PATHOLOGY

PYQ 2016-2022

@PJS
 Cell injury
Long Question
1. Define apoptosis . Mention the causes and morphological characteristics. Explain the
mechanism of apoptosis with labelled diagram.
2. Define necrosis. What are the types of necrosis? Give example of each of them.
3. What is hemosiderosis ? Describe generalised and localised causes of
hemosiderosis.
Short notes
1. Necrosis
2. Write the patterns of tissue necrosis with examples.
3. Hypertrophy
4. Differentiate between apoptosis and necrosis
5. Differentiate between hyperplasia and hypertrophy
6. Differentiate between dystrophic and metastatic calcification
7. Metaplasia
8. Cellular adaptation
9. Fatty changes of liver
10. Pathological calcification
11. Pathogenesis of apoptosis
12. Stain for hemosiderin deposit in tissue
Short Question
1. Psammoma bodies are example of …………. calcification.
2. Write two examples of metaplasia.
3. Two example of dystrophic calcification.
4. Name the cadpases independent programmed cell death.
5. In which myelin figures are composed.
6. Give two examples of pathological hyperplasia.
7. Give two example of disuse atrophy.
8. Give two examples of physiological hypertrophy.
9. Name three labels tissue of the body.
10. Name the antiapoptotic group of BCL group.
11. Name the intracellular organelle responsible for apoptosis.
12. Name two endogenous pigments that accumulate intracellularly.
 Inflammation
Long Question
1. Define inflammation. Describe the role of chemical mediators in inflammation.
2. Define inflammation. Describe major events of acute inflammation with a note on its
outcome.
3. Define inflammation. Describe steps of phagocytosis.
Short notes
1. Phagocytosis
2. Difference between exudate and transudate
3. Name the disease with granulomatous inflammation and tissue reaction.
4. Granulation tissue
5. Granuloma
6. Primary cutaneous wound healing.
7. Pathological effects of free radicals
8. Healing by second intentions
9. Growth factors
10. Necroptosis
11. Oxygen derived free radicals
Short Question
1. ………….. is an important chemical mediator of pain.
2. Four factors influencing wound healing.
3. Name reactive oxygen species.
4. Caseating granuloma
5. Name the most potent free radical in bacterial killing.
6. Name two PG causing vasoconstriction and two PG causing vasodilation.
7. Name two opsonins.
8. Ascites of cirrhosis is exudate/transudate.
9. Principle actions of prostacyclin (PG12).
10. Write one example of no case sting granulomatous inflammation.
11. What is the defect seen in Chadiak-Higashi syndrome?
12. Name two types of leukocytes adhesion molecules.
13. Mention the systemic effects of inflammation.
14. Name two vasoactive amines.
15. Name the phases of cutaneous wound healing.
16. Name a C-X-C chemokines.
17. Name a condition showing nonnrcrotizing granuloma.
18. Name cardinal signs of inflammation
19. Name two cells involved in chronic inflammation
 Hemodynamic disorders, Thromboembolism, Shock
Long Question
1. Define septic shock. What are the different types of shock ? Enumerate the
pathogenesis. Mention the stages of septic shock.
2. Define edema . Classify pathophysiological categories of edema. Mention mechanism
of cardiac edema.
3. Define embolism. Enumerate types with examples.
4. Describe thrombus. Write about Virchow triad and fate of thrombus.
5. Define hypercoagulability. Enumerate five most common causes of hypercoagubility.
Discuss the fate of thrombus.
Short notes
1. Fate of the thrombus
2. Cardiogenic shock
3. Nutmeg liver
4. Septic shock
5. Air embolism
6. Types of infarcts with examples.
7. Stages of shock
Short Question
1. Sudden death in scuba and deep sea divers is an example of ……….
2. Virchow triad
3. Organ affected by white infract
4. Mention the type of shock associated with microbial infections.
5. Endothelial injury is common cause of arterial thrombosis. (true/false)
6. Which is the comment embolism in road traffic accidents?
7. Which is the commonest dangerous fate of thrombus?
8. Where do you get lines of Zahin?
9. What is saddle embolism?
10. Red infract seen in which organs?
11. Write about appearance of postmortem clot.
12. Give two examples of edema caused by reduced plasma osmotic pressure.
13. Nature of thrombosis in red thrombi.
14. Test done to study defect in extrensic coagulation pathway.
15. Most common primary site for pulmonary venous embolism.
 Genetic Disorders and infectious diseases
Short notes
1. Klinefelter syndrome
2. Karyotype
3. X linked disorders
4. Phenotype of Down syndrome
5. Turner syndrome
6. Differentiate between autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive disorder
7. Philadelphia chromosome

Short Question
1. Niemann-Pick disease is caused due to inherited deficiency of ……….. enzyme.
2. Four types of chromosomal rearrangements.
3. Microscopic appearance of lepromatous leprosy.
4. Translocation in Ph chromosome.
5. Storage disorder is referred to which pattern of Mendelian disorder.
6. Name two autosomal dominant disease.
7. Individual with risk of parenteral transmission of AIDS.
8. Barr body
9. Give an example of X linked recessive disorder.
10. Arterial septal defect (ASD) is commonly seen in which trisomy?
11. Patau syndrome is an example of trisomy of which chromosome?
12. Ectopia lentils seen in which disorder?
13. Name any two disease caused by misfolding of proteins.
14. Name two cytogenetic disorders affecting sex chromosome.
15. Name two method of karyotyping.
16. Name two X linked recessive hematological disorders.
17. Name a disorder caused by trinucleotide repeat mutations.
18. Mutation of which gene causes cystic fibrosis.
19. Syndrome associated with trisomy 21
20. Terminal end of chromosome called as………..
 Immunity
Long Question
1. Define hypersensitivity reaction . Enumerate different types. Write in details about
Type 1 or 2 or 3 hypersensitivity,describe its mediators.
2. Explain autoimmunity. Give examples of autoimmunity disorders and write down
morphology of SLE.
Short notes
1. Morphology of amyloid spleen
2. SLE and antibodies involved in it .
3. Antigen presenting cells.
4. Reactive systemic amyloidosis
5. Hypersensitivity reaction type 2
6. Pathogenesis of SLE
7. Chemical nature of amyloid
8. Tumor immunity
9. primary amyloidosis
10. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
11. Innate immunity
12. Stains of amyloidosis
13. Major histocompatibility complex
Short Question
1. Natural killer cells are a major component of ……….. immunity.
2. Sago spleen
3. Mention the hypersensitivity reaction showing immune complex mediated injury.
4. Tuberculin reaction is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction.
5. Serum sickness is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction.
6. Write major targets of Sjörgen syndrome.
7. Write the function of natural killer cells.
8. Morphological manifestation of immune complex mediated hypersensitivity.
9. Which cell recognise class1 MHC molecule?
10. Two examples of type 4 hypersensitivity reaction.
11. B lymphocytes stimulated by which cells to make antibodies.
12. Most common autoantibodiy in SLE
13. Two opportunistic infection in HIV patient.
14. Lymphocytes functionally unresponsive towards self antigens. The mechanism is
called as………
 Neoplasia
Long Question
1. A 54 years old postmenopausal female represented with foul smelling discharge and
bleeding P/V for 2 months. On examination a growth was seen in cervix. What is your
diagnosis? Enumerate the causative agent,pathogenesis and risk factors of the
disease.what will be the findings in Pap smear?
2. Define metastasis. Describe its mechanism.
Short notes
1. Fine needle aspiration cytology.
2. Enumerate EBV associated disease and it’s carcinogenesis.
3. Differentiate between benign and malignant neoplasm.
4. PAP smear
5. Metastatis
6. Routes of spread of metastasis with examples
7. Chemical carcinogen
8. Tumor markers
9. The adenoma carcinoma sequence of colorectal carcinoma
10. Oncogenic DNA virus
11. Paraneoplastic syndrome
12. P53- the guardian of genome
Short Question
1. Alphafeto protein is a tumor marker for……….
2. Name two embryonal tumor.
3. Name the tumor causing pseudomyxedoma peritonei.
4. Mention a characteristic not found in benign tumor.
5. Lymphatic spread of tumor.
6. Name two virus causing cancer and cancer caused by them.
7. Which is known as first draining lymph node in tumor basin.
8. Name two malignant conditions associated with H. pylori infection.
9. Which proto-oncogene over expression caused by translocation is exemplified by
Burkitt lymphoma?
10. Write one example of locally invasive malignant tumor.
11. Name two cancer associated with UV rays exposure.
12. Name two neoplasms found in patients with HIV infection.
13. What is sentinel lymph node?
14. Name the tumor type associated with increased levels of calcitonin.
15. Nature of Metaplasia seen in Barrett esophagus.
16. Name the gene mutated in familial adenomatous polyposis.
17. Name two protooncogene and tumor suppressor genes.
18. Name two virus closely associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma.
19. Name the virus causing leukaemia.
20. Name type of hepatitis caused by DNA virus.
21. Tumor marker in prostatic carcinoma and in choriocarcinoma.

Heart and Blood vessels

Long Question
1. A 52 year old man presented with acute onset sever substernal constricting pain ,
dyspnoea,profuse sweating and rapid pulse. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Discuss the risk factors, pathogenesis and laboratory interventions to confirm the
diagnosis.
2. Discus the etiopathogenesis , morphological changes and laboratory evaluation of
myocardial infarction.
3. Atherosclerosis
4. Mention the major risk factors of atherosclerosis. Describe the morphology of
atherosclerotic plaque. What is acute plaque change?
Short notes
1. Risk factors of ischemic heart disease.
2. Carcinoid tumor
3. Morphology and complications of artheromatous plaques
4. Describe the gross and microscopic features of heart in chronic rheumatic heart
disease.
5. Causes of right ventricular failure
Short Question
1. Commonest infract in heart.
2. Artery involvement in temporal artheritis.
3. AIDS associated vascular tumor
4. Major vessel involving in atherosclerosis.
5. Rheumatic heart disease shows which bodies.
6. Hyaline atherosclerosis is seen in which type of hypertension?
7. What are the heart failure cells and where is it seen ?
8. Morphological changes of blood vessels in malignant hypertension.
9. Aschoff nodules
10. Infective vegetation in heart valve is seen in which portion?
 WBC, lymph nodes, spleen and thymus
Long Question
1. A 48 yr old male represented with weakness and easy fatigability. On examination
peripheral blood show leukocytes count >1,00,000 cubic mm comparisong of both
mature and immature form with 6% basophils. What is your diagnosis? Describe the
causative genetic abnormality and bone marrow findings in this case. What are
different clinical phases?
2. Give an account of WHO classification of lymphoid neoplasms. Describe Hodgkin’s
lymphoma.
3. Define leukemia .Enumerate ethology and revised FAB classification of acute
leukaemia. Peripheral and bone bone marrow pictures of each entity.
4. Enumerate the chronic myeloproliferative neoplasms. Describe the pathogenesis and
peripheral blood finding of CML . Mention the genetic basis of CML.
5. A 25 yr male presented with weakness,and splenomegaly with the total leukocyte
count 2.5 lakhs/command basophils 15%. Give your most possible diagnosis and
differential diagnosis. Describe the laboratory features to derive definitive diagnosis.
Short notes
1. Reed-Sternberg cell (with labelled diagram)
2. Burkitt lymphoma
3. Bone marrow finding in multiple myeloma
4. Leukemoid reaction and CML
5. FAB classification of acute leukaemia.
6. Plasma cell dyscrasias and criteria of multiple myeloma.
7. Peripheral blood and bone marrow picture of multiple myeloma.
8. Blood picture in CML
Short Question
1. Down syndrome is associated with ……….. leukaemia.
2. Myeloblast
3. Name the subtypes of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
4. Faggots are seen in which type of AML?
5. As per WHO, what percentage of blasts are seen in bone marrow in acute leukaemia?
6. Write down the appearance of Goucher cells.
7. What are Russell bodies?
8. Name the commonly used laboratory test for detection of M spike.
9. Two recurring cytogenetic abnormalities associated with AML.
10. Name the special stain to enumerate lymphoblasts.
11. Name the leukocyte common antigen.
12. Sezary-Lutzner cells are the histologic hallmark of which neoplasm?
13. (15,17)t in APML is a good or bad prognostic indicator.
14. Myeloblast show positivity for which cytochemical stain.
15. Name the most common monoclonal gammopathy in elderly male.
 RBC , Platlet and Bleeding disorder
Long Question
1. Define haemolytic anemia. Enumerate causes of of hemolysis. Describe differences
between beta thalassemia and iron deficiency anemia.
2. A 39 yr old rural female coming from low socioeconomic background,presents with
progressive weakness, fatigue, lassitude bad palpitation for last one yr. O/E, moderate
pallor with stomatitis,glossitis and koilonuchia, no hepatosplenomegaly or
lymphadenopathy. What is your etiological diagnosis? How can you confirm your
etiological diagnosis by routine serum tests? Mention the expected red cell indices of
the case . Describe the peripheral blood smear findings.
3. A 20 yr old girl complain of weakness,easy fatigue,and breathlessness of 6 months
duration. History elicited heavy menstrual bleeding every month. On examination she
is pale with koilonacyya nail and cheilosis. What is the type of anemia and the
investigation advised ? What are the differential diagnosis of this case?
4. 45 yr vegetarian female presented with weakness and pallor with numbers and
tingling sensation since last 6 months. Give diagnosis and its approaches.
5. 65 yr male with multiple punched out lesion in skull with anemia and proteinuria. Give
your diagnosis and investigation.
6. Write morphological classification of anemia. Brief on causes , blood picture and
laboratory diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia or megaloblastic anemia.
Short notes
1. Haemophilia
2. Peripheral blood and bone marrow finding in multiple myeloma .
3. Blood tests to suggest increased hemolysis.
4. Fibrin degradation products.
5. Bombay blood group
6. Lab findings of sickle cell anemia
7. Factors influencing ESR
8. Enzymes defect associated with haemolytic anemia
9. Causes of iron deficiency anemia
10. Pancytopenia
11. Describe the regulation of iron absorption.
12. Mention the pathogenesis of haemolysis in G6PD deficiency.
13. Write about pure red cell aplasia.
14. Mention the complications of blood transfusion.
15. Hereditary spherocytosis
16. Sickle cell crisis
17. ITP
Short Question
1. Decrease in all the cellular elements of blood in CBC is known as………
2. Hb%in normal adult female is ……….to………..
3. Major storage form of iron is ……….
4. ……….. stain is used to detect reticulocyte in blood.
5. Important investigation for diagnosis of haemophilia.
6. Megaloblast
7. NESTROFT
8. FIGLU in urine
9. Target cell
10. Mutation of thalassemia
11. Types of beta thalassemia.
12. Megakaryocytes
13. Modes of action of anticoagulant.
14. Which factor deficiency cause haemophilia B?
15. Hypersegmented neutrophil are seen in which type of anemia?
16. Which parasite is associated with haemolytic anemia?
17. Ehrich’stest in urine is done for which detection?
18. Name two conditions in which basophilic stippling is seen?
19. Genetic change seen in sickle cell anemia.
20. Name two causes of megaloblastic anemia.
21. What is the defect seen in Glanzmznn thrombasthenia?
22. Name the parasite causing iron deficiency anemia?
23. Which gastric pathology associated with pernicious anemia?
24. Any two causes of pancytopenia.
25. Disease due to defective platlet function.
26. Two inherited disorder of platelets.
27. Chain of Hb located at which chromosome?
28. Name the commonest hemolytic anemia seen in a child with splenomegaly and
growth failure.
29. Pancytopenia is the most comm presenting feature of which anemia.
30. Name the most comm type of anemia seen in child bearing age in ladies.
31. Name the commonest sex linked bleeding disorder.
32. Most commonly enzyme defect causing dug induced hemolysis?
33. Most commonly cause of thrombocytopenia without splenomegaly.
 The Lungs
Long Question
1. Differentiate obstructive lung disease from restrictive lung disease.
Short notes
1. Types of emphysema.
2. Difference between chronic bronchitis and emphysema
3. Differentiate between lobar pneumonia & bronchopneumonia
4. Differentiate between primary and secondary tuberculosis
5. Write the pathogenesis of bronchiectasis.
6. Bacterial pneumonia
Short Question
1. Reid index is increased in …………..
2. Stages of lobar pneumonia.
3. Mesothelial cells in effusion.
4. Goon complex
5. Where will you find Charcot-Leyden crystals?
6. Name the primary lesion in primary tuberculosis.

The Kidney
Long Question
1. What are the causes of proteinuria ?Write briefly on the test done for detection and
estimation of protein in urine. Differentiate between nephrotic and nephritic syndrome
based on their urinary findings.
2. A 10 yr child developed he matures with coca colour urine, hypertension and peri
orbital edema, one month after sor throat. Give your diagnosis. Write the causes and
morphology of condition.
Short notes
1. Wilm’s tumor
2. Nephrotic syndrome
3. Causes of Proteinuria
4. Hydronephrosis
5. Urinary casts
6. Minimal change disease
7. Pus cell cast
8. Granular contracted disease of kidney
9. RPGN
10. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
 Short Question
1. Four main type of renal calculi.
2. Tophi
3. Bench jones proteinuria is detected in which disease.
4. Good pasture syndrome affect which two organ?
5. What is kimmelstiel-Wilson disease?
6. Mention the the urinary findings in acute glomerulonephritis.
7. Name 2 types of collagen present in basement membrane.
8. Hematoxylin bodies
9. Name the test for bile salt in urine.
10. Basic constituent of cast in urine.

Lower urinary tract and Male genital system

Long Question
1. Classify the germ cell tumors of testis. Discuss in details about classical seminoma
under the following headings : classification,gross findings,microscopic findings and
prognosis.
Short notes
1. seminoma of testis
Female genital tract
Long Question
1. Classify ovarian neoplasm. Describe about germ cell tumors of ovary.
Short notes
1. Hyadatidiform mole
2. Precancerous lesions of cervix
3. Germ cell tumor of ovary.
4. Leiomyoma of uterus
5. Dysgerminoma
6. Mature cystic terra tomb of ovary
Short Question (male+female)
1. Schiller Duval bodies are seen in ……… tumor.
2. Oligospermia is sperm count lower than……..
3. Most commonly testicular tumor .
4. Out of BRAC1 and BRAC 2 which is associated with both ovarian and breast cancer?
5. Name the benign smooth muscle tumor of uterus.
6. Name the causative agent of HSIL.
7. Name the causative agent of carcinoma cervix.
8. Name the route of metastasis of Krukenberg tumor of ovary.
 GIT and Hepato billiary
Long Question
1. Define inflammatory bowel disease. Differentiate between Crohn and ulcerative
colitis. Write briefly on its pathogenesis.
2. Enumerate the test to acess liver function in blood and urine to differentiate the types
of jaundice.
3. Define cirrhosis. Give etiological classification. Write briefly on pathophysiology and
consequences of portal hypertension .
4. Write the common location of peptic ulcer and briefly write about pathogenesis and
morphology of gastric ulcer.
5. An elderly male with anorexia, Occasional hematemesis and black stool since 2-3
months. What is most possible cause? Enumerate pathogenesis along with different
histologic types of that malignant disease.
Short notes
1. Barret’s oesophagus
2. Lab diagnosis of jaundice
3. Name of liver function tests
4. Causes of billirubinuria
5. Different enzymes in LFT
6. Pathogenesis of gallstone formation
7. Alcoholic cirrhosis
8. Morphology of Crohn disease
9. Portal hypertension
10. Alcoholic liver disease
11. Juveline polyp of colon
Short Question
1. Mallory bodies are seen in ………. hepatitis.
2. Skip lesions are features of……….
3. Etiological factors in acute pancreatitis.
4. Stellate cell
5. Barret’s oesophagus shows ……….. metaplasia.
6. Name one intra abdominal childhood round cell .
7. Gilbert’s syndrome associated with which type of hyperbilirubinemia?
8. Name the metastatic changes of lower end of esophagus.
9. Write common benign tumor of parotid gland.
10. What is cholesterolosis?
11. Enumerate causes of chronic gastritis.
12. Name the typical morphology seen in chronic passive hepatic congestion.
13. Name the cause of jaundice with a scent or reduced urobilinogen.
14. Name the test for bile salts in urine.
15. Name the organism associated with peptic ulcer,gastric carcinoma&gastric lymphoma
16. Level of urobilinogen is very low or nil in which type of jaundice.
 The endocrine system & Pancrease
Long Question
1. Define diabetes mellitus. Mention the types. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis and
complications.
2. Classify tumor of the thyroid gland. Describe papillary carcinoma of thyroid under the
following: etiopathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis & complications of disease.
3. A 45 yr old man complain of tiredness,polydypsia,polyurea & polyphagia. What is the
probable diagnosis? Write etiopathogenesis,laboratory diagnosis & complications?
Short notes
1. Hasimoto thyroiditis
2. Pheochromocytoma
3. Papillary thyroid cancer
4. Non diabetic condition glycosuria
5. Causes of glycosuria
6. Multinodular goitre
7. Complication of diabetes mellitus
8. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Short Question
1. Psammoma bodies are formed due to deposition of ……….
2. Cells of origin of medullary carcinoma thyroid is ………
3. Orphan annie eye microscopically seen in ………. thyroid carcinoma.
4. Which type of thyroid cancer associated with lymphatic metastasis?
5. Nuclear features of papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

The breast

Short notes
1. Prognostic factors in carcinoma breast.
Short Question
1. BRCA 1 genes is located on chromosome …………
2. Fibroadenoma of breast.
3. What is Paget’s disease of nipple?
4. Most common mutation in familial breast carcinoma.
 Bones, joints ,soft tissue tumors and skin
Long Question
1. Classify tumours of bone. Discuss the pathogenesis and pathology of osteosarcoma.
Mention the radiological findings.
2. A 25 yr male is admitted with swelling of upper end of right tibia. X ray show ‘sun-
burst’ appearance in the metaphyseal area of tibia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Give the microscopic picture of the diagnosis with labelled diagram? Name the organ
where it metastasizes? Classify bone tumors?
Short notes
1. A labelled diagram of osteosarcoma
2. Osteosarcoma
3. Osteoclastoma
4. Osteogenic sarcoma
Short Question
1. Etiological factors associated with SCC in oral cavity.
2. Gout crystals
3. Radiological findings characteristics of Ewing’s sarcoma.
4. HLA-B27 is most comm associated with which skeletal disorder?
5. Write the histologic hallmarks of pager’s disease of bone.
6. Pannus formation seen in which disease?
7. Flexner wintersteiner rosettes
8. Negri bodies
9. Involucrum and Brodie abscess are seen in which bone lession?
10. Onion skin appearance in X ray is seen in which bone neoplasia.
 CNS, PNS, Eye, Clinical / Special Pathology.
Long Question
1. A 2 yr old boy was brought to hospital in a comatose stage. He was suffering from high
fever with stiffness of neck for 2 days. Immediate lumbar puncture yield turbid fluid with
high pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis? What are the other possible causes?
How will you proceed for confirmation to pinpoint diagnosis?
Short notes
1. CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis.
2. Fine needle aspiration cytology.
3. PAP smear
4. Meningioma
5. Difference between pyogenic and tubercular meningitis
6. Retinoblastoma
7. Utility of cytopathology
8. Two chemical tests of urine examination
9. Features of tubercular meningitis
10. Differentiate between pyogenic and viral meningitis
11. Morphological features of meningioma
12. Physical examination of urine
Short Question
1. Cobweb formation in CSF is found in …….. meningitis.
2. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
3. Low and fixed specific gravity of urine.
4. Enumerate histological types of meningioma.
5. Varocay bodies
6. Parent ketone bodies
7. Ehrich’s test in urine done for which detection?
8. Name two non reducing substances that gives positive benedicts test.
9. What are the area seen in microscopy of Schwannoma ,known as?
10. Name the most comm extracranial solid tumor of childhood.
11. Name the glial tumor of brain.
12. Name a CNS tumor showing Psammoma bodies.
13. Hirani bodies
14. Which ketone body does not give positive Rothera’s test?