WBCS Mains Exam Practice Paper MT 4

WBCS MAINS EXAM.
- 2023 MEGA PRACTICE SERIES

Mock Test-4 (Paper - I)
1Ð öë ö„þyöì˜y ~„þ!Ýþ !î¡ìëû xîœÁºöì˜ x˜!•„þ 150 Ÿöì·îû þ™)îÅþ™%îû&¡ìöì”îû „þy!£!˜ !˜öìëû „þyöìœîû ˜#vþü ö¢ ÷“þ!îû „þöìîûöìŠéÐ
›öì•Ä ¢‚îy”þ™öìe ²Ì„þyöìŸîû vþzþ™öìëy†# þ™e îû‰þ˜y „þîû&˜Ð ~£z „þyöìœîû ˜#vþü ßþ¿,!“þîû myîûy îû!‰þ“þ– @ùÌ!í“þÐ ~ Ö•% ~„þéôé~„þÝþy
40 !îöìŸ¡ì ‹y!“þîû „þíy ˜ëû– ¢›hßþì ›y˜%¡ì ‹y!“þîû „þíyÐ
S„þV ›y˜!¢„þ ”)¡ì’ ¢›yöì‹îû xîÇþëû övþöì„þ xy˜öìŠéÐ ßþ¿,!“þöìœyöì„þ ¢„þœ ›y˜%öì¡ìîû !›œ˜ !îÙ»›y˜öìîîû îy¢ßþiy˜éôôôé
S…V ‹œ ¢Á™öì”îû ¢‚îûÇþ’ „þîûy ‹îû&!îûÐ xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å ~„þ !”öì„þ þ™,!íî#– xyîû ~„þ !”öì„þ ¢›hßþì ›y˜%öì¡ìîû ßþ¿,!“þöìœy„þÐ
S†V ¢›y‹ ‹#îöì˜ !îKþyþ™öì˜îû ²Ì¦þyîÐ ›y˜%¡ì ‹§Ã@ùÌ£’ „þöìîû ¢›hßþì þ™,!íî#öì“þ– ‹§Ã@ùÌ£’ „þöìîû !˜!…œ
2Ð x˜!•„þ 200 Ÿöì·îû ›öì•Ä ¢Á™y”„þ#ëû ²Ì!“þöìî”˜ îû‰þ˜y £z!“þ£yöì¢Ð xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
„þîû&˜Ð 40 xyîû “,þ“þ#ëû îy¢ßþiy˜ xy!d„þ öœy„þÐ öëÝþyöì„þ îœy öëöì“þ
!m“þ#ëû !îÙ»ë%öìkþîû þ™îû ¢îöì‰þöìëû îvþü !îþ™ëÅëû ö„þy!¦þvþéôé19 þ™yöìîû ¢îÅ›y˜î!‰þöì_îû ›£yöì”ŸÐ xhsùþöìîû xhsùþöìîû ¢„þœ
3Ð ¢yîû››Å !œ…%˜ ƒ 40 ›y˜%öì¡ìîû öëyöì†îû öÇþe ~£z !‰þ_öìœy„þÐ „þyîûç !‰þ_ £ëûöì“þy îy
ò›y˜%öì¡ìîû ëy£y ²Ì„,þ!“þ†“þ ~î‚ ›y˜%öì¡ìîû „þyöìŠé ëy£y !‰þîû!”˜ ¢‚„þ#’Å öîvþüy !”öìëû ö‡îûy– „þyîûç îy !î„,þ!“þîû myîûy !îþ™îû#“þÐ
xy”îû’#ëû– “þy£yîû ¢„þœ ²Ì„þyîû îûyhßþìy ›y!îûëûy– “þy£yîû ¢„þœ !„þlsùþ ~„þ!Ýþ îÄyþ™„þ !‰þ_ xyöìŠé ëy îÄ!_«†“þ ˜ëû– !îÙ»†“þÐ
²Ì„þyîû !Šéo îõþ „þ!îûëûy !”öìœ ~„þÝþy öë !î¡ìëû !î„þyöìŸîû ¢,!ÜT ö¢!Ýþîû þ™!îû‰þëû x„þßþ¿yê þ™y£zÐ ~„þ!”˜ xy£¹y˜ xyöì¢Ð
£ëû– ö¢ ¢Áºöìõþ ö„þyöì˜y ¢öì¨££z íy!„þöì“þ þ™yöìîû ˜yÐ ~„þÝþy x„þßþ¿yê ›y˜%¡ì ¢öì“þÄîû ‹˜Ä ²Ìy’ !”öì“þ vþzê¢%„þ £ëûÐ ¢y•yîû’
î,£ê îûy‹ÄîÄîßþiyîû ›öì•Ä ö„þîœ ö„þîûy’#!†!îûîû îûyhßþìy ö…yœy öœyöì„þîû ›öì•Äç ö”…y ëyëû– ë…˜ ö¢ ßþºyíÅ ö¦þyöìœ– öë…yöì˜
îûy!…öìœ ›y˜î ‰þ!îûöìeîû !î!‰þe Ÿ!_«öì„þ “þy£yîû ßþºy¦þy!î„þ ö¢ ¦þyöìœyîyöì¢– !˜öì‹îû Çþ!“þ „þöìîû öšþöìœ– “þ…˜ î%!Gþ– ›öì˜îû
ßþºyßþiÄ„þîû ‰þyœ˜yîû öÇþe ö”çëûy £ëû ˜yÐ îûyöì‹Äîû ›öì•Ä ›öì•Ä ~„þÝþy !”„þ xyöìŠé öëÝþy ¢îÅ ›y˜öìîîû !‰þöì_îû !”öì„þÐ
î#îû•öì›Åîûç þ™í îûy…y ‰þy£z– ˜!£öìœ ›y˜î •›Åöì„þ þ™#vþüy ö”çëûy S„þV xy›yöì”îû ²Ìí› ‹§Ã¦)þ!›îû ßþºîû*þ™ „þ#Ú
£ëûÐó xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å S…V ö„þ˜ ›y˜%öì¡ìîû !m“þ#ëû îy¢ßþiy˜ ßþ¿,!“þöìœy„þÚ
4Ð x˜%öìFŠé”!Ýþ þ™öìvþü †,£#“þ ²ÌÙÀ=!œîû vþz_îû !œ…%˜Ð S†V ö„þy˜ ‹†êöì„þ ¢îÅ›y˜î!‰þöì_îû ›£yöì”Ÿ îœy £öìëûöìŠéÚ
4 × 10 = 40 S‡V !îÙ»†“þ îÄyþ™„þ!‰þöì_îû þ™!îû‰þëû „þ#Ú
xy›yöì”îû ‹§Ã¦)þ!› !“þ˜!Ýþ– !“þ˜!Ýþ£z ~„þe ‹!vþü“þÐ ²Ìí› 5Ð îDy˜%îy” „þîû&˜ ƒ xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
þ™,!íî#Ð ›y˜%öì¡ìîû îy¢ßþiy˜ þ™,!íî#îû ¢îÅeÐ Ÿ#“þ²Ì•y˜ Patriotism is love for one’s country. It is a powerful
“%þ¡ìyîûy!”– vþz_® îyœ%„þy›ëû ›îû&– vþz_%D ”%†Å› !†!îûöì×’#– xyîû sentiment and wholly unselfish and noble. A
~£z îy‚œyîû ›öì“þy ¢›“þœ¦)þ!›– ¢îÅe£z ›y˜%öì¡ìîû !ßþi!“þÐ patriot puts his country first. A patriot can
sacrifice his own life for the good of his own
›y˜%öì¡ìîû îhß%þ“þ îy¢ßþiy˜ ~„þÐ !¦þ§¬ !¦þ§¬ ‹y!“þîû ˜ëû– ¢›@ùÌ country. It is idealism that gives him courage and
›y˜%¡ì‹y!“þîûÐ ›y˜%öì¡ìîû „þyöìŠé þ™,!íî#îû ö„þyöì˜y x‚Ÿ ”%†Å› strength. But false Patriotism is dangerous. It
˜ëûÐ þ™,!íî# “þyîû „þyöìŠé £*”ëû xîy!îû“þ „þöìîû !”öìëûöìŠéÐ makes a man narrow minded and selfish. Such
›y˜%öì¡ìîû !m“þ#ëû îy¢ßþiy˜ ßþ¿,!“þöìœy„þÐ x“þ#“þ„þyœ öíöì„þ Patriotism leads to war and much suffering.
WBCS MAINS EXAM. - 2023 MEGA PRACTICE SERIES
Mock Test-4 (Paper - I)
vþz_îû þ™e
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xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
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›öì•Ä !”öìëû ¢›y‹ ç ¢¦þÄ“þyîû îû*þ™yhsùþîû ßþ™ÜT £öìëû çöìàþÐ ¢Á™)’Å !˜ƒßþºyíÅ ç ›£êÐ ö”Ÿ ö²Ì!›öì„þîû „þyöìŠé “¤þyîû ö”Ÿ
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~£z þ™,!íî# ö„þyöì˜y ‹y!“þîû ˜ëû– ¢›@ùÌ ›y˜î‹y!“þîûéôôôé ~î‚ îý „þöìÜTîû !”öì„þ öàþöìœ ö”ëûÐ
Mock Test-4 (Paper-II)
1. A. Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper expressing þ™!îûþ™)îû„þÐ ~£z ”%£z ²Ì!“þÛþyöì˜îû£z œÇþÄ ‹#îöì˜îû !î!¦þ§¬ xy!D„þöì„þ
your anxiety and concern about the increasing exodus
!îöìÙÕ¡ì’ „þîûyÐ ~öì”îû þ™kþ!“þ†“þ öë þ™yíÅ„þÄ îûöìëûöìŠé ôôôé “þy
of bright students. 40
OR, !˜ƒ¢öì¨öì££z îœy ëyëûÐ !îKþyöì˜îû þ™kþ!“þ=!œ £œ þ™ëÅöìîÇþ’–
B. Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper expressing þ™îû#Çþy ~î‚ x!¦þKþ“þyÐ !îKþy˜ ¢Á™)’Å“þyîû !”öì„þ xy×ëû ö˜ëû–
about intolerance. 40 ë!”ç •öì›Åîû ›)œ ˜#!“þ £œ !îÙ»y¢– ¢‚Kþy ~î‚ ~„þ‹˜ Kþy˜#
2. Make a precis of the following passage and add a îÄ!_«îû Ÿ·Ð ¢y•yîû’¦þyöìî îœy ëyëû– !îKþyöì˜îû ²Ìî’“þy ë%!_« ç
suitable title : 40
The state govt will conduct a review of the quality of
÷£“%þ!„þ“þyÐ x˜Ä!”öì„þ •öì›Åîû ¢yîûy‚Ÿ £œ xy•Äy!d„þ“þyÐ þ™)öìîÅ
English teaching at the primary level. Insiders say the ë…˜ þ™,!íî#öì“þ ›y˜%öì¡ìîû xy!î¦Åþyî £öìëû!Šéœ– ²Ì„,þ!“þîû !î•¹‚¢#
review, convering both pupils and teachers is being ~î‚ Ÿ!_«Ÿyœ# !î¡ìëû=!œ “þyöì„þ ¦þ#“þ „þîû“þÐ ~£z¦þyöìî Öîû& £œ
carried out as doubts have been raised about the quality
²Ì„,þ!“þîû !î!¦þ§¬ Ÿ!_«îû vþzþ™y¢˜y– öë›˜éôôôé xy=˜– ¢)ëÅ– ˜”#–
of English teaching in primary schools.
Two and a half years have passed since English was
†yŠéþ™yœy– ¢yþ™ £z“þÄy!”Ð •›ÅŸyßþf=öìœyç “þyîûyç îû‰þ˜y „þöìîûöìŠé˜
reintroduced into the syllabus but the project is yet to ëyîûy îy!£Ä„þ ²Ì„,þ!“þ ç x¦þÄhsþîû#’ ‹†öì“þîû ›öì•Ä ö›œîõþ˜
be completed. Till date 150,000 primary teachers in 16 „þöìîû!Šéöìœ˜Ð
districts of the state have been trained. The review xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
results will determine what further steps are necessary OR,
for improving the quality of English teaching in schools B. òò~…˜ “þyöì„þ ç¡ì%• ö”çëûyç ëy– ˜y ö”çëûyç “þyÐ !“þ˜„þyœ ~öì¢
and will indentify and problem areas in training.
~„þ„þyöìœ öàþöì„þöìŠéÐ “þöìî “%þ!› ~“þ ëy£zëy£z ö„þ˜ „þîûŠé– î%!Gþ ˜y
3. Draft a report on 50 shanties gutted in Kirti Nagar;
initial probe shows gas leakage, short circuit behind îyþ™%Ð ë“þ£z îvþüöìœy„þ £ç˜y ö„þ˜– {Ù»öìîûîû „þyöìŠé !„þ xy›yöì”îû
fire. 40 öíyvþüy£z ‰þöìœÚóó
4. Write a composition on any one of the following îîû&’ ~£z „þíy öŸ¡ì „þîûy ›ye£z ”)öìîû– xy„þyöìŸîû þ™!Øþ› !”†öìhsþ
topics. 40
¢)ëÅ v%þöìî ö†œÐ ›öì˜y£öìîûîû @ùÌyöì› ç î%öì„þ öŠéöìëû ö†œ ~„þ
(A) The Decline of Sunderban Mangroves.
xhsþ£#˜ x¤y•yîûÐ “þyîû ›öì˜ þ™öìvþü ö†œ îûˆîy£y!îû ~„þ x“þ#öì“þîû
OR,
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å „þíyÐ “þ…˜ ¢›ëû !Šéœ xöì˜„þ ¢£‹Ð ‹#îöì˜ ¢›¢Äy !Šéœ
(B) Artificial Intelligence and Jobs.
xöì˜„þ „þ›Ð ›y˜%öì¡ì ›y˜%öì¡ì ²Ì#!“þ !ŠéœÐ
5. Translate any one of the following passages into
£yöì“þ öî!Ÿ ¢›ëû ö˜£z xyîû ›öì˜y£öìîûîûÐ ‹#îöì˜ vþzay˜ þ™“þ˜
English. 40
„þ› ö”öì…!˜ ö¢Ð ë“þÝþy ˜y îëû¢ “þyöì„þ î,kþ „þöìîûöìŠé “þyîû öíöì„þ
A. xöì˜öì„þ ›öì˜ „þöìîû˜ !îKþy˜ ~î‚ •›Å þ™îûßþ™îû!îöìîûy•#Ð !„þlsþ ~£z
xöì˜„þ öî!Ÿ x!¦þKþ“þy “þyöì„þ ¢›,kþ „þöìîûöìŠéÐ xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
•yîû’y ¼yhsþÐ „þyîû’ !£öì¢öìî îœy ëyëû– ~îûy £œ ~öì„þ xþ™öìîûîû
Mock Test-4 (Paper-II)
Answers
OR,
1. A. Examination Hall
B. Examination Hall
Date
To
Date xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
To
The Editor
The Editor
The Times of India
The Times of India
Kolkata – 700 001
Kolkata
Sub : Mass exodus of bright students from India Sir,
Sir, Sub : Intolerance is a social evil
The trend of Graduate, or even worse 10+2, students Through your reputed daily, I would like to draw the attention
opting to go abroad for higher studies is far greater a of concerned persons to the evil of intolerance that is corroding
cause for concern than happiness and pride, largely the very base of our society.
pointing to the infrastructural inadequacy, lack of India has traditionally been a country whose people
research opportunities, meagre remuneration, believe in tolerance and its usefulness. This tolerance has
population, and surely unemployment – causes that set up our societies on a solid base of unity and integrity
have been haunting India for a long time. Measures to despite various social, religious, geographical and lingual
combat this crucial challenge have been taken in the diversities. When this very base is weak, the entire
form of rolling out educational schemes and fellowships, country’s stability is bound to get threatened. This exactly
but clearly enough, blood has not ceased flowing so seems to be happening all over India of late.
far. The great exodus of bright students, one must Why are we losing this precious gift of tolerance? The
understand beyond political hues and affiliations, is answer is a complex one. Everyone is naturally selfish to
some extent. This selfishness helps us to set ourselves
the major cause of what is sociologically known as
as responsible and independent members of society. The
‘brain drain’ in which human resource of one country
problem begins when we let this selfishness go beyond
is forced to settle (and prosper) abroad. While this
the boundary of tolerance. Our constructive selfishness
creates a huge intellectual void in India, it also deprives
has now turned into destructive egomania. We have
the future possibilities of our country.
forgotten that we have a responsibility towards our
It is time, therefore, that both the State and the Central country, our society and fellowmen.This dangerous self-
Governments took some urgent decision to tackle this centredness is further bolstered by the presence of corrupt
problem with utmost immediacy. politicians and other government officials. Now we want
to think only of ourselves. My demand is always
Thank you. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å legitimate, my religion is the greatest, my opinions are
Yours faithfully,
only sensible things in this world – to hell with yours,
XYZ to hell with India’s – this has, sadly, become our creed.
So long we don’t do anything about this petty and largest mangrove forest. Designated as a United
dangerous intolerance, there is no hope for this country. Nations World Heritage site in both India and
Whenever we seem to be losing our path, we should Bangladesh, it covers nearly 4,000 square miles (10,000
think about our great men and draw inspiration and square kilometers). The forest provides habitat for the
power from them. Nature has made this world so Bengal tiger, as well as numerous other rare and
beautifully diverse. If our intolerance threatens that endangered species of birds, reptiles, and aquatic
diversity, mother nature will not forgive us. History is mammals. Moreover, mangroves are salt-tolerant trees
replete with examples of how cruelly she punishes people, and shrubs that help protect coastal areas from
countries and races who threatens her diversity. increasingly intense tropical storms, waves, and
Thanks and regards, erosion. By serving as a flood buffer, they can reduce
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å the damage caused by storms such as cyclones.
Yours truly
XYZ Scientists fear that accelerating sea-level rise due to
global warming is likely to submerge the Sunderbans.
2. STANDARISATION OF ENGLISH EDUCATION Without the mangroves of the Sunderbans to serve as
Although the impact of Bengali education is well defined a buffer, more frequent and intense storms are likely
at the primary level yet the instruction of English to pose a growing danger to the residents of Ganges
education must be improved at the grass root level of basin including cities like Kolkata. Scientists
education. To ensure the quality of English at that determined that intact and healthy mangroves in the
level, both teacher and pupils must be well trained. Indian state of Orissa saved many lives in a 1999
Besides the role of the incumbent govt should be cyclone originating from the Bay of Bengal. Another
instruction oriented from time to time. study found that the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami caused
3. 50 Shanties Gutted in Kirti Nagar; Initial Probe significantly less damage in areas of south-eastern India
Shows Gas Leakage, Short Circuit Behind Fire protected by mangroves and other forests, and
simulations show that a dense belt of mangroves can
(By a Staff Reporter) xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å dramatically reduce the peak pressure of a tsunami
Delhi, November 26, 2020 : At least 50 shanties were
gutted and around 200 people displaced after a fire
wave. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
broke out in West Delhi’s Kirti Nagar on late Wednesday Taking into account recent evidence of accelerating
night. While no casualties were reported, there has global sea-level rise as well as regional variations,
been extensive loss of property and cash. scientists project that relative sea-level rise is likely to
According to Delhi Fire Services (DFS), a call was inundate most of the Sunderbans by mid-century, and
received at around 12.40 am from Kayla Nehru Camp, could wipe them out by the end of the century. As per
DSIDC complex and immediately 12 fire tenders were the famous environmentalist Mr. MNO, “The choices
dispatched for the spot. The fire escalated after several we make today could determine whether the ecologically
cylinders also exploded during the rescue operation rich Sunderbans stay on the map—affecting the very
and the fire spread. After the fire was doused, they survival of people in Kolkata and throughout the
began cooling operations,” the official said. Ganges basin.” xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
While no casualties were reported, there has been (B) Artificial Intelligence and Jobs
extensive loss of property and cash. (Source: Fire
In the 21 st century technology driven world, where
department)
the traditional ways of life are paving the way for
Preliminary investigation has revealed that the fire
newer modes and means to survive in this world,
broke out due to a leakage in the gas and short circuit.
artificial intelligence has brcome an undeniable reality
The probe is on.
that not only shapes but also moulds our day-to-day
4. (A) The Decline of Sunderban Mangroves experience about reality and the world. Gone are the
The Sunderbans of India and Bangladesh is the world’s days when a factory would be run only on manpower
for technology has ushered in a great paradigm shift, The aim of both these institutions is to analyse different
creating newer opportunities and chances. There is no aspects of life. There is no doubt that the methods of
point denying that there are conflicting views about science and religion are different: the method of science
the impact of Artificial Intelligence (AI) on jobs. Some is observation, experimentation and experience. Science
reports say that AI will lead to a net reduction in jobs takes its recourse to perfection. The rules of religion
while the other view is that AI will create more jobs of faith, intuition and spoken word of the enlightened.
than the jobs lost. The jury is still out, and only time In general, e science is inclined towards reason and
will tell the impact on the job market. However, there rationality, spiritualism is the essence of religion. In
are various factors that have to be reckoned with. Such earlier times when man appeared on earth, he was
as: xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å over-awed at the sight of violent and powerful aspects
In the first stage, AI will replace jobs that are more of nature. Thus began the worship of forces of nature-
routine in nature. With further improvements and fire, the sun, the rivers, the trees, the snakes, etc. The
research, AI will become more intelligent and will be holy scriptures were written by those who developed
used to support and replace more complex work. The a harmony between external nature and their inner
level of AI usage is difficult to visualise at this stage. world. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
However, AI will never be able to completely replace OR,
human intelligence. The nature of jobs to be performed B. ‘It’s all the same whether he is administered medicine
by humans will undergo a change. New kinds of jobs or not. He has almost reached the fag end of his life.
will be created in the process. The outcome of all will But, I can’t make out why you’re so insistent upon
be an improvement in productivity and efficiency, and going! You might be rich but, still, you can’t sway
the ultimate winner will be mankind. over god.
The world has evolved to such a great extent that, The moment Barun uttered these words, the sun
unless we are technologically equipped, we may just set in the western horizon. An unfathomable darkness
get lagged behind in this fast moving world. On the enveloped the world of Manohar – from inside and
other hand, the negative impacts can not be altogether outside. Memories of a glorious past gallored his mind.
negated. Hence, technology that can bolster society Time, then, was much easier. There were fewer troubles.
without compromising on its basic principles, is what There was a sense of mutual amicability. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
the need of the hour is. Days are numbered for Manohar. He has been
5. A. Many people believe that science and religion are witness to life’s great vagaries. His experience from life
contrary to each other. But this notion is absurd. As has ripened him much more than what age has offered
a matter of fact, both are complementary to each other. him.
Mock Test-4 (Paper-III)
1. The temperature of Thiruvananthapuram is lower than 7. Consider the following statements:
that of Mumbai in May and higher than that of Mumbai 1. Alluvial soil is rich in chemical properties and is
in January, because— capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops.
(a) Thiruvananthapuram has cold current and Mumbai 2. Black soil is suitable for cotton, groundnut.
is faced with warm current 3. Rabi crops are reaped in autumn after sowing in
(b) Thiruvananthapuram has higher rainfall in summer June.
and it is nearer to the Equator Which of these statements are correct? xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Thiruvananthapuram is on the windward side and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Mumbai is on the leeward side (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(d) Thiruvananthapuram is Vegetated while Mumbai 8. Which among the following was steel plant of India is
is not sometimes called India’s First Swadeshi Steel Plant?
2. Which of the following is the Trans Himalayan pass? (a) Bengal Iron Works Company
(a) Rohtang Pass (b) Banihal Pass (b) TISCO
(c) Aghil Pass (d) Thaga La (c) IISCO
3. Consider the following statements :
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (d) Bokaro Steel Plant
1. Tamil Nadu is the only area which receives about 9. Which among the following is deepest port in India?
half of its rainfall from north-east monsoon winds. (a) Okha Port (b) Vizag Port
2. Kerala is the only state receiving very heavy (c) Paradip Port (d) Gangavaram Port
rainfall from the south-west monsoon winds. 10. Tropical moist deciduous vegetation is to be found in
3. In India, the south-west monsoon is stronger than Sahyadris, north-east plateau of the Peninsula and in
the north-east monsoon. the Shiwaliks. Which of the following is not a tree
Which of these are correct statements? species of this group?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Teak (b) Sal
(c) Sandalwood (d) Deodar
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 11. A few showers of rain during the months of December
4. Match the following:
and January are beneficial to the rabi crops because
Set I Set II
they—
A. Shipki La 1. Between Tezpur and
(a) Make the plant strong
Tawang, Arunachal
Pradesh
(b) Protect the crops from frost
(c) Cause fall in temperature
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
B. Bara-lacha La 2. Between India and China
(d) Provide moisture for the germination of seeds
(Entry to Chumbi
12. Which of the following is not a cause of soil erosion?
Valley), Sikkim (a) Drainage (b) Deforestation
C. Nathu La 3. Between Kyelang and (c) Weathering (d) Grazing
Leh, Himachal Pradesh 13. The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged in
D. Bomdila Pass 4. River Sutlej enters India the North - South direction is :
from Tibet 1. Kishanganga 2. Ganga
Codes: 3. Wainganga 4. Penganga
A B C D (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(a) 1
(b) 4
2
3
3
2
4
1
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
14. Which one of the following pairs of states and tribes
(c) 4 1 3 2 is not correctly matched?
(d) 1 4 2 3 (a) Assam: Miri
5. Which of the following mountains is called Relict (b) Nagaland : Konyak
mountain? (c) Arunachal Pradesh : Apatani xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Himalayan Mountain (d) Madhya Pradesh : Lambada
(b) Aravalli Mountain 15. Which is common to Guwahati, Barauni, Koyali, Haldia,
(c) Hindu Kush Mountain Digboi and Mathura?
(d) Nilgiri Mountain (a) Public sector refineries, owned by the Indian Oil
6. Which among the following is India’s first Expressway? Corporation are located in these places
(a) Mumbai-Pune Expressway (b) They are prominent game sanctuaries
(b) Ahmedabad-Vadodara Expressway (c) They are hill stations
(c) Delhi-Gurgaon Expressway (d) Oil and natural gas commission has its units in all
(d) Jaipur-Kishangarh Expressway these places
16. Find the incorrect pair: 27. Which of the following combinations of rivers and
(a) Tea - Assam cities situated on their banks is wrong?
(a) Lucknow - Gomati
(b) Peanut - Bihar xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) Ayodhya - Saryu
(c) Coconut - Kerala
(c) Badrinath - Alaknanda
(d) Sugarcane - Uttar Pradesh
(d) Vijayawada - Narmada
17. Black cotton soil of the Deccan region of India is
28. Which state in India has the largest cover area of
associated with ________ rocks.
forest?
(a) Volcanic rocks (b) Plutonic rocks (a) Uttarakhand (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Sedimentary rocks (d) Hypabyssal rocks (c) Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh
18. The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of 29. Throughout the ages the maximum number of streams
the following states? of people came to India via—
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) The western Himalayan passes
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu (b) Tibet
19. Which of the following gives the correct sequence of (c) The sea
(d) The eastern Himalayan passes
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
hills in the east-west direction?
(a) Naga, Mikir, Khasi, Garo 30. The Koal Project is aimed towards—
(b) Garo, Khasi, Mikir, Naga (a) Irrigation
(c) Khasi,Garo, Naga, Mikir (b) Drainage and power generation
(c) Power generation and load control
(d) Mikir, Naga, Khasi, Garo
(d) Irrigation, flood control and power generation
20. Coir, Copra, Coconut, Cashew are mainly exported
31. The earliest arrivals in India are believed to be Negritos.
from—
(a) Mumbai (b) Cochin xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å At which one of the following places are they mainly
found now?
(c) Tuticorin (d) Chennai (a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan
21. What is Gomia in Jharkhand famous for? (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Andaman Islands
(a) Coal fields (b) Manganese mines 32. The main difference between the Eastern Ghats and
(c) Fertilizer plant (d) Explosives factory the Western Ghats is the matter of
22. The Indo-Gangetic Plains of India are fertile due to (a) Continuity (b) Proximity of coast
(c) Ending in Nilgiris (d) Height
(a) The heavy and timely rains and forests
33. Latitude of place is indicative of its ________
(b) Alluvial soils brought by the rivers from the
(a) Time (b) Altitude
mountains
(c) Amount of rainfall (d) Temperature
(c) Hard labour of the farmers over the generations
(d) Better irrigation facilities
34. India’s forest sponge iron plant is at xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Kothagudem (b) Kurnool
23. The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before (c) Cuddapah (d) Kavaratti
it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the 35. The retreating monsoon withdraws itself from
former is
(a) The west coast to the east coast
(a) Higher in elevation than Dwaraka
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) North-East India to the west coast
(b) Situated further north than Dwaraka (c) The north to the south
(c) Situated further east (about 30º longitude) than (d) North-West India to Bengal and then to Kerala
Dwaraka 36. Which kind of forest is found in Silent Valley of
(d) Situated about 30 º east of Dwaraka and the earth Kerala?
rotates from west to east (a) Mangrove Forest
24. The multipurpose project irrigating maximum area in (b) Deciduous Forest
India is (c) Tropical Rain Forest
(a) Beas (b) Bhakra Nangal (d) Littoral and Swamp Forest
(c) Damodar Valley (d) Hirakud 37. Afforestation is the process of—
(a) Cleaning forests
25. Rayalaseema is a region of which one of the following
(b) Plantation
States?
(c) Cutting of forest
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
(d) Collecting forest resources
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu 38. Which National Highway connects Delhi and Kolkata
26. Naharkatiya oilfields are located in— via Varanasi?
(a) Tripura (b) West Bengal (a) NH4 (b) NH10
(c) Assam (d) Madhya Pradesh (c) NH2 (d) NH6
39. The Indian Wild Ass (Ghor-Khur) is found in _______. 51. What is the major cause of ‘October Heat’?
(a) Sunderbans (b) Assam forests (a) Hot and dry weather
(c) The Rann of Kachchh (d) Cauvery delta (b) Very low velocity winds
40. Which one of the only regions of the Shivaliks to (c) Low pressure systems over the Indo-Gangetic
preserve its flora and fauna? plains
(a) Doon (b) Duar xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (d) High temperature associated with high humidity
(c) National Park (d) Patli Dun 52. Which one of the following types of vegetation is
41. Which dam in India has the distinction of being the referred as Monsoon forest?
longest main stream dam in the world? (a) Tropical Dry-evergreen forests
(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam (b) Rihand Dam (b) Tropical Moist-deciduous forests
(c) Tehri Dam (d) Kosi Project (c) Tropical Semi-evergreen forests
42. Which among the following cities in India is not located
(d) Tropical Dry-deciduous forests
in Golden Quadrilateral Road Network?
(a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai
53. Match the following : xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
State Coalfields
(c) New Delhi (d) Chandigarh
43. The Buckingham Canal, which was declared a National A. West Bengal 1. Raniganj
Waterway of India, is a canal running from— B. Jharkhand 2. Jharia
(a) Punjab to Haryana C. Madhya Pradesh 3. Suhagpur
(b) Mumbai to Goa D. Odisha 4. Himgiri
(c) Vijayawada to Villupuram Codes:
(d) Cochin to Kozhikode xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å A B C D
44. Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary is located in ________. (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Gujarat (b) Himachal Pradesh (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra (c) 4 1 3 2
45. Which state irrigation is done by Rihand Dam project? (d) 1 4 2 3
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Gujarat and Maharashtra 54. Which region in India receives substantial rain during
(b) Odisha and West Bengal the winter month of January ?
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar (a) Kerala Coast (b) Central India
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan
46. Which states are related with the dispute of
55. Which of the following functions performed by a forest
“Mullaperiyar Dam”?
help most in controlling drought?
(a) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(a) Forests act as water sheds
(b) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(b) Forests bring rainfall in monsoon
(c) Kerala and Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Forests lower the temperature of the environment
47. Which part of India receives rainfall from both the (d) Forests prevent soil erosion
South-West and North-West monsoons? 56. The Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain widens—
(a) Tamil Nadu (a) From east to west (b) From west to east
(b) Odisha (c) At the middle (d) Nowhere
(c) Lakshadweep Islands 57. The first cement factory was built in India in 1904 at
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (a) Ranchi (b) Hazaribagh
48. The Paddy fields of India are located in the areas of (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad
annual rainfall—
58. What is the most important characteristic of the islands
(a) 120 cm (b) 140 cm (Indian) located in the Arabian Sea?
(c) 100 cm (d) 80 cm
(a) They are all very small in size
49. When was Oil and Natural Gas Commission
established?
(b) They are all of coral origin xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) They have a very dry climate
(c) 1952 (d) 1956 (d) They are extended parts of the mainland
50. Which of the following two states are prone to cyclones 59. Which of the following physiographic features of India
during retreating Monsoon season? is ‘geologically the oldest’?
(a) Karnataka and Kerala (a) Himalayan Mountain Chain
(b) Punjab and Haryana xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) Indus-Ganga Brahmaputra Plain
(c) Bihar and Assam (c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Odisha (d) The Coastal Plains
60. The land-locked natural harbour along the east coast of 73. The highest percentage of decadal growth rate of
India is— population as per 2011 Census was registered by:
(a) Visakhapatnam (b) Chennai
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab
(c) Kolkata (d) Paradeep (c) Haryana (d) Meghalaya
61. Which one of the following rivers has the highest 74. Which of the following railway is not recognised by
replenishable ground water resource in the country? UNESCO World Heritage Site?
(a) Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
(a) The Yamuna (b) The Ganga
(b) Nilgiri Mountain Railway
62.
(c) Tsangpo-Brahmaputra (d) Dakshina Ganga
The National Atlas and Thematic Mapping
(c) Kalka-Shimla Railway xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) North-Eastern Railway
Organisation (NATMO) is located at— 75. Which Indian state shares the longest land border with
(a) Kolkata (b) Lucknow Bhutan?
(c) Dehradun (d) New Delhi (a) Assam (b) Sikkim
63. What was the ancient name of Shivalik Hills? (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) West Bengal
(a) Manak Parbat (b) Mahabharata Hills 76. Which of the following is the nucleus of the Hugli
Industrial Region?
(c) Shiva Parvat (d) None of these
(a) Kolkata-Haora (b) Kolkata-Medinipur
64. What is Bandipur Sanctuary situated in Karnataka
(c) Kolkata-Rishra (d) Kolkata-Konnagar
particularly noted for?
77. Region named ‘Diara’ is associated with the district
(a) Wild Elephant (b) Indian Bison of :
(c) Rhinoceros (d) Spotted Deer (a) Cooch Behar (b) Murshidabad
65. The glacier of the Nubra Valley is the longest one with (c) Maldaha (d) Bankura
a length of over 72 km is called the ________ glacier. 78. In which year the Metro Rail system of Kolkata was
(a) Hispar (b) Siachen started to run :
(c) Biafo (d) Baltoro (a) 1993 (b) 1984
66. The Duncan Pass is located between xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) 1995 (d) 1996
(a) Afghanistan and India
79. ‘Tilpara’ irrigation canal is in :
(a) Burdwan (b) Birbhum
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(c) Purulia (d) None of these
(c) South Andaman and Little Andaman 80. ‘Tin Bigha’ area leased to Bangladesh for use is
(d) Shivalik and Karakoram associated with :
67. What is the alternate name for contour lines? (a) Nadia (b) South Dinajpur
(a) Isopotential (b) Isotherm (c) Murshidabad (d) Cooch Behar
(c) Isohypse (d) Isohyet 81. Kolkata Port is an example of which type of port?
68. Which of the following cities/towns does not lie on the (a) Naval (b) Oil
banks of the Ganga? (c) Riverine (d) Natural
82. Which one has not been correctly matched ?
(a) Kanpur (b) Fatehpur
(a) Toy Train of Darjeeling has been given Heritage
(c) Ghazipur (d) Farrukhabad
Railway Station by UNESCO.
69. Which of these is/are endangered species animals of (b) Mangpu of Kalimpong subdivision is famous for
India?
1. Crocodile 2. Elephant
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å Chincona cultivation.
(c) Lloyd’s Botanical Garden is situated in the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Kurseong subdivision.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Himalaya Mountaineering Institute is located in
70. Which of the following projects is administered by the Darjeeling town.
more than one State? 83. The Singalila mountain range is situated with the border
(a) Uri (b) Kosi between West Bengal and :
(c) Hirakud (d) Tungabhadra
(a) China (b) Nepal xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Assam (d) Bhutan
71. Which of the following term is correctly used for the 84. Around what percent of total land area of West Bengal
flat plain along the sub-Himalayan region in North is under forest?
India? (a) 10% (b) 12%
(a) Tarai (b) Doon (c) 14% (d) 16%
(c) Khadar (d) Bhabar 85. Sidrapong of Darjeeling had India’s first :
72. Which of the following is an Example of Abyssal (a) Plywood factory
Igneous Rock? (b) Hydro Power Station
(a) Basalt (b) Granite (c) Saw Mill xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Slate (d) Dolomite (d) Thermal Power Station
86. Mohammad Bazar of Birbhum is famous for : 99. Which of the following Indian State is the leading
(a) China clay (b) Lime stone producer of Maize?
(c) Dolomite (d) None of these (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
87. For which fruit ‘Diara’ region of West Bengal is (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala
famous ? 100. Aizawl is situated on which of the following river
(a) Banana (b) Pine apple bank?
(c) Mango (d) None of these (a) Meghna (b) Tlawng
88. Which one of the following district has got Headquarter (c) Hwang Ho (d) Irawadi
in the name of the District ?
(a) Nadia (b) Birbhum
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 101. During the Gupta Empire, the term ‘UPARIKARA’
was used for—
(c) Hooghly (d) Bankura (a) An extra tax levied on all subjects.
89. What was the population of West Bengal according to (b) Periodic supplies of fruits, firewood, flowers etc.
2011 census? (c) It was a voluntary offering by people to the king.
(a) 81,357,851 (b) 75,349,751 (d) King’s customary share of the production
(c) 92,047,426 (d) 91,347,736 normally amounting to 1/6th of the production.
90. Which one of the following National Highway has 102. Which is the correct chronology of the excavation of
crossed Farakka Barrage ? the site in the Indus Civilization?
(a) NH 31 (b) NH 32 I. Mohenjo-daro
(c) NH 33 (d) NH 34 II. Chanhudaro
91. Accroding to 2011 Census, the rural population of III. Harappa
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
India comprises— IV. Lothal
(a) 62.84% (b) 64.84%
Select the correct code:
(c) 66.84% (d) 68.84%
(a) III, I, II & IV
92. Match the following :
(b) I, III, II & IV
A. Vembanad 1. Kerala
(c) II, I, III & IV
B. Bhitakanika 2. Odisha
(d) III, IV, II & I
C. Ratnagiri 3. Maharashtra
103. Who among the following leader made the famous
D. Condapur 4. Karnataka
‘Objectives Resolution’, in the Constituent Assembly?
Codes:
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel (b) C. Rajagopalachari
A B C D xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dr. John Mathai
(a) 1 2 3 4
104. Which of the following reason compel the leaders of
(b) 4 3 2 1
Muslim League to enter in the Interim Government?
(c) 4 1 3 2
(a) The Congress accepted their demand that it would
(d) 1 4 2 3
not nominate a non-Muslim League Muslim to
93. The Kachin Hills make a boundary between India and
the Interim Government.
which of the following neighbors?
(b) The Viceroy accepted its stand that it would not
(a) Bhutan (b) Myanmar
join the Constituent Assembly.
(c) Nepal (d) China
(c) The Viceroy had accepted its stand that it would
94. Which among is not mangrove region of India?
not take steps to rescind the League Council’s
(a) West Bengal (b) Udupi
resolution of July 29.
(c) Condapur (d) Ratnagiri
(d) The Muslim League wanted to get a foothold to
95. The Green Gold revolution is related to the_______. fight for the cherished goal of Pakistan.
(a) Coffee (b) Gold
(c) Bamboo (d) Tea
105. Choose the incorrect pair: xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Yoga Darshan Patanjali
96. 2011 Census covered how many districts in India ?
(b) Mimansa Jaimini
(a) 610 (b) 620
(c) Vedant Badarayana
(c) 630 (d) 640
(d) Nyaya Darshana Kapila
97. Which among the following city is called “Zero Mile
Center” because of its location on India’s Geographical 106. The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi is believed to
center? record the achievements of—
(a) Bhopal (b) Nagpur xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Ashoka (b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Jabalpur (d) Indore (c) Samudragupta (d) Chandragupta II
98. With which mineral production is Malajkhand 107. Who among the following Kushan Emperors was the
associated? first to introduce the gold coinage in India?
(a) Lignite (b) Copper (a) Vima Kadphises (b) Vima Taktu
(c) Diamond (d) Iron ore (c) Vasishka (d) Kujula Kadphises
108. Which among the following Mudra is the gesture of 119. Match List-I (Kingdoms) with List-II (Capitals) and
Buddha as depicted in his first sermon? select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Abhaya Mudra (b) Dhyana Mudra the lists:
(c) Dharmachakra Mudra (d) Bhumisparsha Mudra List-I List-II
109. Which type of pottery was most popular with the A. Chola 1. Madurai
Later Vedic people? B. Paramara 2. Kanchi xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Black-slipped Ware (b) Black and Red Ware C. Pallava 3. Thanjavur
(c) Painted Grey Ware (d) Red Ware D. Pandya 4. Dhar
110. What was the motive of Lord Wellesley to introduce Codes:
the system of Subsidiary Alliance? A B C D
(a) Improve the administration of the Indian States (a) 3 4 2 1
(b) Prevent disloyalty towards the British (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(c) Tone up the British Indian administration
(d) 2 3 4 1
(d) Prevent the French influence in the Indian States
120. Who among the following leader presided the historic
111. The Veda that contains charms and spells toward off
1916 Lucknow Session of the Congress?
evils and diseases is—
(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda
(a) Annie Besant xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(b) Madan Mohan Malviya
(c) Samaveda (d) Yajurveda (c) Ambika Charan Majumdar
112. In the early period of Indian History, Tondi was a (d) Subhas Chandra Bose
flourishing seaport of— 121. Which Sultan of Delhi died while playing the Chaugan
(a) Cheras (b) Cholas xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (Polo)?
(c) Pandyas (d) Andhras (a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak (b) Ghiyasuddin Balban
113. Which one of the following mentioned division of the (c) Shamsuddin IItutmish (d) Nasiruddin Mahmud
Mauryan Society into seven classes? 122. The most learned medieval Muslim ruler who was well
(a) Ashoka’s Edicts versed in various branches of learning including
(b) Indica astronomy, mathematics and medicine was
(c) Kautilya’s Arthashastra (a) Sikandar Lodi
(d) Vishnu Purana
114. Nagarjuna is known as the Einstein of India because:
(b) Iltutmish xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(a) Like Einstein he had a rare insight into the nature (d) Alauddin Khalji
of the universe. 123. Consider the following statement (s) with reference to
(b) He was one of the greatest physicists of all time. the reformers & leaders of India’s Struggle for
(c) He propounded the theory of Shunyavada similar Independence.
to Einstein’s theory of Relativity.
(d) He was a great dialectician. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å I. Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the ‘Calcutta
Unitarian Committee’.
115. Which one of the four varnas mentioned in the Purusha II. Social Service League was established by Mahadev
Sukta of the Mandala X of the Rig Veda is referred in Govind Ranade.
the other parts of Rig Veda in the sense of a Varna? III. Deccan Education Society was founded by Gopal
(a) Brahmanas (b) Kshatriyas Krishna Gokhale.
(c) Vaishyas (d) Shudras IV. Annie Besant started the Central Hindu School.
116. Consider the following rulers who had an alliance with Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
the French during the course of the Carnatic wars. (a) I, II & IV
I. Nasir Jang
III. Anwaruddin
II. Muzaffar Jang
IV. Chanda Sahib
(b) I & IV xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) II & III
Which of the above ruler (s) is/are associated? (d) III Only
(a) I & II (b) III & IV 124. Which of the following leader gave the safety valve
(c) II & III (d) II & IV xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å theory for Indian National Congress and said that it
117. Who among the following freedom fighter opposes the was brain child of Lord Dufferin?
Annie Besant’s idea of launching Home Rule (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) M. N. Roy
Movement? (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Motilal Nehru
(a) G. K. Gokhale (b) Mahatma Gandhi 125. Which of the following provision is a part of the
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh (d) B. G. Tilak Government of India Act of 1919?
118. Who was the Governor-General when Pindaris had (a) Transfer of power to the Indians
created havoc in Central India by indulging in large- (b) The enlargement of the Viceroy’s Executive Council
scale looting? (c) Remodelling of the Central legislature
(a) Lord William Bentinck (b) Lord Hastings (d) Doing away with the distinction between the
(c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Lord Wellesley regulation and non-regulation provinces
126. Where did Gandhiji form the Satyagraha Sabha? 134. Who started the Indian Reform Association?
(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta (a) Narayan Guru (b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Poona (d) Nagpur (c) Krishnaswamy Iyer (d) Keshav Chandra Sen
127. Tax on plunder during war in the Sultanate period was 135. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
known as— (a) Abolition of sati: Lord William Bentinck
(a) Kharaj (b) Jizya xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) Abolition of slavery: Lord Ellenborough
(c) Khums (d) Zakat (c) First railway line in India: Lord Canning
128. Who among the following was responsible for making (d) Swadeshi movement: Lord Minto II
“Sikhism’ a militant force? 136. In the Delhi Sultanate an administrative unit called
(a) Guru Hargovind Singh Pargana was headed by—
(b) Guru Teg Bahadur (a) Shiqdar (b) Barid
(c) Guru Govind Singh (c) Ariz (d) Amin
(d) Guru Arjun Singh 137. Which book described the Arab invasion of Sindh for
129. The term ‘Khalisa’ in the Sultanate and Mughal periods the very first time?
was used for— (a) Shahnama (b) Baburnama
(a) crown lands (c) Akbarnama (d) Chachnama
(b) lands owned by the Sufi establishment 138. Who was the founder of Advaita vada or the doctrine
(c) lands revenue which was directly deposited in the of non-dualism?
imperial treasury (a) Adi Shankaracharya (b) Surdas xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) land revenue which was assigned to the nobles for (c) Ramanuj (d) Kapil
maintaining troops 139. Which of the following revolts during Aurangzeb’s
130. Who was the monarch of Britain at the time of period had a peasant/agrarian background? The revolt
commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858? of the............
(a) William IV (b) Victoria (a) Rajputs (b) Jats and Satnamis
(c) Edward VII (d) George V (c) Marathas (d) Sikhs
131. Match List-I (Event) with List-II (Year in AD) and 140. Who said that “My ultimate aim is to wipe every tear
select the correct answer using the codes given below from every eye”?
the lists: (a) Lord Curzon (b) Mahatma Gandhi
List-I (c) Jawaharlal
List-IINehru (d) Dayananda Saraswati
A. Battle of Bilgram 1. 1279 141. When was the famous Resolution on non-cooperation
B. Shivaji’s escape 2. 1540 under the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi was adopted
C. Tughril Khan’s revolt 3. 1626 in a special session of the Congress held in Calcutta?
D. Mahabat Khan’s revolt 4. 1666 (a) September, 1920 (b) December, 1922
Codes: (c) October, 1924 (d) November, 1925
A B C D xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 142. Pushtimarg is a Vaishnav sect of the Hinduism was
(a) 2 3 1 4 founded by—
(b) 1 4 2 3 (a) Shankaracharya (b) Ramanujacharya
(c) 2 4 1 3 (c) Vallabhacharya (d) Nimbarkacharya
(d) 1 3 2 4 143. Where was Narayana Guru born?
132. The medieval Indian literary work ‘Darbar-i- Akbari’ (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
was written by— (c) Bengal (d) Punjab
(a) Muhammad Hussain 144. Which of the following temples were destroyed by
(b) Malik Muhammad Jayasi Aurangzeb?
(c) Abul Fazl I. Somnath temple II. Vishwanath temple
(d) Amir Khusrau III. Keshav Rai temple IV. Meenakshi temple
133. Consider the following statement (s) is/are related to Codes:
the aims of the Indian National Congress in the early
phases.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
I. Eradication of all possible race, creed or provincial (c) II, III and IV
prejudices among all lovers of India. (d) All of the above
II. Promotion of personal intimacy among all the 145. Which of the following Mughal ruler who tried to
earnest workers in the cause of India. create affinity between Sikh and Maratha by granted
III. Formulation of popular demands. the right to collect Sardesh Mukhi of Deccan but not
IV. Organisation of a violent struggle for the political Chauth to the Marathas?
emancipation of India. (a) Jahandar Shah (b) Muazzam
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (c) Akbar (d) Farukhsiyar
Codes: 146. Who built Imambara and Rumi Darwaza?
(a) I, II & III (b) I, II & IV (a) Wajid Ali Shah (b) Asaf-ud-Daula
(c) III & IV (d) II & III xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Shuja-ud-daula (d) Abdul Mansur
147. What was the another name of ‘Quit India Movement’? 158. Which of the following legislative measures taken till
(a) Khilafat Movement (b) Swadeshi Movement 1861 regarding women rights and marriage are true?
(c) Home Rule Movement (d) August Kranti I. Permitted inter-caste marriage
148. Which of the following provision was not included in II. Daughter to be treated equal with son regarding
the Nehru Report?
(a) India must be given Dominion status
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å inheritance
III. Equal remuneration to both men and women
(b) The Governor General must be only the
constitutional head IV. Immoral traffic of women to be illegal
Options are :
(c) There was to be no separate electorate
(a) I and II
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) Diarchy should be introduced both at the centre
as well as provinces (b) II and III
149. The Mughal leader Babur originally invaded northern (c) I, II and III
India (d) All of the above
(a) To create a Shiite Muslim state. 159. What was the role of Tatya Tope in 1857 mutiny?
(b) Because he was unable to achieve his ambitious
(a) He was commander-in-chief of the army of Nana
goals in central Asia.
Saheb
(c) To control the trade routes into Southeast Asia.
(b) He organized Bhils of Panchmahal region against
(d) To defeat his longstanding enemy, the sultan of
the British
Delhi.
150. Which of the following was the achieved milestone of (c) Both A and B
the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921? (d) Neither A nor B
(a) It stopped the injustice done to the Khilafat 160. Which of the following leader associated with Baraut
(b) Indian obtains some political rights in Uttar Pradesh during 1857 revolts?
(c) The Hindus and the Muslims came closer in (a) Shah Mal
political pursuit (b) Maulavi Ahamadullah Shah
(d) It avenged the Punjab atrocities
151. Who said that ‘‘The congress is tottering to its fall and
(c) Tatya Tope xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) Veer Kuwar Singh
one of my great ambitions while in India is to assist
161. Which of the following are the reasons for which
it to a peaceful demise”?
Wahabi / Walliullah movement was started?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Dufferin
(a) Spreading education among Muslim women
(c) Lord Minto (d) None of these
152. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain at the time of (b) Encouraging to give up puradh system
commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858? (c) Reviving Muslim principles in response to western
(a) Lord Palmerston (b) Russell II influences
(c) Edward Smith-Stanley (d) Benjamin Disraeli (d) Propagating Quran as the only source
153. Who wrote the book ‘Gift to Monotheists’? 162. Faraizi Movement which aimed at removing social
(a) David Hare xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å reforms in muslims started in which of the following
regions?
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade (a) East Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Ramkrishna Bhandarkar (c) Kerala (d) Delhi
154. When was Brahmo Samaj split? 163. Which of the following are the paths chosen by
(a) 1866 (b) 1826 Ramakrishna Paramahamsa towards salvation?
(c) 1843 (d) 1857 (a) Gyana Marg xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
155. Which of the following was not the saint of Varkari (b) Belief in one single god monotheism
sect?
(c) Vedas and Upanishads are the only way to salvation
(a) Tukaram (b) Namdev
(d) Renunciation, meditation and devotion
(c) Eknath (d) Kabir
156. Which of the following act was the revision of 164. The Servants of Indian Society started by Gopal
Vernacular Act? Krishna Gokhale was set up with which of the following
(a) Indian Press act, 1910 objectives?
(b) Newspaper Act, 1908 (a) Prepare masses for selfless cause of country and
(c) Both A & B xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å devote their lives if needed
(d) None of the above (b) Train national missionaries for the service of
157. The Bengal Regulation Act of 1829 dealt with which country
of the following issues primarily: (c) Both the above statements
(a) Abolition of sati (b) Female infanticide (d) Reorganization of Indian society on rational
(c) Child marriages (d) Dowry prohibition principles
165. Which of the following are the innovative means used 177. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of
by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar to bring Sanskrit which one of the following?
education to all? (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(a) Devised new Bengali primer (c) Sikhism (d) Vaishnavism
(b) Brought new prose style xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 178. In Pali texts, who among the following is referred to
(c) Both A & B as Nigantha Nataputta?
(d) Continued the same method without any new (a) Gautama Buddha (b) Mahavira
innovation (c) Parshvanatha (d) Rishabha
166. The script of Indus Valley people was ____. 179. The first Englishman to preside over a Congress
Session was ____.
(a) Desi Script (b) Pictographic Script
(a) George Yule (b) Dufferin
(c) Brahmi Script (d) Kharosthi Script (c) W. Wedderburn (d) None of the above
167. Which of the following term is used for a “school” of 180. Which Governor of Madras had signed a treaty with
learning and teaching the branches of Vedas? Tipu?
(a) Shakha (b) Charna (a) George Macartney
(c) Ratha (d) Yajna (b) Sir Archibald Campbell
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
168. In the Junagarh inscription, which among the following (c) William Medows
Saka ruler achievements are highlighted? (d) Sir Charles Oakeley
(a) Moga (b) Azes 181. Who presided over the first session of the All India
Trade Union Congress in 1920 ?
(c) Rudradaman (d) Nahapana
(a) Purushottam Das Tandon
169. Who among the following Pallava rulers built Vaikunta
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
Perumal Temple at Kanchi ?
(c) Kasturbhai Lalbhai
(a) Nandivarman II (b) Aparajita (d) Govind Vallabh Pant
(c) Mahendrvarman I (d) Vikramaditya II 182. The battle of Aliwal was fought between which of the
170. The IX Mandala of the Rigveda Samhita is dedicated following?
to— (a) English and Marathas
(a) Soma (b) Purushkuta (b) English and Nawab of Awadh
(c) Gotra (d) Gayatri Mantra (c) English and Sikhs
171. Who among the following legendary kings was also (d) English and Tipu Sultan
known as “Sarvadamana” in his childhood? 183. Tilak Swarajya Fund was started to finance which of
the following movements?
(a) Ashoka (b) Bharata
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Chandragupta Maurya (d) Samudragupta (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
172. What was the capital of Surasena Mahajanapada? (c) Champaran Satyagraha
(a) Viratnagar (b) Mathura
(c) Taxila (d) Kashi
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (d) Rowlatt Satyagraha
184. Under which among the following acts, Civil Services
173. During the Delhi Sultanate, who among the following started in India?
were called the Barids? (a) Charter Act, 1813
(a) Craftsmen (b) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Bodyguards of the Sultan (c) Charter Act, 1853
(d) Charter Act, 1793
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
185. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(d) The spy / news reporters (a) Qutbuddin: Adhai din ka Jhonpra
174. Which among the following Sikh Gurus had been given (b) Iltutmish :Qutab Minar
the title “Palace of Amritsar” by Mughal Emperor (c) Alauddin :Hauz-i-Khas
Akbar? (d) Firuz Tughlaq : Tughlaqabad
(a) Guru Ram Das (b) Guru Arjun Das 186. Who said The Simon Commission Report should be
(c) Guru Angad (d) Guru Hargovind thrown on a heap of rubbish?
175. Who among the following shifted the pillars from (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Sivaswami Ayyar
Topra and Meerut to New Delhi? (c) Mohammad Ali jinnah (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq 187. Who among the following Europeans were the last to
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å come to pre-independence India as traders?
(a) Dutch (b) English
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(c) French (d) Portuguese
(d) None of them 188. Which one of the following was the first fort
176. Who was the first Turk to invade India? constructed by the British in India?
(a) Alptigin (b) Subuktigin (a) Fort William (b) Fort St. George
(c) Mahmud of Ghazni (d) Ismail Khan (c) Fort St. David (d) Fort St. Angelo
189. Mumbai was taken by the English East India Company 195. Who among the following Moderate leader of Congress
from : was known as ‘The Lion of Bombay’?
(a) The Portuguese (b) The Dutch (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Charles I (d) Charles II (b) MG Ranade xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
190. The Interim Government at the centre was formed in (c) Firoz Shah Mehta
1946 : (d) Badruddin Tyabji
(a) before the visit of the Cabinet Mission 196. Paramahamsa Mandali primarily aimed at breaking caste
(b) after the visit of the Cabinet Mission rules was founded in which of the following places?
(c) as a result of Cripps Mission xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala
(d) after Mountbatten came to India for transfer of (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat
power to Indians 197. Which of the following act relaxed the restrictions put
191. Kunwar Singh led the 1857 revolt in which area of by the Metcalfe Act?
Bihar? (a) Licensing Act, 1857
(a) Saran (b) Vaishali (b) Press Act of 1835
(c) Vernacular Press Act, 1878
(c) Sasaram (d) Jagdishpur
(d) Registration Act, 1867
192. Who among the following founded the Rajahmundry
Social Reform Association in 1878 in support of widow 198. Who among the following British explorer and
remarriage? adventurer was one of the first to make an overland
journey to India?
(a) Vishnushastri Pandit
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Francis Dey (b) John Mildenhall
(c) Gerald Angier (d) Captain Hawkins
(c) Pandita Ramabai
199. Who among the following British officer captured
(d) Veeresalingam Pantulu Banaras during the revolt of 1857?
193. Who among the following took over the leadership of (a) General John Nicholson
Salt Satyagraha after Mahatma Gandhi’s arrest? (b) Sir Hugh Wheeler
(a) Rajendra Prasad (c) Colonel Oncell
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) William Taylor and Eye
(c) Abbas Tyabji 200. Treaty of Surat was signed between—
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (a) British & Raghuji Bhonsle
194. Where did the Black Hole tragedy took place? (b) British & Raghunath Rao xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Monghyr (b) Calcutta (c) French & Raghunath Rao
(c) Murshidabad (d) Dacca (d) None of these
Mock Test-4 (Paper-III) Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (d) 130. (b)
131. (c) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (a) 144. (a) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (b) 150. (b)
151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a)
161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (c) 166. (b) 167. (b) 168. (c) 169. (a) 170. (a)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (d) 190. (b)
191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (c) 194. (b) 195. (c) 196. (a) 197. (d) 198. (b) 199. (c) 200. (b)
Mock Test-4 (Paper-IV)
1. It is easier to roll a barrel full of coal tar than to pull 12. Oxyreductases, transferases, hydrolases, lyases,
it because isomerases and ligases are all classes of
(a) the full weight of the barrel comes into play when (a) hormones (b) enzymes xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
it is pulled (c) proteins (d) vitamins
(b) the rolling friction is much less than the sliding 13. One watt-hour is equivalent to
friction (a) 6.3 x 103 J (b) 6.3 x 10-7 J
(c) more surface area of the barrel is in contact with
(c) 3.6 x 103 J (d) 3.6 x 10-3 J
the road when it is pulled
(d) coal tar is a liquid and it flows in the barrel when 14. Stars which appear single to the naked eye but are
it is rolled double when seen through a telescope are—
2. Which among the following is the objective of the (a) novas and supernovas (b) binaries
Methyl tert-butyl ether (MTBE) mixing with (c) asteroids (d) quasars
Petroleum? 15. On a stationary sail boat, air is blown from a fan
(a) Raise Octane Number (b) Antioxidant Stabilizer attached to the boat. The boat—
(c) Lead Scavenger (d) Fuel Dye (a) moves in opposite direction in which the air is
3. Which of the following is a Saprotroph? xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å blown
(a) Man (b) Pigeon (b) does not move xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Mushroom (d) Algae (c) moves in the same direction in which air blows
4. Nodes of Ranvier are microscopic gaps found within : (d) spins around
(a) myelinated axons (b) chondroblasts 16. Radio telescopes are better than optical telescopes
(c) osteoblasts (d) gland cells because
5. Minimum number of unequal vectors which can give (a) they can detect faint galaxies which no optical
zero resultant are— telescope can
(a) two (b) three (b) they can work even in cloudy conditions
(c) four (d) more than four
(c) they can work during the day and night
6. Rain is falling vertically downwards. To a man running
(d) All of the above
eastwards, the rain will appear to be coming from
(a) east (b) west 17. Which of the following sub-atomic particle accompanies
(c) northeast (d) southeast an electron emission in Beta–decay?
7. In which of the following industries is mica used as a (a) Antineutrino (b) Neutrino
raw material? (c) Proton (d) None of the above
(a) Cement (b) Glass and Pottery 18. On a cold day when a room temperature is 15 oC, the
(c) Iron and Steel (d) Electrical metallic cap of a pen becomes much colder than its
8. Which of the following element has the highest first plastic body, though both are at the same temperature
ionization enthalpy? of 15oC, because
(a) Magnesium (b) Strontium xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) metals have higher thermal capacity than plastics
(c) Beryllium (d) Barium (b) plastics have a lower density than metals
9. What do endocrine cells of the pancreas secrete? (c) metals are good conductor of heat
(a) Omega growth hormone (d) plastics have a higher thermal conductivity than
(b) Beta somatostatin metals
(c) Delta insulin 19. Oil raise up the wick in a lamp. The principle involves
(d) Alpha glucagon (a) the diffusion of oil through the wick
10. DNA fragments separated on an Agarose gel can be (b) the liquid state of oil
visualised after staining with— (c) capillary action phenomenon xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Aniline blue (b) Ethidium Bromide (d) volatility of oil
(c) Acetocarmine (d) Bromophenol blue 20. Superconductors are substances which
11. Plants that grow under average temperature and (a) conduct electricity at low temperature
moisture are called—
(b) offer high resistance to the flow of current
(a) halophytes (b) hydrophytes
(c) offer no resistance to the flow of electricity
(c) mesophytes (d) xerophytes
(d) conduct electricity at high temperature
21. Inside an aeroplane, flying at a high altitude, 32. Siphon will fail to work if
(a) the pressure is the same as that outside (a) the densities of the liquid in the two vessels are
(b) normal atmospheric pressure is maintained by the equal
use of air pumps (b) the level of the liquid in the two vessels are at the
(c) the pressure inside is less than the pressure outside same height
(d) normal humidity and partial vacuum are maintained (c) both its limbs are of unequal length
22. Materials for rain-proof coats and tents owe their (d) the temperature of the liquids in the two vessels
water-proof properties to
33.
are the same
Which of the following represents vinegar?
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) surface tension (b) viscosity
(a) 20% solution of acetic acid in ethanol
(c) specific gravity (d) elasticity
(b) 20% solution of acetic acid in water
23. Which one of the following groups of compounds is (c) 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water
called ‘accessory dietary factor’? (d) 40-50% solution of acetic acid in water
(a) Fats (b) Hormones 34. In which of the following mediums will sound travel
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins with greater speed at 0° C?
24. Accumulation of which one of the following in the (a) Aluminium (b) Water
muscles of sprinters leads to cramp? (c) Hydrogen (d) Same in all of the above
(a) Lactic acid (b) Ethanol 35. Why does Carbon tetrachloride have no dipole
(c) Pyruvic acid (d) Glucose moment?
25. What is the change in the rate constant for a chemical (a) Because of same size of carbon and chlorine atoms
reaction when temperature rises by 10° C? (b) Because of regular tetrahedral structure
(a) The rate constant is constant (c) Because of planar structure
(b) The rate constant is nearly doubled
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (d) Because of similar electron affinities of carbon and
chlorine
(c) The rate constant is nearly halved 36. In which of the following, the cellular power plants –
(d) The rate constant becomes four times Mitochondria are absent ?
26. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is (a) Red algae (b) Green Algae
independent of the other is its (c) Bacteria (d) Brown Algae
(a) amplitude (b) velocity 37. On what does the strength of magnetic field produced
(c) wavelength (d) frequency by a current carrying solenoid depend?
27. It is more difficult to walk on a sandy road than on (a) Number of turns in solenoid
a concrete road because (b) Strength of current
(a) sand is soft and concreter is hard xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Nature of core material
(d) All of the above
(b) the friction between sand and feet is less than that
38. What is Chloramphenicol?
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
between concrete and feet
(a) It is an antibiotic
(c) the friction between sand and feet is more than
(b) It is an antiseptic
that between concrete and feet
(c) It is an antacid
(d) the sand is grainy but concrete is smooth
(d) It is an analgesic
28. Let a thin capillary tube be replaced with another tube 39. In which among the following diseases, Seed Therapy
of insufficient length then, we find water is used now a days for treatment?
(a) will overflow (b) will not rise (a) AIDS (b) Tuberculosis
(c) depressed (d) change its meniscus (c) Cancer (d) Asthma
29. Colour in a colour television is produced by a 40. Sea seems blue due to-
combination of three basic colours, they are- (a) Excess deepness
(a) Red, blue and orange (b) Reflection of sky and scattering of light by the
(b) Red, green and blue drops of water
(c) Red, yellow and green
(d) Red, green and brown
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Blue colour of water
(d) Upper layer of water xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
30. Tap water conducts electricity, whereas distilled water 41. The octane number of zero is assigned to
does not. This is because in comparison to distilled (a) 2-methyl octane (b) n-heptane
water, tap water has _____. (c) iso-octane (d) 3-methyl octane
(a) polarity (b) impurity 42. Which of the following is not a property of Nylon-
(c) covalence (d) surface charge 66?
31. Maximum number of animals species belong to which (a) Nylon fibres have low tensile strength
among the following groups? (b) Nylon fibres are resistant to abrasion
(a) Mammalia (b) Aves (c) Nylon fibres are somewhat elastic in nature
(c) Pisces (d) Arthropoda (d) All of the above
43. Which of the following metals is involved in the 56. Which among the following hormone can be used as a
anodisation process? drug to treat cardiac arrest and some other cardiac
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å problems?
(c) Bismuth (d) Calcium (a) Thyroxin (b) Epinephrine
44. The acidic nature and basic nature of some salt solutions (c) Calcitonin (d) Insulin
can be explained on the basis of: 57. The vitamin which is very liable and easily destroyed
(a) Splitting of a salt compound during cooking as well as storage is—
(b) Hydrolysis of salts (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B6
(c) Both A and B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K
(d) Only B 58. Which of the following two vegetables are in same
45. Which of the following salt is main component of the Genus Solanum?
common black snake firework? (a) Potato and Brinjal xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Washing Soda (b) Baking Soda (b) Potato and Cauliflower
(c) Soda Lime (d) Caustic Soda (c) Brinjal and Chilli
46. Which part of the plant Raphanus sativus is edible? (d) Tomato and Radish
(a) Fruit (b) Leaves 59. Plants absorb dissolved nitrates from soil and convert
(c) Roots (d) All the above them into
47. Which of the following is used as a lubricant in heavy (a) free nitrogen (b) urea
machines? (c) ammonia (d) proteins
(a) Bauxite (b) Sulphur xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 60. Normal adult human male has
(a) 10 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
(c) Phosphorus (d) Graphite
48. Which one of the following decreases the extent of (b) 14 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
evaporation of water? (c) 18 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
(d) 24 gram of haemoglobin/100 gram of blood
(a) High wind speed
61. Other than spreading malaria, Anopheles mosquitoes
(b) High temperature
are also vectors of
(c) Large surface area
(a) dengue fever (b) filariasis
(d) Large humidity
49. To avoid ‘knocking’ of the engine of a car, which one (c) encephalitis (d) yellow fever
of the following is used as an anti-knocking agent? 62. Which among the following is / are correct regarding a
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Butane mature sperm and ovum?
(c) Tetraethyl Lead (d) White Petrol (a) They both are of approximately same size
50. Brass gets discoloured in air because of the presence (b) They both have equal number of Chromosomes
of which of the following gases in air? (c) They both contain flagella
(d) None of the above
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen sulphide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen 63. Neurospora is used as genetic material because
51. Corrosion of a metal occurs at the— (a) it has short life cycle of 10 days
(a) Anode xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) the product of single meiosis can be easily
(b) Cathode analysed
(c) Both anode and cathode (c) meiotic products are linearly arranged in the form
(d) None of the above of ordered tetrads
52. ‘Dendrochronology’ is the study of the age of which (d) is a diploid fungus
of the following? 64. One of the occupational health hazards commonly
(a) Woody Plants (b) Shrubs faced by the workers of ceramics, pottery and glass
(c) Fungi (d) All of the above industry is—
53. Which of the following type of material act as effective (a) stone formation in gall bladder
catalysts? (b) melanoma
(a) Radioactive metals (b) Alkaline earth metals (c) silicosis xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Transition metals (d) Alkali metals (d) stone formation in kidney
54. With which of the following animals Galton’s whistle 65. Oral Rehydration Therapy is recommended for
is most commonly associated? (a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid (c) Tetanus (d) Cholera
(a) Horses (b) Dogs 66. What does Niacin deficiency cause ?
(c) Whales (d) Shark (a) Acne (b) Scurvy (c) Boils (d) Pellagra
55. Cell membranes contain some biochemicals which are 67. Using purgatives on a regular basis is harmful to health.
responsible for cell recognition and adhesion. They are Which deficiency does it cause?
_________. (a) Iron (b) Potassium (c) Iodine (d) Chromium
(a) Proteins 68. Which one of the following organelles of mammalian
(b) Lipids xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å cell is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?
(c) glycoproteins and gycolipids (a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosomes
(d) None of the above (c) Lysosomes (d) Nucleus
69. In which one of the following types of connective 83. In an ecotone, the species which become abundant are
tissues in animals does fat get stored? called:
(a) Adipocyte (b) Chondrocyte (a) Edge species (b) Keystone species
(c) Osteocyte (d) Reticulocyte (c) Endemic species (d) Foster species
70. Pollen grains in plants are produced in 84. The Mahesh Rangarajan Committee has recommended
(a) roots (b) leaves (c) flower (d) stem the amendment of the Wild Life Protection Act for
71. Carbohydrates is a nutrient stored in both plants and which among the following purposes?
animals in the form of : (a) To give legislative protection to Elephant
(a) Cellulose and Galactose respectively Reserves
(b) Starch and Glycogen respectively xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) To set up National Elephant Conservation
(c) Starch and Glucose respectively Authority (NECA)
(d) Cellulose and Glycogen respectively
(c) To establish Elephant Corridors under the
72. Which among the following is the smallest Human
provisions of amended act
Chromosome?
(a) Chromosome 10 (b) Chromosome 16 (d) All of the above
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Chromosome 20 (d) Chromosome 21 85. Which among the following is India’s first state to
73. Which among the following is involved in Movement release a Climate Change Action Plan?
of Muscles? (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Delhi
(a) Myoglobin (b) Myosin (c) Haryana (d) Kerala
(c) Mucin (d) None of the above 86. In which of the following city The National
74. Following is not a part of human sperm - Biodiversity Authority is located?
(a) Acrosome (b) Mitochondria (a) Chennai (b) Delhi
(c) Axial filament (d) Antrum (c) Kolkata (d) Hyderabad
75. Genetic screening is— 87. The Montreal Protocol to reduce the production of
(a) analysis of DNA to check the presence of a Chlorofluorocarbons was assigned in—
particular gene in a person
(b) analysis of gene in population xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 1977 (b) 1992 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 1987 (d) 1982
(c) pedigree analysis
88. Which of the following is the major combustible
(d) screening of infertility in parents
76. What is the number of “True Ribs” in human body? material in Biogas?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18 (a) Butane (b) Carbon dioxide
77. Which of the following serves as a nutritive tissue for (c) Propane (d) Methane
the growing embryo? 89. In an ecosystem, bacteria are the………………… .
(a) Ovary (b) Zygote (c) Ovule (d) Endosperm (a) Secondary Consumers (b) Producers
78. Which among the following is the only internal human (c) Decomposers (d) Primary Consumers
organ which can regenerate? 90. Around which river Mulai Forest is situated?
(a) Pancreas (b) Kidney (c) Liver (d) Spleen (a) Ganges (b) Bramhaputra
79. Which one of the following pairs of vitamins act as
(c) Sutlej (d) Mahanadi
antioxidants?
91. What was the Chandrayaan-1?
(a) Vitamin A and Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin C and Vitamin E
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) An earth observation satellite
(c) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin D (b) Lunar probe
(d) Vitamin E and Vitamin K (c) Navigation satellite xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
80. The cause of sweet taste in fruits is- (d) Geo stationary satellite
(a) Maltose (b) Ribose (c) Lactose (d) Fructose 92. Which of the following is also called translator?
81. What is salinisation? (a) Data representation (b) MS-DOS
(a) It is a process of accumulation of soluble minerals (c) Operating System (d) Language Processor
in upper soil horizons 93. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of
(b) It is a process of accumulation of soluble base in computer?
upper soil horizons (a) Second Generation (b) Fourth Generation
(c) It is a process of accumulation of soluble acid in (c) Both (A) and (B) (d) Third Generation
upper soil horizons
94. Admiral Gorshkov, the Soviet aircraft carrier imported
(d) It is a process of accumulation of soluble salts in
by India is now named—
upper soil horizons
82. The Chenchu people in India have been active in (a) INS Vikrant (b) INS Vikramaditya
protection of wildlife in which among the following (c) INS Virat (d) INS Vishaal
protected areas of India? 95. DNS in internet technology stands for
(a) Distributed Name System
(a) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam (Andhra Pradesh)
(b) Similipal (Odisha) (b) Data Name System xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Indravati, Udanti-Sitanadi (Chhattisgarh) (c) Dynamic Name System
(d) Palamu (Jharkhand) (d) Domain Name System
96. Instructions and memory address are represented by 110. Which one among the following is the unit raised to
(a) Character code (b) Binary codes protect the naval assets?
(c) Binary word (d) Partiy bit (a) Sagar Rakshak Bal xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
97. Which of the following computer language is used for (b) Sagar Suraksha Bal
artificial intelligence? (c) Sagar Prahari Bal
(a) FORTRAN (b) PROLOG (c) C (d) COBOL (d) Sagar Nigrani Bal
98. Which of the following organizations has Sarvatra 111. Largest national park in North East India is located
Sarvottam Suraksha as its slogan? at—
(a) Border Security Forece xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Assam (b) Mizoram
(b) Sikh Light Infantry (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland
(c) Indian Air Force 112. The Ghughuwa Fossil Park (GFP) is located in which
(d) National Security Guard state?
99. Which of the following was an early desktop operating (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
system that included an integrated graphical user (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat
interface with point-and-click features? 113. Project Elephant was launched by the Government of
(a) MS-DOS (b) Mac OS India in which among the following years?
(c) Unix (d) Gnome (a) 1992 (b) 1993
100. The first electronic digital computer contained— (c) 1994 (d) 1991
(a) Electronic valves (b) Vacuum tubes 114. In which of the following forests of India, world’s first
(c) Transistors (d) Semiconductor memory tiger census was carried out in 1932?
101. The Kaiga Atomic Power Station is located in the Indian
State of -
(a) Kaziranga Forests
(b) Sariska Forests
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Telangana (b) Karnataka (c) Ranthambore Forests
(c) West Bengal (d) Andhra Pradesh (d) Palamu Forests
102. Indra series of exercises are jointly held biennially in 115. Which one of the following is a useful biological
the Indian Ocean by India and— indicator of Sulphur dioxide pollution ?
(a) Russia (b) France (c) Singapore (d) Israel (a) Bryophytes (b) Algal blooms
103. Which is India’s first experimental satellite launch (c) Pseudomonas (d) Lichens
vehicle?
(a) ASLV (b) GSLV
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 116. The Koderma Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) is located in
which state/UT?
(c) SLV-3 (d) None of these (a) Jharkhand (b) Gujarat
104. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and (c) Odisha (d) Manipur
advanced technology micro computers are expressed 117. What is Malathion?
as (a) A Pigment (b) A Vitamin
(a) Bytes (b) Kilo-bytes (c) A Pesticide (d) An Explosive
(c) Bits (d) Megabytes 118. Which among the following is the unit of measurement
105. Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to of the ‘Ecological Footprint’?
control patterns in a weaving machine? (a) Global Hectare (b) Gallon Per Capita
(a) Pascal (b) Hollerith xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Cubic Meter (d) Man Hour
(c) Babbage (d) Jacquard 119. What is the wavelength of ultraviolet radiations in
106. To what temporary area can you store text and other compare with visible light?
data, and later paste them to another location? (a) Shorter (b) Longer
(a) The clipboard (b) ROM (c) Zero (d) Finite
(c) CD-ROM (d) The hard disk 120. The ‘Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar’ is the biggest artificial
107. At which of the following places is the Headquarters lake in India is formed behind which dam project?
of South Western Air Command located? (a) Rihand Dam Project
(a) Vadodara (b) Jodhpur (b) Kosi Project
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Pune (d) Gandhinagar (c) Bhakhra-Nangal Project
108. Another name for interpersonal communication is - (d) Damodar Valley Project
(a) Mass communication 121. In India the first television programme was broadcasted
(b) Dyadic communication in—
(c) Triadic communication (a) 1959 (b) 1965 (c) 1976 (d) 1957
(d) Permissive communication 122. ‘A Voice for Freedom’ is a book written by
109. The most common format for a home video recorder (a) Corazon Aquino (b) Nayantara Sahgal
is VHS. VHS stands for— xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Aung San Suu Kyi (d) Benazir Bhutto
(a) Video Home System 123. Which of the following English films was the first one
(b) Very High Speed to be dubbed in Hindi?
(c) Video Horizontal Standard (a) Aladdin (b) Universal Soldier
(d) Voltage House Standard (c) Speed (d) Iron Man
124. Aurobindo was the author of 140. When did Sachin Tendulkar make his Test debut?
(a) Discovery of India (a) 1986 (b) 1991 (c) 1990 (d) 1989
(b) Hindu View of Life 141. Kuchipudi is a dance form in India which originated in
(c) Yogashastra xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å the State of -
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(d) Savitri
125. ‘Alice in Wonderland’ the famous TV serial is based (c) Gujarat (d) Kerala
on a book written by— 142. The prevalent term for Alpana, a folk art of
(a) Father Discoste (b) Thomas Hardy Uttarakhand, is—
(c) Charles Dickens (d) Lewis Carroll (a) Aipan (b) Rangoli (c) Thapa (d) Jyunti
126. Who said ‘Man is a political animal’? 143. ‘Popping Crease’ is associated with which game?
(a) Dante (b) Aristotle (a) Swimming (b) Cricket
(c) Socrates (d) Plato (c) Water polo (d) Lawn Tennis
127. When was Amateur Athletics Federation of India 144. In which town of Uttar Pradesh would one find the
established? 11 storied Pagal Baba Temple?
(a) 1936 (b) 1946 (c) 1956 (d) 1966 (a) Vrindavan (b) Varanasi
128. The name Kunjarani Devi is associated with... . (c) Sarnath (d) Chitrakoot
(a) Weightlifting (b) Target shooting 145. Which of the following organisations works towards
(c) Athletics (d) Swimming ending grave abuses of human rights?
129. India’s first nuclear test was conducted in: (a) International Red Cross xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Chickmagular (b) Pokhran xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) United Nations Organisation
(c) Champaran (d) Kalpakkam (c) Transparency International
130. Ghumura is an ancient folk dance that originated in (d) Amnesty International
which of the following states? 146. Who among the following is the author of the
autobiography entitled Amar Katha (1913)?
(a) Odisha (b) Madhya Pradesh
(a) Satyajit Ray
(c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka
(b) Rassundari Devi
131. The movie The Man Who Knew Infinity is a biopic
(c) Ganesh Chandra Ghosh
based on the life of Indian mathematician—
(d) Binodini Dasi
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Srinivasa Ramanujan
147. Which of the following city is also known as Cottonpolis
(c) C. Radhakrishna Rao (d) K.S. Chandrasekharan
of India?
132. The capital of Malaysia is—
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Mumbai
(a) Bangkok (b) Jakarta
(c) Surat (d) Kolkata
(c) Port Louis (d) Kuala Lumpur 148. India first won the Olympic Hockey gold at
133. Who invented Gramophone?
(a) Michael Faraday xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) London
(c) Berlin
(b) Rome
(d) Amsterdam
(b) Fahrenheit 149. The first novel written by Sunil Gangopadhyay is :
(c) Sir Alexander Graham Bell (a) Athmo Prakash (Self-Revelation)
(d) Thomas Alva Edison (b) Pratham Alo (First Light)
134. Ramon Magsaysay Award is named after the former
President of
(c) Purba Paschim (East and West)
(d) Shei Shomay (Those Days)
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Thailand (b) Philippines 150. When was the Nobel Prize for Literature instituted?
(c) Indonesia (d) Indian Journalists’ Association (a) 1901 (b) 1969 (c) 1972 (d) 1975
135. The UNESCO headquarters are situated in— 151. What is the full form of ‘NAEP’?
(a) Geneva, Switzerland (b) London, UK (a) National Adult Education Programme
(c) New York, USA (d) Paris, France (b) Nuclear and Atomic Energy Project
136. Who was the first Indian to win an individual medal (c) National Atomic Energy Planning
in Olympics? (d) National Authority on Engineering Projects
(a) Milkha Singh (b) P.T.Usha 152. Lai Haraoba is a ritualistic festival observed in -
(c) Karnam Malleshwari (d) K.D.Jadhav (a) Nagaland (b) Tripura
137. Tyeb Mehta was a famous……
(a) Writer (b) Painter
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Sikkim (d) Assam
153. Merdeka Cup is associated with—
(c) Singer (d) Cartoonist (a) Football (b) Tennis
138. Which of the following place is famous for its gigantic (c) Badminton (d) Hockey
rock-cut statue of Buddha? 154. Who is the creator of Rock Garden in Chandigarh?
(a) Bamiyan (b) Borobudur (a) Pupul Jayakar (b) Le Corbusier
(c) Anuradhapura (d) Angkor Wat (c) Glen (d) Nek Chand
139. To encourage increase in the quality, quantity and 155. The Coalition Years is the autobiography of—
availability of food in the world, the World Food Prize (a) Mr. Lal Krishna Advani
is founded by— (b) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Prof MS Swaminathan (b) UNDP (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Prof Norman Borlaug (d) WHO (d) Mr. Pranav Mukherjee
156. India is a not a member of which of the following 169. World Human Rights Day is observed on
organisations? (a) April 8 (b) December 10
(a) Commonwealth of Nations xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) December 7 (d) September 5
(b) ASEAN 170. Who among the following was an eminent painter?
(c) Indian Ocean Rim Association (a) Sarada Ukil (b) Uday Shankar
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (c) V. Shantaram (d) Meherally
157. Every year, a monthlong ecologically important 171. Ashwini Ponappa, who recently announced her
campaign/festival is held during which certain retirement, is associated with which sports?
communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing (a) Football (b) Hockey xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
trees. Which of the following are such communities/ (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton
tribes? 172. Which city is the host of Bharat Mobility Global
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha (b) Gond and Korku Expo 2024?
(c) lrula and Toda (d) Sahariya and Agariya (a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Bengaluru (d) Hyderabad
158. What is the length of each stump in the cricket?
173. Who has been recently appointed as the Chief Executive
(a) 35 inches (b) 22 inches Officer (CEO) of the Indian Olympic Association
(c) 28 inches (d) 33 inches (IOA)?
159. Which of these organizations manages Internet Protocol (a) Mustafa Ghouse (b) Lakshmi Narasimhan
numbers and Domain Name System roots? (c) Raghuram Iyer (d) Michel Aballea
(a) IUCN (b) ICANN (c) IUPAC (d) IAEA 174. Who recently became the first Indian woman to receive
160. 20th August is celebrated as— the Arjuna Award for Equestrian Sports?
(a) Earth Day
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) P. V. Sindhu (b) Mary Kom
(b) Sadbhavna Diwas (c) SainaNehwal (d) Divyakriti Singh
(c) No Tobacco Day 175. Which city has been named the cleanest in India for
(d) Press Freedom Day the seventh consecutive year?
161. Which of the following features of Indian temples (a) Mumbai (b) Gandhinagar
resembles pylons of the Egyptian temples? (c) Indore (d) Nagpur
(a) Lat (b) Vimana 176. What is the projected global unemployment rate for
the year 2024?
(c) Gopura (d) Shikhara
(a) 5.2% (b) 4.1 %
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
162. The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary
General of Commonwealth is— (c) 6.2 % (d) 5.5 %
(a) Krishnamurthy 177. Who is the first woman officer to be appointed as
Director General of the Central Industrial Security
(b) Kamalesh Sharma
Force (CISF)?
(c) Rakesh Verma
(d) Gapalaswamy
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) ShubhraSingh (b) Nina Singh
(c) Binita Thakur (d) Roli Singh
163. Anita Sood is associated with which of the following 178. Who recently secured the India’s 16th quota for Paris
games/sports? Olympics?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Badminton (a) Rhythm Sangwan (b) Jiin Yang xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Hockey (d) Swimming (c) ManiniKoushik (d) Yeji Kim
164. Who is known as ‘Trimurthy of Carnatic Music’? 179. On which date, the ‘Indian Army Day’ is observed in
(a) Muthuswami Dikshitar (b) Purandardasa India?
(c) Swami Thirunal (d) None of them (a) 16 January (b) 14 January
165. Which one of the following is a spacecraft? (c) 12 January (d) 15 January
180. General Dong Jun, who was recently in news, is the
(a) Apophis (b) Cassini
Defence Minister of which country?
(c) Spitzer (d) TechSar
(a) China (b) Taiwan
166. ‘Queensberry Rules’ is the name given to the rules
(c) South Korea (d) North Korea
of—
(a) Boxing (b) Football xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 181. Recently, which cricketer became the first men’s player
to play 150 T20Is?
(c) Tennis (d) Cricket
(a) Rohit Sharma (b) Virat Kohli
167. Who was the first actor to get Oscar Award? (c) K L Rahul (d) Keshav Maharaj
(a) Montgomery (b) Fairbanks 182. Recently, where was the World Future Energy Summit
(c) Janet Gaynor (d) Charlie Chaplin 2024 organized?
168. The winter Olympics came into being in (a) Abu Dhabi (b) London
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) 1912 (b) 1924 (c) 1920 (d) 1916 (c) Paris (d) New Delhi
183. Recently, who has been appointed as the Director 193. Which day is observed as ‘World Day Against
General of the National Security Guard (NSG)? Trafficking in Persons’ every year?
(a) Nayi Pankaj Kumar (b) Suresh Chand Yadav (a) 28 July (b) 29 July
(c) Gajender Singh (d) Nalin Prabhat (c) 30 July (d) 31 July
184. Recently, which Indian institute developed an 194. Recently, who has been appointed as the first woman
innovative 3D printed dummy ballot unit? high commissioner to India by Britain?
(a) IIT Roorkee (b) IIT Guwahati (a) Lilly Gunasekar (b) Lindy Cameron
(c) IIT Kanpur (d) IIT Delhi (c) Alicia Herbert (d) Gill Atkinson
185. Recently, José Raúl Mulino has been elected as the
195. Recently, India’s first multipurpose Green Hydrogen
new President of which country?
(a) Guatemala (b) Cuba xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å Pilot Project was inaugurated in which state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Panama (d) Nicaragua
(c) Odisha (d) Maharashtra
186. Surjit Patar, who recently passed away, was poet of
which language? 196. What is the theme of ‘World Intellectual Property Day
2024’?
(a) Punjabi (b) Marathi
(a) Women and IP: Accelerating innovation and
(c) Tamil (d) Telugu
creativity
187. Which company has recently launched ‘Health Saathi’
plan? (b) IP and the SDGs: Building our common future
(a) Google (b) Paytm xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å with innovation and creativity
(c) IP and Youth Innovating for a Better Future
(c) PhonePe (d) Meta
188. Who won the men’s single title at the 2024 Wimbledon (d) Taking your ideas to the market
Tennis Championships? 197. Recently, which ministry launched the ‘myCGHS app’
(a) Roger Federer (b) Novak Djokovic for iOS ecosystem of devices?
(c) Carlos Alcaraz (d) Max Purcell (a) Ministry of Agriculture xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
189. Recently, which state has launched the “PedLagao, (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
PedBachao Jan Abhiyan-2024” campaign? (c) Ministry of Rural Development
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (d) Ministry of Power
(c) Jharkhand (d) Gujarat 198. Abdel Fattah El-Sisi, recently, became the president of
190. Recently, which state government launched the which country?
‘Mukhyamantri Kisan Samman Nidhi’ scheme? (a) Egypt (b) Sudan
(a) Bihar (b) Odisha (c) Vietnam (d) Poland
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan 199. Which day is celebrated as ‘World Hemophilia Day’
191. Which country hosts 46th session of the UNESCO every year?
World Heritage Committee? xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 16 April (b) 17 April xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Australia (b) France (c) 18 April (d) 19 April
(c) India (d) Russia 200. AshwiniPonappa, who recently announced her
192. Recently, Hemant Soren took oath as the Chief retirement, is associated with which sports?
Minister of which state? (a) Football (b) Hockey
(a) Odisha (b) Jharkhand
(c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton
(c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh
Mock Test-4 (Paper-IV) – Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (a)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (d) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (a) 124. (d) 125. (d) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (a)
131. (b) 132. (d) 133. (d) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (d)
141. (a) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (d) 147. (b) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (d) 155. (d) 156. (b) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (b)
161. (c) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (a) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (b) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (a) 173. (c) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (a) 179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (a) 183. (d) 184. (b) 185. (c) 186. (a) 187. (b) 188. (c) 189. (a) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (b) 193. (c) 194. (b) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (b) 198. (a) 199. (b) 200. (d)
Mock Test-4 (Paper- V)
1. Which institution provides long run finance to indus- 11. Which of the following is the basic characteristic of
tries? Oligopoly?
(a) GIC (b) UTI xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) A few sellers, one buyer
(c) LIC (d) All of these (b) A few sellers, many buyers
2. The aim of which of the Five Year Plans was to correct (c) A few sellers, a few buyers
the disequilibrium in the economy? (d) Many sellers, few buyers
12. In which of the following years ‘Ad hoc Treasury bill
(a) First Five Year Plan (b) Second Five Year Plan
System’ of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced
(c) Third Five Year Plan (d) Fourth Five Year Plan by ways and Means Advances System?
3. People belonging to what age group are eligible for (a) 1995 (b) 1996
training under TRYSEM scheme? (c) 1997 (d) 2000
(a) 18-35 (b) 25-40 13. The Centre has sanctioned ` 365 crore for constructing
(c) 18-50 (d) 18-25 a new Integrated Check Post (ICP) at Sabroomin which
4. Ad Valorem Tax is levied on the basis of which among state?
the following? (a) Assam (b) Tripura xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Volume (b) Value (c) Sikkim (d) Nagaland
(c) Production (d) Export 14. In which of the following fields was the first co-operative
5. What does the term NSDL stands for? movement in India initiated?
(a) agricultural credit (b) farming activities
(a) National Securities Development Limited
(c) consumer co-operation (d) agricultural marketing
(b) National Securities Depository Limited 15. Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax?
(c) National Safety Development Limited
(d) Natural Safety Deployment Limited
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Income Tax (b) Custom Tax
(c) Sales Tax (d) Excise Duty
6. Which industry employs the largest number of women 16. In which year was the policy of population planning
in India? adopted by the government of India?
(a) Tea
(c) Jute
(b) Textile
(d) Coal
(a) 1947
(c) 1952
(b) 1956
(d) 1962
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
7. India’s economic planning cannot be said to be : 17. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union
(a) indicative (b) limited and collected and appropriated by the states?
(a) Stamp Duties
(c) imperative (d) democratic
(b) Passenger and Good Tax
8. If there is an increase in the external commercial
(c) Estate Duty
borrowings in India what will be the impact on the
(d) Taxes on Newspapers
external debt of the country?
18. During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth
(a) Increase rate of National Income the lowest?
(b) Decrease xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Second Plan (b) Third Plan
(c) Remain unaffected (c) Fifth Plan (d) Sixth Plan
(d) Either increase or decrease 19. Which among the following is a correct feature of a
9. High Powered Committee under the Chairmanship of Perpetual Bond?
Dr. D.R. Mehta, which was constituted in 1993 was (a) Perpetual Bonds have no fixed interest rates
related to which of the following? (b) Perpetual Bonds have no fixed maturity
(a) Financial Sector Reforms (c) Perpetual Bonds have no fixed underlying assets
(b) Tax Reforms (d) Perpetual Bonds don’t exist in India
(c) Education Reforms 20. Economic Planning is an essential feature of :
(d) Integrated Rural Development Programme (a) Capitalist Economy (b) Socialist Economy
10. With which of the following lies the basic regulatory (c) Mixed Economy (d) Dual Economy
authority for mutual funds and stock markets? 21. The exports of India:
(a) Reserve bank of India (a) are spread over several commodity groups
(b) Government of India (b) have not shown much of a change since 1960-61
(c) SEBI (c) are confined to a few items xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) Stock Exchanges (d) comprise mainly of agro-based products
22. ‘Swarn Jayanti Gram Swa-Rozgar Yojana’ came into 35. In context with the flow of the rural credit , which
being in :
(a) April 1999 (b) July 2001
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å among the following comes at the last ?
(a) Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies
(c) April 1995 (d) April 1997 (b) District Central Cooperative Banks
23. Swiss brokerage firm UBS has predicted India’s GDP (c) State Agricultural Co-operative Banks
growth rate at what percent for FY21? (d) NABARD
(a) 5.1% (b) 4.6% 36. When was the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
established?
(c) 5.5% (d) 4.7%
(a) 1944 (b) 1945
24. Which among the following is an essential characteristic (c) 1948 (d) 1950
of mixed economy? 37. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides
(a) Co-existence of small scale and large scale industries long term loans at zero interest to the poorest
(b) Co-existence of private and public sectors developing countries?
(c) Assigning equal importance to both agriculture and (a) Asian Development Bank xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
heavy industries (b) IMF
(d) Co-existence of the rich and the poor (c) International Developmental Association
25. Which of the following deals with economic offences? (d) International Finance Corporation
38. Where is the headquarter of Asian Development Bank
(a) MISA (b) NSA
(ADB) situated?
(c) TADA (d) COFEPOSA
(a) Manila (b) Delhi
26. An investor or speculator who subscribes to a new (c) Bangkok (d) Hong Kong
issue with the intention of selling them soon after 39. Which among the following ratio correctly denotes the
allotment to realize a quick profit is called : Insurance Penetration?
(a) Stag (b) Tall (a) Premium Underwritten : Population
(c) Bull (d) Bear (b) Premium Underwritten : GDP
27. Which of the following programmes aims at the (c) Insured Population : Total Population
promotion of savings among rural women? (d) Premium Underwritten : Policy Holders
(a) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh 40. When did India become a member of the IMF?
(b) Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 1945 (b) 1956
(c) 1960 (d) 1951
(c) Indira Mahila Yojana
41. When did the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA)
(d) Javhar Rozgar Yojana come into being?
28. Bank of Hindustan is the oldest bank in India. When
did it start functioning?
(a) 1973
(c) 1980
(b) 1975
(d) 1981
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) 1990 (b) 1770 42. What does FDI trigger list comprises of ?
(c) 1885 (d) 1892 (a) List of country-specific FDI restrictions
29. In the 39th GST Council meet, GST of mobile phones (b) List of all FDI proposals
has been increased from 12% to ________%. (c) Permissions required to make FDI in India
(a) 15 % (b) 16 % (d) investors with suspected illegal sources of funds
(c) 18 % (d) 17 % xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å or linkages, sensitive areas (like aviation,
telecommunications etc) and sensitive locations
30. Who was the Chairman of National Income Committee?
(like Jammu & Kashmir) for special scrutiny.
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao (b) D.R. Gadgil 43. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in
(c) P. C. Mahalanobis (d) A.M. Khusro India?
31. Open market operations of a Central Bank are sale and (a) 1975 (b) 1947
purchase of : (c) 1956 (d) 1960
(a) trade bills (b) government securities 44. What is the mainstay of Indian economy ?
(c) corporate securities (d) foreign currencies (a) Manufacturing (b) Business
32. India’s wage policy is based on : (c) Public sector (d) Agriculture
(a) productivity (b) cost of living 45. The data of estimation of India’s National income is
issued by :
(c) standard of living (d) none of the above
33. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Data Centre
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
`5 lakhs called? (c) Central Statistical Organization
(a) National Bank (b) Cooperative Bank (d) None of the above
(c) Scheduled Bank (d) Unscheduled Bank 46. How many projects have been approved under
34. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in : ‘Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana’?
(a) 1982 (b) 1983 (a) 32 (b) 25
(c) 1987 (d) 1985 (c) 43 (d) 19
47. Smart Gram Yojana of Maharashtra will be named 60. From the view of International economy, Third World
after whom? implies :
(a) Morarji Desai (b) R. R. Patil (a) the developed countries xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Yashwantrao Chavan (d) Babasaheb Bhosale (b) the developing countries
48. Which state government has reduced the retirement age (c) block led by U.S.A., U.K. etc.
of the government employees from 60 years to 58
(d) None of these
years?
61. What term is used for maximum capital which the
(a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan
company can raise in its life time?
(c) Gujarat (d) Punjab
49. ‘World Consumer Rights Day’ is celebrated globally (a) Authorized Capital (b) Registered Capital
on which date? (c) Nominal Capital (d) All of them
(a) 16 March (b) 15 March 62. Which among the following is not a pillar of Basel III?
(c) 14 March (d) 13 March (a) Minimum capital standards
50. A charge levied by a Life Insurance Company for the (b) Supervisory review
life insurance protection upon death and to cover certain (c) Market discipline
other expenses is termed as _____ : (d) Consolidation of assets
(a) Premium (b) Mortality Charges 63. In context with the financial markets , an agreement to
(c) Insurance Expenses (d) Death Expenses exchange floating rate payments for fixed rate payments
51. The concept of Economic Planning in India is derived (or vice-versa) at regular intervals over pre-specified
from :
(a) USA (b) UK xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å period on a certain principal amount is known as
____.
(c) Australia (d) Russia
(a) Currency Swap (b) Interest Rate swap
52. Which Five Year plan focused on “Growth with social
justice and equity”? (c) Rolling Settlement (d) Arbitration
(a) Ninth Five Year Plan 64. Which among the following is a qualitative tool of
(b) Eight Five Year Plan monetary policy?
(c) Seventh Five Year Plan (a) Bank Rate (b) Repo Rate
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan (c) Credit rationaing (d) Cash Reserve Ratio
53. The Agrarian Reforms Committee under the 65. Which among the following is not a subsidiary of RBI?
Chairmanship of Shri J. C. Kumarappa in 1949 was (a) National Housing Bank
related to which of the following? (b) NABARD
(a) Cooperative Farming (c) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private
(b) Land Reforms Limited
(c) Irrigation and watershed Development
(d) SIDBI xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) High Yielding Seeds
66. Which one of the following is not related to United
54. Note Printing Press that belongs to RBI is located in :
Nations?
(a) Nasik (b) Dewas
(c) Mysore (d) Chennai (a) International Finance Corporation
55. Planning Commission was constituted on? (b) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(a) 15 March, 1948 (b) 15 March, 1949 (c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment
(c) 15 March, 1950 (d) 15 March, 1951 Disputes
56. Temporary tax levied to obtain additional revenue is (d) Bank for International Settlements
called : 67. India has signed an Memorandum of Understanding
(a) Rate (b) Surcharge xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å with which country for the construction of three
(c) Fee (d) Cess newschools in the country?
57. Net factor income from abroad added to GDP gives: (a) Bhutan (b) Nepal
(a) NDP (b) GNP (c) Sri Lanka (d) Myanmar
(c) Per Capital Income (d) NNP 68. In which year RBI was empowered to regulate money,
58. Put the main sources of revenue of the Central forex, G-sec and gold related securities market?
Government in ascending order of importance:
(a) 2004 (b) 2006
1. Income tax 2. Corporation tax
3. Customs 4. Excise duties (c) 2008 (d) 2010
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 69. Which of the following schemes have been subsumed
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 in the recently approved Ayushman Bharat – National
59. Which state is set to depute ‘Arogya Mitra’ at Primary Health Protection Mission (AB-NHPM)?
health centres to inform people about the government’s (a) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
health-related schemes? (b) Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Gujarat (c) National Life Insurance Scheme
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar (d) (a) and (b)
70. On the recommendation of which of the following 77. Revenue-Neutral Rate (RNR) is a component of which
committees, Banking Service Recruitment Board was of the following taxes in India?
abolished in 2002? (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
(a) K.S. Krishnaswamy Committee xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) Income tax
(b) Narsimham Committee (c) Customs
(c) Rangrajan Committee (d) Excise duty
(d) S. Padmanabhan Committee 78. In which year, State Bank of Indore was established
71. Deposit Insurance is a limited level of protection as Bank of Indore?
provided by the government to depositors against bank (a) 1910 (b) 1960 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
failures. Which among the following does not come
(c) 1930 (d) 1940
under the purview of deposit insurance?
79. Which government agency has released Investment
(a) Commercial banks
Opportunities in India’s Healthcare Sector report?
(b) Branches of foreign banks functioning in India
(a) NITI Aayog (b) Air India
(c) Local area banks
(d) Non Banking Financial Corporations xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) NACO (d) Medical Council
80. Pakistan will remain on the grey list of Financial Action
72. Which of the following statements about indirect taxes
Task Force (FATF) till which date?
in India is/are true?
(a) June 2020 (b) May 2020
1. Yield from indirect taxes is much more than that
from direct taxes (c) July 2020 (d) August 2020
2. Indirect taxes have grown faster than direct taxes 81. As per the recent notification by RBI, the Current
since independence Account Deficit narrowed to ________% of GDP in
April-December of 2019-20.
3. Indirect taxes are ultimately paid for by persons
who do not actually pay the taxes to the (a) 1.5% (b) 1 % xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
Government (c) 0.2 % (d) 2.2%
4. Increase in indirect taxes is a welcome feature in 82. Investment in public works is known as :
a developing country (a) Capital Expenditure (b) Revenue Expenditure
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 only (c) Either (a ) or ( b) (d) Current Expenditure
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 83. A monopolist will be able to maximize his profits
73. Poverty Gap is : when _________.
(a) gap between the rich and the poor (a) His output is maximum
(b) the difference between poverty line and actual (b) He charges a Higher price
income levels of all those living below that line (c) His average cost is minimum
(c) gap between developed nations and developing (d) His marginal cost is equal to the marginal revenue
nations 84. National Food for Work Programme, was launched in
(d) gap in infrastructural facilities between developed 150 districts of India in 2004. Later this programme
and developing nations was subsumed in which among the following
74. Which Payments Bank has achieved the milestone of programmes?
two crore customers? (a) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(a) Fino Payments Bank xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) Mahatma Gandhi NREGA
(b) India Post Payments Bank (c) Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana
(c) Airtel Payments Bank (d) None of them
(d) Aditya Birla Payments Bank 85. Match the following. :
75. A good that is non-rivalries and non-excludable, and A. First Plan 1. Rapid industrialization
whose benefits can not be prices and therefore to B. Second Plan 2. Community Development
which the principle of exclusion does not apply comes Programme
under the following heading?
C. Third Plan 3. Expansion of basic industries
(a) Pure Private Goods (b) Pure Public Goods
D. Fourth Plan 4. Minimum Needs Programme
(c) Pure Free Goods (d) Pure Market Goods
E. Fifth Plan 5. Achievement of self-reliance
76. To avoid a Prompt Coercive Action from the Reserve
and growth with stability
Bank of India, a bank should not fall in which of the
following conditions? A B C D E
(a) It should have a very high NPA (a) 2 1 3 4 5 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(b) It should have a very low NPA (b) 1 2 3 4 5
(c) It should have high capital adequacy Ratio (c) 2 1 4 5 3
(d) It should have high profits (d) 2 1 3 5 4
86. Which of the following features indicate that Indian 95. Which of the following is wrongly matched :
economy is of the developing category? (a) Interest Rate—Fiscal Policy
I. Occupation mainly agricultural (b) General Price Index—Inflation
II. Chronic unemployment xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Export Subsidy—Fiscal Policy
III. Poor quality of human capital (d) Share Market—Stock Exchange
lIV. Low per capital intake of proteins 96. Which of the following is called a ‘Banker’s Cheque’?
(a) II and III (a) Demand draft (b) Debit card
(b) I and IV
(c) Pay order (d) Fixed deposit
(c) I, II, III and IV
97. ‘Akshay Urja Portal’ is an initiative of which Union
(d) I, II and III
Ministry?
87. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign
exchange for the import of goods? (a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(a) Exchange Bank (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Ministry of Mines
(d) Any Nationalized Bank 98. Who took over the additional charge as ONGC
88. With reference to Union Government, which one of CMD?
the following undertake the country-wide Economic (a) Rohit Kumar (b) Subhash Kumar
Census? (c) Pankaj Kumar (d) Subhash Guar
(a) The National Sample Organization
99. Sickness of small units can be because of the factors:
(b) Planning Commission
1. under-utilization of capacity
(c) Department of Expenditure xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 2. non-payment by the large firms xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) The Central Statistical Organization
89. Entrepreneurship, Knowledge, Awareness, Marketing 3. dependence on borrowed funds
(EKAM) fest was organized in which city? 4. lack of management expertise
(a) New Delhi (b) Bengaluru (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kochi (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
90. Who has been appointed as RBI Deputy Governor 100. What is ‘Recession’?
recently? (a) Rise in the cost of production, especially because
(a) N.S Vishwanathan of wage increase
(b) B.P Kanungo (b) Increase in money supply without a matching
(c) M.Patra increase in production
(d) Saktikanta Das (c) Reduction in production and employment for want
91. The per capita income has been low in India because: of sufficient demand for goods
(a) more people are in rural areas (d) None of these
(b) of regional imbalances
(c) of price rise
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 101. Which among the following authorities decides , how
far the fundamental rights can apply to the members
(d) of population growth of the armed forces in India?
92. How does the consumer benefit with VAT? (a) President of India
(a) It reduces the cost of production
(b) Parliament of India
(b) With the abolition of the sales tax
(c) Arms Forces themselves xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Due to the exemption of small Businesses from
(d) Arms Forces Tribunal
the tax within certain limits prescribed by the
State 102. Which Act divided legislative powers between the
Centre and Provinces?
(d) It removes tax on tax and thus reduces price-rise
93. What is the full form of LTRO conducted by RBI to (a) Government of India Act, 1935
help banks to reduce their lending rates? (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(a) Long-Term Repurchase Operation (c) Government of India Act, 1892
(b) Liquidity-Term Repo Operations (d) Government of India Act, 1861
(c) Liquidity-Term Repurchase Operations 103. In terms of Parliamentary terminology, What do we
(d) Long-Term Repo Operation call a rule of legislative procedure under which a further
debate on a motion can be stopped?
94. The core sector includes:
I. Coal (a) Closure (b) Gullitone
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
II. Power xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) Expunction (d) Recess
III. Petroleum 104. The Mandal Commission was constituted during the
IV. Soaps and Detergent tenure of which among the following Prime Ministers?
(a) II and III (b) I (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Morarji Desai
(c) I, II and III (d) I and II (c) Rajiv Gandhi (d) V. P. Singh
105. Who among the following is responsible for devising 114. How many subjects are there in Eleventh Schedule
the best ways to utilize available resources of States? which was added by the 73rd amendment Bill (1992)
(a) National Development Council enshrining powers, authority and responsibilities of
(b) State Legislature Panchayats?
(c) Zonal Councils
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 29
115. Fazl Ali Commission appointed in December 1953 to
(d) Inter State Council
consider the question of state reorganization accepted :
106. Which of the following posts is not mentioned in
(a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
Constitution?
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
(a) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public
(b) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha employment.
(c) Attorney General (c) Language as the basis of reorganization of states.
(d) Solicitor General (d) None of Above.
107. The Part IX of the Constitution which deals with 116. In which year Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Panchayats is not applicable to which of the following (MISA) was repealed?
states? (a) 1973 (b) 1975 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram (c) 1978 (d) 1980
(b) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tribal Areas 117. Who among the following is not a member of the
of Assam committee which recommends the President of India
(c) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tribal Areas of regarding appointments of Chairperson and members
Assam and Tripura of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tribal Areas of
(b) Union Home Minister
Assam, Tripura and Hill areas of Manipur
(c) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
108. Which among the following is the correct designation (d) Union Law Minister
of Hindi in India?
(a) National language
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 118. In which case Supreme Court held that Preamble is
integral part of the Constitution?
(b) Language of communication between states and (a) S.R. Bommai Case
centre (b) Kesavanand Bharti Case
(c) The Official Language of the Union of India (c) Ashok Kumar Thakur Case xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) Official and National Language of India (d) M.C. Mehta Case
109. Which article is related to Assent to Bills? 119. In which year two election commissioners were first
(a) Article 98 (b) Article 111 appointed after the President of India fixed the number
(c) Article 112 (d) Article 114 of election commissioners to two?
(a) 1980 (b) 1985 (c) 1989 (d) 1991
110. In which year Manipur and Tripura became full-fledged
120. In which of the following states, Electronic Voting
state of India?
Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in
(a) 1962 (b) 1968
(c) 1972 (d) 1980
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å India?
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
111. The power to decide an election petition in India is (c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal
vested in the ________ . 121. In India, the responsibility for recognition and vesting
(a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court of forest rights and distribution of land rights rests
(c) High Courts (d) President with which among the following ?
112. By which Constitutional Amendment Act was the (a) Ministry of Environment and Forests
elementary education made a Fundamental Right under (b) Ministry of Tribal affairs
Article 21-A? (c) State and UT Governments
(a) The 81th Constitutional Amendment Act 2000 (d) Local Governments
(b) The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002 122. When any House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya
(c) The 88th Constitutional Amendment Act 2004 Sabha) is adjourned without naming a day for
reassembly it is known as :
(d) The 96th Constitutional Amendment Act 2011
(a) Demand for Grants xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
113. Protection of wild life comes under which of the (b) Adjournment of Debate
following in Constitution of India? (c) Adjournment of the sitting of the House
1. Fundamental Duties (d) Adjournment Sine die
2. Directive Principles 123. Which among the following established the Planning
3. Seventh Schedule Commission in 1950 as an extra constitutional body
Select the correct option from the codes given below: through a resolution?
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 2 & 3 (a) Prime Minister (b) Parliament
(c) Only 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3 (c) Lok Sabha (d) Cabinet
124. A Constitution Amendment Bill has also provisions 133. Which amendment made it obligatory on the President
pertaining to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?
or regulation of a tax. Which of the following (a) 21st (b) 24th (c) 29th (d) 31st
statements would hold correct for such a bill? 134. Who said that “Constitution Assembly was Congress
(a) This bill will need prior approval of President to and Congress was India”?
get introduced (a) Lord Mountbatten (b) Lord Willingdon
(b) This bill can originate only in Lok Sabha (c) Clement Atlee (d) Granville Austin
(c) This bill can originate only in Rajya Sabha 135. The Governor of a state is empowered to grant pardons
(d) This bill can originate in either Rajya Sabha or etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in
Lok Sabha certain cases under:
125. The registration of the political parties by the Election (a) Article 167 (b) Article 161
Commission of India is done under : (c) Article 151 (d) Article 163
(a) Constitution of India
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 136. Which of the following forms of liberty is not
mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(b) Representation of People Act, 1951
(a) Liberty of thought
(c) Representation of People Act, 1950 (b) Liberty of belief
126. Which of the following statements are correct about
(c) Economic liberty
(d) Liberty of faith and worship
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
the term ‘Equality’ mentioned in the Preamble of the 137. Which of the following categories of persons became
Constitution of India? the citizens of India at its commencement i.e., on
1. It refers to absence of any special privileges to any January, 1950?
section of the society 1. persons domiciled in India
2. The Preamble embraces only civic and economic 2. persons migrated from Pakistan
equality 3. persons migrated from Pakistan but later returned
Select the correct option from the codes given below: 4. persons of Indian origin residing outside India
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(c) Only 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 3 & 4
127. The Constitution of India deals with the organization, (c) Only 2 & 4 (d) All of the above
composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, 138. Which act provides for the disqualification of members
power of the Parliament under : of the Parliament or State Legislature for indulging in
(a) Article 79 to 122 in Part V. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å corrupt practices?
(b) Article 36 to 51 in Part IV. (a) Quo Warranto
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Article 152 to 237 in Part VI.
(c) The Representation of People Act 1951
(d) Article 239 to 242 in Part VII
(d) None of these
128. Which of the following was not the member of Fazl 139. Which of the following provisions in Directive
Ali Commission formed in December 1953? Principles of State Policy reflect the Gandhian
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Fazl Ali Principles?
(c) K.M. Panikkar (d) H.N. Kunzru (a) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal
129. Who can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to aid to the poor
preside over its proceedings when the offices of both (b) Equitable distribution of material resources of the
the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant? community for the common good
(a) The Speaker himself (c) Uniform civil code
(b) The President (d) Organize village panchayats
(c) The Prime Minister xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 140. The famous “Ripon Resolution” of 1882 is most closely
(d) The Council of Ministers related to which among the following?
130. On whose advise the President can promulgate or (a) Public Services in India
withdraw an ordinance? (b) Educational Reforms
(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice-President (c) Local Self Government xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Council of Ministers (d) On his own will (d) Public Health Policy
131. Which Article states that there shall be a Council of 141. Who can advise the President to dissolve the Lok
Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid Sabha on the ground that the House does not represent
and advise the President? the views of the electorate faithfully?
(a) Article 73 (b) Article 74 (a) The President (b) The Prime Minister
(c) Article 75 (d) Article 76 (c) Council of Ministers (d) Rajya Sabha
132. Which article protects a person’s right to travel abroad 142. Which Article of the Constitution defines the term
under Indian Constitution? state in Indian context?
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 21 (a) Article 15 (b) Article 12
(c) Article 19 (d) None of the above (c) Article 17 (d) Article 20
143. Which Constitutional Amendment changed the 154. Who is the guarantor of the Fundamental Rights of the
procedure of election of the Vice-President? citizens and Guardian of the Constitution of India?
(a) 1st Amendment Act (b) 7th Amendment Act (a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) 9th Amendment Act (d) 11th Amendment Act (c) Parliament (d) Supreme Court
144. The 31st Amendment Act, 1972 increased the number 155. Which article of the Indian Constitution enumerates
of Lok Sabha seats from 525 to : the Residuary powers of legislation?
(a) 535 (b) 545 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 247 (b) 248 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 550 (d) 555 (c) 249 (d) 250
145. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration 156. The Preamble says that the state in India will assure
of emergency by whom non-justiciable? the dignity of the individual. The Constitution seeks
(a) President (b) Prime Minister to achieve this object by guaranteeing :
(c) Parliament (d) Cabinet (a) equal fundamental rights to each citizen
146. Which among the following parts of Indian Constitution (b) the right to adequate means of livelihood to each
deal with the local administration? individual
(a) Part IX
(c) just and humane conditions of work to each
(b) Part IX and part IXA
individual
(c) Part IX, Part IXA and Part XIVA
(d) equal wages for equal work to each individual
(d) Part IXA only
irrespective of sex
147. Which amendment extended the ban on readjustment
157. In which year was the first Inter-State Council was set
of seats in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative
up?
assemblies for another 25 years with the objective of
encouraging population limiting measures? (a) 1990 (b) 1991 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) 76th Amendment (b) 84th Amendment (c) 1992 (d) 1993
(c) 91st Amendment (d) 93rd Amendment 158. The President can advance money to meet unforeseen
148. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down expenses, pending authorization by Parliament, from :
that any section of the citizens shall have the right to (a) the Consolidated Fund of India
conserve its distinct language, script or culture? (b) the Contingency Fund
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 29 (c) both the above funds
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 49 (d) None of the above
149. The citizenship Act 1955 prescribes way of losting 159. Who opined that, “The emergency power of the
citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to President is a fraud with the Constitution”?
it under the Constitution, viz : (a) B.N. Rao (b) H.N. Kunjru
(a) Renunciation (b) Termination (c) K.M. Munshi (d) K.M. Nambiar
(c) Deprivation (d) All of the above 160. The Objectives Resolution which laid down the main
150. National Judicial Appointments Commission was objectives to guide the deliberations of the Assembly
established by which amendment act? was moved by :
(a) 91st Amendment Act, 2003 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) Sardar Patel (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) 96th Amendment Act, 2011 (c) K.M. Munshi (d) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) 99th Amendment Act, 2014 161. The phrase ‘procedure established by the law’ means :
(d) 101st Amendment Act, 2016
(a) the judges in India cannot question the fairness or
151. In how many categories are the parliamentary standing
validity of a law, provided it is within the limit
committees classified?
(b) judges in India can question the fairness or validity
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
of an undue law even if it is within the limit
152. The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a
sovereign body because : (c) judges in India can declare a law invalid simply
(a) it can legislate only on subjects entrusted to the because in their opinion the law is not due or is
Centre by the Constitution undue
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(b) it has to operate within the limits prescribed by
the Constitution 162. On which country, Constituent Assembly modeled the
(c) the Supreme Court can declare laws passed by system of appointment of the Governor by the
Parliament as unconstitutional if they President?
contravene the provisions of the Constitution (a) USA (b) Ireland
(d) All of the above (c) Canada (d) Germany
153. Who is the is the ex-officio President of the Indian 163. The President can advance money to meet unforeseen
Parliamentary Group? expenses, pending authorization by Parliament, from :
(a) President xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Prime Minister (b) the Contingency Fund
(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) both the above funds
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
164. In which of the following cases the Governor has 173. Who called Indian people as “a single people living
situational discretion? under a single imperium derived from a single source”?
1. Appointment of Chief Minister when no party (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
has a clear-cut majority. (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
2. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers when it (c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
cannot prove the confidence of the state legislative (d) Mahatma Gandhi
assembly. 174. The member of a State Public Service Commission can
3. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly even be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after
if the Council of Ministers has majority.Select the an enquiry has been conducted by the :
correct option from the codes given below: (a) Supreme Court of India
(b) High Court of the state
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Committee appointed by the President
(c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of the above
165. Which Article of the Constitution state that all executive 175. Which act regulates the procedure relating to the
action of the Government of a State shall be expressed removal of a judge of a high court by the process of
to be taken in the name of the Governor? Impeachment?
(a) Article 163 (b) Article 164 (a) Judges Enquiry Act (1948)
(c) Article 165 (d) Article 166 (b) Judges Enquiry Act (1958) xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
166. The members of the state legislature exercise control (c) Judges Enquiry Act (1960)
over the Council of the Ministers through : (d) Judges Enquiry Act (1968)
(a) questions and supplementary questions 176. In which of the following cases the President can
appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of
(b) criticism of its policies xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å a high court for a temporary period?
(c) adjournment motion
(d) All of the above 1. When there is a temporary increase in the business
of the high court.
167. Who governs the Union Territory “Daman and Diu”?
2. When there are arrears of work in the high court.
(a) Deputy Governor (b) Administrator Select the correct option from the codes given below:
(c) Chief Minister (d) Gujarat High Court (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
168. The powers to legislate with respect to any matter not (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 & 2
enumerated in any of the three lists are mentioned as 177. The State Reorganization Act 1956 divided the country
residuary powers. Which of the following is empowered in five Zones. In which Zone Rajasthan was placed?
to determine finally as to whether or not a particular (a) Northern Zone (b) Western Zone
matter falls in this category? (c) Central Zone (d) South Zone
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Judiciary 178. Which constitutional amendment envisaged Delhi the
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Parliament status of special state?
169. Preamble enshrines the ideals of liberty, equality and (a) 91st (b) 69th
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
fraternity. Ideals inspired by the : (c) 54th (d) 73rd
(a) Russian Revolution 179. Which among the following Constitution is similar to
(b) Irish Revolution Indian Constitution because of a strong centre?
(a) USA (b) Canada
(c) French Revolution
(d) US Constitution xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) England (d) Japan
180. Writ jurisdiction of the High Court is not exclusive but
170. Which of the following characteristics is not related to concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme
the Presidential System? Court under which article?
(a) Governance of the Prime Minister (a) Article 32 (b) Article 56
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(b) Single Executive (c) Article 64 (d) Article 84
(c) Single Membership 181. Which article contains special provisions with respect
(d) Dissolution of lower house is baned to the state of Arunachal Pradesh?
171. JVP committee which was constituted in 1948-49 was (a) 371-G (b) 371-H
related to which of the following ? (c) 371-I (d) None of the above
(a) Industrialization of India 182. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first
(b) Formation of new states on linguistic basis spelt out in :
(a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of
(c) National language of India
Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj
(d) Reservation for SC and STs (b) the Nehru report
172. In which year was the Capital of India moved from (c) a resolution adopted at the Karachi session of the
Calcutta to Delhi? Indian National Congress
(a) 1910 (b) 1911 (d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the
(c) 1912 (d) 1913 Constituent Assembly
183. Who among the following is the first citizen of a city 193. The uniform civil code which has been recommended
in India? in the Directive Principles is to ensure which of the
(a) Mayor xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å following?
(b) Chairman (a) National Integration
(c) Sheriff (b) Economic Equality
(d) Member of Legislative Assembly (c) Fundamental Rights
184. How long is the tenure of the Chairman and Members (d) Fundamental Duties
of the State Public Service Commission? 194. The Assam Reorganization act 1969 created which of
(a) 4 years (b) 5 years the following state/states?
(c) 6 years (d) Not fixed (a) Meghalaya only
185. The position of the Prime Minister of India is superior
(b) Meghalaya and Mizoram
to that of his counter-part in Britain because :
(c) Mizoram only xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) India is the biggest democracy
(b) India has adopted the federal system (d) Arunanchal Pradesh only
(c) India has a written constitution 195. Which provisions guarantee independence of High
(d) his office enjoys constitutional basis Court?
186. India is “Union of States” this expression was borrowed 1. Expenditure not subject to voting by Parliament.
from which of the following Constitution? 2. Limit on discretion of the executive in judicial
appointments.
(a) Canada
(c) Australia
(b) France
(d) USA
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 3. Jurisdiction cannot be limited.
187. Where is the headquarters of Telecom Disputes (a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3
Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)? (c) 2, 3 (d) All of the above
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai 196. High courts issue writs under article :
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata (a) 220 (b) 221
188. Which of the following elects the acting Chairman of (c) 213 (d) 226
the State Public Service Commission? 197. Who advises the Governor with regard to the
(a) President summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court state legislature?
(c) Chief Minister
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
189. Who can be appointed as the Chairman of the National
Human Rights Commission? (c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(a) Any sitting judge of the Supreme Court (d) Chairman of Legislative Council
(b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court 198. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(c) Any person appointed by the President (a) Central Bureau of Investigation—1963
(d) Retired Chief Justice of any High Court (b) Special Police Establishment—1942
190. In which year the two posts of election commissioners (c) Prevention of Corruption Act—1947
created in 1989 were abolished? (d) Central Vigilance Commission—1964
(a) 1989 (b) 1990 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 199. Which of the following UTs have been created for
(c) 1995 (d) 2000 their cultural distinctiveness?
191. A three tier Panchayat is envisaged for states having (a) Puducherry (b) Daman and Diu
population above __________.
(a) 10 lakhs (b) 15 lakhs (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) All of the above
(c) 20 lakhs (d) 25 lakhs 200. What are Dilatory motions in context with the
192. Which of the following characteristics is not related to procedure in Parliament?
Parliamentary Government? (a) General discussion on budget
(b) Discussion on cut motions
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) Resolution of lower house
(b) Collective liability (c) Adjournment or delay of the debate on Bills
(c) Leadership of the Prime Minister (d) Deletion of words, phrases and expressions from
(d) Single Executive the records of procedure
Mock Test-4 (Paper- V) – Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (b) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (a) 119. (c) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (b) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (b) 130. (c)
131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c)
141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (b) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (d) 150. (c)
151. (c) 152. (d) 153. (d) 154. (d) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (d) 160. (b)
161. (a) 162. (c) 163. (b) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (d) 167. (b) 168. (b) 169. (c) 170. (a)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (d) 183. (a) 184. (c) 185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (a) 188. (d) 189. (b) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (d) 193. (a) 194. (a) 195. (d) 196. (d) 197. (b) 198. (b) 199. (d) 200. (c)
Mock Test-4 (Paper- VI)
1. If the annual rate of simple interest increases from
5
1 10. One-fifth of a number is equal to of another number..
8
10% to 12 % , a man’s yearly income increases by
2 If 35 is added to the first number, it becomes four
` 1250. His principle in ( ` ) is times of the second number. The second number is
(a) 50000 (b) 45000 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 70 (d) 125
(c) 60000 (d) 65000 11. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for ` 350
than by selling it for ` 340, the cost of the article is
2 2 
n n 1
(a) ` 50 (b) ` 160 (c) ` 200 (d) ` 225
2. The value of  n 1 n  is
2 2 
1 3
12. The rational numbers lying between and are—
1 n 1 4 4
(a) (b)
2 2n  1
(a) 9 , 31 (b) 13 , 264
3 40 41 50 350
(c) (d) None of the above
2
(c) 63 , 187 (d) 262 , 752
3. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was 250 250 1000 1000
only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining
13. What number should come next in the sequence 4, 5,
40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
7, 10, 11, 13, 16, —?
(a) 6.25 (b) 6.5 (c) 6.75 (d) 7
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 21
 1 1 1 1 1 
4.       is equal to 3 4 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
 1.4 4.7 7.10 10.13 13.16  14. Evaluate 16 9 , if 12  3.46
4 3
1 3 5 41 (a) 3.46 (b) 10.38
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 8 16 7280 (c) 13.84 (d) 24.22
15. A, B and C entered into a partnership. A invested
3 4 ` 2560 and B ` 2000. At the end of the year, they
5. The difference between th of th of a number and
4 5 gained ` 1105 out of which A got ` 320. C’s capital
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å was
1 2
th of th of the same number is 648. What is the (a) ` 4280 (b) ` 2840
6 5
(c) ` 4820 (d) ` 4028
number?
16. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and
(a) 1110 (b) 1215 (c) 1325 (d) 1440
20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B
6. 30 men can repair a road in 18 days. They are joined
and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank
by 6 more workers. Now, the road can be repaired in
will be full in
(a) 14 days (b) 15 days
2
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 16 days (d) 17 days
(a) 6 hrs (b) 6 hrs
7. A man sells two chairs at ` 120 each and by doing so 3
gains 25% on one chair and loses 25% on the other. 1
His loss on the whole (in`) is (c) 7 hrs (d) 7 hrs
2
(a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 25 (d) 30 17. Which of the following trains is the fastest?
8. Which of the following will be the L.C.M of 0.25, 0.1 (a) 25 m/sec (b) 1500 m/min
and 0.125 (c) 90 km/hr (d) None of these
(a) 12.5 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.05 (d) 2.5 18. If the cost price of 12 oranges is equal to selling price
9. 8  2 15 is equal to xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å of 10 oranges, then the percentage of profit is
2
(a) 5 3 (b) 5  3 (a) 16 % (b) 20% (c) 18% (d) 25%
3
(c) 5 3 (d) 3  5
19. A person deposited ` 400 for 2 yr, ` 550 for 4 yrs 29. The digit in the unit’s place of the product
and ` 1200 for 6 yr. He received the total simple
 2464    615   131
1793 317 491
interest of ` 1020. The rate of interest per annum is is
(a) 10% (b) 5% (c) 15% (d) 20% (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
20. If * is a digit such that 5824* is divisible by 11, then*
equals 4
30. The selling price of an article is times of its cost
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 3
price. The gain percentage is
1 1 1 1, 1 1
21. If A : B = : , B:C  : C:D  : then 1 1
6 5 4 3 3 5
(a) 20 % (b) 20 %
A : D is— xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 2 3
1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) : (b) : (c) 25 % (d) 33 %
24 25 27 25 4 3
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
1 1
(c) : (d) None of these 3 1
24 29 31. 18 % of 2000 + 33 % of 972 = ?
4 3
22. If numbers p, p + 2, p + 4 are all primes, then p equal
(a) 632 (b) 661 (c) 678 (d) 699
to
32. (0.2 × 0.2 + 0.01) (0.1 × 0.1 + 0.02) –1 is equal to
(a) 5 (b) 29 (c) 3 (d) 191
23. If 13  23  33  ...  103  3025, then find the value of 5 9 41 41
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 5 4 12
23  43  63  ...  203
33. A bonus of ` 1000 is to be divided among three people
(a) 6050 (b) 9075 (c) 12100 (d) 24200 so that Rohit receives twice as much as Sachin, who
24. The least integer which should be added to 1000 so as receives one-fifth as much as Gagan. How much money
to make it a perfect square is should Gagan receive?
(a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 89 (a) ` 100 (b) ` 250
25. If 5 x
 12 x
 13 x , then x is equal to xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) ` 375 (d) ` 625
25
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) 6 34. Value of .01  3 .008  .02 is
4
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
26. O is the incentre of ABC and BOC  110. Find
35. P and Q are 27 km away. Two trains having speeds
BAC 24 km/h and 18 km/h, respectively start simultaneously
(a) 40° (b) 45° (c) 50° (d) 55° from P and Q and travel in the same direction. They
27. If a boat goes 7 km upstream in 42 minutes and the meet at a point R beyond Q. Distance QR is
speed of the stream is 3 kmph, then the speed of the (a) 126 km (b) 81 km
boat in still water is : (c) 48 km (d) 36 km
(a) 4.2 km/hr (b) 9 km/hr 36. Surface areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are p,
(c) 13 km/hr (d) 21 km/hr q, r. Its volume is
28. ABJH, JDEF, ACEG are squares.
B
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) pq 2  qr 2  rp 2
A C
H
J
D (b)  
pq  qr  rp  p 2  q 2  r 2 
(c) (p 2  q 2  r 2 ) (p  q  r )
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(d) pqr
G E
F
AreaBCDJ 3 5 7
BC ? 37. of of of 1664 = ?
If  3 then, 4 6 10
AB AreaHJFG
(a) 1 (b) 834
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 3 (c) 762 (d) 728
9 3
3  243   243
0.13 0.07
38. In an examination, a student was asked to find of
14 48. The value of
 7    49    343 is
0.25 0.075 0.2
3
a number. By mistake, he found of it. His answer 3 7 3 2
4
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
was 150 more than the correct answer. The given 7 3 7 7
number is 49. A reduction of 21% in the price of wheat enables a
(a) 180 (b) 240 (c) 280 (d) 290 person to buy 10.5 kg more for ` 100. What is the
reduced price per kg?
39.    
1  1  1  1  1  1   ?
 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 50.
(a) ` 2 (b) ` 2.25 (c) ` 2.30 (d) ` 2.50
` 1087 is divided among A, B and C such that if ` 10,
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 ` 12 and ` 15 are diminished from the shares of A, B
40. Price of a new machine is ` 36,000. If its price is and C respectively, the remainders will be in the ratio
reduced by 10% every year, after two years price of of 5, 7 and 9. What is the share of B?
the machine will be (a) ` 260 (b) ` 355 (c) ` 362 (d) ` 465
(a) ` 22,450 (b) ` 25,640 51. The ratio of the length of the parallel sides of a
(c) ` 28,760 (d) ` 29,160 trapezium is 3 : 2. The shortest distance between them
41. The next term of the sequence, is 15cm. If the area of the trapezium is 450 cm2, the
sum of the lengths of the parallel sides
 1   1  1   1   1  1  (a) 15 cm (b) 36 cm xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
1   , 1   1   ,  1   1  1   ... is
 2   2  3   2   3  4  (c) 42 cm (d) 60 cm
 1 52. The difference between 5.76 and 2.3 is

(a) 3 (b) 1  
 5 (a) 2.54 (b) 3.73
 1  1  (c) 3.46 (d) 3.43

(c) 5 (d) 1  1   53. Three bells ring simultaneously at 11am. They ring at
 2  5 
regular intervals of 20 min, 30 min, 40min respectively.
42. (0.11  0.22)  3 is equal to xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å The time when all the three ring together next is
(a) 3 (b) 1.9 (c) 1 (d) 0.3

(a) 2 pm (b) 1 pm xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 1 : 15 pm (d) 1 : 30 pm
43. On multiplying a number by 7, all the digits in the 54. 11 friends went to a hotel and decided to pay the bill
product appear as 3s. The smallest such number is amount equally. But 10 of them could pay ` 60 each,
(a) 47649 (b) 47719 as a result 11th has to pay ` 50 extra than his share.
(c) 47619 (d) 48619 Find the amount paid by him.
(a) ` 105 (b) ` 110 (c) ` 115 (d) ` 120
44. 24  0.5  1  18  0.6  6  ?
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 55. If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80%
of B, What percentage of A is B?
(a) 19 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 70% (d) 75%
45. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was
56. A man on tour travels 160 km by car at 64 km/hr and
37°C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 34°C. If the
another 160 km by bus at 80 km/hr. The average speed
4
temperature on Thursday was
5
that of Monday, the for the whole journey is
(a) 35.55 km/hr (b) 36 km/hr
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
temperature on Thursday was
(c) 71.11 km/hr (d) 71 km/hr
(a) 34°C (b) 35.5°C
57. One quality of wheat at ` 9.30 per kg is mixed with
(c) 36°C (d) 36.5°C another quality at a certain rate in the ratio 8 : 7. If
46. The radius of a circle is increased by 1%. What is the the mixture so formed be worth ` 10 per kg, what is
increase per cent in its area? the rate per kg of the second quality of wheat?
(a) 1% (b) 1.1% (c) 2% (d) 2.01% (a) ` 10.30 (b) ` 10.60
47. A man bought 5 shirts at ` 450 each, 4 trousers at (c) ` 10.80 (d) ` 11
` 750 each and 12 pairs of shoes at ` 750 each. The 58. a, b, c, d are four consecutive odd integers and their
average expenditure per article is : average is 42. What is the product of a and c?
(a) ` 678.57 (b) ` 800 (c) ` 900 (d) ` 1,000 (a) 1890 (b) 1677 (c) 1860 (d) 1845
59. If the side of a square is increased by 5 cm, the area 71. 10 men working 6 h a day can complete a work in 18
increases by 165 sq. cm. The side of the square is days. How many hours per day must 15 men work to
(a) 12 cm (b) 13 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 15 cm complete the same work in 12 days?
60. If two equal circles, whose centres are O and O , intersect (a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
each other at the points A and B, O O = 12 cm and AB  2  xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
= 16 cm, then the radius of the circles is 72.  2 54  6  96  is equal to
 3 
(a) 10 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 14 cm
61. By selling 20 articles for ` 160 a man loses 20%. The (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6
number of articles to be sold at ` 240 so as to gain
20% is 73. The average of the first 100 positive integers is
(a) 20 (b) 28 (c) 24 (d) 18 (a) 100 (b) 51
(c) 50.5 (d) 49.5
0.0001  3 1000000 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 74. The area of a circle is 24.64 m2. The circumference of
62. Value of 3
0.125  3 0.008 the circle is—
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.01 (a) 14.64 m (b) 16.36 m
63. In a division problem, the divisor is 4 times the quotient (c) 17.60 m (d) 18.40 m
and 3 times the remainder. If remainder is 4, the 2
dividend is 75. A can cultivate th of a land in 6 days and B can
5
(a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 12 (d) 30 1
cultivate rd of that land in 10 days. Working together
64. How much water must be added to 100 ml. of 80% 3
solution of boric acid to reduce it to a 50% solution? 4
A and B can cultivate th of the land in—
(a) 30 ml. (b) 40 ml. (c) 50 ml. (d) 60 ml. 5
65. A began business with ` 45000 and was joined after
wards by B with ` 54000. After how many months
(a) 4 days (b) 5 days xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 8 days (d) 10 days
did B join, if the profits at the end of the year were
76. ` 2610 is divided among A, B and C such that 0.5 of
divided in the ratio 2 : 1?
A = 0.6 of B = 0.75 of C. C gets
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
(a) ` 1044 (b) ` 1000
66. A DVD is listed at ` 300 with a discount of 20%. The
additional discount to be offered to bring the net price (c) ` 870 (d) ` 696
to ` 216 is 77. 3
0.000216  ?
(a) 15% (b) 10% xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) 0.0006 (b) 0.006 (c) 0.06 (d) 0.6
(c) 8% (d) 12 1 2 % 1
78. A tree increases annually by of its height. By how
8
67. If x 2  4y 2  4xy, then x : y = ?
much will it increase after 2 years, if it stands today
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 4 64 cm high?
68. Solve the equation for x (a) 72 cm (b) 74 cm (c) 75 cm (d) 81 cm
4x+2 + 22x+3 = 96 79. A gardener plants 17956 trees in such a way that there
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 are as many rows as there are trees in a row. The
69. The sum of two numbers is trice of their difference. number of trees in a row are
The ratio of the numbers is (a) 136 (b) 134 (c) 144 (d) 154
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 80. A man takes 6 h 15 min in walking a distance and
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 riding back to the starting place. He could walk both
70. A man can reach a certain place in 30 h. If he reduced ways in 7 h 45 min. The time taken by him to ride
both ways, is
1
his speed by th, he goes 10 km less in that time. (a) 4 h (b) 4 h 30 min
15
(c) 4 h 45 min (d) 5 h
Find his speed per hour.
81. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere,
1 which will exactly fit inside the cube, is
(a) 6 km/h (b) 5
2
km/h
(a) 6 :  (b) 4 : 
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 4 km/h (d) 5 km/h (c) 5 : 3 (d) 4 : 3
82. Ram saves 14% of his salary while Shyam saves 22%. 91. A man ate 100 grapes in 5 days. Each day, he ate 6
If both get the same salary and Shyam saves ` 1540, more grapes than those he ate on the earlier day. How
what is the savings of Ram? many grapes did he eat on the first day?
(a) ` 990 (b) ` 980 (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 54 (d) 76
(c) ` 890 (d) ` 880 92. If the ratio of three numbers is 3 : 4 : 5 and their
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å L.C.M is 1200, then the smaller number is—
 2.3  .027
3
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 100 (d) 120
83. The value of
 2.3  .69  .09 is 93. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then
2
(3a + 5c + 7e) : (3b + 5d + 7f) = ?

(a) 0 (b) 1.6 (c) 2 (d) 3.4 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
84. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and (c) 2 : 1 (d) 8 : 7
soldiers is travelling in a train. If for every 15 soldiers
94. The average of two numbers is xy. If one number is
there is one captain, then the number of captains in the x, the other number is
group is
y
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) 70 (b) 75 (c) 80 (d) 82 (a) (b) y
2
(c) (2xy – x) (d) x (y – 1)
85. If x  1  1  1  ...  then the positive value of x
95. The present average age of a family of four members
is is 36 yr. If the present age of the youngest member
of the family is 12 yr, the average age of the family
7 1 6 1 at the birth of the youngest number was
(a) (b)
2 2 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 48 yr (b) 40 yr
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 32 yr (d) 24 yr
5 1 3 1
(c) (d) 96. A number is increased by 20% and then it is decreased
2 2 by 10%. Find the net increase or decrease per cent.
86. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is (a) 10% increase (b) 10% decrease
thrice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. (c) 8% increase (d) 5% decrease
The number is 97. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to
1 1 thrice itself in 3 yr. In how many years will it be 9
(a) 2 (b) (c) 3 (d) times itself?
2 3
(a) 9 (b) 27 (c) 6 (d) 3
87. 15% of 45% of a number is 105.3. What is 24% of 98. Let C be a point on a straight line AB. Circles are
that number? drawn with diameters AC and AB. Let P be any point
(a) 374.4 (b) 375 on the circumference of the circle with diameter AB.
(c) 385.5 (d) 390 If AP meets the other circle at Q then
88. A man sold some articles at a gain of 10%. He spent (a) QC || PB
his total sale proceeds to purchase such articles again. (b) QC is never paralled to PB
This time, while selling them, he incurred a loss of 1
10%. His loss or gain in entire transaction was (c) QC  PB
2
(a) 1% loss (b) 1% gain
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 1 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) no profit no loss (d) 2 % loss (d) QC || PB and QC  PB
2
89. If a train runs at 40 km/h, it reaches its destination late
99. In an alloy, the ratio of copper and zinc is 5 : 2. If
by 11 min. But if it runs at 50 km/h, it is late by 5
1.250 kg of zinc is mixed in 17 kg 500 g of alloy, then
min only. The correct time (in min) for the train to
the ratio of copper and zinc in the alloy will be
complete the journey is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 19 (d) 21
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
90. A is the centre of circle whose radius is 8 and B is the
100. When simplified the expression
centre of a circle whose diameter is 8. If these two
1
circles touch externally, then the area of the circle with 1 1 1 5
diameter AB is (100) 2  (0.001) 3  (0.0016) 4  3   
4
(a) 36  sq cm (b) 64  sq cm
is equal to
(c) 144  sq cm (d) 256  sq cm (a) 1.6 (b) 0.8 (c) 1.0 (d) 0
101. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the 109. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m,
same pattern and replace the question mark in the given then she moves towards West and travels a distance of
series. 14 m. From here, she moves towards North-west a
3, 7, 23, 95, ? xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4
(a) 62 (b) 128 (c) 479 (d) 575 m towards East and stood at that point. How far is the
starting point from where she stood?
102. In the following question, there is a certain relationship
(a) 3m (b) 4m (c) 10m (d) 11m
between two given words on one side of : : and one
word is given on another side of : : while another word 110. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some
is to be found from the given alternatives, having the took only fish and some only meat. There were some
same relation with this word as the words of the given vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted
pair bear. Choose the correct alternative. both fish and meat. Which of the following logic diagrams
correctly reflects this situation?
Influenza : Virus : : Typhoid : ?
(a) Bacillus (b) Parasite (c) Protozoa (d) Bacteria
103. In the following question, four words have been given
out of which three are alike in some manner, while the
fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Kiwi (b) Eagle (c) Emu (d) Penguin 111. In the following question, arrange the given words in
the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and
104. If POND is coded as RSTL, how is HEAR written in
that code?
then choose the correct sequence.
1. Dissipate 2. Dissuade 3. Disseminate
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) GHIJ (b) GHIZ (c) JIGZ (d) JCLZ
4. Distract 5. Dissociate 6. Dissect
105. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son
of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is Bindu, who (a) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (b) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal? (c) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4 (d) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
(a) Niece (b) Daughter Directions (112-115) : Study the following digit-letter-
symbol sequence carefully and answer the questions
(c) Wife (d) None of these
given below :
Directions (106-108) : Read the following information
RTJL2 $ D=M # 8 C%B<K1 &AW?
carefully and answer the questions given below :
P E + Q @ 7 F 6
(i) There are five types of cards viz. A, B, C, D and
112. How many such numbers are there in the above
E. There are three cards of each type. These are to
sequence, each of which is immediately preceded by a
be inserted in envelopes of three colours— Red,
consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
Yellow and Brown. There are five envelopes of each
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Three (d) None of these
colour.
113. If the above sequence is written in reverse order then
(ii) B, D and E type cards are inserted in red envelopes.
which of the following will be sixth to the right of
A, B and C type cards are to be inserted in yellow
sixteenth element from the right end?
envelopes and C, D and E type cards are to be
inserted in brown envelopes. (a) M (b) A (c) B (d) ?
114. If the first fifteen elements in the above sequence are
(iii) Two cards each of B and D type are inserted in red
written in reverse order, then which of the following
envelopes and two cards each of C and E type are
will be twenty-first from the right end?
inserted in brown envelopes.
(a) 2 (b) $ (c) = (d) L
106. Which of the following combinations of types of cards
115. What should come in place of question mark in the
and the number of cards and colour of envelope is
following on the basis of above sequence?
correct?
 R J : F 6 @ L J $ : Q @ E D$M :?
(a) A-2, B-2, C-1 : Yellow xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) # M C (b) P E W (c) P ? + (d) P E ?
(b) C-2, D-1, E-2 : Brown 116. Forty boys are standing in a row facing the North. Amit
(c) C-1, D-2, E-2 : Brown is eleventh from the left and Deepak is thirty-first from
(d) B-2, D-2, A-1 : Red the right end of the row. How far will Shreya, who is
107. Which of the following combinations of colour of the third to the right of Amit in the row, be from Deepak?
envelope and the number of cards is correct in respect (a) 2nd (b) 3rd (c) 4th (d) 5th
of E-type cards? 117. If  stands for ‘addition’,  stands for ‘subtraction’,
(a) Red-1, Yellow-2 (b) Yellow-1, Brown-2  stands for ‘division’,  stands for ‘multiplication’, 
(c) Red-2, Brown-1 (d) None of these stands for ‘equal to’, then which of the following
108. Which of the following combinations of the type of alternatives is correct?
cards and the number of cards is correct in respect of (a) 7  43  6  1  4
yellow coloured envelopes? (b) 3  6  2  3  6  5 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) A-2, E-1, D-2 (b) A-2, B-1, C-2 (c) 5  7  3  2  4
(c) A-3, B-1, C-1 (d) B-1, C-2, D-2 (d) 2  5  6  2  6
118. In the following question, arrange the given words in a 125. In the following question, various terms of an alphabet
meaningful sequence and then choose the most series are given with one term missing as shown by (?).
appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.
provided below : AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL
1. Patient 2. Diagnosis 3. Bill 4. Doctor 5.Treatment (a) FMI (b) GMJ (c) GLJ (d) HLK
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 126. Vitro is related to Glass in the same way as Ligno is
(c) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 related to ... .......
119. Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from (a) Marble (b) Metal (c) Rock (d) Wood
city A to C cost ` 77 but three tickets from city A to 127. In the following question, four words have been given,
B and two tickets from city A to C cost ` 73. What out of which three are alike in some manner and the
are the fares for cities B and C from A? fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
(a) ` 4, ` 23 (b) ` 13, ` 17 (a) Bomdila (b) Lhasa
(c) ` 15, ` 14 (d) ` 17, ` 13 (c) Nathula (d) Shipkila
120. Find the missing character in the following question : 128. If WORK is coded as 4 – 12 – 9 – 16, then how will
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å you code WOMAN?
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
149 175 (a) 4 – 12 – 14 – 26 – 13
? 203 (b) 4 – 26 – 14 – 13 – 12
(c) 23 – 12 – 26 – 14 – 13
(a) 148 (b) 208 (d) 23 – 15 – 13 – 1 – 14
(c) 213 (d) 233 Directions (129-130) : Read the following information
121. In the following question, certain pairs of words are and answer the questions given below it :
given, out of which the words in all pairs except one, A is the father of C. But C is not his son
bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in E is the daughter of C. F is the spouse of A
which the words are differently related. B is the brother of C. D is the son of B
(a) Donald : Comedy (b) Holmes : Suspense G is the spouse of B. H is the father of G
(c) Premchand : Novel (d) Robinson : Adventure 129. Who is the grandmother of D?
Direction (122) : In the question below are given three (a) A (b) C (c) F (d) H
statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II 130. Who is the son of F?
and III. You have to take the given statements to be true
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide 131. In the following question, a letter-number series is given
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts. missing term out of the given alternatives.
122. Statements : Some uniforms are covers. All covers are Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ? xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
papers. All papers are bags. (a) Y44B (b) Y66B
Conclusions : I. All covers are bags. (c) Y88B (d) Z88B
II. Some bags are covers, papers and 132. In the following question, four words have been given,
uniforms. out of which three are alike in some manner, while the
III. Some uniforms are not papers. fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only I and II follow (a) Tulsidas (b) Sheridan
(c) Only III follows (d) All I, II and III follow (c) Kalidas (d) Shakespeare
123. In the following question, find the minimum number of 133. In the following letter series, some of the letters are
straight lines required to make the given figure. missing which are given in that order as one of the
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
bca ___ b ___ aabc ___ a ___ caa
(a) acab (b) bcbb xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) cbab (d) ccab
134. The following question consist of two words that have
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 a certain relationship to each other, followed by four
124. In the following question, four words have been given lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has
out of which three are alike in some manner, while the the same relationship as the original pair of words.
fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one. Brook : River
(a) Mussoorie (b) Pahalgam (a) Pen : Paper (b) Yard : Alley
(c) Jaipur (d) Darjeeling (c) Path : Highway (d) Vein : Artery
135. In the following question, a group of three inter-related 143. In the following question, some words are given which
words is given. Choose a word from the given are related in some way. The same relationship obtains
alternatives, that is similar in the given words and hence among the words in one of the four alternatives given
belongs to the same group. under it. Find the correct alternative.
Which of the following is the same as Instill, Inside, Iron : Silver : Gold xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
Inform? (a) Parents : Father : Mother
(a) Interview (b) Institute xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (b) Wheat : Barley : Cereal
(c) Intent (d) Intelligent (c) Tree : Branch : Fruit
136. Three words in bold letters are given in the question, (d) Deer : Lion : Wolf
which have something in common among themselves. 144. In the following question, there is a certain relationship
Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most between two given numbers on one side of : : and one
appropriate description about these three words. number is given on another side of : : while another
number is to be found from the given alternatives,
Borlaug : Bhartendu : Birla
having the same relationship with this number as the
(a) They are famous scientists numbers of the given pair bear. Choose the best
(b) They are great warriors alternative.
(c) They worked in the field of literature 6 : 18 : : 4 : ?
(d) They are linked with awards xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 16
137. In the following question, four pairs of words are given, 145. In the following question consists of a pair of numbers
out of which the words in three pairs bear a certain that have a certain relationship to each other, followed
common relationship. Choose the pair in which the by four other pairs of numbers given as alternatives.
words are differently related. Select the pair in which the numbers are similarly related
as in the given pair.
(a) Horse : Colt (b) Stallion : Mare
11 : 1210 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) Dog : Bitch (d) Drake : Duck
(a) 6 : 216 (b) 7 : 1029
138. In the following question, four numbers are given. Out
of these, three are alike in a certain way but the rest (c) 8 : 448 (d) 9 : 729
one is different. Choose the one which is different from 146. In the following question, choose one number which is
the rest three. similar to the numbers in the given set.
(a) 372164 (b) 376821 Given set : 282, 354, 444
(a) 453 (b) 417 (c) 336 (d) 525
(c) 318951 (d) 319446
147. In the following question, choose that set of numbers
139. If the animals which can walk are called ‘swimmers’,
from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given
animals who crawl are called ‘flying’, those living in
set.
water are called ‘snakes’ and those which fly in the sky
Given set : (8, 3, 2)
are called ‘hunters’, then what will a parrot be called?
(a) (10, 6, 5) (b) (63, 8, 3)
(a) Swimmers (b) Snakes
(c) Flying (d) Hunters
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) (95, 24, 5) (d) (168, 15, 4)
Directions (148-150) : Study the following information
140. If ‘cinto baoli tsi nzro’ means ‘her village is Sarurpur’, to answer the given questions.
‘mhi cinto keepi tsi oind’ means ‘her first love is
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight friends sitting
literature’ and ‘oind geit tsi cinto pki’ means ‘literature around a circle facing towards the centre.
collection is her hobby’, which word would mean
(i) W is on the immediate left of P but is not the
‘literature’?
neighbour of T or S.
(a) cinto (b) baoli
(ii) U is on the immediate right of Q and V is the
(c) oind (d) geit neighbour of T.
141. In the following question, one term in the number series (iii) R is between T and U. xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 148. Which of the following statements is true?
24576, 6144, 1536, 386, 96, 24 (a) T is between U and Q
(a) 96 (b) 386 (c) 1536 (d) 6144 (b) U is the neighbour of V
142. Three words are given in the question below, which (c) V is between W and T
have something in common among themselves. Choose (d) W is between P and S
one out of the four given alternatives, which mentions 149. What is the position of S?
the quality common to the three given words.
(a) On the immediate left of Q
Couplet : Sonnet : Limerick (b) Second to the right of U
(a) Prose (b) Songs (c) Between Q and U
(c) Lyrics (d) Poetry (d) On the immediate left of P
150. What is the position of V? 156. In the following question, group the given figures into
(a) Second to the left of S three classes using each figure only once.
(b) Third of the right of U
(c) On the immediate right of W
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
1 2 3
(d) Between T and R
151. In the following question, four pairs of words are given
out of which the words in three pairs bear a certain 4 5 6
common relationship. Choose the pair in which the
words are differently related.
7 8 9
(a) Diamond : Glass cutter
(b) Graphite : Pencil lead (a) 1, 3, 7 ; 2, 4, 6 ; 5, 8, 9
(c) Lampblack : Automobile tyre (b) 1, 4, 6 ; 2, 5, 7 ; 3, 8, 9
(d) Coke : Hair gel (c) 1, 4, 8 ; 2, 5, 6 ; 3, 7, 9 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
152. The sheet of paper shown in the figure (X) given on (d) 1, 4, 8 ; 2, 7, 9 ; 3, 5, 6
the left hand side, is folded to form a box. Choose from 157. Which of the following indicates similar relationship as
amongst the alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d), the boxes LOWER has with WORLE?
that are similar to the box that will be formed. (a) GLAZE : AGELZ (b) AMONG : OMNAG
(c) WORDS : ROSWD (d) ENTRY : RNYET
158. In the following question, there is some relationship
between the two terms to the left of : : and the same
relationship holds between the two terms to its right.
(x) (A) (B) (C) (D) Also, in this question, one term to the right of : : is
(a) A only (b) A and C only missing. This term is given as one of the alternatives
given below the question. Find out this term.
(c) A, C and D only (d) A, B, C and D
COUNSEL : BITIRAK : : GUIDANCE : ?
153. How many dots lie opposite the face having three dots,
(a) EOHYZKBB (b) FOHYZJBB
when the given figure is folded to form a cube?
(c) FPHZZKAB (d) HOHYBJBA
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å Direction (159-161) : Choose the odd numeral pair/
group in each of the following questions :
159. (a) 140–45 (b) 110–35 (c) 100–30 (d) 80–25
160. (a) 11, 115 (b) 10, 90 (c) 9, 72 (d) 8, 56
161. (a) 3, 9, 6, 15 (b) 6, 18, 12, 30
(c) 4, 16, 12, 24 (d) 12, 36, 24, 60
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 162. In the following question, four groups of letters are
154. In the following question, find the number of triangles given. One of these groups is different from the other
in the given figure. three. Find the odd one.
(a) QePFoLA (b) OrDFkV xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) TuMBiNJ (d) XZaWoB
163. In the following question, four groups of letters are
given, out of which three are alike in a certain way
while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(a) BdEg (b) KmNp
(c) PrSu (d) TwXz
Directions (164-166) : Read the following information
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 16
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å carefully and answer the questions given below it :
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and
155. In the following question, count the number of squares South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
in the given figure. (ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
(iii) R, next to U, gets a South facing flat and T gets
a North facing flat.
(iv) S and U gets diagonally opposite flats.
164. Which of the following combinations get South facing
flats?
(a) 18 (b) 19 (a) QTS (b) UPT xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(c) 25 (d) 27 (c) URP (d) Data inadequate
165. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose flat will 173. Robin says, “If Jai gives me ` 40, he will have half as
be next to that of U? much as Atul, but if Atul gives me ` 40, then the three
(a) P (b) Q of us will all have the same amount.” What is the total
(c) R (d) T
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å amount of money that Robin, Jai and Atul have between
them?
166. The flats of which of the other pairs than SU, are
(a) ` 240 (b) ` 320
diagonally opposite to each other?
(c) ` 360 (d) ` 420
(a) QP (b) QR
174. Find the missing character in the following question :
(c) PT (d) TS
Directions (167-168) : Study the diagram given below
to answer these questions : 3 15
2 11
5 ?
G 7 7
C E D
F (a) 5 (b) 12
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
B
(c) 13 (d) 26
Directions (175-176) : In each of the following questions,
The triangle in the above figure depicts women in a set of figure carrying certain characters, is given.
villages, the square depicts the unemployed women and Assuming that the characters in each set follow a similar
the circle depicts the educated women. pattern, find the missing character in each case.
167. What does letter D represent?
175.
(a) Uneducated women in villages 25 17 38 18 89 16
(b) Unemployed women in villages who are not educated 6 8 ?
(c) Educated unemployed women (a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19
(d) Educated employed women
176. 2 6 3 5 2 3
168. Educated unemployed women in villages are represented
by 168 120 ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) D (d) E
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å 3 2 2 1 4 5
169. In the following question, a word has been given, (a) 84 (b) 195
followed by four other words, one of which cannot be (c) 240 (d) None of these
formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that 177. In the following question, a matrix of certain characters
word. is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-
UNHOSPITABLE wise or column-wise. Find out this trend and choose
the missing character from the given alternatives.
(a) PITIABLE (b) HOSTILE
(c) HOSPITAL (d) UNSTABLE
170. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the
? 13 49 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
9 17 69
morning, reaches Kunal’s house in 25 minutes, they
finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes and leave 13 11 59
for their office which takes another 35 minutes. At
(a) 5 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 21
what time do they leave Kunal’s house to reach their
178. In the matrix given below, the values of A, B and C are
office?
(a) 7.40 a.m. (b) 7.20 a.m. 9 A 12
(c) 7.45 a.m. (d) 8.15 a.m.
B 10 7
171. In the following question, if the given interchanges are
8 C 11
made in signs and numbers, which one of the four xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
equations would be correct? (a) A = 13, B = 11, C = 19
Given interchanges : Signs – and × numbers 3 and 6 (b) A = 13, B = 9, C = 11
(a) 6 – 3 × 2 = 9 (b) 3 – 6 × 8 = 10 (c) A = 9, B = 11, C = 13
(c) 6 × 3 – 4 = 15 (d) 3 × 6 – 4 = 33 (d) A = 9, B = 13, C = 11
172. A is three times as old as B, C was twice as old as A 179. In the following question, four groups of letters are
four years ago. In four year’s time, A will be 31. What given. One of these groups is different from the other
are the present ages of B and C? three. Find the odd one.
(a) 9, 46 (b) 9, 50 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) CALORIC (b) DRUID
(c) 10, 46 (d) 10, 50 (c) LEVEL (d) FRETFUL
180. The six faces of a cube have been marked with numbers 186. A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively. This cube is rolled down If a goat costs between ` 600 and ` 800, which of the
three times. The three positions are given in the figures following is a most valid conclusion?
below. Choose the figure that will be formed when the (a) A cow costs more than ` 2,500
cube is unfolded. (b) A cow costs less than ` 3,600
6 1 5 xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (c) A cow costs between ` 2,600 and ` 3,800
2
4
2 3 3
6 (d) A cow costs between ` 2,400 and ` 4000
187. A society consists of only two types of people—fighters
(I) (II) (III) and cowards. Two cowards are always friends. A fighter
and a coward are always enemies. Fighters are indifferent
to one another. It is known that A and B are enemies, C
2 5 6 1
and D are friends, E and F are indifferent to each other, A
3 4 3 6 2 4 2 3 and E are not enemies, while B and F are enemies.
1 1 1 6 Which of the following statements is true?
6 5 2 4 3 5 5 4
(a) B, C and F are cowards xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(b) A, E and F are fighters
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) B and E are in the same category
181. Four positions of a dice are shown below. What number (d) A and F are in different categories
must be at the bottom face when the dice is in the 188. Fill in the number grid with the numbers listed. Which
position as shown in fig. (iii)? of the numbers won’t fit?
6 4 3 2
7
4 5 1 5 6 5 1 4
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 137, 173, 301, 731, 770
182. Amongst the following figures, find the correct one, if (a) 137 (b) 173 (c) 301 (d) 731
it is known that the total number of dots on opposite 189. Fill in the word grid with the words listed. Which of
faces of the cube shown is always 7. the word won’t fit?
G xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
(a) (b) (c) (d)

183. Motorcycle is related to Battery in the same say as life
is related to AGE, ELM, GEL, GUM, LAG
(a) Sun (b) Man
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) AGE (b) ELM (c) GUM (d) LAG
(c) Enjoy (d) Earth 190. In the following question, four numbers are given. Out
184. You are playing in your friend’s house, when he get of these, three are alike in a certain way but the rest
stuck with a naked electric wire. You should one is different. Choose the one which is different from
(a) hold the wire and pull it a way the rest three.
(b) pull off the wire with a wooden stick (a) 27 (b) 125 (c) 343 (d) 1321
(c) rise an alarm to call some people for help 191. Study the following table and choose the alternative
which can best replace the sign of interrogation (?)
(d) hold him by the arms and try to set him free
185. Few of the numbers in a number pyramid are filled in.
Find the number in the position marked as ‘?’
3 8 10 2 ?
6 56 90 2 20
1
0
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
? 192. Ayush remembers that Sanjay’s birthday is certainly
16 15 after January 12 but not later than 16th January. If
Mehar remembers that Sanjay’s birthday is before 17th
9 7 8 of Jan but not before 13th Jan. On which of the following
7 2 5 3 day was Sanjay’s birthday?
(a) 14th (b) 15th
(a) 29 (b) 30 (c) 31 (d) 32 (c) 16th (d) Either 14th or 15th
193. Among Anil, Bibek, Charu, Debu and Eswar, Eswar is 196. If a sixth brand M is tested and found to be more
taller than Debu but not as fat as Debu. Charu is taller effective than S, then which of the following must be
than Anil but shorter than Bibek. Anil is fatter than true, if the findings of the study are correct?
Debu but not as fat as Bibek. Eswar is thinner than (a) M is the most effective of all the six brands tested
Charu who is thiner than Debu. Eswar is shorter than (b) Atleast four of the six brands tested are less effective
Anil. Who is the thinnest person? than M
(a) Bibek (b) Charu (c) Debu (d) Eswar (c) M is more effective than P xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
Directions (194-197) : Read the following information (d) M is less effective than P
and answer the questions that follow. 197. If R is more expensive per dose than P and T is less
In a study of five brands of pain relieving tablets P, Q, expensive per dose than R, which of the following must
R, S and T, the brands were tested and ranked against be true, according to the study, for a consumer, who
each other as more or less effective per dose. The wishes to buy a pain reliever with the greatest
following results were obtained. effectiveness for the amount spent per dose?
I. P was more effective than Q (a) P should be purchased instead of R
II. The effectiveness of R was less than that of S (b) P should be purchased instead of T
III. T was the least effective brand tested (c) T should be purchased instead of R
IV. Q and R were equally effective (d) Q should be purchased instead of R, if Q is of the
V. The effectiveness of S was greater than that of Q same price as S
194. If the above statements are true, which of the following 198. From 1 O’clock afternoon upto 10 O’clock in the night,
must be true? the hands of a clock will be at right angle... times.
(a) P and S were equally effective xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) None of these
(b) P was the most effective 199. If 15th August, 2011 was Tuesday, then what day of
(c) S was the most effective the week was it on 17th September, 2011?
(d) R was less effective than P (a) Thursday (b) Friday (c) Saturday (d) Sunday
195. All the informations in the results given above can be 200. In the following question, find the answer figure in
derived from which of the following groups of which question figure is embedded.
statements?
(a) Statements I, II and III
(b) Statements I, III and IV
(c) Statements I, III and V
(d) Statements I, II, III and IV (a) (b) (c) (d) xÄy!‰þ¦þy¢Å
Mock Test-4 (Paper- VI) – Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (a)
111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (a) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (d) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (a)
131. (c) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (c) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (a) 150. (b)
151. (d) 152. (c) 153. (d) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (a)
161. (c) 162. (b) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (c) 166. (a) 167. (b) 168. (d) 169. (a) 170. (b)
171. (b) 172. (b) 173. (c) 174. (a) 175. (b) 176. (b) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (d) 180. (c)
181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (b) 185. (c) 186. (d) 187. (b) 188. (b) 189. (d) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (d) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (d) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (d) 200. (a)

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WBCS MAINS EXAM.

- 2023 MEGA PRACTICE SERIES

 1 52. The difference between 5.76 and 2.3 is

 1  1  (c) 3.46 (d) 3.43

(a) 3 (b) 1.9 (c) 1 (d) 0.3

(3a + 5c + 7e) : (3b + 5d + 7f) = ?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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