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JUNE EXAMINATION
GRADE 12

2024

BUSINESS STUDIES

(PAPER 1)

TIME: 2 hours

MARKS: 150

10 pages

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INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions.

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections and covers TWO main topics.

SECTION A: COMPULSORY
SECTION B: Consists of THREE questions.
Answer any TWO of the three questions in this section.
SECTION C: Consists of TWO questions.
Answer any ONE of the two questions in this section.

2. Read the instructions for each question carefully and take note of what is required.

Note that ONLY the answers to the first TWO questions selected in SECTION B and
the answers to the FIRST question selected in SECTION C will be marked.

3. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question
paper. NO marks will be awarded for answers that are numbered incorrectly.

4. Except where other instructions are given, answers must be written in full sentences.

5. Use the mark allocation and the nature of each question to determine the length and
depth of an answer.

6. Use the table below as guide for mark and time allocation when answering each
question.

TIME
SECTION QUESTION MARKS
(minutes)
A: Objective-type questions
1 30 20
COMPULSORY

B: THREE direct/indirect-type 2 40
questions 3 40 70
CHOICE: Answer any TWO. 4 40

C: TWO essay-type questions 5 40

30
CHOICE: Answer any ONE. 6 40

TOTAL 150 120

7. Begin the answer to EACH question on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 1 on a new
page, QUESTION 2 on a new page.

8. You may use a non-programmable calculator.

9. Write neatly and legibly.

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SECTION A (COMPULSORY)

QUESTION 1

1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.
Choose the answer and write only the letter (A – D) next to the question numbers
(1.1.1 to 1.1.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.6 D.

1.1.1 This Act clarifies the transfer of employment contracts between existing and
new employers:

A Employment Equity Act (EEA), 1998 (Act 55 of 1998)

B Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment Act (BBBEE), 2003 (Act
53 of 2003)
C Labour Relations Act (LRA), 1995 (Act 66 of 1995)
D Skills Development Act (SDA), 1998 (Act 97 of 1998)

1.1.2 Trade agreements have prevented Ashkara (Pty) Ltd from importing some
products from other countries. This is a challenge in the … environment.

A technological
B political
C social
D economical

1.1.3 Hanna Manufacturers produces quality furniture in the … sector.

A primary
B tertiary
C social
D secondary

1.1.4 Businesses may use … as a source of internal recruitment to advertise

available vacancies.

A the intranet
B recruitment agencies
C billboards
D the printed media

1.1.5 Blue Sky Builders has a Human Resources department dedicated to skills
training and development. This is an example of … as an element of total
quality management.

A adequate financing and capacity

B continuous skills development
C monitoring and evaluation of quality processes
D continuous improvement to processes and systems
(5 x 2) (10)

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1.2 Complete the following statements by using the word(s) provided in the list
below. Write only the word(s) next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.5) in the
ANSWER BOOK.

ombudsman; control; unemployment insurance; one and a half; placement;

double; debt counsellors; induction; medical aid; assurance

1.2.1 The employees of Senzo Suppliers who work on public holidays will be
paid … of their normal rate.

1.2.2 The National Credit Act, 2005 (Act 34 of 2005) (NCA) ensures that … are
registered to avoid consumer exploitation.

1.2.3 Impala Inc. uses the … procedure when they assign a specific job to a
selected candidate.

1.2.4 Quality … can be obtained if the required standards have been met at
every stage of the process.

1.2.5 The … fund is a compulsory benefit that offers short-term financial

assistance to workers who lose their jobs due to illness.
(5 x 2) (10)

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1.3 Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches a term in COLUMN A.

Write only the letter (A – J) next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.5) in the
ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.3.6 K.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
1.3.1 Job description A the number of goods that satisfy the
needs of customers

1.3.2 Quality B a business combines with or takes

over its distributors

1.3.3 COIDA C encourages businesses to address

the demands for redress directly in
the workplace

1.3.4 Forward vertical integration D ability of goods to meet the specific

needs of customers

1.3.5 BBBEE E describes the duties and

responsibilities of a specific job

F a business combines with or takes

over its suppliers

G promotes collective bargaining in the

workplace

H encourages consultation between

employers and employees

I describes the minimum acceptable

personal qualities/skills/qualifications
needed for a job

J promotes safety in the workplace

(5 x 2) (10)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

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STUDIES 6
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SECTION B

Answer ANY TWO questions in this section.

NOTE: Clearly indicate the QUESTION NUMBER of each question that you choose.
The answer to EACH question must start on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 2
on a NEW page, QUESTION 3 on a NEW page.

QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT

2.1 Name any TWO types of intensive strategies. (2)

2.2 Outline the strategic management process. (6)

2.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

NOLOTHANDU ENTERPRISES (NE)

Noluthandu Enterprises offers various products to prospective clients. They are

struggling to pay off their loan to the bank due to the continued increase in interest
rates. The management noticed that their mission statement is quite old and needs
to be updated.

2.3.1 Quote TWO challenges for NE from the scenario above. (2)

2.3.2 Classify NE's challenges according to the business environments. (2)

Use the table below as a GUIDE to answer QUESTIONS 2.3.1 and 2.3.2.

CHALLENGES ENVIRONMENT
2.3.1 2.3.2
a)
b)

2.4 Explain the rights of employers in terms of the Labour Relations Act (LRA), 1995
(Act 66 of 1995). (6)

2.5 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

ISAAC MANUFACTURERS (IM)

Isaac Manufacturers continuously applies the pillars of BBBEE in the workplace.

IM ensures that transformation is implemented at all levels. This outcome enables
them to obtain a good BEE rating which improves the image of the business.

2.5.1 Identify the BBBEE pillar applied in the scenario above. (2)

2.5.2 Discuss other ways in which IM can apply the pillar identified in
QUESTION 2.5.1. (6)

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2.6 Describe how the following PESTLE factors pose a challenge to businesses:

2.6.1 Legal (4)

2.6.2 Social (4)

2.7 Advise businesses on the steps in strategy evaluation. (6)

[40]

QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATIONS

3.1 State TWO salary determination methods that businesses could apply to
remunerate their employees. (2)

3.2 Outline the selection procedure as a human resource activity. (6)

3.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

EUGENE SOLUTIONS (ES)

Eugene, the manager of ES will be conducting interviews for a vacant position. He

has prepared a set of questions that will be asked during the interviews. Eugene
will strive to make the candidates feel at ease. He has also booked a suitable
venue for the interviews.

3.3.1 Quote TWO roles of Eugene, as the interviewer, before the interview, from
the scenario above. (2)

3.3.2 Explain the purpose of an interview as a human resources activity. (4)

3.4 Elaborate on the meaning of total quality management (TQM). (4)

3.5 Read the scenario below and answer the question that follows.

FLOOR FINESSE CARPENTRY (FFC)

FFC ensures that all departments work together to obtain the same quality
standards. The manager of FFC uses various techniques to improve the quality of
their products.

Identify TWO quality concepts that are applicable to FFC. Motivate your answer by
quoting from the scenario above.

Use the table below as a GUIDE to answer QUESTION 3.5.

QUALITY CONCEPTS MOTIVATIONS

3.5.1
3.5.2 (6)

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3.6 Describe how businesses can apply the PDCA model/steps to improve the quality
of products. (6)

3.7 Discuss the quality indicators of the financial function. (4)

3.8 Advise businesses on the impact of fringe benefits. (6)

[40]

QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS

BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT

4.1 Name any FOUR of Porter's Five Forces model used to analyse the position in
the market. (4)

4.2 Identify the diversification strategy applicable to Morris Manufacturers in EACH

statement below.

4.2.1 Morris Manufacturers extended the products beyond the market in which
it currently operates. (2)

4.2.2 They added new products that were unrelated to existing products which
appealed to a new group of customers. (2)

4.3 Explain actions regarded as non-compliance by the Employment Equity Act

(EEA), 1998 (Act 55 of 1998). (6)

4.4 Recommend ways in which businesses could promote the right to fair and honest
dealings as stipulated in the Consumer Protection Act (CPA), 2008 (Act 68 of
2008). (6)

BUSINESS OPERATIONS

4.5 Name any FOUR aspects that should be included in an employment contract. (4)

4.6 Explain the reasons for the termination of an employment contract. (6)

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4.7 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

GREEN FOOTWEAR (GF)

GF is a company that continuously improves its processes and systems. The

management of GF requested quality circles to investigate problems related to
poor-quality products. GF uses quality to evaluate the effectiveness of its
systems. They also increase productivity through regular reviews of their quality
processes.

4.7.1 Quote TWO roles of quality circles as part of the continuous improvement
to processes and systems in the scenario above. (2)

4.7.2 Discuss other roles of quality circles as part of the continuous

improvement to processes and systems. (4)

4.8 Advise businesses on the benefits of a good quality management system. (4)
[40]

TOTAL SECTION B: 80

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SECTION C

Answer ANY ONE question in this section.

NOTE: Clearly indicate the QUESTION NUMBER of the chosen question. The
answer to the question must start on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 5 on a
NEW page OR QUESTION 6 on a NEW page.

QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)

The Sector Education and Training Authorities (SETAs) was established to help
implement the Skills Development Act (SDA), 1998 (Act 97 of 1998). An
understanding of the SDA is needed to effectively implement the National Skills
Development Strategy (NSDS). Businesses have proper guidelines on how to
comply with this Act.

Write an essay on the Skills Development Act (SDA) in which you include the
following aspects:

 Outline the role of SETAs.

 Explain the purpose of the National Skills Development Strategy (NSDS).
 Discuss the impact of the SDA on businesses.
 Suggest ways in which businesses can comply with the SDA. [40]

QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)

Businesses need to be aware of the correct recruitment procedures to find

suitable candidates. Many businesses prefer to utilise external recruitment to
advertise vacancies. The necessary training and thorough induction must be
provided by the human resources function.

Write an essay on the human resources function in which you include the following
aspects:

 Outline the recruitment procedure.

 Explain the impact of external recruitment on businesses.
 Discuss the importance of training in the human resources environment.
 Advise businesses on the benefits of induction.
[40]

TOTAL SECTION C: 40

TOTAL: 150

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JUNE EXAMINATION
GRADE 12

2024
MARKING GUIDELINES

BUSINESS STUDIES

(PAPER 1)

29 pages
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MARKING GUIDELINES
(PAPER 1) GR12 0624

NOTES TO MARKERS

PREAMBLE

The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the
following:

(a) Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking

(b) Facilitate the moderation of candidates’ scripts at the different levels
(c) Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers across
the province
(d) Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment of the
subject at schools/institutions of learning

1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:

Marker: Red
HOD: Green
District Moderator: Orange
Provincial Moderator: Pink

2. Candidates’ responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.

However, this would depend on the nature of the question.

3. Comprehensive marking guidelines have been provided but this is by no means

exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct, but:

• Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking guidelines
• Comes from another credible source
• Is original
• A different approach is used

NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A.

4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks
accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some
understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead of
the maximum of two marks.)

5. The word ‘Submax’ is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a question or
subquestion.

6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by ‘max’ in the breakdown of marks) on the
right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of scripts as
well as for calculation and moderation purposes.

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7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the

subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks at the end of each question. This
must be guided by ‘max’ in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each
question should appear in the left-hand margin next to the appropriate question
number.

8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and
related to the question.

9. Correct numbering of answers to questions or sub questions is recommended in

SECTIONS A and B. However, if the numbering is incorrect, follow the sequence of
the candidate's responses. Candidates will be penalised if the latter is not clear.

10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.

11. The differentiation between ‘evaluate’ and ‘critically evaluate’ can be explained as
follows:

11.1 When ‘evaluate’ is used, candidates are expected to respond in either a

positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative) stance,
e.g. Positive: ‘COIDA eliminates time and costs spent  on lengthy civil
court proceedings.’ 

11.2 When 'critically evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in

either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)
stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to support their
responses with more depth, e.g. 'COIDA eliminates time and costs
spent  on lengthy civil court proceedings , because the employer will
not be liable for compensation to the employee for injuries sustained
during working hours as long as it can be proved that the business was
not negligent.' 

NOTE: 1. The above could apply to ‘analyse’ as well.

2. Note the placing of the tick () in the allocation of marks.

12. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question, the
cognitive verb used, the mark allocation in the marking guidelines and the context
of each question.

Cognitive verbs, such as:

12.1 Advise, name, state, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest, (list not
exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates’ responses.
Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer appears at the
end.

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12.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate,

compare, tabulate, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not
exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and
reasoning. Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to
ensure that assessment is conducted according to established norms so
that uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.

13. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for
SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.

14. SECTION B

14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate’s FIRST FIVE
responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a
line across the unmarked portion.

NOTE: 1. This applies only to questions where the number of

facts is specified.
2. The above also applies to responses in SECTION C
(where applicable).

14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit.
Point 14.1 above still applies.

14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views,

brainstorm this at the MSM to finalise alternative answers.

14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:

14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require

candidates to ‘describe/discuss/explain’ may be marked as
follows:
• Fact: 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines)
• Explanation: 1 mark (two marks will be awarded in Section C)

The ‘fact’ and ‘explanation’ are given separately in the marking

guidelines to facilitate mark allocation.

14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of

marks must be informed by the nature of the question and the
maximum mark allocated in the marking guidelines.

14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall,
requires one-word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/
case study. This applies specifically to SECTIONS B and C (where
applicable).

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15. SECTION C

15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:

Introduction
Maximum:
Content
32
Conclusion
Insight 8
TOTAL 40

15.2 Insight consists of the following components:

Layout/Structure Is there an introduction, a body and a conclusion? 2

Analysis and Is the candidate able to break down the question into
Interpretation headings/subheadings/interpret it correctly to show
understanding of what is being asked?
Marks to be allocated using this guide:
All headings addressed: 1 (ONE ‘A’)
Interpretation (16 to 32 marks): 1 (ONE ‘A’) 2
Synthesis Are there relevant decisions/facts/responses made based on
the questions?
Option 1: Only relevant facts: 2 marks (No '-S')
Where a candidate answers 50% or more (two to
four subquestions) of the question with only
relevant facts; no ‘-S’ appears in the left margin.
Award the maximum of TWO (2) marks for
synthesis.
Option 2: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50% (only
one subquestion) of the question with only one
OR some relevant facts; one ‘-S’ appears in the
left margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark
for synthesis.
Option 3: Some relevant facts: 1 mark (One '-S')
Where a candidate answers FOUR
subquestions, but one/two/three subquestion/s
with no relevant facts; one ‘-S’ appears in the left
margin. Award a maximum of ONE (1) mark for
synthesis.
Option 4: No relevant facts: 0 mark (Two '-S')
Where a candidate answers less than 50% (only
one subquestion) of the questions with no
relevant facts; two ‘-S’ appears in the left margin.
Award a ZERO mark for synthesis.
Originality Is there evidence of one or two examples, not older than two (2)
years, that are based on recent information, current trends and
developments? 2
TOTAL FOR INSIGHT: 8
TOTAL MARKS FOR FACTS: 32
TOTAL MARKS FOR ESSAY (8 + 32) 40

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NOTE: 1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the

introduction and conclusion.
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated.
3. No marks will be allocated for layout, if the headings
INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an
explanation.

15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. (‘L, A, -S and/or O’).

15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/
marking guidelines to each question.

15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUBMAX/MAX mark in a subsection has been
attained. Write ‘SUBMAX’/’MAX’ after maximum marks have been obtained
but continue reading for originality ‘O’.

15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks
for insight as follows: (L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality)
as shown in the table below.

CONTENT MARKS
Facts 32 (max.)
L 2
A 2
S 2
O 2
TOTAL 40

15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,
especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings.
Remember, headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to
insight (structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought.
(See MARKS BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.)

15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then

he/she may still obtain marks for layout.

15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are
assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the
marking guidelines.

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15.10 15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for
phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers.

15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not
necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The
ticks () will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g.
‘Product development is a growth strategy , where businesses
aim to introduce new products into existing markets.’ 

This will be informed by the nature and context of the question,

as well as the cognitive verb used.

15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts
shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to
each question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.

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SECTION A (COMPULSORY)
QUESTION 1

1.1 1.1.1 C 

1.1.2 B 

1.1.3 D 

1.1.4 A 

1.1.5 B 
(5 x 2) (10)

1.2 1.2.1 double 

1.2.2 debt counsellors 

1.2.3 placement 

1.2.4 assurance 

1.2.5 unemployment insurance  (5 x 2) (10)

1.3 1.3.1 E 

1.3.2 D 

1.3.3 J 

1.3.4 B 

1.3.5 C 
(5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 1 MARKS
1.1 10
1.2 10
1.3 10
TOTAL 30

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SECTION B

Mark the answers to the FIRST TWO questions only.

QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS

2.1 Types of intensive strategies

• Market development 
• Product development 
• Market penetration 
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)

2.2 Strategic management process

OPTION 1
• There must be a clear vision/mission statement/measurable/realistic goal in
place. 
• Identify opportunities/weaknesses/strengths/threats by doing an environmental/
situation analysis. 
• Instruments available for environmental analysis may include a SWOT analysis/
Porter’s Five Forces model/PESTLE analysis/industrial analysis tool. 
• Formulate alternative strategies to respond to the challenges. 
• Develop (an) action plan (s) that must include the tasks to be performed/
deadlines to be met/resources to be obtained. 
• Implement selected strategies by passing them on to all stakeholders/organising
business resources/motivating staff. 
• Continuous evaluation/monitoring/measurement of strategies to take affirmative
action. 
Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.

OR
OPTION 2
• Businesses must review/analyse/retest their vision/mission statement. 
• Perform an environmental analysis using models such as SWOT/PESTLE/Porter’s
Five Forces. 
• Formulate a strategy, such as a defensive/retrenchment strategy. 
• Implement a strategy, use a template as an action plan. 
• Control/Evaluate/Monitor the implemented strategy to identify gaps/deviations in
the implementation. 
• Take corrective steps to ensure that goals/objectives are achieved. 
Any other relevant answer related to the strategic management process.
Max. (6)

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2.3 Challenges in the business environments (4)

CHALLENGES ENVIRONMENT
2.3.1 2.3.2
a) They are struggling to pay off their Macro 
loan to the bank, due to the
continued increase in interest
rates. 
b) The management noticed that their Micro 
mission statement is quite old and
needs to be updated. 
Max (2) Max (2)

NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.

2. Do not award marks for challenges that are not fully quoted from
the scenario.
3. Do not award marks for the business environment if it is not
linked to the challenge.

2.4 Rights of employers in terms of the LRA

• Form  employer organisations. 
• Form a bargaining council  for collective bargaining purposes. 
• Employers have the right to lockout employees  who engage in
unprotected/illegal strike/labour action. 
• Dismiss employees who are engaged in an unprotected strike/misconduct  such
as intimidation/violence during a strike action. 
• Right not to pay an employee who has taken part in a protected strike  for
services/work they did not do during the strike. 
Any other relevant answer related to the rights of employers in terms of the LRA.
Max. (6)
2.5 Pillars of BBBEE

2.5.1 Management control 

2.5.2 Application of management control on businesses

• Appoint black people  in senior executive positions/to management. 

• Involve black employees  in decision-making processes. 
• Ensure and prioritise black female representation  in management. 
• Businesses score points in both management and ownership when
selling more than 25 % of their shares  to black investors so that some
of them can become directors. 
Any other relevant answer related to the implication of management control
as a BBBEE pillar for businesses.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that were quoted in the
scenario. Max. (6)

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2.6 PESTLE elements

2.6.1 Legal
• Legal requirements for operating certain types of businesses  are time-
consuming. 
• High legal costs involved in obtaining a license/trademark/patent/
copyright  may prevent the establishment of some businesses. 
• Certain acts may have a direct impact  on business operations, e.g., as
EEA/BCEA. 
• Legalities of business contracts  may limit business operations. 
Any other relevant answer related to how the legal factor as a PESTLE
element pose challenges to businesses. Max. (4)

2.6.2 Social
• Customers may not be able to afford products  due to low-income
levels/high unemployment. 
• Businesses may not be conversant with the language  of their
customers. 
• Some customers may prefer to spend their money on medical bills  for
the treatment of chronic illnesses. 
• High crime rates may affect the trading hours of businesses  resulting in
decreased profit. 
Any other relevant answer related to how the social factor as a PESTLE
element pose challenges to businesses. Max. (4)

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2.7 Steps in evaluating a strategy

• Examine the underlying basis of a business strategy. 
• Look forward and backwards into the implementation process. 
• Compare the expected performance with the actual performance. 
• Measure business performance in order to determine the reasons for deviations
and analyse these reasons. 
• Take corrective action so that deviations may be corrected. 
• Set specific dates for control and follow up. 
• Draw up a table of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy. 
• Decide on the desired outcome. 
• Consider the impact of the strategic implementation in the internal and external
environments of the business. 
Any other relevant answer related to the steps that must be considered when
evaluating strategies.
NOTE: Accept steps in any order. Max. (6)
[40]

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 2 MARKS
2.1 2
2.2 6
2.3.1 2
2.3.2 2
2.4 6
2.5.1 2
2.5.2 6
2.6.1 4
2.6.2 4
2.7 6
TOTAL 40
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS OPERATION

3.1 Salary determination methods

• Piecemeal 
• Time-related 
NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2)

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3.2 Selection procedure

OPTION 1
• Determine fair assessment criteria on which selection will be based. 
• Applicants must submit the application forms/curriculum vitae and certified copies
of personal documents/IDs/proof of qualifications. 
• Sort the received documents/CVs according to the assessment/selection
criteria. 
• Screen/Determine which applications meet the minimum job requirements and
separate these from the rest. 
• Preliminary interviews are conducted if many suitable applications were
received/to identify suitable applicants. 
• Reference checks should be made to verify the contents of CVs, e.g. contact
previous employers to check work experience. 
• Compile a shortlist of potential candidates identified. 
• Shortlisted candidates may be subjected to various types of selection tests such
as skills tests. 
• Invite shortlisted candidates for an interview. 
• A written offer is made to the selected candidate. 
• Inform unsuccessful applicants about the outcome of their application/Some
adverts indicate the deadline for informing only successful candidates. 
Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure as a human resource
activity.
OR
OPTION 2
• Receive documentation such as application forms and sort it according to the
criteria of the job. 
• Evaluate CVs and create a shortlist/Screen the applicants. 
• Check information in the CVs and contact references. 
• Conduct preliminary sifting interviews to identify applicants who are not suitable for
the job, although they meet all requirements. 
• Assess/Test candidates who have applied for senior positions. To ensure the best
candidate is chosen. 
• Conduct interviews with shortlisted candidates. 
• Offer employment in writing to the selected candidate. 
Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure as a human resource
activity.
NOTE: The procedure may be in any order. Max. (6)

3.3 Interviews

3.3.1 Role of the interviewer before the interview from the scenario
• He has prepared a set of questions that will be asked during the
interviews. 
• He has also booked a suitable venue for the interviews. 
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted from the
scenario. (2 x 1) (2)

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3.3.2 The purpose of an interview as a human resources activity.

• Obtains information about the strengths and weaknesses  of each
candidate. 
• Helps the employer in choosing/making an informed decision  about the
most suitable candidate. 
• Matches information provided by the applicant  to the job
requirements. 
• Creates an opportunity where information about the business and
applicant  can be exchanged. 
• Determines a candidate's suitability  for the job. 
• Evaluates the skills/personal characteristics  of the applicant. 
Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of an interview as a human
resource activity. Max. (4)

3.4 Meaning of total quality management/TQM

• TQM is an integrated system/methodology applied throughout the organisation
which helps  to design/produce/provide quality products/services to
customers. 
• A thought revolution in management , where the entire business is operated with
customer orientation in all business activities. 
• Enables businesses to continuously improve on the delivery of products/
services in order to satisfy the needs of customers. 
• Management ensures that each employee is responsible  for the quality of
his/her work/actions. 
• Focuses on achieving customer satisfaction  and looks for continuous
improvement in all the business’s processes, products and services. 
• Takes steps to ensure the full involvement  and cooperation of all employees in
improving quality. 
Any other relevant answers related to the meaning of total quality management
Max. (4)

3.5 Quality concepts from the scenario (6)

QUALITY CONCEPTS MOTIVATIONS

3.5.1. Quality performance  FFC ensures that all departments work
together in order to obtain the same quality
standards. 
3.5.2. Quality management  The manager of FFC uses various techniques
to improve the quality of their products. 
Submax (4) Submax (2)

NOTE: 1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format.

2. Award marks for the quality concepts even if the quotes were
incomplete.
3. Do not award marks for the motivations if the quality concepts were
incorrectly identified. Max. (6)

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3.6 PDCA model/steps

Plan 
• The business should identify the problem. 
• Develop a plan for improvement to processes and systems. 
• Answer questions such as 'what to do' and 'how to do it'. 
• Plan the new method and approach. 
Step (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Do 
• Implement the change on a small scale. 
• Implement the processes and systems. 
• During this step, the implementors aim to effectively/accurately execute the
change based on the plan/method. 
• This step is essential in determining whether the change has viability/potential. 
Step (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Check/Analyse 
• Use data to analyse the results of change. 
• Determine whether it made a difference. 
• Check whether the processes are working effectively. 
• Assess, plan and establish if it is working/if things are going according to plan. 
Step (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Act as needed 
• Institutionalise the improvement. 
• Devise strategies on how to continually improve. 
• If the change is successful, implement it on a wider scale. 
• The business should continuously revise the process. 
Step (2)
Description (1)
Submax (3)
Any other relevant answer related to how businesses can apply the steps of the
PDCA model to improve the quality of their products.

NOTE: Accept the steps in any order Max. (6)

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3.7 Quality indicators of the financial function

• Obtain capital  from the most suitable/available/reliable sources. 
• Negotiate better interest rates  in order to keep financial costs down. 
• Draw up budgets  to ensure sufficient application of monetary resources. 
• Keep financial records up to date  to ensure timely/accurate tax payments. 
• Analyse strategies  to increase profitability. 
• Invest surplus funds  to create sources of passive income. 
• Implement financial control measures/systems  to prevent fraud. 
• Implement credit granting/debt collecting policies  to monitor cash flow. 
• Draw up accurate financial statements  timeously/regularly. 
• Accurately analyse and interpret  financial information. 
• Invest in strategies that will assist the business  to remain profitable. 
• Avoid over/under-capitalisation  so that financial resources will be utilised
effectively. 
Any other relevant answers related to the quality indicators of the financial function.
Max. (4)

3.8 Impact of fringe benefits on businesses

Positives/Advantages
• Attractive fringe benefit packages may result in higher employee
retention/reduces employee turnover. 
• Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees who may positively contribute
towards the business goals/objectives. 
• It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty as they may be willing to go the extra
mile. 
• Improves productivity resulting in higher profitability. 
• Businesses save money as benefits are tax deductible. 
• Fringe benefits can be used as leverage for salary negotiations. 
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of fringe benefits
to businesses.
AND/OR

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Negatives/Disadvantages
• Businesses which cannot offer fringe benefits fail to attract skilled workers. 
• Businesses which offer employees different benefit plans may create resentment
towards those who receive fewer benefits resulting in lower productivity. 
• It can create conflict/lead to corruption if allocated unfairly. 
• Fringe benefits are additional costs that may result in cash flow problems. 
• Decreases business profits, as incentive/package/remuneration costs are
higher. 
• Administrative costs increase as benefits need to be correctly recorded for tax
purposes. 
• Workers only stay with the business for fringe benefits and may not be
committed/loyal to the tasks/business. 
• Businesses must pay advisors/attorneys to help them create benefit plans that
comply with legislation. 
• Errors in benefit plans may lead to costly lawsuits/regulatory fines. 
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of fringe
benefits on businesses. Max.
(6)
[40]
BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 3 MARKS
3.1 2
3.2 6
3.3.1 2
3.3.2 4
3.4 4
3.5 6
3.6 6
3.7 4
3.8 6
TOTAL 40

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QUESTION 4: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS

BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS

4.1 Porter's Five Forces

• Bargaining power of suppliers/power of suppliers 
• Bargaining power of buyers/power of buyers 
• Threats/Barriers of new entrants to the market 
• Competitive rivalry/power of competitors 
• Threat of substitution/substitutes 
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only (4 x 1) (4)

4.2 Types of diversification strategies

4.2.1 Horizontal diversification  (2)

4.2.2 Conglomerate diversification  (2)

4.3 Actions regarded as non-compliance by the EEA

• Denying people access to the workplace , based on the grounds of any form of
discrimination such as gender, race, culture, religion and language. 
• Treating workers unfairly  and incorrectly promoting affirmative action in the
workplace. 
• Refusing to employ young women  because they would choose to have
children in the future. 
• Conducting HIV testing  unless the testing is justified by the Labour Court. 
• Refusing to employ a person  because of strong religious or cultural beliefs, or
because of a disability. 
• Harassing and victimisation of an employee  in any form are regarded as
discriminatory according to the EEA. 
Any other relevant answer related to actions regarded as non-compliance by the
EEA. Max. (6)

4.4 Ways in which businesses could promote the right to fair and honest dealings
as stipulated in the Consumer Protection Act (CPA)
• Suppliers may not use physical force or harass customers. 
• Suppliers may not give misleading/false information. 
• Businesses may not promote pyramid schemes and/or chain-letter schemes. 
• Businesses may not overbook/oversell goods/services and then not honour the
agreement. 
Any other relevant answer related to the right to fair and honest dealings as stipulated
in the CPA. Max. (6)

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BUSINESS OPERATIONS

4.5 FOUR aspects that should be included in an employment contract.

• Personal details of the employee. 

• Details of the business/employer e.g., name and address. 
• Job title/Position. 
• Job description e.g., duties/ working conditions. 
• Job specification e.g., formal qualifications/willingness to travel. 
• Date of employment/Commencement of employment. 
• Place where employee will spend most of his/her working time. 
• Hours of work, e.g., normal time and overtime. 
• Remuneration, e.g., weekly or monthly pay. 
• Benefits/Fringe benefits/Perks/Allowances. 
• Leave, e.g., sick/maternity/annual/adoption leave. 
• Employee deductions (compulsory/non-compulsory). 
• Period of the contract/Details of termination. 
• Probation period. 
• Signatures of both the employer and employee. 
• List of documents that form part of the contract, e.g., appointment letter/code of
conduct/ethics. 
• Disciplinary policy, e.g., rules and disciplinary procedure for unacceptable
behaviour. 
Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be included in an
employment contract.
NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4 x 1) (4)

4.6 Reasons for the termination of an employment contract

• The employer may dismiss an employee for valid reason(s) , e.g.,
unsatisfactory job performance, misconduct, etc. 
• Employer may no longer have work  for redundant employees/cannot fulfil the
contract/is restructuring. 
• The employer may retrench  some employees due to insolvency /may not be
able to pay  the employees. 
• Employees decided to leave  by resigning voluntarily for better job
opportunities. 
• An employee may have reached the predetermined age  for retirement. 
• Incapacity to work  due to illness/injuries. 
• The duration of the employment contract  expires/comes to an end. 
• By mutual agreement  between the employer and employee. 
Any other relevant answer related to the reasons for the termination of an
employment contract. Max. (6)

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4.7 Quality circles

4.7.1 Roles of quality circles as part of continuous improvement to processes

and systems from the scenario
• The management of GF requested quality circles to investigate problems
related to poor-quality products. 
• They also increase productivity through regular reviews of quality
processes. 
NOTE: 1. Mark the first TWO (2) only.
2. Only award marks for responses that are quoted from the
scenario. (2 x 1) (2)

4.7.2 Other roles of quality circles as part of the continuous improvement to

processes and systems
• Solve problems related to quality  and implement improvements. 
• Ensure that there is no duplication  of activities/tasks in the workplace. 
• Make suggestions for improving  processes and systems in the
workplace. 
• Monitor/Reinforce strategies  to improve the smooth running of business
operations. 
• Increase employees' morale  and motivation. 
• Contribute towards the improvement  and development of the
organisation. 
• Reduce costs of redundancy/wasteful efforts  in the long run. 
• Increase the demand  for products/services of the business. 
• Create harmony  and high performance in the workplace. 
• Build a healthy working relationship  between the employer and
employee. 
• Improve employees' loyalty  and commitment to the organisational
goals. 
• Improve employees' communication  at all levels of the business. 
• Develop a positive attitude/sense of involvement  in decision-making
processes of the services offered. 
Any other relevant answer related to the role of quality circles as part of
continuous improvement to processes and systems.
NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that were quoted from the
scenario in QUESTION 4.7.1. Max. (4)

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4.8 Benefits of a good quality management system

• Effective customer services are rendered, resulting in increased customer

satisfaction. 
• Time and resources are used efficiently. 
• Productivity increases through proper time management/using high quality
resources. 
• Products/Services are constantly improved resulting in increased levels of
customer satisfaction. 
• Vision/Mission/Business goals may be achieved. 
• Business has a competitive advantage over its competitors. 
• Regular training will continuously improve the quality of employees' skills/
knowledge. 
• Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship resulting in
happy/productive workers. 
• Increased market share/more customers improve profitability. 
• Improves business image as there are less defects/returns. 
• Improves the financial sustainability of the business as clients are retained. 
Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of a good quality management
system. Max. (4)
[40]

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS
QUESTION 4 MARKS
4.1 4
4.2.1 2
4.2.2 2
4.3 6
4.4 6
4.5 4
4.6 6
4.7.1 2
4.7.2 4
4.8 4
TOTAL 40

TOTAL SECTION B: 80

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SECTION C

Mark the answers to the FIRST question only.

QUESTION 5: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION)

5.1 Introduction
• The Skills Development Act is there to improve the quality of life of workers and
their prospects of work. 
• The function of the Sector Education and Training Authority (SETA) is there to
help the SDA facilitate skills development. 
• The NSDS aims to encourage the development of skills and competencies in the
South African workforce. 
• Skills development also has a positive impact on the individual’s overall wellbeing
and sense of self-worth. 
• Businesses need to ensure that they comply with the SDA to avoid penalties. 
Any other relevant introduction related to the role of the SETA’s/purpose of the
NSDS/impact of the SDA/ways to comply with the SDA. Any (2 x 1) (2)

5.2 Role of SETAs

• Report to the Director General. 

• Promote and establish learnerships. 
• Collect levies and pay out grants as required. 
• Provide accreditation for skills development facilitators. 
• Register learnership agreements/learning programmes. 
• Approve workplace skills plans and annual training reports. 
• Monitor/Evaluate the actual training by service providers. 
• Allocate grants to employers/education/training providers. 
• Oversee training in different sectors of the South African economy. 
• Develop sector skills plans in line with the National Skills Development
Strategy. 
• Draw up skills development plans for their specific economic sectors. 
• Provide training material/programmes for skills development facilitators. 
• Pay out grants to businesses that are complying with the requirements of the Skills
Development Act. 
• Identify suitable workplaces for practical work experience. 
Any other relevant answer related to the role of SETAs in supporting the SDA. Max. (10)

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5.3 Purpose of the National Skills Development Strategy/NSDS

Increase access to programmes  that train people. 
• Promote the public FET college system that has programmes to meet the skills
needed  by SETA's/local/regional/provincial/national organisations. 
• Address the low level of language and mathematical skills  among the youth
and adults. 
• Make better use  of workplace-based skills development. 
• Encourage/Support  small business/community-training groups/NGO's/worker-
initiated training initiatives. 
• Increase the skills of the public sector  to improve service delivery. 
• Build  career/vocational guidance/training centres. 
• Guides work  of SETA's/the use of the National Skills Fund. 
• Sets out the responsibilities  of other education and training stakeholders. 
• Provides for the participation  of government/organised business/organised
labour. 
• Improves social development  through economic development. 
Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the NSDS. Max. (12)

5.4 Impact of the SDA on businesses

Positives/Advantages
• Increases the number of skilled employees  in areas where these skills are
scarce. 
• Trains employees  to improve productivity in the workplace. 
• Increases global competitiveness  as more employees are trained with
upgraded, relevant and scarce skills. 
• Encourages ongoing skills development and learning  to sustain the
improvement of skills development. 
• Increases investment in education and training  in the labour market. 
• Increases the return on investment  in education and training. 
• Improves employment opportunities  and labour movement. 
• Self-employment  and entrepreneurship are promoted. 
• Workplace discrimination  can be addressed through training. 
• Workplace is used as an active learning environment  where employees can
gain practical job experience. 
• Businesses may claim back some of the costs of training  as a refund from
relevant SETA's. 
• Improves quality products/service delivery  as businesses employ more skilled
workers. 
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of the SDA on
businesses.
AND/OR

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Negatives/Disadvantages
• The SDA process is prescriptive/requires a large amount of paperwork/
administration  which can cost time/money. 
• Skills Development Levy could be an extra burden  to financially struggling
businesses. 
• It may be monitored/controlled by government departments  that do not have
education/training as their key priorities. 
• Many courses offered by companies may not have unit standards  that relate to
the course content. 
• Many service providers that offer training services  are not SAQA accredited. 
• Many businesses may not support  this government initiative. 
• Implementation of the SDA can be difficult  to monitor and control. 
• Employees are expected to attend learnerships during work hours  which could
affect the production process/productivity. 
• Costly for businesses to employ a person  to implement/manage/control
learnerships. 
• The time/money spent on improving employee skills is wasted  if they leave the
business. 
• Only companies with a staff payroll over R500 000 per annum  can claim the
Skills Development levy. 
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of the SDA
on businesses. Max. (14)

5.5 Ways in which businesses can comply with SDA

• Businesses/Employers who collect PAYE should register with the relevant
SETAs. 
• One percent (1%) of an employer's payroll has to be paid over to the SETA. 
• Businesses should register with SARS in the area in which their business is
classified (in terms of the SETA). 
• Employers should submit a workplace skills plan and provide evidence that it was
implemented. 
• Businesses with more than 50 employees must appoint a skills development
facilitator. 
• Assess the skills of employees to determine areas in which skills development
are needed. 
• Encourage employees to participate in learnerships and other training
programmes. 
• Provide all employees with the opportunity to improve their skills. 
• Display a summary of the SDA in the business where it is visible to all
employees.
Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can comply with the
SDA. Max. (10)

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5.6 Conclusion

• SETA’s are there to help the Skills Development Act to expand the knowledge
and competencies of the labour force. 
• The NSDS was set up to make sure skills training in South Africa runs smoothly
and effectively. 
• Businesses should consistently evaluate the impact of skills development to
ensure that it is implemented well. 
• Skills development can improve the efficiency of the labour force in the overall
production and empower individuals. 
• Complying to the SDA can result in life-changing opportunities for the employee
and better business opportunities for the employer. 
Any other relevant conclusion related to the role of SETA’s/purpose of NSDS/ impact
of SDA/ways to comply with the SDA. Any (1 x 2) (2)
[40]

QUESTION 5: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION

DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Role of SETA’s 10
Purpose of NSDS 12 Max
Impact of SDA 14 32
Compliance to the SDA 10
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40

LASO – for each component:

Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.

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QUESTION 6: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES FUNCTION)

6.1 Introduction
• Recruitment makes it possible to attract the best applicants with the required
skills, qualifications and competency to fill vacancies in a business. 
• Reliable recruitment procedures and systems should be in place to ensure that
businesses achieve their goals. 
• External recruitment helps to promote the business itself and create a positive
public image. 
• Training is a planned, organised activity where employees gain knowledge and
skills to improve their abilities/job performance. 
• Businesses should ensure that induction is done before the employee starts in
his/her new position. 
Any other relevant introduction related to the recruitment procedure/impact of external
recruitment/importance of training /benefits of induction. Any (2 x 1) (2)

6.2 Recruitment procedure

• The human resources manager should evaluate the job/prepare a job analysis,
that includes the job specification/job description/to identify recruitment
needs. 
• The human resources manager (HRM) should prepare the job description to
determine the responsibilities/key performance areas related to/the nature of the
job. 
• The human resources manager should indicate the job specification/description/
key performance areas to attract suitable candidates. 
• Choose the method of recruitment such as internal/external, to reach/target the
suitable applicants/candidates. 
• Vacancies can be internally advertised via internal email/word of mouth/staff
notices. 
• If internal recruitment is unsuccessful, external recruitment should be
considered. 
• If the external recruitment is chosen, relevant recruitment sources should be
approached such as recruitment agencies/tertiary institutions/newspapers. 
• An advertisement should be prepared with relevant information such as the name
of the company/contact details/contact person. 
• Place the advertisement in the appropriate media that will ensure that the best
candidates apply. 
Any other relevant answer related to the recruitment procedure. Max. (12)

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6.3 Impact of external recruitment

Positives/Advantages
• New candidates bring new talents/ideas/experiences/skills  into the business. 
• There is a larger pool of candidates  to choose from. 
• It may help the business  to meet affirmative action/BBBEE targets. 
• Minimises unhappiness/conflict  amongst current employees who may have
applied for the post. 
• There is a better chance of getting a suitable candidate  with the required
skills/qualifications/competencies who do not need much training/development
which reduce costs. 
• New employees may add value  to the overall efficiency/productivity of the
business. 
Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact/advantages of external
recruitment on businesses.
AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages
• Information on CV's/from referees  may not be reliable. 
• Many unsuitable applications can slow down  the selection process. 
• New candidates generally take longer to adjust  to a new work environment. 
• External sources can be expensive,  such as recruitment agencies' fees/
advertisements in newspapers/magazines. 
• The selection process may not be effective  as an incompetent candidate may
be chosen. 
• Recruitment process takes longer as background checks must be conducted/is
time-consuming due  to the lengthy process of finding a suitable candidate. 
• In-service training may be needed which decreases productivity  during the time
of training. 
• External recruitment may limit promotion/growth opportunities  that could lead to
resentment amongst employees. 
Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact/disadvantages of external
recruitment on businesses. Max. (14)

6.4 Importance of training in human resources

• An employee who receives the necessary training  can perform in their
job/improve performance in their job. /Employees are more knowledgeable 
and can perform tasks more efficiently. 
• The investment in training that a business  makes shows employees that they
are valued/appreciated. 
• An effective training program allows employees  to strengthen/improve/ enhance
their skills. 
• Productivity usually increases  when the human resources function implements
training courses. 
• Overall profitability of the business will improve  because of effective/regular
training. 
• Ongoing training and upskilling of the workforce  encourages creativity. 

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• Contributes positively  towards the aims/compliance of the SDA. 

Any other relevant answer related to the importance of training in human resources.
Max. (10)

6.5 Benefits of induction

• Allows new employees to settle in quickly and work effectively. 
• Ensures that new employees understand rules/restrictions in the business. 
• New employees may establish relationships with fellow employees resulting in
good teamwork. 
• New employees may feel at ease/welcome in the workplace, which reduces
anxiety/ insecurity/fear. 
• The results obtained during the induction process provide a base for focused
training. 
• Increases quality of performance/productivity which promotes the effective use of
working methods/resources. 
• Minimises/Decreases the need for ongoing training and development. 
• Employees will be familiar with the organisational structure/the various
departments with their supervisors and low-level managers. 
• Opportunities are created for new employees so that they experience/explore
different departments. 
• New employees will understand their role/responsibilities concerning safety
regulations and rules. 
• New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices/where
everything is, which saves production time. 
• Learn more about the business so that new employees understand their roles/
responsibilities in order to be more efficient. 
• Company policies are communicated, regarding conduct/procedures/safety and
security/employment contract/conditions of employment/working hours/leave. 
• Employees may have a better understanding of ethical/professional conduct/
procedures/CSR. 
• Realistic expectations for new employees as well as the business are
created. 
• New employees may feel part of the team resulting in positive morale and
motivation. 
• Reduces the staff turnover as new employees have been inducted properly. 
Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of induction for businesses. (10)

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6.6 Conclusion
• Recruitment serves as a key tool in shaping the workplace and ensuring that the
business is moving toward its goals efficiently. 
• Effective external recruitment is essential for the success of any business. 
• Implementing training programmes in the workplace will help employees feel like
the company is invested in them. 
• When employees undergo training, it improves their skills and knowledge of the
job and builds their confidence in their abilities. 
• Induction helps build the foundations for creating an accepting, inclusive and
respectful work environment. 
Any other relevant conclusion related to the recruitment procedure/impact of external
recruitment/importance of training/benefits of induction. Any (1 x 2) (2)
[40]

QUESTION 6: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION

DETAILS MAXIMUM TOTAL
Introduction 2
Recruitment procedure 12
Impact of external recruitment 14 Max
Importance of training 10 32
Benefits of induction 10
Conclusion 2
INSIGHT
Layout 2
Analysis/Interpretation 2 8
Synthesis 2
Originality/Examples 2
TOTAL MARKS 40
LASO – for every component:
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
Allocate 1 marks if only some of the requirements are met.
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.

TOTAL SECTION C: 40

TOTAL: 150

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