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Subject: French Language Class: J S S 1-3

Section A: Answer all questions in this section (Respondez qux questions)

1. Ecrivez les deuxiemmois de l’annee (a) juin (b) fevrier (c) avril
2. Enchantee means _________ (a)I’m sorry (b) please to meet you (c) weldone
3. Combien ja voyelles nous avons en francais? (a) six (b) huit (c) cing
4. Styloo en angglas est ? (a) pencil (b) pen (c) eraser
5. Igrec est voyelle (a) vrai (b) faux (c) vous
6. Repondez viens manger (a) au revoir (b) bonne anne (c) bon appetite
7. Respondez comment allez vous (a) cava bienn (b) je vais bien (c) a bien tot
8. Les musilman von a la mosquee le __________ ? (a) jeudi (b) samedi (d) vendredi
9. Le deuxien jour de la semaine est ________ ? (a) lundi (b) dimanche (c) mardi
10. Ce que est le couleur d’un feville (a) vert (b) rose (c) gris
Respondez en francais
11. A friend who pass his/her exams
12. Good luck
13. How do you greet your teacher and fellow students when you are going home from
school ?
14. Colour red is _________
15. A duster is called _________ (a)
Ecrivez en anglais
16. Ca va bien
17. Bon nuit
18. Au revoir
19. Du courage
20. Merci
SECTION B : Respondez trois questions, question 1 and 3 is compulsory
1. Write a composition about yourself in french
2. a. Ecrivez l’alphabet b. Mentionnez le voyelles
3. a. Write out the month of the year in French. b. Ecrivez les mois de l’annee
c. Write the days of the week d. Ecrivez les jours de la semaine
4. Ecrivez Cinq couleur en francais
Remplier les trous/Fill in the gaps
1. Je m’appelle ___________
2. J’habite a __________
3. Je suis teint __________
4. Je susis le _______ enfant dans ma famille
5. Mon ami s’apppelle ____________
6. Mon ecole s’appelle ____________
7. Je suis en _________ classe
8. Mon couleur favori est __________
9. J’ai _________ ans
10. Mon plat favori est ___________
Subject: CRS Class: J S S 1

1. Who is a dreamer ? (a) Abraham (b) Joseph (c) Jacob


2. Creating time and energy to do other people’s work is _________ (a) obedience (b)
loyalty (c) service
3. What is the name of Joseph brother who pleaded that they should not kill him (a) Reuben
(b) Levi (c) Dan
4. Where did Abraham first build and ark? (a) Dothan (b) Schechem (c) Bethel
5. What is the name of Abraham’s father (a) Torah (b) Aran (c) Moses
6. Abraham settled ________ land (a) canaan (b) bethel (c) schechem
7. How much was Joseph sold? (a) thirty shekel of silver (b) twenty shekels of silver (c)
fifty shekels of silver
8. How many dream did Joseph had (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2
9. What is the name of Abraham’s beloved son (a) Ishael (b) Isaac (c) Nathan
10. Who had the dream that brought Joseph out of prison? (a) Pharaoh (b) Potiphers (c) the
Buttler
11. What brought Joseph’s family to the land of Egypt (a) famine (b) war (c) pleasure
12. Who told king Pharaoh about Joseph’s gift of dream interpretation (a) the baker (b) the
buttler (c) the chief
13. Compliance with an order, request of law, and the submission to authority is ________
(a) loyalty (b) obedience (c) service
14. What was Abraham’s response when Isaac ask him about the lamb of sacrifice ? (a) don’t
worry (b) it’s already there (c) God will provide
15. What is Joseph’s father name (a) James (b) Moses (c) Jacob
16. What is Joseph’s mother name (a) Rachael (b) Rebecca (c) Deborah
17. Where did Joseph found his brothers (a) Dothan (b) Sheechem (c) Egypt
18. Who is Jacob beloved son ? (a) Judah (b) Dan (c) Joseph
19. Who was Joseph sold to by his brothers (a) Ishmaelite (b) Israelites (c) Samarians
20. How many sons did Jacob had______ (a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 12

SECTION B : Answer 3 questions in all

1a. What is Service ?

b. Mention 3 people who served in the Bible

2. How was Joseph sold into Egypt

3a. What is Obedience ?

b. Write out three blessings of Abraham for obeying God’s call

4a. Who are we called to serve as a Christians

b. Mention 3 places we can serve as a Christians


Subject: CRS Class: J S S 2

Section A; Answer all Questions

1. How many wise men visited Jesus when he was born? (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2
2. Joseph was from the house of _________ (a) Jacob (b) David (c) Moses
3. What is the name of the angel that visited the mother of Jesus (a) Michael (b) Raphael
(c) Gabriel
4. Where was Jesus born (a) manger (b) hospital (c) home
5. Jesus was born under the reign of ___________ the king (a) Herod (b) Pharaoh (c)
David
6. To foretell situation ahead its manifestation means ___________ (a) birth (b)
annunciation (c) the coming
7. What is the name of the angel who visited Joseph (a) Uriel (b) Michael (c) Gabriel
8. Ceaser Augustus was the roman emperor during the birth of Jesus (a) false (c) maybe
9. We took Joseph and Mary from Nazareth to Judea during the time of Jesus birth (a)
war (b) census (c) famine
10. The three gifts given to Jesus by the wise men are ______,
11. ____________ and
12. ____________
13. One of these did not visit Jesus during his birth (a) Shepherds (b) Wise men (c) Herod
14. What did the wise men saw that lead them to where Jesus was born (a) the moon (b)
the stars (c) cloud
15. Who is Jesus heavenly father (a) Joseph (b)Holy spirit (c) David
16. In which city was Jesus born (a) Judea (b) Nazareth (c) Egypt
17. Who was Jesus earthly father (a) Peter (b) Holy spirit (c) Joseph
18. The birth of Jesus is associated with the following except________ (a) angels (b)
prophets (c) government
19. Jesus was born in Nazareth (a) true (b) false (c) I don’t know
20. Joseph was Jesus biological father (a) true (b) false (c) maybe

SECTION B: Answer three question in all

1. Narrate the story of the three wise men


2. Name the three gifts given to Jesus by the wise men and state what each symbolize
3. Mention 5 things that the birth of Jesus brought to Mankind
4. Name three prophets in the old testament that foretold the birth of Jesus Christ
b. Mention 6 character involved in Jesus birth
Subject: CRS Class: J S S 3

Section A; Answer all Questions

1. What did Jesus promised the disciples after his acsention (a) Holy spirit (b) Money (c)
Forgiveness
2. Who gave the first speech after the Holy spirit came upon the disciples (a) paul (b)
peter (c) John
3. What time of the day did the disciple received the Holy spirit (a) 12 noon (b) 10:00am
(c) 9:00am
4. Where did the people who repented after Peter’s speech stay (a) Jerusalem (b) Egypt (c)
Israel
5. Who is God the son ? (a) Holy spirit (b)God himself (c) Jesus Christ
6. One of these is not the work of the Holy spirit (a) to teach (b) to sing (c) to comfort
7. The early church is characterized by the following except (a) togetherness (b) fraud (b)
Obedience
8. When did the disciples received the Holy spirit (a) Pentecost (b) Christmas (c) New year
9. Another word for fellowship is _________ (a) togetherness (b) service (c) worship
10. The jewish harvest celebration is called _________? (a) feast (b) harvest (c) Pentecost
11. Who promised the holy spirit _________
12. What happened after Peter’s speech _____________
13. The early church was characterised by _____________
14. ___________ and
15. ___________
16. How many souls were added to the church after Peter’s speech
17. How many disciples did Jesus had ?
18. Who is the third person in the hierarchy of trinity?
19. What are the names of the coupes who engaged in fraud in the early church _________
20. and ______________

SECTION B: Answer 3 questions in all

1a. What is Fellowship ?

b. The early church was characterised by three things, mention them

2. Itemize the audible and visible manifestation of Holy Spirit

3. Explain the story of the couples who engaged in Fraud in the early Church

4. Write out five characteristics of the Holy Spirit


FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 1 Subject: Computer Studies

1. Convert 1610 to binary (a) 100002 (b) 111002 (c) 1010002 (d) 1111112
2. Which of the following is an output device (a) keyboard (b) monitor (c) microchips (d) mouse
3. What does ICT means (a) Information Technology (b) Information Communication
Telecommunications (c) Information Communication Technology (d) Information Communication
Technology
4. One of the following is not needed in a computer environment (a) electric heater (b) fire
extinguisher (c) blower (d) air conditioner
5.What is the essence of UPS in the computer room (a) for beautification (b) to supply additional
power to the system in case of sudden disconnection of power (c) none of the above (d) to work
with the computers for the users
6. _______ and _______ are types of booting process (a) on and off (b) hot and cold (c) cold and
warm (d) up and down
7. All but one are examples of computer peripherals (a) digital clock (b) printer (c) scanner (d)
projector
8. VGA means (a) Virtual Graphics Unit (b) Virtual Graphics Adapter (c) Virtual Graphics Array
(d) Virtual Graphics Arrangement
9. What was the technology advancement used in the 2nd generation computer (a) vacuum tube (b)
VLSI (c) transistor (d) microchips
10. One of the following is ancient means of communications (a) fire burning (b) telephone (c) e-
mail (d) none of the above
11. Which of the following is an input device (a) speaker (b) mouse (c) monitor (d) printer
12. Which of the following places does not requires the use of ICT (a) schools (b) hospitals (c)
none of the above (d) cinemas
13. _______ are raw facts (a) data (b) information (c) message (d) program
14. Which of the following is modern means of communication (a) bush burning (b) mobile phones
(c) town crier (d) beating of drums
15. ________ is an example of computer according sizes (a) digital (b) analogue (c) mainframe (d)
hybrid
16. What does USB stands for (a) Universal Serial Bus (b) Universal Service Broadcast (c)
Universal Serial Bag (d) Universal Saving Book
17. P.M.B means (a) Public Mail Bag (b) Private Mail Bag (c) Public Main Bag (d) Private Main
Bag.
18. Who is a Computer Engineer? (a) one who invented the computer (b) one who develop
programs (c) one who repairs and fixes the computer (d) none of the above
19. Which of the following is an example of computer according to operating principle? (a) digital
(b) micro (c) super (d) mini
20. One of the following is an area of misusing computer and internet (a) studying (b) hacking (c)
e-commerce (d) banking
21. Which of the following is an example of electro mechanical counting device? (a) Logarithms
(b) Slide rule (c) Jacquard’s loom (d) Napier bone
22. Which of the following is not a stage in Data Processing cycle (a) data validation (b) data
collation (c) data gathering (d) input stage
23. Who is referred to as “father of Computer” (a) Blaise Pascal (b) Charles Babbage (c) Philip
Emeagwali (d) John Von Neumann
24. Who invented the machine called stepped reckoner in the historical development (a) John
Neumann (b) Gottfried Leibnitz (c) Blaise Pascal (d) Charles Babbage
25. What was the electronic technology used in the third generation of computers as memory (a)
vaccum tubes (b) transistor (c) integrated circuit (d) microprocessors
26. Breaking into other people’s privacy is called (a) cyber war (b) hacking (c) piracy (d) fraud
27. Which of the following s an example of computer virus (a) boot sector (b)executable file (c)
Alabama (d) none of the above
28. The following are the uses of ICT except (a) fraud (b) communications (c) timing and control
(d) transaction processing
29. _________ is a processed data (a) data (b) information (c) software (d) program
30. _________ is used to send information to the computer system (a) hardware (b) software (c)
input devices (d) output devices

SECTON B
Instructions: Attempt all Questions.
1. List and explain FIVE importance of Computer as a tool for Data Processing
2 Convert the following numbers to binary
i. 24 ii. 36 iii. 144 iv. 72 v. 90
Convert the following to Decimal .
i. 110.111 ii. 110111 iii. 1010.0011 iv. 1111111
3a. What is Data Processing
b. Explain the methods involved in data processing cycle ?
4a. List FIVE examples of output devices
b. List FIVE examples of input devices
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 2 Subject: Computer Studies

1. Which of the following is an output device (a) keyboard (b) CPU (c) Mouse (d) Monitor
2. UPS means _______ (a) Un- Interrupted Power Supply (b) Un- Interactive Power Supply (c)
Un- Interruptible Power Supply (d) Unprotected Power Supply
3. Which of the following is not a feature of Paint (a) clipboard (b) cardboard (c) shapes (d) color
4._______ contains color palette, color box in the paint environment (a) shape group (b) tools
group (c) color group (d) none of the above
5. ________ are symbols produced through handwriting, diagrams, maps, charts and pictures (a)
graphics (b) packages (c) computer (d) painting
6. Graphics converted to digital data or information on computer is called _______ (a) Corel draw
(b) computer graphics (c) graphic packages (d) all of the above
7. The following are examples of graphic packages except (a) paint (b) Corel draw (c) instant artist
(d) MS word
8. The features of graphic packages includes the following except (a) logo graphics (b) color
palette (c) printable area (d) tool bar
9. __________ is a group of components joined together to perform one or more functions (a)
computer (b) system (c) mobile phones (d) television
10. __________ consists of the essential parts known as the hardware, software and people ware
(a) computer system (b) System unit (c) ICT (d) none of the above
11. The physical parts of the computer that can be seen and felt is referred to as (a) software (b)
hardware (c) people ware (d) basic units
12. All the following makes up the hardware components except (a) input unit (b) ALU (c) Control
Unit (d) none of the above
13. People ware is also referred to as (a) software (b) hardware (c) people ware (d) human ware
14. The unit that provides temporary storage where data and instructions are stored during
processing is called (a) memory (b) input unit (c) output unit (d) control unit
15. ALU means (a) Arithmetical & Logical Unit (b) Arithmetic &Logic Unit (c) Arithmetic &
Logistic Unit (d) Arithmetic & Logic Unit
16. Which of the following is a computer professional (a) system analyst (b) bankers (c) doctors
(d) architects
17. Which of the following is not a function of Operating System (a) resources allocation (b)
system monitoring (c) organizes the computer (d) serves as the brain of the system
18. Scanner is an example of (a) input devices (b) output devices (c) components devices (d) all
of the above
19. _______ is used to creates drawings on a blank drawing area or in an existing picture (a) Corel
draw (b) paint (c) drawing tools (d) MS excel
20. _________ contains lines, curves, oval, rectangle and other polygon shapes on the paint
environment (a) shape group (b) color palette (c) tools groups (d) magnifier
21. All the following are examples of graphic packages except (a) paint (b) Corel draw (c) logo
graphics (d) MS access
22. One of the following is not a feature of Graphic Packages (a) menu bar (b) tool bar (c) title bar
(d) color palette
23. The art of using good quality cables for the wiring of the computer room is called (a) electrical
fittings (b) electrical configurations (c) technical fittings (d) electrical wiring
24. Which of the following is an example of a Computer User (a) system analyst (b) computer
engineers (c) programmer (d) teachers
25. A program that coordinates the activities of a computer is called (a) software (b) applications
(c) operating system (d) computer program
26. Which of the following is an output device (a) keyboard (b) monitor (c) printer (d) joystick
27.________ is a processed data (a) data (b) information (c) words (d) kilobytes
28. _________ is used to send information or data into the system (a) output devices (b) input
devices (c) hardware (d) software
29. How many bits make a byte (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 24
30. 5 nibbles is equivalent to bits (a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 30 (d) 15

SECTION B
Instruction: Attempt four questions in all

1. Write the full meaning of the following acronyms


i. COBOL
ii. FORTRAN
iii. BASIC
iv. EDSAC
v. A.L.U
2a. List 5 benefits of ICT
b. List 5 disadvantages of ICT
3a. What is Computer Software?
b. Explain the various types of Computer Software
c. List 3 categories of Application Software packages
4a. What is Operating System.
c. Highlight 4 functions of Operating System?
5. Explain various types of Operating System
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 3 Subject: Computer Studies

1. An electronic machine that is used to process, manipulate and store data is called. (a) machine
(b) computer (c) radio (d) television
2. The intersection of column and row is called a __________ (a) cell (b) range (c) worksheet (d)
scheme
3. The use of computer in data processing is referred to as ________ (a) manual processing (b)
mechanical processing (c) electronic processing (d) technical processing
4. HTTP means (a) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (b) Higher Transfer Text Protocol (c) High Text
Tube Protocol (d) Hypertensive Transfer Protocol
5. ____________ is the component of the computer where Arithmetic Logic operations are
performed (a) memory (b) CPU (c) ALU (d) Input
6. A computer program that constructs, organizes and maintains a database is called (a) package
(b) operating system (c) Application packages (d) DBMS
7. Which of the following is not antivirus software (a) avast (b) PC cillin (c) automatic (d)
McAfe
8. __________ is the art of opening a program in order to explore it (a) loading (b) opening (c)
keeping (d) leading
9. A graphical representation of ideas and data is called (a) formula (b) chart (c) cell (d) key
10. Time Consuming, labor based, analogue machine are features of ________ (a) internet
economy (b) new economy (c) old economy (d) public economy
11. Digital Divide can exist between the people in the urban area and those in the (a) rural area (b)
poor area (c) rich area (d) local area
12. The two major classes of software are ______ and _____ (a) internal and external (b) system
and application (c) simple and complex (d) single and multiple
13. Database Packages includes the following except (a) DBASE (b) Power Point (c) MS Access
(d) JAVA
14. The following are sources of virus except (a) infected diskettes (b) boot sector (c) internet
downloads (d) infected CD ROMS
15. The following are data processing cycle except (a) division of labor (b) data gathering (c) data
collation (d) processing stage
16. Buying and Selling via the internet which is often regarded to as Internet shopping is known as
(a) ATM (b) E-commerce (c) Communication (d) credit card
17. The main circuit board to which all other internet and external devices in the system unit are
connected is known as the (a) whiteboard (b) blackboard (c) motherboard (d) computer board
18. ___________ is the connection between two or more computers to share resources and files (a)
social network (b) switch (c) computer access (d) computer network
19. A set of programs that controls computer hardware and manage the use of program is called
(a) operating system (b) assembler (c) transistors (d) utilities
20. Which of the following is not a feature of graphic packages (a) menu bar (b) word bar (c) tool
bar (d) printable area
21. _________ are raw facts yet to be processed (a) Information (b) Message (c) Data (d)
Communication
22. The art of sending information from one source to another through a medium is called (a)
Information Transmission (b) Communication (c) Information Technology (d) Information
23. Data which are not created by user directly is called (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d)
Elementary
24. The method of passing information across through using drums is (a) oral (b) vocal (c) beating
drums (d) whistling
25. The shortcut of pasting a document or text to another page is (a) ctrl+A (b) ctrl+B (c) Ctrl+c
(d)ctrl+V
26. The art of drawing on a paper or wall in order to pass information across (a) town crying (b)
lightning (c) diagram representations (d) oral
27. Information sent through the use of mouth is regarded as (a) Oral (b) Whistling (c) Lightning
(d) Communication
28. Ctrl A is used for _______ (a) copy (b) paste (c) highlight (d) print
29. The shortcut for printing document is (a) ctrl+A (b) ctrl+B (c) ctrl+C (d) ctrl+P
30. The mode of receiving information using both eye and ear is termed (a) visual (b) audio (c)
audio visual (d) sighting

SECTION B: Attempt all questions


1a. Differentiate between Computer Professionals and Computer Users
b. List EIGHT examples of Computer Virus
c. Differentiate between Search Engines and Social Media
2. Write short notes on the following Computer Professionals
i. System Analyst ii. Programmer iii. Database Administrator iv. Computer Engineer
b. What is Operating System?
c. List EIGHT examples of Computer Users?
3. Write the full meaning of the following computer professional bodies
i. NCS ii. ITAN iii. NIG iv. ISPAN v. CPRN
b. List SIX examples of Internet search engines
c. Highlight THREE virus warning signs
4a. High light 5 sources of Computer Virus
b. Explain the various types of Computer Virus
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 2 Subject: PVS

Section A : Answer all Questions

1. In Agricultural Practises, __________ is the supply of water (a) Irrigation (b) Wetland
(c) respiration (d) rainfall
2. __________ is not one of the effects of disease on farm animals (a) death (b) loss of
weight (c) reduced productivity (d) productivity
3. Pre- paming operation are the operations that are carried out _________ sowing (a) after
(b) before (c) during (d) before and after
4. Examples of disease caused by bacteria are the following EXCEPT _________ (a) mastitis
(b) anthrax (c) mountices (d) thyphoid
5. The removal of excess seedling that are not well positioned on the seed bed is
_________ (a) seedlings (b) growing (c) blending (d) thinning
6. _________ is the removal of unwanted plants from the farm. (a) weeding (b) beeding
(c) welding (d) harvesting
7. The following are the basic nutrients needed by animals EXCEPT ________ (a) protein (b)
mineral (c) primate (d) fat
8. Farm animal _________ refers to disturbance in the normal body function of the animal
which may affect a part or the whole body (a) disease (b) pest (c) control (d) life
9. _________ occurs as a result of poor feeding of farm animals or lack of feeding. (a)
malnutrition (b) nutrition (c) hygiene (d) consumption
10. _________ is the collection of principles to apply on farm production process in order to
get better agricultural products. (a) farm produce (b) agricultural growth (c) agricultural
goods (d) agricultural practice
11. _________ is refers to food grown or developed for livestock and poultry to nourish
their body (a) animal farm (b) poultry farm (c) animal feed (d) farm produce
12. Symptoms of farm animal disease includes the following EXCEPT (a) weight gain (b)
blood stain (c) high fever (d) loss of weight
13. Before raising a crop, the soil which is to be grown on it is prepared by the following
ways EXCEPT _________ (a) harvesting (b) ploughing (c) levelling (d) manuring
14. _________ is the removal of ripe or mature useful parts of a crop (a) harvesting (b)
burying (c) picking (d) grading
15. Which of the following is not a cause of farm animal disease ? (a) virus (b) germicide
(c) bacteria
16. __________ simply means reproduction (a) irrigation (b) propagation (c) networking (d)
preservation
17. __________ preparation is the cultivation of the farm for planting crops (a) seed (b) crops
(c) land (d) plant
18. __________ is the division of new farm site into sections to make it easy to plant crop
and maintain them (a) tilling (b) plotting (c) stumping (d) seed selection
19. __________ is the deliberate placing of agricultural seeds in the soil in such a way that
it will germinate and grow (a) mulching (b) tilling (c) planning (d) plotting
20. _________ is the covering the surface of the ridges with plants materials like dry grasses
or leaves (a) weeding (b) manure (c) thinning (d) mulching
21. When a part of the plant that is useful is separated from the whole plant on the field is
known as _________ (a) harvesting (b) weeding (c) grounding (d) mulching
22. __________ operation is carried out after harvesting (a) processing (b) storage (c)
feeding (d) nursing
23. _________ is the activities which involves the management and production of fish and
other aquatic animals like prawns, octopus. (a) fishery (b) piggery (c) snail farming (d)
fingerlings
24. _________ food such as meat and fish should be refrigerated (a) non- perishable (b)
dried (c) checkers (d) perishable
25. _________ are mainly used for cutting clothes (a) scissors (b) measuring tape (c) brown
paper (d) needle
26. Family conflicts may lead to __________ (a) happiness (b) abuse (c) unity (d) divorce
27. One of the following is not an example of family crisis (a) promotion at work (b)
arrival of new baby (c) family alter
28. Snacks are easily cooked light _________ (a) meals (b) dishes (c) beverages (d)
courses
29. Which of the following is not an example of snacks (a) yam flour (b) puff puff (b) chin
chin (d) buns
30. Food nutrients are ____________ compounds in food essential to life and health (a)
ingredients (b) chemical (c) materials (d) compositions

SECTION B: Answer any four questions

1a. Explain three(3) pre planting operations in Agricultural practices

b. What is Post Planting Operations

2a. Explain Crop Production

b. Explain Planting Operation

3a. What is Harvesting ?

b. What is Mulching

4. Outline four problems that can cause conflicts in the family

5a. State four (4) forms of family crisis

b. Mention 4 ways we can prevent family crisis

FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION


Class: J S S 3 Subject: PVS
1. The following are marketing activities except ______ (a) packaging (b) processing (c)
weeding (d) Storage
2. A place where buyers and sellers come together to exchange goods and services is called
(a) farm (b) market (c) bank (d) market process
3. Market can take place through the following except (a) e mail (b) telephone (c)
solitary (d) satellite
4. The organization that buys goods in bulk from the farmer and sells in small quantity to its
member is called ___________ (a) civil service (b) labour union (c) extension agent (d)
cooperative society
5. The agent that buys cash crops from the village farmers and sells to the commodity board
or exporter is called ____________ (a) extension agent (b) commissioned agent (c)
government agent (d) farmer s agent
6. Which of the following is a marketing channel (a) wholesaler (b) telephone (c)
television (d) radio
7. The following are the characteristics of agricultural products except ________ (a)
bulkiness (b) seasonal (c) perishability (d) scarcity
8. The price at which farmer sells his farm products on the farm is called __________ price
(a) firm gate (b) farmers (c) producer (d) farming
9. Which of the following is not a marketing channel? (a) food (b) cash (c) ephemeral (d)
annual
10. International market concentrate on the sale of __________ (a) food (b) cash (c)
ephemeral (d) annual
11. In which of the following methods of fish preservation does the body weight mostly
reduced? (a) frying (b) refrigeration (c) salting (d) smoking
12. Which of the following methods of fish preservation does the body weight mostly reduced
(a) frying (b) refrigeration (c) salting (d) smoking
13. Which of the following methods is the best for preserving farm product for long period of
time ? (a) canning (b) drying (c) salting (d) smoking
14. Which of these is not a traditional method of preserving farm products? (a) canning (b)
drying (c) smoking (d) salting
15. The following are marketing activities except _________ (a) packaging (b) processing
(c) weeding (d) storage
16. The baby developing in the womb is called __________ (a) egg (b) ovum (c) foetus (d)
ovary (e) cell
17. __________ care is the care required by a mother after child birth (a) ante-natal (b) post
–natal (c) pre-natal (d) child (e) pregnancy
18. Which of the following is not a sign of pregnancy? (a) height increase (b) vomiting (c)
nausea (d) breast enlarges (d) menstruation stops
19. The care required by a pregnant woman before child birth is _________ care (a)
child (b) birth (c) ante-natal (d) post-natal (e) normal
20. Children develop at __________ (a) different rates (b) similar rates (c) a time (d) high
rates
21. ___________ feeding is the natural way to feed a baby (a) breast (b) bottle (c)
artificial (d) regular (d) constant
22. The first milk produced by a nursing mother is called (a) yellow milk (b) colostrums (c)
artificial milk (d) constant milk
23. Which of the following contains important antibodies needed by baby (a) artificial milk
(b) cow milk (c) baby’s milk (d) feeding unit
24. The process of introducing a baby gradually to food other than milk is called (a) feeding
(b) wining (c) warning (d) wearing (e)weaning
25. For the first six months of age _________ is adequate source of nourishment for a baby
(a) pure water (b) white milk (c) breast milk (d) bottled milk (d) artificial milk
26. The baby requires good clothes for all except one of the following (a) protection (b)
warmth (c) appearance (d) height
27. Baby’s clothes should not be (a) washed (b) ironed (c) starched (d) dried (e) rinsed
28. _________ prevent children from disease (a) air (b) sun (c) warmth (d) immunization
(d) love
29. The baby developing in the womb is called (a) egg (b) ovum (c) foetus (d) ovary (e)
cell
30. _________ care is the care required by a mother after child birth (a) ante-natal (b) post
natal (c) pre natal (d) child (e) pregnancy

SECTION B: Answer four questions

1a. What is Marketing?

b. List four marketing activities

2a. What is Preservation. b. State 6 methods of Preservation

c. Explain the reason for Food Preservation

3. State difference between Packaging and Branding

4a. State 5 conditions necessary for Child development

b. State two differences between Pre-natal and Post natal

5a. What is Colostrums

b. What is the function of Colostrums


FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 3 Subject: Agricultural Science

1. _______ is the artificial application of water to the soil for plant growth (a) irrigation (b)
drainage (c) leaching (d) liming
2. ______ is the process whereby water is removed from agricultural land. (a) Irrigation (b)
drainage (c) leading (d) liming
3. The system of irrigation whereby water is supplied by the force of gravity through a
conveyance structure to the farmland is called _________ (a) sub surface irrigation (b)
overhead irrigation (c) surface irrigation (d) inner irrigation
4. The introductions of harmful substances into the environment as a result of agricultural
practices is called _________ (a) agricultural pollution (b) air pollution (c) land pollution
(d) water pollution
5. Which of these is not a cause of agricultural pollution? (a) burning of bush and other
waste products on the farm (b) marine and oil spillage (c) liming (d) excessive
application of chemical fertilizer
6. Ways of preventing or minimizing pollution of land/pond include all the following except
________ (a) alternative crop rotation (b) organic agricultural practices (c) biological
physiology (d) cultural physiology
7. The average weather condition of a places measured over a long period of time is called
________ (a) atmosphere (b) edaphic (c) climate (d) rainfall
8. All these are environmental factors affecting agricultural production except (a) climatic
factors (b) biotic factors (c) edaphic factors (d) biotic factors
9. Which of these is not a climatic factor (a) temperature (b) pressure (c) wind (d) soil PH
10. Domestic birds raised by farmers are called (a) poultry (b) piggery (c) birdry (d) farming
11. ___________ is the particular quantity of food an animal is given per day (a) nutrition (b)
feeding (c) ration (d) feed
12. The nutrients required in large quantities by plant to germinate well on the soil is referred to
as _________ (a) micro nutrients (b) macro nutrients (c) soil water (d) soil air
13. The nutrients required in small quantities by plant to germinates well on the soil is
known as __________ (a) soil water (b) macro nutrients (c) soil air (d) micro nutrients
14. The nutrients required in small quantities by plant to germinate well on the soil comprises
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 6
15. ___________ is the way soil particles are parked or arranged (a) soil texture (b) soil
structure (c) soil components (d) all of the above
16. Which of these is not an importance of soil structure ? (a) it helps to prevent soil erosion
(b) it serves as an chorage for the plants (c) it helps to know the level of acration in the
soil (d) none of the above
Use the following options for question 17-19
A. Livestock Management B. Livestock C. Soil Structure D. None of the above
17. One or more animals kept on a farm and raised in an agricultural setting for food or
other products are called ___________
18. The control of farm animals against soil borne diseases and administering farm animals
through the use of labour and other factors of production is called __________
19. The control of man, capital and land in agricultural production is called ___________
20. The act of giving birth in farm animals is called __________ (a) hatching (b) laying (c)
parturition (d) gestation
21. A crop was planted in the month of September and harvested in February the following
year. what class does the crop belong ? (a) annual (b) perennial (c) biennial (d) arable
22. One of these is not a forage crop (a) centrosema (b) stylo (c) guinea grass (d) celosia
23. Plantation is an agricultural practice which involves __________ (a) planting of various
crops (b) planting of crops and rearing of animals (c) raising of daily animals on a large
hectare of land (d) planting of only one crop on a large hectare of land for commercial
process
24. Poultry products includes the following except ________ (a) feathers (b) eggs (c) hides
and skin (d) meat
25. A matured male cow is called __________ (a) bull (b) sow (c) calf (d) matured cow
26. Classification of crops as oil crops implies __________ (a) crops with sufficient crude oil
production (b) crops that are oily in nature (c) crops from which oil is extracted (d) crops
that supplies vegetable oil
27. Erosion can occur in the following forms except (a) plain erosion (b) sheet erosion (c)
gully erosion (d) rill erosion
28. The class of crops that supply minerals and vitamins in human diet is ________ (a) cereals
(b) legumes (c) fruits (d) beverages
29. Structure usually constructed on the farm to channel water in and out of other farm is
called (a) terrace (b) channels (c) canals (d) drainage pipe
30. The wear and tear is referred to as _________ (a) depreciation (b) appreciation (c)
salvaging (d) damaging

SECTION B: Answer any 5 Questions

1a. Define Irrigation


b. State four importance of irrigation
c. List two problems associated with Irrigation
2a. Define Drainage
b. List four importance of drainage
3. Distinguish between irrigation and drainage
4. State 5 factors of replenishing lost nutrients and explain two of them
5a. What is Agricultural Pollution
b. State three ways of preventing water pollution in farms
c. What is water pollution
6a. What is farm surveying
b. Outline the importance of farm surveying
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 1 Subject: Mathematics

Section A: Choose the correct answer from the options lettered A-D. Answer all
Questions

1. Express in figure “Thirteen million, nine hundred and twenty three thousand and two ” (a)
13,9232 (b) 13,902,032 (c) 30,902,032 (d) 13,, 923,002
2. What is the figure form of “Three hundred and seventy nine million, one hundred and
eight thousand and twenty three ” (a) 379,180,023 (b) 307, 910, 823 (c) 379,108,023
(d) 370,918,023
3. Express 25,139,001 in word (a) two hundred and five million, one hundred and thirty
nine thousand and one. (b) twenty five million, one hundred and thirty nine thousand and
one (c) twenty five thousand one hundred and thirty nine and one (d) all
4. What is the word of “7,000,006,001” (a) seven billion, six thousand and one (b) seven
million, six thousand and one (c) seven hundred billion, six thousand and one (d) seven
hundred and six thousand and one
5. What number does MMCMLIV represent (a) 2954 (b) 2964 (c) 20954 (d) 2454
6. What does the roman numeral MMMD represent (a) 3000500 (b) 3500 (c) 20500 (d)
2500
7. 2011 represent the roman numeral? (a) XXII (b) XX011 (c) MMXI (d) CCXI
8. What is the sum of XXV and XLIX (a) XXLIV (b) LXIV (c) LXXV (d) LXXIV
9. What is the place value of 9 in 19620? (a) unit (b) thousand (c) tens (d) hundred
10. What is the place value of 5 in 3.725? (a) five hundredth (b) five thousandth (c) five
tenth (d) five unit
11. What is the value of 6 in 265,212 ? (a) 600000 (b) 6000 (c) 600 (d) 60000
12. _________ represent the place value of “hundredth” in 29.501 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 9 (d) 0
(e) 5
13. Which of the following is not a prime number (a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 23 (d) 17
14. All but one is not a composite number (a) 23 (b) 21 (c) 12 (d) 14
15. Express 36 as a product of prime factor (a) 2x2x2x3 (b) 2x3x3x3 (cc) 2x2x3x3 (d) all
16. What is the common factor of 15 and 18 ? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
17. There are _________ factors of 12 (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
18. All are multiples of six except (a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 36
19. Find the LCM of 3, 4 and 6 (a) 6 (b)8 (c) 12 (d) 14
20. Conversion of 54ten to base 2 is ? (a) 11011 (b) 110011 (c) 101101 (d) 110110
21. Convert 1011 to base 10 (a) 101 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d)111
22. What fraction of does the shaded portion
Represent (a) 3/7 (b) 4/7 (c) ¾ (d) 4/3
23. The number on top of a fraction is called (a) nominator (b) numerator (c) denominator
(d) substitution
24. The number beneath a fraction is called nominator (b) numerator (c) denominator (d)
substitution
25. When fraction are equal, we say they are (a) equivalent (b) equatorial fractions (c)
equivalent fraction (d) equipment fraction
1 3 2 8
26. Express 20/6 as a mixed number (a) 3 (b)2 (c) 3 (d) 2
6 6 6 6
27. Reduce 20/70 to its lowest term (a) 2/7 (b) 1/3 (c) 7/2 (d) 3/1
4
28. Express 11 as improper fraction (a) 59/5 (b) 58/5 (c) 54/5 (d) 55/5
5
29. Which of the following is equivalent to ¾ (a) 6/12 (b) 6/8 (c) 9/8 (d) 3/8
2
30. All but one is not a fraction (a) 3 (b) 0.15 (c) 8/5 (d) ½
3

SECTION B: Answer question one and any other three. Show workings where necessary
1ai.Write the following numbers in words
13,065,011,638 ii. 494,002,010,307 iii. 25, 139,0001
b. Write the following in figures
i. fifty one billion, one hundred and eleven million, nine hundred and thirty seven
thousand, two hundred and forty four
ii. Twenty one billion, one hundred and thirty two million and seven
2. In a tabular form, write the place value and value of 1,234,567.891
3a. Convert the following binary to base 10
i. 1101 ii. 101.11
b. Convert the following base 10 numbers to binary
i. 25 ii. 11/16 iii. 94
4a. Find the HCF of the following
i. 15 and 40 ii. 24, 30 and 36 iii. 18 and 24
b. Find the LCM of the following
i. 9 and 12 ii. 6,8 and 12
5. Reduce the following fraction to their lowest term
i. 15/45 ii. 20/70 iii. 64/84 iv. 30/40 75/120
b. Express the following mixed numbers as improper fractions (show workings clearly)
3 2 1 2 4
i. 2 ii.5 iii. 15 iv. 2 v. 11
5 7 9 3 5
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 1 Subject: B.S.T

1. The diet that contain all the essential food nutrient in their right proportion is called (a)
balanced diet (b) additive (c) feed ration (d) ingredient
2. ______ is the process by which organisms assimilate food and use it for growth and
maintenance (a) movement (b) nutrition (c) respiration (d) reproduction
3. The class of food that provide energy is called _________ (a) protein (b) carbohydrate (c)
minerals
4. The art of total dependence on medication or drug is called (a) drug addiction (b) drug
prevention metabolism
5. The following are important of physical fitness except ________ (a) it create hunger (b)
it controls obesity (c) it aids digestion
6. The following are types of pollution except _________ (a) water pollution (b) air
pollution (c) spoil pollution
7. Athletics is divided into track and (a) table (b) court (c) field
8. Health related components of physical fitness are muscular strength, muscular endurance,
muscular power and___________ (a) flexibility (b) muscular coordination (c) accuracy
9. Branch of health education include the following except _________ (a) sex education
(b) drug education (cc) fashion education
10. Physical education PHE is an integral part of general education ait at developing person
on the following except _________ (a) physically (b) mentally (c) socially (d) morally
11. _________ is any substance that are taken that cause physical or mental changes (a) drug
(b) drug abuse (c) dose (d) cocaine
12. Which of these is not product of technology (a) gas cooker (b) blender (c) stone
13. Technology has positively affected every area of our life it makes our work ________(a)
slow (b) easier and faster (c) rough (d) stop
14. _________ is a person who is working on the road especially in an area used by vehicles
(a) pedestrian (b) driver (c) seller
15. Which of these is not technology related profession (a) Engineer (b) Technician (c) Pilot
(d) Musician
16. Freedom from danger or protection from injury means (a) graduation (b) safety (c)
protection (d) all of the above
17. A person who rides a bicycle by pushing the pedal with his feet is called __________ (a)
cyclist (b) motorcyclist (c) bicyclist (d) driver
18. _________ are activities in which a person participate in, during leisure either individually
or collectively (a) interventions (b) deliberations (c) recreation (d) procreation
19. Dance is moving the body and feet accordingly to the ________ of the music (a) tone (b)
note (c) rhythm (d) melody
20. Which of the following is not a workshop accident (a) slips on trips (b) chemical fire (c)
wind electrical
21. Which of the following is not a cause of drug abuse (a) peer pressure (b) depression (c)
anxiety (d) happiness
22. Which of the following is not a way to prevent accident (a) do not expose naked wires
(b) put on hand gloves (c) using a wrong tool
23. An abacus is a mechanical device which has a ________ frame (a) beads (b) wooden
(c) technique (d) larger
24. Slide rule is a calculating device that was based on principle of ________ (a) arithmetic
(b) logic (c) logarithm (d) technique
25. Which of the following generation uses operated tube technology (a) first (b) second (c)
third (d) fourth
26. Which of the following use operated transistors instead of valve (a) second (b) first (c)
third (d) fourth
27. Which of the following is not the characteristic of first generation (a) occupied large
space (b)generate much heat (c) very fast in operation (d)uses vacuum tube
28. The substance that is taken in by a living organism, provide energy or replace worn out
tissue and cells is called _________ (a) meat (b) balanced diet (c) food (d) nutrient
29. Drug abuse include all the following except (a) buyers of drugs in the motor park (b)
buyers of un recommended drugs (c) buyers of drugs in government hospitals (d) buyers
of drugs from peddlers
30. _________ is the art of keeping one’s body clean (a) banking (b) personal sanitation (c )
washing (d) selflessness

Theory

1a. What is Balanced Diet

b. Define Nutrition

c. Mention two importance of Sanitation

2a. Define Drug Abuse

b. State three effects of Drug Abuse

3a.. Define Pollution

b. List three types of Pollution

4a. Who is a Pedestrian

b. List three safety rules of a motorist

5. Define Leisure

b. State two importance of leisure and dance


FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 2 Subject: B.S.T

1. Organisms that live on tree branches or among leaves are called ________ (a) aquatic (b)
terrestrial (c) arboreal
2. The branch of biology that studies interrelationships between living organisms with respect
to their environment is called (a) biology (b) ecology (c) zoology
3. The possession of some peculiar structure by an organism that make it to survive
successfully in a given habitat is called (a) ecosystem (b) adaptation (c) ecology
4. _________ is a body of ocean water that enters the land through a canal and have the
opportunity of mixing with fresh water from streams (a) delta (b) lagoon (c) rivers
5. Which of the following is not an adaptive features for fish (a) gills (b) fins (c) streamline
body (d) poisonous gland
6. Instrument that used to measure the degree of coldness or hotness of a body is called (a)
hydrometer (b) thermometer (c) photometer
7. __________ is the ability to think rationally and use resources effectively when faced with
challenges (a) brain (b) intelligence (c) articulate
8. Human being belong to a group of mammals called ____________(a) primate (b) gorilla
(c) mammals
9. Growth can be defined as the ____________ (a) irreversible increase in size , weight and
height (b) emergence of ability to function well (c) irreversible decrease in size, weight
and height
10. __________ is the series of changes that occur during growth (a) development (b)
adaptation (c) adulthood
11. Two stages of development where rapid growth occur are (a) infancy and adolescent (b)
childhood and adolescent (c) adulthood and adolescent
12. ____________ is an element with specific molecular composition and may be produced
by or used during a natural chemical process (a) atom (b) chemical (c) hazard (d)
agrochemical
13. The following are classification of chemical based on use (a) agrochemical (b) industrial
use (c) technical use
14. Which of the following is not example of agro chemical (a) fertilizers (b) insecticides
(c) carbonates
15. The following chemical can be used in the laboratory except (a) carbonate (b) sodium
chloride (c) herbicides
16. Which of the following is an hazardous chemical (a) glutamines (b) carbonates (c)
hydrochloric acid
17. __________ is not an examples of terrestrial organisms (a) man (b) crayfish (c) monkey
18. __________ is the emergency treatment given to an injured person (a) cotton wool (b)
first aid (c) stages (d) treatment
19. __________ is used to cover wound so that the medical substance applied stayed (a)
medical force (b) plaster (c) uniqueness
20. ___________ is used for cutting plaster and other material during treatment (a) penicillin
(b) cutlass (c) scissors
21. ___________ can be used in the construction of chairs, tables and beds (a) array (b)
cotton wool (c) wood
22. ___________ means the responsible actions that usually involved the act of saving life or
injured person during an accident (a) safety (b) accident (c) rescue operation
23. __________ is the inward curvature of the spine (a) kyphosis (b) lordosis (c) scoliosis
24. ___________ is caused by lack of vitamin in the body (a) kyphosis (b) lordosis (c)
scoliosis
25. _________ is one of the general treatment of postural detect (a) physical therapy (b)
lordosis (d) vitamin s
26. _________ is the behaviour directed toward a child by adult that harm a child’s
physical or emotional health (a) lordosis (b) female genital mutilation (c) child abuse
27. _________ is one of the effect of child abuse (a) playful (b) measines (c) depression
28. The free time left over after the days work is called __________ (a) tort (b) negligence
(c) leisure
29. ________ is the act as an intermediary between computer user and hardware (a)
communication link (b) software (c) skill
30. ________ is a device sent up into space used to relay communication signals between
two or more points (a) radio (b) television (c) satellite

Theory

1a. Define Habitat

b. Explain three types of habitat

c. List three adaptive features of fish

2a. Define Growth

b. List four developmental stages in human life

3a. Define Wood

b. List three uses of rubber

4a. Define Posture

b. List three ways of maintaining good posture

5a. Define Computer Software

b. List various Units of storage

FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION


Class: J S S 3 Subject: B.S.T

1. The transmission of genes or traits from parent to their progeneries or offspring is called
(a) gene (b) heredity (c) birth
2. The study of heredity and variations is (a) traits (b) chromosome (c) genetics
3. The molecules that govern the characteristic transmitted from parents to offspring is called
(a) traits (b) heredity (c) genes
4. Within the nucleus of a cell are structure known as _________ (a) cells (b) genetics
(c)chromosomes
5. The father of genetics is called _________ (a) Gregor Mendel (b) Morgan (c) Phillips
6. The following are the care given to a child in the family except __________ (a) post
natal (b) ante natal (c) natural care
7. The following are some of the traits that run in the family at human beings except (a)
height (b) skin color (c) ability to eat
8. The washing away of the topsoil by the action of natural agents like water and wind is
called _________ (a) draught (b) flooding (c) erosion
9. The following are the types of erosion except (a) gully (b) sheet (c) pill
10. The major agents of soil erosion are (a) wind and sun (b) sun and light (c) air and water
11. The process whereby a piece of land that is normally dry is covered in excess of water is
called ________ (a) erosion (b) drainage (c) flooding
12. The process of removal of excess water through artificial means from the soil surface is
called _________ (a) splash (b) erosion (c) drainage
13. The following are the causes of flooding except _________ (a) poor drainage (b)
drainage blockage (c) bush burning
14. The process of cutting down trees and bushes, thereby exposing the soil to wind and water
is called (a) afforestation (b) deforestation (c) bush burning
15. The practise of setting bush in fire is called (a) crop rotation (b) bush clearing (c) bush
burning
16. The act of planting crops in a year while rotating is called ________ (a) planting
pollination (b) crop rotation (c) crop harvesting
17. Bush burning expose the soil to ________ (a) fertilization (b) flooding (c) degradation
18. Forest serve as wind breakers (a) yes (b) no (c) no idea
19. Bush clearing is done when a farmer is ready to plant new crops (a) yes (b) no (c) not
sure
20. The following are the examples of trees that are grown for timber processing except (a)
opepe (b) obeche (c) cedar
21. Before a tree can be converted to seasoned, it must be (a) burnt (b) felt (c) dung
22. The hard shinning materials used for the production of tools, jewelleries and machine are
called (a) wood (b) good (c) metal
23. Pure metal can be moulded directly into a given shape or they can be mixed with other
metal to form metal (a) ball (b) seed (c) alloy
24. The following are types of non ceramics material used in offices, homes and industries
except ___________ (a) glass (b) ceramic (c) water
25. __________ is the ability to carry out daily activities without due fatique (a) obesity (b)
fracture (c) physical fitness
26. ________ expressive movement of turning, twisting and rolling of the body parts to
conform to the rhythm (a) folk (b) fitness (c) dance
27. ________ is defined as a game played on personal computer (a) physical fitness (b)
dance (c) computer game
28. ___________ aids digestion (a) dance (b) obesity (c) fitness
29. __________ helps control obesity (a) sleep (b) control (c) physical fitness
30. ____________ is an individual who works in the computer field by planning and directing
functions relating to information (a) computer manager (b) director (c) analyst

Theory

1a. Define Bush Burning

b. State five effects of bush burning

2a. Define Drug Abuse

b. State five effects of Drug Abuse

c. State three prevention of drug abuse

3a. Briefly Explain the following

i. Concrete ii. Cement

b. List three method s of production of plastics

4a. Define Physical Fitness

b. State three benefits of Physical fitness

c. List ten notable Nigerian musicians

5a. List five Computer Professional

b. State three qualities of computer professional

FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION


Class: S S S 1 Subject: BIOLOGY
1. The branch of science which deals with the study of living things is called _________ (a)
geography (b) anatomy (c) biology
2. The study of animal means _________ (a) botany (b) ecology (c) zoology
3. The study of plant means __________ (a) biology (b) ecology (c) botany
4. _________ is the study of living things in the relation to their environment (a) biology (b)
ecology (c) morphology
5. __________ is the study of external features of plants and animals (a) ecology (b)
zoology (c) morphology
6. The study of internal structure of plants and animals means _________ (a) morphology
(b) ecology (c) anatomy
7. The study of heredity and variation in living things means _________ (a) physics (b)
genetics (c) morphology
8. ___________ is the scientific study of how body of plants and animals function (a)
morphology (b) physiology (c) anatomy
9. ___________ are molecule that govern the characteristics transmitted from parent to
offspring (a) anatomy (b) genes (c) faeces
10. The function of ribosomes in the cell is ? (a) starch synthesis (b) translocation (c) protein
synthesis
11. A tissue is __________ (a) group of cells performing similar function (b) an aggregate of
similar cell (c) a group of cells in the same organism
12. Production of energy in living cells takes place in the ______________ (a) vacuole (b)
cell wall (c) mitochondria
13. Which of the following scientist did not contribute to the development of cell theory (a)
Robert Hooke (b) Felix Durojin (c) Isaac Schleiden
14. A solution is said to be __________ if its osmotic pressure is equal to that of the cell
placed in it (a) hypertonic (b) hypotonic (c) isotomic
15. When a cell become very full as a result of absorbing a lot of water, is said to be (a)
flaccid (b) diffused (c) turgid
16. Red blood cell burst open after being placed in distilled water for an hour (a) wilting
(b) plasmolysis (c) haemolysis
17. Micro organisms can be found in all except (a) air (b ) food (c) none of the above
18. Adolescent stages also called (a) adulthood (b) puberty (c) childhood
19. The process through which living thing move whole or part of the body is called (a)
excretion (b) reproduction (c) movement
20. The process through which living organisms respond to external stimulus is ________
(a) irritability (b) excretion (c) death
21. ___________ is defined as the structural and function al unit of life (a) biology (b)
variation (c) cell
22. Homoeothermic means ? (a) cold blooded animal (b) warm blooded (c) pair of limbs
23. Poikilothermic means (a) cold blooded animal (b) warm blooded animal (c) poor body
conditioning
24. Angiosperm and gymnosperm belong to the plant group known as (a) schizophyta (b)
bryophyta (c) spermatophyta
25. Which of the following are differentiated into true roots, stems and leaves ? (a)
schizophyta (b) bryophyta (c) pteridophyta
26. Which of the following environmental condition is ideal for plant cells to remain turgid (a)
hot dry weather (b) cold, dry weather (c) cool, humid weather
27. Osmosis occur s through membrane that can be permeable (a) fully (b) slowly (c)
differentially (d) freely
28. Which of these organelle is common to both plants and animals (a) chloroplast (b)
prenoid (c) nucleus
29. The main photosynthesis organs of plant is (a) leaf (b) fruit (c) root
30. What animal belong to heterotrophic animal (a) lion (b) goat (c) man

Theory

1a. Define Biology

b. Explain five branches of Biology

c. Explain five Characteristics of living things

2a. Explain five usefulness of science

b. In a tabular form state five difference between plant and animals

3a. What is Taxonomy ?

b. State two reasons for classification of living things

c. Give the botanical name of the following

i. Man ii. Maize iii. Rat iv. Orange v. Rice

4a. Explain five characteristics of Pisces (fish)

b. Explain Five Characteristics of Mammalia (Mammals)

c. List five chisses of animal that belongs to Chordata

5a. Define Cell

b. Explain five cell component or organelle

c. List five similarities of plants and animal cell

FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION


Class: S S S 3 Subject: ENGLISH STUDIES

Grammar Section
1. Which sentence is in the passive voice?

A) She was baking cookies.

B) The cookies were baked by her.

C) She bakes cookies every weekend.

D) She has baked cookies.

2. Identify the sentence with a dangling participle.

A) While running to catch the bus, the driver waited.

B) The cat, scared by the noise, hid under the bed.

C) Being a professional, she handled the situation well.

D) I heard him singing loudly.

3. Choose the correct subjunctive form of the verb: If I ___


you, I would apologize.
A) was

B) were

C) am
D) will be

4. Choose the correct conditional sentence:

If she ___ more time, she would finish the project.

A) has

B) had

C) will have

D) would have

5. Which sentence uses an infinitive correctly?

A) She was afraid to speak.

B) She was afraid for speaking.

C) She was afraid in speaking.

D) She was afraid with speaking.

6. Which of the following sentences has a correct comparison?

A) He is more stronger than his brother.

B) He is stronger than his brother.

C) He is the strongest than his brother.

D) He is strong as his brother.


7. What is the correct form of the verb in this sentence: "I wish I ___ more time to study."

A) have

B) had

C) will have

D) has

8. Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

A) He don’t like ice cream.

B) He doesn’t likes ice cream.

C) He doesn’t like ice cream.

D) He does not liking ice cream.

9. Which sentence contains an error in subject-verb agreement?

A) The boys play soccer every weekend.

B) The boy plays soccer every weekend.

C) The team are playing well this season.

D) The dog runs fast.

10. Choose the correct sentence:

A) I have been working here since three years.

B) I have been working here for three years.

C) I have worked here since three years.


D) I work here since three years.

11. Which of the following sentences uses indirect speech?

A) He said, "I will call you tomorrow."

B) He said he would call me tomorrow.

C) He said he will call me tomorrow.

D) He says he will call me tomorrow.

12. Which is the correct plural form?

A) Phenomenons

B) Phenomena

C) Phenomenas

D) Phenomenae

13. Choose the sentence with correct pronoun usage:

A) Each of the students handed in their homework.

B) Each of the students handed in his or her homework.

C) Each of the students handed in its homework.

D) Each of the students handed in their home works.

14. Which sentence has the correct verb tense?


A) I have finished my homework tomorrow.

B) I will have finished my homework by tomorrow.

C) I finished my homework tomorrow.

D) I finish my homework tomorrow.

15. Which sentence uses an adverb correctly?

A) He sings beautiful.

B) He sings beautifully.

C) He beautifully sings.

D) He is beautiful singing.

16. Identify the sentence that contains a modal verb:

A) She must study hard for the exam.

B) She studies hard for the exam.

C) She will study hard for the exam.

D) She is studying hard for the exam.

17. Choose the correct sentence:

A) Neither the teacher nor the students is responsible for this mess.

B) Neither the teacher nor the students are responsible for this mess.

C) Neither the teacher nor the students have responsible for this mess.

D) Neither the teacher nor the students was responsible for this mess.
18. Which sentence correctly uses a gerund?

A) I enjoy to swim.

B) I enjoy swimming.

C) I enjoy swim.

D) I am enjoy swimming.

19. Choose the sentence with correct preposition use:

A) The book is in the table.

B) The book is on the table.

C) The book is at the table.

D) The book is into the table.

20. Which sentence uses a coordinating conjunction correctly?

A) She studied hard, but she failed the exam.

B) She studied hard or she failed the exam.

C) She studied hard so she failed the exam.

D) She studied hard, for she failed the exam.


---

Oral Section

21. Which sentence demonstrates proper pronunciation of the underlined word?

A) The word "colonel" is pronounced as "co-lon-el."

B) The word "colonel" is pronounced as "ker-nel."

C) The word "colonel" is pronounced as "kolonel."

D) The word "colonel" is pronounced as "col-on-el."

22. The word "read" in the sentence "I read the book yesterday" is pronounced as:

A) /riːd/

B) /red/

C) /raɪd/

D) /reɪd/

23. Choose the correct transcription for the word "thought":

A) /θɑːt/

B) /tɔːt/

C) /θɒt/

D) /θʌt/
24. The word "psychology" starts with the sound:

A) /s/

B) /p/

C) /ʃ/

D) /k/

25. In the word "photograph," which syllable is stressed?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

26. Which word has a silent letter?

A) Knife

B) Dance

C) Teach

D) Big

27. Which word has the same vowel sound as "cat"?

A) Father

B) Hat

C) Cut
D) Mate

28. Choose the correct word stress pattern for "communication":

A) co-MU-ni-ca-tion

B) com-mu-ni-CA-tion

C) com-MU-ni-ca-tion

D) com-mu-ni-ca-TION

29. The vowel sound in the word "bird" is:

A) /ɪ/

B) /ə/

C) /ɜː/

D) /ʌ/

30. In the word "autumn," the letter "n" is:

A) Pronounced

B) Silent

C) Stressed

D) Aspirated

31. Which word has the same consonant sound as "write"?


A) Right

B) Bright

C) Kite

D) Light

32. In the phrase "a pair of shoes," the word "pair" is pronounced as:

A) /peɪr/

B) /pɛr/

C) /pɑːr/

D) /piːr/

33. Which word has the same initial sound as "judge"?

A) Gigantic

B) Gym

C) Jump

D) Giraffe

34. The word "hour" is pronounced as:

A) /aʊər/

B) /haʊər/

C) /aʊr/

D) /ɔːr/
35. The "ch" in "champion" is pronounced as:

A) /k/

B) /ʃ/

C) /ʧ/

D) /ʤ/

36. Which word has a different stress pattern?

A) Comfortable

B) Unforgettable

C) Considerable

D) Understandable

37. Which word contains a diphthong?

A) Coat

B) Sit

C) Cat

D) Hot

38. The final consonant in "jump" is:

A) Voiced
B) Voiceless

C) Silent

D) Aspirated

39. The vowel sound in "cut" is:

A) /æ/

B) /ʌ/

C) /ɑː/

D) /eɪ/

40. Which sentence contains the correct intonation for a yes/no question?

A) You're going to the party?

B) You're going to the party!

C) Are you going to the party?

D) You go to the party?

41. The sound /ʤ/ is found in which word?

A) Cage

Here is the rest of the advanced English objective questions:

---
Oral Section (continued)

41. The sound /ʤ/ is found in which word?

A) Cage

B) Cash

C) Cake

D) Cap

42. Choose the correct transcription for the word "measure":

A) /ˈmiːʒər/

B) /ˈmɛʒər/

C) /ˈmeɪʃər/

D) /ˈmɪzər/
43. Which word contains a long vowel sound?

A) Bit

B) Beat

C) Bat

D) Bet

44. Which word has a silent letter?


A) Climb

B) Club

C) Clam

D) Clutch

45. The sound /θ/ is found in which word?

A) Think

B) Sing

C) Sink

D) Blink

46. Which word has the same vowel sound as "boat"?

A) Bought

B) But

C) Coat

D) Bat

47. In the word "photographer," which syllable is stressed?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourt
48. Choose the correct stress pattern for the word "development":

A) de-VE-lop-ment

B) de-ve-LOP-ment

C) de-ve-lop-MENT

D) DE-ve-lop-ment

49. Which word contains a schwa sound?

A) Alone

B) Apple

C) Angry

D) Above

50. The word "bought" is pronounced as:

A) /bɔːt/

B) /bæt/

C) /bʌt/

D) /bɪt/

51. In the word "psychology," the "p" is:

A) Silent
B) Voiced

C) Aspirated

D) Stressed

52. Which word has the same ending sound as "buzz"?

A) Bus

B) Buzzard

C) Boss

D) Buzzes

53. Which word has a consonant cluster at the beginning?

A) Star

B) Apple

C) Orange

D) Umbrella

54. The word "half" is pronounced as:

A) /hæf/

B) /hɑːf/

C) /heɪf/

D) /hʌf/
55. Choose the correct pronunciation of "chaos":

A) /ʧeɪɒs/

B) /kaɪɒs/

C) /keɪɒs/

D) /ʧaɪɒs/

56. Which sentence uses falling intonation?

A) Are you coming?

B) What are you doing?

C) Is that true?

D) Do you agree?

57. The sound /ʧ/ is found in which word?

A) Church

B) Cough

C) Dough

D) Through

58. Which word has the same vowel sound as "bird"?

A) Word

B) Board
C) Card

D) Lord

59. The word "island" is pronounced as:

A) /aɪlænd/

B) /ɪslænd/

C) /aɪslænd/

D) /aɪlənd/

60. Which word has a different vowel sound?

A) Seat

B) Sit

C) Meet

D) Heat

Here’s the revised comprehension passage and questions in a copyable format:

Passage:

Friendship is an important part of life. True friends support each other through good times and bad. They listen,
share secrets, and offer advice when needed. Good friends also respect each
other’s differences and help each other grow. However, friendships can sometimes face challenges, such as
misunderstandings or jealousy. It is essential to communicate openly and honestly to maintain a strong bond. Trust
and loyalty are the foundations of a lasting friendship. Investing time and effort into friendships can lead to
meaningful connections that enrich our lives.

Comprehension Questions:

1. What is the main idea of the passage?


2. According to the passage, what are two qualities of true friends?
3. How can misunderstandings affect friendships?
4. What does the passage suggest is essential for maintaining a strong friendship
5. Find and explain the grammatical function of the phrase "important part" as used in the passage.
6. Find and explain the meanings of the following words in different contexts: bond
investing
loyalty
enrich
support
Choose one of the following and write more nothing less than 300 words

1. Formal Letter: Write a formal letter to the principal of your school requesting permission to organize a
school event.
2. Informal Letter: Write an informal letter to a friend, sharing your experiences at a recent event you attended.
3. Essay: Write an essay on the impact of social media on modern communication.

Summary :part
c

In today’s world, technology plays a vital role in shaping the way people interact, work, and learn. The rise of
digital devices and the internet has made information accessible at the click of a button, transforming traditional
practices across various sectors. For example, online learning has become a popular alternative to physical
classrooms, allowing students from diverse backgrounds to gain knowledge without geographical limitations.
Additionally, social media platforms have changed how people communicate, connecting individuals from
different parts of the world instantly. However, while technology brings numerous benefits, it also presents
challenges such as privacy concerns and the potential for addiction. As society continues to evolve, balancing the
advantages of technology with responsible use remains crucial.

Question ;

1. In 3 sentences what are some ways technology has impacted education and communication

2. In 3 sentences What challenges are associated with the increased use of technology in modern society?
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 2 Subject: BIOLOGY

1. The following except one result from food shortage (a) competition (b) reduced motality rate
(c) emigration
2. Food shortage makes population size (a) increase (b) decrease (c) stabilize (d) fluctuate
3. Food storage result in (a) stability of price (b) natural disaster (c) high natality rate (d) over
population
4. These are method of storage and preserving food except (a) silos (b) barns (c) refrigeration
(d) marketing
5. The biggest factor that affects food production in Africa is (a) improper food storage (b)
drought (c) low utilization of land (d) static farming technology
6. The following are caused by bacteria except (a) gonorrhea (b) AIDS (c) syphilis (d) none of
the above
7. A disease characterized by high fever, loss of weight, chronic diarrhea, wasting away and
final death s (a) gonorrhea (b) AIDS (c) syphilis (d) none of the above
8. Which of the following is not sexually transmitted disease ? (a) gonorrhea (b) malaria (c)
syphilis (d) AIDS
9. Which of the following is not an example of classification of plants (a) herbs and shrubs
(b) annual and perennial (c) monocot and dicot (d) carmine and emphorbinosae
10. Plants can be classified based on all these agricultural use except (a) planting season (b)
agricultural use (c) size (d) botanical
11. Fruits crops are rich in (a) vitamins and minerals (b) vitamins and protein (c) mineral and
carbohydrate (d) protein and carbohydrate
12. Spices include (a) pepper and ginger (b) palm oil and ginger (c) lettuce and carrot (d) yam
and maize
13. Which of these does not have negative effects on the ecological system (a) fertilizer
application (b) crop rotation (c) Lillage (d) bush burning
14. Which of these is not a pest of crops (a) insects (b) birds (c) ticks (d) none of the above
15. The following are viral diseases except (a) under pest (b) coccidiosis (c) Newcastle (d)
none of the above
16. The following except one are cultural ways of controlling pest (a) regular weeding (b)
early planting (c) crop rotation (d) use of ethal chemicals
17. Which of these is not an endoparasite (a) round worm (b) louse (c) liver fluke (d) tape
worm
18. Which of these following processes removes water from the water (a) condensation (b)
perspiration (c) photosynthesis (d) transpiration
19. What type of energy causes water to evaporate from the hydrosphere (a) mechanical energy
(b) chemical energy (c) solar energy (d) hydro electric energy
20. Water is returned to the atmosphere from animal through the following processes except (a)
excretion (b) respiration (c) condensation (d) perspiration
21. When organisms, water returned to the atmosphere by (a) decay (b) sweating (c) respiration
(d) condensation
22. Atmosphere gain carbon through the following processes except (a) photosynthesis (b)
decay (c) respiration (d) volcano
23. Legumes incorporate nitrogen gas into protein because (a) of the presence of azorobacter in
the root (b) they possess root nodules containing rhizobium (c) they have a well
developed root system (d) they are autotrophic
24. Thunderstorm can be beneficial to plants because (a) it kills the pest that attacks crops (b)
it destroys some of the major crops (c) it adds nitrate to the soil (d) it makes rain water
available to plants
25. Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of nitrites to nitrate (a) dentryfying
bacteria (b) nitrifying bacteria (c) lightening (d) fungi
26. Which of the following is a nitrifying bacterium (a) nitrobacter (b) rhizobium (c)
azotobacter (d) nitrosomonas
27. Buoyancy in salt water is ensured by the following except (a) divided leaves (b)
chlorophyll (c) floating device (d) air bladder
28. Which of the following is not a fresh water habitat (a) puddle (b) swamp (c) stream (d)
sea
29. Which of these is not an adaptive feature in a marine habitat (a) bladder for floating (b)
hold fast for attachment (c) fin to prevent water loss (d) rhizoid for attachment to rock
30. The following are fresh water habitats except (a) low salt content (b) high salinity (c)
shallow water (d) can be stagnant or running water

Theory
1a. Explain five agricultural classification of plants
b. Explain three classification of crops based on life cycle and examples
2a. Define Nitrogen Cycling
b. State two processes atmosphere gain carbohydrate
3a. Define Water Cycle
b. State three importance of carbon in water
c. State five method of putryfying water
4a. Define Pollution
b.. List five types of Pollution
c. Explain five methods of controlling water pollution
5a. Define Adaptation
b. State five adaptation in animal to aquatic habitat
c. Explain the adaptive features of toad and frog for protection, movement and food
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 3 Subject: BIOLOGY

1. ________ is the first step in the process of sexual reproduction in flowering plants (a)
development (b) pollination (c) fertilization
2. _________ is centrally placed at the centre (a) inline (b) nucleus (c) matrix
3. Which of the following germination carried cotyledon (seedling) above the surface (a)
hypogeal (b) epigeal (c) both
4. The plants that exhibit epigeal germination are called (a) monocotyledon (b) dicotyledon
(c) both
5. The process whereby green plants manufactured their food whereby green plants
manufactured there food through sunlight and water is ________ (a) seedling (b)
dormancy (c) photosynthesis
6. The plant that complete their life cycle within two year is __________ (a) annual (b)
perennial (c) biennial
7. _________ control overall process in the homeostans (a) dutless gland (b) brain (c) skin
8. The function of ribosome in the cell is (a) starch synthesis (b) transport minerals (c)
protein synthesis
9. Production of energy on living cell takes place in the __________ (a) vacuole (b)
mitochondrion (c) endoplasmoreticulum
10. Micro organisms are beneficially needed in which of the following (a) soap industry (b)
fishing industry (c) cliary industry
11. Examples of organisms that fix nitrogen into the nodules of leguminous plants is (a)
rhizobium spp (b) nitrobacter (c) yeast
12. Which of the following scientists did not contribute to the development of cell theory (a)
Robert Hooke (b) Isaac Newton (c) Felix Duyorchin
13. An example of viral disease is (a) malaria (b) typhoid fever (c) sleeping sickness
14. Animals that carry and spread micro organism are called (a) infectors (b) vectors (c)
causative organism
15. Which of the following is not sexually transmitted disease (a) syphilis (b ) gonorrhea
(c) leprosy
16. Bite of a tse tse fly will cause (a) malaria (b) ringworm (c) sleeping sickness
17. Drinking water can be treated by the following except (a) chlorination (b) filtering (c)
frying
18. A solution is said to be _________if its osmotic pressure is equal to that of the cell
placed in it (a) flaccid (b) plasmolysed (c) turgid
19. The patient with kidney stone should undergo surgery called _________ (a) dieresis (b)
nephrectomy (c) nephritis
20. All these are kidney diseases except (a) dieresis (b) kidney stone (c) poikilothermic
21. What prepare the uterus for the attachment of the embryo (a) testes (b) adrenalin (c)
progesterone
22. Over secreation of __________ leads to gigantism in children (a) thyroxine (b) pituitary
growth (c) insulin
23. Over secretion of ________ leads to abnormal urge for sex in male (a) oestrogen (b)
testosterone (c) adrenalin
24. Under secretaion of _________ leads to low heart beat (a) pitutuitary gland (b) adrenalin
(c) insulin
25. Under secretion of _________ leads too goiter (a) thyroxine (b) insulin (c) progesterone
26. _________ acts as a pathway between the spinal cord and the brain (a) spinal cord (b)
medulla oblongata (c) pons
27. ________ helps to keep us alive even when we are sleeping (a) voluntary actions (b)
neutrons (c) parasynphathetic
28. _________ exhibit the secretion of salivary gland (a) symphathetic (b) nerves (c) axion
29. _________ impulses nerves to the brain (a) sensory nerves (b) pituitary gland (c) axon
30. _________ are responsible for action taken deliberately (a) voluntary action (b) nerves
(c) adaptation

Theory
1a. Define Pollination
b. Explain the structure of Ovule
c. Explain the process of germination in maize
2a. Define Fruit
b. List different types of fruit
c. list agents of dispersal of fruit
3a. Define Homeostasis
b. List parts involved in Homeostasis
c. What is Osmoregulation
4a. Explain three diseases of the kidney with two effects and two solution to them
5a. With the aid of a well labeled diagram explain the structure of liver and five functions of
liver
b. Explain two disease of liver with two effects and solution to them
6. Define sense organ
b. Explain three defects of the eyes with causes and solution t them
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 1 Subject: MATHEMATICS

1. Express 64 in index form (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 23


2. Convert 3124 to base 10 (a) 94 (b) 84 (c) 51 (d) 54
3. Simplify log 381 (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) -1
4. Express 2/6 as a percentage (a) 33.33% (b) 20% (c) 60% (d) 30.3%
5. A motorist traveling at 45km/h completed a journey in 8 hours. At what speed must he travel
to complete the journey in 6 hours (a) 40km/h (b) 70km/h (c) 120km/h (d) 60km/h
6. Find the characteristic of the logarithm 45318 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3
7. Express 100.004 in standard form (a) 100.004x102 (b) 100004x103 (c) 100004x10-3 (d)
1000.04x104
8. Evaluate log 1/3 9 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) -2 (d) -3
9. What must be added to u2 +10u to make the expression a perfect square (a) u2+10u+25 (b)
u2+10u+15 (c) u2+10u+10 (d) u2+10u+5
10. Solve the equation (x-3)2 = 5 (a) -3+√8 (b) 3+√5 (c) 5+√3 (d) -5+√3

Section B: Answer four questions in all

1a. Find the roots of the quadratic equations

i. (3x+2)2 = 0 ii. (5t-3)2=0


2. Factorize 12d2-13d-14
3. Express log10 (2)+ 1 in the form of log10x
4. The length of two pencils differ by 5cm and their product is 66cm2 Find their lengths
5. Solve for x if log225/log15 = log x
6. a. Simplify 2345+4345
b. Convert 110011 to base 10
7. if the sum of two numbers is 10, their product is 24, find the numbers
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 2 Subject: English Studies

From the word lettered A-D below each of the following sentences , choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentences..
1. The erring policeman was suddenly dismissed (a) quickly (b) lately (c) unexpectedly (d)
immediately
2. The soil in the school farm is fertile (a) big (b) soft (c) productive (d) strong
3. Don’t prevent the boy from entering the school (a) stop (b) force (c) push (d) pull
4. The plant is mature enough for transplant (a) small (b) big (c) ripe (d) swollen
5. Chikanso made a gesture to the teacher (a) smile (b) sign (c) call (d) face
6. My sister has resumed a new job with the Ministry of youth (a) started (b) ended (c)
proposed (d) shifted
7. The children were delighted to see the teacher (a) happy (b) worried (c) afraid (d) keen
8. Ridwan is always punctual to school (a) late (b) sluggish (c) early (d) lazy
9. Mubarak is a diligent boy (a) lazy (b) smart (c) sluggish (d) hard working
10. The government’s attempts to curb corruption in schools are yielding fruits (a) improve (b)
caution (c) shield (d) stop
11. She needed the salt to flavour her food (a) season (b) cook (c) stuff (d) taste
12. You can find examples of primitive money in the museum (a) new (b) modern (c) current
(d) ancient
13. The plastic mug is more durable than the glass one. it chip or crack easily (a) expensive
(b) sturdy (c) beautiful (d) ornamented
14. Some mosquitoes have become immure to some of the sprays (a) resistant (b) vulnerable
(c) exposed (d) manageable
15. Doctors have proved that certain insects are vehicles of diseases (a) incubators (b) buses
(c) carriers (d) cars

SECTION B
Comprehension Passage : Africa

Africa My Africa
Africa of proud warriors and ancestral savannahs
Africa of whom my grandmothers sing
On the banks of distant rivers
I have never known you
But your blood flows in my veins
Your beautiful blood that irrigates the fields
The blood of your sweat
The work of your slavery
The slavery of your children
Africa, tell me Africa
Is this breaks under the weight of humiliation
This back trembling with red scars
And saying yes to the whip under the mid day sun?
But a grave voice answers me
Impetuous child, that the young and strong that tree over there
Splendidly alone amid white and faded flowers
That is your Africa springing up a new
Springing up patiently obstinately
Whose fruits bit by bit acquire
The bitter taste of liberty

Comprehension Questions
16. With what does the poet compare Africa in the first line of the poem
17. Mention two words in the poem that shows that Africa has suffered greatly
18. Who is referred to as ‘Impetuous Child’ in line 18
19. Which word can be used as replacement for the word liberty as it was used in the last line
20. What is the tone of the writer in this poem

SECTION C
Add a suitable suffixes to the following words
21. Command __________________
22. Mearring ___________________
23. Purpose ____________________
24. Impact ____________________
25. Help ____________________
26. Skill ____________________
27. Commit ____________________
28. Good ____________________
29. Respect ____________________
30. Readi ____________________

SECTION D
Choose any one of the following essay below
1. A narrative essay “A visit to the Hospital”
2. Write a letter to your friend, inviting him/ her to come and celebrate the next Christmas with
you
3. Write a story about the popular movie titled “LISABI” produced in year 2024
4. Write and expository essay on the topic “Bribery and Corruption in Nigeria ”
5. Write a narrative essay on “A day I will never forget in my life”
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 3 Subject: English Studies

SECTION A

In each of the following sentences there is one word or group of words underlined, and one
gap, from the list of words lettered A to E , choose the word that is nearly opposite in
meaning to the underlined word and that will at the same time correctly fill the gaps in the
sentences. Examples is given below

At first, john was famous with the children but when he saw what they had done he was
_________ (a) angry (b) pleased (c) sorry (d) disappointed (e) cross

1. The defence called two witness whom the __________ also cross examined (a) enemy (b)
state counsel (c) jury (d) prosecution (e) plaintiff
2. The patient’s condition was expected to improve, but instead it _________ (a)
ameliorated (b) heightened (c) climaxed (d) relapsed (d) deteriorated
3. He expected his nephew, and was surprised to see his ________ (a) cousin (b) spouse (c)
grandson (d) niece (e) stepson
4. Radio _________ and reception were greatly improved with the installation of relay stations
(a) production (b) transmission (c) exertion (d) communication (e) conception
5. Minerals are considered natural resources whereas industrial product are _________ (a)
unnatural (b) synthetic (c) foreign (d) artificial (e) indigenous
6. Some government are still talking of natimalising business, while others believe in
__________ government owned enterprises (a) privatising (b) publicising (d)
monopolising (e) dispossessing
7. The doctor was acquitted after being __________ by a woman patient of seducing her (a)
sentenced (b) defended (c) accused (d) discharged (e) impeached
8. The stock market added a volatile week even though oil prices __________ (a) nervous (b)
profitable (c) stable (d) busy (e) high
9. At first they derived everything but later, they __________ that they had been involved in the
robbery (a) refused (b) forbade (c) conceived (d) admitted (e) ignored
10. Chief Jonathan took up his new position before he ________ from his previous job (a)
sacked (b) left (c) resigned (d) appropriated (e) rejected

SECTION B

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
each of the following sentences.

11. __________ you pick me up this evening, Please? (a) shall (b) do (c) should (d) will
12. I asked him how much __________ but he made no reply (a) you want (b) he wants
(c) he wanted (d) did he want
13. The prefect confirm that the bully _______ the junior student before the tutor arrived (a)
slaps (b) has slapped (c) had slapped (d) was slapping
14. The woman complains that she _________ fed up with her husband, and wants divorce (a)
was (b) is (c) had been (d) has had
15. The teacher invited the twins to the party , but ________ of them could go (a) neither (b)
none (c) both (d) either
16. In order to separate the two boys the policeman stood ________ them (a) with (b) against
(c) among (d ) between
17. The boy was still _________ bed when his father returned from the farm (a) in (b) on (c)
beside (d) at
18. The weather is very old __________ harmattan (a) at (b) by (c) in (d) on
19. He was admitted ________ the third attempt (a) in (b) at (c) by (d) on
20. I regret __________ that please forgive me (a) to say (b) myself saying (c) saying (d) of
saying

SECTION C (Sound of Vowel)

From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the same vowel sound as the one
represented by the letters underlined in the capitalized words .u

21. HOE (a) love (b) show (c) burn (d) turn
22. FLOOD (a) boost (b) door (c) food (d) plug
23. WAS (a) song (b) wave (c) awe (d) worry
24. FISH (a) grief (b) friend (c) busy (d) sheep
25. DEAR (a) dare (b) roar (c) deaf (d) veer
26. TOUR (a) shore (b) rule (c) cure (d) tout
27. NOW (a) grow (b) low (c) spout (d) route
28. GATE (a) break (b) get (c) quite (d) mean
29. THE (a) valley (b) garage (c) arrow (d) annoy
30. OUR (a) hour (b) house (c) how (d) hole

SECTION D: Choose one of the essay topic below and write

1. Write a narrative essay on the topic “Bullying among students ”


2. Write an expository essay on the topic “The effect of corruption in Nigeria ”
3. Write a letter to your father requesting what you need for your newly promoted class and
also requesting for your Christmas and New year celebrations needs
4. Write an article on the topic ‘Morning Assemblies in our School’
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 3 Subject: Mathematics

SECTION A: Answer all questions, choose the correct answer from options lettered A to D

1. Convert 10112 to base 10 (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 11


2. Convert 324ten to binary number (a) 101000100 (b) 11000100 (c) 1011101 (d) 1000110
3. A certain number is added to 7 and then divided by 12, the result is 4. Find the number
(a) 55 (b) 40 (c) 41 (d) 8
4. Evaluate 111+1101 (a) 1001 (b) 11001 (c) 10011 (d) 011010
5. What is the difference between 1110-111 (a) 101 (b) 111 (c) 100 (d) 110
6. Find the product of 10101 and 11 (a) 111111 (b) 1111 (c) 11010 (d) 100011
7. What is the result if 1111 is divided by 10 (a) 101 (b) 111 (c) 100 (d) 010
8. How many times is 102 contained in 10002 (a) 100 (b) 1000 (c) 1 (d) 10
9. What is the sum of 1010,11011 and 11101 (a) 1000100 (b) 1000010 (c) 1100010 (d) all
10. Express “Two hundred and forty nine billion five hundred and twenty million seven hundred
thousand and ten in figure” (a) 249 502 700 010 (b) 249 520 700 010 (c) 249 520 070 010
(d) 249 520 700 001
11. Subtract the highest common factor of 15 and 25 from the highest common factor of 36 and
12 (a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 3
12. What is the simple interest on #1500 for 2 years at the rate of 5% (a) #1500 (b) #150
(c) #15 (d) 150%
13. Find the rate at which #4000 can generate a simple interest of #980 in 2 years (a) 12.25%
(b)#12.25 (c) 12.25 (d) 12.25 years
14. Express 21:12 as fractions in its lowest terms (a) 7/3 (b) 3/7 (c) 7/6 (d) 6/7
15. Express 0.548 as a fraction in its lowest term (a) 274/500 (b) 137/250 (c) 137/125 (d)
274/250
16. Simplify 3x(16a) (a) 48 (b) 19 (c) 19a (d) 48a
17. Find the amount of #65,200 in 3.5 years at 7.5% per annum (a) #82,315 (b) #17,115 (c)
65,025 (d) #72, 315
18. In simple interest the formular to calculate T= (a) T=100I/TR (b) 100R/PI (c) 100I/PR (d)
100P/IR
19. Expand -5(m+3) (a) -5+15 (b) -5m+15 (c) -5m-15 (d) 5m-15
20. Expand and simplify (2a+4)+ (a-3) (a) 2a+1 (b) 3a-1 (c) 2a-1 (d) 3a+1
21. Find the HCF of the algebraic expression 9ab and 27abc (a) 9ab (b) 9b (c) 9a (d) 3ab
22. What is the highest common factor of 8m3n2 and 24mn2 (a) 8mn (b) 4mn (c) 8mn2 (d)
8m2n
23. Factorize 3x+9 (a) 3 (x+3x) (b) 3(x+3) (c) x(3+3) (d) 3x(x+3)
24. Expand 4(3a+4b) (a) 7a+8b (b) 12a+8b (c) 12a+16b (d) 16a+12b
25. Factorize 15a2+25b2+30c2 (a) 5(3a2+5b2+6c2) (b) 52(3a+5b+6c) (c) 5a(3+5b2+6c2) (d)
5abc(3+5+6)
26. Find the compound interest on #45,000 in 3 years at 10% per annum (a)49,500 (b)
54,450 (c) 59,895 (d) 14,895
27. What is the formular to calculate Amount? (a) Amount =Principal – Interest (b) Amount =
Principal x Interest (c) Amount = Principal + Interest (d) Amount = Principal/ Amount
28. The sum of money saved, lent or borrowed is called (a) amount (b) interest (c) rate (d)
principal
29. The formula for calculating the simple interest is (a) R=100I/PT (b) I=PRT/100 (c)
T=100I/PR (d) P=100I/RT
30. The duration for which money was saved or borrowed is __________ (a) rate (b) principal
(c) clock (d) time

SECTION B: Answer question 1 and any other 3(three)

1. Find the compound interest and final amount of #960,000 for 3 years at
a. 3% at the end of the first year
b. 4% at the end of the second year (correct to 2 decimal places)
c. 5.5 % at the end of the third year (correct to 2 d.p)
2. Expand the following brackets
a. -2(2a+3) b. 5(-2p+7) c. 2x(x-2y+z)
Expand and simplify each of the following
d. 5xy-3x(y-z) e. (2a+4)+ (a-3)
3. Expand each of the following
a. 11111+1101
b. 10101/111
c. 100001-1111
d. (111+101)x(111-101)
e. Expand 522046 in the power of its base
4. Find the HCF of each of the following algebraic expression :
a. 14x,28yand 35z
b. 3x2y and 12xy2
c. 7mnp,21pq and 28pr
d. Subtract the highest common factor of 15 and 25 from the highest common factor of 36
and 72
5. Factorize each of the following expression
a. n3+n2+6n b. 15y-21 c. 15a2b-12ab2+21ab
Write down the coefficients of x2 and x in each of the following expressions
a. (5x+1)(x-6)
b. (2x-7)(2x+7)
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 1 Subject: PVS

1. The study of everything that helps to improve the home and the family is __________ (a)
Home management (b) home training (c) Home economics
2. ____________ deals with the making of fabric, sewing of garments and the care of
clothing (a) fashion designing (b) clothing and textile (b) textile production (d)
maintenance of textile
3. Things that can be done to earn money is known as __________ (a) trade (b) learning
(c) career (d) selling
4. __________ is the period in an individual’s life when he/she develops from child into an
adult (a) maturity (b) puberty (c) developing stage (d) teenage stage
5. The age of puberty in boys and girls is __________ (a) the same (b) different (c) certain
(d) prolonged
6. Breast development in girls is __________ (a) a sign of illness (b) a sign of size (c) a
sign of puberty (d) a sign of menstruation
7. The process where a person prescribes a drug for himself is called __________ (a)
discipline (b) protection (c) treatment (d) medication
8. One of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease (a) HIV (b) AIDS (c) Malaria
(d) Syphilis
9. Human Immune Deficiency Virus causes (a) AIDS (b) Syphilis (c) Tuberculosis (d)
Gonorrhoea
10. Sexually transmitted disease is an illness spread from one person to another through
________ (a) handshake (b) exchange (c) sexual contact (d) sharing sharp objects
11. Those things that one is entitled to as a living being and as a member of society is known as
__________ (a) entitlement (b) rights (c) property (d) duties
12. Every child has the right too __________ (a) vote and be voted for (b) be rude (c) be
catered for (d) imprisoned
13. A person who creates new styles of clothing is called fashion __________ (a) model (b)
designer (c) adviser (d) creator
14. One of the following can cause body odour (a) fungal infection (b) menstruation (c)
headache (d) cold
15. The days between one menstruation and the next menstruation is known as __________
(a) period rest (b) menstrual cycle (c) dry days (d) menopause
16. The cultivation of crops and rearing of animals for man’s use is __________ (a)
Apicultuure (b) Fishery (c) Agriculture (d) Snail rearing
17. Importance of Agriculture include the following except _____________ (a) food
production (b) help to industry (c) sources of revenue (d) hunger to man
18. Pastoral farming is the rearing of __________ (a) fish (b) animals (c) snail (d) chicken
19. Plantation farming is _________ (a) the cultivation of crops and rearing of animals (b)
horticulture and fishery (c) cultivation of crops and snail rearing (d) apiculture and
horticulture
20. The reproductive structures of plants are the following except (a) flowers (b) roots (c)
feeds (d) fruits
21. Pollination in monocotyledons plant is by (a) wind (b) water (c) insects (d) animals
22. The science and art of farming to satisfy human needs is (a) Agriculture (b) Fish farming
(c) Snail Rearing (d) Livestock Farming
23. Crop farming include the following except (a) food crops (b) fruit crops (c) cash crops (d)
flowers
24. ___________ and __________ are examples of fruit crops (a) kolanut and cocoa (b)
banana and maize (c) okra and ugwu (d) mango and pineapple
25. Vegetative structure of plants are the following except (a) stem (b) leaves (c) seeds (d)
branches
26. Monocotyledons plants are plants with ________ seed leaves (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 6
27. Leaves of monocotyledons plants is (a) short (b) broad (c) narrow (d) net venation
28. Spices are crops added to make it (a) cook very well (b) taste and smell nice (c) change
the colour of food (c) add to food quantity
29. Biennials crops are crops that complete their life cycle within (a) 4years (b) 2 years (c) 1
year (d) 3 years
30. Fish farming is the construction of ponds to breed (a) fishes (b) snail (c) animals (d) plants

Theory : Answer all Questions

1a. What is Puberty ?

b. Differentiate between Adolescent and Adolescence

c. Mention three changes that take place in boys and girls during puberty

2a. What is Body odour

b. Mention five causes of body odour

c. State four ways of preventing body odour

d. With the aid of diagram , list three main areas of Home Economics

3a. What is Agriculture ?

b. State 5 importance of Agriculture

c. State the 4 types of Agricultural Practise

4a. What are industrial crops

b. State 5 classes of industrial crops with examples


c. Mention four agricultural reserves and where they are located
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 1 Subject: Agricultural Science

Section A : Answer all questions

1. The complete definition of Agriculture must include _________ (a) rearing of animal and
meterology (b) cultivation of crops and rearing of animals (c) soil science and rearing of
animals (d) forestry and wild life management
2. The main branches of Agriculture include the following except (a) animal science (b) soil
science (c) crop production (d) land science
3. Which of the following is not a cash crop (a) cocoa (b) vegetable (c) coffee (d) cotton
4. Which of the following ensures the production of crops in large quantities (a) commercial
farming (b) peasant farming (c) substience farming (d) all of the above
5. Which of the following is not a problem of Agricultural development in Nigeria (a) pests
and diseases (b) rural-urban migration (c) poor marketing system (d) none oof the above
6. All these are classification of land tenure system except (a) communal land tenure (b) land
tenure by inheritance (c) leasehold system (d) none of the above
7. Which of the following is not a farm input (a) pesticide (b) money (c) insecticide (d)
fertilizer
8. Which of the following is not a non-governmental organization (a) West African Rice
Development Agency (b) River Basin Development Authorities (c) International Institute
for Tropical Agriculture (d) International Livestock Research Institute
9. All these are problems of subsistence Agriculture except (a) no surplus for sale (b) low
level of specialization (c) it increases yield (d) inadequate capital for investment
10. All these are simple farm tools except (a) hoe (b) shovel (c) spade (d) incubator
11. These are importance of Agriculture except (a) provision of shelter (b) provision of
clothing (c) employment opportunity (d) provision of travelling document
12. All these except one are possible solutions to the problems of Agriculture (a) agricultural
banks should make loan available (b) processing facilities should be made available (c)
pollution and deforestation should be avoided
13. A system of farming where by a farmer cultivates crops and rears animals in other to
produce food for consumption for himself only (a) subsistence farming (b) commercial
farming (c) large scale farming (d) all of the above
14. These are characteristics agriculture excepts (a) no surplus for sales (b) hired labour are
involve (c) cultivation of hectares of land involved (d) huge investment is involved
15. The term agriculture “cultura” means _________ (a) land (b) cultivation (c) food (d)
culture
16. Heliculture is the study of ___________ (a) bee farming (b) snail rearing (c) crop forming
(d) soil science
17. Crop pathology is the study of _________ (a) crop disease (b) pest disease (c) bee
farming (d) animal health
18. __________ is the application of engineering principles and technology in Agricultural
production storage and processing on the farm (a) farm prospect (b) farm engineering (c)
farm mechanization (d) farm holdings
19. Disadvantages of Agricultural mechanization are the following except (a) human control
(b) degradation of landscape (c) inadequate spare part (d) uses of less human labour
20. All these are problems of Agricultural mechanization except (a) bad topograph (b) land
tenure system (c) poverty of farmer (d) none of the above
21. ___________ is the rate of doing work (a) power (b) engineering (c) expenditure (d) all of
the above
22. These are sources off farm power except (a) human power (b) solar power (c ) wind
power (d) none of the above
23. Farm operations that requires electrical power are these except (a) winnowing (b)
incubation (c) incubation (d) milking machine
24. Power derived from the radiation is called ________ (a) solar power (b) sun power (c)
biogas (d) all power
25. Solar energy can be converted into ________ energy (a) mechanical power (b) electrical
power (c) wind power (d) biogas
26. Power used to pump water out of a borehole is called _________ (a) wind power (b) pump
power (c) electrical power (d) solar power
27. ________ power that facilitate the cultivation of large hectares of land is called _________
(a) mechanical power (b) solar power (c) wind power (d) all of the above
28. All these are farm machinery except (a) milking machine (b) planter (c) incubator (d)
secateurs
29. _________ is the cultivation implement used for land preparation to make ridges befor
planting (a) ridgers (b) planter (c) sprayer (d) plough
30. __________ is the application of engineering principles and technology in Agricultural
production storage and processing on the farm (a) farm prospect (b) farm engineering (c)
farm mechanization (d) farm holdings

SECTION B:Answer all Questions

1a. List five sources of farm power

b. State one advantage and one disadvantage each of power mentioned above

2a. In tabular form, write 5 different between commercial and subsistence agriculture
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 1 Subject: N.V.E

Section A : Answer all questions, choose only the alphabet

1. Values are _______ (a) likes and dislikes (b) our property (c) our house (d) our education
2. One of the following is not an importance of values (a) harmony (b) co-operation (c) unity
(d) intolerance
3. Communities in Africa pass down societal values to the younger generation through all the
following except (a) family influence (b) media (c) folktales (d) sanctions
4. The first place which an individual has contact with values is the _________ (a) family (b)
school (c) social clubs and association (d) peer group
5. All these can promote cooperation except (a) goals (b) needs (c) violence (d)
understanding
6. Honesty involve all the following except (a) cheating in the examination (b) sincerity
(c) confidence (d) trust
7. One of the reward of honesty is __________ (a) rejection (b) hatred (c) honour (d)
pressure
8. A student who is dishonest can be __________ (a) be honoured (b) be given an award (c)
cheating in an examination (d) be embraced
9. A student can cooperate with the class captain by (a) avoiding him (b) helping him to
clean the chalkboard (c) teaching the pupils (d) being absent in class
10. _____________ is the quality of being answerable for one’s action (a) sincerity (b)
trust (c) honour (d) responsibility
11. The studies of man and his interaction with social and physical environment is known as
(a) geography (b) economic (c) physics (d) social studies
12. All the under listed are the objectives of social studies except (a) it teaches us to be a
good citizen and nation builders (b) to help us understand the importance of hardwork (c)
teaches us to be good mathematician (d) it help us to understand the needs for honesty
13. We study Social studies in school so as to _________ (a) become traditional chief (b)
get a fat salary (c) become good leaders and responsible follower (d) punish young ones
14. The first book of social studies was written in Nigeria in (a) 1960 (b) 1963 (c) 1965 (d)
1964
15. The family is a __________ social group (a) secondary (b) primary (c) peer (d) tertiary
16. Social studies is taught in every level of education in Nigeria (a) false (b) true
17. The following are parts of culture except (a) customs (b) language (c) socialization (d)
instinct
18. The major instrument of transmission of culture is (a) friendship (b) love (c) Language (d)
marriage
19. Socialization is an/a ________ (a) inmate ability (b) acquired ability (c) inherited ability
(d) inborn ability
20. The socialization process that takes place through direct learning is by the (a) family (b)
school (c) peer group (d) the mass media
21. The criminal art of taking someone’s life (a) murder (b) theft (c) falsehood (d) rape
22. One of this is the causes of common crime (a) poverty (b) forging (c) human trafficking
(d) robbery
23. The criminal arc of manufacturing and selling defective or contaminated food products
to thee public is (a) poverty (b) rape (c) false hood (d) sales of contaminated food
24. _______ is a crime of stealing (a) murder (b) kidnapping (c) drug abuse (d) theft
25. All of these are examples of crime except (a) falsehood (b) dancing (c) theft (d) rape
26. Suspicious activities should be reported all of the following except __________ (a)
parent (b) police (c) teachers (d) strangers
27. The society __________ when people have strong desire to accumulate wealth illegally (a)
improves (b) develops (c) degenerate (d) progress
28. The body in charge of detecting and destroying fake expired and contaminated food
products, drinks or drugs is __________ (a) ICPC (b) NAFDAC (c) NDLEA (d) NACA
29. _________is a crime of intentionally setting fire to a building, vehicle or any property (a)
vandalism (b) arson (c) assault (d) conspiracy
30. The green light in the road traffic signal means that vehicles may go and if the way is clear.
The red light means (a) danger (b) wait (c) stoop (d) switch off the car engine

SECTION B: Answer four questions

1a. What is social studies

b. Give five characteristic or things that make the family a primary social group

2. a Define Honesty and Dishonesty

b. State 5 attributes of Honesty

c. List 5 benefits of honesty

3a. What is Cooperation

b. State 5 attributes of Co operation

c. Mention 4 benefits of cooperation

4a. What is Crime

b. List five common crime committed in the society


CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 2 Subject: N.V.E

Section A : Answer all questions

1. A person of integrity displays the following moral values except (a) honesty (b) tolerance
(c) meekness (d) impatience
2. A contented persons will always have ______ with whatever he or she has (a) dissatisfaction
(b) uncertainty (c) displeasure (d) satisfaction
3. The act of using one’s body for paid sex is __________ (a) robbery (b) prostitution (c)
greed (d) envy
4. A disciplined person ___________ rules and regulation (a) ignores (b) violates (c)
complies with (c) partly obey
5. ___________ is the ability to work very hard and carefully (a) commitment (b)
determination (c) diligence (d) endurance
6. The act of doing something sensibly without going to the extreme is ________ (a) self
control (b) moderation (c) honesty (d) faithfulness
7. ________ is the ability to practise one’s faith and talents (a) political courage (b) spiritual
courage (c) physical courage (d) moral courage
8. The act of desiring more than what one need is __________ (a) envy (b) greed (c) theft
(d) prostitution
9. A disciplined person has the following features except (a) self control (b) moderation (c)
honesty (d) greed
10. Courage entails showing ____________ in carrying out activities in the community (a)
uncertainty (b) doubt (c) boldness (d) fear
11. The general objective of social studies is corrected with the following except _________ (a)
adaptation (b) good citizenship (c) proper use of resources (d) vandalization
12. A family is a group of people that are closely related by one of the following (a) blood
(b) understanding (c) common (d) identities
13. Living together as a family involves all except ________ (a) eating together (b) sleeping
together (c) praying together (d) all of the above
14. Family bond exists when _________ (a) people understand themselves (b) people have
common religion (c) a strong tie joins family member together (d) a family has different
patterns of behaviour
15. Family cohesion is the same thing as __________ (a) family matters (b) family life (c)
family bond (d) family system
16. Which of the following is not a type of marriage (a) Islamic (b) Court (c) Friendship (d)
Christian
17. People marry for the following reasons except for _________ (a) intimacy (b)
procreation (c) sanction (d) companionships
18. Ador nments commonly used in Nigeria include the following except __________ (a) bead
(b) mat (c) chain (d) jewellery
19. All these are conditions necessary for marriage except (a) money (b) physiological factor
(c) social stability (d) psychological fitness
20. ___________ is a union that bring a man and a woman together as husband and wife (a)
love (b) marriage (c) man and woman (d) all of the above
21. The following are ways of reporting crimes for the purpose of security except (a) by
telephone (b) by alerting the neighbourhood (c) crime anonymously (d) by seeking a
stranger help
22. An individual can report a suspicious event to (a) police (b) strangers (c) friends (d)
drunkards
23. _________ is a deviant behaviour that violates societal norms and values (a) crime (b)
security (c) risk (d) dangers
24. __________ is the emergency contact number for police in Nigeria (a) 119 (b) 911 (c)
919 (d) 912
25. The criminal act of taking someone’s life is ________ (a) murder (b) theft (c) falsehood
(d) rape
26. One of this is the causes of common crime (a) poverty (b) forgery (c) human trafficking
(d) robbery
27. __________ is a crime of stealing (a) murder (b) kidnapping (c) drug abuse (d) theft
28. The body in charge of detecting and destroying fake, expired and contaminated products and
drinks or drugs is (a) ICPC (b) NAFDAC (c) NDLEA (d) NACA
29. The society _________ when people have strong desire to accumulate wealth illegally (a)
improves (b) develops (c) degenerates (d) progress
30. _________ is a crime of intentionally setting fire to buildings, vehicle or any property (a)
vandalism (b) arson (c) assault (d) conspiracy

SCTION B: Answer all Questions

1ai. What is Integrity

ii. List five attributes of Integrity

bi. What is Contentment

ii. Mention five effects of contentment to the society

2ai. What is family bond and cohesion?

ii. list five advantages of living together

bi. Define Marriage ii. List 3 conditions needed to be checked before marriage

3a. What is Crime

b.List 5 common crime committed in the society

c. mention 3 ways in which crime can be reported

d. list 5 types of emergency management


CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 3 Subject: N.V.E

Section A : Answer all questions

1. The following are attributes of right attitude to work except (a) punctuality (b)
discipline (c) commitment (d) falsity
2. __________ is the act of having strong belief that something is good and supporting it (a)
commitment (b) honesty (c) punctuality (d) illiterate
3. __________ is the act of arriving at a place at a/an agreed time (a) attitude (b)
punctuality (c) right (d) supporting
4. _________ attitude to work is the proper disposition of people to the work they do (a) right
(b) discipline (c) commitment (d) agreed
5. Right attitude too work will bring about _________ of a nation (a) progress (b)
degeneration (c) downfall (d) degradation
6. The following are the consequences of not having a right attitude to work except (a) low
production (b) indiscipline to the society (d) high production
7. All these are causes of illiteracy except (a) poverty (b) lack of access (c) obligation (d)
wrong priorities
8. The agency that conduct population census in Nigeria is (a) Nigeria Census Board (b)
Nigeria Population Council (c) National Population Commission (d) Nigeria Census
Commission
9. The process of voting include the following except (a) registration of voters (b)
accreditation of voters (c) stealing ballot (d) one man one vote
10. _______ is the money paid to kidnappers in exchange for an individual (a) tax (b) levy
(c) ransom (d) toll
11. Family educate the child on how to _______ elders and learn the language they speak in
the communities (a) loathe (b) despire (c) disregarded (d) respect
12. The following are content of man except _________ (a) hair (b) wool (c) veins (d) nail
13. One of these is not the roles of an extended family member in a child development (a)
eradicate poverty (b) assistance to nuclear family (c) agent of socialization (d) neglecting
child’s education
14. One of these is not a preventive measures against human trafficking (a) employment (b)
education (c) early marriage (d) public enlightment
15. The country will be __________ for people if the trend of human trafficking continues (a)
safe (b) peaceful (c) dangerous (d) severe
16. One of these is not a harmful traditional practise in Nigeria (a) ritual killing (b) child
labour (c) gender discrimination (d) tolerating others culture
17. ________ is the practise of cutting a part of the sex organ of the female child immediately
or some days after birth (a) female molestation (b) female genital mutilation (c) child
labour (d) female abuse
18. The following are the consequences of harmful traditional practices except (a) problems of
child birth (b) exploitation of children (c) deprivation of basic education (d) economic
development
19. Government must ______ laws that will stop harmful traditional practises (a) annul (b)
enact (c) ignore (d) prohibit
20. ______ is the first institution of a child (a) hospital (b) school (c) family (d) primary
school
21. ________ is a crime that occurs when someone physically strikes or attack another person
(a) kidnapping (b) assault (c) perjury (d) trafficking
22. A person who commits offence of rape is punishable in Nigeria by imprisonment of ______
years (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 14
23. Adulterated food is _________ to body (a) harmful (b) beneficial (c) useful (d) non toxic
24. ________ is an offence taking another person s property without the owners consent or
permission (a) rape (b) theft (c) fire disaster (d) drowning
25. Rape is a condemnable and unjustifiable act in our (a) drug (b) school (c) industry (d)
society
26. ________ can be committed against individual instittutuonal, government etc (a) the ft (b)
crimes rape (c) arson (d) trafficking
27. All crimes attract _______ (a) beating (b) dancing (c) shouting (d) punishment
28. __________ is a crime of taking another person ‘s life (a) rape (b) murder (c) theft (d)
drug trafficking
29. __________ is the emergency contact number for police in Nigeria (a) 119 (b) 911 (c)
919 (d) 912
30. An individual can report a suspicious event to ______ (a) the police (b) strangers (c)
friends (d) drunkard

SECTION B: Answer all Questions


1ai. What is right attitude to work
ii. list five attributes to work
bi. Define Negative behaviour
ii. state the importance of census
2a. Define Human Trafficking
b. state the causes and preventive measures to be taken on human trafficking 5 each
3a. Define the term harmful traditional practise
b. mention them
c. list 5 harmful traditional practice
4ai. What is a crime
ii. list ten crime committed in the society
bi. mention 3 ways in which crime can be reported
ii. list5 types off emergency management
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: J S S 2 Subject: Mathematics

Section A : Answer all questions

1. Express 0.000000001 in terms of power of 10 (a) 109 (b) 108 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-8
2. 5x10-4 is written in decimals as (a) 0.0005 (b) 0.0004 (c) 0.005 (d) 0.004
3. Simplify 8p2x10p5x11p8 (a) 880p15 (b) 88015 (c) 800p15 (d) 80015
4. Evaluate 53x56 (a) 259 (b) 59 (c) 2518 (d) 518
5. Simplify 28y10/7y5 (a) 3y5 (b) 21y5 (c) 3y15 (d) 21y15
6. Express (2x2)3 (a) 2x5 (c) 2x (c) 2x6 (d) 8x2
7. Express 360 as a product of its prime factor (a) 22x32x5 (b) 23x23x5 (c) 23x23x52 (d)
23x32x52
8. The HCF of 24 and 36 is (a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 12
9. All are factors of 60 except (a) 2 (b) 25 (c) 10 (d) 15
10. The first three multiples of 15 and 30 are (a) 30,60 and 90 (b) 60,120 and 150 (c) 60,90,120
(d) 60,120,180
11. Evaluate (6+2)2 (a) 16 (b) 64 (c) 36 (d) 8
12. Evaluate (4x3-2)2 (a) 100 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 50
13. The square root sign is denoted by (a) ( ) (b) { } (c) √ (d) all
14. Find the square root of 1225 by prime factorisation (a) 25 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 35
15. Express 1/8 as percentage (a) 100/8% (b) 25/2% (c) 12.5% (d) 12%
16. Express 24% as a fraction (a) 6/25 (b) 100/24 (c) 100/1x24 (d) 6/25x100
17. A poultry farmer found 72 out of 2400 eggs bad. What percentage of the eggs are bad (a) 3%
(b) 1728% (c) 2328% (d) none
18. Calculate the value of 0.5% 9f 180kg (a) 0.9% (b) 0.28% (c) 9% (d) 28%
19. Convert 68% to ratio (a) 25:17 (b) 34:50 (c) 17:25 (d) 68:100
20. Simplify 56+(-47) (a) -9 (b)9 (c) 103 (d) -103
21. What is the multiplicative inverse of 3/x-2 (a) 3x/-2 (b) -2/3x (c) x-2/3 (d) x/3-2
22. What is the equation to the number line below (a) -4+6 (b) -8+4 (c) -8(-4) (d) 8+(-2)
23. Round off 2435 to the nearest 100 (a) 2400 (b) 2500 (c) 2430 (d) 2435
24. Round off 3391 to the nearest 1000 (a) 4000 (b) 3000 (c) 3300 (d) 3390
25. 258.49 to the nearest whole number (a) 260 (b) 258.5 (c) 300 (d) 258
26. Simplify the algebraic expression 6a2b3x4ab2/8a3b3 (a) b2 (b) 3b2 (c) 3b3 (d) b3
27. If a =2 , b=-3, and c=4 evaluate 4a-2c/6 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
28. Simplify 3(3x+2y) by removing the brackets (a) 9x+6y (b) 6x+5y (c) 6x+9y (d) all
29. Expand (2x-5)(2x-5) (a) 4x-25 (b) 4x2-25 (c) 4x2+20x-25 (d) 4x+20x-25
30. What is the least common multiple of 30 and 35 (a) 90 (b) 110 (c) 150 (d) 180

SECTION B: Answer only four question, question 1 is compulsory


1. The budget of a family on a salary of 48200 in a month is as follows
School Fees: #8400, Clothing #6,000, Electricity #1240 , Water #800, Savings #7000,
House rent #3,600 , Transport #5,000 and food #14,400
a. Calculate total expenses of the family
b. What percentage of the family income is spent on food?
c. What percentage of family income is spent on school fees
d. What amount of the family income can be spent on other expenses or emergencies
e. What fraction of the family income is spent on water
2. Simplify the following using number line
a. -5-(-4) b. 5+(-8) c. -8-(-4) d. 0-5 e. 7+(-9)
3. Simplify the following
a. (a+b)5 b. 6a4x8a6x4a2 c. 5(x4)3 d. (3.9x106)- (2.9x105)

4a. George and Nonso are to share 30 litres of kerosene in the ratio 3:1. Find the quantity of
kerosene that each of them should have.

b. find the HCF of 42 and 60

c. Evaluate (5+1)2 / (7-5)2

5a. Express 25/40 as percentage

b. calculate 65 marks out of 400 in percentage

c. using tree factor method, express 240 as products of their prime factor

d. Find the first 20 multiples of 15

e. remove the brackets and simplify 2(3a)(5b)-4(2a)(3b)

CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE


15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 1 Subject: Government

Section A : Answer all questions

1. The first agent of political socialization is the ___________ (a) school (b) mass media (c)
community (d) family
2. A system of government which is based on public ownership of means of production and
distribution is called (A) welfarism (b) socialism (c) feudalism (d) authoritarianism
3. Citizenship can be acquired through (a) renouncement (b) repudiation (c) birth (d)
reference
4. Civic rights in a country are enjoyed by (a) citizens (b) prisoners (c) aliens (d) refugees
5. Sovereignity implies all the following except (a) the highest authority in a state (b) a state
of political independence (c) unlimited power of a state to make law (d) the supremacy of
political parties
6. Which of the following groups has a compulsory membership (a) community (b) state (c)
society (d) club
7. A system in which people contribute for the welfare of the community can be described as
(a) communalism (b) socialism (c) communism (d) capitalism
8. Which of the following best describes feudalism (a) a few people monopolise the ownership
of land (b) mass ownership of property is prevalent (c) state ownership of capital is
prevalent (d) workers administer the society
9. The philosophy and fundamental laws of a country are contained in her (a) manifesto (b)
decrees (c) edicts (d) constitution
10. Democracy means a system of government in which (a) the majority rules (b) the minority
rules (c) there is no party system (d) the people rule
11. The primary functions of the judiciary is to (a) make laws (b) enforce laws (c) interpret
laws (d) maintain law and order
12. A society that is politically organized under a government is called (a) sovereign (b)
community (c) national state (c) policy
13. Authority refers to the (a) might to secure compliance from others within a given social
setting (b) power to exercise might over other behavior (c) mandate to exercise power
over other (d) ability to compel others to act in a particular way
14. Government is different from other political organizations because (a) it has legitimate
power over citizens (b) its official independence in a modern democracy way (c) it has
official fixed (d) it can punish those who violates rules
15. When school pupil sing the national anthem and salute the flag , they are (a) performing
their obligations as citizens (b) exercising their rights as citizens (c) practising to be leaders
of tomorrow (d) carrying their responsibilities as citizens
16. Which of the following defines the concept of government (a) the process administering
justice in a country (b) the process of supervising the activities of the legislature (c) the
orderly management and control of the affairs of a country (d) the orderly transfer of power
duly elected politicians
17. The most distinguishing characteristics of the state is (a) government (b) population (c)
territory (d) sovereignity
18. In a democracy, ultimate authority resides in the (a) electorate (b) people (c) head of state
(d) armed forces
19. A major characteristics of the socialisation system is its provision for (a) limited privacy
(b) public ownership (c) unlimited privacy (d) private ownership
20. Communism is a system which recognizes (a) the existence of the state (b) the existence
of the individual (c) the ability of the individual
21. A common features of government is (a) written constitution (b) independence of the
judiciary (c) the separation of powers (d) the making of the public policy
22. Feudalism is a practice in which (a) the citizen have no political and social rights (b)
hereditary landlords rules peasants (c) political leadership is based by force (d) the rule of
the priviledged
23. A foreigner can become a citizen of another state by (a) immigration (b) naturalization (c)
nationaliization (d) indigenisation
24. Democracy means a system of government in which (a) the majority rules (b) the minority
rules (c) there is no party system (d) the people rule
25. The primary functions of the judiciary is to (a) make laws (b) enforce laws (c) interpret
laws (d) maintain law and order
26. Democracy emanated from the (a) latin (b) romans (c) germans (d) Americans
27. Obedience to the laws of the state is part of one’s (a) duties (b) right (c) privileges (d)
requirements
28. A common language is one of the attributes of (a) government (b) society (c) nation (d)
state
29. Residing in an area for a specified period of years is one of the basic conditions to acquire
(a) citizenship through marriage (b) honour (c) naturalisation (d) birth
30. The highest court is ___________ (a) high court (b) supreme court (c) civil court (d)
customary court

SECTION B
1a. Write short notes on Power and Authority
b. mention types of power and authority 3 each
c. list 4 ways of acquiring power
2a. Define Sovereignity
b. list 5 characteristics of soverignity and explain 2
3a. Define the term Democracy
b. state 5 features of democracy
c. mention 3 merits and demerits of democracy
4a. write short notes on political culture and socialization
b. state the agents of political socialization and explain 2
5a. Define Capitalism
b. State 5 features of capitalism
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 2 Subject: Government

Section A : Answer all questions

1. Government can be made responsible for and accountable to its citizens through the
following methods except (a) periodic change of government (b) demonstration (c)
political education (d) public opinion
2. Which of the following is a method of acquiring political power in a democracy (a)
hereditry (b) election (c) imposition (d) selection
3. The primary function of the executive is to (a) interpret laws (b) punish laws breakers (c)
make laws (d) implement government policies
4. The method used to determine the possible outcome of an electoral contest is (a) press
review (b) plebiscite (c) opinion poll (d) referendum
5. Public opinion helps a government to (a) develop the country in line with people’s
aspirations (b) monitors its socio-cultural policy (c) monitor the situation in the country
(d) identifying those that are opposed to its policies
6. Local government laws are known as (a) decrees (b) acts (c) orders
7. Civil rights in a country are enjoyed by (a) citizens (b) aliens (c) prisoners (d) refugees
8. A situation where all the citizens meet in an open place to govern state is called (a)
direct democracy (b) electoral college (c) representative democracy (d) guided democracy
9. The rights of individuals are usually enshrined in the (a) law books (b) courts (c)
constitution (d) journals
10. The primary function of the executive is to (a) interpret laws (b) punish law breakers (c)
make laws (d) implement government policies
11. The principle of universal adult suffrage refers to (a) the right of all adult people to vote
(b) the structure of political parties (c) the legal nature of constitution (d) the right to free
speech
12. The franchise is (a) the receipt given tax (b) an order to the court (c) the right to vote and
be voted for (d) none of the above (d)none of the above
13. The term rule of law means (a) nobody is above the law (b) everybody is equal before the
law (c) we are being governed by lawyers (d) A &B
14. When we talk about adult male suffrage we mean (a) all adults can vote (b) all male adults
can vote (c) all men who pay tax can vote (d) all men can vote
15. Which of the following bodies in Nigeria performs the functions of an ombudsman (a) the
public service commission (b) the national security commission (c) the civil service
commission (d) political parties
16. A permanent civil service (a) makes continuity in government possible (b) makes civil
servants arrogant (c) undemocratic (d) promote ethnic domination
17. Which of these is not a method of election? (a) cooperation (b) second ballot (c)
proportional representation (d) primary election
18. Local government reforms were carried out by the government in (a) 1970 (b) 1760 (c)
1967 (d) 1979
19. Which of the following is not a public cooperation in Nigeria (a) Joint Admission and
Matriculation Board (b) Nigeria National Oil Corporation (c) Nigeria National Shipping
Line (d) NRC
20. Elections among candidates from the same party before final election are called (a) running
mates (b) electoral colleges (c) second ballot (d) primary election
21. Which of the following was not responsible of Federal Electoral Commission in Nigeria (a)
supervision of polling (b) compilation of election register (c) counting and publication of
election results (d) swearing in members of the house of assembly
22. An election conducted to fill a vacant post in a government (a) primary election (b) a
general election (c) by election (d) an indirect election
23. Local government in Nigeria are created in order to (a) create more civil service jobs (b)
encourage competition and rivalry (c) bring the government nearer to people (d) levy
import duties
24. Public cooperations are established mainly to (a) cater for the welfare of their bboard
members (b) give advice to the government on commerce (c) provide essential services
and amenities on a commercial basis (d) develop the rural areas
25. Government can influence public opinion through (a) opinion polls (b) election (c) the
mass media (d) public administration
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the civil service? (a) permanence (b)
impartially (c) anonymity (d) disloyalty
27. A situation where all the citizens meet in an open place to govern state is called (a)
direct democracy (b) electoral college (c) representative democracy (d) guided democracy
28. The rights of individuals are usually enshrined in the (a) law books (b) courts (c)
constitution (d) journals
29. The primary function of the executive is to (a) interpret laws (b) punish law breakers (c)
make laws (d) implement government policies
30. Which of the following groups has a compulsory membership (a) community (b) State (c)
society (d) club
SECTION B
1a. What is Public Opinion
b. State 6 characteristic of Public Opinion
c. list 5 functions of public opinions
2a. What is Franchise ?
b. List and explain the types of limited suffrage
c. List 4 types of election
3a. Write short note on electoral commission
b. state 3 functions of electoral commission
c. list 6 electoral officials
4a. Define Civil Service
b. list and explain 6 characteristic of the civil service
5a. Define Public Corporation
b. differentiate between public corporation and civil service in a tabular form 3 each
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 1 Subject: Lit In English

Objective
1. Which of the following is NOT a figure of speech?
A. Metaphor
B. Simile
C. Statistics
D. Personification
2. What is the primary purpose of studying literature?
A. To memorize stories
B. To analyze texts and develop critical thinking
C. To improve mathematical skills
D. To become a poet
3. The major character in a story is also known as the:
A. Villain
B. Protagonist
C. Narrator
D. Antagonist
4. The use of "like" or "as" to compare two things is called:
A. Metaphor
B. Simile
C. Personification
D. Irony
5. Which of these is an example of a poetic device?
A. Pun
B. Alliteration
C. Chronology
D. Thesis
6. Which of the following best defines style in literature?
A. The writer's choice of clothing
B. The distinctive way a writer uses language
C. The number of pages in a book
D. The title of the work
7. A poem with 14 lines is known as a:
A. Ballad
B. Sonnet
C. Epic
D. Elegy
8. A humorous play that often involves exaggerated characters is called:
A. Tragedy
B. Farce
C. Satire
D. Drama
9. A literary device that appeals to the reader's senses is:
A. Imagery
B. Irony
C. Euphemism
D. Paradox
10. What is the main focus of character analysis in literature?
A. The setting of the story
B. The behavior and traits of individuals in the story
C. The themes of the work
D. The climax of the story
11. What is the effect of studying literature on communication skills?
A. It makes one write longer essays
B. It improves the ability to express ideas clearly
C. It limits vocabulary
D. It reduces comprehension skills
12. The literary term for the emotional quality of a work is:
A. Mood
B. Theme
C. Characterization
D. Point of view
13. A narrative poem that tells a story is called a:
A. Sonnet
B. Limerick
C. Ballad
D. Free verse
14. Which of these is NOT a reason for studying literature?
A. To develop empathy
B. To become familiar with different cultures
C. To improve math skills
D. To enhance creativity
5. Which of these is a figure of speech?
A. Imagery
B. Hyperbole
C. Diction
D. Dialogue
16. What is an allegory?
A. A story with multiple characters
B. A poem that is humorous
C. A narrative with a hidden moral or political meaning
D. A literary device used in plays
17. The repetition of initial consonant sounds in poetry is called:A. RhymeB. AlliterationC.
Assonance
D. Symbolism
18. What is the purpose of dramatic irony in plays?
A. To make the audience laugh
B. To keep the audience in suspense
C. To allow the audience to know more than the characters
D. To confuse the audience
19. A short statement that expresses a general truth or principle is called:
A. Aphorism
B. Dialogue
C. Foreshadowing
D. Characterization
20. The central idea of a literary work is referred to as:
A. Plot
B. Mood
C. Theme
D. Setting
21. A soliloquy in drama involves:
A. A conversation between two characters
B. A character speaking their thoughts aloud while alone
C. A group of people speaking in unison
D. A narrator summarizing the plot
22. Which of these is an example of personification?
A. The wind whispered through the trees.
B. He is as brave as a lion.
C. Life is a journey.
D. The sun is a ball of fire.
23. The writer's attitude toward the subject in a literary work is called:
A. Tone
B. Style
C. Perspective
D. Imagery
24. The main reason for using metaphors in literature is to:
A. Confuse the reader
B. Create vivid imagery
C. Make the text longer
D. Provide a summary
25. What is the significance of studying figures of speech in literature?
A. To improve mathematical reasoning
B. To understand the deeper meanings of texts
C. To learn about world history
D. To develop scientific skills
26. A story's time and place are known as its:A. Plot B. Setting C. Conflict D. Theme
27. A dramatic work that ends unhappily is referred to as:
A. Comedy B. Satire C. Tragedy D. Melodrama
28. The contrast between what is expected and what actually happens is called:
A. Irony B. Sarcasm C. Hyperbole D. Euphemism
29. Which of these is an example of onomatopoeia?
A. The cat purred softly. B. The dog is friendly. C. He ran like the wind. D. The sun is bright.
30. What does foreshadowing do in a story?
A. It introduces the climax.
B. It hints at future events.
C. It resolves conflicts.
D. It explains the theme.
Theory
Literature Theory Questions
1. Define literature
2. a. Define all genres of literature
b. Compare and contrast two genres of literature
3. a. List five reasons why literature is important to study
b. List 10 Job opportunities under Art class
4. a. What's character?
b. List and explain 4 types of characters
5. a. Define style in literature
b. Give 4 narrative technique and explain
6. a. Define poetic devices
b. Discuss the following terms
Metaphor
Simile
Irony
Oxymoron
With 2 examples each
7. List 10 Africa writers
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 2 Subject: Lit In English

Objective ;

1. Which of the following is NOT a type of character in literature?


A. Protagonist
B. Antagonist
C. Dynamic character
D. Abstract character
2. A character that does not change throughout the story is called a:
A. Static character B. Dynamic character C. Flat character D. Round character
3. The protagonist in a literary work is:
A. Always a villain B. The main character C. Always the narrator D. A supporting character
4. A foil character is one who:
A. Acts as the story’s villain B. Highlights another character’s traits through contrast
C. Represents the author’s voice D. Serves as the hero’s sidekick
5. The antagonist in a story:
A. Supports the protagonist’s goals B. Creates conflict for the protagonist
C. Always dies in the end D. Narrates the story
6. What term describes the highest point of tension in a story?
A. Exposition B. Resolution C. Climax D. Rising action
7. Which of these is the correct order of plot structure?
A. Climax, exposition, resolution, rising action
B. Exposition, rising action, climax, falling action, resolution
C. Resolution, falling action, climax, rising action, exposition
D. Rising action, climax, exposition, resolution
8. The introduction of the setting and characters occurs during the:
A. Climax B. Exposition C. Falling action D. Resolution
9. The resolution of a story refers to:
A. The moment of highest tension
B. The conclusion or wrapping up of the story’s conflicts
C. The introduction of characters
D. The series of events leading to the climax
10. A figure of speech that uses "like" or "as" to compare two things is called:
A. Metaphor B. Simile C. Personification D. Hyperbole
11. “The leaves danced in the wind” is an example of:
A. Hyperbole B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Oxymoron
12. Which literary device involves exaggeration for emphasis?
A. Hyperbole B. Irony C. Simile D. Alliteration
13. What figure of speech is used in the phrase "Time flies"?
A. Simile B. Personification C. Hyperbole D. Oxymoron
14. Which literary device refers to the repetition of initial consonant sounds in neighboring words?
A. Rhyme B. Alliteration C. Assonance D. Onomatopoeia
15. “He is as brave as a lion” is an example of:
A. Metaphor B. Simile C. Hyperbole D. Personification
16. The use of a part to represent the whole, as in "All hands on deck," is called:
A. Metaphor
B. Metonymy
C. Synecdoche
D. Personification
17. The expression “jumbo shrimp” is an example of:
A. Oxymoron B. Irony C. Hyperbole D. Paradox
18. A recurring element, theme, or symbol in a literary work is called a:
A. Motif B. Setting C. Foil D. Resolution
19. The atmosphere or feeling created by a literary work is referred to as:
A. Tone B. Mood C. Theme D. Plot
20. In literature, irony is a situation where:
A. The opposite of what is expected occurs
B. A character predicts the future
C. An object represents an idea
D. The protagonist dies
21. The central idea or message in a literary work is known as:
A. Setting
B. Theme
C. Plot
D. Characterization
22. “The calm before the storm” is an example of:
A. Foreshadowing B. Symbolism C. Metaphor D. Irony
23. What is it called when an author gives human traits to non-human things?
A. Metaphor B. Simile C. Personification D. Hyperbole
24. A speech by a character alone on stage, revealing their thoughts, is called a:
A. Dialogue B. Monologue C. Soliloquy D. Aside
25. The main struggle or problem in a story is referred to as the:
A. Climax
B. Conflict
C. Resolution
D. Rising action
26. A symbol in literature is:
A. A character who contrasts another character B. An object or action that represents a larger idea C.
A pattern of rhyming words in poetry D. A repeated sound in a sentence
27. When a story begins in the middle of events, it is called:
A. Exposition B. In medias res C. Foreshadowing D. Resolution
28. A paradox is a statement that:
A. Is intentionally exaggerated
B. Seems contradictory but reveals a deeper truth
C. Compares two things using "like" or "as"
D. Assigns human qualities to non-human things
29. The narrator’s attitude toward the subject in a literary work is referred to as:
A. Theme B. Mood C. Tone D. Style
30. The perspective from which a story is told is known as:
A. Theme B. Point of view C. Tone D. Characterizations
Theory;
1.Define the following
a.Drama b.prose C.poetry d. Character
2. Discuss the use of poetic devices in the poem "once upon a time"by Gabriel okpara
3.Discuss the Character of Scout, in the book to kill a mockingbird by "Hyper lee"
CREFOTS COMPREHENSIVE COLLEGE
15-19 Ire Akari Federal Housing Estate Olomore Abeokuta
FIRST TERM 2024/2025 EXAMINATION
Class: S S S 3 Subject: Lit In English

Objective ;
1. What is the term for a story that uses animals or inanimate objects as characters to convey a moral
lesson?
A. Allegory B. Fable C. Satire D. Parable
2. A long narrative poem about heroic deeds is called: A. Sonnet B. Elegy C. Epic D. Ode
3. Which literary device is used when words imitate sounds?
A. Alliteration B. Assonance C. Onomatopoeia D. Hyperbole
4. A literary work that criticizes human vice or folly through humor or irony is:
A. Satire B. Parody C. Allegory D. Tragedy
5. The repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words is called:
A. Assonance B. Consonance C. Alliteration D. Rhyme
6. The use of a part to represent the whole, such as "hands" for workers, is:
A. Metonymy B. Synecdoche C. Symbolism D. Allegory
7. What is a figure of speech in which contradictory terms appear side by side, as in "bittersweet"?
A. Hyperbole B. Oxymoron C. Paradox D. Metaphor
8. A comparison without using "like" or "as" is known as:
A. Simile B. Metaphor C. Personification D. Hyperbole
9. What is the term for the time and place in which a story takes place?
A. Plot B. Setting C. Theme D. Mood
10. A poem mourning the death of someone is called:
A. Ode B. Epic C. Elegy D. Lyric
11. What is the term for the underlying message or central idea in a literary work?
A. Theme B. Tone C. Symbol D. Mood
12. The term for when the audience knows something a character does not is:
A. Verbal irony B. Situational irony C. Dramatic irony D. Foreshadowing
13. A form of writing that uses sarcasm or irony to mock a subject is:
A. Satire B. Tragedy C. Comedy D. Elegy
14. A narrative technique where the story begins in the middle of the action is:
A. Exposition B. In medias res C. Flashback D. Foreshadowing
15. The attitude of the author toward the subject or audience is referred to as:
A. Mood B. Theme C. Tone D. Style
16. Which of these refers to a recurring element in a story?
A. Symbol B. Foreshadowing C. Motif D. Climax
17. A speech delivered by a character alone on stage to reveal their thoughts is:
A. Dialogue B. Monologue C. Soliloquy D. Aside

18. What is the term for a deliberate exaggeration, such as "I've told you a million times"?
A. Hyperbole B. Irony C. Understatement D. Simile

19. When an object, person, or situation has a deeper meaning beyond its literal sense, it is called:
A. Theme B. Symbolism C. Allegory D. Imagery
20. A word or phrase that appeals to the senses, creating a mental image, is:
A. Symbol B. Imagery C. Metaphor D. Simile
21. The term for the emotional feeling or atmosphere created by a literary work is:
A. Mood B. Tone C. Setting D. Style
22. A character or force that opposes the protagonist is called the:
A. Antagonist B. Protagonist C. Foil D. Hero
23. What is a brief reference to a person, event, or place from history, literature, or culture?
A. Allusion B. Allegory C. Motif D. Symbol
24. A figure of speech that gives human qualities to non-human things is:
A. Hyperbole B. Personification C. Oxymoron D. Metaphor
25. What is the repetition of vowel sounds within a line of poetry called?
A. Assonance B. Consonance C. Rhyme D. Alliteration
26. A type of irony where the outcome is the opposite of what is expected is:
A. Verbal irony B. Situational irony C. Dramatic irony D. Cosmic irony
27. The character around whom the story revolves is the:
A. Antagonist B. Foil C. Protagonist D. Narrator
28. The use of hints or clues to suggest future events in a story is:
A. Flashback B. Foreshadowing C. Allusion D. Irony
29. A statement that seems self-contradictory but reveals a truth is:
A. Paradox B. Irony C. Oxymoron D. Hyperbole
30. The central struggle or problem in a literary work is called:
A. Climax B. Conflict C. Plot D. Resolution
31. The narrator's perspective in a story is called: A. Tone B. Point of view C. Mood D. Setting
32. A play that ends in disaster for the main character is called a:
A. Comedy B. Tragedy C. Satire D. Parody
33. A short, witty saying that expresses a general truth is:
A. Aphorism B. Epigram C. Allegory D. Proverb
34. A story within a story is referred to as:
A. Flashback B. Frame story C. Motif D. Parable
35. The author's unique way of using language is referred to as their:
A. Mood B. Style C. Tone D. Theme
25 Questions on A Midsummer Night's Dream
1. Who is the first character to speak in A Midsummer Night’s Dream?
A. Lysander B. Hermia C. Theseus D. Hippolyta
2. What does Theseus plan to do with Hermia if she refuses to marry Demetrius?
A. Send her to a convent B. Banish her from Athens C. Lock her in a tower
D. Make her marry Lysander3. Who is the ruler of Athens in A Midsummer Night's Dream?
A. Oberon B. Theseus C. Egeus D. Hippolyta
4. Why does Egeus want Hermia to marry Demetrius?
A. Because Demetrius is wealthy B. Because he believes Demetrius is a noble man
C. Because Hermia has already promised to marry him D. Because he thinks Lysander is not good
enough for Hermia
5. What is the name of the fairy king in the play?
A. Oberon B. Titania C. Puck D. Egeus
6. What is the relationship between Titania and Oberon?
A. Siblings B. Husband and wife C. Enemies D. Friends
7. How does Puck cause confusion among the lovers?
A. By switching their clothes B. By putting a magic potion on their eyes
C. By changing their identities D. By casting a spell on the forest
8. What happens when Lysander is affected by the magic potion?
A. He falls in love with Helena B. He becomes invisible C. He forgets about Hermia
D. He falls asleep for a day
9. Who says, "The course of true love never did run smooth"?
A. Lysander B. Helena C. Oberon D. Theseus
10. What is the primary conflict in A Midsummer Night's Dream?
A. The struggle between the fairy kingdom and the human world
B. The love triangle between Hermia, Lysander, and Demetrius
C. The competition for the throne of Athens
D. The clash between Athens and the fairy realm
11. Which character is a weaver and the leader of the group of actors?
A. Nick Bottom B. Peter Quince C. Francis Flute D. Robin Starveling
12. What happens to Bottom after Puck transforms his head into that of a donkey?
A. He becomes invisible B. He is ignored by everyone C. He falls in love with Titania
D. He is rejected by all his friends
13. How does Titania fall in love with Bottom?
A. She is enchanted by a love potion
B. She falls in love with his singing voice
C. She is tricked by Oberon
D. She admires his strength and beauty
14. Why does Oberon want Titania to fall in love with Bottom?
A. To punish her for stealing his flower B. To take revenge on her for disobeying him
C. Because he is jealous of Bottom's talent D. Because he loves Titania
15. What play does the group of Athenian tradesmen plan to perform?
A. Romeo and Juliet B. The Tragedy of Pyramus and Thisbe C. The Taming of the Shrew
D. A Midsummer Night's Dream
16. Who says, "And though she be but little, she is fierce"?
A. Helena B. Hermia C. Titania D. Puck
17. What is the final resolution for the love triangle in the play?
A. Lysander marries Helena, and Demetrius marries Hermia
B. Hermia marries Lysander, and Helena marries Demetrius
C. Demetrius marries Helena, and Hermia marries Oberon
D. Lysander marries Titania, and Demetrius marries Hippolyta
18. What is the significance of the play within the play, "Pyramus and Thisbe"?
A. It provides comic relief B. It foreshadows the tragedy of the lovers
C. It represents the tension between the fairy world and the human world D. It highlights the theme
of friendship
19. Who helps Lysander and Hermia escape to the forest?
A. Puck B. Helena C. Theseus D. Philostrate
20. Which character is known for mischievous tricks and causing trouble?
A. Puck B. Demetrius C. Lysander D. Bottom
21. Who does Oberon use the love potion on first?
A. Demetrius B. Lysander C. Titania D. Helena
22. What advice does Lysander give to Hermia in Act 1?
A. To marry Demetrius for her own safety B. To run away to the forest to avoid her father’s wrath
C. To trust the fairies in the forest D. To ask for Theseus' blessing
23. What does Titania offer Bottom when she falls in love with him?
A. Her kingdom B. A place in her royal court C. Rich gifts and fine food D. A magical song
24. How does Puck rectify his mistake with the love potion on Lysander?
A. By using more magic to switch the love potion B. By casting a spell to erase their memories
C. By making the lovers fall asleep D. By giving both men the antidote
25. What is the final mood at the end of A Midsummer Night's Dream?
A. Tragic B. Reflective C. Happy and festive D. Mournful
Theory
Instructions : Answer one question from each section
Section A;
1.BUCHI EMECHETA: Second Class Citizen
a.Consider Adah's growth in confidence and determination in pursuit of her dreams
b.How are women treated in the novel?
2.ALEX AGYEI-AGYIRI: Unexpected Joy at Dawn
a. consider Mama Orojo's relationship with her church members in Amen Kristi.
b.Discuss Ni's encounter with -Put-t -to-me in the novel
SECTION B
1.WOLE SOYINKA: The Lion and The Jewel
a.Examine the theme of love and marriage in the play.
b.Why does Lakunle lose Sidi to Baroka?
2. John K. Kargbo: Let me Die Alone
a.Discuss Gbanya as a remarkable character
b .How do men behave towards women in the play?
Section C
1.Examine the changes in mood in "A Government Driver on His Retirement"
2.Comment on the poet's diction in: "Do not Go Gentle into that Good Night"
3.Examine the use of imagery in "Caged Bird"
4.Consider the use of alliteration, assonance and repetition in "Black Woman"
5.Discuss the theme of leadership in leader and the led
6.Discuss the frustration of the journey In the poem Journey of the Magi

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