5th Test Solutions

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Mark Group Class : 12th (2023-24) Date : 18/12/2023

720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 05(43) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version
(Write this number
Question Paper Question Booklet Sr. No.
P-11 on your Answer

Sheet) With Solutions
• Today’s Test Syllabus •
Physics : Units and Measurements + Scalars and Vectors + Kinetic Theory Of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat
Transfer + Circular Motion + Laws of Motion + Friction
Chemistry : Mole Concept + Structure of Atom + Chemical Bonding + G.O.C. (Complete)
Biology : Animal Kingdom + The Living World + Cell : The Unit of Life Plant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange
of Gases + Morphology of Flowering Plants
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 20/12/2023
Physics : Rotational Motion + Centre of Mass + Collision
Chemistry : Periodic Table + p-Block Elements (Group : 13, 14)
Biology : Anatomy of Flowering Plants + Structural Organisation In Animals
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC
PHYSICS 2. If the relation between distance x and time t

Section : A is gien by t = 2x2 + 3x, then the retardation of
particle is proportional to [ NCERT Page-46]
1. Statement-1 : Astronomical unit (Au), Parsec (Pc)
and Light year (ly) are units for measuring 1) v3 2) v2
astronomical distances. [ NCERT Page-21] 3) v–3 4) v3/2
Statement-2 : Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly.
Sol. (1): t = 2x2 + 3x
1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct
2) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is dt
incorrect  4x  3
dx
3) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
incorrect
dx 1
4) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is v 
dt 4 x  3
correct
Sol. (2): dv  1  1  4 4
av   2

dx  4 x  3  (4 x  3) (4 x  3)3
 a = –4v3
PCB TEST : 05(43) 1 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
3. An expression for a dimensionless quantity Sol. (4):
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
  kt 
P is given by P  log e   ; where  and 
  x 
are constants, x is distance; k is Boltzmann
constant and t is the temperature. Then the
dimensions of  will be [ NCERT Page-32]

1) [M0L–1T0] 2) [ML0T–2] 6. What will be the projection of vector A  iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
3) [MLT–2] 4) [ML2T–2]

on vector B  iˆ  jˆ ? [ NCERT Page-151]
 kt 
Sol. (3): As    1 1) 2(iˆ  jˆ  kˆ ) 2) 2(iˆ  jˆ  kˆ )
 x 
3) 2( iˆ  ˆj ) 4) (iˆ  ˆj )
 kt  ML2 T 2  
[]      MLT 2 [ E]  [ kBT ] Sol. (4): Projection of A on B is given by
x
  L
   
 A.B A .B ˆ
( A cos ) Bˆ  A  Bˆ  B
Now, [ P] 
[]  AB  B
 
[]
2  iˆ  ˆj  ˆ ˆ
[]  [ P ][]  MLT 2   i  j
2  2 
4. A vector in x-y plane makes an angle of 30° 7. The velocity of a point moving in a straight
with y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of line is v = (12t – 3t2) m/s. Find the path length
vector is 2 3 . The magnitude of x-component covered by the point from the beginning of
of the vector will be [ NCERT Page-71] motion to the instant of stop. [ NCERT Page-44]
1) 24 m 2) 18 m
1 3) 16 m 4) 32 m
1) 2) 6
3 2
Sol. (4): v = 12t – 3t = 0 (time for which velocity
becomes zero)
3) 3 4) 2
12t = 3t2
Sol. (4): t=4s
s 4
2
 ds   (12t  3t )dt
0 0
4
 12t 2 3t 3 
s    32 m
 2 3 0
 8. Match the following : [ NCERT Page-31]
5. When vector A  2iˆ  3 jˆ  2kˆ is subtracted
 Column-I Column-II
from vector B , it gives a vector equal to 2 jˆ .
 a. Surface tension p. Kg m —1 s —1
Then the magnitude of vector B will be b. Pressure q. Kg m s —1
[ NCERT Page-71] c. Viscosity r. Kg m —1 s —2
1) 13 2) 3 d. Impulse s. Kg s —2
3) 4) None 1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p 2) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q

6
3) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q 4) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s
PCB TEST : 05(43) 2 Date : 18/12/2023

11. A river is flowing with
Sol. (2):
a speed of 1 km/hr. A
swimmer wants to
go to point C starting
from A. He swims with
a speed of 5 km/hr at an angle  w.r.t. the river
flow. If AB = BC = 400 m, find the value of
10 cos . [ NCERT Page-86]
1) 2 2) 5
3) 8 4) 6
Sol. (4):
9. Which of the following graphs are not 12. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of
possible for uniform accelerated motion? 20 ms–1 relative to the air. A person is running in
the rain with a velocity of 5 ms–1 and a wind is
also blowing with a speed of 15 ms–1 (both
towards east). Find the angle with the vertical at
which the person should hold his umbrella so
that he may not get drenched. [ NCERT Page-86]
[ NCERT Page-57]
1) tan 1 ( 2) 2) tan 1 (1 / 2)
1) P, Q, R, S 2) P, R, S
3) P, Q, R 4) Q, R, S 3) tan 1 ( 3) 4) 45°
Sol. (2): In figure (P) : Two positions at the same time Sol. (2):
is not possible.
In figure (R) : Speed can never be negative
In figure (S) : Distance never decrease
In figure (Q) : Observe in v-x graph, at one x,
there may be two velocities.
10. Find acceleration of the particle at x = 6 m.
13. A soft ball is thrown at an angle () of 60°

[ NCERT Page-46] above the horizontal. It lands a distances d =
2 m from the edge of a flat roof, whose height is
h = 20 m; the edge of the roof is l = 38 m from the
5 2 7 thrower as shown in figure. At what speed (in
1)  m/s 2)  m/s 2
2 2 m/s) was the softball thrown? [ NCERT Page-78]
7 4
3) m/s 2 4) m/s 2
4 3
Sol. (2):
1) 25 2) 50
3) 30 4) 40
PCB TEST : 05(43) 3 Date : 18/12/2023

Sol. (1): Equation of projectile motion, 17. A train A runs from east to west and another
train B of the same mass runs from west to
1 x2 east at the same speed along the equator. A
y  x tan   g 2 .....(i)
2 v cos2  presses the track with a force F1 and B presses
x = 38 + 2 = 40 m the track with a force F2. [ NCERT Page-104]
y = 18 m 1) F1 > F2 2) F1 < F2
 = 60° 3) F1 = F2 4) insufficient data
On putting all the value in Eq. (i), we get Sol. (1): Conceptual
v = 25 m/s

14. Two stones are projected with the same speed 18. A force F  6t 2 iˆ  4t jˆ is acting on a particle
but making different angles with the of mass 3 kg and the particle is at rest at t = 0,
horizontal. Their horizontal ranges are equal. the velocity of the particle at t = 3 sec
The angle of projection of one is /3 and the
maximum height reached by it is 102 m. Then [ NCERT Page-96]
the maximum height reached by the other in
metre is [ NCERT Page 78] 1) 18iˆ  6 ˆj 2) 18iˆ  12 ˆj
1) 336 2) 224
3) 12iˆ  6 ˆj 4) None of these
3) 56 4) 34
Sol. (4) :
Sol. (1):
15. A car moves at a constant speed on a road as

shown in figure. The normal force by the road
on the car i s NA and NB when it is at the points
A and B respectively [ NCERT Page-104]
19. A particle of mass 100 g is moving in a straight
line. The speed of the particle varies with time,
as shown in the figure. The force acting on
the particle at t = 1 s is [ NCERT Page-95]
1) NA = NB 2) NA > NB
3) NA < NB
4) Insufficient information to decide the relation
of NA and NB
Sol. (3): Conceptual
16. Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle
with a string attached to it. The water does
not fall down even when the bucket is inverted 1) 50 N 2) 5 N
at the top of its path. We conclude that in this
position [ NCERT Page-104] 3) 0.5 N 4) 0.05 N
1) mg = mv2 / r Sol. (3):
2) mg is greater than mv2 / r
3) mg is not greater than mv2 / r
4) mg is not less than mv2 / r
PCB TEST : 05(43) 4 Date : 18/12/2023

20. A block of mass 5 kg is 22. A block kept on a rough
hanging from a inclined plane as shown
string, and a in figure, remains at rest
horizontal force upto a maximum force
acts on the block. 2 N down the inclined
Find the horizontal plane. The maximum
force so that the block external force up the inclined plane that does
will remain in equilibrium. [ NCERT Page-99]
not move the block is 10 N. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and the plane
1) 5 3 kgf 2) 5 3 N is (Take g = 10 m/s2) [ NCERT Page-102]
5 3 3
3) 5 3 dyne 4) kgf 1) 2)
3 2 4
Sol. (1): 1 2
3) 4)
2 3
Sol. (1):
= mg sin 30°
21. A system of two blocks of

masses m = 2 kg and M = 23. Given in the figure are two
8 kg is placed on a
blocks A and B of weight
smooth table as shown
20 N and 100 N, respectively.
in figure. The coefficient
These are being pressed
of static friction between two blocks is 0.5. The against a wall by a force F
maximum horizontal force F that can be as shown. If the coefficient
applied to the block of mass M so that the of friction between the
blocks move together will be [ NCERT Page-101] blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall
1) 9.8 N 2) 39.2 N is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall
on block B is [ NCERT Page-101]
3) 49 N 4) 78.4 N
1) 120 N 2) 150 N
Sol. (3): 3) 100 N 4) 80 N
Sol. (1):
PCB TEST : 05(43) 5 Date : 18/12/2023

24. Statement-1 : The average momentum of a 26. Match the C p/C v ratio for ideal gases with
molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on different type of molecules: [ NCERT Page-334]
temperature. [ NCERT Page-330]
Column-I Column-II
Statement-2 : The rms speed of oxygen molecules
Molecule type Cp / Cv
in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and
the oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen a. Monoatomic p. 7 /5
atoms, the rms speed will become 2v. Diatomic rigid
b. q. 9 /7
1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true molecules
2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are false Diatomic non-rigid
c. r. 4 /3
molecules
3) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
Triatomic rigid
4) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true d. s. 5 /3
molecules
Sol. (4): Due to random motion of gas molecules,
1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r 2) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
average momentum Pavg = 0, so Pavg do not
depend on temperature. 3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r 4) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s
3RT
vrms  27. The amount of heat needed to raise the
M temperature of 4 moles of a rigid diatomic gas
When temperature is doubled, Trms = 2T from 0°C to 50°C when no work is done is
_____. (R is the universal gas constant)
M
M new  [ NCERT Page-307]
2
1) 250 R 2) 750 R
2T 3) 175 R 4) 500 R
vnew M/2 Sol. (4): Change in temperature, T = 50 K
 ( vnew  2v)
v T Sp. heat at constant volume for diatomic gas,
M
5R
25. A vessel contains 14 g of nitrogen gas at a Cv 
2
temperature of 27°C. The amount of heat to be
transferred to the gas to double the r.m.s. speed As work done = 0, it means the process is
of its molecules will be isochoric
Using first law of thermodynamics,
(Take R = 8.32 J mol–1 k–1) [ NCERT Page-330]
1) 2229 J 2) 5616 J Q  U  W  Q  U
3) 9360 J 4) 13.104 J 5R
 nC v T  4   50  500 R
2
3RT Tf
Sol. (3): vrms  and vrms f  2 vrmsi  2 28. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the
M0 Ti fractional change in its pressure is equal to
(where  is the ratio of specific heas)
 Tf  4Ti  1200 k
[ NCERT Page-312]
14 1
Now, Tf = 1200 K, Ti = 300 K, n   V dV
28 2 1)  2) 
dV V
1 5R
So, Q  nC v T    900 1 dV dV
2 2 3)  4)
 V V
Q = 9360 J
PCB TEST : 05(43) 6 Date : 18/12/2023

https://t.me/RCCtestseries

Sol. (2): In adiabatic process PV= constant 31. Two cylindrical rods of same material have
Differentiating both sides, we get their lengths in the ratio 2 : 1 and radii in the
ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their thermal
 ( P )(  )V  1dV  V  dP  0 conductivities will be
1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 1
P dP dV 3) 8 : 1 4) 1 : 2
 dP  dV  
V P V Sol. (1): Since material is same, their conductivities
29. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic will be same.
gas becomes 32 times its initial value. The final 32. Four rods of same material,
pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial having the same cross-
pressure. The value of n is [ NCERT Page-312] sections and lengths are
1) 32 2) 326 joined, as shown. The
3) 128 4) 1 / 32 temperature of junction of
Sol. (3): In adiabatic process, four rods will be [ NCERT Page-292]
1) 20°C 2) 30°C
PV = constant
3) 45°C 4) 60°C

m  m
 P    constant  V   Sol. (3): KA(90  )  KA(   30)  KA(   0)  KA(   60)
   l l l l
As mass is constant    45C
P   
33. Tw o rods A and B of different materials are
welded together as shown
If Pi and Pf be the initial and final pressure of the
gas and i and f be the initial and final density in the figure. Their
of the gas. Then thermal conductivities
are k1 and k2. The thermal

Pf  f  conductivity of the
7 /5
   (32) composite rod will be [ NCERT Page-292]
Pi  i 

3( k1  k2 )
nP 1) 2) k1  k2
 i  (2 5 )7 / 5  2 7  n  2 7  128 2
Pi
k1  k2
30. A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an 3) 2( k1  k2 ) 4)
2
adiabatic process at room temperature. The
relation between temperature and volume for 1 1 1
this process is TVx = constant, then x is Sol. (4): In parallel R  R  R
eq 1 2
[ NCERT Page-312]
keq (2 A) k1 A k2 A
3 2  
1) 2) l l l
5 5
k1  k2
keq 
2 5 2
3) 4)
3 3 34. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to
Sol. (2): Equation of adiabatic change is 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in
the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the
TV–1 = constant
surroundings is [ NCERT Page-296]
7 7 2 1) 45°C 2) 20°C
Put   , we get :   1   1 x 
5 5 5 3) 42°C 4) 10°C
PCB TEST : 05(43) 7 Date : 18/12/2023

Sol. (1): By Newton’s law of cooling, C 
37. The ratio of specific heats  P  in terms of degree
1  2    2   CV 
 k 1  0   0  45
t  2  of f reedom (f) is given by [ NCERT Page-333]
35. In a vernier calipers 10 divisions of vernier  f  2

scale is equal to the 9 divisions of main scale. 1)  1   2)  1  
 3  f
When both jaws of vernier calipers touch each
other, the zero of the vernier scale is shifted to  f  1
the left of zero of the main scale and 4th vernier 3)  1   4)  1  
 2  f
scale division exactly coincides with the main
scale reading. One main scale division is equal f f 
to 1 mm. While measuing diameter of a Sol. (2): We have C v  R and C p    1  R
2 2 
spherical body, the body is held between two
jaws. It is now observed that zero of the vernier 2
1
scale lies between 30 and 31 divisions of main Cp f 2 2
So,      1 1
scale reading and 6 th vernier scale division Cv f f f
exactly coincides with the main scale reading. 2
The diameter of the spherical body will be
38. A stone of mass m, tied to a string is being
1) 3.02 cm 2) 3.06 cm whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed.
3) 3.12 cm 4) 3.20 cm The tension in the string is [ NCERT Page-122]
Sol. (3): Given that, 1 M.S.D. = 1 mm 1) same throughout the motion
9 M.S.D. = 10 V.S.D. 2) minimum at the highest position of the
1 V.S.D. = 0.9 M.S.D. = 0.9 mm circular path
L.C. of vernier caliper = 1 – 0.9 = 0.1 mm 3) minimum at the lowest position of the circular
= 0.01 cm zero error path
= –(10 – 4) × 0.1 mm = –0.6 mm 4) minimum when the rope is in the horizontal
position
The diameter of the spherical body
Sol. (2):
= M.S.R. + V.S.R. – Zero error
= 3 cm + 6 × 0.01 – [–0.06]
= 3 + 0.06 + 0.06 = 3.12 cm
Section : B
36. If the rms speed of oxygen molecules at 0°C is
160 m/s, find the rms speed of hydrogen
molecules at 0°C. [ NCERT Page-330]
1) 640 m/s 2) 40 m/s 39. A block of mass 40 kg slides over a surface,
when a mass of 4 kg is suspended through an
3) 80 m/s 4) 332 m/s
inextensible massless string passing over
Sol. (1): Root mean square speed is given by frictionless pulley as shown below. The
3KT 1 coefficient of kinetic friction between the
vrms   vrms  surface and block is 0.02. The acceleration of
M M
block is (Given g = 10 ms–2) [ NCERT Page-112]
( vrms )O2 M H2 ( vrms )O2 2 1
    
( vrms )H MO ( vrms ) H 32 4
2 2 2
 ( vrms ) H2  4  ( vrms ) O2 [ ( vrms )O2  160 m/s]

1) 1 ms–2 2) 1/5 ms–2
= 4 × 160 = 640 m/s 3) 4/5 ms–2 4) 8/11 ms–2
PCB TEST : 05(43) 8 Date : 18/12/2023

Sol. (4): For 4 kg block 43. When a particle moves in a circle with a
4g – T = 4a .....(i) uniform speed [ NCERT Page-80]
For 40 kg block 1) its velocity and acceleration are both constant
T  40 g  0.02  40 a [ fk  µmg] 2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration
changes
T – 8 = 40a .....(ii)
3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
changes
40 – 8 = 44a
4) Its velocity and acceleration both changes
32 8 Sol. (4): Conceptual
a  m/s 2
44 11
44. The horizontal range and the maximum
40. A 50 kg mass is kept on the floor. It explodes height of a projectile are equal. The angle of
into two pieces. One piece of mass of 20 kg projection of the projectile is [ NCERT Page-78]
starts moving with the speed of 3 m/s in the
direction opposite to the other. What is the 1)   tan 1 (2) 2)   45
speed of the other piece? [ NCERT Page-93]
1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s 1  1 
3)   tan   4)   tan 1 (4)
3) 2 m/s 4) Zero 4
 
Sol. (3): m1 v1   m2 v2
2u2 sin  cos  u2 sin 2 
Sol. (4): R  H max  g

2g
20  3  30  v2
v2  2 m/s (opposite direction)  tan   4    tan1 (4)
41. The position-time graph of a particle of mass 45. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km
0.1 kg is given. The impulse at t = 2 s is with a constant speed of 2 km/hr, and
immediately walks back with a constant
speed of 3 km/hr. His average speed in km/hr,
for round trip is [ NCERT Page-42]
1) 10 / 7 2) 20 / 7
[ NCERT Page-96]
3) 3.5 4) 12 / 5
2v1 v2 2  2  3 12
1) –0.2 kg m/s 2) –0.02 kg m/s Sol. (4):  v    km/hr
v1  v 2 23 5
3) –0.1 kg m/s 4) –0.4 kg m/s
   
46. If A  B  B  A , then the angle between A and
Sol. (1): J  p  mv  mu  0.1  (4  0) B is [ NCERT Page-115]
(2  0)
 
1 1
1) 2)
 0.2 kg m s   0.2 kg m s 2 3
42. A stone of mass m tied to a string of length l is 
3)  4)
rotated in a circle with the other end of the 4
string as the centre. The speed of the stone is    
Sol. (3): A  B  B  A  0
v. If the string breaks, the stone will move    
[ NCERT Page-122]  AB AB  0
 
1) towards the centre 2) away from the centre A B  0
3) along a tangent 4) will stop Angle between them is 0,  or 2
Sol. (3): Conceptual From the given option,  = 
PCB TEST : 05(43) 9 Date : 18/12/2023


  1
47. If A  (2iˆ  3 jˆ  kˆ ) m and B  (iˆ  2 jˆ  2kˆ ) m .
49. Dimension of   should be equal to
 0 0
The magnitude of component of vector A along
 [ NCERT Page-31]
vector B will be _____ m. [ NCERT Page-115]
T2 L
1) 2 2) 4 1) 2)
L2 T
3) 6 4) 5
L2 T
3) 4)
Sol. (1): T2 L
1 2  1  2 1 2 2 2
Sol. (3):    c     [c ]  [LT ]  [L T ]
0 0  
 0 0
 1 
 c  
  0 0 
 
50. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown
for gas, the work done is [ NCERT Page-308]
48. The maximum error in the measurement of
resistance, current and time for which current
flows in an electrical circuit are 1%, 2% and
3% respectively. The maximum percentage
error in the detection of the dissipated heat
will be [ NCERT Page-27]
1) 2 2) 4
3) 6 4) 8
1) 30 J 2) 10 J
Sol. (4): Dissipated heat is given as,
3) 1 J 4) 5 J
EH = I2R × t Sol. (2): Total work done by the gas during the cycle
is equal to area of triangle ABC.
E 2 I R T
 100   100   100   100 As cyclic process is CW. So sign will be +ve.
E I R T
1
 22 1 3  8 W   4  5  10 J
2
PCB TEST : 05(43) 10 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
CHEMISTRY 53. Which of the following selected chains is
SECTION : A correct to name the given compound according
51. Select the correct order of reactivity of to IUPAC system. [New NCERT Page-264]
following compound with HX.
1)
a) b) c)
2)
d) e)
[New NCERT Page-276]

1) b > d > e > a > c 2) a > b > c > d > e 3)
3) b > c > d > a > e 4) c > b > a > d > e
Sol. (1)
4)
52. How many of the following species are
aromatic ? [New NCERT Page-261]
Sol. (4)
54. Match the ions given in Column-I with their
, , , , , , nature given in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
•• 
i) CH3  O CH  CH3 a) Stable due to resonance
••
, , , ii) F 3 C + b) Destabilised due to

inductive effect
CH3
1) 7 2) 4 |
3) 5 4) 6 iii) CH3  C c) Stabilised by hyper -
|
CH3
conjugation
Sol. (1)

iv) CH 3  C H  CH 3 d) A secondary carbocation.
1) (i) - (a, c) ; (ii) - (a, b) ; (iii) - (b) ; (iv) - (c, d)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) (i) - (a, c, d) ; (ii) - (a, d) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (b, d)

3) (i) - (a, c, d) ; (ii) - (b) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (a, c)
4) (i) - (b) ; (ii) - (a, b) ; (iii) - (a, c, d) ; (iv) - (c, d)
Sol. (4)
PCB TEST - 05(42) 11 Date : 18/12/2023

55. Match the following : [New NCERT Page-270] 58. Statement I : The  electrons of C–H bond of
Column I Column II the alkyl group enter into partial conjugation with
a. CH 3 COOH and i. metamers the attached unsaturated system or with the
HCOOCH3 unshared p-orbital
b. CH 3 –CH 2 –CCH ii. position Statement II : Hyperconjugation is a permanent
and CH3 –CC–CH 3 isomers effect.
c. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 iii. tautomers [New NCERT Page-277]
and CH 3 –CH(NH 2 )–CH 3 1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct
d. CH 3 CH 2 OH and iv. functional 2) Statement I and Statement II both are
(CH 3 ) 2 O isomer incorrect
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iv 3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv incorrect
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
4) a-iv, b-ii, c-ii, d-iv correct
Sol. (4) Sol. (1)
56. Match the following : [New NCERT Page-272] 59. Select the pair of monovalent functional
Column I Column II group.
(Reagents) (Nature) 1) Carboxylic acid, ester, alcohol
a. (CN) – i. Neutral nucleophile 2) Carboxylic acid, anhydride, ether
b. (ONO) – ii. Electrophile 3) Carboxylic acid, aldehyde, alcohol
c. NH 3 iii. Ambident nucleophile 4) Anhydride, aldehyde, carboxylic acid
d. AlCl 3 iv. Both EI and Nu
1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii Sol. (3)
Sol. (2) 60. Select the correct statement about the given
structure.
57. Select the correct statement about Inductive

effect.
a. Inductive effect passed on to the subsequent
bonds.
b. The effect decrease slowly as the no. of
1) Ketonic and both aldhyde group acts as preffix
intervening bonds increases.
and carboxylic acid as suffix.
c. It becomes zero or negligible after 3-4
2) Ketonic group along with carboxylic acid acts
carbon atom.
as prefix while both ester group acts as suffix.
d. It is related to withdraw or donate electron
3) Ester attached with carbon topee acts as suffix
Density to attached group.
while other groups acts as a prefix.
4) Both ester group along with ketonic group
1) a and b 2) b, d and c
acts as a Prefix and Carboxylic acid group acts
3) a, c and d 4) a, b and d
as a suffix.
RCC** RCC** RCC**
Sol. (3) Sol. (4)
PCB TEST - 05(42) 12 Date : 18/12/2023

61. Which one of the following is incorrect order 64. The number of correct option is
a) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (ionic radius) a) I  Br  Cl  F (polarisability)
+ + + + +
b) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (hydrated radius)
b) Li   Na   K   Rb  (polarisation power)
+ + + + +
c) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (extent of hydration)
c) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4 (decreasing ionic
1) a only 2) b only character)
3) c only 4) b and c only d) H2  H 2 (order of stability)
1) 1 2) 2
Sol. (3)
3) 3 4) 4
62. Column-I Column-II Sol. (4)
a. O 3 i. Covalent bond
b. H 2 O (l) ii. Co-ordinate bond
c. CuSO 4 .5H 2 O iii. Hydrogen bond 65. Column-I Column-II
d. (NH 4 )2 SO 4 iv. Ionic bond a. ICl2 i. Participation of d-orbitals in

[New NCERT Page102,106,132,] hybridisation
1) a-i; b-i, ii; c-i, ii, iv, iv; d-i, ii, iii b. NH2 ii. Hybrid orbitals contain 25%
2) a-i, ii; b-ii, iv; c-i, ii, iii; d-i, iii, iv s-character
3) a-i, ii; b-i, iii; c-i, ii, iii, iv; d-i, ii, iv c. I3 iii. Central atom contains lp of
4) a-i; b-ii; c-i, iii, iv; d-i, iii electrons
Sol. (3) d. SO 4 2–
iv. Non-linear geometry
63. Which of the folloing is incorrectly match? 1) a-ii, iii; b-i, ii, iv; c-i, iii; d-ii, iv
[New NCERT Page-124] 2) a-i, iii; b-ii, iii, iv; c-i, iii; d-ii, iv
3) a-i, iii; b-ii, iii, iv; c-ii, iv; d-i, ii
Hybri Geometry Orbitals use
disation 4) a-i, iii; b-i, ii, iv; c-i, iii; d-ii, iv
1) sp3 d Trigonal s + px + py + pz + d z 2
bipyramidal
Sol. (2)
2) sp 3d3 Pentagonal s+px+py+pz+ d x 2  y2 + d z2 +dxy
bipyramidal
3) sp 3d2 Capped s+px+ py+pz+ d x2 y2 + d z2

octahedral
4) sp 3 Tetrahedral s + px + py + pz
Sol. (3)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
PCB TEST - 05(42) 13 Date : 18/12/2023

66. Match the pair [New NCERT Page-126] 69. Consider the molecules CH4 , NH3 and H2 O.
Which of the given statements is false ?
Column I Column II
Nodal Plane
1) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is smaller than
a. 1s, 2s, 2pz i. 2 the H–N–H bond angle in NH3
b. *1s, *2s, *2pz ii. 0 2) The H–C–H bond angle in CH4 is larger than
2p x , 2p y the H–N–H bond angle in NH3
c. *2p x, *2p y iii. 1 3) The H–C–H bond angle in CH4, the H–N–H
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i bond angle in NH3 , and the H–O–H bond
angle in H2O are all greater than 90°
3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
4) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than
Sol. (2)
the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
67. Consider the following molecules.
Sol. (4)
i. CH 2 Cl 2 ii. BF 3
70. Statement I : The electronic structure of O3 is
+
iii. Cl Cl iv. CO 2 O
O O–
Species with zero dipole moment is/are O
Statement II : structure is not allowed
[New NCERT Page-111] O O
1) i, iii and iv 2) iii and iv because octet around O cannot be expanded.
3) i, ii, iii and iv 4) ii, iii and iv [New NCERT Page-109]
1) Statement I is true, Statement II is true;
Statement II is a correct explanation for
Sol (4) Statement I.
2) Statement I is true, Statement II is true;
Statement II is Not a correct explanation for
Statement I.
3) Statement I is true; Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
Sol. (1)Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement-I.
71. The bond length of H2+, H2– and H2 are in the
order [N.B. 129]
68. The molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are 1) H2+ > H2 > H2– 2) H2 > H2+ > H2–
[New NCERT Page-115] 3) H2– > H2 > H2+ 4) H2– > H2+ > H2
1) The same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons, Sol. (4)B.O. in H2 = 1/2 (3 – 0) = 1
respectively B.O. in H2+ = 1/2(1 – 1) = 1/2
2) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons B.O. in H2– = 1/2(2 – 1) = 1/2
respectively Although H2+ and H2– have the same bond order,
3) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons, H2– has longer bond length than H2+ because of
RCC** RCC** RCC**
respectively the presence of one electron in the antibonding

4) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons, orbital which repels the two H-atoms from
coming close. Further, because of larger B.O., H2
respectively
molecule has the shortest bond length. Thus, the
Sol. (4) actual order is :
H2– > H2+ > H2
PCB TEST - 05(42) 14 Date : 18/12/2023
72. Identify the incorrect match 77. Statement-I : The angular momnetum of d-
[New NCERT Pg-55] h
orbitals is 6 .
Column I Column II 2
a) n = 3 l = 3 i) when n = 3, l Statement-II : Angular momnetum of electron
m = 0 s = +1/2 can not be 3
nh
b) n = 5 l = 2 ii) when l = 2, m in orbit is mvr  .
2
m = 3 s = +1/2 can not be 3
[New NCERT Pg-57]
c) n = 4 l = 2 iii) when l = 2, s
1) If both the statement are True and Statement
m=1 s=0 can be 0
II is the correct explanation of statement I
d) n = 0 l = 1 iv) n can not be zero
2) If both the statement are True and Statement
m = s = –1/2 II is not the correct explanation of statement I
1) a-i 2) b-ii 3) If statement I is true and Statement II is false
3) c-iii 4) d-iv 4) IF statement I is false and Statement II is true
Sol. (3)
Sol. (2)
73. If the speed of electron in the Bohr’s first orbit
of hydrogen atoms is x, the speed of the 78. Statement-I : For n = 3, l may be 0, 1 and 2 and
electron in the third Bohr’s orbit is m may be 0; 0 ± 1 ; 0 ± 1 and ± 2.
[New NCERT Pg-48] Statement-II : For each value of n, there are 0 to
(n – 1) possible values of l and for each value of l,
1) x / 9 2) x / 3
there are 0 to ±l values of m.
3) 3x 4) 9x
[New NCERT Pg-56]
Sol. (2): 1) If both the statement are True and Statement
74. The electronic transition from n = 2 to n = 1 II is the correct explanation of statement I
will produce shortest wavelength in 2) If both the statement are True and Statement
[New NCERT Pg-45] II is not the correct explanation of statement I
1) H-atom 2) D-atom 3) If statement I is true and Statement II is false
3) He+ ion 4) Li2+ ion 4) IF statement I is false and Statement II is true
Sol. (4): Sol. (1)

79. Assertion : 1 mole of water is equal to
6.023 × 1023 molecules.
75. Which d-orbital has different shape from rest
Reason : The mass of one mole of a substance in
of all d-orbitals [New NCERT Pg-59]
grams is called the molar mass.
1) d x2  y2 2) d z2 [New NCERT Pg-18]
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
3) d x2 y 4) d xy is the correct explanation of assertion.
Sol. (2): All d-orbitals except d z2 have four lobes 2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion
76. Which orbital is nearest to the nucleus
RCC** RCC** RCC**
3) Assertion is true but reason is false

[New NCERT Pg-59]
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
1) 5d 2) 6s
3) 6p 4) 4f Sol. (2)
Sol. (4): 4th shell is more closer; No doubt its energy
may be more
PCB TEST - 05(42) 15 Date : 18/12/2023

80. A sample of pure calcium weighing 1.35 g was
quantitatively converted to 1.88 g of pure Sol. (1)
CaO. Atomic mass of calcium is
[New NCERT Pg-20]
1) 20 2) 40
3) 60 4) 30
Sol. (2)
81. 120 g of CaO reacts with 32g of SO2. The mass 83. Haemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by mass.
of CaSO3 produced is (Atomic mass of Ca and The number of Fe atoms in 3.3g of haemoglobin
S are 40 and 32 respectively) is (Given : Atomic mass of Fe is 56 u, N A =
[New NCERT Pg-20] 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 ) [New NCERT Pg-82]
1) 35 g 2) 48 g 1) 1.21 × 105 2) 12.0 × 1016
3) 55 g 4) 60 g 3) 1.21 × 1020 4) 3.4 × 1022
Sol. (3)
Sol. (4)
84. For the following reaction, the mas sof water

produced from 445 g of C57H110O6 is
2C57H110O6(s) + 163O2(g)  114CO2(g) + 110H2O(l)
[New NCERT Pg-20]
1) 890 g 2) 490 g
3) 445 g 4) 495 g
82. Sulphur reacts with potassium superoxide
(KO2 ) as Sol. (4)
2KO2 + S 
 K2SO4
How many moles of K2SO 4 will be formed
RCC** RCC** RCC**
when 1 mole of each KO2 and S is reacted?

[New NCERT Pg-20]
1) 0.5 2) 1
3) 2 4) 4
PCB TEST - 05(42) 16 Date : 18/12/2023

88. Uncertainty in position and momentum are
85. Avogadro’s number is the number of
molecules present in equal Uncertainty in velocity is
a. 22.4 litres of a gas at NTP [New NCERT Pg-52]
b. 1g molecules of a substnace h h
c. 32g of oxygen [New NCERT Pg-18] 1) 2)
 2
1) a and b 2) b and c
1 h
3) a, b and c 4) only b 3) 4) None of these
2m 
Sol. (3):
Sol. (3)
SECTION : B
86. Column I Column II
K .E
a) i) 2
P.E
89. The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen is
1 0.53Å. The radius of second orbit of He +
b) P.E + 2 K.E ii)  would be [New NCERT Pg-48]
2
1) 0.53Å 2) 0.26Å
P.E
c) iii) -1 3) 2.12Å 4) 1.06Å
T .E
K .E Sol. (4):
d) iv) 0
T .E 90. The significance of  200 is :
[New NCERT Pg-47] [New NCERT Pg-60]
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 1) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 2) n = 2, l = 3, m = 0
3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 3) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 4) n = 0, l = 0, m = 0
Sol. (1)
Sol. (1)
87. 8g of O2 has the same number of molecules as:
91. 1.84 g mixture of CaCO 3 and MgCO 3 was
a. 7g of CO b. 14 g of CO heated to a constant weight till 0.96 g residue
c. 28 g of CO d. 11 g of CO2 formed. % ( by mass) of MgCO3 in sample was
1) a and b 2) b and c [New NCERT Pg-20]
3) c and d 4) a and d 1) 45.66% 2) 54.34%
3) 30% 4) 70%
Sol. (4)
Sol. (1)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
PCB TEST - 05(42) 17 Date : 18/12/2023

93. The minimum amount of O2(g) consumed per
gram of reactant is for the reaction :
(Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24,
P = 31, C = 12, H = 1) [New NCERT Pg-20]
1) 2Mg(s) + O2(g)  2MgO(s)
2) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)  2Fe2O3(s)
3) C3H6(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
4) P4(s) + 5O2(g)  P4O10(s)
Sol. (2)
94. Which statements are correct ?

a. An empirical formula shows the relative
number of atoms of each element present
in molecule
92. Calculate volume of O2 formed at STP when 2 b. An empirical formula shows the relative
moles of MnO2 react with 2 moles of H2O2 in number of atoms of each element present
excess of H2SO4 as per following reaction. only in single molecule of compound
MnO2 + H2O2 + H2SO4  MnSO4 + 2H2O + O2 c. A molecular formula shows the actual
[New NCERT Pg-20] number of atoms of each element present
1) 5.6 L 2) 22.4 L in single molecule of compound
3) 44.8 L 4) 108 L d. A structure formula shows how the atoms
are joined by chemical bonds
[New NCERT Pg-19]
Sol. (3)
1) a, b and c 2) b and d
3) a and c 4) a, c and d
Sol. (4)
95. Which one of the following is incorrect?
1) O2  O2  O2  O 22 (B.O.)
2) O2  O2  O 2  O22 (B.L.)

RCC** RCC** RCC**
3) N 2  N2 (stability) 4) N 2  N2 (B.L.)
Sol. (4)
PCB TEST - 05(42) 18 Date : 18/12/2023

99. Select true (T) and false (F) statements
96. Which of the following species are
hypervalent? i. conformers are result by the rotation about
a single bond
(1)ClO 4 – (2)BF 3
ii. Conformers can easily be interconverted at
(3)SO 4 2– (4)CO 3 2–
room temperature
1) 1, 2, 3 2) 1, 3
iii. Conformers can be isolated
3) 3, 4 4) 1, 2
1) TFF 2) TTF
3) TTT 4) TFT
Sol. (2)
Sol. (2)
100. Match the following

97. The I3 ion has [New NCERT Page-271,277]
Column I Column II
1) Five equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom
(Carbocation) (Stability of order)
and two axial bonding pairs in a trigonal
 
bipyramidal arrangement CH2 CH2
2) Five equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom
and two axial bonding pairs in a pentagonal a. I. II. i. I >II > III > IV
bipyramial arrangement
CD3
3) Three equatorial lone pairs on the central I
 
atom and two axial bonding pairs in a trigonal CH2 CH2
bipyramidal arrangement
4) Two equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom III. IV.
and three axial bonding pairs in a trigonal CT3 CH3
bipyramidal arrangement
 Me 
CH CH2
Sol. (3)
b. I. II. ii. I > III > II > IV
 
CH2 CH2
98. Select true (T) adn false (F) statement for III. IV.
compound P and Q [New NCERT Page-270]
 
CH2 CH2
(P) (Q)
c. I. II. iii. IV > II > III > I
S-1 P and Q are position isomer
S-2 P is 2° alcohol  
CH2 CH2
S-3 Q is 1° alcohol
RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) TTT 2) TFT III. IV.

3) FFT 4) FTT
Sol. (3) 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii

3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
Sol. (2)
PCB TEST - 05(42) 19 Date : 18/12/2023
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : R-33
Section-C : Biology 104. Four chambered heart is present in all except :-
[ Pg. 58]
Section-A
1) Crocodilus 2) Alligator
101. A student done the cell fractionation of tissue
3) Corvus 4) Calotes
and forgot to label his tubes. The content of two
tubes he analyzed and he found that ‘A’ tube Ans. (4)
has- abundant vesicles filled with hydrolytic 105. Which one is not a platyhelminthes?
enzymes and ‘B’ tube has single membrane [ Pg. 51]
organelle with attached ribosomes. Probably 1) Tapeworm 2) Liver fluke
tube A & B contain [ NCERT Pg. 133, 134]
3) Planaria 4) Hookworm
1) A - Peroxisome; B - Ribosome
Ans. (4)
2) A - Chloroplast; B - Mitochondria
106. Why the hydrophobic tails of phospholipid
3) A - Lysosome; B - RER
molecules are towards inner side of the cell
4) A - RER; B - SER membrane? [ NCERT Pg. 131]
Ans. (3)
1) To protect the tails from the aqueous
102. According to the fluid mosaic model of the cell environment.
membrane, the proteins are located :
2) To form strong bonds
1) as a continuous layer over the outer surface of
3) To make the cell membrane a compact
the membrane only
structure.
2) as a continuous layer over the inner surface of
4) To protect the head of phospholipid molecule
the membrane only
from water.
3) On the surface (as peripheral proteins) and in
the interior of the membrane (as inegral Ans. (1)
proteins) 107. Which of the following is not a mammal?
4) in the middle of the membrane, between the [ Pg. 60]
lipid layers only 1) Corvus 2) Delphinus
Ans. (3) 3) Canis 4) Felis
103. Fill in the blanks: [ NCERT Pg. 137, 138] Ans. (1)
I. Centrioles are __a__ structures that lie __b__ 108. Statement I : At a number of places the nuclear
to each other. envelope is interrupted by minute pores.
II. Centriole has an organisation like __c__ Statement II : Material of nucleus stained by the
III. Centriole are made up of nine evenly spaces acidic dye was given the name chromatin by
peripheral fibrils of __d__ protein. Flemming. [ NCERT Pg. 138]
IV. Each peripheral fibril of centriole is a __e__ 1) Statement I is correct and statement II is
V. Central part of the proximal region of the wrong.
centriole is called __f__ which is 2) Both the statements I and II are correct.
proteinaceous
3) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
Choose the correct option for blanks (a to f) : correct.
1) a-spherical; b-parallel, c-cart wheel, d-flagellin,
4) Both the statements I and II are wrong.
d-doublet, f-bridge
Ans. (1)
2) a-cylindrical; b-perpendicular, c-cart wheel,
d-tubulin, e-triplet, f-hub 109. In amphibians, heart is ________ chambered.
3) a-cylindrical; b-perpendicular, c-cart wheel, [ Pg. 57]
d-tubulin, e-doublet, f-hub 1) Two 2) Three
4) a-spherical; b-perpendicular, c-cart wheel, 3) Four 4) None of these
d-tubulin, e-triplet, f-hub Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 20 Date : 18/12/2023

110. Classification of chromosomes is based on - 116. Non-endomembrane organelles perform all
[ NCERT Pg. 139] functions except - [ NCERT Pg. 133, Summary]
1) Size of satellite 1) Kreb cycle
2) Number of Telomers 2) Dark reaction
3) Position of centromere 3) Glycogen metabolism
4) Position of secondary constriction 4) Photorespiration
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
111. The cells of pancreas which is very active in the 117. Cells which are physiologically more active,
synthesis & secretion of Insulin, a proteineceous have - [ NCERT Pg. 134]
hormone would be expected to have? 1) Less number of mitochondria
[ NCERT Pg. 133] 2) More number of mitochondria
1) equal amount of RER & SER 3) No relation between physiological activity and
2) more SER than RER numbe of mitochondria
3) more RER than SER 4) No mitochondria, to provide more space in
cytoplasm for metabolic activities
4) more nucleii and RER
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
118. Heart of fishes is :- [ Pg. 56-57]
112. Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of
erythrocytes of human being is : 1) One chambered
[NCERT Pg. 131 ] 2) Two chambered
1) 1.8 2) 1.3 3) Three chambered
3) 0.80 4) 0.60 4) Four chambered
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
113. Which of the following is considered as ideal 119. Here ‘S’ (Svedberg’s unit) stands for
cell to study structure of plasma membrane? sedimentation coefficient then what are (A) &
(B) for ribosomes present on outer nuclear
[NCERT Pg. 131]
membrane.
1) Human neutrophils
2) Human neurone cell
3) Human erythrocyte
4) Human cardiac cell
Ans. (3)
114. Swim bladder or air bladder is present :-
[ Pg. 56] 1) A - 40S, B - 60S 2) A - 60S, B - 40S
1) Fish 3) A - 80S, B - 60S 4) A - 40S, B - 80S
2) Amphibia Ans. (2)
3) Aquatic reptillia 120. Chemotaxonomy is connected with
4) Aquatic mammals [NCERT Pg. 29]
Ans. (1) 1) classification of chemicals found in plant.
115. There is an extensive compartmentalization of 2) use of phytochemical data in systematic
cytoplasm through membrane bound organelles botany.
in all of the following except - [ NCERT Pg. 129] 3) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets.
1) Protista 2) PPLO 4) use of statistical methods in chemical yielding
3) Fungi 4) Animal cell plants.
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 21 Date : 18/12/2023


121. Roundworms/Nematodes are :- [ Pg. 52] 126. In class phaeophyceae, the plant is usually
1) Free living attached to the substratum by a _A_ and has a
stalk, the _B_ and leaf like photosynthetic organ-
2) Aquatic or terrestrial
the _C_. [ NCERT Pg. 33]
3) Parasitic on animals and plants 1) A-holdfast, B-stipe, C-frond
4) All of these 2) A-stipe, B-holdfast, c-frond
Ans. (4) 3) A-frond, B-stipe, c-holdfast
122. Why rhodophyta exhibit a red colour? 4) A-stipe, B-frond, C-holdfast
[ NCERT Pg. 33] Ans. (1)
1) Since most rhodophyta grow at great depths, 127. Fern plant is a [ NCERT Pg. 36-38]
the chlorophyll can only absorb light in the red 1) haploid gametophyte
area of the spectrum. 2) diploid gametophyte
2) The red pigment of Rhodophytes, absorb all 3) diploid sporophyte
the light & reflect red light wavelength mostly.
4) haploid sporophyte
3) Red pigment of rhodophyta absorbs all the Ans. (3)
light waves.
128. Mosses are of great ecological importance
4) The light reaching the greatest depth in water because of [ NCERT Pg. 35]
is in the blue-green region of the spectrum, is
1) its contribution to prevent soil erosion.
absorbed by phycoerythrin.
2) its contribution in ecological succession.
Ans. (2)
3) its capability to remove CO from the
123. Which of the following is not a body part of atmosphere.
Balanoglossus? [ Pg. 54]
4) both (1) and (2)
1) Proboscis Ans. (4)
2) Collar 129. Phylum whose organism are mostly
3) Trunk endoparasites is :- [ Pg. 51]
4) Neck 1) Platyhelminthes 2) Annelida
Ans. (4) 3) Arthropoda 4) Mollusca
124. What is the number and position of insertions Ans. (1)
of flagella inrhodophyceae class of algae? 130. Bryophytes resemble algae in the following
[ NCERT Pg. 33] aspects [ NCERT Pg. 34, 35]
1) filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues
1) 2-8, equal, apical
and autotrophic nutrition
2) 2, unequal, lateral
2) diferentiation of plant body into root, stem and
3) 2-6, equal, lateral leaves and autotrophic nutrition
4) Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae 3) thallus like plant body, presence of root and
Ans. (4) autotrophic nutrition
125. Which of the following example belong to the 4) thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues
same class of algae? [ NCERT Pg. 32] and autotrophic nutrition
1) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia Ans. (4)
131. Which one of the following has mesoderm but
2) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
no coelom? [ Pg. 51]
3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
1) Flatworm 2) Earthworm
4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria 3) Roundworm 4) Leech
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 22 Date : 18/12/2023

132. A bryophyte suddenly started reproducting 138. Which of the following is true w.r.t.
partheno-genetically. The number of mitochondria? [ NCERT Pg. 135]
chromosomes of the second generation
a) Mitochondrial ribosome is smaller than
compared to parent plant will be
ribosomes which are attached on outer
[ NCERT Pg. 35 & Concept of Haploid
nuclear membrane.
& Diploid Structure]
1) same 2) one-half b) Single stranded linear DNA is present in
matrix.
3) double 4) triple
Ans. (1) c) Protein synthesis occurs in mitochondrial
133. The body of the aschelminthes is circular in matrix.
cross section. Hence, it is named as :- d) Outer membrane is highly folded and form
[ Pg. 52] cristae.
1) Tapeworm 2) Earthworm 1) a, c & d only
3) Hookworm 4) Roundworm
2) a, b & d only
Ans. (4)
134. The spreading of living pteridophytes is limied 3) Only c
and restricted to narrow geographical region 4) A & D only
because [ NCERT Pg. 36,38]
Ans. (3)
1) gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and
shady places. 139. Which one of the following terms is correctly
2) it requires water for fertilization. matched with their definition in Pinus?
3) due to absence of stomata in leaf and absence [ NCERT Pg. 39]
of vascular tissue.
1) Monoecious - Male (microsporangiate) and
4) both (1) and (2) female (megasporangiate) cones are produced
Ans. (4) on same plant.
135. Which of the following are pseudocoelomate?
2) Monoecious - Male and female sporophylls
[ Pg. 52] borne on same strobilus.
1) Roundworm 2) Hookworm
3) Dioecious - Male and female cones are
3) Filarial worm 4) All of these
produced on different plants.
Ans. (4)
4) Monoecious - Micro and megasporocarp
Section-B
develop on same plant.
136. Triploblastic animal contains :- [ Pg. 47]
1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm Ans. (1)
3) Endoderm 4) All of these 140. Statement I : Amyloplast is found abundantly in
Ans. (4) potato. [ NCERT Pg. 135]
137. Which of the following is the major difference Statement II : Amyloplast is associated with
between mosses and ferns? [ NCERT Pg. 33,36,38] storage of starch.
1) Ferns lack alternation of generation while
1) Statement I is correct and statement II is
mosses show the same.
wrong.
2) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are
obligate aerobes. 2) Both the statements I and II are correct.
3) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels 3) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
while those of mosses lack it. correct.
4) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as
4) Both the statements I and II are wrong.
compared to the sporophytes of mosses.
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 23 Date : 18/12/2023

141. How many of the following statements is/are 145. Endomembrane system consists of many cell
correct? [ NCERT Pg. 30,35,38,39] organelles and these organelles perform
i. In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is different functions. Which of the following
retained on the parent sporophyte. options represent correct functions of these
ii. In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not organelles? [ NCERT Pg. 133-136, PYQ & Summary]
independent. a. Synthesis of Lipoproteins
iii. The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed b. Formation of Lysosome
than that in Polytrichum.
c. Glycolipid synthesis
iv. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
1) Two 2) Three d. Storage of anthocynin
3) Four 4) One e. Osmoregulation and excretion
Ans. (1) f. Breakdown of protein, lipid etc.
142. A) Varied number of cisternae are present in GB g. Oxidative phosphorylation
B) Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
h. Carbohydrate synthesis
near the nucleus
C) GB shows polarity-cis/proximal/forming/ 1) All except a, d, g, h
convex face near nucleus and distal/ concave 2) All except g, h
trans/ maturation face
3) All except d, g, h
D) The cis and trans faces are interconnected
E) Both the faces are similar 4) All except a, g, h
Which of the above statements about GB is/are Ans. (2)
false? 146. Assertion : Liverworts fail to spread to a new
1) C and E 2) Only D locality through fragmentation.
3) D and E 4) Only E Reason : Gemmae are helpful in propagating
Ans. (4) liverworts in different locality.
143. The correct statements about bryophytes are : [ NCERT Pg. 35]
i. The sperms are biflagellate with whiplash
1) If both assertion and reason are correct and
type flagella.
the reason is a correct explanation of the
ii. The sperms are released into water which assertion.
swim through water to fuse with the egg to
produce the zygote. 2) If both assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not a correct explanation of the
iii. Immediate reduction division occurs in
assertion.
zygotes.
iv. A multicellular body called a sporophyte is 3) The reason is correct but assertion is incorrect.
then produced. 4) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect.
1) i, ii and iii 2) i, ii and iv Ans. (3)
3) i and iv 4) iii and iv
147. In which of the following organism closed
Ans. (2) circulatory system is present? [ Pg. 47]
144. Most of the sponges are :- [ Pg. 49]
1) Annelida and Arthropoda
1) Bilaterally symmetrical
2) Annelida and Chordata
2) Radially symmetrical
3) Biradially symmetrical 3) Arthropoda and Chordata
4) Asymmetrical 4) Hemichordata and Arthropoda
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 24 Date : 18/12/2023

148. Assertion (A) : Membrane lipids show lateral 153. Statement I: Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
movement within a overall bilayer. averges 1000 ml to 1100 ml while Expiratory
Reason (R) : Membrane lipids are quasifluid in Reserve Volume (ERV) averages 2500 to 3000 ml
nature [ Pg. 132] Statement II: Total Lung Capacity (TLC) includes
1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the ERV, TV and IRV. [ NCERT Pg. 271]
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
1) Both statements are correct
2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason
is not correct explanation of Assertion. 2) Statment I is correct & II is incorrect
3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong. 3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong.
4) Both statments are incorrect
Ans. (1)
149. Assertion : Spirogyra shows haploid dominant life Ans. (4)
cycle. 154. The blood leaving the lungs has all its
Reason : Zygotic meiosis occurs in Spirogyra. haemoglobin oxygenated and gives up O2 to the
[ NCERT Pg. 30 & 35, The line is written] tissue becasue- [ NCERT Pg. 272]
1) If both assertion and reason are correct and 1) Tissue can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin
the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion. 2) O2 concentration is lower at tissue level than
in the lungs
2) If both assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not a correct explanation of the 3) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction
assertion.
4) None of these
3) If the assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
4) If both the assertion and reason are incorrect. Ans. (2)
Ans. (1) 155. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
150. Salamander belongs to the class damaged is- [ NCERT Pg. 275]
[ Pg. 57] 1) Asthma
1) Reptilia 2) Amphibia
2) Emphysema
3) Aves 4) Mammalia
Ans. (2) 3) Pneumonia
Section-D : Biology 4) Occupational respiratory disorders
Section-A Ans. (2)

151. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in 156. Which of the following statement is wrong for
having [ NCERT Pg. 36-39] respiration? [ NCERT Pg. 268, 270]
1) seeds 2) motile sperms
1) Breathing is a process, in which atmospheric
3) cambium 4) vessels air enters into the body and CO2 is removed out
Ans. (2)
2) Gaseous exchange takes place through
152. When 1200 mL air is left in the lungs, it is called-
alveolar surface
[ NCERT Pg. 272]
1) Vital capacity 3) Transport of gases takes place through blood
2) Tidal volume 4) Cells utilize N2 and release CO2 for anabolic
3) Residual volume processes
4) Inspiratory reserve volume Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 25 Date : 18/12/2023

157. The given diagram represents the human 162. A specialised centre known as respiraory
respiratory system with few structure labelled rhythm centre regulates respiration. It is located
as I, II, III and IV. [ NCERT Pg. 269, Fig. 17.1] in- [ NCERT Pg. 275]
1) Pons
2) Medulla oblongata
3) Cerebrum
4) Cerebellum
Ans. (2)
163. Which of the following is not a modification of
stem for perennation, vegetative propagation as
well as food storage? [ NCERT Based]
The exchange of gases takes place in which
labelled structure? 1) Corm in Amorphophallus
1) I–Trachea 2) II–Bronchi 2) Sucker in pineapple
3) III–Bronchioles 4) IV–Alveoli 3) Rhizome in turmeric
Ans. (4) 4) Tuber in potato
158. Inspiration can occur if the- [ NCERT Pg. 270] Ans. (2)
1) PL > PA
164. Find out the FALSE statement. [ NCERT Pg. 77]
2) PL < PA
1) In dicotyledonous seeds, cotyledons are often
3) PL = PA
fleshy and full of reserve food.
4) Size of thoracic cavity decreases
2) Generally mocotyledonous seeds are
(PL - pressure in lungs) endospermic.
(PA - pressure in almosphere)
3) Generally, dicotyledonous seeds are non-
Ans. (2) endospermic.
159. After maximum inspiration when a person
4) Most of the monocotyledonous seeds have
exhales out the maximum possible volume of
fleshy cotyledons.
air, it is called [ NCERT Pg. 272]
1) Residual volume Ans. (4)
2) functional residual capacity 165. Which of the following is false for vexillary or
3) Vital capacity papilionaceous aestivation? [ NCERT Pg. 74]
4) Total lung capacity 1) Two smallest anterior petals are known as keel
Ans. (3) 2) Two lateral petals are present known as wing
160. The breathing rate of a normal health man is- 3) The largest standard petal is posterior
[ NCERT Pg. 271] 4) The largest standard petal is anterior and
1) 8–18 times/min 2) 6-12 times/min overlaps wing
3) 16-28 times/min 4) 12-16 times/min Ans. (4)
Ans. (4) 166. Staminode is [ NCERT Pg. 75]
161. What is the value of tidal volume in a normal
1) Elongated internode between stamen and
healthy man? [ NCERT Pg. 271]
carpel
1) Approximately 6000-8000 ml/min
2) Sterile stamen
2) 1000-1100 ml/min
3) Wing-like structure formed by corolla in pea
3) 2500-3000 ml/min
4) Approximately 8000-1200 ml/min 4) Adhesion of stamens with carpel
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 26 Date : 18/12/2023

167. Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two- 172. Two plants A and B belonging to different
chambered due to the formation of false septum families show following characteristics:
is found in Plant A : Zygomorphic, bisexual flowers with
1) Argemone and mustard basal placentation.
2) Dianthus and primrose Plant B : Actinomorphic, pentamerous, bisexual
3) Rose and tomato flowers protected by epicalyx.
4) Pea Identify the plants A and B.
Ans. (1) 1) A - China rose; B - Sunflower
168. Match the Column-I. [ NCERT Pg. 75] 2) A - Wheat; B - China rose
3) A - Marigold; B - China rose
Column-I Column-II
4) A - Marigold, B - Mustard
a Marginal i Dianthus
b Axile ii Marigold Ans. (3)
c Free central iii Pea plant 173. Number of species that are known and
d Basal iv China rose described, range between [ NCERT Pg. 6]
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 1) 5-10 million 2) 1.7-1.8 million

2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 3) 1.7-1.8 billion 4) 17-18 million
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii Ans. (2)
4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 174. The most obvious and technically complicated
feature is [ NCERT Pg. 5]
Ans. (3)
1) Consciousness 2) Grwoth
169. In which of the following plants the leaves are
small and short-lived? The petiole in these 3) Reproduction 4) Self-consciousness
plants expand, becomes green and synthesize Ans. (1)
food, such petiole is known as phyllode. 175. Scientific name of brinjal is standardized
[ NCERT Pg. 71] through rule given in [ NCERT Pg. 6]
1) Sweat peat 2) Clematis 1) ICZN 2) ICNB

3) Australian acacia 4) Eichhornia 3) ICBN 4) ICVN
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
170. Ploidy level of seed structures like endosperm, 176. ICBN stands for [ NCERT Pg. 6]
scutellum, and aleurone layer are respectively 1) International Code f or Botanical
Nomenclature
[ NCERT Pg. 77]
2) International Code fo r Biological
1) 3n, 2n, 3n 2) 3n, 2n, 2n
Nomencalture
3) 3n, n, 2n 4) 3n, 2n, n
3) International Congress of Biological Names
Ans. (1)
4) Indian Council of Botanical Nomenclature
171. Match the Column-I with Column-II.
Ans. (1)
Column-I Column-II 177. Both the words in a biological name when hand
a Perigynous flow er i Sunflow er written are separately underlined or printed in
b Epipetalous condition ii Plum italics [ NCERT Pg. 7]
c Apocarpous ovary iii Brinjal 1) To indicate their native place
d Basal placentation iv Lotus 2) To indicate their generic name and specific
[ NCERT Pg. 73, 75] epithet
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-iii 3) To indicate their Latin origin
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) For identification of organism
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 27 Date : 18/12/2023

178. Order and other higher taxonomic categories are 184. Arrange the following taxa in descending order
identified on the basis of [ NCERT Pg. 10] of their taxonomic hierarchy and select the
1) Vegetative characters correct option : [ NCERT Pg. 11]
2) Aggregate of characters (A) Mangifera; (B) Dicotyledoneae;
3) Morphological characters (C) Sapindales, (D) Anacardiaceae,
4) Similar characters (E) Angiospermae
Ans. (2) 1) A, C, D, B, E 2) A, D, C, B, E
179. Classes comprising animals like fishes, 3) E, B, C, D, A 4) E, D, B, C, A
amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals Ans. (3)
constitute the next higher category called 185. Triticum is placed in the [ NCERT Pg. 11]
[ NCERT Pg. 0] 1) Division – Planate
1) Division 2) Class – Dicotyledonae
2) Phylum 3) Family – Poaceae
3) Kingdom 4) Phylum – Angiospermae
4) Family Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) Section-B
180. Mark the incorrect match with respect to 186. Assertion : Each cell of the embryo sac is haploid
taxonomic categories of Mango : [ NCERT Pg. 11] in angiosperms.
1) Phylum – Angiospermae Reason : In angiosperms, meiosis preceeds
2) Order – Sapindales embryo sac formation. [ NCERT Pg. 40,41]
3) Family – Anacardiaceae 1) If both assertion and reason are correct and
4) Genus – Mangifera the reason is a correct explanation of the
Ans. (1) assertion.
181. Order polymoniales include [ NCERT Pg. 10] 2) If both assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not a correct explanation of the
1) Convolvulaceae and Anacardiaceae
assertion.
2) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
3) If the assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
3) Anacardiaceae and Solanaceae
4) If both the assertion and reason are incorrect.
4) Poaceae and Solanaceae
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
187. Which of the following features given below are
182. Wheat, potato and mango belong to the same exhibited by bacteria (A) and higher plants (B)?
[ NCERT Pg. 11] i. Growth and reproduction both are
1) Division synonymous
2) Family ii. Binary fission
3) Class iii. Cellular organization
4) Order iv. Ability to sense their environment
Ans. (1) [ NCERT Pg. 4, 5]
183. The highest and lowest category of classification A B
is, respectively [ NCERT Pg. 9, 10] 1) i, ii ii, iii, iv
1) Kingdom and species 2) i, iii, iv i, ii
2) Species and kingdom 3) ii, ii i, iii, iv
3) Division and species 4) i, ii, iii, iv iii, iv
4) Division and genus Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 28 Date : 18/12/2023

188. Choose the correct option for missing word A, 192. Select the true statement. [ NCERT Pg. 75]
B and C. Higher the taxonomic category, i. Epiphyllous when attached to the perianth
i. _A_ is the number of common characters. as in the flowers of brinjal.
ii. _B_ is the number of organisms in it. ii. Monoadelphous stamens present in china
iii. _C_ is the difficulty in determining the rose.
relationship with other taxo at same level. iii. Diadelphous stamens present in pea.
[ NCERT Pg. 11] iv. Polyadelphous stamens present in citrus.
A B C v. In Salvia and mustard, variation in the
1) Fewer Higher Lesser length of filaments of stamens within a
2) Fewer Higher Greater flower.
3) Higher Fewer Lesser 1) i, ii and iii 2) i, ii, iii and iv
4) Higher Fewer Greater 3) ii, iii, iv and v 4) All of these
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
189. Match Column I with Column II : 193. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option:
[ NCERT Pg. 10, 11] [ NCERT Pg. 11]
Category Mango Housefly Man
Column-I Column-II
i Class Dicotyledonae A Mammalia
a Polymoniales i Cat
ii Order B Diptera C
b Carnivora ii Solanaceae
iii Family Anacardiaceae D Hominidae
c Primata iii Convolvulaceae
A B C D
iv Man
1) Insecta Sapindales Primata Muscidae
v Anacardiaceae 2) Arthropoda Polymoniales Primata Muscidae
vi Dog 3) Insecta Sapindales Mammalia Canidae
1) a-ii, iii; b-i, vi; c-iv 2) a-ii, v; b-i, vi; c-iv 4) Arthropoda Poales Mammalia Felidae
3) a-ii, iii, v, b-i; c-iv 4) a-ii, iii, v; b-i; c-iv, vi Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) 194. Mechanisms of breathing very among different
190. Statement I: Partial pressure of oxygen in group of animals depending mainly on their
deoxygenated blood, oxygenated blood and at habitats and levels of organisation, which
tissue is 40, 95 and 45 mmHg respectively option contain all correct statements?
[ NCERT Pg. 272] [ NCERT Pg. 268]
Statement II: Partial pressure of carbon dioxide i. Lower invertebrates like sponges,
in deoxygenated blood, oxygenated blood and at coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2
tissue is 45, 40 & 45 mmHg respectively. with CO2 by simple diffusion over their
1) Both statements are correct entire body surface
2) Statment I is correct & II is incorrect ii. Earthworms use their moist cuticle for
3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct exchange O2 with CO2
4) Both statments are incorrect iii. Insect have tracheal tubes to transport
atmospheric air within body
Ans. (3)
iv. Special vascularised structures called gills
191. Assertion : Two cotyledons in seeds are the
are used by most of the aquatic arthropods
embryonic leaves. [ NCERT Pg. 77]
and molluscs
Reason : The embryo contains radicle and plumule.
v. Terrestrial forms use vascularised bags
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
called lungs for the exchange of gases
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
vi. Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas
2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
reptiles, birds and mammlas respire through
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. lungs and also use skin for respiration.
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. 1) i, ii, iii, v and vi 2) i, ii, iv and vi
4) If both assertion and reason are false. 3) i, ii, iii, iv and v 4) All of these
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 29 Date : 18/12/2023
195. Match the following : [ NCERT Pg. 72, 74] 197. Match the following : [ NCERT Pg. 68]
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(Term) (Meaning) (Types) (Plant) (Stem (Function)
1 Aestivati- X Arrangement of A Valvate Modification)
on flowers on the 1 Turmeric a Thorns i Photosynthesis
floral axis 2 Pumpkin b Flattened green ii Help in

2 Infloresc- Y Mode of B Racemose structure climbing
ence arrangement of 3 Citrus c Undergrund iii Protection
sepals or petals stem from browsing
in floral bud animals
w ith respect to 4 Opuntia d Stem tendrils iv Storage &
other members perennation
of same w horl 1) 1-c-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-b-i
C Tw isted 2) 1-a-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-b-i
D Cymose 3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-iii, 3-a-iv, 4-b-i
E Imbricate
4) 1-a-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-b-i, 4-c-iii
F Vexillary
Ans. (1)
1) 1 – Y – A,C,E & F and 2 – X – B & D 198. Which of the following sequences is correct to
2) 1 – X – A,C,E & F and 2 – X – B & D initiate inspiration? [ NCERT Pg. 268]
3) 1 – X – B & D and 2 – Y – A,C,E & F i. The contraction of external intercostals
muscles raises the ribs and sternum
4) 1 – Y – B & D and 2 – X – A,C,E & F
ii. Volume of thorax increases in the dorso-
Ans. (1)
ventral axis
196. How many character for flower are correct from iii. Intrapulmonary pressure decreases
given characters? [ NCERT Pg. 72]
iv. Diaphragm contraction
i. In some flowers like lily, the calyx and
v. Air rushes into lungs
corolla are not distinct and are termed as
perianth. 1) i, ii, iv, v, iii 2) i, ii, iii, iv, v
3) iv, i, ii, iii, v 4) iv, v, i, ii, iii
ii. Actinomorphic flower have bilateral
symmetry or zygomorphic flower have Ans. (3)
radial symmetry. 199. Match the columns and choose the correct
iii. Actinomorphic flower can be divided into answer from the options given below-
two equal halves by any radial plane passing [ NCERT Pg. 268]
through the centre e.g., pea, gulmohur, bean, Column-I Column-II
Cassia.
(Animal) (Respiratory organ)
iv. Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two
similar halves by only one vertical plane e.g., a Sponge i Lungs
mustard, datura, chilli. b Insects ii Gills
v. Asymmetric flower cannot be divided into c Aquatic arthropoda iii Absent
two similar halves by any vertical plane d Fish iv Trachea
passing through the centre, as in canna. e Mammal
1) One 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-i
2) Two 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-i
3) Three 3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-ii, e-i
4) Four 4) d-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 30 Date : 18/12/2023
200. Shifting of the curve to right takes palce in the
case of [ NCERT Pg. 274, Fig. 17.5]
1) Rise in pCO2 2) Fall in pH
3) Rise in temperature 4) All of the above
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 05(42) 31 Date : 18/12/2023

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Mark Group Class : 12th (2023-24) Date : 18/12/2023

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

P-11 on your Answer

PHYSICS 2. If the relation between distance x and time t

PCB TEST : 05(43) 1 Date : 18/12/2023

3) 4) None 1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p 2) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q

PCB TEST : 05(43) 2 Date : 18/12/2023

13. A soft ball is thrown at an angle () of 60°

PCB TEST : 05(43) 3 Date : 18/12/2023

15. A car moves at a constant speed on a road as

PCB TEST : 05(43) 4 Date : 18/12/2023

21. A system of two blocks of

PCB TEST : 05(43) 5 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 6 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

PCB TEST : 05(43) 7 Date : 18/12/2023

35. In a vernier calipers 10 divisions of vernier  f  2

 ( vrms ) H2  4  ( vrms ) O2 [ ( vrms )O2  160 m/s]

PCB TEST : 05(43) 8 Date : 18/12/2023

v2  2 m/s (opposite direction)  tan   4    tan1 (4)

PCB TEST : 05(43) 9 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

PCB TEST : 05(43) 10 Date : 18/12/2023

[New NCERT Page-276]

, , , ii) F 3 C + b) Destabilised due to

2) (i) - (a, c, d) ; (ii) - (a, d) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (b, d)

PCB TEST - 05(42) 11 Date : 18/12/2023

57. Select the correct statement about Inductive

Sol. (3) Sol. (4)

PCB TEST - 05(42) 12 Date : 18/12/2023

62. Column-I Column-II Sol. (4)

d. (NH 4 )2 SO 4 iv. Ionic bond a. ICl2 i. Participation of d-orbitals in

3) sp 3d2 Capped s+px+ py+pz+ d x2 y2 + d z2

PCB TEST - 05(42) 13 Date : 18/12/2023

respectively the presence of one electron in the antibonding

Sol. (4): Sol. (1)

3) Assertion is true but reason is false

PCB TEST - 05(42) 15 Date : 18/12/2023

84. For the following reaction, the mas sof water

when 1 mole of each KO2 and S is reacted?

PCB TEST - 05(42) 16 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST - 05(42) 17 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

94. Which statements are correct ?

2) O2  O2  O 2  O22 (B.L.)

3) N 2  N2 (stability) 4) N 2  N2 (B.L.)

PCB TEST - 05(42) 18 Date : 18/12/2023

100. Match the following

1) TTT 2) TFT III. IV.

Sol. (3) 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii

PCB TEST : 05(42) 20 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(42) 21 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : R-33

PCB TEST : 05(42) 22 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(42) 23 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(42) 24 Date : 18/12/2023

Section-D : Biology 4) Occupational respiratory disorders

Section-A Ans. (2)

PCB TEST : 05(42) 25 Date : 18/12/2023