Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-A 5. Each side of a cubic box made of metal sheet

is 'a' at room temperature 'T '. The coefficient of
1. Hydrogen gas is contained in a vessel and the linear expansion of the metal sheet is 'α'. The
RMS speed of the gas molecules is v. The gas is metal sheet is heated uniformly by a small
heated isobarically so that its volume doubles, temperatureΔT so that its new temperature is
then it is compressed isothermally so that it T + ΔT . Calculate the coefficient of volume
returns to the same volume. The final RMS expansion of the metal sheet:
speed of the molecules will be: 1. α
1. 2v 2. v/2 2. 2α
3. 3α
3. v √2 4. v / √2 4. 4α

6. An electromagnetic waveform which has an

2. A toy car with charge q moves on a → = E0 [^ı cos(ωt − kz) + ^ȷ cos(
electric field given by: E
frictionless horizontal plane surface under the
influence of a uniform electric field E.→ Due to and the waveform propagates. The maximum
electric field has the magnitude:
the force qE,→ its velocity increases from 0 to E0
1.
6 m/s in a one-second duration. At that instant, √2
√
the direction of the field is reversed. The car 2. 2 E0
continues to move for two more seconds under 3. Eo
the influence of this field. The average velocity 4. 2Eo
and the average speed of the toy car between 0
to 3 seconds are respectively: 7. Two thermally conducting rods of the same
1. 2 m/s, 4 m/s dimensions are connected end-to-end, and one
2. 1 m/s, 3 m/s of them has twice the conductivity of the other.
3. 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s The free ends of the rods are at 0∘ C and 100∘ C
4. 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s as shown in the figure. The temperature at the
joint will be, in the steady-state:
3. The motion of a particle is given by
S = 1 + 4t − 2t2 . The distance travelled by the
particle during t = 0 to t = 2 seconds will be:
1. 0 unit 2. 2 unit 1. 50∘ C
3. 4 unit 4. 3 unit 2. 33∘ C (nearly)
∘
3. 67 C (nearly)
∘
4. 75 C
4. Given that the displacement of a particle is
given by, 8. Raindrops are falling vertically downward at
2 2
x = A sin kt a constant speed of 4 m/s. A man running
where t denotes the time. The unit of k is: forward at 4 m/s observes the raindrops
1. hertz falling with a velocity of:
2. metre 1. 8 m/s 2. 0 m/s
3. radian 4
4. second 3. 4√2 m/s 4. m/s
√2

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

9. Match List-I with List-II and choose the 12. Which of the following relations does not
correct option: give the equation of an adiabatic process,
List-I List-II where terms have their usual meaning?
1−γ γ
Isothermal 1. P T = constant
(a) (i) Pressure constant γ
2. P V = constant
process
γ−1
Temperature 3. T V = constant
(b) Isochoric process (ii) γ 1−γ
constant 4. P T = constant
Adiabatic
(c) (iii) Volume constant 13. From the velocity-time (v-t) plot shown in
process
Heat content is the figure, what is the distance travelled by the
(d) Isobaric process (iv) particle during the first 40 s?
constant

1. (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv)

2. (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)
3. (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)
4. (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv)

10. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a

charge of 3.2 × 10−7 C distributed uniformly.
What is the magnitude of the electric field at a
point 15 cm from the center of the sphere?
1. zero
1
= 9 × 109 N-m2 /C2 2. 100 m
4πε0 3. 150 m
5
1. 1.28 × 10 N/C 4. 200 m
2. 1.28 × 106 N/C
14. The electrostatic potential measured at a
3. 1.28 × 107 N/C
4 point along the axis of a dipole is 3 V. If the
4. 1.28 × 10 N/C measurement is taken at a point that is twice as
far, along the same axis, then the potential will
11. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length L be:
suspended below a balloon of mass M . The 1. 6 V
balloon is stationary with respect to the ground. 2. 1.5 V
If the man begins to climb up the rope at 3. 0.75 V
→ 4. 0.375 V
velocity v rel (relative to rope), in what
direction and with what speed (relative to
ground) will the balloon move?
→ → m
1. V =v rel
M
→ →
2. V = − m v rel
M
→ →
3. V = − m v rel
(m+M)
→ m →
4. V = + v rel
(m+M)

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

15. A parallel plate air capacitor which has a 19. The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic
capacitance C0 is half-filled with a dielectric of field and electric field intensity of a plane
dielectric constant K1 and the other half is electromagnetic wave in free space of
filled with a dielectric constant K2 , as shown in permeability μ0 and permittivity ε0 is:
the figure. The capacitance of the capacitor is: (Given that c = velocity of light in free space)
1. c
1
2.
c
c
3.
√μ0 ε0
1
1. (K1 +K2 ) C0 2. 2 (K1 +K2 ) C0 √μ0 ε0
1
4.
3. 2 (K1 +K2 ) C0 4. 2 (K1 +K2 −2) C0 c
20. When light propagates through a material
medium of relative permittivity, εr and relative
16. Raindrops fall from the sky making an angle permeability, μ the velocity of light, v is given
∘ r
of 30 with the vertical. If a man runs at 2 m/s,
by:
he finds that the drops fall vertically. If he were
(c = velocity of light in vacuum)
to run in the opposite direction with the same c
speed, the raindrops will fall with a vertical 1. v =
speed of: √εr μr
1. 2 m/s 2. v = c
μr
3. v = √
2. 4 m/s
3. 2√3 m/s εr
4. 4√3 m/s εr
4. v =√
μr
17. Dimensions of stress are:
1. [ML2 T−2 ] 21. Consider a uniform beam AB, which is
being pulled by a horizontal force F applied at
2. [ML T−2 ]
0
the end A, so that it is accelerated uniformly.
3. [ML T−2 ]
−1 The cross-section of the beam is A. Let the
stress at the ends A, B be SA , SB and that at
4. [MLT ] the centre C be SC . Then:
−2

18. The angle between the electric lines of force

and the equipotential surface is: SA = zero, SB = maximum,
∘
1. 180 1.
SC = intermediate
∘
2. 0
3. 45
∘ S = maximum, SB = 0,
2. A
4. 90
∘ SC = intermediate
3. SA = SB = maximum, SC = zero
4. SA = SB = SC = constant throughout

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

22. A thermodynamic system undergoes a 26. Given below are two statements:
cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The Gauss's law for electric fields is a
work done by the system in the cycle is: Statement I: consequence of the conservation
of energy.
Coulomb's law for electric
Statement II: charges leads to a conservative
electric field.
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
1.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
1. P0 V0 Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4.
2. 2P0 V0 incorrect.
P0 V0
3. 2
4. zero 27. A boat, when rowed perpendicular to the
flow of a 500 m wide river, reaches its opposite
23. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. bank in 10 min. If the boat is rowed
If it is subjected to uniform pressure P , the downstream at an angle of 30∘ with the flow, it
fractional decrease in radius is: will cross in:
B
1. 3P 1. 10 min 2. 5√3 min
3P 10
2. B
3. 20 min 4. min
P
3. 3B √3
P
4. B
28. An open doorway connects two identical
24. The dopant that can be used to produce p- rooms in a house. The temperature in the two
type semiconductors is: rooms is maintained at two different values. It
1. Arsenic 2. Aluminium can be safely inferred that:
3. Antimony 4. Phosphorus The room with a higher temperature
1.
contains more amount of air.
The room with a lower temperature contains
2.
25. In the given circuit, A, B and C are the more amount of air.
inputs and Y is the output. Then Y is: Both the rooms contain the same amount of
3.
air.
The room with higher pressure contains
4.
more amount of air.

1. high for all the low inputs.

2. high when A = 1, B = 1, C= 0.
3. low when A = 0, B = 0, C = 1.
4. low for all low inputs.

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

29. A body B heats up when thermally 33. The dimensions of the ratio of pressure to
connected to A, while it cools down when the elastic modulus is:
thermally connected to C. Taking temperatures 1. [ML−2 ]
of A, B, C as θA , θB and θC , one can conclude: 2. [LT −2 ]
θA +θC θA −θC 3. [L2 ]
1. θB = 2. θB =
2 2 4. [M 0 L0 T 0 ] (dimensionless)
3. θB > θA > θC 4. θA > θB > θC
34. What is the unit of the quantity represented
(Angular momentum)
30. If two trains are moving in opposite by:
(electric charge)2
directions and they have a relative velocity of
1. Ω (ohm)
100 km/h, their individual velocities cannot 2. s/m
be: 3. H (henry)
1. less than 50 km/h 4. F (farad)
2. greater than 50 km/h
35. Surface tension is the force per unit length,
3. less than 100 km/h
acting on a line which is attached to the free
4. greater than 100 km/h surface of a liquid. The dimensions of surface
tension are:
1. [ML2 T −2 ]
31. The n-side of the depletion layer of a p-n 2. [ML−2 T −2 ]
junction:
3. [M −1 L−1 T −1 ]
1. always has the same width as the p-side
4. [MT −2 ]
2. has no bound charges
3. is negatively charged
4. is positively charged Physics-Section-B
36. The axial electric field of a dipole (moment:
p) equals that of a point charge (charge: Q);
32. Which of the following graphs correctly both at the same distance r. Then:
p
represents the variation of β = − (
dV
) /V 1. r = Q
dP p
with P for an ideal gas at constant 2. r = 2Q
temperature? 2p
3. r =
Q
Q
4. r =
1. 2. 2p

3. 4.

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

37. Consider a parallel plate capacitor 40. A metal wire is first stretched beyond its
connected across the terminals of a battery. elastic limit and then released. It:
Now a dielectric slab (of dielectric constant k) is lost its elastic property completely and it will
introduced in between the plates so as to 1. not contract.
completely fill in the space between the plates. 2. will contract to its original length.
The new value of electrostatic energy in steady
3. will contract to its length at elastic limit.
state is:
1. k times will contract but the final length will be
4.
1 greater than the original length.
2. times
k
3. same as the earlier value
4. infinite 41. Given below are two statements:
In an ideal gas, all the molecules
38. Match List-I with List-II. Statement I: move with the same rms speed
but in different directions.
List-I List-II
The molecules of an ideal gas
Gravitational constant (
(a) (i) [L2 T −2 ] Statement II:
undergo random elastic
G) collisions with the walls of the
Gravitational potential container.
(b) (ii) [M −1 L3 T −2 ]
energy
−2
(c) Gravitational potential (iii) [LT] Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
1.
(d) Gravitational intensity (iv) [ML T −2 ]
2 correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
correct.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
1. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 4.
incorrect.
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) ∘
42. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 60
with the horizontal, with a speed of 20 m/s.
The horizontal component of its velocity:
39. An electromagnetic wave given by: 1. increases with time
E→ = E0 (^i + ^j) sin(ωt − kz) 2. decreases with time
→
is travelling in space, where E is the electric 3. first increases and then decreases
field at (x, y, z) at time t. The amplitude of the 4. remains constant
electric field is:
1. E0 2. √2E0
E0 43. Which of the following, is dimensionless?
3. 2E0 4. pressure density×pressure
√2 1. density×acceleration 2. speed
viscosity×speed surface tension
3. 4. (speed)2
surface tension

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

44. Starting from the origin at time t = 0, with 47. During an experiment, an ideal gas is
^ 3
an initial velocity 5 j ms , a particle moves in observed to obey the law: P V = constant, as
−1

the x-y plane with a constant acceleration of the process is conducted. If the volume of the
gas doubles during this process, the absolute
10^i + 4^j ms−2 . At time t, its coordinates are temperature of the gas changes from T to:
(20 m, y0 m). The value of t is: T
1. 2 s 1. 2T 2.
2. 4 s 2
3. 6 s T
3. 4T 4.
4. 8 s 4

45. A body sliding on a smooth inclined plane

requires 4 s to reach the bottom starting from 48. Let nh , ne be the number of holes and
rest at the top. How much time does it take to electrons in a sample of silicon (Si) doped with
cover one-fourth the distance starting from rest phosphorous (P). Then:
at the top? 1. nh = ne
1. 1 s
2. nh > ne
2. 2 s
3. 4 s 3. ne > nh
4. 16 s any of the above may be true depending on
4.
the temperature of the sample.
∘
46. The line AB makes a 45 angle with the x-
axis, but it moves along the negative y-axis with
a speed of 1 m/s. The velocity, of the 49. When radiant energy from a blackbody at
intersection (C) of AB with x-axis, is: temperature T , is analysed, and the most
probable wavelength of the radiation is λmp ,
then:
1. λmp ∝ T
1
2. λmp ∝
T
3. λmp ∝ T 1/2
4. λmp ∝ T -1/2
1. 1 m/s along the positive x-axis 50. The breaking stress in two wires of different
2. 1 m/s along the negative x-axis materials A, B are in
1 SA 1
3. m/s along the positive x-axis
the ratio: = , while their radii are in the
SB 2
√2 rA 1
1 ratio: = . The tensions under which
rB 2
4. m/s along the negative x-axis TA
√2 they break are TA and TB . Then =?
TB
1. 2
1
2.
4
1
3.
8
1
4.
2 √2

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry-Section-A 55. Consider the following reaction :

aCu + bHNO3 → cCu(NO3 )2 + dNO + eH2 O
51. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable The values of a, b, and e in the reaction are,
than a secondary butyl carbocation because- respectively:
1. + R effect of CH 3 groups 1. 3, 8 and 4
2. −R effect of − CH3 groups 2. 5, 2 and 8
3. Hyperconjugation 3. 5, 2 and 16
4. −l effect of −CH3 groups 4. 2, 5 and 8

52. Match column I (parameters) with column II 56. How many structural isomers are possible
(expressions) and mark the appropriate choice: for the compound having molecular
Column I Column II formula C3H5Br3?
(Parameters) (Expressions) 1. 5
5.29×n2 2. 4
(A) Uncertainty of an object (i) 3. 6
Z
h
(B) Bohr's radius of an orbit (ii) 4πm 4. 8

The angular momentum h 57. Electrophiles involved in the nitration

(C) (iii) mv
of an electron process of benzene is:
(D) de Broglie wavelength
h
(iv) n. 2π 1. NO−3 2. NO−
2
+
3. NO 2 4. HNO 3
1. (A)→(iii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D)→(ii)
2. (A)→(ii), (B)→(i), (C)→(iv), (D)→(iii)
3. (A)→(iv), (B)→(iii), (C)→(i), (D)→(ii) 58. Match the laws given in Column I
4. (A)→(i), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iv), (D)→(iii) (parameters) with the expressions given in
Column II (formula) and mark the appropriate
53. The energy of the second Bohr orbit in the H choice.
atom is –3.41 eV. The energy of the second Bohr
Column II
orbit of He+ ion would be: Column I
(Expressions)
1. –0.85 eV
(A) Raoult’s law (1) ΔTf = Kf m
2. –13.6 eV
3. –1.70 eV (B) Henry's law (2) p = KH ⋅ X
4. –6.82 eV Elevation of
(C) (3) p = x1 p0 1 + x2 p0 2
boiling point
54. Consider the following reaction. Depression in
Na2O + H2O → A (D) (4) ΔTb = Kb m
freezing point
Cl2O7 + H2O → B
The product A and B are respectively:
1. A is NaOH; and B is HOCl 1. A-3,B-2,C-1,D-4,
2. A is NaH; and B is HOCl 2. A-3,B-2,C-4,D-1
3. A is NaH; and B is HClO2 3. A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4,
4. A-2,B-3,C-4,D-1,
4. A is NaOH; and B is HClO4

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

59. The correct structure of tribromo octoxide 62. The products A and B in the following
is: reaction are, respectively:

1.

1.

2.

2.

3.
3.

4. 4.

63. The vapour pressure of a solution is 2% less

60. The maximum number of atoms is present than the vapour pressure of pure water. The
in which of the following - molality of the solution is approximately
1. 1 g of Mg(s) 1. 0.92
2. 1 g of O2 (g) 2. 1.11
3. 1 g of Li(s) 3. 1.26
4. 1 g of Ag(s) 4. 1.52

61. Which of the following contains the greatest 64. The pair of structures that does not
number of nitrogen atoms ? represent isomers is:
1. 500 ml of 2.0 M NH3
2. One mole of NH4 Cl
23 1. 2.
3. 6. 02 × 10 molecules of NO2 gas
4. 22.4 litres of N2 gas at 0ºC and 1 atm.

3. 4.

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

65. A hydrocarbon has the molecular formula 70. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr
C5H8 . On ozonolysis, it gives formaldehyde & 2- orbit of H atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy
keto propanal only. The name of hydrocarbon value (s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in
is: Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are):
1. 2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene 1. –3.4 eV
2. 3-Methylbut-1-yne 2. –4.2 eV
3. 3-Methylbuta-1,2-diene 3. –6.8 eV
4. 2-Methylbut-2-ene 4. +6.8 eV

66. A non-ideal solution was prepared by 71. According to the periodic law of elements,
mixing 30 mL chloroform and 50 mL acetone. the variation in properties of elements is
The volume of the mixture will be: related to their:
1. >80 mL 1. Atomic masses
2. <80 mL 2. Nuclear mass
3. =80 mL 3. Atomic numbers
4. ≥80 mL 4. Nuclear neutron-proton number ratio

67. Match the underlined atom in a compound 72. Which of the following aqueous solutions
given in Column I with the oxidation states exhibits the highest boiling point?
given in Column II and mark the appropriate 1. 1.0 M NaOH 2. 1.0 M Na2 SO4
choice. 3. 1.0 M NH4 NO3 4. 1.0 M KNO3
Column I Column II
(A) NaBH4 (i) –1
(B) CHCl3 (ii) +3 73. C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at
(C) CaO2 (iii) +2 which a solution of 10 g of C4H10 in 200 g of
C6H6 will freeze is:
(D) O2F2 (iv) +1
(The molal freezing point depression constant
of C6H6 is 5.12°C/m.)
1. (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
1. 2 °C
2. (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
2. 1 °C
3. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
3. 6 °C
4. (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
4. 5 °C
68. Theoxidation number of 'P' in
74. The oxidation state of Mo in Ammonium
Ca(H2 P O2 )2 will be:
phosphomolybdate is:
1. –1 2. 0 1. +5
3. +1 4. +3 2. +4
3. +6
4. +3
69. Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the
following is : 75. If uncertainty in position and momentum
1. n=4,l=3, m1 =-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms=-1/2 are both equal, then uncertainty in velocity will
2. n=5, l=2, m1 =-2, -1, +1, +2, ms=+1/2 be:
1. 2m √ π
3. n=4, l=2, m1 = -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, ms=-1/2 1 h
4. n=5,l=3, m1 =-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms=+1/2
2. √ 2π
h

3. m √ π
1 h

h
4. π

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

76. What is the mass of precipitate formed 80. Major product of the reaction is:
when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is
mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag =
107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na= 23, Cl = 35.5)
1. 28 g
2. 3.5 g
3. 7 g
4. 14 g
1. 2,4- Dinitrophenol
77. 2. 3,4-Dinitrophenol
xCl2 + y NaOH ⟶ zNaCl + a NaClO3 + bH23.O2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
x+y 4. 3,4,5-Trinitrophenol
The ratio of z+a+b will be:
1. 1 2. 2 81. Among the given, the best reaction
3. 2.5 4. 3 sequence to convert 2-methyl-1-bromopropane
into 4-methyl-2-bromopentane is:
(i) Mg in ether (ii) acetaldehyde (iii) H+, H2O
1.
78. The most stable carbocation among the iv) ∆
following is: (i) NaC≡CH in ether (ii) H2, Lindlar catalyst
2.
(iii) HBr, no peroxide
1. 2. (i) NaC≡CH in ether (ii) H3O+ + HgSO4 (iii)
3.
HBr, heat
4. None of the above
3. 4.

82. To neutralize 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous

solution of phosphorus acid (H3 P O3 )
completely, the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH
79. The first, second, and third ionization
solution required is:
energies for strontium are 549.5 kJ/mol, 1064.2
kJ/mol, and 4138 kJ/mol respectively. The third 1. 10 mL 2. 20 mL
ionization energy is so much higher than the 3. 40 mL 4. 60 mL
first two ionization energies because:
The third electron is being removed from a
1. 83. The molarity of the solution obtained by
completely filled sub-shell.
The third electron has a larger mass than the adding 5 grams of NaOH to 200 ml of water is:
2. 1. 1.043 M
first two electrons being removed.
2. 1.725 M
The third electron being removed is less
3. 0.825 M
3. attracted to the nucleus than the first two
4. 0.625 M
electrons.
The third electron is at a higher energy level 84. Element which has the lowest ionisation
4.
than the first two electrons. potential among the following is:
1. C
2. Si
3. Sn
4. Pb

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 Custom Practice Test - 07-Sep
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

85. Choose the option containing all 90. Xylene, on oxidation with acidic KMnO4 ,
isoelectronic species: gives:
1. N 3− , O2− , F , Na 1. Phthalic acid 2. Isophthalic acid
−2 − 2+
2. S , Cl , K+ , Ca 3. Terephthalic acid 4. All of the above
3. NH3 , CH4 , PF5 , Na+
+
4. Ne, Na , F, N3−
91. Which of the following compounds has the
same empirical formula as that of glucose?
Chemistry-Section-B 1. CH3 CHO
86. When an excess of Cl2 reacts with CH4 in the 2. CH3 COOH
presence of sunlight, the major product formed 3. CH3 OH
is: 4. C2 H6
1. CH3 Cl
2. CH2 Cl2 92. Which metal exhibits more than one
3. CHCl3 oxidation states?
1. Na
4. CCl4
2. Mg
3. Al
87. The correct order of 3rd ionisation
4. Fe
potential of Na , Mg, Al and Si will be:
1. Si > Al > Mg > Na
93. The azimuthal quantum number
2. Mg > Si > Al > Na
characterizes:
3. Mg > Na > Si > Al
1. e/m ratio of electron
4. Na > Mg > Si > Al
2. Spin of electron
3. Angular momentum of the electron
88. Ratio of the number of atoms in 4g CH4 and
4. Magnetic momentum of the electron
3g NH3 is:
68 85 94. An aqueous solution containing 1 g of urea
1. 2.
48 48 boils at 100.25 °C. The aqueous solution
48 48 containing 3 g of glucose in the same volume
3. 4. will boil at:
68 65 1. 100.75 °C
2. 100.5 °C
3. 100 °C
89. 4. 100.25 °C
Statement The electronegativity of any given
I: element is not constant.
Electronegativity varies depending
Statement
on the element to which it is
II:
bound.
In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
Statement l is incorrect but Statement ll is
1.
correct.
2. Both Statements l and ll are correct.
3. Both Statements l and ll are incorrect.
Statement l is correct but Statement ll is
4.
incorrect.

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95. Match the compounds in column I with the 99. The correct statement among the following
oxidation state of Cl in column II. is:
Column I Column II 1. The number of orbitals in nth shell is n2 .
a. Cl2O7 i. +4 2. The number of orbitals in a subshell is
(2l − 1).
b. NaClO3 ii. +1
3. The number of subshells in nth shell is
c. Cl2O iii. +5 (n + l).
d. ClO2 iv. +7 4. The number of electrons in a shell is
Options: 2(2l + 1).
a b c d
1. iii iv ii i 100. Mark the correct order of stability of the
given free radicals:
2. ii iii iv i
3. iv iii ii i
4. iv i iii ii

96. The vapour pressure of chloroform and

1. (i) > (ii) > (iii)
ethylene glycol at 400 K is 300 mm Hg and 500
2. (iii) > (i) > (ii)
mm Hg, respectively. The vapour pressure of
3. (ii) > (iii) > (i)
the solution prepared by mixing 50 g of
4. (i) > (iii) > (ii)
chloroform and 25 g of ethylene glycol at 400 K
will be:

1. 397 mm Hg
Biology-I-Section-A
2. 424 mm Hg 101. Consider the given two statements:
3. 229 mm Hg Regarding Down's syndrome,
Assertion
4. 501 mm Hg parents of the affected individual
(A):
are usually genetically normal.
97. The molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous The probability increases from low
Reason
solution of KI is: in 20-year-old mothers to higher in
(R):
–1
(molar mass of KI = 166 g mol ) those of age 45.
1. 1.51
2. 7.35 1. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. 4.08 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
4. 2.48 2.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
98. The principle involved in thin-layer 3. correct explanation of (A)
chromatography is:
4. (A) is False but (R) is True
1. Partition
2. Sublimation
3. Adsorption
4. Solubility

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102. The number of chromosomes in the male 106. Match each item in Column I with one in
and female is/are not equal in: Column II and select the correct match from the
I: Humans codes given:
II: Honeybees Column I Column II
III: Grasshoppers Companion
IV: Drosophila A. P. Absent in most monocots
cells
1. Only II
Albuminous
2. Only I and IV B. Q. Lacking in gymnosperms
cells
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, III and IV Phloem Generally absent in
C. R.
parenchyma primary phloem
103. Regarding the structural organisation of Parenchyma cell adjacent
fungi: D. Phloem fibers S. to the sieve cell in
Their bodies consist of long, slender thread- gymnosperm wood
I: Codes:
like structures called hyphae.
The network of hyphae is known as A B C D
II: 1. Q S P R
mycelium.
Some hyphae are continuous tubes filled 2. S Q R P
III: with multinucleated cytoplasm – these are 3. P R Q S
called coenocytic hyphae. 4. R P S Q
The cell walls of fungi are composed of
IV:
chitin and polysaccharides.
1. Only I, II and III are correct 107. A blood cholesterol lowering agent can be
2. Only I, III and IV are correct isolated from:
3. Only II, III and IV are correct 1. Trichoderma polysporum
4. I, II, III and IV are correct 2. Trichoderma harzianum
3. Monascus purpureus
104. An example of colonial alga is: 4. Penicillium notatum
1. Volvox 2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra 4. Chlorella 108. Organisms belonging to the same Class in
taxonomic hierarchy must also belong to the
same:
105. In dicot roots, initiation of lateral roots 1. Order
takes place in the cells of: 2. Family
1. Endodermis 3. Genus
2. Pericycle 4. Phylum
3. Epiblema
4. Hypodermis 109. Which vitamin, important for effective
erythropoiesis, is added by LAB when it is used
to convert milk into curd?
1. Vitamin D
2. Vitamin A
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin E

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110. It is possible to store pollen grains of a 116. All the following will be true for
large number of species for years in liquid Trichoderma spp. except:
nitrogen at: It is being developed as a biological control
1.
1. 4° C 2. 0° C agent.
3. - 100°C 4. - 196° C 2. It is a fungicide.
It lives in symbiosis with roots of vascular
3.
plants.
111. Each taxonomic group/category: 4. It is very common in the root ecosystems.
I. is merely a morphological aggregate
II. is a distinct biological entity
III. represents a rank
117. The number of species that are known and
1. Only II is correct described range between:
2. Only II and III are correct 1. 0.8 and 1.0 million
3. I, II and III are correct 2. 1.0 and 1.2 million
4. Only III is correct 3. 1.5 and 1.7 million
4. 7.0 and 8.0 million
112. Diatomaceous earth is used as a heat
insulator in boilers and steam pipes because 118. Which one of the following is true for
the cell wall of diatom is fungi?
1. Composed of iron 1. They lack a rigid cell wall
2. Composed of silicon dioxide 2. They are heterotrophs
3. a good conductor of heat 3. They lack nuclear membrane
4. a bad conductor of electricity 4. They are phagotrophs

113. For the organisation of the typical female 119. Study the Assertion statement followed by
gametophyte or embryo sac how many of the the Reason statement given below:
nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and Paramoecium and Amoeba,
organised into cells: which were earlier placed in the
1. 6 2. 7 animal kingdom which lack cell
Assertion(A):
3. 8 4. 4 wall, are placed under Kingdom
Protista in Whittaker’s
Classification.
114. The cell wall of the cells of an alga has The unicellular eukaryotic
cellulose and algin. Another feature expected in Reason(R): organisms are placed in
this alga would be: Kingdom Protista in Whittaker’s
Classification.
1. Floridean starch as stored food
2. Phycoerythrin in addition to chlorophyll a, c
1. (A) is true and (R) is false.
3. 2, unequal, lateral flagellar insertions
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a correct
4. Polysulphate esters in cell wall 2.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
3.
correct explanation of (A).
115. What will be the ploidy of endosperm of a
seed produced after crossing tetraploid female 4. (A) is false and (R) is true.
plant with tetraploid male plant?
1. Pentaploid
2. Hexaploid
3. Diploid
4. Triploid

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120. 124. How many of the given statements are

In grasses, certain adaxial true?
Statement epidermal cells along the veins When stamens are attached to the petals,
A:
I: modify themselves into large, they are epipetalous as in brinjal
empty, colourless bulliform cells. When stamens are attached to the perianth,
B:
When the bulliform cells in the they are epiphyllous as in lily
Statement leaves have absorbed water and The stamens may be united into one bunch
II: are turgid, the leaf surface is C: or one bundle (monadelphous) as in China
exposed. rose
There may be a variation in the length of
Statement I is correct; Statement II is D: filaments within a flower, as in Salvia and
1.
correct mustard
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 1. 1
2.
incorrect 2. 2
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 3. 3
3. 4. 4
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. 125. Genetics deals with:
incorrect
the process by which characters are passed
I:
on from parent to progeny.
121. Which of the following statement is not II: the degree by which progeny differ from
true for stomatal apparatus? their parents.
Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts 1. Only I
1. 2. Only II
and mitochondria
Guard cells are always surrounded by 3. Both I and II
2. 4. Neither I nor II
subsidiary cells
3. Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange
126. Two organisms belonging to the same
4. Inner walls of guard cells are thick order may not belong to the same:
1. Class 2. Phylum
3. Family 4. Kingdom
122. The correct chronological sequence
[beginning from the earliest] with respect to
fungal sexual cycle will be:
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis 127. Consider the following statements:
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants
I:
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis to possess vascular bundles.
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy Main plant body in pteridophytes is
II: sporophyte which is differentiated into true
123. Identify the correct match: stem and leaves.
Racemose Main axis terminates in a Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are
1. III:
inflorescence flower heterosporous.
Cymose Flowers borne in
2. Which of the above statements are true?
Inflorescence basipetal succession
1. I and II only
Hypogynous
3. Ovary is inferior 2. I and III only
flower
3. II and III only
4. Epigynous flower Ovary is superior 4. I, II and III

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128. Moss peat is used as a packing material for 133. Find the incorrect statement/s
sending flowers and live plants to distant places Flocs are masses of anaerobic bacteria
because: a:
associated with fungal filaments
1. it is easily available BOD gets reduced significantly when the
2. it is hygroscopic b: secondary treatment is done using aerobic
3. it reduces transpiration microbes
4. it serves as a disinfectant
Activated sludge can be sedimented only
c:
after anaerobic digestion of sewage
129. The given floral formula represents plants
belonging to the family: Mixture of gases is released during aerobic
d:
digestion of sewage

1. a, b, c & d
2. Only c
1. Gramineae 2. Malvaceae 3. All, except b
3. Cruciferae 4. Leguminosae 4. a, b & d

130. The residual persistent part which forms 134. Consider the given two statements:
the perisperm in the seeds of beet is :
Cleistogamous flowers produce
1. Calyx
Assertion: assured seed-set even in the absence
2. Endosperm
of pollinators.
3. Nucellus
4. Integument Cleistogamous flowers are
Reason:
invariably autogamous.
131. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and
establish without fungal association. This is Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
because: Reason explains Assertion
1. its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent Both Assertion and Reason are true and
2.
germination. Reason does not explain Assertion
2. its embryo is immature. 3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
3. it has an obligate association with 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
mycorrhizae.
4. it has a very hard seed coat.
135. Which of the following is matched
132. How many of the given pairs are correctly
incorrectly:
matched?
a. Mangifera: indica
A: Actinomorphic flower Pea b. Panthera: tuberosum
B: Zygomorphic flower Mustard c. Solanum: melongena
C: Asymmetric flower Canna d. Solanum: nigrum
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

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Biology-I-Section-B
140. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II regarding Cycas and select the
136. Endosperm development precedes embryo correct match from the codes given:
development. Why? Column I
Column II
1. Endosperm is triploid tissue in angiosperms. [Feature of
[Description]
Endosperm can be free nuclear or cellular Cycas]
2. A Root symbiont P Mycorrhiza
type.
Endosperm contains growth factors B Leaves Q Cyanobacteria
3. necessary to induce dormancy if conditions C Stems R Palmate, fall early
are unfavourable. Pinnate, persist for few
S
Endosperm cells are filled with reserve food years
4. materials and are used for the nutrition of T Unbranched
the developing embryo. U Branched
Codes:
A B C
137. Study the Assertion statement followed by
the Reason statement given below: 1. Q S T
Parthenocarpy is undesirable in 2. Q S U
Assertion (A): 3. Q R T
nut crops, such as pistachio.
The seed is the edible part in 4. P S U
Reason (R):
nut crops.

1. (A) is False, (R) is False. 141. Lady beetles, and in particular their
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is a larvae, are voracious predators of:
2. 1. Aphids 2. Mosquito
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not a 3. Spider mites 4. Nematodes
3.
correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False, (R) is True.
142. Consider the given two statements:
Although Mendel published his
138. In angiosperms, which cell divides Assertion work on inheritance of characters
mitotically to produce male gametes? (A): in 1865 but it remained
unrecognised till 1900.
1. Pollen mother cell 2. Generative cell
In 1900, three Scientists, Avery,
3. Vegetative cell 4. Central cell
Reason Macleod, McCarty, independently
(R): rediscovered Mendel’s results on
the inheritance of characters.
139. Hyphae, that are continuous tubes filled
with multinucleated cytoplasm, are seen in the
members of: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
1. Ascomycetes correct explanation of (A).
2. Phycomycetes Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
3. Deuteromycetes correct explanation of (A).
4. Basidiomycetes 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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143. The most thoroughly studied of the known 146. In pea and bean flowers, there are five
bacteria-plant interactions is the: petals, the largest (A) overlaps the two lateral
petals (B) which in turn overlap the two
Gall formation on certain angiosperms by smallest anterior petals (C); this type of
1. aestivation is known as (D).
Agrobacterium
Nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen- A B C D
2.
fixing bacteria 1. Glume Wings Keel valvate
Plant growth stimulation by phosphate– 2. Standard Wings Keel Valvate
3.
solubilising bacteria 3. Standard Keel Wings Vexillary
Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic 4. Standard Wings Keel Vexillary
4.
ferns

147. Match each item in Column I with one in

144. Mycoplasma: Column II regarding taxonomic categories of
I: completely lack a cell wall wheat and select the correct match from the
II: are the smallest living cells known codes given:
III: can survive without oxygen Column I Column II
A Family P Monocotyledonae
1. Only I and II are true B Order Q Poaceae
2. Only I and III are true C Class R Angiospermae
3. Only II and III are true D Division S Poales
4. All I, II and III are true Codes:
A B C D
1. S Q R P
145. Ground tissue in plant body consists of: 2. S Q P R
all tissues except epidermis and vascular 3. Q S P R
I:
bundles.
4. Q S R P
simple tissues such as parenchyma,
II:
collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
parenchymatous cells in cortex, pericycle, 148. Consider the given two statements:
III: pith and medullary rays, in the primary Artificial systems of
stems and roots. classification of organisms are
thin-walled chloroplast containing cells Assertion(A):
IV: simple and acceptable to most
called mesophyll in leaves. scientists.
Artificial classification systems
1. Only I and II are correct take into account the
2. Only III and IV are correct Reason (R):
evolutionary relationships
3. I, II, III and IV are correct between living organisms.
4. Only I, III and IV are correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

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149. Gymnosperms lack: 152. Which of the following steps would be

1. Secondary growth most important to check the population growth
2. Vessels in their xylem rate of our country?
3. Albuminous cells 1. Statutory ban on amniocentesis
4. A dominant sporophyte 2. Increasing age of marriage for females
3. Allowing MTP till 28 weeks of pregnancy
150. Consider the given two statements:
Motivating couples for using various
The two alleles of a gene pair are 4.
Statement contraceptive methods
located on homologous sites on
I:
homologous chromosomes.
The pairing and separation of a pair
153. Identify the option where all the given
Statement of chromosomes would lead to the
animals belong to the same Phylum?
II: segregation of a pair of factors they
1. Portuguese man-of-war, Sea anemone, Sea-
carried
pen and Sea-fan
2. Scypha, Fresh water sponge, Bath sponge and
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Brain Coral
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 3. Roundworm, Filaria worm, Hookworm and
2.
incorrect Tapeworm
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 4. King crab, Mosquito, Silkworm and Blood
3. sucking leech
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. 154. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by
correct
Plasmodium:
1. vivax 2. ovale
3. falciparum 4. malariae
Biology-II-Section-A
151. Identify the correct chronological
sequence of the appearance of structures in the 155. The semilunar valves close at the
alimentary canal of frog beginning from the beginning of
mouth: 1. atrial systole 2. atrial diastole
3. ventricular systole 4. ventricular diastole
Buccal cavity → Pharynx → Oesophagus →
1.
Stomach → Intestine → Rectum → Cloaca
Buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Pharynx → 156. The function of the gap junction is to?
2.
Stomach → Intestine → Rectum → Cloaca Perform cementing to keep neighbouring
1.
Buccal cavity → Pharynx → Oesophagus → cells together
3.
Stomach → Intestine → Cloaca → Rectum Facilitate communication between adjoining
Buccal cavity → Oesophagus → Pharynx → cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid
4. 2.
Stomach → Intestine → Cloaca → Rectum transfer of ions, small molecules and some
large molecules
3. Separate two cells from each other
4. Stop substances from leaking across a tissue

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157. During pregnancy: 163. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic
I: menstrual flow does not occur. or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity.
Which of the following statements are correct
the levels of gonadotropins are very high in
II: about IUDs ?
the blood of pregnant females.
1. Only I is correct IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within
(a)
2. Only II is correct the uterus.
3. Both I and II are correct The released copper ions suppress sperm
(b)
4. Both I and II are incorrect motility.
IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the
(c)
158. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve sperm.
Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of
respectively. What will be his Expiratory (d) sperm.
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL? The IUDs require surgical intervention for
1. 2700 mL 2. 1500 mL (e)
their insertion in the uterine cavity.
3. 1700 mL 4. 2200 mL
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
159. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs 1. (a), (d) and (e) only
after a normal expiration averages: 2. (b) and (c) only
1. 1000 mL to 1100 mL. 3. (b) and (d) only
2. 2100 mL to 2300 mL. 4. (d) only
3. 1100 mL to 1200 mL.
4. 2500 mL to 3000 mL. 164. Which of the following is least likely to
cause hallucinations?
1. LSD 2. Cocaine
160. The use of all the following drugs quickly 3. Atropine 4. Paracetamol
reduce the symptoms of allergy except:
1. anti-histamines
2 adrenalin
165. In Cardiac muscle tissue:
3. steroids
4. antibiotics Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes
I:
of cardiac muscle cells
161. Abuse of alkaloids obtained from coca II: Communication junctions allow the cell to
plant, deadly nightshade and Datura can cause: contract as a unit
1. Hallucinations
2. Excessive sleep 1. Only I is correct
3. CNS suppression 2. Only II is correct
4. Hypothyroidism 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
162. Regarding the human kidney:
glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by
1.
the efferent arteriole
166. A cardiovascular centre that can moderate
vasa recta is highly reduced in the cardiac function through the autonomic
2.
juxtamedullary nephrons neural system is located in the:
DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight 1. Pons varoli 2. Medulla oblongata
3.
tube called collecting duct
3. Hypothalamus 4. Cerebrum
columns of Bertini are extensions of medulla
4.
into the cortex

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167. Implantation is the event that leads to the170. An increase in the ventricular pressure
establishment of pregnancy. What structure during ventricular systole leads first to:
gets implanted on the endometrium? 1. closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
1. Morula 2. Blastocyst 2. opening of aortic and pulmonic semilunar
3. Gastrula 4. Teratoma valves
3. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
4. Closure of aortic and pulmonic semilunar
168. According to the Medical Termination of valves
Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017:
171. Radula, a rasping tongue like organ, is
a pregnancy may be terminated on certain
present in many members of:
considered grounds within the first 6 weeks
I: 1. Aschelminthes
of pregnancy on the opinion of one
2. Molluska
registered medical practitioner.
3. Echinodermata
if the pregnancy has lasted more than 6 4. Hemichordata
weeks, but fewer than 12 weeks, two
registered medical practitioners must be of 172. Normal osmolality of body fluids in
II:
the opinion, formed in good faith, that the vertebrates is about 300 mOSML-1. Kidneys can
required ground exist to terminate the produce urine that is hypotonic to blood plasma
pregnancy. are produced. This can happen when:
1. Only I is correct 1. levels of aldosterone are high
2. Only II is correct 2. levels of antidiuretic hormone are high
3. Both I and II are correct 3. levels of antidiuretic hormone are low
4. Both I and II are incorrect 4. plasma concentration of sodium ions are
high
169. How many of the given statements are
correct regarding the timeline of evolution of 173. Consider the given two statements:
different life forms on Earth? Assertion: Natural selection can be regarded as
By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates were ‘differential reproduction’.
I:
formed and active. Reason: Nature selects for fitness.
Jawless fish probably evolved around 350
II:
mya. Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1.
Sea weeds and few plants existed probably Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
III:
around 320 mya. Both Assertion and Reason are true but
The first organisms that invaded land were 2. Reason does not correctly explain the
IV: Assertion.
plants.
V: Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians. 3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
VI: The amphibians evolved into reptiles. 4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. 3
2. 4 174. Darwin finches and Australian marsupials
3. 5 are excellent examples of:
4. 6 1. Saltation
2. Catastrophism
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Anthropogenic artificial selection

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175. Inspiration is initiated by: 179. The permissible use of the technique
1. the contraction of diaphragm amniocentesis is for:
2. the relaxation of diaphragm 1. detecting sex of the unborn foetus
3. the contraction of external intercostals 2. artificial insemination
4. the contraction of internal intercostals
transfer of the embryo into the uterus of a
3.
surrogate mother
176. Match the items given in Column I with
those in Column II and select the correct option 4. detecting any genetic abnormality
given below:
Column I Column II
180. All the following hormones are produced
Tricuspid Between left atrium and
(a) (i) in women only during pregnancy except:
valve left ventricle
1. Oxytocin
Bicuspid Between right ventricle 2. Relaxin
(b) (ii)
valve and pulmonary artery 3. hCG
Semilunar Between right atrium and 4. hPL
(c) (iii)
valve right ventricle
181. You find the skeletal remains of an animal
Options: (a) (b) (c) which show the following features:
1. iii i ii I: It is fully ossified [bony]
II: Long bones are hollow
2. i iii ii
The organism most likely is a:
3. i ii iii 1. Mammal
4. ii i iii 2. Reptile
3. Bird
4. Amphibian
177. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
regarding the morphology of Periplaneta 182. At implantation, which of the following
americana: becomes embedded in the endometrium of the
1. Tegmina Forewings uterus leading to pregnancy?
2. Tergites Ventral sclerites
3. Labrum Upper lip
4. Hypopharynx Tongue 1. 2.

178. Which of the following statements is

correct?
The descending limb of loop of Henle is
1. 3. 4.
impermeable to water.
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
2.
permeable to water.
The descending limb of loop of Henle is
3.
permeable to electrolytes.
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is 183. The human kidneys can produce urine
4. concentrated nearly:
impermeable to water.
1. two times than the initial filtrate formed.
2. four times than the initial filtrate formed.
3. six times than the initial filtrate formed.
4. eight times than the initial filtrate formed.

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184. Consider the given two statements: 187. Consider the two statements regarding the
Evolution can occur if there is structure of nephron in human kidneys:
Assertion: genetic variation within a Glomerulus along with Bowman’s
Statement
population. capsule, is called the malpighian
I:
The meaning of EVOLUTION is body or renal corpuscle.
Reason: descent with modification from The DCTs of many nephrons open
Statement
preexisting species. into a straight tube called
II:
collecting duct.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the 1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is
1. Reason does not correctly explain the incorrect
Assertion. 2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is
2. Assertion is true but Reason is false. correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
3. correct
Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true. incorrect

188. Consider the given two statements:

185. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in Existing living forms share
the alveoli of human lungs? similarities to varying degrees not
1. 40 mm Hg Assertion: only among themselves but also
2. 45 mm Hg with life forms that existed millions
3. 95 mm Hg of years ago.
4. 104 mm Hg
The diversity was always the same
Reason: since creation and will be the same
Biology-II-Section-B in future also.
186. Consider the two statements:
1. (A) is True but (R) is False
ANF mechanism acts as a check
Assertion (A): on the renin-angiotensin 2. (A) is False but (R) is True
mechanism. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
ANF can cause vasodilation correct explanation of (A)
(dilation of blood vessels) and Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
Reason (R): 4.
thereby decrease blood correct explanation of (A)
pressure.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly

1.
explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4.
correctly explain (A).

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189. Consider the two statements: 194. Identify the incorrect statement:
The vascular system of frog The seminiferous tubules of the testis open
Statement I: is well-developed and closed 1. into the vasa efferentia
type. through the rete testis.
Frogs do not have a lymphatic The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open
Statement II:
system. into the epididymis
2.
located along the posterior surface of each
Statement I is correct, Statement II is testis.
1.
correct The epididymis leads to the vas deferens that
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is 3. ascend to the abdomen
2. and loop over the urinary bladder.
correct
Statement I is correct, Statement II is The epididymis receives a duct from the
3. 4. seminal vesicle and opens into
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is the urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
4.
incorrect

195. Select the option including all sexually

190. All of the following will be true for heroin transmitted diseases:
except: 1. Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
1. It is commonly called smack. 2. AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
2. It is chemically diacetylmorphine. 3. Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
3. It is a CNS stimulant. 4. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
4. It is generally taken by snorting and
injection. 196. Which of the following sexually
transmitted infections is completely curable if
191. The action potential is conducted to the diagnosed and treated early?
ventricular side by: 1. Hepatitis B 2. Syphilis
1. the AVN and AV bundle. 3. Genital herpes 4. HIV
2. the SAN and Internodal pathway.
3. the SAN and AV bundle.
4. the AVN and Internodal pathway. 197. A sudden and large mutational change
from one generation to the next, potentially
causing single-step speciation is called as:
192. Chondrichthyes: 1. Punctuated equilibrium
are marine animals and have cartilaginous 2. Saltation
1. 3. Allopatric speciation
endoskeleton
2. have a mouth located dorsally 4. Sympatric speciation
have teeth that are modified cycloid or
3. 198. What would be the number of intercostal
ctenoid scales directed backwardly
spaces in the human thoracic cage?
have the capacity to regulate their body
4. 1. 11 2. 12
temperature
3. 6 4. 3

193. Which of the following vaccines has been

produced by recombinant DNA technology? 199. The menstrual bleed is primarily due to
1. Oral polio vaccine the withdrawal of:
2. Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine 1. Oestrogen
3. DPT vaccine 2. Progesterone
4. Hepatitis B vaccine 3. LH
4. FSH

Page: 25
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200. Both heart rate and stroke volume in a

human get doubled during exercise. His cardiac
output will:
1. double 2. become four times
3. become eight times 4. remain the same

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