NEET Level Test - 13- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Oct 8527521718

Physics - Section A 4 A particle moves with a constant speed u traversing the

diameter of a circle; a second particle moves with a constant
In the following diagram, Jupiter revolves around the speed v along a chord which makes an angle θ with the
1
diameter – once it reaches the end of this chord, it moves onto
Sun. If the gravity of the Sun were somehow cut off when the next chord that takes it to the other end B, of the diameter.
Jupiter was at point P , what path would Jupiter take? v
Both particles take the same time from A to B. Then, =
u

1. A
2. B 1. cos θ
3. C 2. sin θ
4. D 3. cos θ + sin θ
1
Consider a fixed wedge (ABC) which has a coefficient 4.
2 cos θ + sin θ
of friction μ on all its surfaces. A particle of mass m is slowly
dragged along AB and then along BC : i.e., from A to C. The 5 Buses ply between A& B, which are 100 km apart, from
work done are WAB , WBC . The same particle is now dragged 6 AM till 6 PM. Those that ply from A towards B start from
from A to C along AC (horizontal): the friction coefficient A at 6 AM, and thereafter, once every 30 min. On the other
being μ. The work done is WAC . Then: hand, those that ply from B towards A start from B at 6 AM,
and thereafter, once every hour. The journey takes 2.5 hr, with
no stops in between. A passenger boards the 7 AM bus from A
to B and then takes the next bus back to A. His average speed
during the journey is:

1. 40 km/h
2. 36.4 km/h
1. WAB + WBC = WAC 3. 33 km/h
2. WAB + WBC > WAC 4. 25 km/h
3. WAB = WAC + WBC
4. WAB + WBC + WAC = 0 6 The potential energy of a particle at (x, y) is given by:
U(x, y) = 3x − 4y (joule).
3 Given below are two statements: All quantities are in SI. The force acting on the particle is:
All dimensionless quantities must be 1. 3^i − 4^j
Statement I:
constants. 2. −3^i + 4^j
1 1
Statement II:
Two quantities having the same dimensions 3. ^i − ^j
must be proportional to each other. 3 4
1^ 1^
4. − i + j
3 4
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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7 A particle is moving along the x-axis with its position 11 A gravitational field is present in a region, and a mass is
(x) varying with time (t) as x = αt4 + βt2 + γt + δ. The shifted from A to B through different paths as shown. If W1 ,
ratio of its initial velocity to its initial acceleration is: W2 and W3 represent the work done by the gravitational force
1. 2α : δ along their respective paths, then:
2. γ : 2δ
3. 4α : β
4. γ : 2β

8 A projectile of mass m is thrown with a velocity v and at

an angle θ with the horizontal. The force acting on the
projectile during its total journey will be:
1. W1 = W2 = W3 2. W1 > W2 > W3
1. zero
2. mg 3. W1 > W3 > W2 4. W1 < W2 < W3
3. mg sin θ
4. mg cos θ 12 A projectile, moving with an initial velocity u, appears to
move along a parabolic path. The motion of this projectile is
9 A large truck, traveling due south with speed v, collides observed from a car moving at a constant speed v, making an
with a small car traveling due north with the same speed v. angle ϕ with the horizontal: it is observed that the projectile
After the collision, the car moves due east, with the same moves along a straight line. Then:
speed it had prior to the collision. What can you conclude
about the final velocity of the truck?
1. It points southwest.
2. It points southeast.
3. It points south.
4. It points west.

10 The bob of a simple pendulum is given a transverse

speed u = √4gL, as shown in the figure. Find the speed of
2L 1. v sin ϕ = u sin θ
the bob when it reaches a height of above the point of
3 2. v cos ϕ = u cos θ
suspension O. 3. v tan ϕ = u tan θ
4. v cot ϕ = u cot θ

13 A horse pulls with a horizontal force F on a wagon full of

belongings (mass M ). The horse and wagon are traveling at a
constant speed v on level ground. How much work is done by
2
the horse on the wagon in time Δt? Take g = 10 ms , if
required.
1. −F vΔt
2. zero
3. F vΔt
4. There is not enough information to answer this question.
2gL
√ √
gL
1. 2.
3 3
4gL
3. √ 4. √gL
3

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14 Two particles, A & B, move along the x-axis (as shown 15 A cyclist speeding with uniform velocity on a level road
in the figure) with their initial velocities uA , uB and their takes a sharp circular turn of radius 4 m without reducing the
accelerations aA , aB (constant accelerations). Their relative speed. The coefficient of static friction between the tyres and
the road is 0.4. What is the maximum speed at which the
separation s is measured from A towards B, with the initial
cyclist can move without slipping? (take g = 10 ms )
−2
condition as depicted in the figure. Match the conditions
mentioned in column I with the corresponding correct graph 1. 16 ms
−1
of s, in column II. −1
2. 4 ms
−1
3. 2 ms
−1
4. 8 ms

16 The pitch of an error-free screw gauge is 1 mm, and there

are 100 divisions on the circular scale. While measuring the
Column I Column II
diameter of a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm, and 63rd
division on the circular scale coincides with the reference line.
The diameter of the wire is:
1. 1.63 cm
2. 0.163 cm
(A) aA = aB ≠ 0 (I)
3. 0.163 m
4. 1.63 m

17 A particle is executing uniform circular motion with

velocity v→ and acceleration a→. Which of the following is true?
1. v→ is a constant; a
→ is not a constant.
2. v→ is not a constant; a
→ is not a constant.
3. v→ is a constant; a
→ is a constant.
(B) aA > aB , uA < uB (II)
4. v is not a constant; a
→ → is a constant.

18 A block of mass 10 kg is subjected to a force F , as

shown in the figure. If the coefficient of friction is 0.25, what
is the minimum value of F required to make the block slide?

(C) aA < aB , uA = uB (III)

200 200
1. N 2. N
4√ 3 + 1 4√ 3 − 1
100
(D) aA < aB , uA < uB (IV) 3. N 4. 50 N
4√ 3 + 1

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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19 The position vector of a point mass is expressed as 24 A drone takes off with a velocity 40 km/h in a direction
r→ = (at^i + bt2 ^j). The trajectory of the particle is: 30∘ north of the east. The wind is blowing at 40 km/h from
1. a straight line north to south. What is the magnitude of the drone’s resultant
displacement in 2 hrs?
2. a parabola
1. 40 km
3. a hyperbola 2. 80 km
4. none of the above 3. 80√2 km
4. 100 km
20 A lift of mass 500 kg starts moving downwards with an
2 25 A ball is projected vertically upwards and then falls back
initial speed of 2 m/s and accelerates at a rate of 2 m/s . The
kinetic energy of the lift when it has moved 6 m down, is: to its original position. Once projected, the ball experiences
1. 3 J only a single force, downwards, due to a constant gravitational
2. 3 kJ field strength of 10 N/kg.
3. 7 J Here are three statements about the ball:
4. 7 kJ When the ball is moving upwards, it loses kinetic energy
(1)
and gains potential energy.
21 A car of mass m is driven along a highway at a constant The magnitude of the ball’s acceleration increases as it
(2)
speed. The highway curves down at A, and curves upward at falls.
B: the radius of curvature being R. The normal reactions at A No vertical forces act on the ball when it is at its
(3)
(highest point) and at B (lowest point) are: maximum height.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

1. none of them
2. (1) and (2) only
3. (3) only
4. (1) only

1. mg & mg 26 Given below are two statements:

mv2 mv 2
2. mg − , mg + → × →b
a
R R The ratio = tan θ, where θ is the angle
Assertion (A): → ⋅ →b
mv2 mv2 a
3. mg + , mg − between the vectors a →, →b.
R R
mv2 mv2 The a → × →b has the magnitude: ab sin θ, and
4. mg − , mg +
2R 2R Reason (R): a →. →b has the magnitude: ab cos θ, where θ is
the angle between the vectors a →, →b.
22 A moving steel ball of mass m collides elastically with
another steel ball of mass 2m that is initially at rest. If the Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
kinetic energy of the moving ball before the collision is 100 J, explanation of (A).
then after the collision it will have a kinetic energy of: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
100 100 explanation of (A).
1. J 2. J
3 9 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
200 800 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. J 4. J
3 9
27 Express the result of the calculation to 3 significant
23 The position vector of a particle changes with time
figures:
according to the relation, 2 × 0.536 + 0.0050 + 2.100
r→(t) = (15t2 )^i + (4 − 20t2 ) ^j, where r→(t) is in metres and t 1. 3.177
is in seconds. 2. 3.18
What is the magnitude of the acceleration at t = 1 second? 3. 3.19
1. 100 m/s2 2. 40 m/s2 4. 3.2
3. 50 m/s2 4. 25 m/s2

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28 A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 30 m/s in a 32 A horizontal force F acts on a 2 kg block placed on a
direction 30∘ above the horizontal. The time taken by the ball smooth horizontal plane. It varies with time t as shown in the
2
to return to the same level will be: (take g = 10 m/s ) figure. The block is initially at rest. The momentum of the
1. 1.5 s block at t = 2 s is:
2. 3 s
3. 6 s
4. 12

29 Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gravity is a conservative force.
Gravitational potential energy increases with
Statement II:
height above the earth's surface.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

1. 3 kg-m/s 2. 2.5 kg-m/s
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. 1.5 kg-m/s 4. 1 kg-m/s
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. Two different quantities having the same dimension are:
33
For a smoothly running analog clock, the ratio of the 1. momentum, power
30 2. power, pressure
number of rotations made in a day by the hour hand to the 3. work, torque
second hand, respectively, is: 4. pressure, torque
1. 24 : 1 2. 1 : 720
3. 1 : 60 4. 2:5 34 A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed of
20 m/s. It reaches a height of 15 m above the ground, after a
31 The angular momentum of a rotating sphere of mass-m, 2
time of: (take g = 10 m/s )
2 1. 1 s
radius-r is computed from the expression: L = mr2 ω,
5 2. 3 s
where ω is the angular speed of rotation. The mass is known to 3. 1 s or 3 s
within 0.5%, the radius to 0.5%, and the angular speed (ω) to 4. 2 s
within 1%. The fractional error in L is:
1. 1% 35 A constant force acts on a body of mass 1 kg, providing it
2. 1.5%
3. 2% a kinetic energy of 1800 J by the end of 5th second. If the
4. 2.5% body was initially at rest, at the beginning of the action of
force, then the magnitude of the force is equal to:

1. 30 N
2. 12 N
3. 25 N
4. 15 N

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Oct 8527521718

Physics - Section B 39 On the horizontal smooth floor of a railway carriage lies

a spring-block system, with the spring in the relaxed state. The
Given below are two statements: carriage which was travelling to the left suddenly brakes, with
36 g
The law of inertia is valid in an inertial frame an acceleration equal to . The maximum compression in the
Statement I: 2
only. spring is:
The law of action & reaction is valid in all
Statement II: frames, inertial & non-inertial for all physical
forces.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. mg mg
1. 2.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. k 2k
mg 3mg
The square of a particle's speed (v) is plotted as a 3. 4.
37 4k 4k
function of its displacement (s):
40 The blocks of masses m, 2m slide on smooth horizontal
surfaces. The strings and the pulleys are ideal; the system is
released from rest. The ratio of the power transferred by the
string to m & 2m is:

I−accelerated motion; II−decelerated motion;

1.
the acceleration/deceleration are uniform
I−decelerated motion; II−accelerated motion;
2.
the acceleration/deceleration are uniform 1. 1:2 2. 2:1
I−accelerated motion; II−decelerated motion; 3. 1 : √2 4. √2 : 1
3.
the acceleration/deceleration are non-uniform
I−decelerated motion; II−accelerated motion;
4.
the acceleration/deceleration are non-uniform.

38 The potential energy of a particle, per unit mass, is given

by:
V (x, y) = x2 + 4y 2 (in SI).
A particle of mass 2 kg is released at the point P (3, 2) and it
reaches the origin along a smooth path. Its speed will be:
1. 5 m/s
2. 5√2 m/s
5
3. m/s
√2
4. 10 m/s

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41 A force F→ = y^i (newton) acts on a particle, and it moves 44 If the string is suddenly cut, the acceleration of the bob
around the closed path OABO, where O is the origin will be:
2
(0, 0), A and B have coordinates: A(2, 4) & B(2, 0). All 1. 10 m/s
quantities are in SI (numerically). The work done by the force 2. 20 m/s
2
is: 2
3. 10√2 m/s
2
4. 20√2 m/s

45 If the force F suddenly stops acting on the bob, the

acceleration of the bob will be:
2
1. 10 m/s
2
2. 5 m/s
2
3. 5√2 m/s
5 2
4. m/s
√2
1. zero
2. 8 J What is the minimum force that must be applied
3. 4 J
46
4. −4 J vertically to the pulley to move it? The pulley and string are
2
ideal. Take g = 10 m/s .
Based on the information provided below, answer the
questions (42-45).
A simple pendulum consists of a bob (A) of mass 2 kg
connected by means of a light, inextensible string of length
1 m to a fixed point O on the ceiling. A horizontal force is
applied to the bob (A); the string makes an angle of 45∘ with
2
the vertical & the system is stationary. Take g = 10 m/s , if
required.

1. 20 N
2. 30 N
3. 40 N
4. 80 N

42 The magnitude of F is: 47 If the kinetic energy of a projectile is plotted as a

1. 10 N function of the horizontal displacement, the graph will be:
2. 20 N 1. a straight line
3. 10√2 N 2. a circular arc
4. 20√2 N 3. a parabola, concave downward
4. a parabola, concave upward
43 The magnitude of the tension in the string is:
1. 10 N
2. 20 N
3. 10√2 N
4. 20√2 N

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48 The kinetic energy (KE) of a particle moving along a

Chemistry - Section A
straight line under conservative forces is shown in the
figure. If the particle is set free at the locations corresponding The increasing order of energy of electromagnetic
51
to some of the points, it will remain in stable equilibrium.
These points are: radiation can be represented as:
1. Microwave < Infrared < Visible < X-ray
2. X-ray < Visible < Infrared < Microwave
3. Microwave < Infrared < Visible < Radio waves
4. X-ray < Infrared < Visible < Microwave

52 The relationship between energy E, of the radiation with

a wavelength 8000 A0 and the energy of the radiation with a
wavelength 16000 A0 is:
1. E1 = 6E2
2. E1 = 2E2
3. E1 = 4E2
1. A & C
2. B & D 4. E1 = 1/2E2
3. B & C
53 The diamagnetic species among the following is:
4. A & D
1. NO
49 A block (mass: m) is being pulled horizontally on a 2. CO
1 3. O2
rough horizontal surface (μ = ) by means of a spring of 4. B2
2
spring constant k. The maximum extension in the spring
before the block moves is: 54 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
PCl5?
1. In PCl5, axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.
2. It has a trigonal bipyramidal structure.
3. 3 chlorine atoms are in the same plane.
mg mg
1. 2. 4. Hybridisation of 'P' is sp3d2.
k 2k
2mg 3mg
3. 4. 55
k 2k
SO2 and SO3 are the two gases showing law
Two boats A, B are rowed perpendicular to each other Statement I: of multiple proportions but the same is not
50
followed by CO and CO2.
with identical speeds of 8 km/h (with respect to water). The
relative velocity of A with respect to B v→A/B makes an angle Dalton’s theory explains the laws of chemical
Statement II: combination as well as laws of gaseous
of θ with the flow direction. θ = volumes.

1. Statement I is correct, and Statement II is correct.

2. Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.
3. Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is incorrect.

1. 15∘ 2. 30∘ 56 Which of the following has highest ionic character?

3. 45∘ 4. 75∘ 1. MgCl2
2. CaCl2
3. BaCl2
4. BeCl2

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57 Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4? 63 Consider the given statements:
1. SCl4 The energy of an electron is mainly decided
Assertion (A):
2. SO2−
4 by its principal quantum number.
3. P O3−
4 The principal quantum number (n) is a
4. NH4+ Reason (R): measure of the most probable distance of
finding the electrons around the nucleus.
58 With the electronegativity values provided (H = 2.1, F =
4, Cl = 3.0, Br = 2.8, I = 2.3, N = 3.0), the correct order of Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
decreasing electronegativity difference of the following explanation of (A).
compounds is: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
HF, NCl₃, HBr, HI, and HCl explanation of (A).
1. NCl3 > HF > HCl > HBr > HI 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. HF > HCl > HBr > HI > NCl3 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. HI > HBr > HCl > HF > NCl3
4. HF > HCl > NCl3 > HBr > HI Match the rule/theory in Column-I with the scientists,
64
−1 who proposed them given in Column-II:
59 The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5 g mol . The
ratio of 35 Cl to 37 Cl in naturally occurring chlorine is close to: Column-I Column-II
1. 4 : 1
A. Octet rule I. Heitler-London
2. 3 : 1
3. 2 : 1 B. Covalent bond II. Kossel-Lewis
4. 1 : 1 C. Valence-bond theory III. Hund-Mulliken
D. Molecular orbital theory IV. Langmuir
60 Which of the following compound does not show Select the correct option:
amphoteric behaviour? 1. A - (II); B - (III); C - (IV); D - (I)
1. Zn(OH)2 2. A - (III); B - (IV); C - (I); D - (II)
2. BeO 3. A - (IV); B - (I); C - (II); D - (III)
3. Al2 O3 4. A - (II); B - (IV); C - (I); D - (III)
4. N2O
65 Consider the given statements:
61 The number and type of bonds between two carbon The total energy of an electron in the
Assertion (A):
atoms in CaC2 are: hydrogen atom is negative.
1. One sigma and one π bond Reason (R): The electron is bound to the nucleus.
2. One sigma and two π bonds
3. One sigma and one and a half π bond Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
4. One sigma bond 1.
explanation of (A)
3+ Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
62 The pair of ions that is isoelectronic with Al ion is: 2.
explanation of (A).
2+ 2−
1. Mg , O 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Na+ , N2− 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4− −
3. C , Cl
− +
4. F , Mg

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66 Hybridization of C1 and C2 in the structure given below 71 Which of the following has the highest electronegativity?
are: 1. Carbon
2. Oxygen
3. Boron
4. Fluorine

72 The correct decreasing order of ion sizes is:

1. Li+ > H+ > H-

2. H+ > H- > Li+
3. H- > Li+ > H+
4. H- > H+ > Li+

73 The first ionization enthalpies for three elements are

1314, 1680, and 2080 kJ mol−1 respectively. These elements
2 3
1. C1 = sp , C2 = sp are:
2. C1 = sp3 , C2 = sp2 1. O, F and Ne
3. C1 = sp3 , C2 = sp3 2. F, O and Ne
4. C1 = sp2 , C2 = sp2 3. Ne, F and O
4. F, Ne and O
67 The correct statement regarding the molecule, NF3 is:
74 Consider the given statements:
1. Non-polar compound
2. Electrovalent compound H—S—H bond angle in H2S is closer to 90°
3. Has a lower value of dipole moment than NH3 Assertion (A):
but H—O—H bond angle in H2O is 104.5°.
4. Has a higher value of dipole moment than NH3
Lone pair-lone pair repulsion is stronger
Reason (R):
in H2S than in H2O.
68 The electrons identified by quantum number n and l, (i) n
= 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0, (iii) n = 3, l = 2, (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
be placed in order of increasing energy from lowest to highest 1.
explanation of (A)
as:
1. (iv) < (ii) < (iii)< (i) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
2. (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) explanation of (A).
3. (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

69 During the reaction of 32.65 g of zinc with HCl, what is What is the volume of 0.6 M NaOH required to
75
the volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP? neutralize 30 cm³ of 0.4 M HCl?
(atomic mass of Zn=65.3u) 1. 30 cm3
1. 20 L
2. 20 cm3
2. 15.23 L
3. 11.2 L 3. 50 cm3
4. 25.5 L 4. 45 cm3

70 Given the following data: 76 The electronic configuration of chalcogens in their

(a) Mass of electron: 9.11 x 10-31 kg outermost orbit is:

1. ns2,np3
(b) Planck's constant: 6.626 x 10-34 Js
2. ns2,np4
In light of the data given above, the uncertainty involved in
° 3. ns2,np5
the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 A will
be: 4. ns2,np2
1. 5.79 x 106 ms-1
2. 5.79 x 107 ms-1
3. 5.79 x 108 ms-1
4. 5.79 x 105 ms-1

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77 Which type of orbital overlap is responsible for forming 83 In Haber's process, N2+3H2 → 2NH3, starting with 5L of
a fluorine molecule? N2 at STP and 5L of H2, the limiting reagent will be:
1. s - s overlap 1. N2
2. s - p overlap 2. H2
3. p - p overlap 3. Both N2 and H2
4. p - d overlap 4. Neither N2 nor H2

78 The mass of one atom of 12C in grams is: Given that the threshold frequency of the metal is
84
1. 1.99 x 10-23g 1.4 × 1015 sec−1 , what is the minimum energy required to
2. 22 x 10-23g eject a photoelectron from the metal?
3. 6.022 x 1023g [given: h = 6.6 × 10−34 Jsec]
4. 1.99 x 1023g 1. 9.24 × 10−19 J
2. 9.24 × 10−18 J
79 A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The formula of 3. 4.62 × 10−19 J
the metal sulphate is: 4. 4.62 × 10−18 J
1. M2SO4
85 Match the quantum numbers in Column I with the
2. MSO4
3. M(SO4)2 corresponding orbitals in Column II:
4. M2(SO4)3 Column I Column II

80 The quantum numbers for the 19th electron of Chromium (A) n = 2, l =1 (i) 4s
are:
(B) n = 4, l = 0 (ii) 2p
1. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
2. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
3. n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = +1/2 (C) n = 5, l = 3 (iii) 3d
4. n = 4, l = 2, m = 2, s = +1/2
(D) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) 5f

81 Consider the given two statements: Select the correct option:

1. (A) - (iv); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iii)
Assertion 2. (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (iv); (D) - (i)
All transition elements are d-block elements.
(A): 3. (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iv); (D) - (iii)
Zn, Cd, and Hg are d-block elements but not 4. (A) - (iii); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iv)
Reason (R):
transition elements.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
Chemistry - Section B
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly The empirical formula of an organic compound
2.
explain (A)
86
containing carbon and hydrogen is CH2. The mass of one litre
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
of this organic gas at STP is exactly equal to that of one litre
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
of N2 at STP. Therefore, the molecular formula of the organic
gas is:
82 The correct order of ionization energies for the elements
1. C2H4
Si, P, Ge, and As, from lowest to highest, is: 2. C3H6
1. Si < P < Ge < As 3. C6H12
2. As < Ge < P < Si 4. C4H8
3. Ge < Si < As < P
4. Ge < As < Si < P The total number of lines in Lyman series of H spectrum
87
will be:
(where n = no. of orbits)
1. n 2. n -1
3. n-2 4. n(n + 1)

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88 The graph represents the variation of the wave function 92 Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of
with the distance from the nucleus. wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line of H-atom is
suitable for this purpose?
[RH = 1 × 105 cm , h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js,
−1

c = 3 × 108 ms ]
−1

1. Paschen, ∞ → 3
2. Paschen, 5 → 3
3. Balmer, ∞ → 2
4. Lyman, ∞ → 1

93 Atoms A and B are interacting to form bonds (σ, π). If

the z-axis is taken as the internuclear axis, the correct
The atomic orbital represented by above-mentioned graph is: statement regarding the formation of a bond is:
1. 1s 2. 2s 1. pA
z and pz atomic orbitals contribute to π bond.
B

3. 2p 4. None of the above

2. dx2 −y 2 and dx2 −y 2 atomic orbitals contribute to π bond.
A B

Which of the following statements is correct for an 3. pA

y and py atomic orbitals contribute to σ bond.
B
89
element that forms oxides in different oxidation states? 4. dzA2 and dzB2 atomic orbitals contribute to σ bond.
The oxide is neutral when the element is in its highest
1. Which of these molecules has the largest bond angle?
oxidation state. 94
The oxide is most acidic when the element is in its highest 1. HCN
2.
oxidation state. 2. PF5
The oxide is amphoteric when the element is in its highest 3. NH3
3.
oxidation state. 4. SO3
The oxide is most basic when the element is in its highest
4. The amount of energy in kcal released during the
oxidation state. 95
complete conversion of 2 grams of chlorine gas into Cl⁻ ions,
90 0.8 mole of a mixture of CO and CO2 requires exactly 40 with an electron affinity of 3.7 eV, is:
gram of NaOH in a solution for complete conversion of all the (1eV = 23.06kcalmol−1 )
CO2 into Na2CO3. How many moles more of NaOH would it
1. 9.5
require for conversion into Na2CO3, if mixture (0.8 mole) is
2. 48
completely oxidised to CO2? 3. 4.8
1. 0.2 4. 5.3
2. 0.6
3. 1 96 Given a solution density of 3.12 g/mL, what is the mass
4. 1.5
of a 1.5 mL sample, rounded to the appropriate number of
Consider the following reaction: significant figures?
91
1. 4.7 g 2. 4680 × 103 g
4 HNO3(l) + 3 KCl(s) → Cl2(g) + NOCl(g) + 2H2O(g) +
3. 4.680 g 4. 46.80 g
3KNO3(s)
The amount of HNO3 required to produce 110.0g of KNO3 is: 224 ml of a triatomic gas weighs 1g at 273 K and 1 atm.
(Given: Atomic masses of H, O, N, and K are 1, 16, 14, and
97
39, respectively.) The mass of one atom of this gas is:
1. 32.2g 1. 8.30 × 10–23 g
2. 69.4g 2. 2.08 × 10–23 g
3. 91.5g
3. 5.53 × 10–23 g
4. 162.5g
4. 6.24 × 10–23 g

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98 The correct order of 'S—O' bond length is: 104 Fungi exhibit a wide range of morphological diversity.

1.
2− 2−
SO3 > SO4 > SO3 > SO2 Which of the following examples represents a parasitic
fungus?
2. SO2− 2−
3 > SO4 > SO2 > SO3 1. Penicillium
2− 2−
3. SO4 > SO3 > SO2 > SO3 2. Saccharomyces
3. Puccinia
4. SO2− 2−
4 > SO3 > SO3 > SO2
4. Agaricus

99 The pair of elements where the addition of a second

105 The term "taxa" refers to:
electron to each atom is endothermic is: 1. A single species
1. N, Ne 2. A group of organisms at any rank
2. Be, F 3. A biological name
3. B, C 4. A classification method
4. All of the above
2− 106 Fungi reproduce sexually through a sequence involving:
100 The geometry exhibited by SiO3 ions is:
1. Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and mitosis
1. Trigonal planar 2. Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis
2. Tetrahedral 3. Karyogamy, plasmogamy, and budding
3. Pyramidal 4. Spore formation, plasmogamy, and binary fission
4. Bent
107 Which of the following groups of algae is known for
Biology I - Section A having the most complex reproductive cycle, with oogamous
sexual reproduction and complex post-fertilization
101 The giant redwood tree Sequoia, one of the tallest tree development?
species, belongs to: 1. Chlorophyceae
1. Pteridophytes 2. Phaeophyceae
2. Gymnosperms 3. Rhodophyceae
3. Angiosperms 4. Cyanophyceae
4. Bryophytes
108 Numerical taxonomy, an approach now easily carried
102 The life cycle of a moss includes two distinct phases. out using computers, is based on:
Which of the following is the correct description of these 1. Chemical constituents of plants
phases? 2. Chromosome number and behaviour
3. External morphological features only
Protonema and gametophyte stage, both of which are
1. 4. All observable characteristics
diploid.
Sporophyte and gametophyte stages, with the gametophyte In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following
2.
being diploid.
109
statements correctly differentiates between a phylum and a
Protonema stage and leafy stage, both being parts of the
3. division?
gametophyte.
Phylum is used to classify animals, while division is used
Leafy stage and sporophyte stage, both independent and 1.
4. to classify plants.
diploid.
Phylum refers to a category lower than division in both
2.
Which of the following roots in gymnosperms have plants and animals.
103
Division is used to classify animals, while phylum is used
fungal associations in the form of mycorrhiza? 3.
to classify plants.
1. Tap roots of Cycas
Both phylum and division refer to the highest taxonomic
2. Fibrous roots of Ginkgo 4.
category for plants and animals respectively.
3. Coralloid roots of Cycas
4. Tap roots of Pinus

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110 Which of the following correctly represents the order of 117 Which of the following statements best explains why
taxonomic categories from lowest to highest? Latin is used in biological nomenclature?
1. Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class 1. Latin is a universally spoken language.
2. Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Species Latin was chosen because it was the language of science in
3. Family → Genus → Species → Class → Order 2.
the 18th century.
4. Class → Family → Genus → Species → Order
3. Latin words are easier to pronounce for all biologists.
111 The presence of heterocysts in cyanobacteria like Nostoc 4.
Latin is a dead language, thus ensuring that meanings of
words do not change over time.
and Anabaena is an adaptation primarily for:
1. Photosynthesis
2. Nitrogen fixation 118 Which of the following diseases is caused by prions, and
3. Reproduction what is the primary feature of this infectious agent?
4. Motility 1. Mad cow disease, caused by abnormally folded proteins
2. Potato spindle tuber disease, caused by free RNA
112 Which protozoan group is known for causing sleeping
3. Mosaic disease in tobacco, caused by a virus
sickness? 4. Bacterial meningitis, caused by bacteria
1. Amoeboid protozoans
2. Flagellated protozoans How does the phenomenon of red tides, caused by
3. Ciliated protozoans 119
4. Sporozoans certain dinoflagellates, impact marine ecosystems?
Red tides enhance oxygen levels in water, indicating a vital
1.
113 In pteridophytes, the sporophylls often form distinct role in oxygen production.
compact structures called strobili or cones. Which of the Red tides release toxins that can be lethal to marine life,
2.
following genera demonstrates this feature? highlighting their role as harmful algal blooms.
1. Equisetum Red tides increase nutrient levels in water, promoting
3.
2. Chara growth of other marine organisms.
3. Spirogyra Red tides provide a significant source of food for marine
4. Funaria 4.
animals, supporting aquatic food webs.

114 Which of the following is not a characteristic of viruses? 120 What would be true for diatomaceous earth regarding
1. Obligate parasites modern industrial applications?
2. Crystalline structure outside host 1. It is a primary ingredient in the manufacture of plastics.
3. Both RNA and DNA as genetic material
It is used in the filtration of oils and syrups due to its gritty
4. Protein coat surrounding nucleic acid 2.
texture.
Which of the following taxa would exhibit the greatest 3. It serves as a raw material for the production of biofuels.
115
It is utilized in the construction industry as a lightweight
genetic diversity among its members? 4.
aggregate.
1. Species
2. Genus
121 Which scientist is credited with introducing the
3. Family
4. Phylum binomial nomenclature system?
1. Charles Darwin
116 The asexual spores in Phycomycetes that are non-motile 2. Carolus Linnaeus
are called: 3. Gregor Mendel
1. Zoospores 4. Aristotle
2. Aplanospores
3. Ascospores
4. Sporangiospores

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122 The classification of fungi into different classes is 128 Which of the following is not a feature of mosses?
primarily based on: 1. Gametophyte has two stages: protonema and leafy stage.
1. The ecological niche they occupy 2. Gametophyte is dominant and bears sex organs.
2. Their mode of nutrient acquisition Sporophyte is free-living and independent of the
3.
The morphology of the mycelium and reproductive gametophyte.
3.
structures 4. Rhizoids are multicellular and branched.
4. The presence or absence of symbiotic relationships
129 Identify the correct statement regarding gymnosperms:
123 Which of the following is an example of a gymnosperm
1. They are always unisexual and never monoecious.
with branched stems? 2. They bear flowers and fruits.
1. Pinus 3. Their seeds are enclosed within an ovary wall.
2. Cycas 4. They are heterosporous and produce naked seeds.
3. Selaginella
4. Adiantum 130 In viroids, the infective agent is composed solely of:
1. Proteinaceous particles that infect nervous tissue
124 Bryophytes are often referred to as the amphibians of
2. Double-stranded RNA with no protein coat
the plant kingdom because they: 3. Single-stranded RNA without a protein coat
1. Can live in soil but require water for reproduction 4. Single-stranded DNA encased in a protein coat
2. Have vascular tissues
3. Are exclusively aquatic 131 In angiosperms, the phylogenetic system of
4. Can reproduce asexually via spores classification considers evolutionary relationships, assuming
that organisms belonging to the same ________ share a
125 Pteridophytes are the first group of terrestrial plants to
common ________.
have: 1. taxa, ancestor
1. True flowers 2. family, habitat
2. Cones or strobili 3. class, species
3. Seeds enclosed in an ovary 4. order, trait
4. Vascular tissues (xylem and phloem)
132 The process by which organisms are grouped into
126 In the study of the plant kingdom, certain organisms
convenient categories based on observable characters is
like fungi, cyanobacteria, and members of protista were once called:
classified as plants but are now excluded. Which of the 1. Identification
following is now correctly classified outside the Plantae 2. Nomenclature
kingdom? 3. Classification
1. Ulothrix 4. Taxonomy
2. Spirogyra
3. Alternaria 133 Which of the following distinguishes the life cycle of
4. Volvox pteridophytes from that of bryophytes?
In the Five Kingdom Classification proposed by The main plant body in pteridophytes is haploid, while in
127 1.
bryophytes it is diploid.
Whittaker, what was the primary reason for placing fungi in a In pteridophytes, the gametophyte is independent, while in
separate kingdom rather than grouping them with plants? 2.
bryophytes the sporophyte is independent.
1. The presence of chitin in their cell walls
Pteridophytes have a dominant sporophyte generation,
2. Their autotrophic mode of nutrition
3. while bryophytes have a dominant gametophyte
3. The presence in them of a well-defined nucleus
generation.
4. Their reproduction by spores
Bryophytes possess well-differentiated vascular tissues,
4.
unlike pteridophytes.

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134 In fungi, the dikaryotic phase, which involves two 139 Regarding the given figure:
haploid nuclei per cell, is characteristic of which of the
following groups?
1. Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
2. Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes
3. Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes
4. Zygomycetes and Phycomycetes

135 Which of the following organisms is an example of a

chemosynthetic autotrophic bacterium?
1. Anabaena
2. Nostoc
3. Mycoplasma
4. Nitrosomonas

Biology I - Section B
136 Which of the following mechanisms of sexual
The heterocyst is the location of photosynthetic pigments
reproduction in algae is correctly paired with an example of I:
and oxygen production.
the organism displaying it?
The presence of mucilaginous sheath makes the organism
1. Oogamy – Chlamydomonas II:
multicellular.
2. Isogamy with flagellated gametes – Spirogyra
3. Anisogamy – Volvox 1. Only I is correct
4. Oogamy – Fucus 2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
Consider the given two statements: 4. Both I and II are incorrect
137
Statement Lichens are symbiotic associations between 140 Match each item in Column I with one item in Column
I: fungi and algae, where both organisms benefit.
II and select the best match from the codes given:
Statement Lichens can grow in highly polluted areas and
Column I Column II
II: are excellent bioindicators of air quality.
A. Neurospora P. Genetic work
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. B. Penicillium Q. Antibiotics
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. C. Rhizopus R. Bread mold
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. D. Agaricus S. Mushroom
Codes:
138 Match each item in Column I with one item in Column
Options A B C D
II and select the best match from the codes given: 1 R Q P S
Column I Column II 2 Q S P R
A. Cyanobacteria P. Asexual reproduction 3 S P Q R
B. Archaebacteria Q. Silica cell wall 4 P Q R S
C. Diatoms R. Methanogens
D. Deuteromycetes S. Nitrogen fixation 141 Consider the following statements:
Codes: Statement Species is the lowest taxonomic category in the
A B C D I: hierarchy.
1. S R Q P Statement Genus includes multiple species that share
2. Q S R P II: common characteristics.
3. P Q S R Which of the above statements is/are correct?
4. R S P Q 1. Only Statement I is correct
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct

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142 The given figure shows a: 145 Consider the given two statements:
Statement In Ascomycetes, sexual reproduction leads to the
I: formation of spores called ascospores.
Statement These ascospores are produced exogenously on
II: specialized structures called basidia.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

146 Which of the following statements best describes the

relationship between systematics and taxonomy?
Systematics is a broader field that includes taxonomy,
focusing on the evolutionary relationships between
1.
organisms, while taxonomy specifically deals with the
classification, identification, and naming of organisms.
Taxonomy is a broader field that includes systematics,
2. which focuses solely on the genetic differences between
species.
1. Male thallus of Marchantia Systematics and taxonomy are completely independent
2. Female thallus of Marchantia 3.
fields with no overlap in their objectives.
3. Sporophyte of Funaria Systematics is only concerned with the physical
4. Gametophyte of Funaria 4. characteristics of organisms, while taxonomy includes both
physical and genetic traits.
143 Consider the following statements about gymnosperms:
Statement Gymnosperms exhibit a dominant sporophyte in 147 Consider the following statements about bacteria:
I: their life cycle.
Bacteria are classified into four categories based
Statement Gymnosperms produce seeds and flowers but Statement
on their shape: cocci, bacilli, vibrios, and
II: lack fruit formation. I:
spirilla.
Statement In gymnosperms, male gametophytes are The majority of bacteria are autotrophs,
III: transported by water to fertilize the ovules. Statement
synthesizing their own food from inorganic
Which of the above statements is/are correct? II:
substrates.
1. Only I 2. Only I and II Archaebacteria are a unique group of bacteria
Statement
3. Only II and III 4. All I, II, and III that can survive in extreme environments due to
III:
their distinct cell wall structure.
144 Which of the following is a correct statement regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
heterospory in the plant kingdom? 1. Only Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement III are correct
Heterospory is the condition where microspores and
3. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct
1. megaspores develop into male and female gametophytes
4. All Statements are correct
respectively.
Heterospory is the production of two types of male Consider the following statements:
2.
gametes within a single gametophyte.
148
Heterospory is exclusive to gymnosperms and is absent in The process of naming organisms according to a
3. Statement
pteridophytes like Selaginella. universally accepted system is known as
I:
nomenclature.
The presence of heterospory has no relevance to seed habit
4. Statement Nomenclature can be applied without the need
in plants.
II: for proper identification of the organism.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Only Statement I is correct
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct

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149 Consider the given statements: 154 Which phylum exhibits alternation of generations
Statement All three classes of algae possess cellulose in (metagenesis) between polyp and medusa forms?
I: their cell walls. 1. Porifera 2. Platyhelminthes
Statement Rhodophyceae lacks flagella, whereas 3. Ctenophora 4. Cnidaria
II: Chlorophyceae can have up to 8 flagella.
Statement Phaeophyceae stores food in the form of 155 Which of the following epithelial tissues is primarily
III: laminarin and starch. responsible for forming a diffusion boundary and is found in
1. Only Statement II is correct the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs?
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 1. Squamous epithelium
3. Only Statement III is correct 2. Cuboidal epithelium
4. All Statements are correct 3. Columnar epithelium
4. Glandular epithelium
150 Identify the correct statement:
156 The tube feet of echinoderms are involved in which
Algae are primarily parasitic and thrive in dry
1.
environments. functions?
Algae are autotrophic organisms and can be both 1. Circulatory and reproductive
2. 2. Excretory and reproductive
freshwater and marine.
3. Algae are always unicellular and lack chlorophyll. 3. Digestive and circulatory
4. Locomotion, feeding, and respiration
4. Algae reproduce only through sexual means.

157 The biological process shown in the given figure will be

Biology II - Section A seen in members of Phylum:

151 Which of the following is expected to be highly

developed in endoparasites like tapeworm?
1. Sensory organs like eye
2. Locomotory structure
3. Very long and complex digestive system
4. Reproductive potential

152 Consider the given two statements:

Frogs exhibit cutaneous respiration, allowing
Statement I: gas exchange through their moist skin while
underwater. 1. Cnidaria
During aestivation and hibernation, frogs 2. Ctenophora
Statement II: primarily rely on pulmonary respiration for gas 3. Aschelminthes
exchange. 4. Platyhelminthes

158 Which phylum exhibits both intracellular and

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
extracellular digestion, and is known for its bioluminescence?
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
1. Platyhelminthes 2. Annelida
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Mollusca 4. Ctenophora
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

159 The specialized junctions in epithelial tissues that

153 Which class of chordata includes organisms that have a
facilitate communication between adjacent cells by allowing
notochord only in the larval stage?
the transfer of ions and small molecules are called:
1. Cyclostomata
1. Tight junctions
2. Cephalochordata
2. Adhering junctions
3. Urochordata
3. Desmosomes
4. Reptilia
4. Gap junctions

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160 Consider the given two statements: 166 Identify the incorrect match between the class of
The cuboidal epithelium in the kidney tubules Chordata and the animals:
Statement I: has microvilli that aid in absorption and 1. Cyclostomata: Myxine, Lamprey
secretion. 2. Chondrichthyes: Scoliodon, Pristis, Carcharodon
Microvilli increase the surface area of cuboidal 3. Osteichthyes: Exocoetus, Catla, Hippocampus
Statement II: 4. Amphibia: Chelone, Rana, Hyla
epithelium for efficient gas exchange.

167 Which specific region in the male cockroach’s genital

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect pouch is responsible for releasing spermatophores during
copulation?
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
1. Gonapophysis
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect 2. Seminal vesicles
3. Ejaculatory duct
161 The vocal sacs in male frogs serve to: 4. Phallomere
Amplify sound to attract females during the breeding
1. 168 What type of circulatory system is present in animals
season.
2. Store oxygen for cutaneous respiration. where blood is circulated through arteries, veins, and
3. Secrete digestive enzymes for prey capture. capillaries?
1. Open type
4. Control the flow of water into the lungs during respiration.
2. Closed type
3. Incomplete type
162 Animals like echinoderms and coelenterates exhibit
4. Pseudocoelomic type
radial symmetry. Which of the following characteristics best
describes radial symmetry? 169 The notochord, which is a characteristic feature of
Body can be divided into two equal halves along only one chordates, is formed during embryonic development from:
1.
plane. 1. Endoderm
Body can be divided into equal halves along multiple 2. Mesoderm
2.
planes through the central axis. 3. Ectoderm
3. Body has no symmetry at all. 4. Mesoglea
4. Body shows segmentation with repetition of organs.
170 Which of the following is a feature of cartilaginous

163 The flame cells present in Platyhelminthes are fishes (Class Chondrichthyes)?
1. Presence of placoid scales
specialized for:
2. Presence of a bony endoskeleton
1. Digestion
3. Gills covered by an operculum
2. Respiration
4. Air bladder to control buoyancy
3. Osmoregulation and excretion
4. Locomotion Consider the given two statements:
171
164 Frogs enter a state of dormancy during peak summer Cephalochordates retain their notochord
Statement I:
and winter. These are called: throughout life.
1. Aestivation and hibernation, respectively They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and
Statement II:
2. Hibernation and aestivation, respectively pharyngeal slits.
3. Diapause and mimicry, respectively
4. Camouflage and mimicry, respectively 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
165 Metamerism, or segmentation, is a characteristic feature
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
of which of the following phyla? 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
1. Arthropoda and Mollusca
2. Echinodermata and Coelenterata
3. Annelida and Arthropoda
4. Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes

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172 Which of the following organisms exhibit metamerism, 179 In the nervous system of cockroaches, how many
possess nephridia for excretion, and have a closed circulatory ganglia are present in the thorax?
system? 1. Two 2. Three
1. Arthropoda 3. Six 4. Eight
2. Mollusca
3. Platyhelminthes Which group of fishes has a bony endoskeleton, a
4. Annelida 180
terminal mouth, and a swim bladder to regulate buoyancy?
173 Glandular epithelium, consisting of isolated goblet cells, 1. Cartilaginous Fishes
2. Bony Fishes
is an example of which type of gland?
3. Cyclostomata
1. Multicellular exocrine gland
4. Amphibia
2. Unicellular endocrine gland
3. Unicellular exocrine gland In which class do animals possess an elongated body
4. Multicellular endocrine gland 181
without jaws, paired fins, or scales, and are parasitic on
174 Which characteristic feature of paurometabolous fishes?
1. Cephalochordata
development in cockroaches differentiates it from
2. Urochordata
holometabolous development?
3. Cyclostomata
1. Direct development with no nymphal stage
4. Cartilaginous Fishes
2. Presence of larvae stage
3. Nymph resembling adult in morphology
4. Presence of pupal stage 182 The type of tissue shown in the given figure is:

175 In which of the following phyla is the body cavity

derived from the blastocoel (pseudocoelom) and not lined
entirely by mesoderm?
1. Platyhelminthes
2. Annelida
3. Arthropoda
4. Aschelminthes

176 Identify the incorrect match:

1. Porifera - Sycon, Spongilla, Euspongia
2. Cnidaria - Aurelia, Adamsia, Physalia 1. Loose connective tissues
3. Platyhelminthes - Fasciola, Taenia, Ascaris 2. Specialised connective tissues
4. Echinodermata - Asterias, Antedon, Ophiura 3. Dense irregular connective tissue
4. Dense regular connective tissue
177 The hepatic portal system in frogs primarily: Which of the following phyla has a body divided into a
183
1. Directs deoxygenated blood from the liver to the brain.
proboscis, collar, and trunk, and lacks a notochord, though it
Facilitates the absorption and transportation of nutrients was initially classified under Chordata?
2.
from the intestines to the liver.
1. Mollusca 2. Echinodermata
Supplies oxygen-rich blood to the digestive tract for
3. 3. Hemichordata 4. Arthropoda
nutrient absorption.
Maintains the internal balance of electrolytes within the The forebrain of the frog is responsible for which of the
4.
bloodstream. 184
following functions?
178 In which muscle tissue do cell junctions fuse the plasma 1. Sensory processing and coordination of motor activities.
membranes of the cells to allow simultaneous contraction as a 2. Regulation of blood pressure and heart rate.
coordinated unit? Interpreting olfactory signals and initiating voluntary
3.
1. Skeletal muscle tissue movements.
2. Smooth muscle tissue 4. Maintaining equilibrium and balance during motion.
3. Cardiac muscle tissue
4. Neuroglial tissue

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185 Which of the following is unique to reptiles? 188 The rasping tongue like organ used in the following
1. External fertilization biological process is called as:
2. Four-chambered heart in all species
3. Gills for respiration throughout life
4. Dry, cornified skin with epidermal scales

Biology II - Section B
186 Consider the given two statements:
Cartilaginous fishes have a bony endoskeleton
Statement I:
and gills covered by an operculum.
They are cold-blooded and must swim
Statement II: continuously to avoid sinking due to the
absence of an air bladder.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

187 Consider the given two statements:

The tegmina in cockroaches are opaque and
Statement I:
leathery, covering the hindwings at rest.
The forewings are used for flight in
Statement II:
cockroaches.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 1. Ospharidium

2. Radula
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Solenocyte
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 4. Statocyst
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
189 Consider the given two statements:
The crop in a cockroach is involved in the
Statement I:
mechanical grinding of food.
The gizzard in a cockroach has chitinous teeth
Statement II:
for grinding food particles.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is True, Statement II is False.
4. Statement I is False, Statement II is True.

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 NEET Level Test - 13- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

190 Consider the given two statements: 193 The structure shown in the given figure will be a part of
Arthropods have an exoskeleton made of the histology of:
Statement I: chitin and segmented bodies with jointed
appendages.
Arthropods use gills or book lungs for
Statement II: respiration, and they have a closed circulatory
system.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

191 Consider the given two statements:

Sponges have a cellular level of organization,
Statement I: with water entering the body through ostia and
exiting through the osculum.
Statement II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion. 1. Cartilage
2. Striated muscle
3. Cardiac muscle
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Bone
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 194 Consider the given two statements:
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct Frogs have a cloaca that serves as a common
Assertion(A): opening for the digestive, excretory, and
192 Consider the given two statements: reproductive systems.
The heart of a frog allows for the complete The cloaca stores digestive enzymes and
Assertion(A): separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated Reason (R): excretes them into the intestine to aid in
blood. digestion.
Frogs have three-chambered hearts,
Reason(R):
consisting of two atria and one ventricle. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the correct
1. 2.
explanation of (A). explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2.
explanation of (A). 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 195 Consider the given two statements:
In Platyhelminthes, the digestive system is
Assertion (A):
incomplete.
Platyhelminthes have a single opening that
Reason (R):
functions as both mouth and anus.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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 NEET Level Test - 13- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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196 Consider the given two statements: 199 Consider the given two statements:
The cockroach exhibits mosaic vision, which Birds are characterized by their pneumatic
Assertion (A): Statement I:
is more sensitive but has less resolution. (hollow) bones and a four-chambered heart.
Mosaic vision is facilitated by multiple Birds are cold-blooded and possess air sacs
Statement II:
Reason (R): ommatidia present in the compound eyes of that supplement their respiration.
cockroaches.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
1.
explanation of (A). 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column
200
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
II and select the best match from the codes given:
Consider the given two statements: Column I (Common Column II (Biological
197 Name) Name)
Assertion (A): All chordates are vertebrates. A. Flying Fish P. Pterophyllum
Chordates are characterized by the presence B. Sea Horse Q. Exocoetus
of a notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord, and C. Rohu R. Hippocampus
Reason (R):
pharyngeal gill slits at some stage of their life
D. Angel Fish S. Labeo
cycle.
Codes:
Options A B C D
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 1 Q R S P
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2 R S P Q
2.
explanation of (A). 3 P Q R S
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4 S P Q R
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

198 Match each item in Column I with one item in Column Fill OMR Sheet*
II and select the best match from the codes given:
Column I (Common Column II (Biological *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
Name) Name) where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
A. Sea Anemone P. Aurelia
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
for the questions in the test.
B. Comb Jelly Q. Adamsia
C. Sea Fan R. Pleurobrachia
D. Jellyfish S. Gorgonia
Codes:
Options A B C D CLICK HERE to get
1 Q R S P
2 S Q R P FREE ACCESS for 2
3
4
Q
R
S
P
R
Q
P
S days of ANY
NEETprep course

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