sulfonamides

7. Rates of CDI are higher and outcomes are worse in patients with
A. Peptic ulcer disease
B. Inflammatory bowel disease
C. Celiac disease
D. Ulcerative colitis
8. A typical initial manifestation of CDI is
A. Marked abdominal distension
B. Vomiting
C. Dyspepsia
D. Watery diarrhea

9. The gold standard for diagnosing CDI is

A. A PCR test
B. A cell culture cytotoxic assay
C. Stool culture and sensitivity testing
D. Small bowel biopsy

10. Because of its associated neurotoxicity, repeated recurrences of CDI should not be treated with
A. Vancomycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clarithromycin
1.Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat
sterilization?

• Intravenous (IV) solution

• rubber gloves

• glass pipette

• Plastic IV bags

• plastic petri dishes

2.The efficiency of moist-heat sterilization is tested with

• Spores of aerobic bacteria

• Spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus

• Clostridium botulinum

• Vegetative cells of Bacillus stearothermophilus

3.Which factor has an impact on the effectiveness of a

disinfectant?
using soap in the sanitization process is desirable

the disinfectant solution is more potent after several uses

evaporation can alter the chemical makeup of the solution

items should be placed in the disinfectant bath wet

 4.Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants
on inanimate objects is:
sterilization This was your answer.

antisepsis

degermation

Disinfection

5.Which of the following is used to clean delicate instruments or

instruments with moving parts?

• ultrasonic cleaning

• sanitization

• sterilization

• disinfection

6.Which of the following scientist introduced the "Sterilization"

technique?

• Robert Koch

• Joseph Lister

• John Needham

• Louis Pasteur
7.All of the following disinfectant contains heavy metal EXCEPT:
• Silver nitrate

• Chlorine

• Merthiolate

• Copper sulfate

• Mercurochrome
 8.Which of the following can be disinfected and reused without
sterilization?
glassware and enamelware This is the correct an

vaginal specula

curettes

needles and syringes

9.Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting microbial

membranes?

• Heavy metals

• Cationic detergents

• Aldehydes

• Sterilizing gases

• Halogens

10.Tyndallization is a type of

• Pasteurization

• Intermittent sterilization

• Boiling

• Dry heat

11.Which of the following is most resistant to antiseptics/sterilization:

• Bacterial Spore

• Cyst

• Fungus

• Prion

12.Which of the following methods of infection control requires the use of

an autoclave?
 • sanitization

• sterilization

• irradiation

• disinfection

13.Which of the following is used to disinfect surfaces and soak rubber

equipment before sanitization?

• alcohol

• boiling water

• bleach

• iodine

14.Which is a form of cold sterilization

• Steam sterilization

• Gamma rays

• Infrared rays

• UV rays

15.Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and

plastic Petri plates?

• Ultraviolet radiation

• Autoclave

• Chlorine

• Glutaraldehyde

• Ethylene oxide

16.The time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms in a sample at a

specific temperature is the

• D value

• F value

• decimal reduction time

 • thermal death temperature

• thermal death point

17.The cleaning process that is required for all instruments that

penetrate the skin or that come in contact with normally sterile areas of
the tissue and internal organs is

• sanitization

• sterilization

• ultrasonic cleaning

• disinfection

18.Endoscope is sterilized by:

• Autoclave

• Glutaraldehyde

• Hot air oven

• Formaldehyde

19.If a 1:600 dilution of a test compound kills a standard population

of Staphylococcus aureus in 10 minutes but not 5 minutes while a 1:60
dilution of phenol kills the population in the same time, what is the
phenol coefficient of the test compound?

• 50

• 100

• 10

• 5

• 1

20.The most suitable way of sterilization of oils and fats is:

• Tyndallisation

• Hot air oven

• Autoclaving
 • Pasteurization

21.Which one of the following material is not sterilized by dry heat?

• Talcum and dry powders

• Glass wares

• Paraffin

• Linen

22.Sharp instruments should not be sterilized by:

• Autoclaving

• Boiling

• Hot air ovens

• Chemical disinfectants

23.Which of the following was the first widely used antiseptic and
disinfectant?

• Iodine

• Alcohol

• Merthiolate

• Chlorine

• Phenol

24.Identify the term that can describe a disinfectant that can inhibit the
growth of fungi:

• fungicidal

• fungistatic

• microbicidal

• microbiostatic

25.Which of the following methods is useful for sterilization of antisera?

• Filtration

• Autoclaving

• Hot air oven

• Tyndallisation
VIROLOGY

1.Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency

virus is correct EXCEPT:

• The CD4 protein on the T-cell surface is one of the receptors for the virus.

• There is appreciable antigenic diversity in the envelope glycoprotein of the virus.

• One of the viral genes codes for a protein that augments the activity of the viral transcriptional
promoter.

A major problem with testing for antibody to the virus is its cross-reactivity with human T-cell
lymphoma virus type I.

2.You have isolated a virus from the stool of a patient with diarrhea and
shown that its genome is composed of multiple pieces of double-
stranded RNA. Which one of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be true?

• The genome integrates into the host chromosome.

• The virion contains an RNA polymerase.

• Each piece of RNA encodes a different protein.

• The virus encodes an RNA-directed RNA polymerase

3.Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features.

Which one of the following features is LEAST likely to be shared?

• Congenital abnormalities due to transplacental passage

• Important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn

• Mild or inapparent infection

• Important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed individuals

4.The major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory

infections by immunization is:

• The inability to grow the viruses in cell culture

• The side effects of the vaccine

• The poor local and systemic immune response to these viruses

 • The large number of serotypes of the rhinoviruses

5.Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of

influenza A virus is correct EXCEPT:

• Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are due to
the reassortment of segments of the viral genome.

• The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts.

• Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase.

• The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein.

6.A 30-year-old man develops fever and jaundice. He consults a

physician, who finds that blood tests for HBs antigen and anti-HBs
antibody are negative. Which one of the following additional tests is
MOST useful to establish that the hepatitis was indeed due to hepatitis B
virus?

• Anti-HBe antibody

• Anti-HBc antibody

• HBe antigen

• Delta antigen

7.Each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent

infection EXCEPT:

• Herpes simplex virus

• Hepatitis A virus

• Hepatitis B virus

• Cytomegalovirus

8.Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis A virus (HAV) is

correct EXCEPT:

• The diagnosis of hepatitis A is usually made by isolating HAV in cell culture.

• Gamma globulin is used to prevent hepatitis A in exposed persons.

• The hepatitis A vaccine contains inactivated HAV as the immunogen.

 • HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.

9.A 1 5-year-old member of the high school swim team notices painless,
umbilicated cutaneous lesions on the toes. Large eosinophilic
cytoplasmic inclusions are present in the affected epithelia. What is the
most likely causal agent?

• Molluscum contagiosum virus

• Adenovirus

• Human papilloma virus

• Herpes simplex virus

10.

Which of the following viral infections is associated with the development of hydrophobia?
A. Rabies

B. Influenza

C. Polio

D. Hepatitis
Answer: Option A

1. What is the most common cause of aseptic meningitis of viral etiology?

a. Enteroviruses
b. Herpesviruses
c. Arboviruses
d. Retroviruses
e. Orthomyxoviruses

2. Which one of the following immunizations should be administered immediately after birth?
a. Diphtheria-pertusis-tetanus (DPT) vaccine
b. Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine
c. Hepatitis B vaccine
d. HIV Vaccine
e. Oral Polio virus
3. Which one of the following infection routes is most often involved in the neonatal transmission of hepatitis
B virus (HBV)?
a. Blood transfusion
b. Fetal contact with infected blood during childbirth
c. Ingestion of the virus via maternal breast milk
d. Transmission of the virus from hospital personnel during childbirth
e. Transplacental transmission of the virus
4. The finding of large, multinucleated, clumps of cells in the bronchial secretions of a 2 year old girl with
acute bronchopneumonia suggests that this infection is caused by
a. Bordetella pertusis
 b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Mycoplasma hominis
d. Rhinovirus
e. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
5. All of the following picornaviruses are resistant to the acidity of the stomach except:
a. Coxsackievirus A
b. Coxsackievirus B
c. Echo virus
d. Poliovirus
e. Rhinovirus
.
6. In a chronic carrier of hepatitis B virus (HBV), which positive test is most indicative of high infectivity?

Hepatitis B Antigens

a. Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HbsAg)

b. Hepatitis B Core Antigen (HbcAg)
c. Hepatitis B e Antigen (HbeAg)
d. Anti-HBsAg
e. Anti-HBeAg

7. A retrovirus is found in a high proportion of laboratory animals of a given species. Most viremic animals
are asymptomatic, but others develop a fatal wasting syndrome, and a few develop leukemia and other
tumors after long periods of latency. The virus in question most likely lacks which one of the following
genes?
a. gag
b. pol
c. env
d. onc
8. A sexually active 22 year old college student presents to the local clinic with a localized vesicular
eruption on the shaft of his penis. A scraping of the base of one of the vesicles is positive for Tzanck
cells. The patient mentions that he had a similar eruption in the same area 2 months earlier. The
reappearance of this eruption may be explained by:
a. Cell mediated immunity (CMI) deficiency in the patient
b. A prolonged period of viremia following the initial infection
c. A second infection with a similar virus with a different serotype
d. failure of the patient to comply with therapy prescribed at the initial episode
e. reactivation of a latent infection.
The cell lines which can support the growth of polioviruses is/are
A. Human amnion

B. Monkey kidney

C. HeLa

D. All of these
Answer: Option D

. The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxvirusps is/are

A. complex

B. icosahedral

C. helical

D. all of these

Which of the following viruses are acid-labile?

A. Rhinoviruses

B. Echoviruses

C. Polioviruses

D. Coxsackieviruses
Answer: Option A