MODULE 1 – MOCK BOARDS 10.

A potentially fatal toxic side effect of aplastic anemia is

associated with the use of:
1. This phenomena occurs when soluble salts are added to a A. Chloramphenicol D. Clindamycin
saturated solution of organic substances. B. Bleomycin E. Thioridazine
A. Sublimation D. Salting-in C. Acetaminophen
B. Clathrate formation E. None of the above
C. Salting-out 11. Deficiency of this essential trace element results in
hyperglycemia. Hence it is also known as the “Glucose
2. Ammoniated mercury, an agent used for skin infections, is Tolerance Factor.”
also knows as: A. Molybdenum D. Calcium – clotting # 4
A. Calomel D. Merthiodate B. Chromium E. None of the above
B. Cinnaber E. None of the above C. Selenium
C. White precipitate
12. The sodium salts of sulfonamides in aqueous solutions are:
3. The most abundant metal and the third most abundant A. Weakly acidic D. Strongly basic
element in the Earth’s crust. B. Strongly acidic E. Both B & C
A. Oxygen D. Neon C. Weakly basic
B. Silicon E. Hydrogen
C. Aluminum 13. Native hydrated magnesium sulfate. (Bonus, no answer)
A. Kaolin – native hydrated Al silicate

Ph
4. The first element discovered by means of spectrophotometry. B. Smectite – mont morillinile – hydrous aluminum phyllosilicate
A. Cesium D. Rubidium – deep red C. Talc
B. Technetium – artificial E. Strontium - land mine D. Bentonite – native colloidal hydrated Al silicate
C. Indium - indigo E. Pumice – from volcanic origin

5. This is a measure of disinfecting power of a chemical 14. What color does Ca impart to a non-luminous flame?
compound/solution relative to phenol. A. Carmine red D. Bluish green
A. Phenol value ,R B. Brick red E. Purple
B. Phenol number C. Light green
C. Phenol coefficient – S. typhi
D. Disinfectant coefficient 15. Chemical name of “baking soda.”
E. Disinfectant value A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium carbonate E. None of the above
6. Drug of choice for typhoid fever. C. Sodium hydroxide
at
A. Methicillin
B. Clindamycin – leaves C. difficile 16. Common name of sodium carbonate.
C. Chloramphenicol – aplastic anemia & Gray Baby syndrome A. Baker’s ammonia D. Sal soda
D. Erythromycin B. Caustic soda E. Lye
E. None of the above C. Baking soda
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7. Agent/s classified as polyene antifungal/s 17. The specific mechanism of action of thimerosal as a
(BONUS, I & III IS THE CORRECT ANSWER) preservative.
I. Nystatin II. Terbinafine A. Reaction with ribosomes
III. Amphotericin B IV. Griseofulvin B. Reaction with sulfhydryl groups
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A. I only D. II & III C. Perforation of cells

B. I & II E. II, III & IV D. Neutralization of toxins
C. I, II & III E. Increase of acidity

8. This DOC antifungal agent is often administered 18. A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid
intravenously for the treatment of systemic mycoses. at absolute zero temperature is zero.
A. Ketoconazole D. Amphotericin B A. Zero Law of Thermodynamics
B. Clioquinol E. All of the above B. First Law of Thermodynamics – law of conservation
C. Nystatin C. Second Law of Thermodynamics – total entropy always inc.
time
9. A drug that possesses a “triad of features”, having antigiardial, D. Third Law of Thermodynamics
antiamebic, and antitrichomonal activity. E. Fourth Law of Thermodynamics
A. Clioquinol
B. Iodoquinol 19. Zinc white is:
C. Piperazine A. Zinc sulfate – white vitriol
D. Mefloquine B. Zinc oxide
E. Metronidazole – metallic after taste; disulfiram-like C. Zinc sulfide – zinc blend/white lotion
D. Zinc chloride
E. Zinc silicate – hydrated natural calamine
20. Which of the ff statements does not describe red C. Lithium carbonate
phosphorus? D. Magnesium tetrahydrate
A. Non-poisonous E. None of the above
B. Non-flammable
C. Also called yellow phosphorous 30. (CH3)2CO, dimethyl ketone, propanone or 2-propanone is
D. Both A & B more commonly known as:
E. All of the above A. Ethane D. Benzaldehyde
B. Acetone E. Pregnanolone
21. Components of glass include: C. Ozone
A. Silica D. Only A & C
B. Silicon dioxide E. All of the above 31. Lugol’s solution is a preparation of:
C. Sodium carbonate A. Iodine in water with potassium iodide
B. Iodine in alcohol with potassium iodide
22. Element whose name is derived from the Greek word for C. Iodine in water with sodium iodide – 1 solution
stone or earth. D. Iodine in alcohol with sodium iodide – 1 tincture
A. Tellurium D. Bismuth E. None of the above
B. Lithium E. Titanium
C. Technetium 32. An iodophor is a complex of elemental iodine with a
surfactant. Which of the ff is an iodophor?
23. Least abundant noble gas and an ideal anesthetic agent. A. Povidone iodine – cationic * non-ionic; Povidone

Ph
A. Neon B. Polyvinylpyrrolidone – surfactant; iodine
B. Argon – most abundant noble gas C. PVP
C. Radon D. B &C only
D. Krypton E. All of the above
E. Xenon
33. This element produces a bluish green flame when viewed
24. Aluminum has various pharmacological actions, including: through cobalt glass.
I. Astringent
,R A. Potassium D. Strontium
II. Deodorant B. Sodium E. Calcium
III. Antiseptic C. Barium
IV. Anti-perspirant
A. I, II, III & IV D. I, II & IV 34. Halogen used as a common water disinfectant
B. I & IV only E. II & IV only A. Astatine – least abundant element *Halozone
C. I, II & III B. Iodine - drinking water
at
C. Bromine
25. “Baker’s Ammonia” is named as such on the basis of its use D. Chlorine
as a smelling salt and leavening agent. What is “Baker’s E. Fluorine – dental caries
Ammonia” chemically?
A. Ammonium Carbonate D. Ammonium Chloride 35. Phenol coefficient is defined as the ratio of disinfectant to
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B. Ammonium Hydroxide E. All of the above diluted phenol required to kill the bacterium.
C. Aromatic Spirit of Ammonia A. Shigella dysenteriae D. Enterobacteriaceae
B. Salmonella typhi E. All of the above
26. The disinfectant agent also known as carbolic acid. C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A. Argol – crude K Bitartrate
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B. Phenol 36. Chemical name of Green Vitriol:

C. Aluminon – mammonium salt of aurin tricarboxylic acid A. White Sulfate
D. Reservatrol B. Copper Sulfate
E. None of the above C. Ferrous Sulfate
D. Magnesium Sulfate – Epsom salt
27. Which of the ff is not a 2nd generation cephalosporin? E. Sodium Sulfate – Glauber’s salt
A. Cefuroxime D. Cefoxitin
B. Cefotaxime E. Cefmetazole 37. The Henderson-Hasselbach equation can be use to
C. Loracarbef calculate the:
A. pH of the solution of a base from the pKa of its conjugate acid
28. Benzoyl peroxide is commonly used as: B. pKa of an acid from the pH of a solution of an acid
A. Anti-acne D. Moisturizer C. pH of the solution of an acid from the pKa of the acid
B. Rubifacient E. Surfactant D. molar ratio of an acid and its conjugate base from pKa of acid
C. Whitening and pH of solution of acid
E. molar ratio of an acid from the pKa of its conjugate base
29. Mania is a serious mental problem that is often a symptom
of various mental health conditions including bipolar disorder. 38. Group of elements who have atoms in which the two
Which of the ff compounds is used to treat this? outermost electron shells are incomplete.
A. Lithium edetate A. Halogens
B. Sodium carbonate B. Noble gases
C. Lanthanides 46. Pauli’s exclusion principle states that:
D. Transition metals A. No two electrons can have the same set of quantum number.
E. Alkaline earth metals B. Each atomic orbital can only accommodate two eelctrons
C. It is impossible to determine simultaneously the motion &
39. The chemical formula of Cinnabar: position of an electron
A. HgCl2 D. HgO D. Only A & B
B. Hg2Cl2 E. None of the above E. A, B, & C
C. HgS
47. The negative log of the concentration of hydronium ions in a
40. According to Pearson’s HSAB principle, the ff are true solution:
regarding hard & soft acids, except: A. pH D. Kb
A. Hard acids are relatively big in size. B. pOH E. Both A & B
B. Hard acids have high positive charge C. Ka
C. Soft acids are relatively large in size
D. Soft acids have little to no positive charge 48. The major physiological cations, both intracellular and
extracellular, include the ff except:
A. Na B. P C. K D. Ca E. Mg

49. An acid is added to water until the resulting solution contains

1x10¯4 mol/L of H+ ions. Calculate the concentration of OH-

Ph
ions.

41. Principle which states that in the ground state of an atom,

,R
electrons fill orbitals of the lowest available energy levels before
occupying higher level.
A. Planck’s Exclusion Principle 50. The general formula of CnH2n-2 belongs to:
B. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle A. Alkanes D. Cycloalkanes
C. Aufbau Principle B. Alkenes E. None of the above
D. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle C. Alkynes
E. Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity
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51, Vitamin used as an alternative treatment for cyanide
42. This states that when two or more orbitals of equal energy poisoning.
are available, electrons will distribute themselves singly to each A. Tocopherol D. Calciferol
orbital before doing so in pairs. B. Hydroxocobalamin – Cyanide E. Ascorbic acid
A. Planck’s Exclusion Principle C. Niacin
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B. Planck’s Exclusion Principle

C. Aufbau Principle 52. The antibiotic most commonly associated with
D. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle E. pseudomembranous colitis, which is an inflammation of the
Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity colon due to the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile.
A. Erythromycin D. Streptogramin
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43. Other accepted names of methanol are: B. Cephalosporins E. Carbapenem

A. Grain alcohol - ethanol C. Clindamycin
B. Wood alcohol
C. Wine spirit - ethanol Alcohol, USP 53. What is the drug of choice for the condition mentioned in the
D. Spiritus vini rectificatus - ethanol previous item?
E. All of the above A. Penicillin D. Chloroquine
B. Metronidazole / Vancomycin E. Saline
44. Which antineoplastic agent can be derived from Pacific yew C. Emetine
tree (Taxus brevifolia)?
A. Etoposide – podophyllum peltatum 54. The cation of choice to optimize the pharmaceutical utility of
B. Paclitaxel organic medicaments:
C. Vincristine A. Sodium D. Potassium
D. Vinblastine Periwinkle B. Lithium E. Magnesium
E. Both C & D C. Calcium

45. The densest element known to man. 55. The various uses of boric acid, also known as “sal sativum.”
A. Platinum D. Osmium Include the ff except for:
B. Iridium E. Mercury A. Antiperspirant D. Buffer
C. Thallium B. Antiseptic E. None of the above
C. Eyewash B. Radium
C. Palladium
56. Poisoning with this substance is characterized by a “boiled D. Polonium – 2nd radioactive discovered by Marie Curie
lobster” appearance. E. Astatine
A. Sodium borate D. Both A & B
B. Boric acid E. Both A & C 66. It refers to the amount of energy required to remove an
C. Sodium oxalate electron from a neutral atom by overcoming the attractive forces
57. Put the ff alcohols in order of the R groups attached to the of the nucleus and thus making the atom positively-charged.
carbon bearing the-OH group, starting with primary, secondary, A. Electron affinity – gain D. Both A & B
then tertiary. B. Electronegativity – attract E. None of the above
I. Isopropyl alcohol C. Ionization potential
II. Tert-butyl alcohol
III. Propyl alcohol 67. Which of the ff elements exhibits amphoteric properties?
A. III-I-II D. I-II-III A. Aluminum Cu
B. II-I-III E. I-III-II B. Copper Zn
C. II-III-I C. Zinc Sn Amphoteric elements
D. Tin Al
58. Vogel’s reaction is a test for cobaltous ions using: E. All of the above Be
A. Ferric ferrocyanate D. Both A & B Pb
B. Ferrous ferricyanate E. All of the above

Ph
C. Ammonium thiocyanate 68. Within a period in the table of elements, as the atomic
number increases, the metallic properties:
59. Which of the ff tin metal alloys is incorrectly paired with its A. Increase D. Insufficient information
composition? B. Remain constant E. I don’t know
A. Solder Metal = 50% Sn + 50& Pb C. Decrease
B. Pewter Metal = 80% Tin + 20% Lead
C. Gun Metal = 10% Tin + 90% Copper 69. Which of the ff statements accurately describe Brass?
D. Rose Metal = 25% Tin + 25% Lead + 50% Bismuth
,R A. Cu + Zn D. Both A & B
E. None of the above B. Metal of Magynoeci E. Both B & C
C. Cu + Sn
60. An alkaloid whose use in cold medications was discontinued
due to the risk of hemorrhagic stroke. 70. A broad-spectrum antihelmintic that is affective against a
A. Phenylephrine – 3 days variety of nematode infestations, and acts by irreversibly
B. Ephedrine – shortness of breath blocking glucose uptake in helminths.
at
C. Phenylpropanolamine - Decolgen A. Ivermectin – GABA agonist; DOC: River blindness,
D. Diphenhydramine - Antihistamine Onchocerca volvulus
E. Ambroxol – Mucolytic B. Thiabendazole – inhibits fumarate reductase
C. Mebendazole
61. When a Group I anion is precipitated using silver nitrate and D. Pyrantel pamoate – nicotinic agonist
E. Diethylcarbamazine citrate – DOC: Filariasis
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nitric acid, the yellow precipitate is most likely the compound.

A. Ag3PO4 D. All of the above
B. AgI E. None of the above 71. Conjugate base of a strong acid is a:
C. BaCrO4 A. Strong base D. Weak acid
B. Strong acid E. Salt
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62. A member of the second triad of Group VIII: C. Weak base

A. Platinum D. Iridium
B. Indium E. Palladium 72. Which of the ff antihistamines is classified as a
C. Copper phenothiazine derivative?
A. Promethazine D. Diphenyhydramine
63. Which of the ff are type formulae do not represent carboxylic B. Pheniramine E. Doxylamine
acid derivatives? C. Tripelennamine
A. RCOOR D. ROCOCOR
B. RCHO E. RCONH2 73. Stereoisomers in which two forms of the compound differ at
C. RCOCl only a single asymmetrical carbon atom.
A. Enantiomers – D glucose & L glucose
64. Precipitated sulfur, a scabicidal agent, is also known as: B. Optical isomers
A. Flowers of sulfur C. Anomers
B. Lac sulfur D. Epimers – ex: glucose & galactose – at least 1/more mirror
C. Milk sulfur image
D. B and C E. Isomers
E. Sublimed sulfur – Ca oxide = Vleminck’s
74. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) is derived from:
65. It is the first radioactive element used in medicine: A. Psychedelic mushrooms
A. Uranium B. Amphetamine
C. Saxitoxin
D. Ergot 85. Strength of potassium permanganate as antimicrobial:
E. Saccharomyces cervisiae – Brewer’s yeast A. 0.01% B. 0.02% C. 0.05% D. 0.1% E. 0.5%

75. An agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms when 86. In the periodic table, when going across a period from right
used on inanimate surfaces. to left and going from the top to the bottom of a group, which of
A. Antobiotic D. Germicide the properties of elements increases?
B. Sanitizer E. Antiseptic A. Electron affinity D. Atomic size
C. Disinfectant B. Electronegativity E. All of the above
C. Ionization energy
76. Ethanol that contains added substances which render it unfit
for use in intoxicating beverages. 87. To prepare the scabicidal Vleminckx’s solution sublimed
A. Denaturated alcohol – Methanol + Benzene sulfur is boiled with .
B. Dehydrated alcohol A. Calcium oxide D. Sodium carbonate
C. Isopropyl alcohol B. Calcium carbonate E. Sulfurated potash
D. Wood alcohol C. Cuprous oxide
E. All of the above
88. Among the halous acids, which is the most acidic?
77. What is muriatic acid? A. HF B. HCl C. HBr D. HI E. H2SO4
A. HCl + HNO3 D. H2SO4

Ph
B. HCl E. Only B & D 89. Group of elements in which the atoms and orbitals are
C. H2PO4 partially filled:
A. Transition elements – d & f; IB – 5B
78. What is the type formula for esters? B. Alkali metals
A. RCHO D. RCOOH C. Metalloids
B. RCOOR E. RCOR D. Representative elements
C. ROR E. Noble gases

79. This quantum number represents the orientation of the

atomic orbital in space.
A. Principal quantum number - size
,R 90. It is the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract electrons
in itself.
A. Electron affinity D. Both A & B
B. Azimuthal quantum number - shape B. Electronegativity E. None of the above
C. Angular momentum quantum number C. Ionization potential
D. Magnetic quantum number
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E. Spin quantum number 91. Owing to its high-melting point & low volatility, this element
is suited for filaments in electric light bulbs.
80. An ion that has expectorant action (and is the best A. Tungsten – Wolfram D. Germanium
expectorant second to water vapor). B. Tin E. Gallium
A. Chloride D. Phosphate C. Molybdenum
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B. Iodide E. Sulfate
C. Fluoride 92. Mendeleev called this element “eka-silicon.”
A. Scandium – eka Boron D. Technetium – eka Mn
81. What is the most stable conformation of cyclohexane? B. Germanium E. Lead
A. Planar D. Staggered C. Gallium – eka Al
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B. Boat E. Butterfly
C. Chair 93. Litharge is:
A. Lead sulfide D. Lead subacetate
82. This group of metals is capable of autocomplexation and B. Lead oxide E. None of the above
chelation. C. Lead acetate
A. Alkali metals D. Volatile metals
B. Alkaline earth metals E. Coinage metals 94. Soft coal is:
C. Noble metals A. Anthracite D. Charcoal
B. Coke E. Lampblack
83. What is the chemical solution used to differentiate Group I C. Bituminous
cations?
A. Ammonium sulphide D. Hydrochloric acid 95. Preston salt is the common name for the chemical
B. Ammonium chloride E. All of the above substance:
C. Hydrogen sulphide A. Sodium sulfate - Glauber
B. Ammonium carbonate
84. The mechanism of action of KMnO4 as an antibacterial C. Potassium chlorate - Bertholate
agent: D. Potassium sodium tartrate - Rochelle
A. Halogenation D. Hydrolysis E. Ferrous ammonium sulfate – Mohr’s
B. Oxidation E. Alkylation * Sodium metaphosphate – Graham salt
C. Surfactant action
96. This metal is used in the treatment of gout and rheumatoid
arthritis.
A. Sr B. Pt C. Ag D. Au E. Cu

97. Fe4[Fe(CN6]3 is:

A. Prussian blue D. Only A & C
B. Turnbull’s blue E. Only B & C
C. Ferric ferrocyanate

98. Drop chalk is a form of calcium carbonate with most of its

impurities removed via a process called:
A. Sedimentation D. Clarifying
B. Precipitation E. Lime process
C. Elutriation

99. Employed as urinary acidifier:

A. Sodium Bicarbonate
B. Sodium Chloride
C. Ammonium chloride – DOC of systemic alkalosis
D. Calcium chloride

Ph
E. Potassium chloride

100. Denige’s reagent is used in distinguishing citrates and

tartrates. Citrates give a color while tartrates give .
A. Carmine red, sapphire blue
B. Emerald green, sapphire blue
C. Emerald green, carmine red
D. Carmine red, emerald green
E. Sapphire blue, carmine red
,R
at
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 MODULE 2 – MOCK BOARDS C. Only statement 1 is true.
1. Urea is the end product of which of the following? D. Only statement 1 is false.
E. NOTA
Cytosol & mitochondria
10. In pyruvate oxidation, pyruvate is acted upon by the enzyme
A. Nitrogen metabolism D. Gluconeogenesis in order to form the end product .
B. Purine metabolism E. Uric acid metabolism A. Malate dehydrogenase, trimalic acid
C. TCA cycle B. Lactate decarboxylase, lactate
C. Aminotransferase, alpha-ketoglutarate
2. These are products of natural origin, many without therapeutic D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, Acetyl CoA
effect, used by people in the self-treatment of diseases. E. NOTA
A. Health foods D. Crude drugs
B. Extracts E. NOTA 11. Branched chain amino aciduria is more commonly called
C. Extractives A. Maple Syrup Urine Disease D. Black Urine Disease
B. Alkaptonuria E. NOTA
3. In this level of organization of proteins, hydrogen bonding of C. Ketonuria
the peptide backbone causes the amino acids to fold into a
repeating pattern. 12. The amino acid lysine is described as:
A. Primary Structure – amino acids w/ peptide bond A. Essential, ketogenic D. Non-essential, glucogenic
B. Secondary structure – α helix, β pleated sheets/fold B. Non-essential, ketogenic E. Insufficient information

Ph
C. Tertiary structure – interrelationship / 1 polypeptide C. Essential, glucogenic
D. Quaternary structure - polypeptides
E. Quinary structure 13. In competitive enzyme inhibition:
A. Vmax decreases while Km increases.
4. Which of the ff groups of elements are present in all amino B. Vmax stays constant while Km increases.
acids? C. Vmax increases while Km decreases.
A. C, H, O, P D. C, H, O, N D. Vmax decreases while Km stays constant.
B. C, H, O, S E. C, H, N, S E. Vmax and Km stay constant.
C. C, H, O,
,R
5. Which of the ff amino acids is the precursor for the synthesis
14. Figure 1 displays what type of enzyme inhibition?

of catecholamines?
A. Tyrosine Tyrosinase
B. Tryptophan
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C. Proline Tyrosine Melanin
D. Lysine
E. Glutamine

6. The sugar bases of DNA and RNA are different because:

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A. R group attached to C2 in DNA is bigger than that in RNA.

B. DNA has an OH attached to C2 while RNA has H. A. Competitive inhibition D. NOTA
C. RNA has an OH attached to C2 while DNA has H. B. Non-competitive inhibition E. I’m not exactly sure
D. RNA has an OH attached to C5 while DNA has H. C. Uncompetitive inhibition
E. NOTA
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15. Which of the ff figures is the Lineweaver-Burke plot of the

7. This process involves the breakdown of a molecule of glucose enzyme inhibition shown in number 14?
into 2 molecules of pyruvate.
A. Embden-Meyerhof Pathway
B. Glycogenesis – glucose glycogen
C. Glycolysis
D. Both A & C
E. NOTA

8. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. Match the ff steps in the translation process to the ribosomal site
Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm. at which they occur.
A. Both statements are true. 16. The tRNA attaches
B. Both statements are false. 17. The amino acid on the tRNA bonds w/ another amino acid.
C. Only 1 statement is true. 18. The tRNA is released.
D. Only statement 1 is false. A. A site B. P site C. E site
E. NOTA

9. Simple proteins contain only amino acid chains.

Translation
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
19. The reaction between a monosaccharide and an oxidizing 27. Transcription is DNA directed DNA synthesis, while
agent, w/ protection of the monosaccharide’s aldehyde group, replication is DNA directed RNA synthesis. The main enzyme in
will yield. transcription is RNA polymerase, while the main enzyme in
A. Aldonic acid D. Alduronic acid replication is DNA polymerase.
B. Aldaric acid E. NOTA A. Both statements are true.
C. Uronic acid B. Both statements are false.
C. Only statement 1 is true.
20. D. Only statement 1 is false.
E. NOTA
A. Pyran
B. Furan 28. This phospholipid is a major component of the mammalian
C. Thiazole cell membrane.
D. Pyridine A. Phosphatidylinositol D. Phosphatidylethanolamine
E. Phenol B. Lecithin E. Cephaline
C. Chitin

29. Which of the ff enzymes catalyze an irreversible step in

glycolysis?
A. Phosphoglucoisomerase C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
21. B. Hexokinase D. Phosphoglycerate mutase

Ph
30. Deficiency of this enzyme, due to genetic abnormality,
causes early destruction/breakdown of erythrocytes
Name the fatty acid. (hemolysis).
A. Palmitoleic acid A. G3PD D. PFK
B. Linoleic acid – 18: 29 C, 12 C B. G6PD E. MDH
C. Arachidonic acid – 20:45, 8, 11, 14 C. NADP
Substract
D. Oleic acid – 18: 19 C ,R
E. Linolenic acid – 18: 39, 12, 15 31. Linoleic acid

22. How many isoprene units do sesquiterpenes contain?

A. 15 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3 E. 3.5

23. What type of bond is present between the N atom of

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nitrogenous base and the sugar in nucleosides?
A. N-glycosidic bond For items 32-36, determine whether the statements are true or
B. Phosphoester bond false. The choices are as follow:
C. Phosphoglycosidic bond C – Statements II and III are true.
D. Phosphoanhydride bond H – Statements II, III and IV are true.
E. Peptide bond E – Statements I, II and IV are true.
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M – Statements I, III and IV are true.

24. In elongation, DNA polymerase can only add bases in the I – Statements I, II, III and IV are true.
end to end direction. S – Only statement IV is true.
A. 3’, 5’ B. 3’, 3’ C. 5’, 5’ D. 5’, 3’ E. NOTA T – All statements are false.
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25. Determine the correct order of steps in the DNA replication 32. I. Stereoisomers are molecules having the same molecular
process. formula but different connectivity.
I. Unwinding of the DNA strands by helicase. II. Geometrical isomerism occurs when there is restricted
II. Termination of the process. rotation around C=C double bond.
III. Introduction of the primer by primase. III. If there are two different groups on each carbon, and the
IV. Recognition of origin of replication. highest priority groups for each carbon is on opposite sides, the
V. Elongation of the new strand with DNA polymerase. molecule is denoted ‘trans’ or ‘E’ isomer.
A. I-III-IV-V-II D. IV-I-III-V-II IV. If there are two different groups on each carbon, and the
B. III-I-IV-V-II E. V-IV-III-I-II highest priority groups for each carbon is on the same side, the
C. IV-II-I-V-III molecule is denoted ‘trans’ or ‘Z’ isomer.
A. S B. C C. H D. I E. M
26. The post-transcriptional processes include capping, splicing,
and polyadenylation. Capping protects the 3’ end while 33. I. In the Fischer projection, if the OH on the penultimate
polyadenylation protects the 5’ end. carbon is on the right, it is considered a D-sugar.
A. Both statements are true. II. In the Fischer projection of glucose, if the OH on C5 is on
B. Both statements are false. the left, it is considered D-glucose.
C. Only statement 1 is true. III. In the Haworth projection of glucose, if the OH on C5 is
D. Only statement 1 is false. down, it is considered an alpha-anomer (alpha-D-
E. NOTA glucopyranose).
IV. In converting the Fischer projection of D-glucose to the For items 38-42, match the ff with their description and/or
Haworth projection, the constituents on C2-C4 will be projected function in the process of pyruvate oxidation.
downward in the Haworth projection. A. Thiamine pyrophosphate
A. S B. H C. I D. E E. T B. Lipoamide
C. NAD
D. FAD
E. AcetylCoA

38. It functions as the acyl carrier and electron carrier.

A. A B. C C. B D. E E. D

39. It receives electrons from the reduced lipoamide.

A. A B. B C. C D. E E. D

40. It receives electrons from FADH2.

A. A B. B C. D D. C E. E

41. It functions to form an activated aldehyde which donates

electrons to reduce the disulfide bond of lipoamide.
A. A B. C C. B D. D E. E

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42. It is formed when the acetyl group is bonded to CoASH.
34. I. In the Fischer projection, vertical bonds represent atoms A. A B. B C. D D. C E. E
pointed toward the viewer while horizontal lines represent atoms
pointed away from the viewer. For items 43-46, refer to the TCA cycle (Figure 2). The choices
II. In the Haworth projection, the cyclic ring depiction of the are as follows:
molecule conveys the conformation more accurately than the K – Isocitrate dehydrogenase
chair depiction.
,R R – Oxaloacetate
III. Diastereomers are stereoisomers that have one E – Alpha-ketoglutarate
stereocenter and are not mirror images and non- B – Succinate dehydrogenase
superimposable. S – Succinyl-CoA synthetase
IV. Enantiomers are mirror images and non-superimposable. T – Isocitrate
A. S B. M C. I D. H E. E C – Fumarate
A – Succinate thiokinase
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35. Regarding the malate-aspartate shuttle,
I. In the mitochondria, malate dehydrogenase catalyses the
reaction of oxaloacetate & NADH to produce malate & NAD+.
II. In the mitochondria, malate dehydrogenase catalyses the
reaction of malate & NAD+ to produce oxaloacetate & NADH.
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III. NADH is oxidized by malate dehydrogenase in the cytosol.

IV. In the mitochondria, malate is converted to oxaloacetate
which is converted to aspartate.
A. S B. H C. E D. I E. T
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36. Regarding the glycerol phosphate shuttle, (NOTA)

I. This shuttle yields less ATP than the malate-aspartate shuttle.
II. Glycerol-3-phosphate gets converted back to 43. This molecule is combined with AcetylCoA to form citrate.
dihydroxyacetone phosphate by an inner membrane-bound A. R B. B C. A D. C E. E
mitochondrial glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
III. FAD is reduced in the cytosol. 44. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of succinyl-CoA to
IV. FADH2 is oxidized in the intermembrane space. succinate.
A. T B. H C. S D. E E. M A. S B. B C. A D. C E. E

37. I. Pyruvate oxidation occurs in the cytosol. 45. This is the product of succinate dehydrogenase acting on
II. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex links glycogenesis succinate.
to the Kreb’s cycle by converting pyruvate to AcetylCoA. A. E B. T C. K D. C E. R
III. In the last step of pyruvate oxidation, lipoamide transfers
electrons to NAD, forming NADH and oxidized lipoamide. 46. CO2 is removed from and H is added to this molecule to form
IV. The first step in pyruvate oxidation is decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate.
pyruvate with the help of TPP to form CO2 and an activated A. R B. T C. K D. C E. E
aldehyde species.
A. S B. T C. I D. E E. M 47. Iodine value is directly proportional to:
A. Number of double bonds and degree of saturation.
 B. Number of single bonds and degree of saturation.
C. Number of double bonds and degree of unsaturation.
D. Number of single bonds and degree of unsaturation.
E. NOTA

Match the medicinal plant to its corresponding medicinal

property.
48. Niyog-niyogan – D (Anthelmintic)
49. Ulasimang bato – C (Anti-gout)
50. Akapulko – A (Antifungal)
51. Tsaang-gubat – B (Anti-diarrheal)
10 Medicinal Plants in the Philippines endorsed by DOH:
1. Bawang (Allium sativum) (Garlic)
- Uses: Antibacterial, lowers Cholesterol, anti-HTN
2. Akapulko (Cassia alata) (Ringworm Bush/shrub)
- Uses: Antifungal
3. Bayabas (Psidium guajava) (Guava)
- Uses: Mouthwash (gingivitis); wound cleansing, Antiseptic,
Anti-inflammatory

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10 Medicinal Plants in the Philippines endorsed by DOH:
4. Yerba Buena (Clinopodium douglasii)
- Uses: Analgesic for body aches/pain
5. Ulasimang Bato/Pansit-Pansitan (Peperomia pellucida)
- Uses: Decrease Uric Acid (Arthritis, Gout)
6. Lagundi (Vitex negundo)
- AscDodf d(5-leaved chaste tree) – Use: Anti-tussive ,R
7. Ampalaya (Momordica charantia) (bitter melon/gourd)
- Uses: Treatment of diabetes mellitus
8. Niyog-niyogan (Quisqualis indica L.) (Chinese honey suckle)
- Uses: Antihelminthic (Ascaris) 55. Melatonin is synthesized from the amino acid.
9. Tsaang Gubat (Ehretia microphylla Lam.) (Wild tea) A. Tyrosine D. Threonine
- Uses: Stomachache, Antidiarrheal B. Tryptophan E. Cysteine
10. Sambong (Blumea balsamifera) (Ngai/Blumea camphor)
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C. Lysine
- Uses: Diuretic, Treat kidney stones
56. The best qualitative test for sterols
52. Recommended of Ipecac for 1-12 year-old child.
A. Acetic anhydride test – Liebermann Burchard
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30 E. 5
B. Acrolein test
• 6-12 Months = 5-10 mL C. Ninhydrin test
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• > 12 years old = 30 mL D. Osmic acid test

E. Amminium molybdate test
53. The most common type of glycogen storage disease. 57. This vitamin is also known as vitamin H.
A. GSD III D. Pompe’s disease A. Vitamin B3 – Niacin
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B. GSD I E. NOTA B. Vitamin G - Steroids

C. GSD V C. Vitamin P – Permeability (Rutin + Hesperidin)
D. Vitamin F – Essential Fatty Acids
54. The glycogen storage disease wherein the defective enzyme E. Vitamin B7 – Biotin
is glucose-6-phosphatase.
A. GSD III D. Pompe’s disease 58. What is the R group pf tryptophan?
B. GSD I E. NOTA A. Guanidine – Arginine D. Indole
C. GSD V B. Thiol – Cysteine E. Imidazole - Histidine
C. Quinolone
 63. Sanguinarine
A. S B. N C. L D. T E. A

64. Myrrh
A. S B. T C. P D. A E. N

65. Eriodictyon
A. P B. A C. L D. S E. T

66. The ff are components of the benzoin tincture, except:

A. Benzoin D. Mastic – dental varnish
B. Aloe E. NOTA
C. Storax

67. This is a toxin isolated from American mandrake from which

some chemotherapeutic agents are derived.
A. Botulinum toxin
B. Saxitoxin - shellfish
C. Vincristine – Periwinkle (Catharantus roseus)
D. Latrotoxin – Black widow spider

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E. Podophyllotoxin – Mayapple/American mandrake
(Podophyllum peltatum)
59. Atropine has been used to decrease gastrointestinal motility. MOA: Topoisomerase II inhibitor
Who discovered this molecule? AC: Teniposide, Etoposide
A. Friedrich Serturner D. Pierre Robiquet - Codeine
B. Rudolf Brandes E. Joseph Caventou - Quinine 68. The ff are classified as resins, except:
C. Robert Hooke – cell theory
A. Jalap - purgative
,R B. White pine
Morphine Friedrich Serturner (MorSe) C. Kava-kava – Muscle relaxant/tranquilizer
Codeine Pierre Robiquet D. Mastic – Dental varnish
E. NOTA
Quinine Caventou & Pelletier
Match the volatile oils to their classification.
Hyoscyamine & Noscapine Rudolf Brandes
I. Hydrocarbon
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Atropine Rudolf Brandes & Philipp II. Alcohol
Geiger III. Aldehyde
Salicin & Nicotine Johannes Buchner IV. Ketone
V. Phenol
Cocaine Carl Koller
VI. Phenolic ether
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LSD Albert Hoffman VII. Oxide

VIII. Ester
69. Eugenol
60. This is a naturally-occurring isoquinoline alkaloid isolated A. II B. IV C. I D. V E. VII
from the bark and stem of Strychnos castelnaei or
Chondodenron tomentosum with a muscle relaxant property.
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70. Methyl salicylate

A. Mandragorin – Emetic (roots of Mandragora) A. I B. VII C. II D. VI E. VIII
B. Tubocurarine
C. Emetine - Ipecac 71. Carvone
D. Cinchonine – Antimalarial (Cinchona) A. I B. II C. V D. III E. IV
E. Eserine – Physostigmine (Tx for Glaucoma)
72. Cineole
Match the substances to their classification. A. VI B. III C. VIII D. V E. VII
P – Tannin
L – Glycoside 73. Menthol
A – Alkaloid A. II B. III C. VII D. V E. VI
N – Oleoresin
T – Oleo-gum-resin 74. Pinene
S – Resin A. I B. VII C. VI D. III E. IV

61. Catechin 75. The resin that is used to mask the bitter taste of Quinine by
A. P B. L C. S D. A E. T paralyzing the taste buds.
A. Eriodyction D. Mastic
62. Amygdalin B. White pine E. Rosin
A. S B. A C. N D. L E. T C. Resene
For items 76-80, determine whether the statements are true or
false. The choices are as follows:
B – Statements I and III are true.
O – Statements I and IV are true.
T – Statements I, II and IV are true.
A – Statements I, III and IV are true.
N – Statements I, II, III and IV are true.
Y – Only statement IV is true.

76. I. Photosynthesis involves 2 phases: the light reaction and

the dark reaction.
II. The light energy absorbed by chlorophyll is used to join
water molecules into its component ions in a process called
photolysis.
III. The fluid filled space where the dark reaction takes place
is called the stroma.
IV. The stroma are disk-like structures that hold photosystems
I & II in their membranes.
A. B B. O C. N D. T E. A
82. The twigs of Quercus infectoria hold gallic and egallic acid.

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77. I. Every three turns of the Calvin cycle yields six molecules This is obtained when Cynips tinctoria, a hymenopterous insect,
of G3P, five of which are used to regenerate RuBP. bores a hole in the twig to deposit its ova.
II. It takes 3 molecules of G3P to make 1 molecule of glucose. A. Both statements are true. D. Only statement 1 is false.
III. The dark reaction does not require light energy, thus it B. Both statements are false. E. NOTA
only occurs at night. C. Only statement 1 is true.
IV. The dark reaction occurs in the stroma.
A. B B. O C. N D. T E. A 83. Laetrile, also called amygdalin or vitamin B17, is a
,R cyanogenic glycoside that was falsely claimed to be a cure for
78. I. The defective enzyme in GSD II (Pompe’s disease) is .
lysosomal alpha-glucosidase. A. Parkinson’s disease – Levodopa w/ Carbidopa
II. McArdle’s disease affects liver phosphorylase while Hers’ B. Alzheimer’s disease – Rivastagmin, Galantamin
affects muscle phosphorylase. C. Arthritis – DMARDs (Methotrexate)
III. GSD III is an abnormality of the branching enzyme. D. Cancer
IV. Von Gierke’s disease causes hypoglycemia and massive E. Impotency – Sildenafil (Viagra)
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enlargement of the liver.
A. B B. O C. A D. T E. Y Match the pathways to their corresponding description
P – Pentose Phosphate Pathway
79. I. Tya-Sach’s and Sandhoff’s diseases both affect C – Shikimic Acid Pathway
Hexosaminidase A. O – Embden Meyerhof Pathway
G – Nitrogen Metabolism
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II. Fabry’s disease affects alpha-galactosidase while

Krabbe’s affects beta-galactosidase.
III. The enzyme defective in Farber’s disease is ceramidase. 84. This pathway is exclusive to plants and involves the
IV. In metachromatic leukodystrophy, the enzyme synthesis of aromatic amino acids to produce phneylpropanoids.
arylsulfatase A is defective. A. P B. C C. O D. G
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A. O B. T C. N D. A E. Y
85. This consists of an oxidative phase and a non-oxidative
80. I. The Borntragers test is a test for the glycone portion in phase.
anthraquinone glycosides. A. P B. G C. O D. G
II. Of the two types of cardiac glycosides, bufadienolides are
less common than cardenolides. 86. This involves the breakdown of glucose to produce pyruvate.
III. Isothiocyanate glycosides are typically found in plants of A. P B. C C. O D. G
Brassicaceae.
IV. Vanilla plantifolia contains an aldehyde glycoside called 87. This is important for breaking down excess amino acids and
vanillin. converting them to ammonia and then urea to be excreted.
A. B B. O C. N D. T E. A A. P B. C C. O D. G

81. Name the molecular structure. 88. The sesquiterpenoid lactone derivatives well-known for their
antimalarial activity are derived from the plant .
A. Artemisia annua D. Datura stramonium
B. Cinchona rubra E. Withania somnifera
C. Taxus brevifolia

A. 1,3 – Dimethylxanthine C. 3,7 - Dimethylxanthine

B. 1,3,7 – Trimethylxanthine D. 3,7 – Trimethylxanthine
 RATIONALE NOS 97-98
89. Fatty acid synthesis occurs in the .
Rutaceae (citrus) & Pinaceae Shizogenous, lysogenous
Fatty acid breakdown occurs in the . ducts
A. Cytoplasm, cytoplasm Apiaceae/Umbelliferae Oil tubes or vittae
B. Cytoplasm, mitochondria Piperaceae (pepper) Modified parenchymal cells
C. Golgi apparatus, cytoplasm Lamiaceae/Labiatae (mint) Glandular hairs or trichomes
D. Cytoplasm, golgi apparatus
E. Golgi apparatus, mitochondria
99. This is liquid animal fat used to obliterate varicose veins.
90. How many molecules of ATP are produced per molecule of A. Undecylenic acid – pyrolysis of Castor oil
AcetylCoA that undergoes the Kreb’s cycle? B. Theobroma oil
A. 7 B. 5 C. 10 D. 8 E. 6 C. Lanolin
• D. Cod live roil – Rachitic rat, Rich in Vit. A & D
91. The enzyme HGPRT is important in recycling ribose-5-
phosphate and xanthine to make xanthine/inosine 100. This value is defined as the milligrams of KOH required to
monophosphate required for purine synthesis. What does neutralize the fatty acids in 1 gram of a sample.
HGPRT stands for? A. Iodine value – degree of saponification
A. Hypoinositol guanosine phosphoribosyl transferase B. Saponification value – neutralize & saponify
B. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase C. Koettsdorfer value
C. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transaminase D. Acid value
D. Hypoinositol guanine phosphoribosyl transaminase

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E. NOTA ADDITIONAL NOTES:

92. Jojoba oil is a liquid wax that comes from Simmondsia

chinensis. – Family: Buxaceae
Beeswax is myricyl palmitate obtained from the honeycomb of
bees. – Carnauba wax Myricyl cerotate
A. Both statements are true. D. Only statement 1 is false.
B. Both statements are false.
C. Only statement 1 is true.
E. NOTA

93. Ergot alkaloids from the rye ergot, Secate cereale.

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This ergot is a parasitic fungus that grows on the rye plant,
Claviceps purpurea.
A. Both statements are true. D. Only statement 1 is false.
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B. Both statements are false. E. NOTA
C. Only statement 1 is true.

94. In the case of myocardial infarction, which enzyme will most

A. ALT D. C K M B
Rye Ergot: C. purpurea
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B. SGPT E. ALP
C. SGOT Rye plant: Secale cereale

95. This occurs when supply of nutrients is adequate, but

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deficiencies arise due to malabsorption, increased need, and/or

impaired use and/or storage.
A. Kwashiorkor – adequate calories, inadequate proteins
B. Marasmus – inadequate calories & proteins
C. Primary malnutrition – no nutrients in diet
D. Secondary malnutrition

96. The cofactor of cytochrome oxidase.

A. K – Kinase enzymes
B. Zn – Carbonic anhydrase enzyme
C. Cu
D. Mg – Hexokinase & Indase enzyme
E. Co – Cobalamin

Match the plant family to to its characteristic.

A. Oil tubes or vittae C. Modified Parenchymal cells
B. Glandular hairs D. Schizogenous passages

97. Apieaceae – A (Oil tubes or vittae)

98. Piperaceae – C (Modified Parenchymal cells)

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 MODULE 3 – MOCK BOARDS 6. What can happen if Aldactone is used simultaneously with an
angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor?
1. Thirty-two-year-old forklift operator Patient PLU has a past A. Renal disease C. Hyperkalemia
history of cardiac arrhythmia. He is suffering from seasonal B. Dry cough D. Angioedema
rhinitis. Which of the ff is the best to give to the patient? Aldactone – Spirinolactone
A. Famotidine C. Diphenhydramine
B. Meclizine D. Fexofenadine ACEi inhibit aldosterone
Antihistamines – IgE production
Retains K+
2 Classes:
• 1st gen: sedating
▪ Ethanolamines – diphenhydramine 7. When the brand name precedes the generic name.
• 2nd gen: non-sedating; drivers, pilot, operators of heavy A. Erroneous C. Impossible
machineries B. Violative D. Correct
▪ Cetirizine – not truly non-sedating
8. A nurse mistakenly administered an overdose of paracetamol
2. Which of the ff is used for acute asthma attacks? IV to Patient DFW. Clinical pharmacist NMK detected the error
A. Montelukast C. Theophylline and the patient was immediately given acetylcysteine to prevent
B. Beclomethasone D. Terbutaline permanent liver damage. What medication error category

Ph
happened?
Asthma – bronchospasm A. Category A C. Category G
Increase airway resistance B. Category F D. Category H
Inflammation of the airway
- Type A: SALAD
Pus cover w/ mucus decrease SA for air - Type B: Didn’t reach the patient
- Type C
2 conditions: ,R - Type D: Dapat imonitor
• Acute relievers SABA - Type E: Temporary harm
• Chronic relievers LABA - Type F: Prolong hospitalization
- Type G: Permanent harm
controllers steroids - Type H: Near death
LT3 antagonist - Type I: Death
Mast cell stabilizers
Theophylline – Narrow Therapeutic Index
at
9. It is the study of the use and effects of drugs in large number
- Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
of people.
A. Pharmacogenomics – effect of drug to the genes of the
Narrow Therapeutic Index Drugs
person
Warfarin - Phenytoin
B. Pharmacogenetics – what the genes done to the drug;
Digoxin - Theophylline
idiosyncratic reaction
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C. Pharmacovigilance – continuous monitoring of ADRs, ADE,

Therapeutic Index Formulas (Animals & Humans)
Side Effects
D. Pharmacoepidemiology
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10. Greatest contributing factor to diabetes mellitus.

A. blood pressure C. diet
B. genetics D. obesity

11. What is the usual expiration date that should be placed in a

parenteral admixture compounded and prepared in a hospital
pharmacy?
3. In what part of the patient chart are you likely to find details
A. 1 hour C. 48 hours
about the condition of the organs of the patient?
B. 24 hours D. 1 week
A. PMH B. FMH C. ROS D. CC
12. Which of the ff compounded sterile products should not be
4. What is the method of preparing emulsion wherein the gum is
prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
mixed first with the oil, then the water is added last?
A. NTG C. Cisplatin
A. English Method – wet gum: gum (4) + water (2) + oil (1), last
B. Dopamine D. TPN
B. Continental Method – dry gum: gum + oil + water (last)
C. Forbes bottle Method 2 Kinds of Flow Hood
D. Percolation – (+) heat: sugar inversion (disadvantage) • Vertical - For heavily toxic, poisonous, chemotherapeutic
drugs
5 .Amphetamine has a stronger affinity to this protein in blood. - Source of air is upward; flow of air is vertical
A. Albumin – acidic C. Globulin - hormones - Protects compounder from the product
B. α-acid glycoprotein – basic D. None of the above • Horizontal - Protects product from the compounder
- Not toxic; needs to be sterile
13. Substances that absorbs moisture from the air but do not 22. A disease which is rare and affects less than 200,000 people
dissolves are called: is known as?
A. Eutectic – decrease melting point A. Orphan disease
B. Deliquescent – absorbs moisture B. Primary disease - fever
C. Hygroscopic C. Secondary disease – result of complication from primary
D. Effervescent – releases CO2 disease
D. Extraordinary disease
14. Proper preparation of laminar airflow workbench
A. Includes wiping down all surfaces by using side-to-side 23. A significant clinical interaction can occur if Sildenafil is
motions while working from the front of workbench to the back. administered concomitantly with:
B. All non-sterile supplies must be removed from their outer A. Tagamet tabs C. Augmentin tabs
packaging and wiped down with 70% isopropyl alcohol. B. Zantac tabs D. Isordil tabs
C. Does not include sterilizing the rubber stoppers of medication Sildenafil + ISDN fatal hypotension
vials because they are sealed with sterile safety cap.
D. Allows placement of larger supplies to be placed in the back Dec. BP Dec. BP
of the laminar air flow bench.

15. Nystatin is a drug which may be used for infections of: 24. Why are inhaled corticosteroids preferred for use over oral
A. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma?
B. Pseudomonas D. Candida A. Increased ease of use

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B. Increased efficiency
C. Decreased systemic side effects
16. Which vitamin is/are deficient in cases of megaloblastic
D. B and C
anemia?
I. B1 – Thiamine III. B9 – Folic Acid Side effect: Oral thrush
II. B6 – Pyridoxine IV. B12 – Cobalamin How to avoid: Swish and swirl
A. II, III C. III, IV
B. III only D. All of the above
,R 25. Which of the ff are complications of diabetes?
B8 – Inositol I. Retinopathy
Vit. H/B7 – Biotin II. Neuropathy
III. Nephropathy
17. Which of the ff is a subjective parameter? A. I and II C. I and III
A. Blood pressure C. X-ray tests B. II and III D. All of the above
B. Degree of pain D. Laboratory tests 3 P’s of Diabetes
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- Polyuria, Polyphagia, Polydypsia
Objective – measurable
Subjective – perceived by the patient
Signs – objective 26. The ff can possibly cause cough except:
Symptoms - subjective A. CHF C. Enalapril
B. Dyspnea D. HTN
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18. Bullet-shaped capsules.

A. Spansules – capsules w/ beads (coated) inside 27. Patients should be advised not to consume alcohol if they
B. Caplet – tablet in a capsule shape are taking:
A. Atenolol C. Amitryptiline
C. Parvules – very small pills
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D. Pulvules B. Co-amoxiclav D. Naproxen

Atenolol + antidepressants prolong sedation

19. Precipitation can be: antihistamines
A. Physical incompatibility C. Adverse Drug Reaction “downer” sedatives
B. Chemical incompatibility D. A or B
28. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is demonstrated by
20. Pharmacist RYT has been asked to educate Patient PLD
developing contact dermatitis from poison ivy?
about signs of digoxin toxicity that requires immediate
A. Type I C. Type III
notification of the physician. Which of the ff is not a sign of
B. Type II D. Type IV
toxicity?
A. Drowsiness C. Visual disturbances
B. Dyspnea D. Bradycardia Hypersensitivity – Type B Idiosyncratic

21. What is the current use of botulinum toxin? hypersensitivity

A. Treatment of myasthenia gravis C. Incontinence Type I: IgE (Anaphylactic reaction)
B. Anhidrosis D. Cosmetic Type II: (Cytotoxic reaction)
Type III: Auto-immune (Immune complex)
Type IV: TB skin test, cell, (self-mediated
reaction)
29. Anticoagulant that acts by inhibiting Vitamin K dependent B. Add calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate
synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X. consecutively. Mix thoroughly until homogeneity is observed.
A. Heparin C. Add calcium first, then other additives, add the phosphate
B. Warfarin last, thoroughly mix solution after addition.
C. Aspirin – irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase D. None of the above.
D. Ticlodipine
37. It is the list of medications which are available only in that
30. Vital signs include: hospital.
I. Pulse rate – 60-100 beats/minute A. Drug book C. PMP
II. Respiratory rate – 16-20 (adult); 12-20 (adult & child); B. Formulary D. MIMS
12-16 (child)
III. Blood count 38. What is the term to describe a 50g solute which can be
IV. Respiratory volume dissolved in 250 mL solvent?
A. I, II C. I, III A. Very soluble C. Soluble
B. III, IV D. All of the above B. Freely soluble D. Sparingly soluble

Blood pressure – Normal: 120/80 39. During an asthma attack, the ff occur/s:
Body temperature – Normal: 37°C I. Bronchospasm
II. Increased airway resistance
31. One of the advantages of using topical aerosols include: III. Inflammation

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A. Ease of application of a uniformly thin layer of medication in A. I and II C. I and III
a specific area. B. II and III D. All of the above
B. Forms a solid-like mass upon standing but liquefies when
subjected to agitation. 40. It refers to the continual monitoring of unwanted affects and
C. Can be applied in a uniform thin layer but can irritate the other safety related aspects of marketed drugs.
affected area. A. Pharmacoepidemiology
D. Protection of heat is necessary otherwise bursting may occur; B. Pharmacovigilance – Phase 4 marketing surveillance
refrigeration may also cause problems.
,R C. Pharmacogenetics
D. Pharmacogenomics
Aerosol – only tamper-resistant dosage form
41. Prescription books should be ready for inspection anytime
32. Exophthalmos during business hours and must be kept for:
A. Hypothyroidism C. Hypoparathyroidism A. 1 year C. 3 years
B. Hyperthyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism B. 2 years D. 5 years
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T3 - Triiodothyronine; most potent 42. The drug of choice for treating trigeminal neuralgia.
- = hyperthyroidism Grave’s disease Exophthalmos A. Valproic acid – Grand Mal seizure / Tonic-clonic seizure
B. Phenytoin – Partial seizure
T4 -Thyroxine; most abundant C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbital – febrile; safest drug for seizures in children
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- = hypothyroidism Hashimoto’s disease Cretinism

and pregnant women
Magnesium sulfate - Eclampsia
33. The dispensing directions to the pharmacist are found in: Acetalozamide – Catamenial seizure
A. Transcription – signa; direction to the patient Diazepam – Severe epilepsy
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B. Superscription – dispensing instructions to the pharmacist

C. Subscription – directions to the pharmacist
D. Inscription – list of drugs 43. Deficiency of leads to a disease called which
manifests with dementia, dermatitis and diarrhea.
34. CHF A. Niacin, Pellagra C. Riboflavin, Pellagra
A. Chronic heart fatigue C. Chronic heart failure B. Niacin, Chelliosis D. Riboflavin, Chelliosis
B. Congestive heart fatigue D. Congestive heart failure
44. Patient QPO was bitten by a dog and afterwards was given
35. Fundamental functions of a hospital. by immunoglobulins against rabies. What type of immunity did
I. Research III. Wellness he acquire?
II. Education IV. Patient care A. Natural, Active – internal & external
A. I, II C. III, IV B. Natural, Passive – pregnancy to breastfeeding
B. II, III D. All of the above C. Artificial, Active – vaccines
D. Artificial, Passive – immunoglobulins
36. In the administration of calcium chloride and phosphate
intravenously, an interaction may result. Which of the ff can be 45. Primary adverse effect associated with unfractionated
done to properly administer these two? heparin is:
A. The agents are incompatible together, do not combine them A. Thromboembolism C. Arrhythmia
but give them as separate infusion. B. Bleeding D. None of the above
46. An ADR experiences as a consequence of receiving an 56. Teratogenicity
inappropriately high dose of a drug due to patient A. Type D C. Type B
characteristics. B. Type C D. Type A
A. Idiosyncrasy B. Side effect
B. Extension effect C. Type B 57. Patient NDO suffers from gastric ulcer. He may possibly find
symptomatic relief in the ff drugs except:
Type A Extension – patient’s characteristics A. Omeprazole C. Aripiprazole - Antipsychotic
Side effects – effects of drugs B. Misoprostol – Abortifacient D. None of the above

47. What is the term used to describe the diagnosis of a body 58. What interaction could happen if a patient who is under
part using a stethoscope? warfarin therapy had spinach in his food for lunch and dinner?
A. Palpitation C. Percussion A. Increased bleeding
B. Auscultation D. Inspection B. Increased coagulation
C. No effect would happen
48. The ff are enzyme inhibitors except: D. Patient will defecate the spinach later
I. Azithromycin III. Grapefruit juice Patient clotting tendency
II. Phenobarbital IV. Cimetidine
A. I only C. III and IV Warfarin + spinach (Vit. K)
B. I and II D. IV only

Ph
49. Metabolite of cyclophosphamide that causes hemorrhagic No effect (Antagonism)
cystitis.
A. Busulfan – chemotoxic man; SE: Pulmonary Fibrosis
B. Acrolein 59. “White coat hypertension” pertains to blood pressure reading
C. MESNA that is:
D. Leucovorin – Folinic acid; Rescue drug for Methotrexate A. elevated at home but usually normal in the clinic
B. elevated BP readings whenever the patient is angry
50. The ff are expected at therapeutic dose a drug except:
,R C. elevated when taken in a clinic but normal at home
A. Side effects C. Hypersensitivity reactions D. elevated BP reading on ambulatory BP monitoring
B. Idiosyncratic response D. Toxicity 4 Stages of Blood Pressure
Normal - < 120/80
51. Bioavailability of Griseofulvin is increased with the intake of? Pre-HTN – 120-40; 80-90
A. high in sugar content foods C. high in fat content foods Stage I – 140-160; 90-100
B. high in fiber foods D. high in salt content foods Stage II - > 160; > 100
at
MOA of Griseofulvin: inhibition of mitotic spindles
60. What do gauge numbers used to size hypodermic needles
52. Miglitol and Acarbose are: reflect?
A. Antibacterial agents C. Oral hypoglycemic agents A. size of the lumen opening
B. length of the needle
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B. Antiasthma agents D. Antihypertensive agents

C. internal dimeter of the cannula
Miglitol – for elderly people; taken at 1st bite of meal D. external diameter of the cannula

53. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a 61. What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
Ki

consequence, A. inhibition of peptide exit tunnel - macrolides

A. It is an ADR B. inhibition of DNA gyrase
B. It leads to drug tolerance C. inhibition of RNA polymerase - Rifampicin
C. One needs to increase the dose of a drug D. inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis – Isoniazid
D. All of the above
62. PhilPSP
54. Patient MAL was prescribed with captopril for her A. Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists
hypertension. Unfortunately, her doctor failed to knows that she B. Philippine Professional Standards for Pharmacists
was currently pregnant. This then resulted to stillbirth. What C. Philippine Pharmacy Standards of Practice
medication error happened? D. Philippine Pharmaceutical Science Program
A. Category A C. Category H
B. Category G D. Category I 63. Mannitol, if administered orally, is classified as a/an?
A. sedative C. analgesic
ACEIs & ARBs – teratogenic; causes renal dysgenesis B. osmotic diuretic – IV D. Cathartic
Methimazole – causes Aplasia cutis
64. Cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin is what type of adverse
55. What schedule of drugs has the highest potential for abuse? drug reaction?
A. Schedule I – opium & its derivatives C. Schedule III A. Type A C. Type C
B. Schedule II D. Schedule IV B. Type B D. Type D
65. Use of Bangkok pills. 76. Consequence of adverse drug reactions
A. Sleeping pills C. Slimming pills A. increased cost of therapy C. increased mortality
B. Whitening pills D. Abortifacient B. prolonged hospital stay D. All of the above

66. Which vitamin is necessary for absorption of intrinsic factor 77. An antiepileptic drug that is also used as an anti-arrhythmia.
produced by the stomach? A. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam
A. Riboflavin C. Biotin B. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide
B. Folic acid D. Cyanocobalamin

67. Probable cause of idiosyncratic reactions

I. long duration of treatment
II. enzyme deficiency
III. genetic abnormality
IV. drug allergy
A. I, III C. I, IV
B. II, III D. All of the above

68. An impossible prescription are the ff except:

A. Both generic and brand names are not legible.
B. Only the generic name is written but not legible.

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C. The generic name is not legible but the brand name is written
legibly.
D. The generic name does not correspond to the brand name. 78. What pharmacokinetics interaction is involved in Penicillin +
Probenecid?
69. ii cap pot id ac + hs A. Absorption C. Metabolism
A. Take 2 capsules by mouth 3 times daily before meals and at B. Distribution D. Excretion
bedtime. Probenecid – block tubular secretion
B. Take 2 capsules by mouth every 3 hours before meals and at
bedtime.
C. Take 2 capsules by mouth every 3 hours after meals and at
bedtime.
,R 79. An order was made for epoetin alfa. Which of the ff was most
likely to have made the order?
A. Cardiac center unit C. Lung center
D. Take 2 capsules by mouth 3 times daily after meals and at
B. Neurosurgery unit D. Hemodialysis center – Cancer
bedtime.
unit
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70. The ff are patient-related predisposing factors to ADR
80. Common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum
except:
antacids.
A. Age C. Genetic disposition
A. Constipation C. Vomiting
B. Formulation D. History of allergy
B. Diarrhea D. Nausea
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71. Mathematical model for potentiation.

81. It is the transport of a substance from one part of the body
A. 1+1 = 2 – Addition C. 1+1 = 0 - Antagonism
to another by means of the blood.
B. 1+1 = 3 – Synergism D. 1+0 = 2
A. Absorption – stomach (basic)
B. Distribution – blood & blood vessels
72. Patient VDF was supposed to receive Prochlorperazine
D. Excretion – kidneys
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10mg intramuscularly but the drug was administered

intravenously. What type of error was done?
82. Oral iron preparations should not be given concomitantly
A. Wrong dose error C. Wrong route error
B. Wrong dosage form error D. Wrong drug error with:
A. Digoxin C. Antacid – complexation
73. Defined as the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, B. Tetracycline – chelation D. B and C
or labeling of drug, or device as a result of a prescription drug
83. ADHD
order.
A. Attention Deficient Hyperactivity Disease
A. Pharmacy dispensing C. Pharmacy manufacturing
B. Attention Deficiency Hyperactivity Disorder
B. Pharmacy compounding D. Pharmacy quality control
C. Attention Deficient Hyperactivity Disorder
74. An incorrect prescription that can be filled. D. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
A. erroneous prescription C. impossible prescription
B. violative prescription D. correct prescription 84. Antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is most
commonly treated by:
A. Gentamicin
75. Drug that should not be given to children who has a viral
B. Vancomycin - & Metronidazole; pseudomembranous colitis
infection or flu symptoms.
A. Acetaminophen C. Aspirin C. Kaolin-pectin
D. Clindamycin – Antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis
B. Ibuprofen D. All of the above
 6:00 AM 6:00 PM
3:00 PM = 600 mL
85. The ff are first-line treatment for tuberculosis except:
A. Rifampicin C. Linezolid 600 ml x 20 gtts
B. Isoniazid D. Ethambutol mL
3 hrs x 60 mins. = 66.666 ~ 67 drops/min
• Rifampicin
1 hr
• Isoniazid - cidal
• Pyrazinamide 93. How many fluidounces of a flavored syrup can be contained
in a 5-L container?
• Ethambutol - static A. 196 B. 148 C. 169 D. 247

86. Large overdoses of acetaminophen can cause:

A. Hepatic necrosis C. Tinnitus – Aspirin toxicity
B. Seizure D. Renal tubular necrosis

87. When aspirin is compared with warfarin, both

A. required the same degree of monitoring - Warfarin
B. have high rates of major hemorrhage - Aspirin
C. decreases platelet aggregation 1 lbs x 12 oz x 8 dr
D. none of the above 1 lb 1 oz

Ph
88. Which of the ff provides a synergistic effect? 1 fl. oz x 1 pt x 1 oz x 1 gal
A. Piperacillin + Tazobactam 16 fl. oz 2 pt. 4 qz
B. Clavulanic acid + Amoxicillin
C. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim 5 L x 1000 mL x 1 pt x 16 fl. oz = 169 fl.oz
D. A and C 1L 473 mL 1 pt.

PABA 94. Betnovate 30g cream contains 0.1% betamethasone. How

SMX ,R many grams of betamethasone are used to prepare the cream?
A. 1 g B. 0.03 g C. 0.01 g D. 0.1 g
DHP
TMP 0.1 g = x
100 g 30 g
THF
x = 0.03 g
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89. By custom, who is the secretary of Pharmacy and
Therapeutics Committee? 95. A physician places Patient HER on a daily dose of 48 units
A. Medical doctor C. Medical Technologist of U-80 insulin. How many mL should the patient inject daily?
B. Nurse D. Pharmacist A. 0.4 mL B. 0.6 mL C. 4 mL D. 2.6 mL
80 units = 48 units
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90. Which of the ff describes the ff drugs? 1 mL x

I. Tempra 500 mg tab
II. Midol 200 tab x = 0.6 mL
III. Paracetamol 500 mg tab
A. All are genetically equivalent C. All are prescription drugs
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B. All are in brand names D. All are OTC drugs 96. The instruction given in the medication order was to
administer anti-diptheria serum 6000U via IM to the patient.
91. How much elemental iron is present in 600 mg ferrous However, the patient stock was 10000U per 5 mL vial. How
sulfate? (MW FeSO4.7H2O = 278) Atomic weight of Fe = 55.9, many mL are you going to inject to the patient?
S = 32.1, O = 16, H = 1 A. 1 mL B. 3 mL C. 5 mL D. 7 mL
A. 100.5 mg C. 55.9 mg 10000U = 10000U
B. 120 mg D. 60 mg 5 mL x
55.9 g/mol = x x = 3 mL
278 g/mol 600 mg
97. Doxorubicin is available as 25 mL vial at concentration of 2
x= 120 mg mg/mL. The dose required is 200 mg. How many vials are
required?
92. An IV fluid of 1000 mL was started on Patient SLO at 6:00 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
AM and was scheduled to run for 12 hours. At 3:00 PM, 600 mL 25 ml x 2 mg = 50 mg
was found in the bottle. At what flow rate should the remaining mL
fluid be regulated using an IV set that delivers 20 drops/mL to 50 mg = 200 mg
complete the scheduled time? 1 vial x
A. 52 drops/min C. 61 drops/min
B. 57 drops/min D. 67 drops/min x = 4 vials
98. Patient WOK started Cellcept suspension 1g/5mL
reconstituted with water after a heart transplant. He is taking the
medicine at a dose of 1.5 g twice daily. How many complete
days of strict therapy will a 175-mL bottle reconstituted Cellcept
last?
A. 11 days C. 17 days
B. 12 days D. 23 days
1.5 g x 2 = 3 g

1g=3g
5 mL x
X = 15 mL

175 mL = 11.666 ~ 11 days

15 mL
x = 11 days

99. A liquid medicine is supplied in a concentration of 20 mg/5

ml. Patient DPO requires 40 mg PO three times daily for 5 days,

Ph
then 50 mg three times daily for 5 days, then 20 mg twice daily
for 5 days, and then 20 mg once daily for 5 days. How many
volume of the suspension is needed to dispense?
A. 60 mL B. 200 mL C. 300 mL D. 600 mL
40 mg x 3 x 5 = 600 mg
20 mg x 3 x 5 = 300 mg
20 mg x 2 x 5 = 200 mg ,R
20 mg x 1 x 5 = 100 mg
1200 mg
20 mg = 1200 mg
5 mL x
x = 300 mL
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100. How many four fluidounces bottles can be packed from a 3
gallons bottle of antipyretic syrup?
A. 70 B. 85 C. 90 D. 96
3 gal x 4 qz x 2 pt x 16 fl. oz = 384 fl. oz
1 gal 1 qz 1 pt 4 fl. oz
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x = 96 fl. oz
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 Pharmacodynamic Graph
• Potency – x-axis; minimum dose to reach until 50% of
MODULE 4 – MOCK BOARDS maximum effect
• Efficacy - y-axis
1. Which of the ff is a common complication associated with
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
A. CHF C. Flatulence 8. Which drug is the least efficacious?
B. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Hepatotoxicity A. Drug A C. Drug C
OHA – Acarbose B. Drug B D. Drug D
Most potent - near 0
Most efficacious – far from 0
2. In which conditions are alpha-1-adrenoreceptors agonists
most likely to be useful?
I. Nasal congestion 9. Drug C is the most efficacious of the four drugs. Drug D is the
II. Hypotension least potent of the four drugs.
III. Symptomatic bradycardia A. First statement is true. Second statement is false.
A. I only C. III only B. First statement is false. Second statement is true.
B. I and II D. All of the above C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
α 1 – blood vessels
α 2 – presynaptic vessels
β 1 – heart

Ph
β 2 – lungs

3. This drug was used for aesthetic purposes in ancient times by

increasing the pupillary diameter among women.
A. Atropine C. Codeine
B. Morphine D. Heroin
Pupillary diameter – mydriasis; sympathetic response ,R
Parasympathetic (DUMBBELLS)
- Diarrhea
- Urination
- Miosis
- Bradycardia
- Bronchospasm
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- Emesis
- Lacrimation 10. According to the pH partition hypothesis, a weak, acidic drug
- Laxation will be absorbed in the stomach because
- Salivation A. The non-ionic form of the drug does not facilitate absorption.
B. Weak acidic drugs are more soluble in an acidic medium.
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C. The drug will exist primarily in unionized, more lipid soluble

4. Which beta-blocker is used to lower the mortality in patients form.
with heart failure? D. The stomach has a higher pH than the pKa of the drug.
A. Propanolol C. Bisoprolol
LUNA – Lipophilic, Unionized, Non-polar, Absorbed
B. Nadolol D. Acebutalol
HIPE – Hydrophilic, Ionized, Polar, Excreted
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5. What is the mechanism of interaction between Digoxin and

Quinidine? Absorbed Excreted
A. Increase binding of Digoxin with ion transporters in the Acidic Drug Acidic medium Basic urine
myocardium. (stomach)
B. Increase intestinal absorption of Digoxin. Basic Drug Basic medium Acidic urine
C. Decrease renal clearance of Digoxin. (SI)
D. Decrease hepatic metabolism of Digoxin.
Quinidine – increase toxicity of Digoxin
11. Which of the ff agents may predispose neonate premature
babies to kernicterus?
6. The only SSRI which is not FDA pregnancy category C. A. Ethambutol C. Doxycycline
A. Duloxetine C. Amoxapine B. Ciprofloxacin D. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Imipramine D. Paroxetine
Sulfation – Phase II
For items 7-9, refer to Figure 1 Phase I – Functionalization
7. Which drug is the most potent? Phase II - Conjugation
A. Drug A C. Drug C
B. Drug B D. Drug D
 12. This compares the bioavailability of a multisource drug 20. What is the MOA of Bromocriptine as a management for
product with that of a reference (non-IV) drug product. Parkinsonism?
A. Absolute bioavailability C. Bioequivalence A. Direct antagonist of D2 receptors
B. Relative bioavailability D. Therapeutic equivalence B. Direct agonist of D2 receptors
C. Direct antagonist of 5HT3 receptors
Absolute Bioavailability D. Direct agonist of 5HT3 receptors
AUC generic x dose IV
Parkinsonism - Dopamine
AUC IV dose generic

Relative Bioavailability
AUC generic x dose innovator 21. Which of the ff vasodilator agent can cause reflex
AUC innovator dose generic tachycardia and peripheral edema on a long-term
(non-IV) administration?
A. Nitroprusside C. Nitrous oxide
13. Which of the ff CCBs has greater activity on calcium B. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine
channels in myocardial tissues than calcium channels in the Drugs for Pregnant Women w/ Hypertension
vascular smooth muscles? - Hydralazine - Methyldopa
A. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem - Labetalol = JNC7 - Nifedipine
B. Amlodipine D. Verapamil

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14. This represents the dose producing toxic effects in 50% of 22. A drug has a plasma concentration of 0.01 g/L. It was
administered with a loading dose of 700 mg. What is its volume
the test population.
of distribution?
A. LD50 – lethal C. ED50 – effective dose
B. TD50 D. Therapeutic index A. 70,000 L B. 7,000 C. 700 L D. 70 L
Volume of Distribution Formula
15. What is the clinical use of D1-agonist Fenoldopam? VD = LD (loading dose)
A. Acute treatment of hypertension Cp (plasma concentration)
B. Acute treatment of pheochromacytoma
C. Acute treatment of CHF
D. Chronic treatment of SVT
D1-Agonist – arterioles of the kidneys inc. GFR
,R
inc. urination
=

L
700 mg
0.01 g x 1000 mg
1g
-vasodilation
= 70 L
Dec. Blood volume dec. BP
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23. Which of the ff aggravates the toxic effects of digoxin?
A. hyponatremia C. hyperkalemia
16. What form of erythromycin has the best oral absorption?
B. hypocalcemia D. hypomagnesemia
A. lactobionate C. estolate
B. stearate D. ethylsuccinate
24. Which of the ff is a H3-antagonist?
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A. Histidine – precursor of histamine

17. What type of neuromuscular blocker is Tubocurarine?
B. Betahistine
A. Non-depolarizing, competitive, reversible
C. Ranitidine – H2 antagonist
B. Non-depolarizing, non-competitive, reversible
D. Loratadine – H1 antagonist; mast cells
C. Depolarizing, competitive, irreversible
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D. Depolarizing, non-competitive, irreversible

25. The ff group of people must have an increase in dose of
2 Classifications of Neuromuscular Blocker isoniazid due to their fast acetylating metabolism except:
Non-polarizing, Depolarizing, Irreversible, A. Orientals – fastest (including Asians)
Competitive, Reversible Non-competitive B. Eskimos
- Tubocurarine - Succinylcholine C. Filipinos
- Atracurium D. Caucasians – slowest
- Pancuronium
26. Which of the ff does not belong to the group?
A. Apidra C. Humalog
18. Most prominent side effect of insulin when administered IM
B. Aspart D. Novolin
without site rotation.
A. Muscle dystrophy C. Muscle wasting Rapid Slow Intermediate Long
B. Nerve paralysis D. Lipodystrophy -Lispro -Insulin - Isophane - Glargine
(Humalog) regular/ - NPH (Lantus)
19. Anaphylactoid reaction was observed in a patient - Aspart Regular (IN) - Detemir
undergoing surgery. Which of the ff probably caused this? (Novolog) insulin (Novolin N) (Levemir)
A. Tubocurarine C. Halothane - Glulisine (Novolin - Degludec
B. Atropine D. Sevoflurane (Apidra) R) (Tresiba)
Anaphylaxis – IgE release Causes of Anaphylactoid Reaction
Anaphylactoid - mast cells pollens bee stings
dirt natural source
allergy

Ph
,R
at
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Ki
27. The only component which is present in neurolepanesthesia
but not in neurolepanalgesia. 36. Which of the ff describes aspirin?
A. oxygen C. nitric oxide I. Acidification of urine increases rate of extraction of free
B. nitrous oxide D. carbon dioxide Salicylates.
II. It is an organic acid with pKa of 7.0
28. A direct-acting cholinergic agonist that is used as a III. It is a reversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase.
diagnostic agent for asthma. IV. It is rapidly hydrolyzed to acetic acids and salicylic acid
A. Methacholine C. Salbuterol through esterases.
B. Isoproterenol D. Carbachol A. I, III, IV C. III only
Methacholine challenge - diagnostic test for asthma B. I, II, III D. IV only

37. The ff statements are true about active transport and

29. Patient JWN presented with pheochromacytoma and has facilitated diffusion except:
elevated level of this substance in his urine. I. Both require saturable carrier transporters.
A. DOPA C. Octopamine II. Both are movement against a concentration gradient
B. Uric acid D. Vanillylmandelic acid III. Both are energy-requiring.
Pheochromacytoma – increased metabolites of IV. Both involve carrier transporters not subject to competition/
Catecholamines Antagonism/inhibition
Vanillylmandelic acid – metabolite of NE and Epinephrine A. I only C. I, II
Homovanillic acid – metabolite of Dopamine B. II, III, IV D. All of the above

Ph
38. The ff require therapeutic drug monitoring except:
30. Stage of anesthesia characterized by vocalization, loss of A. Warfarin C. Penicillin
consciousness, irregularity in respiration and involuntary B. Digoxin D. Phenytoin
actions.
A. Stage I – analgesia = (+) analgesia, conscious 39. Which of the ff anesthetic is associated with a dissociative
B. Stage II – delirium = unstable vital signs state characterized by catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia with
C. Stage III – surgical = stable vital signs, unconscious
D. Stage IV – medullary paralysis = coma

31. Second generation antidepressant.

,R or without actual loss of consciousness.
A. Ketamine
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Propofol – “Milk of Magnesia”
D. Thiopental

A. Paroxetine C. Nefazodone 40. The ff are conditions that increases lithium in the body
B. Phenelzine D. Amoxapine except:
1st-gen antidepressants - -tryptilline I. Acetazolamide III. ACE inhibitors
at
2nd-gen antidepressants - -zodone II. Thiazides IV. Hyponatremia
Sulfonylureas - -amide; gli- A. I, II C. I only
B. II, III D. IV only
Lithium = Acetazolamide Osmotic Diuretics
32. Acute dry cough is the common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
Xanthine Na Supplements (Hypernatremia
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This is because:
A. lower immunity C. release of histamine
B. accumulation of AT2 D. accumulation of bradykinin 41. What important mechanism of released norepinephrine is
ACE Enzymes – produced in the lungs targeted by TCAs and cocaine?
A. Degradation of MAO
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B. Sequestration into cells

33. Which of the ff medications can be given to prevent flushing C. Reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
effect of Niacin? D. Binding to presynaptic alpha-2 receptors
A. Aspirin C. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine D. Loratadine 42. Which of the ff is an anticancer drug?
Niacin - HDL (Good cholesterol) S/E: Flushing effect A. Doxycycline – Antibiotic C. Acyclovir - Antiviral
- vasodilation B. Omalizumab – MAB D. Vincristine
- Lipoprotein A
43. A V2-selective receptor antagonist used in the treatment of
SIADH.
34. Which of the ff statements about warfarin is true? A. Vasopressin C. Desmopressin
A. Prothrombin time is used for monitoring. B. Tolvaptan D. Demeclocycline
B. It is classified under pregnancy Category C.
C. Acts on the intrinsic coagulation pathway. SIADH - Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
D. Activates the Vitamin K epoxide reductase-complex. - increased and uncontrolled urination

35. How many % of an IV drug with a half-life of half an hour 44. Gabapentin 100 mg/5 mL suspension and Gabapentin 300
would be eliminated from the body after 2 hours? mg capsule are considered:
A. 6.25% B. 12.5% C. 87.5% D. 93.75% A. Pharmaceutical Equivalent
100% - T ½ 12.5% - 1hr 30 mins. B. Pharmaceutical Alternative – Active ingredient
50% - 30 mins. 6.25% - 2 hours
25% - 1 hour
C. Therapeutically Equivalent = PE + BE 54. Patient LKD who is a male, is placed on a new medication
D. Therapeutically Alternative and notes that his breasts have become enlarged and tender to
touch. Which medication is he most likely taking?
45. In what doses of dopamine will it exert its positive inotropic A. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide
effect? B. Chlorthalidone D. Spirinolactone
A. <5 mcg/kg/min C. >15 mcg/kg/min
B. 5-15 mcg/kg/min D. No dose will provide the effect 55. When tyrosine hydroxylase is inhibited, it is assumes that all
of the ff may deplete except:
Dopamine - DOC for Cardiogenic shock w/ renal insufficiency A. Tyrosine – L-DOPA C. Norepinephrine
α = high dose B. Dopamine D. Epinephrine
β = middle dose inotropy
chronotropy 56. It is a drug that acts by antagonizing 5-HT2A receptor
dromotropy resulting to vasodilation and clinically used as a prophylaxis of
D = small dose migraine.
A. Methysergide C. Buspirone
46. Immediate acting barbiturate. B. Zolmitriptan – 5-HT1B/1D D. Prucalopride
A. Phenobarbital C. Butabarbital
B. Hexobarbital D. Secobarbital 57. Drugs proven effective in the symptomatic relief of nasal
congestion except:
Presence of Sulfur – Rapid-acting barbiturate; Thiopental A. Phenylephrine – agonist C. Methoxamine - agonist
Slow-acting – Pentobarbital, Hexobarbital, Secobarbital

Ph
B. Tetrahydrozoline – agonist D. Phentolamine - Antagonist
Intermediate-acting – Butabarbital, Amobarbital
Long-acting – Phenobarbital Nasal congestion – vasodilation
• How long – Barbiturate α1 – vasoconstriction
• How frequent - Benzodiazepine ▪ Phenylephrine
▪ Tetrahydrozoline

47. Which of the ff can decrease gastric emptying time? α1 – antagonist/blocker

A. Fatty foods C. Starvation
B. Full meal D. Heavy exercise
Gastric Emptying Time = Gastric Emptying Rate
,R ▪
▪
▪
Methoxamine
Phentolamine
Phenoxybenzamine

α1 – bronchoconstriction; bronchodilation
48. Marked effects upon parasympathetic innervation includes:
I. Ileus – lack of peristalsis III. Miosis
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II. Micturition – urination IV. Tachycardia 58. “Angel dust”
A. II, II B. I, IV C. I, II D. I, II, III A. Mescaline C. Ecstacy
B. LSD D. Phencyclidine
49. Which of the ff H2 antagonists is the most potent?
A. Ranitidine C. Famotidine – most potent 59. Furosemide increases the urinary excretion of all the ff
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B. Nizatidine D. Cimetidine – least potent except:

A. Na+ C. Ca2+ and Mg2+
50. Which of the ff actions of epinephrine would be antagonized B. K+ D. Uric acid
by prazosin but not by propranolol? Loop Diuretics Thiazide
A. increase in heart rate – β1 C. release of renin – β1
▪ Hyperglycemia ▪ Hyperglycemia
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B. mydriasis – α1 D. bronchiolar dilation – β2

▪ Hyperlipidemia ▪ Hyperlipidemia
Prazosin – α-antagonist ▪ Hyperuricemia ▪ Hyperuricemia
Propranolol – non-selesctive β-blocker ▪ Hypercalcemia

51. The major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. 60. Which of the ff agents is synonymous to levarterenol?
A. GABA – brain C. Glutamate A. Isoproterenol C. Dopamine
B. Glycine – spinal cord D. Monoamine B. Norepinephrine D. Epinephrine

52. Monitoring required for warfarin 61. Which of the ff may be safely excreted in the urine using
A. INR C. PT ammonium chloride?
B. Aptt D. None of the above I. Salicylates
II. Amphetamine
53. The main clinical use/s of neuromuscular blocking agent/s III. Oxicam derivatives
is/are: A. I only C. III only
I. malignant hyperthermia B. II only D. All of the above
II. respiratory paralysis
III. muscle spasms and rigidity
IV. muscle relaxation
A. II, III B. I, IV C. I, II D. I, II, III
62. Rhinitis medicamentosa is a side effect of which adrenergic
agent?
A. Clonidine C. Fenoldopam
B. Ritodrine D. Oxymetazoline
Rhinitis medicamentosa - rebound congestion
- caused by topical decongestants,
phenylephrine

63. Which of the ff is correct regarding the ANS?

A. Afferent neurons carry signals from the CNS to the effector
organs.
B. The neurotransmitter at the parasympathetic ganglion is
norepinephrine.
C. The neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglion is
acetylcholine.
D. Sympathetic neurons release acetylcholine in the effector
organs.

64. Branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of fate

Ph
and disposition of drugs in the body.
A. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics D. Toxicology 71. The most effective agent/s for increasing HDL and the only
agent that may reduce lipoprotein A.
65. Cholestyramine resin has the prevalent side effect of: A. Niacin
A. blocking absorption of some vitamins B. Bile acid sequestrants
B. raising cholesterol levels C. Fibric acid derivatives
C. causing intoxication
,R D. HMG-coA reductase inhibitors
D. increasing sensitivity to UV light Statins – given at night
Cholestyramine – bile acid sequestrants Rosuvastatin – longest-acting statin
Blocking absorption of some vitamins – Orlistat + Atorvastatin – given at any time of the day
Fat-soluble (ADEK) Steatorrhea (oily stool)
72. Brimonidine, an agent used to treat ocular hypertension and
at
66. Which of the ff is not a catecholamine? open-angle glaucoma, is pharmacologically similar with:
A. Epinephrine C. Dopamine A. Clonidine C. Yohimbine
B. Noradrenaline D. Serotonin B. Prazosin D. Pirenzepine
Brimonidine – Alpha 2-agonist
67. Which of the ff are autacoids?
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A. Histamine, Serotonin, Norepinephrine, Acetylcholine

B. Bradykinin, Eicosanoids, Dopamine, Serotonin 73. Tacrine, Donezepil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine have
C. Serotonin, Bradykinin, Histamine, Dopamine been approved for the treatment of:
D. Eicosanoids, Histamine, Bradykinin, Serotonin A. Atony of urinary bladder C. Myasthenia gravis
B. Alzheimer’s disease D. Paralytic ileus
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68. Which is not an inhibitor in any steps of Cathecolamine

biosynthesis? 74. Which of the ff conditions cannot be managed by beta
A. Reserpine C. Metyrosine blockers?
B. Vesamicol D. Guanadrel A. Glaucoma C. Angina pectoris
B. Arrhythmia D. Hypotension
69. Clinical use of Ritodrine.
A. Immunosuppressant C. Bronchodilator 75. Adverse effects of warfarin include:
B. Tocolytic – uterine relaxant D. Vasodilator I. Hemorrhage III. Skin necrosis
II. Purple toe syndrome IV. Teratogenicity
70. Based on the four different graphs, which graph represents A. I, II, III C. I, II, IV
pharmacokinetic action of a drug? B. I, III, IV D. All of the above
A. Graph A C. Graph C
B. Graph B D. Graph D 76. A fibrinolytic drug which was purified from cultured broths of
Group C beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Pharmacokinetic – ADME
A. Alteplase C. Reteplase
Graph C – Partial agonist
B. Streptokinase D. Urokinase

77. Which of the ff does not describe potency?

A. Potency apparently determines the therapeutic superiority of
two drugs being compared.
B. Potency is a measure of the size and the dose required to 90. Drug receptors are usually proteins. All drugs require
produce a particular level of response. receptors. – A
C. Potency is a useful measure of comparison between two or
more drugs. 91. Most commonly abused opioid.
D. Potency is the dose required to reach 50% of a drug’s A. Morphine C. paramorphine
efficacy. B. diacetylmorphine - heroin D. methylmorphine

78. Soman, a nerve gas, acts through what mechanism? 92. What should be given for organophosphate toxicity if ”aging”
A. indirect cholinergic agonism has already occurred?
B. direct cholinergic antagonism A. Atropine C. Pralidoxime
C. indirect cholinergic antagonism B. Nicotine D. Pilocarpine
D. direct cholinergic agonism Aging - >24 hours

79. A drug with low solubility but high permeability belongs to

what BCS class? 93. Which of the ff is most useful in management of
A. Class 1 C. Class 3 acetaminophen poisoning?
B. Class 2 D. Class 4 A. Atropine C. N-acetylcysteine
B. Dantrolene D. S-carboxymethylcysteine
80. Betanechol
A. beta-methyl analog of carbachol 94. Penicillamine, as a chelating agent, is primarily used for the

Ph
B. beta-methyl analog of acetylcholine treatment of poisoning with which of the ff metals?
A. Arsenic C. Mercury
C. naturally-occurring cholinomimetic alkaloid
B. Copper D. Lead
D. active mainly in nicotinic receptors
95. Contraindication/s to the administration of syrup of Ipecac
For items 81-90, refer to the choices below.
A. First statement is true. Second statement is false. include/s which of the following?
B. First statement is false. Second statement is true. A. patients who ingested caustic substances
,R B. unconscious patient
C. Both statements are true.
C. patient experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure
D. Both statements are false.
D. All of the above
81. Ethanolamine are the most sedating antihistamines. Syrup of Ipecac MOA – Stimulate gag reflex
Doxylamine is an ethanolamine. – C
96 – 100: Match the ff diseases to the metal toxicity.
82. Bioequivalent drugs may be pharmaceutical alternatives. All
at
A. Cadmium D. Mercury
pharmaceutical equivalents are therapeutic equivalents. – A
B. Arsenic E. Zinc
C. Aluminum
83. Phenoxybenzamine is a non-selective alpha-adrenergic
antagonist. It produces a competitive antagonism. – A
96. Itai-itai disease – A
97. Mee’s lines – B (also Shaver’s disease
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84. Acids cause liquefaction necrosis. Bases cause coagulation

98. Shaver’s disease – C
necrosis. – D
99. Minamata disease – D
100. Metal fume fever – E
85. Isoniazid requires pyridoxine supplementation. It may
discolor the tears and urine orange red. – A
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ADDITIONAL NOTES
86. Pharmacodynamics explains what the body does to the Blood Volume Expanders – these are used for IV fluid
drug. Pharmacokinetics, on the other hand, explains the Resuscitation
mechanism of actions and pharmacologic effects of drugs. – D 1. Crystalloids - aqueous solution of mineral salts or water-
soluble molecules
87. Methimazole is less potent than propylthiouracil. - significantly cheaper than colloids
Methimazole and propylthiouracil are major drugs for treatment
of thyrotoxicosis. – B 2. Colloids - large insoluble molecules
- examples include gelatin, hetastarch
88. Rapid IV infusion of hypotensive rugs is used for controlling - it has lower possibilities for adverse effects as
hypertensive emergency. End-organ damage occurs in Compared to crystalloids
hypertensive emergency. – B
Most serious to least serious
Urgency – No end-organ damage
Contraindication > Warning > Precaution
Emergency – end-organ damage

89. Graded-dose response curves show response on a discrete Prostaglandin Analogs

scale. Potency and efficacy of a drug are determined in a Mnemonic: “MADEL”
quantal-dose response curve. – D • Misoprostol (abortifacient)
• Alprostadil
• Dinoprostone
Graded Dose – Graph A
• Epoprostenol
Quantal Dose – Graph B
• Latanoprost
PGE1 – FDA-approved use for NSAID-induced gastric ulcer
PGE1 – patient ductus arteriosus, erectile dysfunction
PGE2 – abortifacient
PGI2 – pulmonary hypertension
PGFα2 – open-angle glaucoma

MAO Inhibitors
Mnemonic: MPITS
• Meclobemide – MAO A
• Phenelzine
• Isocarboxazid
• Tranylcypromine
• Selegiline – MAO B

Ph
,R
at
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MODULE 5 – MOCK BOARDS 6. Emulsions containing volatile oils are prepared by:
A. Continental method C. Forbes bottle method
1. Density of water at 4°C B. English method D. Distillation
A. 0.8 g/cm3 C. 1.0 g/cm3
B. 0.6 g/cm3 D. 1.1 g/cm3 7. Percentage of water in anhydrous lanolin
A. 0.20% B. 0.025% C. 0.25% D. 0.35%
2. The change of emulsion type form o/w to w/o and vice versa
is: 8. Clean room class required for production of parenteral
A. Coalescence – flocculation; aggregation of droplets, forming pharmaceutical products.
Big mass A. Class 1
B. Breaking – cracking; separation of oil from water phase or B. Class 10
vice versa C. Class 100 – less than 100 particles (not greater than 0.5
C. Creaming - emulsion rises up, forming cream at the top of Microns) per cubic foot
Emulsion D. Class 1000
- downward movement of emulsion
D. Phase inversion 9. Mesh number is:
A. number of linear inches per square opening
Tests to Determine o/w or w/o B. number of square inches per linear opening
A.) Conductivity test – o/w; conduct electricity C. number of linear openings per square inch
B.) Fluorescence test – w/o D. number of square openings per linear inch

Ph
C.) CoCl2 test – pink = w/o; blue = o/w
D.) Dye Test - Amaranth green = water-soluble Mesh number = Particle size
- Sudan red = oil-soluble
20
40
3. This law states that in constant pressure, the volume of gas
60
is directly proportional to temperature.
A. Boyle’s Law – constant temperature, inversely proportional to 80
pressure
,R CP
B. Charle’s Law – PV = nRT
C. Gay-Lussac’s Law Sample problem:
D. Avogadro’s Law – number of moles What is the percent of powders with particle size larger than 80
but larger than 80 but smaller than 20?
4. BCS Class III 100 g
A. high solubility, high permeability
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20 g
B. high solubility, low permeability
C. low solubility, high permeability 10 g
D. low solubility, low permeability 40 g
15 g
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15 g

10 g + 40 g + 15 g x 100%
100 g
=65%
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10. “Pharmaceutics”
A. The study of dosage form design, including associated
manufacturing techniques.
B. The study of effect that drugs have on the body.
C. The study of effect that the body has on the drug.
D. The study of how drugs are chemically synthesized.

11. The initial concentration of a drug is 500 mg/mL. After 90

5. Rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid in: minutes, the concentration was reduced to 50 mg/mL. Following
A. Suspension 1st order kinetics, calculate the rate constant.
B. Controlled-release tablets
C. Solutions
D. Immediate-release tablets
Formula: InCt = -kt + lnCo

Rate of Drug Bioavailability in Oral Drugs In(50 mg/mL) = -k(90mins) + ln(500 mg/mL)
Solutions > Suspensions > Emulsions > Capsules > Tablets ln(50 mg/mL) – ln (500 mg/mL) = -k(90 mins)
90
IV form – rapid bioavailability k = 0.025/min
 5. Membrane Filtration
Principle: physical separation
12. Wine is from distilled? Equipment: membrane filters
A. Molasses – rum C. Fruits – Wines
B. Malts – beer D. Grains – whiskey 18. Calculate the volume of 3 moles of an ideal gas at 30°C
and 780 mmHg.
13. The ff drugs are available as transdermal patches except: A. 0.096 mL B. 726.71 mL C. 7.20 mL D. 72.67 mL
A. Fentanyl – analgesic
B. Testosterone – hormone replacement therapy PV = nRT *8.314 J/mol . K
C. Scopolamine – motion sickness V = nRT
D. Risperidone P
= 3 moles 0.08205 1-atm (30°C + 273 K)
14. Mechanical process of reducing particle size of solids Mol. K
before incorporation into a final product. 780 mmHg x 1 atm
A. Mixing C. Dispensing 760 mmHg
B. Milling D. Tumbling = 0.07267 L x 1000 mL
1L
Methods of Preparing Tablets V = 72.67 mL
Dry granulation – heat sensitive
Wet granulation – not heat sensitive; most common
19. The ff statements are true except:
Direct compression – active ingredients that directly
A. HCl is an example of strong electrolyte.
compressible
B. Strong electrolytes are completely ionized in dilute solutions,

Ph
as states in the Debye-Huckel theory.
Steps that are Common in Tablet Preparation (Dry
C. Van’t Hoff factor can be used to calculate osmotic pressure
granulation)
of electrolytes
Dispensing
D. FeCl3 has a Van’t Hoff factor of 3.
Overage – dispense in excess to account for the loss
of transfer FeCl3 1 Fe i=1
Milling – reduction in particle size 3 Cl 1.8
Mixing ,R 2.6
Slugging – 1 inch in diameter 3.4
Compression 4.2

15. Dosage form used to administer medicated powders by 20. Cotton plus what acids produces pyroxylin?
blowing into air, nose or throat. A. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid
A. insufflators C. aerosols B. sulfuric acid and hydrochloric acid
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B. oral powders D. all of the above C. nitric acid and sulfuric acid
D. acetic acid and sulfuric acid
16. Produced using wet granulation method Cotton 1 part nitric acid
A. Semisolids C. Capsules 3 parts sulfuric acid
B. Tablets D. Ampules Gun cotton 2% Camphor
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Incorporation – mix altogether 3% Castor oil

Fusion method – use heat to combine ingredients
Collodion
Methods in Preparing Capsules
A. Punch Method – hard gel capsules
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B. Rotary Die Method – soft gel capsules Flexible collodion

21. cGMP
17. Method of sterilization preferred for heat-labile A. Current Good Managing Practice
preparations, plastic syringes, and needles. B. Current Good Manufacturing Practice
A. Moist heat sterilization C. Dry heat sterilization C. Current Good Manufacturing Process
B. UV irradiation D. Gas sterilization D. Current Good Manufacturing Procedure
1. Moist Heat Sterilization
22. How many % of glycerin is present is glycerogelatin?
Principle: protein precipitation
A. 10% B. 15% C. 35% D. 40%
Equipment: Autoclave (121°C, 15-20 minutes, 15 psi)
10% - API 35% - WaTER (TERtipayb)
15% - gelatin (pipTIN) 40% - GlyceRIN (kwaRINTA)
2. UV Irradiation
Principle: mutation
23. Recommended length of male pessaries.
Equipment: UV rays
A. 16 mm C. 140 mm
B. 32 mm D. None of the above
3. Dry Heat Sterilization
Principle: protein precipitation Types of Suppositories (According to Route of
Equipment: drying oven Administration)
• Rectal – both gender
4. Gas sterilization • Urethral - bougies
Principle: alkylation • Vaginal - pessaries
Equipment: ethylene oxide
24. Maximum buffer capacity can be observed when: 32. What is the Liso of boric acid with molecular weight of 61.8
A. pH > pKa C. pH = pKa and E value of 0.50?
B. pH < pKa D. pKa = pKb A. 1.8 B. 1.9 C. 2.0 D. 2.1

Henderson – Hasselbalch Formula E = 17 Liso

pH = pka + log [base] or [salt] MW
[salt] [acid]
Liso = E x MW
17
25. USP method for particle size determination.
= (0.5) (61.8)
A. Optical microscopy
17
B. Sieve analysis
= 1.8
C. Automatic Particle Counter
D. Andreasen Pipette Method
33. Type of extract formed where nearly all solvent has been
26. Minimum sheer stress applied before a plastic flow system removed.

begins to flow. A. fluidextract C. semiliquid extract

A. Shear rate C. Fluidity B. pilular extract D. powdered extract
B. Shear stress D. Yield value
34. 100% tinctures

Ph
A. Tinctures – 10% API, Alcohol varies
B. Elixirs – 5-40% Alcohol
C. Fluidextracts – 50-90% Alcohol
D. Spirits

35. What is the effect of high viscosity on suspensions?

A. inhibits crystal growth
B. increases bioavailability of drug

27. Responsible for the auditing methods for evaluating

,R C. improves redispersability
D. makes the manufacturing process easier

36. Are molecules whose mirror images are non-

product quality.
superimposable.
A. quality control C. quality assurance
A. Enantiomer C. Diastereomer
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B. production D. research and development
B. Isomer D. Analogue
28. These are small, flat tablets intended to dissolve slowly. Mirror Superimposable
A. Chewable tablet – 2-3 kg; no disintegrant images
Enantiomer ✓ x
B. Buccal tablet – 4 hours to be dissolved inside the cheek
Diastereomer x x
pocket
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Mirror images ✓ ✓
C. Vaginal tablet – vagina
D. Sugar-coated tablet
Conventional tablet – 7-10 kg, dissolved for 30 minutes 37. The figure below is an:
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29. Glazed, transparent, moisture-resistant paper.

A. Vegetable parchment paper C. Waxed paper
B. Bondpaper D. Glassine paper
Chartulae – other name for divided powders

30. Not an example of a TDDS.

A. Nicotine C. Estradiol
B. Scopolamine D. Captopril

31. What part of the tableting machine distributes the

granulation to the die cavity?
A. Cam tracks C. Feed frame A. one-component phase diagram
B. Upper punch D. Hopper B. two-component phase diagram
C. three-component phase diagram
Parts of Tableting Machine D. four-component phase diagram
1. Hopper – contain/hold
2. Feed frame/shoe – distribute 38. Finishing attains the sheen or gloss of the tablet coat.
3. Punches – compression Polishing attains the final smoothness of the tablet coat.
4. Die – size and shape A. First statement is true. Second statement is false.
5. Cam Tracks – guiding of movement B. First statement is false. Second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true. 46. The ff are primary packaging materials except:
D. Both statements are false. A. Desiccant C. Coil
B. Liner D. Product insert
39. Drugs that are destroyed by gastric acid or those that Tertiary – big cartons
irritate the gastric mucosa are usually formulated as:
A. Chewable tablets C. Enteric-coated tablets 47. Substances that hold powders together in order to form
B. Capsules D. External preparations granules or larger particles.
A. Disintegrants C. Diluents
40. Which is not a route of administration? B. Binders D. Lubricants
A. Oral C. Intrathecal 2 Mechanisms of Disintegrant
B. Topical D. Dissolution 1. Swelling – when exposed in water, the disintegrant
swells
41. Dissolution apparatus Type II 2. Wicking – forms pores/spaces around the tablet
A. Basket C. Reciprocating cylinder
B. Paddle D. Flow-through cell 2 Types of Disintegrant
1. External – before compression
Dissolution Apparatus
2. Internal – before granulation
I – Basket
II – Paddle
Diluents – filler/bulking agent
III – Reciprocating cylinder
Reasons to use diluents

Ph
IV – Flow-through cell
1. API is too potent
V - Paddle over disk
2. Increased weight
VI – Rotating cylinder TDDS
VII – Reciprocating holder
48. Which formulation is not applicable to ocular
administration?
42. Calculate the osmotic pressure associated with 50.0 g of
an enzyme of MW 98,000 g/mol dissolved in water to give A. Ointment C. Suspension
B. Solution D. Liniment
2600 mL of solution at 30°C.
A. 0.0049 torr
B. 0.49 torr

π = MRT
C. 1.96 torr
D. 3.71 torr

M = moles solute
,R 49. Spans and Tweens
A. Anionic surfactant – SLS, soaps, detergents, SLES
B. Cationic surfactant – ends with –ium
PV = nRT L solvent C. Non-ionic surfactant
P = nRT D. Amphoteric surfactant
at
V
50. The ff are advantages of plastic over glass except:
P = 50 g mol 0.08205 1-atm (30°C + 273 K) A. Durability C. Lower cost
98000 g mol . K B. Permeability D. Lightness in weight

For items 51-55, determine what law/act/AO was violated by

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2600 mL x 1L
1000 mL the person.
P = 0.0049 atm x 760 torr A. AO 56 D. AO 55
1 atm B. RA 3720 E. RA 7581
P = 3.71 torr C. AO 63
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43. It is the transfer of solvent molecules through a semi- 51. Consumer LAN gave her prescription in duplicate copies to
permeable membrane, from low concentration to high Pharmacist MQL in the pharmacy in her community. LAN bought
concentration. all of the medicines that were prescribed in the prescription.
A. Osmosis C. Passive diffusion After dispensing, Pharmacist MQL did not stamped FILLED in
B. Convection D. Facilitated diffusion the original copy of the prescription and did not even returned
both copies to her. – C (AO 63)
44. The polymorphic form of cacao butter that is most suitable
for suppository preparations. 52. Drug company GEW released a batch of their drug product
A. Alpha C. Beta prime where upon inspection of a retailer of their product, saw the ff
B. Beta D. Gamma discrepancies: (1) the name and place of business of the
manufacturer was not contained in the label and (2) an accurate
45. This refers to part of the diagram where the three phases statement of the quantity of contents in terms of weight was not
(gas, liquid, solid) of that substance coexist in thermodynamic present. – B (RA 3720)
equilibrium.
A. Critical point C. Critical pressure 53. Pharmacy LSH accepts prescriptions that requires
B. Triple point D. Critical temperature extemporaneous compounding yet does not have a decent
space for compounding purposes. – A (AO 56)
54. Distributor ADR sells his paracetamol tablets for 20 pesos 66. It is the least number of intensive variables that must be
when the highest retail price set in the market was 10 pesos. fixed/known to describe the system completely in reference to
- E (RA 7581) Gibb’s Phase Rule.
A. Number of components
Price Act – profiteering, cartel, hoarding, monopoly, panic- B. Number of phases present
buying C. Degrees of freedom – F = C-P + 2
RA 5921 – Pharmacy Law D. Degrees of separation
RA 10918 – Philippine Pharmacy Act
67. A liquid whose viscosity is increased when stress is applied
55. Consumer POD was curious of the size of the Rx symbol on in classified as which of the ff material?
the carton box of his amoxicillin suspension. Upon A. Newtonian C. Thixotropic
measurement, he noted that the size of the Rx symbol was 1 B. Dilatant D. Plastic
inch compared to the 20 inches’ height of the carton.
– D (AO 55) 68. First-order half-life is equal to:
A. 0.693/k B. k C. 1/k D. 2k + 1
For items 56-60, refer to the choices below:
A. RA 7581 D. RA 7394 69. This chemical agent is used to render capsules opaque.
B. RA 8172 E. RA 9165 A. Silica C. Titanium dioxide
C. RA 8203 B. Magnesium oxide D. Lactose
Sunscreens/sunblocks – Titanium dioxide is found

Ph
56. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act – E (RA 9165)

57. ASIN Law – B (RA 8172) 70. Overwetting by binder solution results to:
A. no granules C. too soft granules
58. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs – C (RA 8203) B. too hard granules D. degraded granules

59. Consumer Act – D (RA 7394) 71. What is the use of Transderm Scop, the first US FDA
,R approved TDDS manufactured by Baxter?
60. Price Act – A (RA 7581) A. hypertension C. hormone therapy
B. smoking cessation D. motion sickness
61. The Board of Pharmacy is appointed by:
A. Civil Service Commissioner 72. The part of TDDS that stores and releases the drug at the
B. Secretary of Health skin site.
C. Secretary of Education A. Occlusive backing membrane – protects from water and dirt
at
D. President of the Philippines B. Matrix system
C. Release liner – removed from the drug to be release on site
62. Font style specified for printing the generic name of drug D. Adhesive layer – sticky part; attaches the patch to the site
products.
A. Arial Medium C. Universe Medium 73. Bubble test measures the efficiency of:
A. HEPA filter – DOP Test
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B. Helvetica Medium D. B and C

B. Glass – Water attack test, Powder Test
63. Responsible for cleaning of work areas, assisting in stacking C. Membrane filter – Bubble test
products in shelves, filling of documents, and other tasks D. Plastic container - leaching = container to product
assigned, with very minimal degree of independence or decision - sorption = product to container
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making and without direct interaction with patients.

A. Pharmacy aide – no interaction w/ patient; minimal degree 74. Which of the ff is the Van’t Hoff equation?
B. Pharmacy assistant – interaction w/ patient; w/ high degree A. P = log(n) . RT C. P = n/V . RT
of education, w/ RPh supervision B. P = nRT D. P = RT
C. Pharmacy technician – compounding
D. Pharmacist 75. Which of the ff excipients can serve as filler, disintegrant,
and binder in tablet formulations?
64. What is the license required for wholesalers? A. Na starch glycolate – superdisintegrant
A. S1 – exempt dangerous drugs; poisons B. Microcrystalline cellulose – Brand name: Avicel; very
B. S2 – physicians expensive
C. S3 – retailers C. Lactose – filler
D. S4 – wholesalers D. Starch

S5D – distributors 76. Clear, saturated aqueous solution of one or more volatile
S5E – exporters oils or other aromatic or volatile substances.
S5I – importers A. Aromatic water – no alcohol content
S6 – research B. Elixir
C. Spirit
65. Validity of dangerous drug prescription. D. Tincture
A. 15 Days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 60 days
77. Aqueous solution often in concentrated form used by C. The excipients reduce the possibility of the API irritating the
swishing the liquid in the oral cavity. body.
A. Gargle – oropharyngeal cavity D. The excipients stabilizes the API so that it does not degrade
B. Mouthwash appreciably before administration.
C. Eugenol – toothache drops
D. A and B 88. Sterilization under steam pressure requires what condition?
A. 104°C, 30 minutes, 121 psi
78. Are liquid preparation of drug substance dissolved or B. 121°C, 15-20 minutes, 15 psi
dispersed in a suitable emulsion medium. C. 121°C, 12-20 minutes, 121 psi
A. Injectable emulsion C. Injectable suspension D. 104°C, 30 minutes, 15 psi
B. For injectable suspension D. For injection
89. Agents that reduces the evaporation of moisture from the
79. Tablet weight is determined by: product or from the surface of the skin.
A. Volumetric fill of the die cavity A. surfactants C. humectants
B. Pressure applied during compression – hardness B. emollients D. desiccants
C. Amount and nature of the binder
- Disintegration time (37°C + 2°C) 90. Most biologicals are stored in:
- Dissolution time (37°C + 0.5°C) A. 8-12°C C. 92.5-98.7°C
D. All of the above B. 2-8°F D. 35.6-46.4°F
5F = 9C + 160

Ph
80. Method consisting of bringing together a highly dispersed
liquid and a sufficient volume of hot hair to produce evaporation 91. Van-Slyke equation describes:
and drying of liquid droplets. A. Buffer capacity C. Buffer efficiency
A. Spray-congealing C. Fluid bed Granulation B. Buffer index D. All of the above
B. Spray-drying D. Spheronization
92. This class of drugs requires batch certification of FDA
81. The ff are hygroscopic compounds except: before releasing to the market.
A. CaO B. NaOH C. Na2CO3 D. Sucrose
,R A. Anticonvulsants C. Antidepressants
B. Antibiotics D. Antineoplastics
82. Method of filling highly viscous products.
A. Manual filling – container 93. Iodoform
B. Volumetric filling – non-viscous (volume) A. Triclinic C. Hexagonal
C. Gravimetric filling – viscous (weight) B. Monoclinic D. Cubic
D. All of the above
at
94. Cool temperature
A. 2-8°C C. 8-15°C
83. What is the official method of USP for determination of
B. less than 2°C D. 15-20°C
specific gravity?
A. Pycnometer method C. Graduated cylinder method Cold temperature - < 8°C Warm – 30-40°C
B. Westphal balance D. Braume method • Ref - 2-8°C Extreme heat - > 40°C
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• Freezer - < 2°C

84. Amorphous substance:
I. More soluble
95. Petrolatum rose water ointment.
II. More stable
A. Oleaginous base – oil
III. More reactive
B. Absorption base – w/o; night cream
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A. I only B. II, III C. I, III D. III only

C. Water-removable base – o/w; day cream; water-washable
D. Water-soluble base – water; PEG; greaseless base
85. Locally applied solutions that constrict pores and
precipitates proteins.
For 96-100: Tablet Defects
A. Collodion C. Liniment
A. Mottling D. Capping
B. Astringent D. Tincture
B. Chipping E. Picking
C. Sticking
86. The phenomenon that occurs when a system gels faster
when gently shaken than when left standing.
96. Partial or complete separation of the top and bottom crown
A. Rheopexy
of the tablet. – D (Capping)
B. Thixotropy
C. Dilatant
97. Removal of small portions of the tablet particularly at its
D. Synergesis – instability of gel; water comes out of gel
edges. – B (Chipping)
87. Most medicines are made up of active pharmaceutical
98. Granules adhere on the die wall. – C (Sticking)
ingredient (API) and various excipients. Which one of the ff is
not a possible justification for formulating medicines this way?
99. Punches remove a part of the tablet upon pressing.
A. The API is too potent to use undiluted.
- E (Picking)
B. The API and excipients each exert pharmacological effect.
100. Uneven distribution of color during coating of the tablets.
- A (Mottling)

ADDITIONAL NOTES
Marlotte’s Law – other name of Boyle’s Law
Proust’s Law – other name for the Law of Definite
Proportions

Gas Container Colors

1. Argon (Argon methane) – RED
2. Helium – BROWN
3. Oxygen – GREEN
4. Nitrogen monoxide – BLUE
5. Nitrogen gas – BLACK
6. Carbon dioxide - GRAY

Ph
,R
at
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 RATIONALE NOS 4-7
Volumetric Primary Indicator
MODULE 6 – MOCK BOARDS Standard Standard
EDTA CaCO3 H.n. blue
AgNO3 NaCl Eosin Y
1. Functions of Quality Control as part of GMP include the ff
NH4SCN Ferric Ammonium
except:
Sulfate
A. Sampling, specifications, and testing
Na Methoxide Benzoic acid
B. Documentation and release procedures
C. Auditing
D. Environmental control 8. This titrimetric method for determining water content that can
E. None of the above be direct, residual and coulometric.
A. Karl Fischer Method
2. The molecular weight of KOH is 56. How many grams are B. Azeotropic distillation – uses toluene
needed to make 1 L of 1.5 N solution? C. Gravimetric method
A. 42 B. 56 C. 72 D. 84 E. Insufficient data D. Gas-Liquid Chromatography – for alcohol content
E. NOTA
Water Content
1. Method I: Titrimetric “Karl Fischer Method”
A. Direct B. Residual C. Coulometric
Primary standard: Na tartrate
KFR contains: Pyridine, Iodine, SO2, Methanol

Ph
2. Method II: Azeotropic
- Toluene Distillation; uses Toluene moisture
apparatus (or Xylene)

3. Method III: Gravimetric Method

,R Alcohol Content
3. What is the basis of selecting the right indicator for a given 1. Method I: Distillation Method
acid-base titration? - Pycnometer measures specific gravity which is referred to USP
A. Molarity of acid/base D. Both A & B alcoholometric table (High alcohol content: low specific gravity)
B. Normality of acid/base E. AOTA
C. pH at equivalence point 2. Method II: Gas Liquid Chromatography
at
For the next 4 items, match the primary standard used in 9. What are the conditions for moist heat sterilization using an
standardization of the substances mentioned. autoclave?
4. NaOH & KOH A. 121°C, 15 atm, 15-20 minutes
A. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Arsenic trioxide B. 121 psi, 150°C, 15-20 minutes
B. Tromethamine E. Calcium carbonate C. 121°C, 15 psi, 15-20 minutes
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C. Sodium chloride D. 121°F, 15 atm, 15-20 minutes

E. 121°F, 15 psi, 15-20 minutes
5. HCl & H2SO4
A. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Arsenic trioxide 10. Methyl red in basic conditions appears:
B. Tromethamine E. Calcium carbonate A. Red D. Pink
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C. Sodium chloride B. Orange E. Blue

C. Yellow
6. AgNO3
A. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Arsenic trioxide
B. Tromethamine E. Calcium carbonate
C. Sodium chloride

7. Ce(SO4)
A. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Arsenic trioxide
B. Tromethamine E. Calcium carbonate
C. Sodium chloride
RATIONALE (NOS 4-7)
Volumetric Primary Indicator
Standard Standard
HCl, H2SO4 Tromethamine B.c. Green
NaOH, KOH KHP Phenolphthalein
- also called
Perchloric acid
Na2S2O3 K2Cr2O7 Starch TS
KMnO4 Na2C2O4 Orthophenanthroline
- AKA Ferroin
Ce(SO4) & I2 Arsenic Trioxide Orthophenanthroline
11. The ff are adsorption indicators, except: 15. I. Redox: Complexometry – not redox, but metal ions
A. TEE D. DCF (Dichlorofurosin) II. Redox: Permanganometry
B. Eosin Y E. NOTA III. Neutralization: Acidimetry
C. Eriochrome black IV. Ion combination: Volumetric precipitation
A. I B. I, II, III C. I, IV D. II, III, IV E. I, III, IV
12. The components of the Karl Fischer reagent include all of
the ff except: 16. I. SA + SB: Methyl red III. WA + SB: Phenolpthalein
A. Iodine D. Ethanol II. SA + WB: Methyl red IV. WA + WB: Phenolpthalein
B. Sulfur dioxide E. None of the above A. III B. II, III C. IV D. I, IV E. III, IV
C. Pyridine
17. I. Mohr: Reddish brown precipitate
13. Which indicator is most suitable to use when performing II. Gay-Lussac: precipitation – cessation
aqueous titration of organic acids? III. Liebig: turbidity
A. Methyl red – SA, SB D. Phenolphthalein IV. Fajan’s: pink surface of precipitate
B. Methyl orange E. Thymol blue – SA (non-aqueous) A. I, II B. II C. IV D. III E. I, IV
C. Azo-violet – WA (non-aqueous) Methods Titrant Analyte Indicator
1. Aqueous Titration 1. Gay- AgNO3 VS Halides x
Indicators: Lussac
1. Salt Acid + Strong Phenolphthalein 2. Liebig AgNO3 VS Cyanide x
Base Methyl red 3. Modified AgNO3 VS Cyanide Additional

Ph
Methyl orange Liebig reagents: KI,
2. Weak Acid titrated w/ Phenolphthalein NH3
Strong Base 4. Mohr AgNO3 VS Halides K2CrO4
3. Weak Base + Strong Methyl red 5. Volhard AgNO3 VS Hg Comp. Ferric Alum
Acid Direct AgNO3 VS Halides
4. Weak Acid + Weak No reaction Residual NH4SCN
Base VS
,R 6. Fajaris AgNO3 VS Halides “adsorption
indicator”
2. Non-Aqueous Titration
EOSIN Y
Indicators:
1. Weak Base + Salt Crystal violet
Methylrosaniline Cl
Quinaldine red
Malachite green
at
2. Relatively Strong Base Methyl red
Methyl orange
3. Weak Acid Azo violet
o-nitro-aniline (very WA)
4. Strong Acid Thymol blue
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For the next 5 items, determine which is/are incorrectly paired.

14. I. Apparatus IV: Flow-through cell
II. Apparatus VI: Reciprocating cylinder
III. Apparatus V: Revolving cylinder
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IV. Apparatus I: Paddle

A. I, II D. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III E. I, III, IV
C. III, IV
18. I. Dull red heat: 550-700 C
II. Very dull red heat: 500-550 C
III. Bright red heat: 800
IV. White heat: 1200-1600 C
A. I, II B. II C. IV D. III E. I, IV
19. This is defined as the sum total or organized arrangements 25. The wavelength of the functional group, called the
made with the objective of ensuring that products will be “fingerprint” region.
consistently of the quality required by their intended use. A. 200-400 nm – UV
A. Quality assurance B. 3-8 mcm – group; under medium IR
B. Quality control – part of GMP concerned with sampling, C. 8-15 mcm
specifications, testing, organization, documentation and release D. 780-3000 nm – near IR
procedures E. NOTA
C. GMP
D. Monograph – document that specifies all the tests to be
conducted on a product and/or appropriate references
containing details of procedure and expected results.
E. Formula – concise and precise statement of the ingredients
that comprise the product, together with the percentage/weight
of each.

For the next three items, refer to the ff procedure for the
preparation and standardization of 0.5 N Alcoholic Potassium
Hydroxide. “Accurately weigh 5 g of potassium biphthalate,
previously crushed lightly and dried at 120 C for 2 hours, and
dissolve in 75 mL of CO2-free water. Add 2 drops of

Ph
phenolphthalein TS, and titrate with sodium hydroxide solution
until a permanent pink color is produced.”
20. What is responsible for the pink coloration at endpoint? 26. When a drug product is found to fall below the required
A. Phenolphthalein – Sodium Hydroxide complex specifications of potency, what type of defect is it classified
B. Conjugate acid of phenolphthalein under?
C. Conjugate base of phenolphthalein A. Ocular D. External
D. Free phenolphthalein B. Internal E. NOTA
C. Performance
E. AOTA
Phenolphthalein is a weak acid. Weak acids disassociate
,R
according to their respective conjugate bases. The disassociated
form is pink while the undissociated acid is colorless.
Classification of Defects
1. According to measurability
A. Variable Defect – can be measured directly by instruments
giving dimensions of length, weight, height, thickness,
concentration, volume, viscosity, pH, or size particles
21. What is the estimated pH range of the resulting pink B. Attribute Defect – cannot be measured by instruments. It shows
at
solution? mainly the conformance or non-conformance of the material to
A. 2-3.5 D. 8-10 – Phenolphthalein working pH range specifications. This applies to many things that can be judged only
B. 4.2-6 E. 10-13 by odor or visual examination like color, clarity, sheer, cleanliness,
C. 6-7 smoothness, taste, & presence or absence of a characteristics.
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22. What happens to the indicator, phenolphthalein, when it 2. According to seriousness or gravity
turns pink? A. Critical Defect - may endanger life or property & render the
A. Becomes protonated product non-functional.
B. Becomes deprotonated – free form is colorless while its B. Major Defect - may affect the function of the object & therefore,
deprotonated form (CB) is pink may render the product useless.
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C. Nothing - Example: presence of a crack in a bottle

D. Hydrolyzes C. Minor Defect - does not endanger life or property nor it will affect
E. It does not turn pink the function, but nevertheless remains a defect
since it is outside the prescribe limits.
23. Indirect permanganometry is used to assay: - Example: slight variation of the color of the label
A. Hydrogen peroxide – Direct from the color standards
B. Malic acid content in cherry juice
C. Milk of Magnesia – Acidimetry 3. According to Nature
D. Sodium hydroxide – Acidimetry A. Ocular Defect - a defect that is visible
E. Boric acid – Alkalimetry - Example: foreign particles contamination
B. Internal Defect - not seen although present
24. Method II of water content determination: - Example: a sub-potent drug product
A. Karl Fischer Titration – Method I C. Performance Defect - defect in function
B. Azeotropic Distillation - Example: a suppository that does not
C. Gravimetric Method – Method III melt at body temperature
D. Coulometric Method
E. Photometric Method
27. This element of the production line possess the greatest risk C. Water-soluble ash
for product contamination. D. Acid-insoluble ash
A. Product D. Equipment E. Silicate ash
B. Personnel E. AOTA
C. Procedure 35. Method of analyzing trace minerals in multivitamin
preparations.
28. This enumerates the characteristics of all the materials that A. Flame emission – Groups I & II, Na, Ca, K
go into the product and the permissible range of purity of each B. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
ingredient. C. Fluorometry – B1 and B2
A. Raw material specification D. Gas Chromatography – barbiturates
B. Monograph – Document that specifies all tests to be E. Microbiological Assay – B3, B5, B12
conducted on a product, details of procedure and expected Assay Methods for Selected Drugs
result (& references)
Spectrophotometry Vitamin A
C. Formula – Statement of ingredients in the product, together
Vitamin K (635 nm)
with percentage and/or weight of each
D. Standard Operating Procedure – step-by-step method on Vitamin B12 (361 nm)
Vitamin B3 (450 nm)
how to go about a job
Steroids
D. Finishes product specification – all characteristics affecting
proper performance, purity, safety and stability of the product

Ph
HPLC Vitamin D
29. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW = 134 Vitamin B6
g/mol) Vitamin B9
A. 67 B. 0.067 C. 134 D. 0.0134 E. NOTA Penicillins
Cephalosporins
30. A sample of NaCl (0.2185 g) was assayed via Volhard’s
method, using 50 mL of 0.0998 N silver nitrate & 11.9 mL of
0.135 N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the percent of NaCl Gas Chromatography Vitamin E
present in the sample (MW = 58.45)
A. 0.4525%
B. 45.25%
C. 50%
D. 0.905%
E. 90.5%
,R Fluorometry

Microbiological Assay
Barbiturates
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
mEq = MW mEq = 58.45 = 0.05845
(Lactobacillus plantarum) Vitamin B5
Valence x 1000 1 x 1000
at
(N x V) – ( N x V) x (mEq) x 100 36. The method in precipitimetry which involves the analysis of
0.2185 halides using silver nitrate as the titrant and potassium
dichromate as the indicator.
(0.0998 N x 50 mL) – (0.135 N x 11.9 mL) x (0.05845) x 100 A. Gay-lussac’s method D. Fajan’s method
0.2185 B. Liebig’s method E. Volhard’s method
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C. Mohr’s method
% NaCl present in the sample = 90.5%
Methods Titrant Analyte Indicator
1. Gay- AgNO3 VS Halides x
31. The temperature range for dissolution testing: Lussac
Ki

A. 35 to 39 C D. 97.7 to 99.5 F 2. Liebig AgNO3 VS Cyanide x

B. 36 to 37 C E. 95 to 102.2 F 3. Modified AgNO3 VS Cyanide Additional
C. 36.5 to 37.5 C Liebig reagents: KI,
NH3
32. In newer formulations, the accepted weight loss in friability 4. Mohr AgNO3 VS Halides K2CrO4
test should be: 5. Volhard AgNO3 VS Hg Comp. Ferric Alum
A. 0.1% D. 0.8% Direct AgNO3 VS Halides
B. 1% - old E. 2% Residual NH4SCN
VS
C. 1.5%
6. Fajaris AgNO3 VS Halides “adsorption
indicator”
33. Apparatus use to measure specific gravity. EOSIN Y
A. Analytical balance – weight D. Both B&C
B. Westphal balance E. All of the above
C. Pycnometer

34. A certain sample is incinerated to ashes. When placed in

HCl, some of the as does not dissolve. This portion of ash
represents the silicates present and is called:
A. Total ask – no treatment; for incineration
B. Sulfurated ash – treated with sulfuric acid
37. Which of the ff test solutions is used in the limit test for heavy
metals?

Ph
A. Hydroxylamine – Lead
B. Ammonium thiocyanate – Iron 42. LAL is obtained from the horseshoes crab and used in the
C. Silver nitrate – Chloride bacterial endotoxin test (NET). What does LAL stand for?
D. Hydrogen sulfide – Copper, Lead, Iron, Mercury, Nickel A. Limule amoebocyte lysate
E. Diethylthiocarbamate B. Limulus amoeba’s lysate
C. Limulus amoebocyte lygase
38. Koettsdorfer number, also known as saponification value, is D. Limulus amoebocyte lysate
the number of milligrams of KOH. ,R E. NOTA
A. Required to neutralize the free fatty acids in 1 g of fat. – acid
B. Required to saponify the esters in 1 g of fat. – esters 43. What is/are the technique/s or method/s for BET?
C. Required to neutralize the free fatty acids and saponify the A. Gel clot D. Both A & C
esters in 1 g of fat. B. Coulometric E. AOTA
D. Equivalent to OH content of 1 g substance. C. Photometric
E. Absorbed by 100 g substance.
at
44. Chemical method for determining nitrogen content.
39. Indeterminate errors may be caused by which of the ff? A. Diazotization – sulfanilamides
A. Errors of method caused by faulty procedures B. Kjedahl method
B. Apparatus errors C. Azeotropic method – moisture
C. Personal errors D. Hanus method – Is and Br2 in glacial acetic acid
E. Wijs method – iodine monochloride in glacial acetic acid
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D. All of the above

E. None of the above
45. When performing titration, a Geissler burette, which has a
40. It refers to the sum of all factors which contribute to the glass stopcock, is usually used when the liquid being delivered
safety, efficacy and reliability of the product. is a/an?
A. Oxidizing agent D. Base – Mohr Burette
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A. Purity D. Both A & B

B. Quality E. All of the above B. Reducing agent E. Any of the above
C. Standard C. Acid

41. The property of a test defined as its ability to assess 46. Animal used in the biological assay of parathyroid hormone.
unequivocally the analyte of interest despite other components A. Rabbit D. Dog
that may be present. B. Mouse E. Chicken
A. Sensitivity C. Cat
B. Specificity Animals Used in Testing of Drugs
C. Robustness – capacity to be unaffected by small but Animal employed Drugs
deliberate variations in method & provides indication of its Pigeon Digitalis
reliability during normal usage HPLC (Rabbit) Insulin Injection
D. Precision – same result, incorrect Tubocurarine Injection
E. Accuracy – nearest true value Metocurine Injection
Cat Glucagon Injection
Chicken Oxytocin Injection
Male rat Vasopressin Injection
Female rat (20-23 days old) Chorionic Gonadotropin
Spectrophotometer Cod liver oil
(rachitic rat)
Rat, same but of either sex Corticotropin Injection
Sheep blood plasma Heparin
Protamine Sulfate
47. Wavelength of the visible region in the electromagnetic 55. Bacillus anthracis are spore-forming, encapsulated bacteria
spectrum. that form medusa head-like colonies. Their capsules, one of the
A. 1-400 nm – UV D. 3000-15000 nm - Medium principal virulence factors, are composed of:
A. D-glutamic acid D. Nucleic acid
B. 400-700 nm – VIS - Microwave B. L-glutamic acid E. All of the above
C. 700-3000 nm – Near C. Polysaccharide

48. The most effective chemical/s in reducing KMnO4. 56. The advantageous effect (to the bacteria) attributable to the
A. Sodium thiosulfate D. Sodium oxalate bacterial capsule.
B. Nitric acid E. Any of the above A. Protection from harsh environment – Endospore
C. Oxalic acid B. Exchange of DNA between bacteria – Sex pili
C. Prevention of phagocytosis
49. The indicator used in cerimetry: D. Resistance – R; plasmids
A. Starch D. Hydroxynaphthol blue E. None of the above
B. Orthophenanthroline E. Potassium permanganate
C. Arsenic trioxide 57. The culture medium used for Mycobacterium spp.
A. Loeffler’s serum – Diptheria
50. According to Beer’s Law in spectrophotometry, B. Lowenstein-Jenssen medium
transmittance decreases when increases. C. Skirrow’s agar – Campylobacter jejuni
A. Concentration D. Chocolate agar – Haemophilus
B. Thickness of the solution – Lambert’s or Bouger’s

Ph
E. EMB agar – E. coli
C. Path length
D. Both A & B Enrich Agars
E. All of the above Mannitol Salt – Staph
Brilliant Green
Bismuth Nitrate Salmonella
51. In normal phase column chromatography, the mobile
phase is than the stationary phase. 4.Sauboraud’s – Fungi
A. More polar 5. Loeffler’s - Diphtheriae
B. Less polar – SP: Silica gel; MP: hexane, organic
C. Heavier
D. Lighter
E. Insufficient information
,R 6. Middle Brook
7. Lowenstein Jensen
8. Thayer-Martin – Neisseria
9. MCA & EMB – Lactose
Myco
TB

10. Chocolate – Haemophilus

Normal Phase Reversed Phase 11. MBS – Vibrio (basophil, halophile)
Stationary Polar (silica gel) Non-polar (C18)
at
phase
Mobile phase Non-polar Polar
(organic (aqueous/organic)
solvents)
Sample Non-polar Polar fastest 58. Gram-positive bacteria have peptidoglycan layers
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movement fastest compared to those of gram-negative bacteria, thus they appear

purple when viewed under a microscope after gram-staining.
A. Thicker D. Weaker
52. Microorganisms without a cell wall. B. Thinner E. None of the above
A. Mycobacterium D. All of the above C. Irregular
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B. Spirochete E. None of the above

C. Mycoplasma – smallest bacteria

53. Among the ff microorganisms, which is most resistant to

heat?
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Bacillus subtilis – spore-formign bacteria
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. All of the above

54. Causative agent of herpes labialis – genitalia

A. HPV – Human papilloma virus (warts)
B. HSV-1 – Oral herpes
C. HSV-2
D. VZV – Varicella zoster (shingles)
E. EBV – Kissing virus
 62. The acronym TORCHES lists most common vertically-
transmitted diseases. Which of the ff pathogens are included?
A. CMV D. Treponema pallidum
B. EBV E. All of the above
C. Rubella

59. The causative agent of small pox.

A. Vaccinia virus

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B. Rubeola virus – measles
C. Variola virus
D. Rubella virus – German measles
E. None of the above
63. Level of prevention primarily involving disability limitation
60. Which of the ff is not an example of an attenuated, whole-
and rehabilitation.
agent vaccine?
,R A. Primary level – Pre-pathogenic stage
A. Measles D. Variola
B. Primordial level – Prevention according to lifestyle
B. Mumps E. Salk = IPV
C. Secondary level
C. Rubella Sabin = OPV
D. Tertiary level
E. Quaternary level

64. Examples of artificially-acquired passive immunity, except:

at
A. Immune sera D. Toxoids-active
B. Antitoxin E. None of the above
C. Gamma globulin
Chickenpox – naturally active immunity
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Ki

61. All of the ff are ‘ESKAPE’ organisms according to the World

Health Organization, except:
A. Escerichia coli – Enterococcus faecium
B. Staphylococcus aureus 65. A disease acquired in a given area within a relatively short
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae period of time.
D. Acinetobacter baumanii A. Sporadic – occasionally D. Pandemic
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Endemic – constantly E. Both A & C
C. Epidemic

66. This stage in the development of disease is when the first

symptoms of illness appear.
A. Incubation period D. Period of decline
B. Prodromal period E. Period of convalescence
C. Period of illness
 74. DOC for MRSA
A. Metronidazole D. Bleomycin
B. Mupirocin E. Ceftaroline
C. Vancomycin

75. DOC for the prophylaxis and management of Pneumocystic

carinii pneumonia, which is considered one of the marker
diseases of AIDS.
A. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline
B. Co-trimoxazole E. Penicillin G
C. Ciprofloxacin

76. Old Mcdonald had a farm, and on his farm he had a pig sty
which was near the water well where he would fetch water to
67. Dengvaxia is the first vaccine for dengue to be licensed (in drink and wash. One day, he experienced abdominal pains and
December 2015). It is a live, recombinant vaccine that contains diarrhea. When the town physician checks his stools, what
components encoding antigens of how many dengue strains? protozoan will he most likely detect to be the cause of
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Mcdonald’s symptoms?
A. Giardia lamblia D. Toxoplasma gondii
68. The DOH declared an outbreak of which disease in the B. Entamoeba histolytica E. Leishmania spp.

Ph
Philippines in 2018 continuing into 2019? C. Balantidium coli – pig
A. Dengue D. Swine flu fever H1N1
B. Malaria E. All of the above 77. Clostridium botulinum are spore-forming bacteria that
C. Measles produce exotoxins that cause botulism. What is the mechanism
of action of the exotoxin?
69. The Department of Agriculture states that this pathogen is a A. Inhibits protein synthesis – Diphtheria
grave threat to the Philippine industry. Hence, pork products B. Blocks acetylcholine release
from infected countries are strictly prohibited.
,R C. Blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters – C. tetani
A. A (H5N1 – Bird’s flu D. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Causes secretion of fluids & electrolytes in large amounts
B. A (H1N1) E. Taenia solum - E. coli, Shigella
C. Schistosoma japonicum E. Causes RBC destruction – Gas gangrene, C. perfringens

70. The spread of disease via indirect contact happens when the 78. One of the characteristic symptoms of measles infection is
pathogen is present on non-living objects, which are called: the formation of small lesions in the oral cavity known as:
at
A. Vectors D. Objects A. Rose spots D. Koplik’s spots
B. Vehicles E. Any of the above B. Urticaria E. Any of the above
C. Fomites C. Rash

71. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication of untreated 79. In the 1970s, DOH declared the eradication of smallpox.
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infection by: Reasons why were able to eradicate smallpox include:

A. Streptococcus pneumonia – otitis media A. There is only one serotype.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae - newborn B. There is no subclinical state.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Humans are the only reservoir.
D. Streptococcus sanguis – subacute bacterial endocarditis D. The vaccine is effective.
Ki

E. Streptococcus intermedius E. All of the above

72. The microorganism responsible for neonatal sepsis and 80. This metazoan was found in bagsit fish in the Ilocos region.
meningitis. A. Ascaris lumbricoides – Giant intestinal roundworm, common
A. Streptococcus pneumonia in “pagpupurga”
B. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Ancylostoma duodenale – old hookworm
C. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Streptococcus sanguis D. Strongyloides stercolaris – thread worm
E. Streptococcus intermedius – brain abscess E. Enterobius vermicularis – pinworm

73. Streptococcus mutans is found in dental caries. To what 81. Ebola virus is a virus of the family Filoviridae that causes
group of streptococci does it belong? hemorrhagic fever. The primary natural reservoir of the Ebola
A. Group A streptococcus – Pyogenes virus is.
B. Group B streptococcus – Agalactiae A. Cat D. Dog
C. Group D streptococcus – Bovis B. Fruit bat E. Any of the above
D. Viridans streptococcus – Intermedius & Sanguis C. Pig
E. None of the above
82. Dengue virus
A. Filoviridae – Ebola, Marburg virus
B. Orthomyxoviridae – Influenza
C. Paramyxoviridae – Influenza B. WHO – main objective is attainment by all people of the
D. Flaviviridae highest possible level of health
E. Picronaviridae – Hepatitis A C. BFAD – main responsibility is to ensure the safety, and
license and regulate the delivery of pharmaceuticals, food and
RATIONALE NOS 81-82 cosmetics in the Philippines
D. PhilHealth – RA 7875 (National Health Insurance Act of 1995)
E. All of the above

87. The QC manager is in charge of the ff sections, except:

A. Analytical testing laboratory
B. Research & development studies
C. Biological testing
D. Specification & assay development
E. None of the above

88. The program of DOG that mandates the fortification of food

products with Vitamin A, Iron and Iodine.
A. ABKD
B. Nutrition Program
C. Sangkap Pinoy Seal

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D. Herbal and Traditional Medicine
E. None of the above

89. A program that has backyard gardening community projects

and putting of herbal plants as its major activities.
A. ABKD
B. Nutrition Program
,R C. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
D. Herbal and Traditional Medicine
E. None of the above

90. The method of inducing immunity to smallpox via inoculation

is called:
A. Vaccination D. Immunostimulation
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B. Variolation E. Both A & C
C. Immunization

83. Mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance may include: 91. The term used to refer to the fully-developed, mature
A. Enzymatic inhibition infectious viral particle.
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B. Alteration of bacterial membranes A. Viroid D. Capsid

C. Promotion of antibiotic efflux B. Virion E. Enveloped virus
D. Alteration of bacterial protein target/s C. Virus
E. All of the above
92. Major risk factors for Cardiovascular diseases:
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84. The Directly-Observed Therapy Short course (DOTS) A. Obesity D. High cholesterol
consists of the ff elements, except: B. Smoking E. All of the above
A. Case detection C. Stress
B. Standardized treatment, with supervision and patient support
C. Effective drug supply and management system 93. The hardening of the arteries due to build-up of plaque is
D. Monitoring and evaluation system known as:
E. None of the above A. Atherosclerosis D. Stroke
B. Diabetes mellitus E. Deep vein thrombosis
85. A general sanitary practice considered the best way of C. Coronary heart disease
preventing the spread of disease.
A. Aseptic technique D. Disinfection 94. The DOH promotes a program called “four o’ clock habit,”
B. Sterilization E. Any of the above which aims to prevent the spread of:
C. Handwashing A. Dengue D. Tuberculosis
B. Malnutrition E. All of the above
86. Its mission is to guarantee equitable, sustainable and quality C. Malaria
health for all Filipinos, especially the poor, and to lead the quest
for excellence in health in the Philippines. Its main function is to 95. Which of the ff contains the highest amount of cholesterol?
serve as an advisory body to the local executive or legislative A. Egg – 373 mg
branches on health-related matters. B. Chicken – 88 mg; depends
A. DOH C. Shrimp – 211 mg
D. Cheddar – 105 mg; depending on type of cheese; 60-100 +
E. Liver – 355 mg

96. Factors linked to essential hypertension include:

A. Obesity D. Stress
B. Smoking E. All of the above
C. Sex

97. After having a wound tended to by a physician, a patient

approaches you and asks, “The doctor said he put the
disinfectant betadine on my wound. What is a disinfectant?” As
a pharmacist, you say:
A. It is a cleansing agent.
B. It eradicates microorganisms.
C. It is an agent that kills vegetative form of microorganisms but
not spores.
D. It is an agent that kills both vegetative forms of
microorganisms and spores.
E. It is povidone iodine.

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98. The component of Tobacco that increases the risk of
cardiovascular disease.
A. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons D. Nitrogen oxide
B. Nicotinic acid E. Nitrosamines
C. Carbon monoxide
Benzopyrene – increase chance of Cancer

99. Macrofunctions of pharmacists in public health.

A. Policy making in the FDA
B. Lecturing school students
C. Counseling patients in the community
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D. Both B & C
E. All of the above
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100. Public health recommendations to prevent the spread of
HIV include the ff except:
A. Infected people should refrain from donating body fluids and
body tissues.
B. Infected people should refrain from sharing toothbrushes,
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razors and other implements that could be contaminated with

their blood.
C. Devices that have punctured the skin (e.g. needles) of
infected people should not be used for other people and should
be safely discarded.
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D. Infected children should not be allowed to attend school to

prevent further transmission.
E. None of the above