High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

Botany - Section A 7 The floral formula has which of the following symbols to
represent zygomorphic symmetry?
Endosperm is formed during double fertilization by 1. #
1
2. %
1. two polar nuclei and one male gamete 3. K
2. one polar nuclei and one male gamete 4. C
3. ovum and male gametes
8 Mode of nutrition in euglenoids is:
4. two polar nuclei and two male gametes
1. Photosynthetic
2 How many pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants were 2. Heterotrophic
3. Chemosynthetic
studied by Mendel in his experiments?
4. Both 1 & 2
1. Five
2. Six
9 Which one is/are correct?
3. Eight
4. Seven In prokaryotes, a single type of RNA polymerase can
1.
transcribe mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.
3 Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribe rRNAs (28S,
nucleic acids is wrongly matched with the category mentioned 2. 18S, and 5.8S), whereas RNA polymerase III is responsible
against it? for the transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs.
1. Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines 3. RNA pol II transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes.
2. Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines 4. Ribosomal large subunit has p and A-sites.
3. Guanine, Adenine - Purines
1. A, C
4. Adenine, Thymine - Purines
2. A, B, C, D
4 "The activated sludge is pumped into large tanks. Here, 3. B, C, D
other kinds of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the 4. A, B, D
bacteria and the fungi in the sludge". In which tank, this process
of sewage treatment is performed? 10 Frameshift mutation arises due to:
1. Secondary settling tank 1. Addition or deletion of a nucleotide base in DNA
2. Aeration tank
2. Loss and gain of DNA segments respectively
3. Primark settling tank
4. Anaerobic sludge digesters 3. Shifting of a part of chromosome
4. Rotating a section of the chromosome by 180°
5 Similar biological structures or sequences in different taxa
11 What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the
are homologous if they:
1. always perform the same function synergid?
2. result from convergent evolution One fuses with the egg and the other fuses with central cell
1.
3. do not serve any known function nuclei
4. are derived from a common ancestor One fuses with the egg and other(s) degenerate(s) in the
2.
synergid
If a bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then what will 3. All fuse with the egg
6
One fuses with the egg and the other(s) fuse(s) with the
be the trophic level of it? 4.
synergid nucleus
1. First trophic level (T1)
2. Second trophic level (T2)
12 Which of the following is a ribozyme in bacteria for the
3. Third trophic level (T3)
4. Fourth trophic level (T4) formation of peptide bonds?
1. 28 S rRNA
2. 5.8 S rRNA
3. 23 S rRNA
4. 16 S rRNA

Page: 1
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

13 19 Pentamerous actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary

Assertion Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in the nucleus of with an oblique septum, and fruit of capsule or berry belong to
(A): the cell. which of the following family?
It is translated with the enzyme RNA polymerase 1. Liliaceae
Reason (R): 2. Asteraceae
III.
3. Brassicaceae
4. Solanaceae
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
of (A). The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of
20
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct
2. biogas from the dung of ruminant animals include:
explanation of (A).
1. Eubacteria
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Halophiles
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 3. Thermoacidophiles
4. Methanogens
14 In a certain species of insects, some have 13 chromosomes,
and the others have 14 chromosomes. The 13 and 14 21 Identify the correct match:
chromosome bearing organisms are 1. Felis: Canidae
1. males and females, respectively 2. Datura: Solanaceae
2. females and males, respectively 3. Petunia: Leguminoceae
3. all males 4. Dogs: Felidae
4. all females Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an
22
The enzyme decarboxylase catalyses which of the organism having 70 S ribosomes only?
15
1. Single stranded DNA with a protein coat
following step:
2. Double stranded circular naked DNA
1. conversion of citric acid to cis aconitic acid
3. Double stranded DNA enclosed in a nuclear membrane
2. fumaric acid to malic acid
4. Double stranded circular DNA with histone proteins
3. oxalosuccinic acid to α -ketoglutaric acid
4. malic acid to oxaloacetic acid One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of
23
How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light
16 through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly
It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the in the region of :
1.
rootstock 1. Violet and green light
2. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance 2. Indigo and green light
3. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning 3. Orange and yellow light
4. It releases wound hormones 4. Blue and red light

24 What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?

17 Sacred groves are especially useful in:
1. Pollination occurs in submerged conditions by water.
1. Generating environmental awareness
Flowers emerge above the surface of the water and
2. Preventing soil erosion 2.
pollination occurs by insects.
3. Year-round flow of water in rivers
Flowers emerge above the water's surface and pollen is
4. Conserving rare and threatened species 3.
carried by the wind.
Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers
18 Find the incorrect match. 4.
at the surface of the water.
1. Triticum aestivum: Caryopsis
2. Feathery stigma: Cereals
3. Sugarcane: Compositae family
4. Unisexual flowers: Zea mays

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

25 Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select 29

the most appropriate reason from the following : Tapetum is formed during the process of the
1. Tyloses in vessels Assertion (A):
formation of microsporangium.
2. closure of stomata It plays an important role in guiding the pollen
3. Flaccidity of bulliform cells Reason (R):
tube into the synergid.
4. Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation
26 1.
of (A).
Column I Column II Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct
2.
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy explanation of (A).
Adenosine deaminase 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
(b) (ii) Cellular defence
deficiency 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Detection of HIV
(c) RNAi (iii)
infection 30 Match the following columns and select the correct option:
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
Column - I Column -II
Options:
Biocontrol agents of several plant
(a) (b) (c) (d) a. Dragonflies (i)
pathogens
1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Bacillus
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) b. (ii) Get rid of mosquitoes
thuringiensis
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Narrow-spectrum insecticidal
c. Glomus (iii)
4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) applications
Biocontrol agents of lepidopteran
Match the following techniques or instruments with their d. Baculoviruses (iv)
27 plant pests
usage: (v) Absorb phosphorus from soil
Column I Column II Options:
(a) Bioreactor (i) Separation of DNA fragments (a) (b) (c) (d)
Production of large quantities of 1. (iii) (v) (iv) (i)
(b) Electrophoresis (ii)
products 2. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Detection of a pathogen, based on 3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) PCR (iii)
antigen-antibody reaction 4. (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(d) ELISA (iv) Amplification of nucleic acids
Select the correct option from the following: 31 Genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is obtained in a cross between:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. AA X AA
1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 2. Aa X Aa
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 3. Aa X aa
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 4. aa X aa
4. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) Which of the following algae produces Carrageen?
32
Which of the following statements is incorrect? 1. Red algae
28 2. Blue-green algae
1. Biomass decreases from the first to fourth trophic level 3. Green algae
Energy content gradually increases from the first to fourth 4. Brown algae
2.
trophic level
Number of individuals decreases from the first trophic level 33 In the exponential growth equation Nt =N0ert, e represents :
3.
to the fourth trophic level 1. The base of natural logarithms
Energy content gradually decreases from the first to the 2. The base of geometric logarithms
4.
fourth trophic level 3. The base of number logarithms
4. The base of exponential logarithms

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

34 Which is the "only enzyme" that has the "capability to A B C D

catalyze initiation, elongation, and termination" in the process of 1. endosperm scutellum plumule seed coat
transcription in prokaryotes? 2. aleurone endosperm radicle coleorhiza
1. DNA Ligase 3. epithelium aleurone plumule seed coat
2. DNase 4. endosperm aleurone plumule seed coat and fruit wall
3. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
4. DNA dependent RNA polymerase Correct statement in relation to vacuoles is:
38
35 When lactic acid bacteria (LAB) is used for converting It is a triple membrane-bound space found in cytoplasm
1.
milk to curd, it improves the nutritional quality of curd by containing sap.
increasing: 2. It can occupy 90% of cell volume in plants.
1. Iron content of the curd Its membrane allows the transport of materials along the
3.
2. Vitamin B12 content of the curd concentration gradient only.
3. Vitamin D content of the curd Concentration of ions is significantly lesser in vacuole than
4. Protein content of the curd 4.
in cytoplasm.

Botany - Section B 39 Find the odd one with respect to the fungi imperfecti:
1. Alternaria
36 The given diagram shows the transverse section of a 2. Colletotrichum
portion of a: 3. Trichoderma
4. Penicillium

40 The edible part of the mango is:-

1. Receptacle
2. Epicarp
3. Mesocarp
4. Endocarp

41 Select the odd one with respect to developmental plasticity:

1. Buttercup
2. Cotton
1. Monocot stem 2. Monocot root 3. Larkspur
3. Dicot stem 4. Dicot root 4. Coriander

42 Which of the following does not apply to the Poaceae

37 Identify the labels A, B, C, and D in the figure given
family?
below:
1. Annual and perennial herbs and shrubs
2. Bamboo tree
3. Adventitious and fibrous roots
4. Almost 1000 genera

43 A male insect mistakes an orchid flower to be female due

to its shape and performs the act of copulation and induces
pollination. This is an example of:
1. Mimicry
2. Pseudocopulation
3. Pseudo pollination
4. None

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

44 Find the odd one concerning the disc florets. 49 Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and
1. Zygomorphic symmetry in which stage of the cell cycle?
2. 5 petals Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at
3. Colored corolla 1.
Zygotene stage of prophase I.
4. Pappus Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at
2.
Pachytene stage of prophase I.
45 Remnants of nucellus are persistent during seed
Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at
development in: 3.
Zygotene stage of prophase I.
1. pea 2. black pepper Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at
4.
3. wheat 4. groundnut Pachytene stage of prophase I.

46 Match the following: 50 Match the following:

Algae Stored food Flagellation (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin
(a) Brown algae (p) Floridean starch (i) 2, lateral (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(b) Red algae (q) Mannitol (ii) 2-4, apical (c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
(c) Green algae (r) Starch (iii) absent (d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Options: Choose the correct option from the following:
1. (a-r-ii) (b-p-iii) (c-q-i) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. (a-q-i) (b-p-iii) (c-r-ii) 1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (a-q-i) (b-r-ii) (c-p-iii) 2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (a-q-i) (b-p-ii) (c-r-iii) 3. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
47 With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct? Zoology - Section A
Light saturation for CO2-fixation occurs at 10% of full
1.
sunlight. Match the following columns and select the correct option :
51
Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration by, up to, 0.05%
2. Column - I Column - II
can enhance the CO2-fixation rate
(a) Smooth endoplasmic
C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced (i) Protein synthesis
reticulum
3. photosynthesis, while C4 plants have a much lower
(b) Rough endoplasmic
temperature optimum. (ii) Lipid synthesis
reticulum
Tomato is a greenhouse crop, which can be grown in a CO2- (c) Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation
4.
enriched atmosphere for a higher yield. (d) Centriole (iv) Spindle formation
Options:
48 The first step of decarboxylation in cellular respiration is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Conversion of PGAL to DHAP 1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
2. Conversion of PGAL to PGA
2. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
3. Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
4. Conversion of BPGA to PGA 3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

52 57 Which of the following helps in the regulation of the

Gene therapy is a method of treating a disorder respiratory rhythm?
Assertion (A): 1. Respiratory rhythm centre
but cannot cure it.
Cells are drawn from a patient and the 2. Pneumotaxic centre
Reason (R): functional gene is introduced into these cells 3. Aortic arch and carotid artery receptors
and transferred back to the patient. 4. All of the above

58 A canal called as the cerebral aqueduct passes through the:

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation
1. 1. Diencephalon
of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct 2. Mid brain
2. 3. 3rd ventricle
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. 4th ventricle
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
59 Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

53 DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases Hormones bind to specific proteins located in the target
1.
in a chemical reaction can be separated by: tissues only.
1. Polymerase chain reaction Receptors for hormones can only be present on the cell
2.
2. Electrophoresis membrane.
3. Restriction mapping 3. Each receptor is specific to one hormone only.
4. Centrifugation 4. Nuclear receptors are intracellular receptors.

54 60 Irregular thickening of arterial walls and narrowing of their

Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid lumen due to deposition of plaque is:
Assertion (A):
organs. 1. Atherosclerosis
These are the organs, to which matured 2. Arteriosclerosis
Reason (R): lymphocytes migrate, interact with antigens and 3. Varicose vein
then proliferate to become effector cells. 4. Rete Mirabile

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation 61 Which of the following structure of protein is absolutely
1.
of (A). necessary for the many biological activities of proteins?
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct 1. Primary
2.
explanation of (A). 2. Secondary
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. Tertiary
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4. Quaternary

62 What is true for open circulatory system?

55 Identify the correct statements:
1. Cells and tissues are directly bathed in blood
I: Cartilaginous fishes are ammonotelic.
2. Capillaries are present
II: Mammals are ureotelic.
Blood is circulated only through a series of vessels of
III: Land snails are uricotelic. 3.
varying diameter
1. Only I and II
4. Present in earthworm
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
63 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction
4. I, II and III
endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid
56 GFR is regulated by: using:
1. JGA 1. Ligase
2. ADH 2. Eco RI
3. OT 3. Taq polymerase
4. HGP 4. polymerase II

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

64 Mark out the correct statement regarding the characteristics 69 Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to
of variants in a mixed population: each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?
Industrialisation results in an increase in the types of 1. Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus Viviparity
1.
variants. 2. Garden lizard and Crocodile Three chambered heart
In a mixed population, those that can better adapt, survive 3. Ascaris and Ancylostoma Metameric segmentation
2.
and increase in population size. 4. Sea horse and Flying fish Cold-blooded (poikilothermal)
3. Less adapted variants will be completely wiped out.
4. All of these 70 Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans, only ‘Y’ pairs are true
ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and
65 Which of the following is an example of Mendelian
Y and provides their explanation:
disorder? X Y
1. Klinefelter's syndrome 15 true ribs are attached dorsally to the vertebral column
2. Down's syndrome 1. 12
and sternum on the two ends
3. Turner's syndrome
7 true ribs are dorsally attached to the vertebral column
4. Thalassemia 2. 24
but are free on the ventral side
Extrusion of the second polar body from the egg nucleus 12 true ribs are dorsally attached to the vertebral column
66 3. 24
but are free on the ventral side
occurs:
7 true ribs are attached dorsally to the vertebral column
1. simultaneously with the first cleavage 4. 12
and ventrally to the sternum
2. after entry of sperm but before fertilization
3. after fertilization
71 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and
4. before entry of sperm into the ovum
select your answer from the codes given:
67 COLUMN I COLUMN II
A primer is a small segment of DNA that binds injection of washed sperm into the uterus
Assertion (A): A. IUI a.
to a complementary strand of DNA. with a catheter.
Primers are necessary to stop the functioning of an egg fertilized in vitro (outside the body)
B. ZIFT b.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase enzyme and, therefore, are is placed into a woman's fallopian tube.
necessary in a polymerase chain reaction. eggs are removed from a woman's ovaries,
C. GIFT c. and placed in one of the Fallopian tubes,
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation along with the man's sperm.
1.
of (A). injection of a single sperm directly into a
D. ICSI d.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct mature egg.
2. Codes
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. A B C D
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1. a b c d
2. d b c a
68 Three of the following statements about enzymes are 3. a c b d
correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong? 4. d c b a
1. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.
72 Vasa recta in cortical nephrons:
2. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity.
Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures but in certain 1. Arises from afferent arteriole rather than efferent arteriole
3. exceptional organisms they are effective even at temperatures Does not get involved in counter-current exchange with the
80°- 90°C. 2.
loop of Henle
4. Enzymes are highly specific. 3. Carries deoxygenated blood rich in urea
4. Is absent or highly reduced

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

73 The group of neurosecretory cells found in hypothalamus is 77 What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac
known as: output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of
1. ganglia diastole is 100 mL and at the end, ventricular systole is 50 mL?
2. nuclei 1. 125 beats per minute
3. Tract 2. 50 beats per minute
4. nerve 3. 75 beats per minute
4. 100 beats per minute
74 The correct match is:
78 Identify the wrong statement with reference to the transport
of oxygen.
Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with
1.
haemoglobin.
+
1. 2. Higher H conc. in alveoli favours with the formation of
2. oxyhaemoglobin.
Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of
3.
oxyhaemoglobin.
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to the
4.
Morphine partial pressure of O2.
Heroin/smack
79 Which one of the following characteristic is incorrect with
respect to cockroach?
1. In females, 7th - 9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
th
3. 4. 2. 10 abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal
cerci.
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut
Papaver somniferum 3.
Cannabis sativa and hind gut.
Chemical structure of
Chemical structure of Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth
morphine 4.
cannabinoid molecule parts.

75 Select the correct option based on the statements below: A specific recognition sequence identified by
80
Assertion (A): Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty. endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA
Primary spermatocytes undergo second is:
Reason (R): 1. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
maturation division to become spermatids.
2. Poly(A) tail sequences
3. Degenerate primer sequence
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation
1. 4. Okazaki sequences
of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct Select the mismatch.
2.
explanation of (A).
81
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. Rosie cow - 1997
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 2. Patent on Basmati rice by an American company - 1997
Human insulin production by Eli Lilly, an
3. - 1987
Which of the following statements is not correct? American company
76
4. First clinical gene therapy - 1990
Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the
1.
endoplasmic reticulum
82 Brain stem of the human brain consists of:
2. Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
1. Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
The hydrolytic enzyme of lysosomes are active under acidic
3. 2. Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
pH
3. Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora quadrigemina
4. Lysosomes are membrane bound structure 4. Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

83 Consider the given two statements: 88 The primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division at
Louis Pasteur, in his experiment, showed that in the stage of:
Assertion pre-sterilised flasks, life did not come from killed 1. Primordial follicle 2. Primary follicle
(A): yeast while in another flask open to air, new living 3. Secondary follicle 4. Tertiary follicle
organisms arose from ‘killed yeast’.
Reason 89 Given below are four statements A - D each with one or
Life comes only from pre-existing life.
(R):
two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks
in two statements.
1. (A) is True but (R) is False Members of kingdom Animalia are (i) , all of them do not
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation A. exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells. Sponges
2.
of (A) exhibit (ii) level of organisation.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct For sessile animals, (i) symmetry is advantageous, as it
3. B.
explanation of (A) allows the food to be gathered from all sides.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True Bilateral symmetry arose when animals on the ocean floor
became mobile. A crawling animal is most likely to
84 Consider the given two statements: C. encounter food with the end that goes ahead. Head,
enclosing the brain became associated with mouth end. This
Smoking is associated with increased incidence
Assertion (A): is called (i) .
of cancers of lung, urinary bladder and throat.
Notochord is a (i) derived rod-like structure formed on the
Nicotine, present in tobacco, stimulates adrenal D.
(ii) side during embryonic development in some animals.
Reason (R): gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
into blood circulation
A B
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A). 1. (i) Unicellular or multicellular
(i) Radial
(ii) Cellular
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
B C
3. (A) is False; (R) is True 2.
(i) Bilateral (i) Cephalisation
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain
4. A D
the (A).
3. (i) Multicellular (i) Mesodermally
85 Which of the following events is likely to happen if (ii) Cellular (ii) Dorsal
diffusion of ions is allowed in a resting polarized axonal B D
membrane? 4. (i) Ectodermally
(i) Bilateral
1. Na+ will move out of the cell (ii) Dorsal
2. Na+ will move into the cell In human evolution, the development of the brain and
3. K+ will move into the cell
90
language is an example of:-
4. Na+ and K+ will both move out of the cell
1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
Zoology - Section B 3. Parallel evolution
4. Adaptive radiation
86 The volume of air expired forcefully after forceful
91 How many times can human urine be concentrated in a
inspiration is:
1. TV+ IRV 2. TV+ERV+IRV counter-current mechanism?
1. Four times
3. TV+ERV+IRV+RV 4. None of the above
2. Five times
3. Three times
87 The metal present in hemoglobin is:
4. Two times
1. Magnesium 2. Sodium
3. Iron 4. Copper

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 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

92 Find out the incorrect statement with respect to 96 The phase of the menstrual cycle in humans that last for 7-
the metabolism of calcium in the human body: 8 days is:
High level of Ca in the blood stimulates the thyroid gland's
2+
1. follicular phase
1. 2. ovulatory phase
parafollicular cells to release calcitonin
3. luteal phase
Calcitonin promotes deposition of Ca 2+
into the bone matrix
2. 4. menstruation
to reduce blood Ca level
2+

Hypersecretion of PTH causes a deficiency of Ca in the

2+

97 Natural methods of birth control include:

3. blood which increases the excitability of nerves and muscles
1. Abstinence
and causes sustained muscular contractions (Tetany)
2. Coitus interruptus
Calcitriol hormone released from kidneys stimulates the 3. Lactational amenorrhoea
4.
absorption of Ca in the gastrointestinal tract
2+
4. All of these

93 The anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle causes the 98 Gambusia is a …….. that feeds on ..….
deposition or accumulation of: 1. Mosquito, larvae
1. Gluconic acid 2. Fish, mosquito-larvae
2. Lactic acid 3. Frog species, mosquito of stagnant water
3. Pyruvic acid 4. Snail, Protozoan
4. Hydrochloric acid
99 Which organism has more base pairs?
94 The bioreactor shown in the diagram is:
1. E.coli
2. Bacteriophage
3. human
4. Yeast

100 Consider the two given statements:

Foreign and vector DNA must be cleaved with
Assertion (A): the same restriction enzyme when making
recombinant DNA.
Each restriction enzyme cuts DNA at a specific
Reason (R):
cleavage site.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
1. Sparged stirred tank type Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain
4.
2. Airlift type (A).
3. Simple stirred tank type
4. Fluidized bed type Chemistry - Section A
95 Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of:
101 Benzoyl chloride can be prepared from benzoic acid by
1. Fish
reacing the former with:
2. Mice
1. Cl2, hv
3. Cow
2. SO2
4. Pig
3. SOCl2
4. Cl2, H2O

Page: 10
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

102 Considering that Δ0 > P , the magnetic moment (in BM) 107 In a mixture of A and B, components show negative

of [Ru(H 2 O) ]
2+
would be- deviations when:
6

1. 0 1. A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B interaction

2. 4.9 2. A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-B interaction
3. 6.9 3. ΔVmix > 0, ΔSmix > 0
4. 3.5
4. ΔVmix = 0, ΔSmix > 0

103 Consider the following chemical reaction,

108 The number of atoms in 560 g of Fe (atomic mass 56 g
(1)RedhotFetube, 873 K

CH ≡ CH −−−−−−−−−−−−−→
(2) CO, HCl, AlCl3
Product
mol-1 ) is:
1. Twice that of 70 g N
The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atom(s) present in the
product is: 2. Half that of 20 g H
1. 6 3. Both 1 and 2
2. 7 4. None of the above
3. 8
4. 5 According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in
109
The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold properties of elements is related to their :
104 1. Atomic masses
and dilute aqueous NaOH are: 2. Nuclear mass
1. Cl– and ClO– 3. Atomic numbers
2. Cl– and ClO2– 4. Nuclear neutron-proton number ratio
3. ClO– and ClO3– Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their
110
4. ClO3– and ClO3–
original labels. They were labeled as A and B respectively for
testing. A and B were separately taken in a test tube and boiled
105 For the reaction:
with NaOH solution. The end solution in each test tube was
F eO(s) + CO(g) ⇌ F e(s) + CO2 (g) , Kp = 0.265 at 1050 K. If made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 was
the initial partial pressures are: P = 1.4 atm and P = 0.80
CO CO
2
added. A substance present in test tube B gave a yellow
atm, the partial pressure of CO2 at equilibrium at 1050 K would precipitate. The true statement among the following regarding
be: the experiment is-
1. 4.61 atm 2. 1.74 atm 1. A was C6H5I
2. A was C6H5CH2I
3. 0.46 atm 4. 0.17 atm
3. B was C6H5I
The term anomers of glucose refer to: 4. Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary
106
Isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons The elementary step of the reaction, 2Na + Cl
1. 111 2 = 2NaCl

one and four (C-1 and C-4)

2. A mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose is found to follow 3rd order kinetics. Its molecularity is:
1. 1
3. Enantiomers of glucose
2. 2
Isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one 3. 3
4.
(C-1) 4. 4

Page: 11
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

112 The compound B in the given below reaction is: 115 Select the correct option based on statements below:

[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic

I:
whereas [Fe(CN)6]3− is weakly paramagnetic.
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ has 4 unpaired electrons while [Fe(CN)6]3−
II:
has 5 unpaired electrons.
1. Both I and II are true.
2. I is true and II is false.
1. 2. 3. Both I and II are false.
4. I is false but II is true.

116 A compound among the following that is not a monomer

for a high molecular mass silicone polymer is-
1. Me2SiCl2
3. 4. 2. Me3SiCl
3. PhSiCl3
4. MeSiCl3

117 The ionization constant of some weak bases at a particular

113 The major product A in the following reaction is: temperature is given below
Base Dimethylamine Urea Pyridine Ammonia
Kb 5.4 × 10-4 1.3 × 10-14 1.77 × 10-9 1.77 × 10-5

The decreasing order of the bases on the extent of their

ionization at equilibrium is:
1. Urea > Ammonia > Dimethylamine > Pyridine
2. Ammonia > Dimethylamine > Pyridine > Urea
3. Pyridine > Urea > Dimethylamine > Ammonia
4. Dimethylamine > Ammonia > Pyridine > Urea
1. 2.
118 Match the compounds in column I with the oxidation state
of Cl in column II.
Column I Column II
a. Cl2O7 i. +4
b. NaClO3 ii. +1
3. 4. None of these c. Cl2O iii. +5
d. ClO2 iv. +7
Options:
a b c d
1. iii iv ii i
114 Consider the following reaction,
2. ii iii iv i
XeF6 + 2H2O → X + 4HF 3. iv iii ii i
The product X is- 4. iv i iii ii
1. XeO2F2
2. XeO3
3. XeOF4
4. None of the above

Page: 12
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

119 In the following sequence of reactions : 123 In an experiment, m grams of a compound X

KM nO
4
SOCl2 , N H3 Br2 , N aOH
(gas/liquid/solid) taken in a container is loaded in a balance as
CH3 CH2 OH −−−−−→ (a) −−−−−−−→ (b) −−−−−−−→ (C)
shown in figure given below.
The end product (c) is-
1. Acetone
2. Ethylamine
3. Acetic acid
4. Methylamine

120 Major product of the reaction is:

In the presence of a magnetic field, the pan with X is either

deflected (Fig. I), upwards (figure II), or deflected downwards
1. 2,4- dinitrophenol (figure III), depending on the compound X. Identify the correct
2. 3,4-dinitrophenol statement(s).
3. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol a. If X is H O(l), deflection of the pan is upwards
2

4. 3,4,5-trinitrophenol
b. If X is K 4 [F e(CN )6 ](s) , deflection of the pan is upwards
The ground state magnetic property of B2 and C2 c. If X is O , deflection of the pan is downwards
121 2 (g)

d. If X is C 6 H6 (l) deflection of the pan is downwards

molecules will be :
1. B2 paramagnetic and C2 diamagnetic
2. B2 diamagnetic and C2 paramagnetic 1. a, b, and c are correct
2. Both b, and d are correct
3. Both are diamagnetic
3. b, c, and d are correct
4. Both are paramagnetic
4. a, b, and d are correct
122 Among the following, the conformation that corresponds
124 Which of the following statement is false for fuel cells?
to the most stable conformation of meso-butane-2,3-diol is
1. They are more efficient
2. They are free from pollution
3. They run till reactants are active
1. 2. 4. They are examples of an electrolytic cell

125 The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the

unpaired electron of Cl atom is:
1. 2, 0, 0, +
1

2. 2, 1, − 1, +
1

3. 4. 2

3. 3, 1, + 1, +
1

4. 3,
1
0, + 2,
2

Page: 13
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

126 Which of the following equation represents a reaction that 131 The standard Gibbs free energy for the following reaction
provides the enthalpy of the formation of CH3Cl? is:
2+ + 3+
1. C(s) + HCl(g) + H2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g) Fe (aq) + Ag (aq) → F e (aq) + Ag(s)

Given: (E o
= 0.80V ; E
o
= 0.77V ; E
o
= 0.44V ) .
2. C(s) + 3H(g) + Cl(g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g) Ag
+
/Ag F e3+ /F e2+ F e2+ /F e

3. C(s) + 3/2H2 (g) + 1/2Cl2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g)

1. - 2.895 kJ/mol 2. - 2.895 J/mol
4. CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⟶ CH3 Cl(g) + HCl(g)
3. - 239.287 kJ/mol 4. 239.287 kJ/mol

127 The first ionization enthalpies of elements X and Y are 132 The correct IUPAC name for [CrF2(en)2]Cl is:
419 kJ mol–1 and 590 kJ mol–1, respectively and the second
1. Chlorodifluoridoethylenediaminechromium(III) chloride
ionization enthalpies of X and Y are 3069 kJ mol–1 and 1145 kJ
2. Bis-(ethylene diamine)difluoridochromium(III) chloride
mol–1, respectively. The correct statement is:
3. Difluorobis-(ethylene diamine)chromium(III) chloride
1. X is an alkali metal and Y is an alkaline earth metal.
4. Chlorodifluoridobis(ethylenediamine)chromium (III)
2. X is an alkaline earth metal and Y is an alkali metal.
3. Both X and Y are alkali metals. Which of the following sets represents a complex and a
133
4. Both X and Y are alkaline earth metals.
double salt, respectively?
1. CuSO4.5H2O and CuCl2,4NH3
128 The half-life of a first-order reaction is 2000 years. If the
2. PtCl2.2NH3 and PtCl4.2HCl
concentration after 8000 years is 0.02 M, then the initial 3. K2PtCl2.2NH3 and KAl(SO4)2.12H2O
concentration was: 4. NiCl2.6H2O and NiCl2(H2O)4
1. 0.16 M 2. 0.32 M
3. 0.08 M 4. 0.04 M 134 A reaction among the following can generate isonitriles as
a major product.
129 The mass of a 2.5 mL solution (the density of the solution
A. R − X + H CN →
is 2.15 g/mL) in the correct significant figures is: B. R − X + AgCN →
1. 5375 × 10–3 g C. R − X + KCN →
2. 5.4 g
H2 O

D. R − X + N aCN −−−−−→
3. 5.38 g C2 H5 OH

4. 53.75 g Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
130 The incorrect method for the synthesis of alkenes is: 1. (D) only 2. (C) and (D) only
1. Treatment of alkynes with Na in liquid NH3 3. (B) only 4. (A) and (B) only
2. Heating alkyl halides with alcoholic KOH
3. Treating alkyl halides in aqueous KOH solution 135 Outer orbital complex salt(s) among the following is/are:
4. Treating vicinal dihalides with Zn metal
A. [Mn(CN)
3−

6]
3−
B. [Co(C 2 O4 )3 ]

2+
C. [MnCl ]
3−
6 D. [Ni(H O) ] 2
6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only 2. B and C only
3. C and D only 4. C only

Page: 14
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

Chemistry - Section B 140 Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of NaOH
followed by acidification produces compound X as the major
Number of isomers of complex product. X on treatment with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of
136 [P t (N H3 ) ] [CuCl4 ]
4

catalytic amount of H2SO4 produces:

are:
1. 2 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5

General behavior of O is: 1. 2.

137 3

1. To give electrons
2. To Give O 2

3. Reaction with H 2

4. To accept electrons

138 The major products of the following reaction are:

3. 4.

141 C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at which a

solution of 10 g of C4H10 in 200 g of C6H6 will freeze is- (The
molal freezing point depression constant of C6H6 is 5.12°C/m.)
1. 2 °C
1. 2.
2. 1 °C
3. 6 °C
4. 5 °C

3. 4. 142 For the reaction:

Fe2N(s) + H2(g) ⇋ 2Fe(s) + NH3(g)

3

1. K = K (RT)
c p

139 The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one d- 2. K = Kp (RT)
−3/2
c

orbital of the central atom is: 3. K c = Kp (RT)

−1/2

1. XeF 4
4. K = Kp (RT)
1/2
c
2−
2. [N i(CN ) ] 4

3. BrF 5 143 A solution of phenol in chloroform when treated with

4. [CrF ]
3−
6 aqueous NaOH gives compound P as a major product. The mass
percentage of carbon in P is:
(to the nearest integer) (Atomic mass : C =12; H=1; O=16)
1. 65
2. 69
3. 73
4. 76

Page: 15
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

144 The rate of a reaction is decreased by 3.555 times when 148 The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4, and XeF4 are:
the temperature was changed from 40°C to 30°C. The activation Different with 1, 0, and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the
1.
energy (in kJ mol ) of the reaction is- (Take R=8.314 J
−1
central atom, respectively
mol
−1
K In 3.555=1.268)
−1
Different with 0, 1, and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the
1. 100 kJ/mol 2.
central atom, respectively
2. 120 kJ/mol The same with 1, 1, and 1 lone pair of electrons on the
3. 95 kJ/mol 3.
central atoms, respectively
4. 108 kJ/mol
The same with 2, 0, and 1 lone pair of electrons on the
4.
Given central atom, respectively
145
C(graphite) + O2 ( g) → CO2 ( g)
149 A hydrocarbon of molecular formula C6H10 reacts with
∘ −1
Δr H = −393.5 kJ mol sodamide and the same on ozonolysis followed by hydrogen
1 peroxide oxidation gives two molecules of carboxylic acids, one
H2 (g) + O2 ( g) → H2 O(l)
2 being optically active. The hydrocarbon maybe:
Δr H
∘
= −285.8 kJ mol
−1
1. 1-Hexyne
CO2 ( g) + 2H2 O(l) → CH4 ( g) + 2O2 ( g)
2. 3-Hexyne
∘ −1
3. 3-Methyl-1-pentyne
Δr H = +890.3 kJ mol
4. 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butyne
Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of
ΔrH° at 298 K for the reaction The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an
150
C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g) will be :
organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in
1. –74.8 kJ mol–1 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The excess acid required 20
2. –144.0 kJ mol–1 mL of 0.5 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete
3. +74.8 kJ mol–1 neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic
compound is:
4. +144.0 kJ mol–1
1. 46.6 %
The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be 2. 50.4 %
146 3. 42.8 %
negative if: 4. 40.5 %
1. P(H2) = 1atm and [H+] = 2.0 M
2. P(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M Physics - Section A
3. P(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M
151 A stationary horizontal disc is free to rotate about its axis.
4. P(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M
When a torque is applied on it, its kinetic energy as a function of
147 Metamers of ethyl propionate are- θ, where θ is the angle by which it has rotated, is given as kθ . If
2

its moment of inertia is I , then the angular acceleration of the

1. C4H9COOH and HCOOC4H9
disc is:
2. C4H9COOH and CH3COOC3H7
1. θ
k

3. CH3COOCH3 and CH3COOC3H7 I

2.
k

4. CH3COOC3H7 and C3H7COOCH3 2I

θ

k
3. 4I
θ

4.
2k
θ
I

152 A particle is moving along a circular path with a uniform

speed. Through what angle does its angular velocity change
when it completes half of the circular path?
1. 0o
2. 45o
3. 180o
4. 360o

Page: 16
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

153 A conductor rod AB moves parallel to x-axis in a uniform 158 In a purely resistive AC circuit, which of the following
magnetic field, pointing in the positive z-direction. The end A of sketches represents the variation of the current amplitude I0 with
the rod gets: the frequency ω?

1. 2.

1. positively charged.
2. negatively charged.
3. neutral. 3. 4.
4. first positively charged and then negatively charged.

154 An alternating current is given by the equation:

I =I1 cos ωt+I2 sin ωt

The RMS current is given by:

159 One end of a uniform bar of weight W1 is suspended from
1. (I +I ) /√2
1 2

2. (I +I ) /√2 2 the roof and a weight W2 is suspended from the other end. The
1 2

2 2
1/2 area of cross-section is A. What is the stress at the midpoint of
(I +I )

3.
1 2
the rod?
√2 (W +W )

1/2
1. 1

A
2

4. 1 2
(I1 +I2 )
2
(W −W )
2
2. 1

A
2

(W1 /2)+W2

155 The far point of a short-sighted eye is 200 cm. The power 3.
A

(W2 /2)+W1
of the corrective lens is: 4.
A
1. -0.5 D
2. 2 D An infinite non-conducting sheet has a surface charge
160
3. 1 D
4. -1.5 D density σ = 0.1 μC/m2 on one side. How far apart are
equipotential surfaces whose potentials differ by 50 V?
156 The refractive index of glass is 1.9. If light travels through 1. 8.8 mm
2. 8.8 cm
a glass slab of thickness d in time t and takes the same time to
3. 8.8 μm
travel through a transparent beaker filled with water upto a
thickness 1.5 d, then the refractive index of water is: 4. 8.8 pm
1. 1.27
161 Two unit negative charges are placed on a straight line. A
2. 1.33
3. 1.20 positive charge q is placed exactly at the mid-point between
4. 1.50 these unit charges. If the system of three charges is in
equilibrium, the value of q (in C) is:
157 Energy stored in the choke coil is in the form of: 1. 1.0
1. heat 2. 0.75
2. electric energy 3. 0.5
3. magnetic energy 4. 0.25
4. chemical energy

Page: 17
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

162 A small bar magnet has points A and B along its axis at 167 A body sliding on a smooth inclined plane requires 4 s to
distances of 24 cm and 48 cm on the opposite sides. The ratio of reach the bottom starting from rest at the top. How much time
magnetic fields at these points will be: does it take to cover one-fourth the distance starting from rest at
the top?
1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 4 s
4. 16 s

168 A conductor of resistance 3 Ω is stretched uniformly till its

1. 8 length is doubled. The wire is now bent in the form of an
2.
1
equilateral triangle. The effective resistance between the ends of
2√ 2

3. 3 any side of the triangle (in ohm) is:

1.
9

4. 4 2

2. 8

163 Displacement current exists: 3

3. 2
4. 1
1. when electric field is changing in the circuit.
169 How much work per kilogram needs to be done to shift a
2. when electric field is constant.
3. when electric field is absent. 1 kg mass from the surface of the earth to infinity? (Take
4. always exists independent of the electric field. acceleration due to gravity = g and radius of the earth = R.)
g
1. R

164 The ratio of the areas within the electron orbits for the 2.
R

first excited state to the ground state for the hydrogen atom is: 3. gR
g
1. 2:1 4.
R2
2. 4:1
3. 8:1
4. 16:1
170 A thermos flask is polished well:
1. to make it attractive
When unpolarised light beam is incident from the air onto 2. for shining
165 3. to absorb all radiations from outside
glass (n = 1.5) at the polarising angle, then: 4. to reflect all radiations from outside

1. reflected beam is polarised 100 percent. 171 A long straight wire carries 10 amp DC current. An
2. reflected and refracted beams are partially polarised. electron travels perpendicular to this wire at a distance of 0.1 m
3. the reason for (1) is that almost all the light is reflected. with velocity 5.0 × 10 ms . Force acting on the electron due
6 −1

4. all of the above. to the current in the wire is:

1. zero
166 The radius of a ball is (5.2 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage 2. 0.6 × 10 −17
N

error in the volume of the ball is: 3. 1.6 × 10 −17

N

1. 11% 4. 2.2 × 10 −17

N

2. 4%
3. 7% 172 The current range of an ammeter of 1 A is obtained by
4. 9% shunting a 27 Ω galvanometer with a 3 Ω resistance. What is the
current rating of the galvanometer?
1. 0.1 A
2. 0.2 A
3. 0.3 A
4. 0.4 A

Page: 18
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

173 An electron accelerated under a potential difference V volt 179 In the P-V diagram, I is the initial state and F is the final
has a certain wavelength λ. Mass of proton is some 2000 times state. The gas goes from I to F by; (i) IAF (ii) IBF (iii) ICF
of the mass of the electron. If the proton has to have the same The heat absorbed by the gas is:
wavelength λ, then it will have to be accelerated under a
potential difference of:
1. V volts
2. 2000V volts
V
3. 2000
volts
4. √2000V volts

174 In a semiconductor the forbidden energy gap between the

valence band and the conduction band is of the order of:
1. 1 eV
2. 5 eV 1. the same in all three processes.
3. 1 keV 2. the same in (i) and (ii).
4. 1 MeV 3. greater in (i) and (ii) than in (iii).
4. the same in (i) and (iii).
175 A person takes an aim at a monkey sitting on a tree and
fires a bullet. If on seeing the smoke the monkey begins to fall 180 An ideal gas (γ = 1.51) is expanded adiabatically. How
freely, then the bullet will: many times has the gas to be expanded to reduce the root mean
1. hit the monkey. square velocity of molecules 2.0 times?
2. go above the monkey. 1. 4 times
3. go below the monkey. 2. 16 times
hit the monkey if the initial velocity of the bullet is more than 3. 8 times
4. 4. 2 times
a definite velocity.
Let cos(ωt + ϕ). At If the time
176 A spring gun of spring constant 90 N/cm is compressed 12 181
x = xm t = 0, x = xm .

period is T , what is the time taken to reach x = x m /2?

cm by a ball of mass 16 g. If the trigger is pulled, the velocity of
1. 3T /2
the ball is:
2. T /3
1. 50 ms-1
3. 2T /3
2. 9 ms-1 4. T /6
3. 40 ms-1
4. 90 ms-1 182 By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the

A shell explodes and many pieces fly off in different pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density = 13.6 g/cm3).
177 Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass upto a
directions. Which of the following is conserved? maximum depth of:
1. Kinetic energy 1. 10 cm
2. Momentum 2. 75 cm
3. Neither momentum nor kinetic energy 3. 13.6 cm
4. 1.36 cm
4. Momentum and kinetic energy

178 Suppose the Earth suddenly contracts such that the

duration of the new day is 24/n2. If the original radius is r, then

the new radius assuming that the mass of Earth remains the
same will be:
1. r/n2
2. nr
3. r/n
4. 2nr

Page: 19
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

183 The current flowing through the diode D2 is 187 A particle is thrown with a velocity of u m/s. If it passes
through A and B as shown in the figure at time t 1 = 1 s and
2
t = 3 s, then the value of h is: ( Take g = 10 m/s )
2

1. zero
2. 4 mA
3. 2.5 mA 1. 15 m
4. 0.8 A 2. 10 m
3. 30 m
Given below are two statements: 4. 20 m
184
The speed of sound waves in a medium depends 188 The deflection of a moving coil galvanometer falls from
Statement I: on the elastic modulus and the density of the
60 divisions to 12 divisions for the same value of current in the
medium.
circuit, when a shunt of 12 Ω is connected. The resistance of the
The speed of sound in a gas is independent of its
Statement II: galvanometer is:
temperature.
1. 2 Ω 2. 20 Ω

3. 48 Ω 4. 96 Ω
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
189
constant radius 'r' such that its centripetal acceleration ac is
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
proportional to tn (where 't' is time). The power 'p' is
proportional to:
185 Which, of the following particles, is unstable?
1. tn
1. proton
2. neutron 2. tn-2
3. electron 3. tn-1
4. antineutrino 4. t (n/2−1)

Physics - Section B 190 In an insulator, the energy gap between the conduction
band and the valence band is:
186 The initial velocity vi required to project a body vertically 1. infinity
2. wide
upwards from the surface of the earth to just reach a height of
3. narrow
10R, where R is the radius of the earth, described in terms of
4. zero
escape velocity ve is:
1. √ 10
ve 191 Concave and convex lenses are placed touching each
11

2. √
11
ve
other. The ratio of magnitudes of their power is 2:3. If the focal
10
length of the system is 30 cm, then the focal lengths of
3. √ individual lenses are (in cm):
20
ve
11

1. -75, 50
4. √ 11

20
ve
2. -15, 10
3. 75, 50
4. 75, -50

Page: 20
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

192 A small spherical ball cannot hold one coulomb of charge 196 A wave represented by the equation y=a cos(kx+ωt) is
in air because at this stage: superimposed on another wave to form a stationary wave such
voltage of the ball becomes high enough to destroy the that the point x = 0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is:
1. 1. a sin(kx+ωt)
insulating property of air.
2. capacity of the ball is too high to hold the charge. 2. −a cos(kx+ωt)
3. nuclear forces wipe off the charge of the ball. 3. −a cos(kx−ωt)
4. −a sin(kx−ωt)
4. electromagnetic forces reduce the charge of the ball.

197 X is a battery of emf 6 V and internal resistance 1 ohm.

193 Liquid drops are falling slowly one by one from a vertical
The potential at point P in the figure is:
glass tube. Establish a relation between the weight W of a drop,
the surface tension T , and the radius r of the tube: (θ=0 ) ∘

1. W = πr T 2

2. W =2πrT
3. W =2πr T 2

4. W = 4/3πr T 3

194 The heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a

cyclic process shown in the figure is:

1. 6 V
2. 5 V
3. 3 V
4. 2 V

198 The threshold frequency for a certain metal is ν0 . When

the light of frequency ν = 2ν is incident on it, the maximum
0

velocity of photoelectrons is 4 × 10 m/s. If the frequency of

6

incident radiation is increased to 5ν , then the maximum

0

velocity of photoelectrons (in m/s) will be:

1. 10 3
π J 1. (4/5) × 10 6

2. 10 2
π J 2. 2 × 10 6

3. 10 4
π J 3. 8 × 10 6

4. 10 7
π J 4. 2 × 10 7

195 The total energy of a particle executing simple harmonic A boy of mass kg is hanging from the horizontal
199 40

motion is: branch of a tree. The tension in his arms is minimum when the
1. ∝ x angle between the arms is:
2. ∝ x
2 1. 0∘

3. independent of x 2. 90 ∘

3. 120 ∘

4. ∝ x
1/2

4. 180 ∘

(where x is the displacement from the mean position)

Page: 21
 High Yield Test #1 (Level 1)

200 The ratio of the moments of inertia of two spheres about

their diameter and having same mass and their radii in the ratio
of 1 : 2 is:
1. 2 : 1
2. 4 : 1
3. 1 : 2
4. 1 : 4

Page: 22
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