1 If median nerve is injured at the wrist then loss of function of all of the following will

take place except:

a) Lumbrical muscles to index finger
b) Lumbrical muscles to middle finger
c) Muscles of thenar eminence
d) Adductor pollicis

1i Median nerve injury at the wrist joint leads to paralysis of all muscles except
a) Thenar muscles
b) Lumbrical of middle finger
c) Lumbrical of index finger
d) Adductor pollicis

2 The following structures pass posterior to the flexor retinaculum except :

a) Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Flexor pollicis longus tendon

3 Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through: R

a) Foramen rotundum
b) Foramen spinosum
c) Foramen lacerum
d) Foramen ovale

4 Of the following structures are in lat. Wall of cavernous sinus Except :

a) Occulomotor
b) Trochlear
c) Trigeminal
d) Opthalmic

5 Clara Cells are found in : R

a) Trachea R
b) Bronchioles
c) Alveoli
d) Oesophagus

6 Implantation occurs at the stage of : R

a) Zygote R
b) Morula
c) Blastocyst
d) Primary villi
 7 All of The extrinsic muscles of eye have origin from Posterior wall of orbital cavity
except :
a) Superior rectus
b) Superior oblique
c) Inferior rectus
d) Inferior oblique

8 All of the following are pneumatic bones except R

a) Maxilla R
b) Parietal R
c) Ethmoid R
d) Mastoid

9 In spinal cord myelin sheath is formed by

a) Schwann cells
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Astrocytes
d) Microglia

10 In left subclavian artery, the branches of the first part of the subclavian artery are all
except
a) Costocervical trunk
b) Internal thoracic artery
c) Thyrocervical trunk
d) Vertebral artery

11 Weight or force of upper limb is transmitted to axial skeleton mainly through R

a) Coraco-acromial ligament
b) Coraco-clavicular ligament
c) Costo-clavicular ligament
d) None of the above

12 Number of cells in the morula

a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 20

13 The prochordal plate later becomes the:

a) Buccopharyngeal membrane
b) Cloacal membrane
c) Anal membrane
d) Urogenital membrane

14 The meeting point of the interatrial, atrioventricular and posterior interventricular

grooves is called
a) Apex of the heart
b) Crux of the heart
c) Base of the heart
d) Coronary sulcus

15 Sweat glands exhibit this type of secretion

a) Apocrine
b) Holocrine
c) Merocrine
d) Endocrine

16 Spermatogenesis takes place in seminiferous tubles of testis under the influence of :

a) FSH
b) Testosterone
c) Oestrogen
d) Progesterone

17 Arch of aorta is hooked by

a) Left phrenic nerve
b) inferior cervical cardiac branch of left vagus
c) left recurrent laryngeal nerve branch of vagus
d) superior cervical cardiac branch of left sympathetic trunk

18 Sinus of Morgagni is the space between the

a) Skull and superior and constrictor muscle
b) Superior and middle constrictor muscle
c) Inferior and middle constrictor muscles
d) Between the circular and longitudinal parts of the inferior constrictor muscle

19 The muscle pierced by the parotid duct is

a) Orbicularis oris
b) Buccinator
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Masseter

20 The ganglion concerned with lacrimation is R

a) Trigeminal
b) Otic
c) Ciliary
d) Pterygopalatine

21 The peritoneal ligament attached to the lesser curvature of the stomach is

a) Gastro-hepatic
b) Gastro-colic
c) Gastro-phrenic
d) Gastro-splenic

22 Taenia coli are present in R

a) Caecum
b) Appendix
c) Rectum
d) All of the above

23 The plane passing through L5 vertebra level is

a) Subcostal
b) Supracristal
c) Interspinous
d) Transtubercular

24 In the upright position, the line of centre of gravity passes

a) Behind the hip joint
b) In front of the hip joint
c) Behind the knee joint
d) Behind the ankle joint

25 The suprapatellar bursa is kept in position by the action of this muscle

a) Rectus femoris
b) Vastus intermedius
c) Articularis genu
d) Vastus medialis

26 Fibular collateral ligament is the degenerated tendon of

a) Adductor magnus
b) Peroneus longus
c) Semimembranosus
d) Popliteus

27 Kupffer cells are present in : R

a) Liver R
b) Gall bladder
c) Pancreas
d) Stomach

28 Duodenum is derived from :

a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above

29 Oblique popliteal ligament is an expansion from the tendon of

a) Peroneus longus
b) Popliteus
c) Adductor magnus
d) Semimembranosus

30 The inferior mesenteric artery continues as this artery

a) Superior rectal
b) Inferior Rectal
c) Gonadal
d) Median sacral

31 The aponeurosis of this muscle forms the inguinal ligament:

a) External oblique
b) Internal oblique
c) Rectus abdominis
d) Transversus abdominis

32 The right testicular vein drains into the R

a) Right renal vein R
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Internal iliac vein
d) Azygos vein

33 All are derivatives of the embryonic midgut EXCEPT

a) Ileum
b) Left one third of transverse colon
c) Ascending colon
d) Appendix

34 All are muscles of first layer of the sole EXCEPT R

a) Flexor digitorum brevis R
b) Flexor digitorum accessorius
c) Abductor hallucis
d) Abductor digiti minimi

35 All are muscles of second layer of sole except-

a) Tendon of flexor hallucis longus
b) Flexor digitorum brevis
c) Four lumbricals
d) Flexor digitorum accessorius

36 Holandric inheritance is also known as

a) Autosomal dominant inheritance
b) Autosomal recessive inheritance
c) X-linked inheritance
d) Y-linked inheritance

37 The obliterated umbilical artery forms

a) The medial umbilical ligament
b) The median umbilical ligament
c) Urachus
d) Gubernaculum testes
38 Nerve emerging through superficial inguinal ring is-
a) Femoral branch of genito femoral nerve
b) Ilio inguinal nerve
c) Ilio hypogastric nerve
d) All of the above

39 The cells of the testis that form the blood-testis barrier are
a) Spermatogonia
b) Primary spermatocyte
c) Interstitial cells of Leydig
d) Sustentacular cells of Sertoli

40 Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of this duct: R

a) Mullerian R
b) Wolffian R
c) Mesonephric
d) Vitello-intestinal duct

41 Klumpke s Palsy involves A/E: R

a) C6
b) C7
c) C8
d) T1

41i Following are the clinical features noticed in Klumpke's paralysis, except
a) Claw hand
b) Sensory loss along the medial border of the forearm and hand
c) Drooping of the upper eyelid
d) Wrist drop

42 Branch of Cervical part of ICA is :

a) Opthalmic
b) Anterior
c) cerebral
d) Posterior communicating None.

43 Pleural tapping in mid axillary line, muscle not pierced is :

a) Internal intercostal
b) External intercostal
c) Innermost intercostal
d) Transversus thoracis

44 Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through:

a) Foramen rotundum
b) Foramen spinosum
c) Foramen ovale
d) Foramen lacerum
45 All of the following structures are in lateral Wall of cavernous sinus Except,
a) Occulomotor
b) Trochlear
c) Trigeminal
d) Opthalmic

46 Ostrigonum is which type of epiphysis:

a) Aberrant
b) Atavistic
c) Pressure
d) Traction

47 Bulbus cordis forms :

a) Trabeculated part of right ventricle
b) Smooth part of right ventricle
c) Smooth part of right atrium
d) Trabeculated part of right atrium

48 The following structures pass posterior to the flexor retinaculum except :

a) Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Flexor pollicis longus tendons

48i All of the following structures pass superficial to flexor retinaculum of wrist except
a) Palmaris longus
b) Ulnar artery
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Median nerve

49 The carpal tunnel contains the following important structures Except : R

a) Flexor pollicis longus tendon
b) Flexor carpi radialis tendon
c) Median nerve
d) Flexor digitorum superficialis tendon

50 Blood supply of littles area are A/E

a) Greater palatine artery
b) Septal branch of sup. Labial
c) Anterior ethmoidal
d) Nasal branch of sphenopalatine.

51 The intervertebral disc is an example of

a) Symphysis
b) Synchondrosis
c) Suture
d) Gomphosis
52 Axons are myelinated by-
a) Schwann cells in central nervous system
b) Oligodendrocytes in peripheral nervous system
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

53 All are branches of second part of maxillary artery EXCEPT

a) Masseteric
b) Deep temporal
c) Inferior alveolar
d) Buccal

54 Cannulation of this vein is preferred for cardiac catheterization

a) Cephalic vein
b) Median cubital vein
c) Basilic vein
d) Nedial vein of forearm

55 Muscle responsible for protrusion of the tongue is

a) Hyoglossus
b) Palatoglossus
c) Styloglossus
d) Genioglossus

56 This cranial nerve lies between the pons and middle cerebellar peduncle
a) Trigeminal
b) Trochlear
c) Facial
d) Vestibulocochlear

57 The following statements concerning the spermatic cord are correct except,
a) It extends from the deep inguinal ring to the scrotum
b) It contains the testicular artery
c) It is covered by five layers of spermatic fascia
d) It contains the pampiniform plexus

58 The following statements concerning the pancreas are correct except,

a) The pancreas receives part of the arterial supply from the splenic artery
b) The main pancreatic duct opens into the third part of the duodenum
c) The uncinate process of the pancreas projects from the head of pancreas
d) The transverse mesocolon is attached to the anterior border of pancreas

59 The urogenital diaphragm is formed by the following structures except,

a) Deep transverse perineal muscle
b) Perineal membrane
c) Sphincter urethrae
d) Colles fascia
60 Hyperextension of the hip joint is prevented by the,
a) Obturator internus tendon
b) Ischiofemoral ligament
c) Iliotibial tract
d) Tensor fascia latae muscle

61 The foot is inverted by the following muscles except,

a) Tibialis anterior
b) Extensor hallucis longus
c) Peroneus tertius
d) Tibialis posterior

62 Downward displacement of enlarged spleen is prevented by,

a) Lieno renal ligament
b) Phrenicocolic ligament
c) Sigmoid colon
d) Upper pole of right kidney

63 The following group of Lymph nodes receive lymphatics from the uterus except,
a) External iliac
b) Internal iliac
c) Superficial inguinal
d) Deep inguinal

64 Which is a direct branch of celiac trunk,

a) Right gastric artery
b) Left gastric artery
c) Gastroduodenal artery
d) Right gastro epiploic artery

65 Left testicular vein drain into,

a) Inferior Mesenteric Vein
b) Left renal vein
c) Inferior Vena Cava
d) Common iliac vein

66 Shortest part of male urethra is

a) Penile
b) Prostatic
c) Membranous
d) Bulbar

67 Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to the involvement of the
following Nerve
a) Subcostal
b) Iliohypogastric
c) Ilioinguinal
d) Genitofemoral

68 The gastroduodenal artery is derived from

a) Celiac artery
b) Hepatic artery
c) Splenic artery
d) Cystic artery

69 Lumbar hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of

a) Dorsal sclerotome
b) Intermediate cell mass
c) Notocord
d) Ventral Sclerotome

70 The peritoneal fold that contains the tail of the pancreas is

a) Gastro-phrenic ligament
b) Gastro-hepatic ligament
c) Lienorenal ligament
d) Phrenicocolic

71 Pertaining to direct inguinal hernia

a) It is generally caused by weakness of conjoint tendon
b) It receives a covering of internal spermatic fascia
c) The neck of the hernia sac is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
d) Abdominal contents enter the canal though the deep inguinal ring

72 The plane passing through L5 vertebra level is

a) Subcostal
b) Supracristal
c) Interspinous
d) Transtubercular

73 In the upright position, the line of centre of gravity passes

a) Behind the hip joint
b) In front of the hip joint
c) Behind the knee joint
d) Behind the ankle joint

74 The suprapatellar bursa is kept in position by the action of this muscle

a) Rectus femoris
b) Articularis genu
c) Vastus intermedius
d) Vastus medialis

75 The middle cerebellar peduncles contain the nerve fibres arising from
a) Pontine nuclei
b) Tectum
c) Spinal cord
d) Spinal trigeminal nucleus

76 Which one of the following nerve injury causes wrist drop?

a) Ulnar nerve
b) Radial nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve

77 Interosseous recurrent artery is a branch of

a) Ulnar artery
b) Common interosseous artery
c) Anterior interosseous artery
d) Posterior interosseous artery

78 The rotator cuff is formed by the muscles mentioned below except

a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Teres major
d) Subscapularis

79 The boundaries of triangle of auscultation are formed by the following, except

a) Lateral border of trapezius
b) Medial border of scapula
c) Upper border of teres major
d) Upper border of latissimus dorsi

80 Parkinson's disease is due to the lesion of

a) Amygdaloid body
b) Lentiform nucleus
c) Substantia nigra
d) Dorsal nucleus of thalamus

81 Which one of the following bones is the first one to start ossifying?
a) Ulna
b) Scapula
c) Clavicle
d) Humerus

82 Which one of the following is not a branch of internal thoracic artery?

a) Superior epigastric artery
b) Musculophrenic artery
c) Anterior intercostal artery
d) Suprascapular artery

83 Permanent overdistension of the lung alveoli is a condition known as

a) Empyema
b) Emphysema
c) Pneumothorax
d) Dyspnoea

84 The aortic vestibule develops from

a) Conus cordis
b) Primitive ventricle
c) Bulbus cordis proper
d) Truncus arteriosus

85 Dysphagia may be felt due to the compression of oesophagus by the enlarged left
atrium in
a) Tricuspid valve stenosis
b) Mitral valve stenosis
c) Aortic valve stenosis
d) Pulmonary valve stenosis

86 Which one of the following consists entirely of elastic cartilage ?

a) Thyroid cartilage
b) Cricoid cartilage
c) Epiglottic cartilage
d) Arytenoid cartilage

87 Which vessels are mainly responsible for peripheral resistance?

a) Elastic artery
b) Arterioles
c) Large sized vein
d) Venules

88 Which of the following cell types line the central canal of spinal cord and ventricular
system of the brain?
a) Microglial cells
b) Astroglial cells
c) Ependymal cells
d) Oligodendrocytes

89 which one of the following is not the content of cubital fossa?

a) Biceps brachii tendon
b) Median nerve
c) Brachial artery
d) Brachial vein

90 The parasympathetic fibres contained in chorda tympani nerve get relayed within
which ganglion
a) Ciliary ganglion
b) Submandibular ganglion
c) Pterygopalatine ganglion
d) Otic ganglion
91 The pes hippocampus is related to which part of lateral ventricle?
a) Anterior horn
b) Posterior horn
c) Body (central part)
d) Inferior horn

92 Which one of the following dural sinus is only within the meningeal layer?
a) Transverse sinus
b) Inferior petrosal sinus
c) Straight sinus
d) Sigmoid sinus

93 The superior tarsus mucle is supplied by

a) Sympathetic nerve fibres
b) Infraorbital nerve
c) Inferior division of oculomotor nerve
d) Post ganglionic parasympathetic fibres of ciliary ganglion

94 In which part of the temporal bone internal acoustic meatus is present?

a) Mastoid part
b) Squamous part
c) Petrous part
d) Styloid process

95 Structure passing through lesser sciatic foramen is

a) Sciatic nerve
b) Nerve to quadratus femoris
c) Pudendal nerve
d) Superior gluteal vessels

96 Small recesses of peritoneum are important because they are sites of

a) Internal herniae
b) Vascular bleed
c) Expansion and bullous formation
d) Calcification

97 The sacrospinous ligament is a degenerated part of

a) Ischiococcygeus
b) Iliococcygeus
c) Pubococcygeus
d) Piriformis

98 Superior mesenteric artery arises opposite

a) T12 vertebra
b) L1 vertebra
c) L2 vertebra
d) L3 vertebra
 99 Congenital megacolon occurs due to
a) Increased thickness of muscles of colon
b) Imperforate anus
c) Non development of nerve plexus in the wall of colon
d) Increased thickness of mucosa of colon

100 Mesonephric duct in male does not form one of the following structures
a) Ureteric bud
b) Seminal vesicle and Ejaculatory duct
c) Epididymis and Vas deferens
d) Duct of Gartner

101 Gall bladder is devoid of

a) Mucosa
b) Lamina propria
c) Submucosa
d) Serosa

102 Uterine tube is lined by

a) Simple columnar epithelium
b) Ciliated columnar epithelium
c) Stratified columnar epithelium
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

103 Klinefelter's syndrome shows the following pattern

a) 47XYY
b) 47XXX
c) 45XO
d) 47XXY

104 Pain of gallstones is referred to following areas, except

a) Tip of right shoulder
b) Epigastric region
c) Inferior angle of left scapula
d) Inferior angle of right scapula

105 Which of the following is not a content of broad ligament of uterus

a) Cervix
b) Uterine tube
c) Ligament of ovary
d) Round ligament

106 Which lobe of prostate is responsible for producing uvula vesicae

a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Lateral
d) Median
107 Locking of the knee joint is caused by the contraction of
a) Popliteus
b) Biceps femoris
c) Semimembranosus
d) Quadriceps femoris

108 Select the incorrect statement about the gastric canal

a) It is located along the lesser curvature of the stomach
b) It is also called as canal of Magentrasse
c) It is produced due to the absence of longitudinal fold of gastric mucosa
d) It is prone to ulceration

109 All of the following are boundaries of calot's triangle except

a) Common hepatic duct
b) Inferior surface of liver
c) Cystic duct
d) Cystic artery

110 The patency of fallopian tubes are tested by which one of the following procedure
a) Intravenous pyelography
b) Cholecystography
c) Retrograde pyelography
d) Hysterosalpingography

111 Lurching gait is due to paralysis of

a) Gluteus maximus and minimus
b) Gluteus medius and minimus
c) Gluteus medius and maximus
d) Gluteus maximus

112 Inversion and Eversion of foot takes place at the following joint
a) Ankle joint
b) Calcaneo- cuboid joint
c) Subtalar joint
d) Metatarsophalangeal joint

113 Tibial collateral ligament represents degenerated portion of which muscle

a) Peroneus longus
b) Adductor Magnus
c) Adductor longus
d) Biceps femoris

114 Following are formative tributaries of portal vein

a) Hepatic vein and splenic vein
b) Splenic and superior mesenteric vein
c) Splenic and inferior mesenteric vein
d) Superior and inferior mesenteric vein
115 Blood supply of pons is
a) Anterior spinal artery
b) Bulbar artery
c) Posterior Inferior Cerebellar artery
d) Basilar artery

116 Coracoid process is which type of epiphysis

a) Atavistic
b) Pressure Aberrant Traction
c) Pressure
d) Aberrant Traction

117 SA node most commonly is supplied by which artery

a) Right coronary artery
b) Right carotid artery
c) Left coronary artery
d) Left carotid artery

118 Tracheo-esophageal groove contain

a) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b) Superior laryngeal nerve
c) External laryngeal nerve
d) Internal laryngeal nerve

119 Respiratory epithelium is

a) Stratified columnar epithelium
b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
c) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
d) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells

120 Mediastinal surface of right lung related to all except

a) Superior vena cava
b) Azygos vein
c) Arch of aorta
d) Inferior vena cava

121 Parotid gland is

a) Serous salivary gland
b) Mucous salivary gland
c) Endocrine gland
d) Mixed salivary gland

122 Hassall's corpuscles are seen in

a) Lymph node
b) Thymus
c) Thyroid
d) Spleen
123 Keratin granules present in which layer of skin
a) Epidermis
b) Dermo-epidermal junction
c) Dermis
d) Below dermis

124 Myelin sheath in the spinal cord is formed by

a) Schwann cells
b) oligodendrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Astrocytes

125 All are synovial joints except

a) Wrist joint
b) Shoulder joint
c) Pubic symphysis
d) Interphalangeal joint

126 Safety muscles of tongue is

a) Hyoglossus
b) Genioglossus
c) Palatoglossus
d) Styloglossus

127 Thyroid gland is supplied by branches from which artery

a) External carotid artery
b) Internal carotid artery
c) Facial artery
d) Superficial temporal artery

128 All are true about ribs except

a) Flat bones
b) Costal groove present in typical ribs
c) False ribs are not connected to sternum
d) Bucket handle movement increases transverse diameter of the chest

129 Neural tube developes from

a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Extraembryonic mesoderm

130 The hexagonal functional unit of liver with central vein in the centre is
a) Portal lobule
b) Portal triad
c) Hepatic lobule
d) Portal acinus
131 The projections of mucous membrane in the small intestine are called
a) Villi
b) Microvilli
c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
d) Valves of Kerkring

132 Ligamentum teres is remnant of

a) Left umbilical vein
b) Left umbilical artery
c) Right umbilical vein
d) Right umbilical artery

133 Non return of physiological umbilical hernia is called

a) Volvulus
b) Exomphalos
c) Umbilical sinus
d) Diverticulum ilei

134 The epiploic foramen is bounded superiorly by

a) Caudate process of liver
b) Quadrate lobe
c) Fundus of gallbladder
d) Porta hepatis

135 The apex of the ischiorectal fossa is formed by

a) Fusion of anal and obturator fasciae
b) Inferior pad of fat
c) Sphincter ani externus
d) Levator ani muscle

136 The cystic vein drains into the

a) Right branch of portal vein
b) Left branch of portal vein
c) Stem of portal vein
d) Superior mesenteric vein

137 Duodenal cap is a normal finding in

a) Cholecystography
b) Barium meal
c) Pyelography
d) Barium enema

137i Duodenal cap is formed by

a) 1st part of Duodenum
b) 2nd part of Duodenum
c) 3rd part of Duodenum
d) 4th part of Duodenum
138 All of the following are intracapsular ligaments except
a) Cruciate ligaments of knee joint
b) Ligamentum teres of head of femur
c) Transverse ligament of knee
d) Ligamentum patellae

139 Companion artery of sciatic nerve

a) Is a branch of Superior gluteal artery
b) Is the continuation of inferior gluteal artery
c) Is a branch of internal iliac artery
d) Is the continuation of internal pudendal artery

140 Talus has its maximum stability

a) Because it rests on the calcaneus
b) Because it forms the summit of medial longitudinal arch
c) Because it transmits body weight to the bones of the foot
d) Because of its convex head

141 Fibular collateral ligament is the degenerated tendon of

a) Adductor magnus
b) Semimembranosus
c) Peroneus longus
d) Popliteus

142 While walking, the hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the following
muscles acting on the supported side of the body?
a) Gluteus maximus
b) Gluteus medius
c) Quadratus femoris
d) Obturator internus

143 The suprapatellar bursa is kept in position by the action of this muscle
a) Rectus femoris
b) Vastus intermedius
c) Articularis genu
d) Vastus medialis

144 The cells of the testis that form the blood-testes barrier are
a) Spermatogonia
b) Interstitial cells of Leydig
c) Sustentacular cells of Sertoli
d) Primary spermatocytes

145 The muscle not present in the first layer of the sole is
a) Flexor digitorum brevis
b) Flexor digitorum accessorius
c) Abductor hallucis
d) Abductor digiti minimi
146 The following structures pass through the greater sciatic foramen except :
a) superior gluteal artery
b) sciatic nerve
c) obturator internus tendon
d) pudendal nerve

147 The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by

a) Lacunar ligament
b) Femoral artery
c) Femoral vein
d) Femoral nerve

148 Tegmen tympani forms the roof of

a) Inner ear
b) Middle ear
c) External ear
d) Pharynx

149 The site of closure of anterior neuropore is represented by

a) Lamina terminalis
b) Amygdaloid body
c) Anterior perforated substance
d) Posterior perforated substance

150 In an infant with hydrocephalus, the MRI image shows dilatation of third ventricle.
The site of block is.................. .
a) Foramen of Luschka
b) Central canal
c) Interventricular foramen
d) Aqueduct of Sylvius

151 The safety muscle of larynx is

a) Lateral cricoarytenoid
b) Posterior cricoarytenoid
c) Transverse arytenoid
d) Oblique aretynoid

152 The structure that passes along with oesophagus through the diaphragm is
a) Vagus
b) Thoracic duct
c) Azygos vein
d) Hemiazygos vein

153 Ligamentum denticulatum is a derivative of

a) Spinal endosteum
b) Dura mater
c) Arachnoid mater
 d) Pia mater

153i Ligamentum denticulatum is the extension from

a) Posterior longitudinal ligament
b) Pia mater
c) Ligamentum flavum
d) Dura mater

154 Myelination of optic nerve is by

a) Oligodendrocyte
b) Schwann cell
c) Microglia
d) Astrocyte

155 Pulmonary ligament is derived from...................... Pleura.

a) Cervical
b) Mediastinal
c) Costal
d) Diaphragmatic

156 Centrioles are absent in

Cilia
Flagella
Microvilli
Mitotic spindle

157 Which is the venous sinus present at the junction of falx cerebri with tentorium
cerebelli
a) Straight
b) Occipital
c) Transverse
d) Sigmoid

158 The phrenic nerve does not supply

a) Diaphragm
b) Parietal pericardium
c) Fibrous pericardium
d) Visceral pericardium

159 Portal circulation is not seen in relation to

a) Liver
b) Pituitary
c) Kidney
d) Heart

160 1st metacarpophalangeal joint is an example for

a) Saddle
b) Ellipsoid
 c) Condylar
d) Hinge

161 End arteries are absent in

a) Eyeball
b) Kidney
c) Spleen
d) Liver

162 The lesser occipital nerve hooks around the............. cranial nerve.
a) IX
b) X
c) XI
d) XII

163 Peau d' orange appearance in carcinoma of mammary gland is due to spread to
cancer cells to
a) Ligament of cooper
b) Lactiferous ducts
c) Cutaneous lymphatic vessels
d) Axillary lymph nodes

164 The carotid sinus is supplied by

a) IX
b) X
c) XI
d) XII

165 All of the following are contents of femoral sheath except

a) Femoral artery
b) Femoral Vein
c) Femoral canal
d) Femoral Nerve

166 Ankle joint is more stable in following movement of joint

a) Plantar flexion
b) Dorsiflexion
c) Inversion of foot
d) Eversion of foot

167 Ovaries develop from

a) Paraxial mesoderm
b) Cortical intermediate mesoderm
c) Somatopleuric mesoderm
d) Endodermal cloaca

168 Medially inguinal ligament is attached to

a) Pubic crest
 b) Pubic symphysis
c) Pubic tubercle
d) Pecten pubis

169 Transpyloric plane passes through all of the following except

a) Hilum of spleen
b) Pylorus of stomach
c) Fundus of gall bladder
d) L1 vertebra

170 The following facts about prostate are true except

a) Supplied by inferior vesical arteries
b) Deep dorsal vein of penis drains into prostatic venous plexus
c) Can be palpated per rectally if enlarged
d) Is traversed by ductus deferens

171 The epithelium of trigone of urinary bladder develops from

a) Endoderm of vesicourethral canal
b) Pelvic part of urogenital sinus
c) Absorbed mesonephric ducts in vesicourethral canal
d) Phallic part of urogenital sinus

172 Nervi erigentes arises from

a) Ventral rami of S2, S3, S4 segments
b) Ventral rami of S2, S3, S4 and S5 segments
c) Ventral rami of S1, S2, S3 segments
d) Dorsal rami of S2, S3, S4 segments

173 The urogenital diaphragm is formed by all of the following structures except
a) Deep transverse perinei muscles
b) Perineal membrane
c) Sphincter urethrae muscle
d) Colle's fascia

174 What is diagonal conjugate?

a) The distance between upper border of pubic symphysis and tip of 1st sacral spine
b) The distance between middle of sacral promontory and inferior border of pubic
symphysis
c) Distance between sacral promontory and superior border of pubic symphysis
d) Shortest distance between the pelvic surface of pubic symphysis and sacral
promontory

175 Biceps femoris is inserted into

a) Head of fibula
b) Lateral condyle of tibia
c) Medial condyle of tibia
d) Adductor tubercle of femur
176 Fracture neck of fibula damages which nerve?
a) Obturator nerve
b) Saphenous nerve
c) Tibial nerve
d) Common peroneal nerve

177 Intravenous pyelogram is done to study

a) Urinary tract diseases
b) Intestinal diseases
c) Patency of Fallopian tube
d) Diseases of biliary tract

178 Commonest position of vermiform appendix is

a) Pelvic
b) Splenic
c) Retrocaecal retrocolic
d) Promonteric

179 Which muscle is considered as peripheral heart?

a) Gastrocnemius
b) Soleus
c) Flexor hallucis longus
d) Tibialis posterior

180 Inversion and eversion occur at

a) Ankle joint
b) Fibulo talar joint
c) First tarsometatarsal joint
d) Subtalar joint

181 Which one of the following structures is derived from all the three germ layers
a) Prostate
b) Ductus deferens
c) Seminal vesicle
d) Male urethra

182 Which one of the following is not a feature of colon? R

a) Attachment of mesentery throughout its length
b) Appendices epiploicae
c) Taenia coli
d) Haustrations

183 Inferior vena cava is formed at which vertebral level?

a) 2nd lumbar vertebra
b) 5th lumbar vertebra
c) 4th lumbar vertebra
d) 3rd lumbar vertebra
184
Which one of the following structures not related to anterior surface of right kidney.
a) Liver
b) 2nd part of Duodenum
c) Pancreas
d) Hepatic flexure of colon

185 An example for multipennate muscle is

a) Flexor digitorum superficialis
b) Flexor digitorum profundus
c) Deltoid
d) Pronator teres

186 Which of the following is matched WRONG

a) Atavistic epiphysiscoracoid process
b) Aberrant epiphysis- head of the first metacarpal bone
c) Traction epiphysishead of the femur
d) Pressure epiphysishead of the humerus

187 Anterior intercostal vein is seen in

a) Upper 4 Spaces
b) Upper 6 spaces
c) Upper 9 Spaces
d) All spaces

188 Foreign body usually is aspirated into

a) Right principal bronchus
b) Left principal bronchus
c) Right lobar bronchus
d) Left lobar bronchus

189 Periarteriolar lymphatic sheaths are seen in

a) Thymus
b) Spleen
c) Lymph node
d) Palatine tonsil

190 Axillary sheath is derived from

a) Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
b) Pretracheal fascia
c) Prevertebral fascia
d) Deep fascia of axilla

191 Sebaceous gland is a................ type of gland

a) Endocrine
b) Apocrine
c) Merocrine
d) Holocrine
192 .................... is an important event during fourth week of development
a) Bilaminar germ disc formation
b) Trilaminar germ disc formation
c) Neurulation
d) Embryonic folding

193 Biceps jerk checks for

a) C3, C4
b) C4, C5
c) C5, C6
d) C6, C7

194 The suboccipital nerve is

a) Dorsal ramus of C1
b) Dorsal ramus of C2
c) Ventral ramus of C1
d) Ventral ramus of C2

195 Components of placental barrier are all EXCEPT

a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Endothelium of fetal blood vessels
c) Syncytiotrophoblast
d) Endothelium of maternal blood vessels

196 Which of these nerves does NOT pass through the common tendinous ring ?
a) Abducent
b) Frontal
c) Occulomotor
d) Nasociliary

197 All the following are seen in central nervous system EXCEPT
a) Microglia
b) Astrocytes
c) Oligodendroblasts
d) Satellite cells

198 Cells responsible for shrinking of scar tissue

a) Myoepithelial cells
b) Myofibroblasts
c) Histiocytes
d) Plasma cells

199 The internal vertebral venous plexus is present in................... space

a) Epidural
b) Subdural
c) Subarachnoid
d) Below the pia
200 The superior radioulnar joint is of ................ type
a) Pivot
b) Saddle
c) Condylar
d) Plane

201 Bone remodelling cell is

a) Osteoclast
b) Osteocyte
c) Osteoblast
d) Osteoprogenitor

202 ....................... Nerve is related posterior to the medial epicondyle.

a) Median
b) Ulnar
c) Radial
d) Posterior interrosseous

203 ..................... prevents the ectopic pregnancy.

a) Theca externa
b) Zona pellucida
c) Theca interna
d) Membrana granulosa

204 Ligamentum denticulatum is derived from

a) Endosteal layer
b) Spinal meninges
c) Arachnoid
d) Pia

205 The seminal vesicles are ralated to which aspect of the urinary bladder ?
a) Superior surface
b) Infero lateral surface
c) Apex
d) Base

206 The free margin of the broad ligament of the uterus contains
a) Ligament of ovary
b) Round ligament of uterus
c) Fallopian tube
d) 4 Remnants of mesonephric duct

207 Which one of the following contributes in the formation of urogenital diaphragm ?
a) Obturator membrane
b) Perineal membrane
c) Coccygeus
d) Pubo rectalis muscle
208 Medial umbilical ligament is a derivative of
a) Umbilical artery
b) Inferior epigastric Vein
c) Left umbilical vein
d) Urachus

209 Perisinusoidal space of Disse is a feature found in the microscopic structure of

a) Supra renal gland
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Pancreas

210 Posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen is related to which one of the structures
mentioned below ?
a) Portal vein
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Superior mesenteric vein
d) Splenic vein

211 Following glands are the derivatives of the intermediate mesoderm, except
a) Kidney
b) Testis
c) Suprarenal medulla
d) Ovary

212 Meeting of two limbs of the root of sigmoid mesocolon is related to

a) Sacro iliac joint
b) Promontory of sacrum
c) Sacro coccygeal joint
d) Lumbo sacral joint

213 Following are the branches of anterior division of internal iliac artery, except
a) Superior gluteal artery
b) Internal pudendal artery
c) Obturator artery
d) Middle rectal artery

214 Lieno renal ligament contains which part of the pancreas ?

a) Uncinate process
b) Neck
c) Body
d) Tail

215 Lurching gait is noticed in the unilateral paralysis of which one of the muscle listed
below ?
a) Short head of biceps femoris
b) Adductor magnus
 c) Qudriceps femoris
d) Gluteus medius muscle

216 The muscle inserted into the trochanteric fossa of the femur is
a) Piriformis with gemelli
b) Obturator internus
c) Obturator externus
d) Quadratus femoris

217 Sphenous nerve is a branch of

a) Obturator nerve
b) Ilioinguinal nerve
c) Tibial nerve
d) Femoral nerve

218 The upper attachment of the Ilio femoral ligament is to the

a) Iliac crest
b) Anterior superior iliac spine
c) Ilio pectineal eminence
d) Anterior inferior iliac spine

219 Which one of the tarsal bones mentioned below has no muscle attachment ?
a) Medial cuneiform bone
b) Navicular bone
c) Talus
d) Cuboid bone

220 Following statements regarding cruciate ligaments are correct except,

a) They are intracapsular
b) They are intrasynovially placed
c) They are attached to intercondylar area on tibia
d) Meniscofemoral ligaments surround posterior cruciate ligament.

221 Following statements regarding interior features of the duodenum are correct
except
a) Major duodenal papilla is seen in the second part
b) Plicae circularis are visible in the third part
c) There are plicae circularis in proximal part of first part of duodenum
d) A verical mucosal fold indicates position of common bile duct

222 Thalassemia is an example of this mode of inheritance

a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked Dominant
d) X-linked recessive

223 Peroneus tertius is regarded as detached part of

a) Tibialis anterior
 b) Extensor digitorum longus
c) Extensor hallucis longus
d) Extensor digitorum brevis

224 The Musculo cutaneous nerve passes through

a) Long head of biceps brachii muscle
b) Brachialis muscle
c) Short head of biceps brachialis
d) Coracobrachialis muscle

225 The artery that crosses the anatomical snuff box is

a) Ulnar artery
b) Superficial palmar branch of radial artery
c) Radial artery
d) Anterior interosseous artery

226 Accessory hemiazygos vein drains into

a) Inferior hemiazygos vein
b) Superior vena cava
c) Right brachiocephalic vein
d) Azygos vein

227 The carina is the region where

a) Trachea begins from the larynx
b) Left principal bronchus is arched over by arch of aorta
c) Right principal bronchus enters the hilum of the lung
d) The trachea divides into bronchi

228 Pituitary gland is related inferiorly to

a) Frontal air sinus
b) Ethmoidal air sinuses
c) Sphenoidal air sinus
d) Maxillary sinus

229 Which one of the following muscles is supplied by the cranial accessory nerve?
a) Palatoglossus
b) Genioglossus
c) Hyoglossus
d) Styloglossus

230 Pterion is related to

a) Internal carotid artery
b) Middle meningeal artery
c) External carotid artery
d) Accessory meningeal artery

231 Which one of the following statements is a wrong with regard to first rib ?
a) Suprapleural membrane is attached to its lateral border.
 b) Lower trunk of brachial plexus lies on first rib
c) Scalenus anterior muscle is inserted.
d) Subclavian artery lies on the first rib.

232 Trigeminal nerve is attached to the

a) Midbrain
b) At the junction between pons and middle cerebellar peduncle
c) Ponto medullary junction
d) Medulla oblongata

233 The corpus callosum contains

a) Short association fibres
b) Long association fibres
c) Commissural fibres
d) Projection fibres

234 Median atlanto axial joint is what type of synovial joint ?

a) Hinge joint
b) Plane synovial joint
c) Pivot joint
d) Bicondylar joint

235 Superior bulb of internal jugular vein is related to which wall of the middle ear ?
a) Anterior wall
b) Floor
c) Lateral wall
d) Roof

236 The pre-trematic nerve of the first pharyngeal arch is

a) Chorda tympani nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Mandibular nerve
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

237 Bulbus cordis forms

a) Outflow tract of right ventricle
b) Inflow part of right ventricle
c) Rough part of right atrium
d) Smooth part of right atrium

238 The superior oblique muscle of the eye ball is supplied by R

a) Superior division of oculomotor nerve
b) Inferior division of oculomotor nerve
c) Trochlear nerve
d) Abducent nerve

239 During pleural tapping in the mid axillary line the muscle that is not pierced by is
a) External intercostal muscle
 b) Internal intercostal muscle
c) Sternocostalis muscle
d) Intercostalis muscle

240 Neural tube develops from

a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Paraxial mesoderm
d) Intermediate mesoderm

241 The lateral umbilical fold of peritoneum is produced by

a) Obliterated umbilical artery
b) Inferior epigastric artery
c) Obliterated umbilical vein
d) 4 Urachus

242 The peritoneal ligament attached to the cardiac end of the greater curvature of the
stomach is
a) Gastro-hepatic
b) Gastro-colic
c) Gastro-phrenic
d) Gastro-splenic

243 The peritoneal fold that contains the tail of the pancreas is
a) Gastro-phrenic
b) Gastro-hepatic
c) Lienorenal
d) Phrenicocolic

244 Taenia coli are present in

a) Caecum
b) Appendix
c) Rectum
d) All of the above

245 Inferior gluteal nerve supplies

a) Gluteus minimus
b) Tensor fascia lata
c) Gluteus medius
d) Gluteus maximus

246 Fibular collateral ligamentis the degenerated tendon of

a) Adductor magnus
b) Semimembranosus
c) Peroneous longus
d) Popliteus

247 The extremity of a chromosome is called

 a) Telomere
b) Satellite
c) Filament
d) Nucleolar zone

248 The muscle that is inserted into the trochanteric fossa of the femur is
a) Obturator internus
b) Obturator externus
c) Superior gemellus
d) Inferior gemellus

249 Thalassemia is an example of this mode of inheritance

a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) X-linked dominant
d) X-linked recessive

250 The inferior mesenteric artery continues as this artery

a) Superior rectal
b) Inferior rectal
c) Gonadal
d) Median sacral

251 The aponeurosis of this muscle forms the inguinal ligament:

a) External oblique
b) Internal oblique
c) Rectus abdominus
d) Transversusabdominus

252 These cells produce histamine

a) Plasma cells
b) Histiocytes
c) Mast cells
d) Macrophages

253 Brush border is seen in -

a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Repiratory epithelium
c) Intestinal epithelium
d) Epididymis

254 The oesophageal opening in the diaphragm lies at this vertebral level:
a) T8
b) T10
c) T9
d) T11

255 The most common position of the appendix is

 a) Pre-ileal
b) Sub-caecal
c) Retrocaecal
d) Pelvic

256 Which one of the following is an example for atavistic epiphysis?

a) Lesser tubercle of humerus
b) Greater tubercle of humerus
c) Coracoid process of scapula
d) Head of humerus

257 Which of the following condition is called as tennis elbow

a) Lateral epicondylitis
b) Medial epicondylitis
c) Olecranon bursitis
d) Subluxation of head of radius

258 The parasympathetic ganglion concerned in supplying the lacrimal gland is

a) Otic ganglion
b) Ciliary ganglion
c) Pterygopalatine ganglion
d) Submandibular ganglion

259 All the structures traverse the whole length of the mediastinum, except
a) Oesophagus
b) Trachea
c) Thoracic duct
d) Sympathetic trunks

260 Which of the following muscle abducts vocal cords

a) Thyroarytenoid
b) Cricothyroid
c) Posterior cricoarytenoid
d) Lateral cricoarytenoid

261 The base of the heart is formed by

a) Both ventricles
b) Both atria
c) Right atrium and right ventricle
d) Left atrium and left ventricle

262 Which artery is known as artery of epistaxis?

a) Anterior ethmoidal artery
b) Greater palatine artery
c) Infraorbital artery
d) Sphenopalatine artery

263 The fixed (native) cell of connective tissue is

 a) Neutrophil
b) Red blood cell
c) Eosinophil
d) Adipocyte

264 The muscle responsible for first 15 degrees of abduction of arm

a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Teres major
d) Teres minor

265 External jugular vein is a tributary of

a) Subclavian vein
b) Internal jugular vein
c) Anterior jugular vein
d) Posterior jugular vein

266 Bronchial arteries are branches of

a) Ascending aorta
b) Descending thoracic aorta
c) Pulmonary artery
d) Internal thoracic artery

267 The neural tube develops under the inductive effect of

a) Primitive streak
b) Primitive node
c) Notochord
d) Prochordal plate

268 Superior radio-ulnar joint is -----type of synovial joint

a) Ellipsoid
b) Saddle
c) Pivot
d) Condylar

269 The dangerous layer of scalp is

a) Skin
b) Loose areolar tissue layer
c) Pericranium
d) Connective tissue layer

270 Skin over parotid gland & angle of mandible is supplied by

a) Anterior branch of great auricular nerve
b) Buccal branch of mandibular nerve
c) Buccal branch of facial nerve
d) Infraorbital nerve

271 Monk hood at major duodenal papilla is formed by

 a) Plica longitudinalis
b) Plica circularis
c) Plica semicircularis
d) All of the above

272 All are true about pancreas except

a) Lies retroperitoneally
b) Separated from stomach by lesser sac
c) Separated from stomach by greater sac
d) Both endo & exocrine gland

273 Cystohepatic angle is an angle between

a) Right and left hepatic ducts
b) Common hepatic duct and cystic duct
c) Common bile duct and cystic duct
d) None of the above

274 All of the following are cardinal features of colon except

a) Supplied by coeliac trunk
b) Taenia coli
c) Appendices epiploicae
d) Haustrations

275 Rectum is related in midline posteriorly to all except

a) Ganglion impar
b) Upper three pieces of sacrum
c) Median sacral vessels
d) Lower three pieces of sacrum

276 Inferior vena cava is formed in front of

a) L2 vertebra
b) L3 vertebra
c) L4 vertebra
d) L5 vertebra

277 Marginal artery of Drummond extends from

a) Superior to inferior mesenteric artery
b) Ileo caecal artery to left colic artery
c) Ileo caecal artery to rectosigmoid junction
d) None of the above

278 Root value of Ilio inguinal nerve is

a) L1
b) L2
c) L3
d) L4

279 Appendix of testis is a remnant of

 a) Gartner duct
b) Mullerian duct
c) Stenson's duct
d) None of the above

280 The perineal body is the site of convergence of all of the following muscles except
a) Ischiocavernosus
b) Bulbospongiosus
c) Superficial transverse perinei
d) Deep transverse perinei

281 Most fixed part of urinary bladder is

a) Neck of urinary bladder
b) Apex of urinary bladder
c) Base of urinary bladder
d) Lateral border

282 Para urethral glands are homologous to

a) Penis
b) Testis
c) Prostate
d) All of the above

283 Neck shaft angle of femur in adult is

a) 90°
b) 125°
c) 160°
d) None of the above

284 Posterior superior iliac spine lies at

a) S1 spine
b) S2 spine
c) S3 spine
d) S4 spine

285 Which muscle is known as unlocking muscle of knee joint

a) Popliteus
b) Biceps femoris
c) Tibialis posterior
d) Soleus

286 Structures passing through saphenous opening are all except

a) Great Saphenous vein
b) Superficial epigastric & superficial external pudendal arteries
c) Superficial epigastric & superficial external pudendal vein
d) Branches of medial femoral cutaneous nerve

287 Subsartorial nerve plexus is formed by all except

 a) Saphenous nerve
b) Intermediate femoral cutaneous nerve
c) Obturator nerve
d) Medial femoral cutaneous nerve

288 Fabella is a sesamoid bone developed in the tendon of

a) Popliteus
b) Medical head of Gastrocnemius
c) Lateral head of Gastrocnemius
d) Plantaris