NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2081
Model: XIV
(Day Shift)

(Set-B)
Date: Asar 29th, 2081 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Time – 11:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
. Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

1. Which is filter feeder

a. Amoeba b. Leech c. Spider d. Paramecium
2. Which of the following is a member of phylum Porifera
a. Sycon b. Leucosolenia c. Spongilla d. All of them
3. In hydra reproduction occurs in favorable conditions
a. By budding b. By gametes c. By gemmule d. Binary fission
4. Which one is not a roundworm?
a. Ancyclostoma b. Dracunculus c. Loa d. Diphyllobothrium
5. A definite number of body segments is found in
a. Leech b. Earthworm c. Tapeworm d. Slug
6. Spiders and scorpions are included in class
a. Arachnida b. Echanida c. Actinozoa d. Anthozoa
7. Respiration by gills and lungs or pulmonary sac is present in
a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Mollusca d. Echinodermata
8. An animal that transforms from bilateral to radial symmetry in its life history is
a. Hydra b. Obelia c. Starfish d. Sponge
9. Which is viviparous?
a. Bony fish b. Lung fish c. Frog d. Shark
10. Which are the mammalian characters?
a. Vertebral column, 4-chambered heart, lungs
b. Hairy skin, Viviparity, mammary glands
c. Fins, gills, viviparity
d. Kidney, lungs, 4-chambered heart
11. Chemical theory of origin of life was given by
a. Spallanzani b. Louis Pasteur c. Stanly Miller d. Oparin & Haldane
12. The most important characteristics of primates is
a. Color vision c. 4-chambered heart
b. Growth in size of brain d. Efficient respiratory organ
13. Hunting wasp exhibit:
a. Menotaxis b. Mnemotaxis c. Tropotaxis d. Klinotaxis
14. Animals communicate through the use of
a. Visual b. Acoustic c. Chemical d. All
15. Common Indian frog is called Bull frog because it is
a. Shaped like a bull b. Large sized c. Croaks loudly d. Both b & c
16. Which of the following is mainly used in capturing the prey in frog
a. Lips b. Teeth c. Tongue d. Hand
17. The venous system of frog differs from that of rabbit in having
a. Hepatic vein c. Renal portal system
b. Three vena cavae d. Hepatic portal system
18. Quartan malaria is due to
a. P. falciparum b. P. vivax c. P. ovale d. P. malariae
19. The chemical used for malarial eradication

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

a. BHC b. DDT c. 2, 4, –D d. Pyrenoid

20. In 15th segment of phesetima, which type of nephridia is / are found?
a. Septal nephridia only c. Pharyngeal nephridia only
b. Integumentary nephridia only d. Both a. and c.
21. Nerve ring in pheretime encircling the:
a. Buccal cavity b. Pharynx c. Oesophagus d. Gizzard
22. Which one is correct
a. Flatworms are eucoelomate
b. Fishes are radially symmetrical
c. Birds are poikilothermic
d. Earthworm is metamerically segmented
23. Ankle joint is:
a. Pivot joint c. Hinge joint
b. Ball and socket joint d. Gliding joint
24. An endocrine gland present in all vertebrates except fishes is
a. Thyroid b. Parathyroid c. Adrenal d. Pineal
25. The effect of prolactin hormone is on:
a. Liver c. Mammary glands
b. Pancreas d. Bones
26. Simple epithelium is a tissue is which the cells are
a. hardened & provide support to the organs
b. continuously dividing of provide to form as organ
c. Cemented directly to one another to form a single layer
d. Loosely connected to one another to form an irregular layer
27. Glisson's capsule is a delicate connective tissue capsule covering the
a. Spleen b. Liver c. Kidney d. Gall bladder
28. Sarcolemma is the covering of
a. Nerve fibres c. Bone marrow
b. Muscle fibres d. Liver, kidney and stomach
29. Largest number of cell bodies of neuron in our body are found in
a. Retina b. Spinal cord c. Brain d. Tongue
30. Crypts of lieberkuhn secrete
a. Gastric juice c. Bile juice
b. Sacculus rotundus d. Saccus entericus
31. Cud chewing animals are known as:
a. ruminants b. cannibals c. frugivores d. sanguivores
32. At high altitude, RBC's of human blood will
a. increase in size c. decrease in size
b. increase in number d. decrease in number
33. Pulmonary aorta in mammalian embryo communicates with carotico-systemic aorta by a thin
vessel called ductus arteriosus which later closes and remains in adult as
a. fossa ovalis c. carotico-pulmonary aperture

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

b. ligamentum arteriosum d. none of the above

34. Balance and muscular co-ordination are the functions of
a. cerebrum b. cerebellum c. diencephalon d. pons
35. Pain is experienced by
a. hygroreceptor b. caloreceptor c. algesireceptor d. proprioceptor
36. Which of the following is located at the base of urinary bladder?
a. Ovary b. Prostate gland c. Seminal vesicle d. Bulbourethral gland
37. Suppose frog's tadpole does not metamorphose, yet it could not be grouped under fishes
because it
a. Feeds on aquatic vegetation c. Has a spirally coiled membrane
b. Does not possess gills d. Does not possess scales
38. Widal test is employed for defecting
a. Cholera b. Malaria c. Typhoid d. Yellow fever
39. Period from the entrance of pathogens into the body and their multiplication to show initial
symptoms of disease is known as
a. Incubation period c. Climax period
b. First period d. Infection period
40. In man, the two kidneys lie:
a. At the level of ovaries.
b. At the same level.
c. Left kidney at a higher level than the right one.
d. Right kidney at a higher level than the left one.
41. Largest cell organelle in plant is:
a. Golgi bodies b. Chromosomes c. Chloroplast d. Mitochondria
42. Cytoskeleton is made up of
a. Proteinaceous filaments c. Callose deposits
b. Calcium carbonate granules d. Cellulosic microfibrils
43. Which is absent in RBC?
a. Aerobic respiration b. Cytoplasm c. mRNA d. Membrane
44. Cells in Go phase of cell cycle
a.Suspend cell cycle c.Exit cell cycle
b.Enter cell cycle d.Terminate cell cycle
45. In meiosis, chiasmata formation takes place at
a. Zygotene b. Pachytene c. Diakinesis d. Diplotene
46. A cell undergoing meiosis is
a. Androcyte b. Zygote c. Meiocyte d. Zoospore
47. Mendel studied how many pairs of contracting character?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 7 d. 10
48. Cross between a heterozygous individual and homozygous recessive parent is
a. Monohybrid cross b. Dihybrid cross c. Back cross d. Test cross
49. An abnormal human male phenotype involving an extra X chromosome (XXY) is a case of
a. Down's syndrome c. Edward's syndrome

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

b. Intersex d. Klinefelter's syndrome

50. Fructose is
a. Oligosaccharide b. Aldohexose c. Aldopentose d. Ketohexose
51. Enzyme complex involved in alcoholic Fermentation in
a. Urease b. Zymase c. Diastase d. Dehydrogenase
52. Enzyme arginase occurs in
a. brain b. heart c. liver d. kidney
53. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove
a. Periderm b. Epidermis c. Cuticle d. Sapwood
54. Velamen is characteristic of
a. All roots c. Aerial stems of orchids
b. All stems d. Prop roots
55. Grafting is not possible in monocots, because of
a. Lack cambium c. Parallel veins
b. Scattered vascular bundles d. Herbaceous
56. When a cell is kept in 0.5 M solution of sucrose, its volume does not change. If the same cell is
placed in 0.5 M solution of NaCl, the volume of cell will
a. Increase c. Cell will be plasmolyzed
b. Decrease d. No change
57. Photolysis of water is helped by
a. Mg and Cl b. Mn and Cu c. Mn and Cl d. None of these
58. R.Q is
a. O2/CO2 b. CO2/O2 c. CO2 + O2 d. CO2 – O2
59. 'Fruit ripening hormone' is
a. Auxin b. Cytokinin c. Ethylene d. ABA
60. In osmosis there is a movement of
a. Solute only b. Solvent only c. Both a and b d. None of these
61. Grass stem elongates due to
a. Lateral meristem c. Intercalary meristem
b. Secondary meristem d. Apical meristem
62. Pedology is a science of
a. Rocks b. Diseases c. Soil d. Humus
63. A virus infecting a bacterium is
a. Plasmid b. Bacteriophage c. Bacteroid d. Phage
64. Agar-agar is obtained from
a. Chlorella b. Chara c. Gelidium d. Laminaria
65. Which is not an 'edible fungus'?
a. Agaricus b. Morchella c. Calvatia d. Amanita
66. Protonema is the juvenile filamentous stage in the life cycle of
a. Funaria b. Riccia c. Marchantia d. Laminaria
67. A plant having vascular supply, producing spores but lacking seeds is
a. Bryophyte b. Pteridophyte c. Gymnosperm d. Angiosperm

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

68. Ovule of Pinus is

a. Anatropous and unitegmic c. Orthotropous and bitegmic
b. Orthotropous and unitegmic d.Amphitropous and bitegmic
69. Cruciform corolla is found in
a. Pea b. China Rose c. Radish d. Sunflower
70. The edible part of ripe mango is morphologically:
a. Epicarp b. Mesocarp c. Pericarp d. Endocarp
71. Perisperm is remaining part of
a. Endosperm b. Ovule c. Nucellus d. Integument
72. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle while reaching the embryo sac is
a. Chalazogamy b. Mesogamy c. Porogamy d. Pseudogamy
73. Germ pore is an area where exine is
a. Absent b. Thick c. Thick and uniform d. Uniform
74. Disease free plants can be produced by
a. Asexual reproduction c. Meristem culture
b. Sexual reproduction d. Embryo culture
75. Cryopreservation is done at temperature:
a. –140°C b. –120°C c. –196°C d. –273°C
76. Always upright shape of pyramid is in
a. Mass pyramid b. Energy pyramid c. Number pyramid d. None of these
77. The circulation or cycling of elements in an ecosystem is
a. Geological cycling c. Biogeochemical cycling
b. Geochemical cycling d. Chemical cycling
78. Green house effect is leading to
a. Decrease in temperature c. Maintaining the temperature
b. Increase in temperature d. None of these
79. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by
a. Parasite b. Consumer c. Decomposer d. Producer
80. What is the main cause for extinction of some species in tropical forest?
a. Deforestation b. Afforestation c. Pollution d. Soil erosion
81. In a salt bridge KCl is used because
a. it is an electrolyte c. both K+ and Cl- have same ionic mobility
b. it is good conductor of electricity d. it is ionic compound
82. Which of the following generally increase in a period?
a. Electronegativity and atomic size c. Ionisation energy and electron affinity
b. Ionisation energy and atomic size d. Atomic volume and electro negativity
83. The heat of combustion of yellow P and red P are −9.91 kJ mol−1 and −8.78 kJ mol−1
respectively. The heat of transition of yellow P → red P is
a. −18.69 kJ b. + 1.13 kJ c. +18.69 kJ d. −1.13 kJ.
84. Graham’s law of diffusion gives better results at:
a. High pressure b. High temperature c. Low pressure d. At all conditions
85. The kinetic energy of electron in He will be maximum in:
+

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

a.3rd Orbit b.
2nd Orbit c.
1st Orbit d. In Orbit with n = 
86. Maximum number of electrons in an orbit is given by:
a. n2 b. 2n2 c. n2/2 d. None of these
87. Both ionic and covalent bonds are present in:
a. CH4 b. KCl c. SO2 d. NaOH
88. Which molecule is T shaped?
a. BeF2 b. BCl3 c. NH3 d. ClF3
89. Ionisation potential is lowest for:
a. Halogens c. Alkaline earth metals
b. Inert gases d. Alkali metals
90. Volume of 3% solution of sodium carbonate necessary to neutralise a litre of 0.1 N sulphuric
acid
a. 176.66 b. 156.6 c. 116.0 d. 196.1
91. 5.85 g of NaCl are dissolved in 90 g of water. The mole fraction of NaCl is:
a. 0.1 b. 0.00196 c. 0.2 d. 0.0196
92. Oxidation number of C in HNC is:
a. + 2 b. – 3 c. + 3 d. Zero
93. The calomel electrode is a:
a. Standard hydrogen electrode c. Platinum electrode
b. Reference electrode d. Mercury electrode
94. What fraction of a reactant showing first order remains after 40 minutes if t½ is 20 minutes?
1 1 1 1
a. 4 b. 2 c. 8 d. 6

95. A reaction attains equilibrium when the free energy change accompanying the reaction is:
a. Positive and large c. Negative and large
b. Zero d. Negative and small
96. Decinormal solution of CH3COOH ionised to an extent of 1.3%. pH of the solution is (log 1.3
= 0.11):
a. 2.89 b. 1.945 c. 3.40 d. 4.98
97. The conjugate base of OH¯ is:
a. O2 b. H2O c. O2– d. O¯
98. If a gas at constant temperature and pressure expands, then its:
a. Internal energy increases c. Internal energy decreases
b. Internal energy remains same d. Entropy increases & then decreases
99. Each of the following is true about white and red phosphorus except that they
a. Are both soluble in CS2 c. Consist of the same kind of atoms
b. Can be oxidized by heating in air d. Can be converted into one another
100. Which of the following statements is not correct for nitrogen?
a. Its electronegativity is very high c. It is a typical non-metal
b. d-orbitals are available for bonding d. Its molecular size is small
101. P2O5 is heated with water to give
a. Hypophosphorous acid c. Hypophosphoric acid
b. Phosphorous acid d. Orthophosphoric acid
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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

102. Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

a. Zn(ClO3)2 b. K2Cr2O7 c. (NH4)2Cr2O7 d. KClO3
103. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
a. Na2O b. SO2 c. B2O3 d. ZnO
104. KO2 (potassium super oxide) is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines because it
a. absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content c. absorbs CO2
b. eliminates moisture d. produces ozone.
105. Cupellation process is used in the manufacture of:
a. copper b. silver c. lead d. iron
106. The process associated with sodium carbonate manufacture is known as……….. process.
a. Chamber b. Haber c. Leblanc d. Castner
107. Cl2 gas is dried over
a. CaO b. NaOH c. KOH d. conc. H2SO4
108. When I2 is passed through KCl, KF and KBr solutions
a. Cl2 and Br2 are evolved c. Cl2, Br2 and F2 are evolved
b. Cl2 is evolved d. Reaction does not occur
109. Which is called stranger gas?
a. Kr b. Xe c. He d. Ne
110. Which group contains coloured ions out of
1. Cu2+ 2.Ti4+ 3. Co2+ 4. Fe2+
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 3, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 2
111. If a non-metal is added to the interstitial sites of a metal, then the metal becomes
a. softer b. less tensile c. less malleable d. more ductile
112. Transition metal with low oxidation number will act as
a. a base b. an acid c. an oxidising agent d. None of these
113. Identify Z in the following series

a. CH3CH2CN b. NCCH2–CH2CN c. BrCH2–CH2CN d. BrCH=CHCN

114. Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction?
a. 2 RX + 2 Na → R – R + 2 NaX c. RX + Mg → RMgX
b. RX + H2 → RH + HX d. RX + KOH → ROH + KX
115. Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 to form:
a. chlorobenzene b. benzylchloride c. xylene d. toluene
116. Conversion of ethyl alcohol to acetaldehyde is an example of
a. reduction c. hydrolysis
b. molecular rearrangement d. oxidation
117. The alcohol which does not give a stable compound on dehydration is
a. ethyl alcohol b. methyl alcohol c. n-Propyl alcohol d. n-Butyl alcohol
118. Which is not found in alkenes?
a. chain isomerism c. Metamerism
b. Geometrical isomerism d. Position isomerism

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

119. Inductive effect involves:

a. displacement of  - electrons c. delocalization of  -electrons
b. delocalization of -electrons d. displacement of -electrons
120. The strongest acid is:
a. CH2FCOOH b. CH2ClCOOH c. CHCl2COOH d. CHF2COOH
121. Which is formed by the addition of halogen to alkenes?
a. Vic–dihalide b. Gem–dihalide c. Propane d. Propene
122. Grignard reagent is prepared by the reaction between:
a. zinc and alkyl halide c. magnesium and alkane
b. magnesium and alkyl halide d. magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
123. Identify the product Z in the series

CH3CN ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯→ Y ⎯⎯→ Z

Na / C2 H 5OH HNO2 [O ]

a. CH3CHO b. CH3CH2CONH2 c. CH3COOH d. CH3CH2NHOH

124. Chlorine reacts with benzaldehyde to give:
a. Benzyl chloride b. Benzal chloride c. Benzoyl chloride d. Chlorobenzene
125. Commercial detergents contain mainly:
a. RONa c. ROSO3Na
b. RCOONa d. ROCH2CHORCH2OR
126. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
a. Sn – HCl b. Zn – Hg c. Pd/H2 d. Zn – HCl solution
127. Which reagent is more effective to convert but-2-enal to but-2-enol?
a. KMnO4 b. NaBH4 c. H2/Pt d. K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
128. Which aldehyde cannot be obtained by Rosenmund's reaction?
a. CH3CHO b. HCHO c. CH3CH2CHO d. All of these
129. Primary nitroalkanes on hydrolysis give:
a. RCOOH + NH2OH b. RCOOH c. NH2OH d. RCOR
130. In the context of cement concrete, what is the primary purpose of adding aggregates?
a. To decrease the setting time of concrete
b. To enhance the compressive strength and durability of concrete
c. To improve the color and texture of the finished surface
d. To increase the thermal expansion of concrete
131. If P = Q then which one of the following is not correct?
→ → → →
a. 𝑃̂ = 𝑄̂ b. | 𝑃 | = |𝑄 | c. P 𝑄̂ = Q 𝑃̂ d. 𝑃 + 𝑄 = 𝑃̂ + 𝑄̂
132. Figure shows a body of mass m moving with a uniform speed v along a circle
of radius r. The change in velocity in going from A to B is
v
a. 2v b. 0 c. 2v d.
2
133. Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in opposite direction with velocity
10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of crossing is
a. 2s b. 4s c. 2 3 s d. 4 3 s

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

134. The v – t plot of a moving object is shown in the figure. The

average velocity of the object during the first 10 seconds is
a. 0 m/s c. 5 m/s
b. 2.5 m/s d. 2 m/s
135. The horizontal range is four times the maximum height
attained by a projectile. The angle of projection is
a. 90 b. 60 c. 45 d. 30
136. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius with a speed of 150 m/s with its, wings banked
at an angle of 45 (g = 10 m/s2)
a. 22.5 km b. 11.25 km c. 5.625 km d. 16.875 km
137. A diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per second at a velocity of 400 m/sec. The
accelerating force on the rocket is
a. 20 dynes b. 20 N c. 22 dynes d. 1000 N
138. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing
water at a rate of 1 kg/sec and at a speed of 5 m/se c. The initial acceleration
of the block will be
a. 2.5 m/s2 b. 5 m/s2 c. 10 m/s2 d. None of above
139. If the temperature increases, the modulus of elasticity
a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains constant d. Becomes zero
140. In which one of the following cases will the liquid flow in a pipe be most streamlined
a. Liquid of high viscosity and high density flowing through a pipe of small radius
b. Liquid of high viscosity and low density flowing through a pipe of small radius
c. Liquid of low viscosity and low density flowing through a pipe of large radius
d. Liquid of low viscosity and high density flowing through a pipe of large radius
141. Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure
temperature up to 500°C. This is done by
a. Maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the stem of the thermometer
b. Filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
c. Filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury level
d. Filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
142. The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.24% when its temperature is raised by 40°C. The
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is .......... °C
a. 1.2 ×10−5 C−1 b. 2 × 10−5 oC−1 c. 6 × 1 0−5 oC−1 d. 18 × 10−5 oC−1
143. Heat required to convert one gram of ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C is (given L steam = 536 cal/gm)
a. 100 cal b. 0.01 kcal c. 716 cal d. 1 kcal
144. When the temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to 90°C, the percentage increase in the r.m.s.
velocity of the molecules will be
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 17.5%
145. A perfect gas contained in a cylinder is kept in vacuum. If the cylinder suddenly bursts, then
the temperature of the gas
a. Remains constant b. Becomes zero c. Increases d. Decreases
146. In an isothermal process the volume of an ideal gas is halve d. One can say that
a. Internal energy of the system decreases c. Work done by the gas is negative
b. Work done by the gas is positive d. Internal energy of the system increases
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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

147. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an image (1/n) th of the size of the object. The
distance of the object from the mirror is
a. nf b. f/n b. (n + 1)f d. (n - 1)f
148. How much water should be filled in a container 21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled
when viewed from the top of the container (given that ag = 3/4)
a. 8.0 cm b. 10.5 cm c. 12.0 cm d. None of the above
149. In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence 45, at the top
surface, what is the minimum refractive index needed for total
internal reflection at vertical face.
2 +1 1
a. c.
2 2
3
b. d. 2 +1
2
150. A double convex thin lens made of glass (refractive index  = 1.5) has both radii of curvature
of magnitude 20 cm. Incident light rays parallel to the axis of the lens will converge at a
distance L such that……….
a. L = 20 cm c. L = 40 cm
b. L = 10 cm d. L = 20 / 3 cm
151. The figure shows a double slit experiment P and Q are the slits. The
path lengths PX and QX are n and (2n-1) respectively, where n is a
whole number and  is the wavelength. Taking the central fringe as
zero, what is formed at X
a. First bright c. Second bright
b. First dark d. Second dark
152. Light of wavelength  = 5000 Å falls normally on a narrow slit. A screen placed at a distance of
1 m from the slit and perpendicular to the direction of light. The first minima of the diffraction
pattern is situated at 5 mm from the centre of central maximum. The width of the slit is
a. 0.1 mm b. 1.0 mm c. 0.5 mm d. 0.2 mm
153. A man standing on a cliff claps his hand hears its echo after 1 sec. If sound is reflected from
another mountain and velocity of sound in air is 340 m/sec. Then the distance between the man
and reflection point is
a. 680 m b. 340 m c. 85 m d. 170 m
x 
154. A plane wave is described by the equation y = 3cos  − 10t −  . The maximum velocity of
4 2
the particles of the medium due to this wave is
2
a. 30 b. c. 3/4 d. 40
3
155. Three similar wires of frequency f1, f2 and f3 are joined to make one wire. Its frequency will be
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
a. f = f1 + f 2 + f3 b. f = f1 + f 2 + f 3 c. = + + d. = + +
f f1 f 2 f 3 f f1 f2 f3

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

156. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius
1mm. The charge per cm length of the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical
surface of radius 50 cm and length 1m symmetrically encloses the wire as shown
in the figure. The total electric flux passing through the cylindrical surface is
Q 100Q 10Q 10Q
a. b. c. d.
o o ( o ) ( o )
157. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides
a. The positive charges
b. Both the positive and negative charges
c. The field between the plates
d. Around the edge of the capacitor plates
158. In a hollow spherical shell potential (V) changes with respect to distance (r) from centre

159. Two wires of the same metal have same length, but their cross-sections are in the ratio 3 : 1.
They are joined in series. The resistance of thicker wire is 10 .The total resistance of the
combination will be
a. 10  b. 20  c. 40  d. 100 
160. The number of free electrons per 100 mm of ordinary copper wire is 2 ×10 21. Average drift
speed of electrons is 0.25 mm/s. The current flowing is
a. 5 A b. 80 A c. 8 A d. 0.8 A
 dE 
161. At neutral temperature, the thermoelectric power   has the value
 dT 
a. Zero c. Maximum but positive
b. Maximum but negative d. Minimum but positive
162. In Wheatstone's bridge P = 9 , Q = 11 , R = 4  and S = 6 . How much resistance must be
put in parallel to the resistance S to balance the
bridge
a. 24  b. 44/9  c. 26.4  d. 18.7 
163. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a
uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is
o qf o q o q  o qf
a. b. c. d.
2R 2 fR 2fR 2R
164. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire
is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current
I is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

a. Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

b. Move away from the wire or towards right
c. Move towards the wire
d. Remain stationary
165. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The
induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is
a. 4.8πμV b. 0.8πμV c. 1.6πμV d. 3.2πμV
166. The voltage of an ac supply varies with time (t) I as V = 120 sin 100πt cos 100πt. The maximum
voltage and frequency respectively are
100
a. 120 volts, 100 Hz b. volts, 100 Hz c. 60 volts, 200 Hz d. 60 volts, 100 Hz
2
167. The material of permanent magnet has
a. High retentivity, low coercivity c. Low retentivity, low coercivity
b. Low retentivity, high coercivity d. High retentivity, high coercivity
168. Photon of wavelength 4400 Å is passing through vacuum. The effective mass of the photon is
a. 5  10-36 kg b. 5  10-35 kg c. zero d. 5  10-26 kg
169. The energy that should be added to an electron, to reduce its de-Broglie wavelengths from 10−10
m to 0.5×10−10 m, will be
a. Four times the initial energy c. Equal to the initial energy
b. Thrice the initial energy d. Twice the initial energy
170. The shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted from an X-ray tube depends on the
a. Current in the tube c. Nature of gas in the tube
b. Voltage applied to the tube d. Atomic number of target material
171. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 volts. Its velocity is nearly
a. 1.9  106 m/s b. 1.9  107 m/s c. 3.9  105 m/s d. 3.9  105 m/s
172. In the following reaction the value of X is 7N14 + 2He4 → X + 1H1
a. 7N17 b. 8O17 c. 8O16 d. 7N16
173. The half-life of a sample of a radioactive substance is 1 hour. If 8 × 10 10 atoms are present at t
= 0, then the number of atoms decayed in the duration t = 2 hour to t = 4hour will be
a. 2  1010 b. 1.5  1010 c. zero d. infinity
174. Which statement is correct
a. N-type germanium is negatively charged and P-type germanium is positively charged
b. Both N-type and P-type germanium are neutral
c. N-type germanium is positively charged and P-type germanium is negatively charged
d. Both N-type and P-type germanium are negatively charged

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

175. Resistance of semiconductor at 0 K is

a. Zero b. Infinite c. Large d. Small
176. Electric current is due to drift of electrons in
a. Metallic conductors b. Semi-conductors c. Both a. andb. d. None of these
177. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of
truth table it can be found that to produce a high output
(1) at R, we must have
a. X = 0, Y = 1 c. X = 1, Y = 0
b. X = 1, Y = 1 c. X = 0, Y = 0
178. Which of the following particles is a baryon?
a. Electron c. Proton
b. Neutrino d. Photon
179. Seismographs are instruments used to detect and record seismic waves. Which type of wave
causes the most noticeable motion on a seismogram?
a. P-waves (Primary waves) c. Love waves
b. S-waves (Secondary waves) d. Rayleigh waves
180. Which of the following particles does not interact with the Higgs field and therefore does not
acquire mass from it?
a. Electrons b. Quarks c. Neutrinos d. W and Z bosons
181. In a certain code, POETRY is written as QONDSQX and OVER is written as PNUDQ. How is
MORE written in that code?
a. NNLQD b. NLNSD c. LNNQD d. NLNQD
182. A man walked 20 metres towards west, turns south and walked 40 metres, turns left and
walked 40 metres and again turns left and walked 40 metres. At what distance and in which
direction is he now from the starting point?
a. 80 m south-east b. 20 m east c. 20 m north-east d. 80 m south
183. Looking at a photograph, a person said, “ I have no brother or sister, but that man’s father is
my father’s son”. At whose photograph was the person looking?
a. His son’s b. His nephew’s c. His Father’s d. His own
184. 1. Centi 2. Giga 3. Kilo 4. Hecta 5. Mega
a. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 c. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1 d. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
185. In a row of 40 boys facing the North, Amar is 6 to the right of Sudeep and Sudeep is 11 th to
th

the left of Vinod. If Amar is 28 th from the right end of the row, what is the position of Vinod
from the left end of the row?
a. 16 b. 18 c. 20 d. 23
186. Four girls and four boys are sitting in square facing the center. They are sitting one each at the
corners and one each at the mid-points of the sides of the square. Madhu is sitting diagonally
opposite to Usha who is Geeta’s right. Rishav is next to Geeta and opposite to Gopi who is on
Bittu’s left. Suma is not on Madhu’s right, but opposite to Prem. Who is opposite to Bittu?
a. Geeta b. Prem c. Suma d. Madhu
187. Incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3:2& their expenditures are in the ratio 5:3. If each saves Rs
4000, Find the incomes of A.
a. 16000 b. 24000 c. 20000 d. 12000
188. The average of 5 numbers is 27. If one number is removed, the average becomes 25. What is
that removed number?

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 52
189. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a false weight of 800
grams, for each kilogram. Find his gain percentage.
𝟐
a. 25% b. 20% c. 𝟏𝟔 % d. 12.5%
𝟑
190. A contractor employed 60 workers to finish a piece of work in 90 days. After 60 days, it was
found that 3/4 work had already been finished. How many workers should be withdrawn so
as to finish the work in stipulated time?
a. 18 b. 20 c. 22 d. 25
191. Kishor was born on 10 January 1996 on Wednesday. In which year will he celebrate his
birthday on Thursday?
a. 1997 b. 2001 c. 2002 d. 2003
192. Statements: If it is easy to become an engineer, I don’t want to be an engineer.
Assumptions: I) An individual aspires to be professional. II) One desires to achieve a thing
which is hard earned.
a. If only assumption I is implicit c. If either I or II is implicit
b. If only assumption II is implicit d. If both I and II are implicit
193. The maximum number of students among whom 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be distributed
in such a way that each student gets the same number of pens and same number of pencils is
a. 91 b. 910 c. 1001 d. 1911
194. Four explorers in the jungle have to cross a rope bridge at midnight. Unfortunately, the bridge is
Only strong enough to support two people at a time. Also, because deep in the jungle at midnight
it is pitch dark, the explorers require a lantern to guide them, otherwise there is the distinct
possibility they would lose their footing and fall to their deaths in the ravine below. However,
between them they only have one lantern. Young Tependra can cross the bridge in 5 minutes, his
sister Sarala can cross the bridge in 7 minutes and their father Chandra can cross in 11 minutes, but
old grandfather Bishnu can only hobble across in 20 minutes. How quickly is it possible for all four
explorers to reach the other side?
a. 46 mins b. 43 mins c. 42 mins d. 39 mins
195. 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?
a. 375 b. 390 c. 420 d. 435
196. How many rectangles in the figure below?

a. 25 b. 33 c. 34 d. 35
197. Each line and symbol that appears in the four outer circles is transferred to the centre circle
according to given rules. Which of the circles A, B, C or D shown below, should appear at the
centre of the diagram?
If a line or symbol occurs in the outer circles:
once: it is transferred
twice: it is possibly transferred
3 times: it is transferred

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NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Model- XIV, (2081-03-29)

4 times: it is not transferred.

198. Find the missing section from the options below

199. Which is the odd one out?

200. Which of the alternative squares has most in common with the square (P) ?

Result will be published on Sunday Evening Log on to www.name.edu.np or

www.facebook.com/nameinstitute
Best of Luck

15