MODULARS 15. What is the oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7?

MODULE 1 A. +6 B. +2 C. +1 D. -2
1. Salzburg vitriol
A. H2SO4 C. CuSO4 16. He proposed the Quantum Mechanic Model and said that
B. FeSO4 – Green vitriol D. ZnSO4 the electrons move in 3D structure.
A. Erwin Schrodinger C. J.J Thompson
2. Which of the ff is used as a toothache drop? B. Neil Bohr D. John Dalton
A. Thymol C. Eugenol – Eugenia caryophyllus
B. Cresol D. Resorcinol 17. This element renders the glass brown in color.
A. MnO2 B. Pb C. BO3-3 D. K
3. What is the common name for a dicarboxylic acid with 8
carbons? 18. What color does the element above impart on non-luminous
A. Succinic acid C. Suberic acid flame?
B. Pimelic acid D. Sebacic acid A. green B. blue C. violet D. Yellow

4. Aldehydes and ketones react with Grignard reagent to 19. 117

produce what? A. Moscovium – 115 C. Nihonium – 113
A. Oxime C. Alcohol B. Oganesson – 118 D. Tenessine
B. Enamine D. Hydrazone
20. This states that a chemical compound will always contain
5. Ibuprofen belongs to which class of NSAIDs? exactly the same proportion of elements by mass.

Ph
A. Oxicams C. Indoles A. Law of Conservation of Mass C. Law of Multiple Proportion
B. Fenamates D. Proprionic acid B. Proust’s Law D. None of the above

6. Which of the ff is not a component of an opium extract? 21. He is credited for the Law of Octaves.
A. Noscapine C. Methadone A. Henry Mosley C. Johann Dobereiner
B. Thebaine D. Codeine B. John Newlands D. Antoine Lavoisier

7. What alloy of elements compose Raney nickel?

A. Nickel and Platinum
B. Nickel and Aluminum
C. Nickel and Radium
D. Platinum and Aluminum
,R22. Which of the ff increases as you go down and towards left of
the periodic table?
A. Metallic property
B. Electron affinity
C. Electronegativity
D. Ionization potential
8. Na
at
A. Group 1 Cation C. Group 4 Cation 23. Family A or the representative elements occupy the d and f
B. Group 2 Cation D. Group 5 Cation block while Family B or the transition elements occupy the s and
p block.
9. Nizoral ® A. First statement is true. Second statement is false.
A. Clotrimazole C. Ketoconazole B. First statement is false. Second statement is true.
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B. Miconazole D. Cotrimoxazole C. Both statements are true.

D. Both statements are false.
10. Which is used to disinfect drinking water?
A. Hydrogen peroxide C. Chloroform 24. What is the property of elements having two or more different
B. Halazone D. Potssaium permanganate forms but have the same physical state?
A. Isotopes C. Isobars
K

11. It is a folic acid analog that inhibits the formation of B. Isotones D. Allotropes
tetrahydrofolic acid from folic acid.
A. Methotrexate C. Gencitabine 25. This refers to the ability of a buffer solution to resist changes
B. Mercaptopurine D. Cladribine in pH.
A. Buffer index C. Buffer capacity
12. 5% iodine in water with KI. B. Buffer efficiency D. All of the above
A. Iodine Solution C. Iodine Tincture
B. Strong Iodine Solution D. Povidone-Iodine 26. What is the term used to describe the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of an object per gram?
13. 70% alcohol is used externally as a: A. Internal energy C. Heat capacity
A. Refrigerant C. Astringent B. Specific heat D. Enthalpy
B. Rubefacient D. All of the above
27. As primary alcohol chain increases, ability to penetrate
14. What is the element essential in the development of microbial membranes increases. Alcohols anti-infective activity
erythrocyte and hemoglobin and deficient in a person suffering increases with molecular weight until carbon 8.
from megaloblastic or pernicious anemia? A. First statements is correct. Second statement is false.
A. Cobalt C. Manganese B. First statement is false. Second statement is correct.
B. Iron D. Selenium C. Both statements are correct.
D. Both statements are false.
28. Muriate of Harshorn. 41. What type of reaction happens during burning of a wood?
A. Ammonium Chloride A. Physical C. Chemical
B. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit B. Redox D. Eutectic
C. Mercuric Ammonium Chloride
D. Ammonium Carbonate 42.

29. What is the only reddish metal?

A. Iron C. Chromium
B. Copper D. Nickel

30. Olefin A. Enantiomer C. Conformational

A. Alkane C. Alkyne B. Constitutional D. Geometric
B. Alkene D. Aromatic hydrocarbon
43. The only atom that can form multiple and infinite bonds with
31. Which of the ff is NOT an amphoteric compound? itself belongs to what group?
A. Water C. Oil of Vitriol A. Group IIA C. Group IVA
B. Zinc Hydroxide D. Litharge B. Group IIIA D. Group VA

32. What are the components of the universal antidote? 44. What is the IUPAC name of the chemical:
I. Activated charcoal III. MgO CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CH2
II. Tannic acid IV. Mg(OH)2 A. 1-heptene C. hexane

Ph
A. I B. I, II C. I, II, III D. I, II, III, IV B. heptane D. 1-hexene

33. Benedict’s reagent, used to detect the presence of reducing 45. What element is needed for the absorption of Vitamin E?
sugars, contains which salt? A. Mg B. Se C. Ca D. Fe
A. Na2SO4 C. FeSO4
B. CuSO4 D. ZnSO4 46. What is the relationship that exists where elements located
diagonally in the periodic table have the same characteristics
34. pH = pKb + log base
salt
A. Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation
B. Hendersen-Hasselbalch Equation
,R rather than the group that they belong to?
A. Malleable elements
B. Bridge elements
C. Covalent elements
D. None of the above

47. What is the metabolite found in Prontosil, a red dye studies

C. Henderson-Hasselbach Equation
at
D. Henderson-Haselbach Equation by Gerard Domagk, which is responsible for the antimicrobial
property of the dye?
35. Cadmium toxicity A. Sulfisoxazole C. Sulfacetamide
A. Shaver’s disease C. Minamata disease B. Sulfamethoxazole D. Sulfanilamide
B. Parakeratosis D. Itai-itai disease
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48. Which belongs to the first triad?

36. Which quantum number describes the size of the particle? I. Co II. Os III. Pt IV. Ni
A. Principal Quantum Number A. I and II C. III and IV
B. Azimuthal Quantum Number B. II and III D. I and IV
C. Magnetic Quantum Number
D. Spin Quantum Number 49. What type of solution exists when the ion product is less than
Ksp?
K

37. What is the term used to describe solid tumors of the A. unsaturated solution C. Supersaturated solution
epithelial cells? B. saturated solution D. None of the above
A. Sarcoma C. Lymphoma
B. Carcinoma D. Leukemia 50. Which of the ff is true about Metronidazole?
I. Its side effect includes the feeling of alcoholics taking
38. Which among the ff drugs is bacteriostatic? Antabuse ®
A. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide II. It is the drug of choice for infections of Trichomonas vaginalis.
B. Isoniazid D. Ethambutol III. It has a metallic taste.
IV. It contains nitrogen in its structure.
39. Antihelminthic used for the treatment of O. volvulus infection. A. I B. I and II C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV
A. Niclosamide C. Thiabendazole
B. Pyrantel pamoate D. Ivermectin 51. Which of the ff forms of radiation is the most penetrating?
A. Alpha C. Gamma
40. Which of the ff binds to the 30s subunit of the bacterial B. Beta D. Positron
protein which causes its bacterial activity?
A. Erythromycin C. Neomycin 52. Esters are formed by the reaction between what?
B. Azithromycin D. Clindamycin A. acids + bases C. acid + ketone
B. acid + aldehyde D. acids + alcohol
53. What is a solid solution of either two or more nonmetals, but 67. An atom with an atomic number of 35 and mass number of
one must be of what metal? 80 have how many neutrons?
A. Ore C. Alloy A. 45 B. 35 C. 115 D. 70
B. Amalgam D. None of the above
68. Which of the ff is NOT incorrect regarding Phase I drug
54. What is the positive part of a galvanic cell? metabolism? (NO ANSWER, BONUS)
A. Anion C. Anode I. It includes Oxidation, Reduction, and Hydrolysis
B. Cathode D. Cation II. It is also known as conjugation reaction
III. It generally tends to provide a functional group or “handle” to
55. The law that states that at constant pressure and the molecule
temperature, the volume of gas is directly proportional to the A. I only C. III only
number of moles of the gas present. B. II only D. All of the above
A. Charles’ Law C. Avogadro’s Law
B. Marlotte’s Law D. Gya-Lussac’s Law 69. According to what principle states that no two electrons can
have the same set of four quantum numbers?
56. Phosphoric acid is a: A. Pauli’s exclusion principle
A. monoprotic C. triprotic B. Hund’s rule
B. diprotic D. polyprotic C. Aufbau principle
D. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
57. Sensitivity of gram (-) bacilli to Amoxicillin is due to what
group? 70. Cycloserine is an antibiotic that has been isolated from the

Ph
A. amino group C. nitro group ff Streptomyces species except:
B. hydroxyl group D. carboxyl group I. S. influenza III. S. lavendulus
II. S. orchidaceus IV. S. garyphalus
58. Which of the ff antihistamines is now commonly used as an A. I only C. I and III
appetite stimulant due to its CNS depressant properties? B. II only D. II and III
A. Meclizine C. Buclizine
B. Hydroxyzine D. Chlorcyclizine

59. Saponification is an alkali hydrolysis of:

A. RCOR B. ROH C. RCOH D. RCOOR
,R For items 71-75, refer to the choices below:

60. Who is regarded as the Father of Chemotherapy?

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A. Louis Pasteur C. Paul Ehrlich
B. Joseph Lister D. Alexander Fleming

61. A species that loves a positive species is a:

A. Nucleophile C. Free-radical
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B. Electrophile D. None of the above

62. Propanone and 1-propen-1-ol are considered:

A. Enantiomers C. Positional Isomers
B. Tautomers D. Chain Isomers
71. Adrenergic agonist – B
K

63. What is the metabolic reaction that infants are capable of at

72. Antimetabolite – C
birth?
A. Sulfation C. Reduction-Oxidation
73. Antibacterial – A
B. Acetylation D. A & B
74. Preservative – D
64. Which of the ff is a progesterone analog that is used to
prevent endometrial cancer?
75. Anxiolytic – E
A. Gardasil ® C. Flutamide
B. Tamoxifen D. Depo-provera ®
76. Which of the ff is Glauber’s salt?
A. KC4H5O6 C. NH4Cl
65. Ethylene oxide, a gas sterilant, is classified as?
B. Na2SO4 D. CacO3
A. phenol C. alcohol
B. ester D. ether
77. The biotransformation of chloral hydrate to trichloroethanol
involves what process?
66. What are the bromides present in Three Bromides Elixir?
A. Aldehyde reduction C. Ketone reduction
I. Na II. Ca III. K IV. NH4 V. Fe
B. N-demethylation D. Aromatic hydroxylation
A. I, II and III C. III, IV and V
B. II, III and IV D. I, III, and IV
78. A higher molecule weigh bisurea derivative containing six 92. What is the method used in the production of dry ice?
sulfonic acid groups as their sodium salts. A. Evaporation C. Condensation
A. Glycobiarsol C. Suramin B. Deposition D. Sublimation
B. Stibogluconate D. Pentamidine
93. What are the elements lying in the heavily zigzagged part of
79. Chlorides may be precipitated from solution using what the periodic table?
reagent? A. Metals C. Non-metals
A. Lithium bromide C. Sodium thiosulfate B. Metalloids D. Halides
B. Potassium hydroxide D. Silver nitrate
94. Water possesses what geometry?
80. Diagonally related elements in the periodic table is known as A. linear C. trigonal planar
what? B. bent D. trigonal pyramidal
A. Metalloids C. Actinide series
B. Representative elements D. Bridge elements 95. Nitrogen
A. asoge C. azufre
81. Which is the first element discovered by means of B. azote D. argentum
spectroscope?
A. Technetium C. Rubidium For items 96-100, refer to the choices below:
B. Cesium D. Cerium

82. What is the term used to describe the ability of carbon to

Ph
bind itself to form long chains or even rings?
A. Catenation C. Isomerization
B. Hybridization D. Propagation

83. What is the composition of Lucas reagent?

A. silver chloride + phosphoric acid
B. mercuric chloride + nitric acid
C. lead chloride + glacial acetic acid
D. zinc chloride + concentrated hydrochloric acid
,R
84. What is the expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil
of Fagus grandiflora?
at
A. Carbocisteine C. Butamirate citrate
B. Guaifenesin D. Diphenhydramine
96. Hydroquinone – C
85. Lunges’ test is a sensitivity test is for what ion?
A. Phosphate C. Sulfate 97. Pyridine – B
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B. Nitrate D. Carbonate
98. Pyrrole – D
86. Collodion treated with 3%______ and 2%_______ makes a
flexible collodion. 99. Furan – E
A. sulfuric acid, nitric acid C. castor oil, camphor
B. ether, alcohol D. none of the above 100. Thiophene – A
K

87. What the newest and most potent drug for Malaria?
A. Priamaquine C. Mefloquine
B. Chloroquine D. Artemisinin

88. Crystallogens
A. IIIA B. IVA C. VA D. VIA

89. What is the second abundant extracellular anion?

A. Phosphate C. Chloride
B. Sulfate D. Bicarbonate

90. Ethylenediaminetetracetic acid is:

A. ligand C. sequestering agent
B. buffer D. 2 of the above

91. What is also known as mineral chameleon and is a powerful

oxidizing agent?
A. H2S04 C. ZnSO4
B. KMnO4 D. NaH2PO4
MODULE 2 III. If there are two different groups on each carbon, and the
For items 1-5: PLANT HORMONES: highest priority groups for each carbon is on opposite sides, the
A. Auxin D. Cytokinin molecule is denoted “trans” or “E” isomer. – ✔
B. Abscissic acid E. Gibberellin IV. Geometrical isomerism occurs when there is restricted
C. Ethylene rotation around a C=C double bond. – X
ANSWER: C (2 statements are true)
1. This plant hormone is produced primarily in plant parts that
are actively growing like the stem and is distributed downward 10. I. The 5’-end of a DNA contains a free hydroxyl. – X
from top to bottom of the plant. – A (Auxin) II. The 3’-end of a DNA contains a free phosphate. – X
III. In post-translational processes, splicing deletes introns.
2. Involved in the closure of stomata, bud and seed dormancy. -✔
- B (Abscissic acid) IV. In post-translational processes, splicing weaves exons
together. – ✔
3. A plant hormone that affects ripening and rotting in plants.
ANSWER: C (2 statements are true)
- C (Ethylene)
11. Properties of a double helix.
4. This plant hormone is produced in the root apical meristems
I. base pairing –
and travel upward through water uptake via the stem xylem.
II. either right-handed or left-handed –
- D (Cytokinin)
III. parallel –
IV. A-T = G-C –
5. It promote stem elongation between nodes on the stem.

Ph
ANSWER: B (3 statements are true)
- E (Gibberellin)
12. I. Vitamin C deficiency: Scurvy – ✔
For items 6-15, refer to the choices below:
A. All statements are true. D. 1 statements is true. II. Vitamin A deficiency: Xerophthalmia – ✔
B. 3 statements are true. E. No statement is true. III. Vitamin D deficiency: Rickettsia – X
C. 2 statements are true. IV. Vitamin K deficiency: Excessive bleeding – ✔

is called the stroma. - X

II. The thylakoids are disk-like structures that hold
photosystems I and II in their membranes. - ✔
,R
6. I. The fluid filled space where the dark reaction takes place
ANSWER: B (3 statements are true)

13. I. Vitamin B1 deficiency: Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome –

II. Vitamin B2 deficiency: Cheilosis –
III. Vitamin B3 deficiency: Pellagra –
III. Photosynthesis involves 2 phases: light and dark reaction. IV. Vitamin B5 deficiency: Burning Foot Syndrome –
at
-✔ ANSWER: A (All statements are true)
IV. The light energy absorbed by chlorophyll is used to join
water molecules into its component ions in a process called 14. I. mRNA: messenger RNA; conveys info from DNA to
photolysis. - ✔ ribosomes. –
II. tRNA: transfer RNA; carry amino acids into the site of
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ANSWER: B (3 statements are true)

protein synthesis. –
7. I. The defective enzyme in GSD I is lysosomal alpha- III. rRNA: ribosomal RNA; integral part of ribosomes. –
IV. SnRNA: small nucleus RNA; removes introns. –
glucosidase. - ✔
ANSWER: A (All statements are true)
II. The McArdle’s disease involves liver phosphorylase. – X
III. GSD III is an abnormality of the branching enzyme. – X
15. Steps in DNA replication in order:
IV. Von Gierke’s disease causes hypoglycemia and massive
I. Unwinding of the DNA by helicase. –
K

enlargement of the liver. – X

II. Creation of the primer through the primase. –
ANSWER: D (1 statement is true)
III. DNA polymerase III creates the complimentary strand
along the replication fork. –
8. I. Tay-Sach’s and Sandhoff’s diseases both affect
IV. DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments, forming the
hexosaminidase A. – ✔ second copy of the original DNA. –
II. The metachromatic leukodystrophy, the enzyme ANSWER: A (All statements are true)
arylsulfatase A is defective. – ✔
III. Krabbe’s disease affects beta-galactosidase. - ✔ 16. What is the prosthetic group present in cytochromes?
IV. Farber’s disease affects ceramidase. - ✔ A. Molybdenum C. Iron
ANSWER: A (All statements are true) B. Selenium D. Potassium

9. I. Stereoisomers are molecules having the same molecular 17. What is the classification of the enzyme phosphodiesterase?
formula but different connectivity. – X A. Lyase C. Ligase
II. If there are two different groups on each carbon, and the B. Hydrolase D. Isomerase
highest priority groups for each carbon is on the same side, the
molecule is denoted “trans” or “Z” isomer. – ✔ 18. Site of intermediate reaction.
A. Mitochondria C. Ribosomes
B. Nucleus D. Intermembrane space
19. In an uncompetitive inhibition, the: A. Linoleic acid C. Palmitic acid
A. Km remains constant, Vmax decreases B. Oleic acid D. Arachidonic acid
B. Km increases, Vmax remains constant
C. Km and Vmax decreases 31. A disaccharide consisting of 2 glucose units connected by a
D. Km and Vmax increases glycosidic bond at α-1,4.
A. Maltose C. Lactose
20. Epimer of D-glucose at carbon 4. B. Cellobiose D. Sucrose
A. D-mannose C. D-galactose 32. “Suicide bags of the cell.”
B. L-mannose D. L-galactose A. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes
B. Golgi bodies D. Nucleus
For items 21-25: refer to the choices below:
A. Hyaluronic acid D. Glycoproteins 33. Which are true about the central dogma?
B. Glycolipids E. Proteoglycans A. Transcription may produce DNA D. B and C
C. Glycosaminoglycans B. Transcription may produce RNA E. All of the above
C. Replication may produce DNA
21. A molecule composed of a core protein and one or several
covalently attached sulfated glycosaminoglycan chains. 34. In sickle cell anemia, glutamic acid is replaced by:
- E (Proteoglycans) A. Leucine C. Glycine
B. Methionine D. Valine
22. An oligosaccharide chain that is covalently bonded to the
polypeptide side chains of the protein. – D (Proteoglycans) 35. This structure shows the supercoiling of the DNA strand to

Ph
form the chromosomes.
23. These are long, unbranched polysaccharide consisting of an A. Primary structure C. Tertiary structure
amino sugar acetylglucosamine along with a uronic sugar or B. Secondary structure D. Quaternary structure
galactose. – C (Glycosaminoglycans)
For items 36-40: ID Test for Amino Acids:
24. Are lipid residue with a carbohydrate attached through a A. Millon’s Test D. Xanthoproteic Test
glycosidic bond. – B (Glycolipids) ,R B. Hopkin’s-Cole Test E. Sodium nitroprusside Test
C. Sakaguchi’s Test
25. It is distributed widely throughout connective, epithelial, and
neural tissues. – A (Hyaluronic acid) 36. Yellow precipitate for aromatic amino acids
- D (Xanthoproteic Test)
26. The rate-limiting step in the mevalonate pathway.
at
A. Phosphomevalonate kinase C. HMG-CoA synthase 37. Positive result for amino acids with a phenol group
B. HMG-CoA reductase D. Mevalonate-5-kinase - A (Millon’s Test)

27. A point mutation where the purine base was changed by a 38. Positive result for amino acids with a guanido ring
pyrimidine base. - C (Sakaguchi’s Test)
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A. Silent C. Transversional
B. Non-sense D. Transitional 39. Positive result for amino acids with thiol group
- E (Sodium nitroprusside Test)
28. The right-handed from of DNA and is the most common or
most abundant in cells. 40. Positive result for amino acids with an indole ring
A. a-DNA C. c-DNA - B (Hopkin’s-Cole Test)
K

B. b-DNA D. z-DNA
For items 41-45, refer to Figure 1
29. The amino acid Isoleucine is described as: A. Phenylalanine D. Shikimic acid
A. essential, ketogenic B. Tryptophan E. Chorismic acid
B. non-essential, glucogenic C. Tyrosine
C. essential, both ketogenic and glucogenic
D. non-essential, both ketogenic and glucogenic 41. A – Chorismic acid (E)
42. B – Phenylalanine (A)
30. Name the compound 43. C – Shikimic acid (D)
44. D – Tryptophan (B)
45. E – Tyrosine (C)
 A. – Chorismic acid (E)
C. – Shikimic acid (D)

Ph
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D. – Tryptophan (B)
at
B. – Phenylalanine (A)
E. – Tyrosine (C)
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46-50: ID Test for Sugars 52. Glycogenesis is the formation of glycogen. This cycle is regulated
A. Barfoed’s Test D. Benedict’s Test by what hormone?
B. Degines Test E. Fehling’s Test A. Glucagon C. PTH
C. Seliwanoff’s Test B. Insulin D. Cortisol

46. Test to differentiate citric acid from tartaric acid. 53. More sensitive identification test for cholesterol.
K

- B (Degines Test) A. Salkowski Test C. Osazone Test

B. Silver Mirror Test D. Liebermann-Burchard Test
47. Uses sodium carbonate as the sequestering agent.
- D (Benedict’s Test) 54. Most active form of Vitamin D important for the absorption of
calcium ions in the blood.
48. Test to differentiate monosaccharide from a A. Cholecalciferol
a disaccharide using cupric citrate. B. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
- A (Barfoed’s Test) C. 7-dehydrocholesterol
D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
49. Test to differentiate aldoses from ketoses using
resorcinol. – C (Seliwanoff’s Test) 55. A condition where the body cannot convert porphyrin to heme
resulting to accumulation of it.
50. Positive result of this test is a brick-red precipitate. A. Iron deficiency anemia
- E (Fehling’s Test) B. Thalassemia
C. Porphyria
51. What is the final ion acceptor in the Electron Transport D. Megaloblastic anemia
Chain cycle?
A. Water C. ATP
B. Oxygen D. Cyanide
For items 56-60: Refer to the choices below: For items 76-80: Refer to the choices below:
A. Bawang D. Akapulko A. Pyridine-piperidine D. Alkaloidal
B. Ampalaya E. Yerba Buena B. Indole E. Purine
C. Ulasimang-bato C. Tropane

56. Antifungal – D (Akapulko) 76. Theobroma cacao – E (Purine)

57. Antidiabetic agent – B (Ampalaya) 77. Claviceps purpurea – B (Indole)

58. Antihypercholesterolemia 78. Areca catechu – A (Pyridine-piperidine)

- A (Bawang)
79. Hyocyamus niger – C (Tropane)
59. Antigout – C (Ulasimang-bato)
80. Ephedra sinica – A (Pyridine-piperidine)
60. Analgesic – E (Yerba Buena)
For items 81-85: Refer to the choices below
For items 61-65: Refer to the choices below: A. Fixed oil C. Fats
A. Ester D. Ketone B. Volatile oil D. Waxes
B. Phenolic ether E. Phenol
C. Hydrocarbon 81. Cod liver oil – C (Fats)

Ph
61. Myristica fragrans – B (Phenolic ether) 82. Jojoba oil – D (Waxes)

62. Gaultheria procumbens – A (Ester) 83. Castor oil – A (Fixed oil)

63. Pinus palustris – C (Hydrocarbon) 84. Anise oil – B (Volatile oil)

64. Thymol – D (Ketone) ,R85. Spermaceti – D (Waxes)

65. Carvone – E (Phenol) For items 86-90: Refer to the choices below:
A. Phenol D. Isothiocyanate
For items 66-70: Refer to the choices below: B. Cyanogenic E. Alcohol
A. Citronella D. Nutmeg C. Anthraquinone
at
B. Wormwood E. Lavender
C. Spearmint 86. Salicin – E (Alcohol)

66. Artemesia absinthum – B (Wormwood) 87. Arbutin – A (Phenol)

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67. Mentha spicata – C (Spearmint) 88. Laetrile – B (Cyanogenic)

68. Cymbopogan citratus – A (Citronella) 89. Sinalbin – D (Isothiocyanate)

69. Myristica fragrans – D (Nutmeg) 90. Barbaloin - C (Anthraquinone)

70. Lavandula augustifolia – E (Lavender)

K

For items 91-95: Refer to the choices below:

A. Saponin D. Lactone
For items 71-75: Refer to the choices below: B. Aldehyde E. Anthraquinone
A. Quinoline D. Isoquinoline C. Cardioactive
B. Steroidal E. Opium
C. Solanaceous 91. Panax ginseng – A (Saponin)

71. Quinidine – A (Quinoline) 92. Digitalis purpurea - C (Cardioactive)

72. Atropine – C (Solanaceous) 93. Dipteryx odorata – D (Lactone)

73. Ipecac – D (Isoquinoline) 94. Vanilla planifolia – B (Aldehyde)

74. Noscapine – E (Opium) 95. Rhamnus frangula – E (Anthraquinone)

75. White Hellebore – B (Steroidal) For items 96-100: Refer to the choices below:
A. Resin C. Oleogumresin
B. Oleoresin D. Balsam
96. Asafetida – C (Oleogumresin)

97. Benzoin – D (Balsam)

98. Ginger – B (Oleoresin)

99. Storax – D (Balsam)

100. Jalap – A (Resin)

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