Staphylococcus SP

Zenith
MCQS of
Staphylococcus
Zenith
015424901,
Assist. Prof. Rajeshwar Ray 9808222095
MCQS of Staphylococcus
MCQs related to Staphylococcus
species
MCQs on Staphylococcus sp.
1. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is coagulase-positive?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Staphylococcus hominis
Answer: C) Staphylococcus aureus
2. What is the primary virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that allows it to evade the
host immune system?
A) Protein A B) Coagulase
C) Hemolysin D) Enterotoxin
Answer: A) Protein A
3. Which Staphylococcus species is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections in
sexually active young women?
A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Staphylococcus hominis
Answer: C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
4. What characteristic distinguishes Staphylococcus from Streptococcus species in laboratory
diagnosis?
A) Gram stain reaction B) Catalase test
C) Hemolysis pattern D) Coagulase test
Answer: B) Catalase test
5. Which toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for toxic shock syndrome?
A) Exfoliative toxin B) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)
C) Enterotoxin D) Alpha toxin
Answer: B) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)
6. Which of the following is the most effective antibiotic for treating methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections?
A) Penicillin B) Methicillin
C) Vancomycin D) Amoxicillin
Answer: C) Vancomycin
7. What is the typical colony morphology of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar?
A) Beta-hemolytic, golden-yellow colonies
B) Alpha-hemolytic, greenish colonies
C) Non-hemolytic, white colonies
D) Non-hemolytic, translucent colonies
Answer: A) Beta-hemolytic, golden-yellow colonies
8. Staphylococcus epidermidis is most commonly associated with infections related to which of
the following?
A) Food poisoning B) Skin abscesses
C) Indwelling medical devices D) Endocarditis in IV drug users
Answer: C) Indwelling medical devices
9. Which enzyme, produced by Staphylococcus aureus, converts fibrinogen to fibrin, helping
the bacteria to evade phagocytosis?
A) Catalase B) Coagulase
C) Hyaluronidase D) Staphylokinase
Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Answer: B) Coagulase
10. Which of the following tests would be used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from
other coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species?
A) Catalase test B) Mannitol fermentation test
C) Novobiocin sensitivity test D) Optochin sensitivity test
Answer: B) Mannitol fermentation test
11. Which of the following is a common site of colonization for Staphylococcus aureus in
humans?
A) Urinary tract B) Skin
C) Nasal passages D) Gastrointestinal tract
Answer: C) Nasal passages
12. What is the mechanism of resistance in methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)?
A) Production of beta-lactamase
B) Alteration of the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)
C) Efflux pumps
D) Alteration of ribosomal binding sites
Answer: B) Alteration of the penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)
13. Which Staphylococcus species is a common cause of neonatal sepsis and is also coagulase-
negative?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Staphylococcus lugdunensis
Answer: A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
14. What is the typical shape and arrangement of Staphylococcus species under the
microscope?
A) Bacilli in chains B) Cocci in clusters
C) Cocci in pairs D) Bacilli in pairs
Answer: B) Cocci in clusters
15. Which Staphylococcus species is known for its role in causing prosthetic joint infections?
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Staphylococcus haemolyticus
Answer: B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
16. Which of the following toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing
scalded skin syndrome?
A) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) B) Exfoliative toxin
Answer: B) Exfoliative toxin
17. Which test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus saprophyticus from other coagulase-
negative Staphylococci?
A) Catalase test B) Coagulase test
C) Novobiocin sensitivity test D) Optochin sensitivity test
Answer: C) Novobiocin sensitivity test
18. Which Staphylococcus species is the most common cause of infective endocarditis in
intravenous drug users?
Answer: B) Staphylococcus aureus
19. Which of the following enzymes produced by Staphylococcus aureus helps the bacteria
spread through tissues by breaking down connective tissue?
A) Coagulase B) Hyaluronidase

C) Staphylokinase D) Catalase
Answer: B) Hyaluronidase
20. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to form biofilms on medical devices, leading to
persistent infections?
21. What is the typical gram stain result for Staphylococcus species?
A) Gram-positive cocci in chains B) Gram-negative cocci in clusters
C) Gram-positive cocci in clusters D) Gram-negative bacilli
Answer: C) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
22. Which of the following is NOT a common disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Impetigo B) Pharyngitis
C) Osteomyelitis D) Food poisoning
Answer: B) Pharyngitis
23. Which Staphylococcus species is commonly isolated from the skin and mucous membranes
but is usually not pathogenic?
Answer: A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
24. Which of the following factors contributes to the virulence of Staphylococcus aureus by
lysing red blood cells?
A) Alpha toxin B) Coagulase
C) Exfoliative toxin D) Enterotoxin
Answer: A) Alpha toxin
25. Which test would you perform to confirm the presence of Staphylococcus aureus in a
clinical sample?
C) Gram stain D) Novobiocin sensitivity test
Answer: B) Coagulase test
26. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) on a genetic level?
A) Presence of mecA gene B) Resistance to vancomycin
C) Absence of catalase enzyme D) Sensitivity to penicillin
Answer: A) Presence of mecA gene
27. Which of the following infections is most commonly associated with Staphylococcus
epidermidis?
A) Skin abscesses B) Endocarditis
C) Catheter-associated infections D) Pneumonia
Answer: C) Catheter-associated infections
28. What role does the enzyme "staphylokinase" play in the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus
aureus?
A) It lyses red blood cells
B) It dissolves fibrin clots to spread infection
C) It breaks down connective tissue
D) It evades the host immune system by binding IgG
Answer: B) It dissolves fibrin clots to spread infection
29. Which Staphylococcus species is resistant to novobiocin and is commonly associated with
urinary tract infections?

30. Which of the following is a major concern in the treatment of Staphylococcus aureus
infections?
A) High mutation rate leading to rapid antibiotic resistance
B) Ability to form biofilms that are resistant to antibiotics
C) Lack of available antibiotics to treat infections
D) High rate of spontaneous clearance by the immune system
Answer: B) Ability to form biofilms that are resistant to antibiotics
31. Which of the following is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia due to
Staphylococcus species?
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
Answer: C) Staphylococcus aureus
32. Which enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus can break down hydrogen peroxide,
protecting the bacteria from oxidative damage?
C) Hyaluronidase D) Staphylokinase
Answer: A) Catalase
33. What is the significance of the "mecA" gene in Staphylococcus aureus?
A) It encodes a protein that degrades antibiotics
B) It confers resistance to methicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics
C) It causes hemolysis of red blood cells
D) It encodes a toxin that leads to food poisoning
Answer: B) It confers resistance to methicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics
34. Which Staphylococcus species is a normal inhabitant of the skin but can cause opportunistic
infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals?
35. Which of the following methods is commonly used to confirm MRSA (methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus) in a clinical laboratory?
A) Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test
B) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for mecA gene
C) Coagulase test
D) Gram staining
Answer: B) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for mecA gene
36. Which of the following conditions is a hallmark of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
(SSSS)?
A) Bullous impetigo B) Necrotizing fasciitis
C) Epidermal desquamation D) Cellulitis
Answer: C) Epidermal desquamation
37. Which of the following is the primary route of transmission for Staphylococcus aureus in a
healthcare setting?
A) Airborne droplets
B) Direct contact with contaminated hands or surfaces
C) Ingestion of contaminated food
D) Vector-borne transmission
Answer: B) Direct contact with contaminated hands or surfaces
38. What is the most common clinical manifestation of a Staphylococcus aureus skin infection?

A) Cellulitis B) Furuncles (boils)
C) Necrotizing fasciitis D) Erysipelas
Answer: B) Furuncles (boils)
39. Which of the following antibiotics is typically ineffective against methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A) Vancomycin B) Linezolid
C) Methicillin D) Daptomycin
Answer: C) Methicillin
40. Which factor is most important in the development of biofilms by Staphylococcus
epidermidis on medical devices?
A) Production of exotoxins
B) Production of a polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA)
C) Resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics
D) Expression of protein A
Answer: B) Production of a polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA)
41. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is novobiocin-sensitive and is often
implicated in nosocomial infections?
C) Staphylococcus hominis D) Staphylococcus aureus
42. Which of the following is a key feature of Staphylococcus aureus that contributes to its
ability to cause food poisoning?
A) Production of enterotoxins B) Production of hyaluronidase
C) Formation of biofilms D) Resistance to desiccation
Answer: A) Production of enterotoxins
43. Which laboratory test is most useful for distinguishing Staphylococcus aureus from other
Staphylococcus species?
C) Gram stain D) Oxidase test
44. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus aureus in healthcare
settings?
A) Regular handwashing with soap and water
B) Wearing masks
C) Isolating infected patients in negative pressure rooms
D) Using ultraviolet light sterilization
Answer: A) Regular handwashing with soap and water
45. Which of the following conditions is NOT typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Toxic shock syndrome B) Osteomyelitis
C) Scarlet fever D) Endocarditis
Answer: C) Scarlet fever
46. Which type of hemolysis is exhibited by Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar?
A) Alpha hemolysis B) Beta hemolysis
C) Gamma hemolysis D) No hemolysis
Answer: B) Beta hemolysis
47. What is the major risk factor for acquiring a Staphylococcus epidermidis infection?
A) Recent travel
B) Use of indwelling medical devices
D) Exposure to contaminated water

Answer: B) Use of indwelling medical devices
48. Which of the following toxins is most commonly associated with Staphylococcus aureus-
induced food poisoning?
A) Alpha toxin B) Enterotoxin
C) Exfoliative toxin D) Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)
Answer: B) Enterotoxin
49. What is the primary mode of action of vancomycin against Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Inhibition of protein synthesis
B) Disruption of the bacterial cell wall synthesis
C) Interference with DNA replication
D) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
Answer: B) Disruption of the bacterial cell wall synthesis
50. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to be resistant to novobiocin, and what is a
typical clinical association?
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus, associated with urinary tract infections
B) Staphylococcus aureus, associated with skin infections
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis, associated with device-related infections
D) Staphylococcus hominis, associated with endocarditis
Answer: A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus, associated with urinary tract infections
51. Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus epidermidis from
Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
C) Novobiocin sensitivity test D) Gram stain
Answer: C) Novobiocin sensitivity test
52. Which Staphylococcus species is a major cause of hospital-acquired infections, particularly
in patients with indwelling catheters or implants?
53. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of toxic shock syndrome caused by
Staphylococcus aureus?
A) High fever, rash, and hypotension B) Joint pain and swelling
C) Severe diarrhea and vomiting D) Cough and shortness of breath
Answer: A) High fever, rash, and hypotension
54. Which of the following is NOT a typical manifestation of a Staphylococcus aureus infection?
A) Osteomyelitis B) Endocarditis
C) Scalded skin syndrome D) Tuberculosis
Answer: D) Tuberculosis
55. Which test is used to determine the ability of Staphylococcus aureus to clot plasma?
C) Hemolysis test D) Oxidase test
56. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is most commonly associated with which type of infection?
A) Respiratory infections B) Urinary tract infections
C) Skin infections D) Gastrointestinal infections
Answer: B) Urinary tract infections
57. Which of the following toxins is most commonly associated with Staphylococcus aureus-
mediated toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?
A) Exfoliative toxin B) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)
C) Enterotoxin B D) Alpha toxin

Answer: B) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)
58. What is the primary method of transmission for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) in healthcare settings?
A) Airborne transmission
B) Contact with contaminated surfaces or hands
C) Waterborne transmission
D) Foodborne transmission
Answer: B) Contact with contaminated surfaces or hands
59. Which of the following virulence factors allows Staphylococcus aureus to evade the immune
system by binding to the Fc region of antibodies?
A) Coagulase B) Protein A
C) Exfoliative toxin D) Hyaluronidase
Answer: B) Protein A
60. Which Staphylococcus species is associated with the formation of biofilms on medical
devices, leading to persistent infections?
61. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to cause infections in neonates, particularly in
neonatal intensive care units (NICUs)?
62. Which of the following best describes the appearance of Staphylococcus aureus on Mannitol
Salt Agar (MSA)?
A) Red colonies with no color change in the medium
B) Yellow colonies with yellowing of the medium
C) White colonies with greenish discoloration of the medium
D) Blue colonies with blue color in the medium
Answer: B) Yellow colonies with yellowing of the medium
63. What is the role of the mecA gene in Staphylococcus aureus?
A) It encodes an enterotoxin
B) It confers resistance to methicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics
C) It produces a capsule that enhances virulence
D) It encodes a protein that lyses red blood cells
Answer: B) It confers resistance to methicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics
64. Which of the following is the recommended first-line treatment for methicillin-sensitive
Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) infections?
A) Vancomycin B) Penicillin
C) Methicillin D) Nafcillin or oxacillin
Answer: D) Nafcillin or oxacillin
65. Which of the following conditions is characterized by widespread exfoliation of the skin and
is caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Toxic shock syndrome B) Impetigo
C) Scalded skin syndrome D) Cellulitis
Answer: C) Scalded skin syndrome
66. What is the typical Gram stain appearance of Staphylococcus species?
A) Gram-positive cocci in clusters B) Gram-negative bacilli in pairs
C) Gram-negative cocci in chains D) Gram-positive bacilli in clusters
Answer: A) Gram-positive cocci in clusters

67. Which of the following is a common cause of foodborne illness due to Staphylococcus
aureus?
A) Production of staphylococcal enterotoxins
B) Formation of biofilms in the gut
C) Direct invasion of the intestinal mucosa
D) Production of toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1)
Answer: A) Production of staphylococcal enterotoxins
68. Which laboratory test is most useful in confirming the diagnosis of methicillin-resistant
A) Coagulase test B) Catalase test
C) Oxacillin disk diffusion test D) Gram staining
Answer: C) Oxacillin disk diffusion test
69. Which of the following is the primary reason Staphylococcus aureus is considered a
significant pathogen in both community-acquired and healthcare-associated infections?
A) Its ability to form endospores
B) Its high rate of antibiotic resistance
C) Its slow growth rate
D) Its inability to produce toxins
Answer: B) Its high rate of antibiotic resistance
70. Which of the following is the most common clinical presentation of a Staphylococcus aureus
skin infection?
A) Cellulitis B) Furuncles (boils)
C) Erysipelas D) Necrotizing fasciitis
Answer: B) Furuncles (boils)
71. Which of the following is the best method for preventing the spread of MRSA in a healthcare
setting?
A) Regular use of antibiotics
B) Frequent handwashing and use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers
C) Isolation of all patients
D) Discontinuing the use of medical devices
Answer: B) Frequent handwashing and use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers
72. What is the characteristic feature of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar?
A) Beta hemolysis (complete hemolysis)
B) Alpha hemolysis (partial hemolysis)
C) Gamma hemolysis (no hemolysis)
D) Double zone of hemolysis
Answer: A) Beta hemolysis (complete hemolysis)
73. Which of the following virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for clotting
plasma?
C) Hyaluronidase D) Protein A
74. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Staphylococcus epidermidis?
A) Prosthetic valve endocarditis
B) Catheter-associated urinary tract infections
C) Skin abscesses
D) Infections of indwelling medical devices
Answer: C) Skin abscesses
75. Which antibiotic is the treatment of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) infections?

A) Penicillin B) Vancomycin
C) Methicillin D) Amoxicillin
Answer: B) Vancomycin
76. What is the typical colony appearance of Staphylococcus aureus on Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)?
A) Pink colonies with no color change in the medium
C) White colonies with no change in the medium
D) Red colonies with red color in the medium
77. Which of the following is the most common cause of hospital-acquired bacteremia related to
central venous catheters?
C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Staphylococcus haemolyticus
78. Which of the following is a major virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that allows it to
evade phagocytosis?
A) Hyaluronidase B) Coagulase
C) Protein A D) Staphylokinase
Answer: C) Protein A
79. What is the most common site of colonization for Staphylococcus aureus in humans?
A) Nasal passages B) Skin
C) Intestinal tract D) Oral cavity
Answer: A) Nasal passages
80. Which Staphylococcus species is most frequently associated with infections in patients with
prosthetic heart valves?
81. Which of the following is a common characteristic of both Staphylococcus aureus and
Staphylococcus epidermidis?
A) Coagulase production B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
C) Beta hemolysis on blood agar D) Sensitivity to novobiocin
Answer: B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
82. Which Staphylococcus species is a leading cause of urinary tract infections in sexually active
young women?
83. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Tuberculosis B) Strep throat
C) Toxic shock syndrome D) Common cold
Answer: C) Toxic shock syndrome
84. What is the primary mode of resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics in methicillin-resistant
B) Alteration of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)
C) Efflux pumps
D) Increased cell membrane permeability
Answer: B) Alteration of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)

85. Which of the following tests is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other
coagulase-negative staphylococci?
A) Gram stain B) Catalase test
C) Coagulase test D) Novobiocin sensitivity test
Answer: C) Coagulase test
86. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to be isolated from the urinary tract in a young
woman presenting with a UTI?
A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis D) Staphylococcus hominis
Answer: B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
87. Which Staphylococcus species is least likely to cause infections in humans?
Answer: D) Staphylococcus hominis
88. Which of the following virulence factors is responsible for the hemolytic activity of
Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar?
A) Enterotoxins B) Alpha toxin
C) Exfoliative toxin D) Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)
Answer: B) Alpha toxin
89. Which Staphylococcus species is novobiocin-resistant and commonly associated with urinary
tract infections?
90. Which of the following enzymes produced by Staphylococcus aureus breaks down hyaluronic
acid, aiding in the spread of infection?
A) Coagulase B) Hyaluronidase
C) Catalase D) Staphylokinase
Answer: B) Hyaluronidase
91. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to be involved in infections related to indwelling
medical devices such as catheters and prosthetic joints?
Answer: C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
92. Which of the following is a key feature of toxic shock syndrome caused by Staphylococcus
aureus?
A) Erythema migrans B) Exfoliation of the skin
C) High fever and rash D) Painless ulceration
Answer: C) High fever and rash
93. Which of the following is the most important factor in the development of biofilms by
Staphylococcus epidermidis?
A) Production of exotoxins
B) Production of a polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA)
C) Resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics
D) Production of coagulase
Answer: B) Production of a polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA)
94. Which of the following is the primary method of transmission for Staphylococcus aureus in the
community?
A) Airborne droplets
B) Direct contact with contaminated surfaces or skin

D) Vector-borne transmission
Answer: B) Direct contact with contaminated surfaces or skin
95. Which of the following infections is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus in
neonates?
A) Meningitis B) Osteomyelitis
C) Scalded skin syndrome D) Endocarditis
96. Which of the following is a key characteristic of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)?
A) Sensitivity to penicillin
B) Resistance to all beta-lactam antibiotics
C) Inability to produce coagulase
D) Lack of hemolytic activity on blood agar
Answer: B) Resistance to all beta-lactam antibiotics
97. Which of the following is a common source of Staphylococcus aureus in food poisoning
outbreaks?
A) Dairy products and cream-filled pastries
B) Raw vegetables
C) Undercooked poultry
D) Contaminated water
Answer: A) Dairy products and cream-filled pastries
98. What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin, a common treatment for MRSA?
A) Inhibition of protein synthesis
B) Disruption of cell membrane integrity
C) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
D) Interference with DNA replication
Answer: C) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
99. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to cause an infection in a patient with a urinary
catheter?
100. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of a Staphylococcus aureus infection if left
untreated? –
A) Resolution without complications
B) Persistent infection leading to sepsis
C) Chronic infection with no systemic effects
D) Spontaneous resolution without treatment
Answer:B) Persistent infection leading to sepsis
101. Which enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for breaking down fibrin
clots, allowing the bacteria to spread through tissues?
A) Coagulase B) Staphylokinase C) Catalase D) Hyaluronidase
Answer:B) Staphylokinase
102. Which Staphylococcus species is known for its resistance to novobiocin and is a common
cause of urinary tract infections?

103. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the production of exfoliative toxins by
Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread skin peeling?
A) Toxic shock syndrome B) Impetigo
C) Scalded skin syndrome D) Cellulitis
104. What is the primary structural component of the Staphylococcus aureus cell wall that
triggers an immune response in the host?
A) Teichoic acid B) Peptidoglycan
C) Lipopolysaccharide D) Phospholipids
Answer:B) Peptidoglycan
105. Which test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus (coagulase-positive) from
coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS)?
A) Oxidase test B) Catalase test
C) Coagulase test D) Urease test
Answer: C) Coagulase test
106. Which of the following factors allows Staphylococcus aureus to survive on dry surfaces for
extended periods?
A) Formation of endospores B) Production of a thick capsule
C) Ability to form biofilms D) Resistance to desiccation
Answer: D) Resistance to desiccation
107. What type of hemolysis is typically produced by Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar
plates?
A) Alpha hemolysis (partial) B) Beta hemolysis (complete)
C) Gamma hemolysis (none) D) Double-zone hemolysis
Answer: B) Beta hemolysis (complete)
108. Which Staphylococcus species is most commonly associated with endocarditis in patients
with prosthetic heart valves?
109. Which of the following is the major exotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus that leads
to food poisoning?
A) Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1) B) Exfoliative toxin
Answer: C) Enterotoxin
110. Which Staphylococcus species is least likely to be associated with human infections?
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Staphylococcus capitis
Answer: D) Staphylococcus capitis
111. Which enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus helps in the degradation of host
tissue by breaking down hyaluronic acid?
A) Coagulase B) Catalase C) Hyaluronidase D) Lipase
Answer:C) Hyaluronidase
112. What is the typical Gram stain appearance of Staphylococcus species?
A) Gram-positive cocci in clusters B) Gram-negative bacilli in pairs
C) Gram-positive bacilli in chains D) Gram-negative cocci in clusters
Answer:A) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
113. Which of the following is a common site of colonization for Staphylococcus aureus in
healthy individuals?
A) Oral cavity B) Nasal passages

C) Intestinal tract D) Hair follicles
Answer:B) Nasal passages
114. Which Staphylococcus species is commonly found on the skin and is typically non-
pathogenic unless introduced into the body through a wound or medical device?
115. What is the primary method of resistance in methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA)?
B) Alteration of the penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)
C) Efflux pump mechanisms
D) Mutation in DNA gyrase
Answer: B) Alteration of the penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a)
116. Which of the following is the most important virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus in
causing toxic shock syndrome?
A) Enterotoxins B) Alpha toxin
C) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) D) Coagulase
Answer:C) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)
117. Which of the following describes the appearance of Staphylococcus aureus colonies on
mannitol salt agar (MSA)?
A) Pink colonies with no color change in the medium
C) White colonies with no change in the medium
D) Red colonies with no change in the medium
118. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Staphylococcus epidermidis infections?
A) Resistance to novobiocin B) Beta-hemolysis on blood agar
C) Biofilm formation on medical devices D) Production of toxic shock syndrome toxin
Answer:C) Biofilm formation on medical devices
119. What is the primary reservoir for Staphylococcus aureus in the human body?
A) Skin B) Nasal passages
C) Gastrointestinal tract D) Oral cavity
Answer: B) Nasal passages
120. Which of the following antibiotics is typically ineffective against methicillin-resistant
A) Vancomycin B) Linezolid C) Penicillin D) Daptomycin
Answer: C) Penicillin
121. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is most likely to be involved in infections
related to prosthetic devices?
122. What is the typical treatment for a patient with a Staphylococcus aureus skin infection?
A) Penicillin B) Nafcillin or oxacillin
C) Vancomycin D) Tetracycline
Answer: B) Nafcillin or oxacillin
123. Which of the following toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus is associated with
staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)?
A) Exfoliative toxins B) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1)

C) Enterotoxins D) Alpha toxin
Answer: A) Exfoliative toxins
124. Which laboratory test is used to confirm the diagnosis of MRSA?
A) Gram stain B) Coagulase test
C) Oxacillin disk diffusion test D) Catalase test
Answer: C) Oxacillin disk diffusion test

125. Which Staphylococcus species is novobiocin-resistant and is often implicated in urinary
tract infections, especially in young women?
126. Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other coagulase-negative
staphylococci (CoNS)?
C) Novobiocin sensitivity test D) Mannitol fermentation
127. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus
aureus in hospitals?
A) Use of antibiotics in all patients
B) Isolation of patients with MRSA
C) Regular hand hygiene and disinfection of surfaces
D) Wearing of masks by all hospital staff
Answer: C) Regular hand hygiene and disinfection of surfaces
128. Which Staphylococcus species is most commonly associated with foodborne illness?
Answer: A) Staphylococcus aureus
129. Which of the following describes the appearance of Staphylococcus aureus under a
microscope after a Gram stain?
A) Gram-negative cocci in chains B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
C) Gram-negative rods in chains D) Gram-positive bacilli in pairs
Answer:B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
130. Which of the following antibiotics is the first-line treatment for methicillin-sensitive
Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)?
A) Penicillin B) Vancomycin C) Nafcillin D) Linezolid
Answer: C) Nafcillin
131. Which enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus allows it to break down hydrogen
peroxide and evade the host immune response?
A) Catalase B) Coagulase C) Hyaluronidase D) Staphylokinase
Answer:A) Catalase
132. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of toxic shock syndrome caused by
Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Sudden onset of high fever B) Chronic cough
C) Painless jaundice D) Gradual weight loss
Answer:A) Sudden onset of high fever
133. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to cause bloodstream infections in patients with
central venous catheters?
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis D) Staphylococcus lugdunensis

Answer:C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
134. Which toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for the symptoms of food
poisoning?
A) Exfoliative toxin B) Enterotoxin
C) Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1) D) Alpha toxin
Answer: B) Enterotoxin
135. Which of the following is the primary mode of transmission for community-acquired
Staphylococcus aureus infections?
A) Inhalation of respiratory droplets B) Direct skin-to-skin contact
C) Ingestion of contaminated food D) Vector-borne transmission
Answer: B) Direct skin-to-skin contact
136. Which Staphylococcus species is most commonly isolated in cases of prosthetic valve
endocarditis?
137. Which enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus aids in the formation of a fibrin clot
around the bacteria, helping it evade phagocytosis?
A) Catalase B) Coagulase C) Hyaluronidase D) Staphylokinase
138. Which of the following is a significant risk factor for Staphylococcus aureus nasal
colonization?
A) Diabetes mellitus B) Frequent handwashing
C) Vegan diet D) Daily exercise
Answer: A) Diabetes mellitus
139. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to cause urinary tract infections in
young, sexually active women?
140. Which Staphylococcus species is typically involved in nosocomial (hospital-acquired)
infections, particularly those associated with indwelling medical devices?
141. Which of the following is a hallmark of Staphylococcus aureus toxic shock syndrome?
A) Desquamation of the skin B) Persistent cough
C) Hepatomegaly D) Chronic fatigue
Answer: A) Desquamation of the skin
142. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of Staphylococcus aureus colonies on

mannitol salt agar (MSA)?
A) Red colonies with no color change in the medium
C) Pink colonies with pink medium
D) White colonies with no color change
143. What is the role of Protein A in the virulence of Staphylococcus aureus?
A) It promotes biofilm formation
B) It binds to the Fc region of antibodies, preventing opsonization

C) It acts as a superantigen
D) It lyses red blood cells
Answer: B) It binds to the Fc region of antibodies, preventing opsonization
144. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to be resistant to novobiocin?
145. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of Staphylococcus aureus food
poisoning?
A) Watery diarrhea B) Fever and chills
C) Vomiting and abdominal cramps D) Sore throat
Answer: C) Vomiting and abdominal cramps
146. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with a Staphylococcus aureus
bloodstream infection?
A) Meningitis B) Pneumonia C) Septic arthritis D) Endocarditis
Answer: D) Endocarditis
147. Which Staphylococcus species is most likely to be involved in the formation of biofilms on
prosthetic devices?
148. Which of the following is the primary immune response to a Staphylococcus aureus
infection?
A) Activation of B cells and antibody production
B) Production of interferon-gamma by T cells
C) Phagocytosis by neutrophils
D) Complement activation
Answer: C) Phagocytosis by neutrophils
149. Which of the following is a common treatment for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) infections?
A) Amoxicillin B) Vancomycin
C) Ceftriaxone D) Ciprofloxacin
\Answer: B) Vancomycin
150. Which toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is associated with the pathogenesis of
scalded skin syndrome?
A) Alpha toxin - B) Exfoliative toxin
C) Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1) D) Enterotoxin
Answer: B) Exfoliative toxin

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Zenith

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Answer: C) Oxacillin disk diffusion test

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

142. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of Staphylococcus aureus colonies on

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

Zenith study Center License and Loksewa 015424901, 9808222095

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