Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 4. Study the diagram given below and choose

the correct information that can be deduced :
1. Match each item in COLUMN I with one in
COLUMN II and select your answer from the
codes given:
COLUMN I COLUMN II
SCIENTIST CONTRIBUTION
Francis
a. Breaking the genetic code
Crick
b. Eastablished Coenorthabditis
Nirenberg
elegans as as a model genetics
study organism
c. Central dogma of molecular
Benzer
biology
Brenner 1. The core RNA polymerase is capable of
d. Bacteriophase genetics catalyzing elongation only
2. Sigma factor and Rho factor are needed for
A B C D
termination of transcription
1. c a d b 3. DNA helicase opens the strand of the DNA
2. c a b d 4. Both strands of DNA are transcribed by the
3. a b c d same RNA polymerase
4. a c d b
5. Consider the following statements:
I. All the reference point while defining a
2. DNA chemically is less reactive and transcription unit is made with coding strand
structurally more stable than RNA. Therefore, II. It is the presence of a promoter in a
1. DNA has evolved from the RNA transcription unit that also defines the template
2. RNA can directly code for proteins and coding strands
3. DNA is the better genetic material than RNA III. Exons are said to be sequences that do not
4. The protein synthesizing machinery has appear in mature or processed RNA
evolved around RNA Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
3. The function of the rho protein is 2. I and III only
1. to help terminate translation 3. II and III only
2. to help RNA polymerase bind to the DNA 4. I, II and III
3. to help RNA polymerase find a promoter
4. to help terminate transcription

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6. Match each item in Column I with one item 11. What will be the genotype of parental plants
in Column II and chose your answer from the if they produced 25 AA : 48 Aa : 26 aa
codes given below: (1) AA and AA
Column I Column II (2) AA and aa
(nRNA codons) (Amino Acid) (3) Aa and Aa
I. GUG 1. Tryptophan (4) aa and aa
II. UGG 2. Valine
III. UAC 3. Glutamic acid 12. If F2 dwarf plants were self-pollinated then
IV. GAG 4. Tyrosine the genotype of F3 & F4 plants is
(1) TT and Tt
(2) tt and tt
Codes (3) tt and Tt
I II III IV (4) Tt and Tt
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 1 4 3 13. Disorder caused by the trisomy of
(3) 2 1 3 4 chromosome number 21
(4) 1 2 4 3 (1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(2) Turner’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome
(4) Phenylketonuria
7. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
(1) parallel 14. The chromosome movement during meiosis
(2) discontinuous have been worked out
(3) antiparallel (1) 1900
(4) semiconservative (2) 1902
(3) 1911
8. The total number of nitrogenous bases in (4) 1930
human genome is estimated to be about
(1) 3.5 million 15. Today ________ are extensively used as a
(2) 35 thousand _______ point in the sequencing of whole
(3) 35 million genome
(4) 3.1 billion (1) Pedigree charts, conclusive
(2) Genetic maps, starting
9. In the lac operon model, lactose molecules (3) Pedigree charts, starting
function as:- (4) Genetic maps, conclusive
(1) inducers, which bind with the operator
gne 16. If the female has three boys in her first
(2) repressors, which bind with the operator three pregnancy. What are the chances of
gene getting female child this time?
(3) inducers, which bind with the repressor (1) 25%
protein (2) 50%
(4) corepressors, which bind with repressors (3) 75%
protein (4) 20%

10. Among the given pea plant traits identify 17. Myotonic dystrophy is
the odd one (1) Autosomal recessive trait
(1) Violet flower (2) Autosomal dominant trait
(2) Yellow seed (3) X- linkeddominant trait
(3) Yellow pod (4) X- linked recessive trait
(4) Axial flower position

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18. Which of the following disorder is 24. Tailing of hnRNA takes place in a
associated with Queen Victoria? (1)template dependent manner
(1) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) template independent manner
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Huntington's Disease (3) random manner
(4) Myotonic dystrophy (4)all of the above

19. Regulation of lac operon can be visualised 25. Which one(s) is / are correct?
as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its A. In prokaryotes, a single type of RNA
(1) substrate polymerase can transcribe mRNA, tRNA and
(2)lactose rRNA.
(3)carbohydrates B. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes
(4)All of these rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S), whereas RNA
polymerase III is responsible for the
20. Which of the following is incorrect transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs.
C. RNA pol II transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes.
for DNA polymerase?
D. Ribosomal large subunit has p and A-sites.
(1)template dependent enzyme (1) A, C
(2)highly efficient enzyme (2) A, B, C, D
(3)high degree of accuracy (3) B, C, D
(4)template independent enzyme (4) A, B, D

21. The template of DNA on which 26. Choose the correct statements:
I. Binding of mRNA to the ribosome is loose and
discontinuous replication occurs has
reversible.
polarity II. The ribosome, which is composed of tRNA
(1)5’to 3’ and proteins, consists of a small and large
(2)3’ to 5’ subunit.
(3)both a and b III. Each of the 20 amino acids has a minimum
of one specific tRNA molecule.
(4)None of these IV. tRNAMET binds to the first codon (AUG) -
this is called the START codon.
V. The second tRNA binds to the second codon
22. Which of the following would be
so that their attached monosaccharides are
present in processed RNA? next to each other
(1)exons VI. The newly formed polypeptide may undergo
(2)introns post-transcriptional modification.
(3)both A and B (1) I, III and IV
(4)sometimes exons sometimes introns (2) II, IV, VI
(3) II, V and VI
23. In (4) I, V, VI
hnRNA, tailing and capping takes
place at the 27. What is another name for thymine?
(1)5’ and 3’ end respectively
(2) 3’ and 5’ end respectively 1. 5 – bromouracil
(3) 3’ and 3’ end respectively 2. 3 – bromouracil
3. 3 – methyl uracil
(4) 5’ and 5’ end respectively
4. 5 – methyl uracil

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28. The F2 genotypic ratio of a monohybrid 34. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’
cross is: blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
1. 1 : 1 respectively. What would be the genotype of
2. 3 : 1 both mother and father?
3. 1 : 2 : 1 1. Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group
3. 9 : 7 and father is heterozygous for ‘B’
2. Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group
29. and father is homozygous for ‘B’
What can be the blood groups of progeny 3. Both mother and father are heterozygous for
whose father and mother are of AB and O blood ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively
group respectively? 4. Both mother and father are homozygous for
1. A and B only ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively
2. AB only
3. All except O 35. The units of inheritance according to
4. A, B, AB and O Mendel were ‘factors’. Today these factors are
known as:
1. Gametes 2. DNA
30. The frequency of recombination between 3. Genes 4. RNA
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was
explained by:
1. Sutton Boveri 2. T.H. Morgan Botany - Section B
3. Gregor J. Mendel 4. Alfred Sturtevant 36. Insertion or deletion of how many bases
will not cause a frameshift mutation?
1. 1 2. 2
31. The last of 24 human chromosomes to be 3. 3 4. Any number
sequenced was:
1. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2003
2. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2006
37. Identifying all the genes in the genome that
3. Chromosome X and completed in 2003
are transcribed into RNA is called:
4. Chromosome X and completed in 2006
Expressed Sequence Sequence
1. 2.
32. The promoter site and the terminator site Tag Annotation
for transcription are located at: 3. Inverse PCR 4. Retrotransposition
3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end,
1.
respectively of the transcription unit
5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, 38. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the
2. coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is:
respectively of the transcription unit
5' -ATGAATG-3',
3. the 5' (upstream) end
the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript
4. the 3' (downstream) end would be;
1. 5'-AUGAAUG-3'
2. 5'-UACUUAC-3'
33. If a genetic disease is transferred from a 3. 5'-CAUUCAU-3'
phenotypically normal but carrier female to 4. 5'-GUAAGUA-3'
only some of the male progeny, the disease is:
1. Autosomal dominant 2. Autosomal recessive
3. Sex-linked dominant 4. Sex-linked recessive

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39. In human ABO group system ________ 44. Given below are two statements: one is
different alleles allow the possibility of _______ labelled asAssertion (A) and the other is
different types of genotypes in population. labelled as Reason (R).
1. 3, 4 Mendel's law of Independent
2. 2, 4 assortment does not hold good
3. 3, 6 Assertion (A): for the genes that are located
4. 6, 3 closely on the same
chromosome.
40. Mendel's work on Pisum sativum shows Closely located genes assort
that Reason (R):
independently.
1. Alleles show blending inheritance
2. F1 resembled either of the two parents
3. In a dissimilar pair of factors, members of In the light of the above statements, choose the
the pair are codominant correct answer from the options given below:
4. Genotype of F2 tall plant can be determined
by cross with recessive parent 1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
41. Find the odd one (with respect to dominant Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
traits in garden pea) 3.
correct explanation of (A).
1. Yellow pod color
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
2. Violet flower color
3. Yellow seed color
4. Full pod shape
45. If a colour blind female marries a man
42. whose mother was also colour blind, what are
the chances of her progeny having colour
Degenerate, triplet, commaless, overlapping,
blindness
universal in eukaryotes only
1. 100%
How many of the above features are associated 2. 25%
with universal genetic code? 3. 50%
1. Five 4. 75%
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two

43. XO type of sex determination can be found

in:
1. Monkeys
2. Drosophila
3. Birds
4. Grasshoppers

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46. Given below are two statements: One is 49. A certain plant homozygous for yellow
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is seeds and red flowers was crossed with a plant
labelled as Reason (R) homozygous for green seeds and white flowers.
The F1 plants had yellow seeds and pink
A father will never pass the flowers. The F1 plants were selfed to get F2
Assertion (A): gene for haemophilia to his progeny. Assuming independent assortment of
sons the two characters, how many phenotypic
Haemophilia is sex-linked (X- categories are expected for these characters in
Reason (R):
linked recessive traits. the F2 generation?
1. 9 2. 16
In the light of the above statements, choose the 3. 4 4. 6
correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. 50. Select the correct statement/s with respect
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. to mechanism of sex determination in
Grasshopper.
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3. A. It is an example of female heterogamety
correct explanation of (A).
Male produces two different types of
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
4. B. gametes either with or without X
correct explanation of (A).
chromosomes.
Total number of chromosomes (autosomes
47. Frequency of recombination between gene C. and sex chromosomes) is same in both
pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the males and females.
distance between genes to map their position D. All eggs bear in additional X chromosome
on chromosome, was used for the first time by: besides the autosomes.
1. Henking 2. Thomas Hunt Morgan
3. Sutton and Boveri 4. Alfred Sturtevant Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (C) and (D) only
48. Which one of the following symbols 3. (A) only 4. (A) and (C) only
represents mating between relatives in human
pedigree analysis?

1. 2. Zoology - Section A
51. The occurrence of endemic species in South
America and Australia is due to
1. Extinction of these species from other regions
3. 4. 2. Continental separation
3. No terrestrial route to these places
4. Retrogressive evolution

52. The similarities between the eyes of an

octopus and of a mammal are a result of:
1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Saltation
4. Retrograde evolution

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53. DNA damage leading to neoplastic 58. Which of the following cannot be the
transformation can be brought about by parasites of intestine?
ionizing radiations like :
1. UV rays (1) Tapeworm
2. Gamma rays (2) Pinworm
3. Infrared waves (3) Virus
4. Radio waves (4) Threadworm

54. Consider the following statements:

I. Cancer is essentially a genetic disease caused
by multiple mutational events. 59. Which of the following statements are not
II. Cancerous cells are rapidiy dividing cells that true?
exhibit contact inhibition.
(1) The origin of life is considered a unique
III. Metastasis is the most feared complication
event in the history of universe.
of any cancer
(2) Earth is just a speck.
Which of the above statements are true?
(3) Universe is almost 20 million years old
1. I and II only
(4) Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and
2. I and III only
dust
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

55. The process by which organisms with 60. Which of the following is true regarding
different evolutionary history evolve similar early earth?
phenotypic adaptations in response to a 1. Earth was supposed to have been formed
common enviroment challenge, is called about 4.5 billion years back.
1. natural selection 2. The atmosphere of early earth was full of
2. convergent evolution water vapour.
3. non-random evolution 3. The surface of earth was covered by water
4. adaptive radiation vapour, methane and carbondioxide, the three
compounds, formed from molten mass.
56. Ringworm in humans is caused by 4. The UV rays from the sun broke up water
1. bacteria into hydrogen and oxygen and lighter oxygen
2. fungi escaped.
3. nematodes
4. viruses 61. Which of the following is not the example of
evolution by anthropogenic actions?
57. Refer to the given figure and choose the
organism not related to the condition shown (1) Herbicide resistant varieties
here. (2) Antibiotic resistant microbes
(3) Darwin Finches
(4) Different breeds of dogs

1. Microsporum
2. Trichophyton
3. W. malayi
4. Epidermophyton

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62. Which of the following is not Australian 67. Which of the following won't affect health?
marsupial? 1. Genetic disorders And infections
2. Mind and mental state with black bile
(1) Numbat 3. Lifestyle; our habits and some habits which
(2) Lemur we lack
(3) Flying Phalanger 4. Rest and exercise
(4) Tasmanian tiger cat
68. In pneumonia
1. Lips and fingernails may turn greenish in
color
63. In the story of this world, evolution is a …... 2. Lips and fingernails may turn bluish in
and in the story of life on Earth, evolution is…… color
1. Process, result of environmental changes 3. Lips and hair may turn brownish in color
2. Result of environmental changes, process 4. Lips and hair may turn grayish in color.
3. Process, result of natural selection
4. Result of natural selection, process 69. The means of spread of which two
infectious diseases is common?
64. Which of the following could evolve by the 1. Malaria and Filariasis
time of 500 mya? 2. Pneumonia and the common cold
3. Typhoid and Ringworms
(1) Jawless fishes
4. Pneumonia and Malaria
(2) Invertebrates
(3) Sea weeds
70. The blockage of the intestinal passage is a
(4) Lobefins
symptom of the infection of
1. Wuchereria
2. Salmonella
65. Which of the following was not flourishing 3. Entamoeba
in Jurassic period? 4. Ascaris

(1) Herbaceous lycopods 71. Ringworms occur due to

(2) Sphenopsids 1. Fungal infections which are supported by
(3) Ferns dryness or cold ambiance
(4) Conifers 2. Fungal infections which are supported by
heat and moisture
3. Protozoan infection supported by moisture
and coolness
66. The granulocytes that are actively 4. Protozoan infection supported by heat
phagocytic and the most numerous of the
leukocytes circulating in the blood are the: 72. The major cause of lung cancer is
1. Biological carcinogen
(1) neutrophils 2. Chemical carcinogen
(2) basophils 3. Physical carcinogen
(3) eosinophils 4. Both 2 and 3
(4) monocytes
73. Biological response modifiers are
1. Alpha-interferons
2. Immune system activators
3. Antibodies
4. More than one options are correct

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74. The drugs which are abused 79. The theory of spontaneous generation says
1. Cannot be alkaloids that
2. Majority of these are obtained from 1. Life originated from the decaying and rotting
flowering plants matter like straw , mud etc
3. They are not obtained from fungi 2. Life came on the earth from outerspace
4. Opioids are not abused commonly 3. Life comes from pre-existing life only
4. Life started with the replication of self
75. Which of the following causes wouldn't lead replicating metabolic capsules
to addiction to drugs?
1. Because of Euphoria and a temporary 80. Haemozoin is a:
feeling of well being associated with drug and 1. precursor of hemoglobin
alcohol 2. toxin released from Streptococcus infected
2. Tolerance level of receptor increases cells
3. Absence of guidance or counseling 3. toxin released from Plasmodium infected
4. One, realizing the inherent addictive nature cells
of drugs and use it occasionally. 4. toxin released from Haemophilus infected
cells
76. Dependence on drugs can be
1. Tendency of the body to manifest a 81. Rhinovirus does not affect:
characteristic and pleasant withdrawal 1. Lungs 2. Nose
syndrome if the regular dose is discontinued 3. Pharynx 4. Larynx
2. Characterised by anxiety, shakiness,
nausea, and sweating
3. Something which leads to follow all social 82. Which of the following is a recombinant
norms for all sufficient funds vaccine?
4. There will be no social adjustment problems
1. BCG 2. OPV
ultimately
3. Hepatitis B 4. MMR
77. Recombination DNA technology has allowed
the production of __A__ of pathogen in bacteria
or yeast. Here A is :- 83. Cannabinoid receptors are principally
1. Pro-toxin. located in the brain but they also have side
2. Anti-bodies. effects on:
3. Antigenic polypeptide. 1. GIT 2. CVS
4. Antigenic polysaccharide. 3. Liver 4. Lungs

78. In a species, the weight of a newborn ranges

from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborns with an 84. A tumor that invades surrounding tissues is
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive usually capable of producing metastases, may
whereas 99% of the infants born with weights recur after attempted removal, and is likely to
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die. Which type cause death unless adequately treated. Such a
of selection process is taking place? tumor is called a:
1. Cyclical selection 2. Directional selection 1. Benign tumor 2. Malignant tumor
3. Stabilizing selection 4. Disruptive selection 3. Teratoma 4. Secondary tumor

85. The mammals evolved from:

1. Therapsids
2. Prosimians
3. Platyrrhinis
4. Sauropsids

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Zoology - Section B
90. Biologists discover about 1000 species in an
Island
86. The dominant plants during the Jurassic which is descended from a single ancestor
period were: species.
1. Bryophytes and Ferns What is the reason behind the such large
2. Gymnosperms speciation?
3. Monocots 1. Mutation
4. Dicots 2. Adaptive radiation
3. Convergent evolution.
87. The cranial capacity of Homo erectus was 4. Reproductive isolation
around:
1. 450 cc 91. Which of the following satement is
2. 700 cc incorrect?
3. 900 cc 1. According to Darwin any Population has
4. 1000 cc built in variations in characteristics
2. Darwins variations are small and
88. Which theory, regarding the origin of life, is directionless
alternatively also called “panspermia”? 3. Mutation are random and directionless
Spontaneous 4. Fitness is the end result of the ability to
1. Special Creation 2. adapt and get selected by nature
Generation
Cosmozoan
3. 4. Biochemical Evolution 92. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to
Theory
40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of
Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows,
retreating foreheads, large jaw with heavy
89. Read the following statements about cancer
teeth stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and
and mark the incorrect ones
stooped posture was
Ionising radiations like x-rays and UV rays 1 Cro-Magnon humans
and non-ionizing radiations like gamma 2 Ramapithecus
(i)
rays cause DNA damage leading to 3 Dryopithecus
neoplastic transformation. 4 Neanderthal human
CT scan uses non-ionizing radiations to
(ii) accurately detect pathological and 93. Find the incorrect statement
physiological changes in the living tissue. 1 Analogous organs are the result of convergent
Antibodies against cancer-specific or parallel evolution in separate lineage
(iii) antigents are also used for detection of 2 Evolution is stochastic process based on
certain cancers. chance events in nature and chance mutations
Some of the chemotherapeutic drugs are in organisms
(iv) 3 The origin of seeds in the land plants was
specific for certain cancers.
achieved about 140 million years ago by
1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 2. (i) and (ii) angiosperms
4 Variability of genes in gene pool is the raw
3. (iii) and (iv) 4. (ii) and (iv)
material for evolutionary change

94. The fitness, according to Darwin, refers

ultimately and only to
1 Reproductive fitness
2 Fit to search the food easily
3 Protect itself from predaptor
4 Fit to produce large quantity of enzymes for
digestion

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95. Mark out the incorrect statement regarding 98. Which of the following statement is true:
carcinogens 1. Homo erectus is direct ancestor of Homo
1 It can be physical, chemical or biological sapiens
agents 2. Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of
2 Ionizing radiations like X-rays and UV rays modern man
cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic 3. Australopithecous is direct ancestor of
transformation modern man
3 Tobacco smoke contain chemical carcinogens 4. Fossils of cromagnon man first found in
which are the cause of lung cancer Ethiopia
4 Carcinogenic factors can be both internal and
external 99. An environment eliminates individuals at
the extremes of a population. This type of
96. The correct match is natural selection will be called as:
1. Stabilizing
2. Directional
3. Disruptive
- Heroin/smack 4. Dispersive

1 100. All of the following statements about

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are correct
except:
Any change in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
- Morphine 1.
indicates evolution
Gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic
2
2. recombination, and natural selection are five
factors which affect this equilibrium
- Cannabis sativa Chemical
structure of cannabinoid Random mating also induces a change in this
3.
molecule equilibrium
3 Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a tool to
4.
4 measure the extent of evolutionary change
- Papaver somniferum
Chemical structure of
morphine
Chemistry - Section
A
101. n-Propyl alcohol and iso-propyl alcohol can
be distinguished by -
1. PCl5
97. The primary lymphoid organs are 2. reduction
1 Bone marrow and thymus 3. oxidation with potassium dichromate
2 Spleen and tonsils 4. ozonolysis
3 Peyer's patches and lymph nodes
4 Appendix and spleen 102. Ethyl chloride is converted into diethyl
ether by -
1. Wurtz reaction
2. Grignard reaction
3. Perkin's reaction
4. Williamson's synthesis

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103. Lucas reagent is- 109. Which is an excellent antiseptic?

1. conc. HCl and anhy. ZnCl2 1. Phenol
2. conc. HNO3 and anhy. ZnCl2 2. Benzyl alcohol
3. conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2 3. Benzaldehyde
4. Acetic acid
4. conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
110. The value of C-O-C angle in ether molecule
104. In SN reactions, the correct order of is :
2

reactivity for the following compounds : 1. 180°

CH3 Cl, CH3 CH2 Cl, (CH3 ) CHCl and 2. 150°
2

(CH3 ) CCl is : 3. 90°

3

1. CH3 Cl>(CH3 ) CHCl>CH3 CH2 Cl> 4. 110°

2

(CH3 ) CCl
3
111. Consider the following reaction,
2. >
CH3 Cl CH3 CH2 Cl (CH3 ) > 2
CHCl > Zn−dust CH3 Cl Alk.KMnO4

(CH3 ) CCl Phenol−−−−→X−−−−−−→Y−−−−−−→Z

3
Anhy.AlCl3
3. >
CH3 CH2 Cl CH3 Cl (CH3 ) > 2
CHCl >
(CH3 )
3
CCl
The product Z is
4. (CH3 )
2
> >
CHCl CH3 CH2 Cl CH3 Cl >
1. toluene
(CH3 ) CCl 2. benzaldehyde
3
3. benzoic acid
105. A yellow precipitate is obtained when 4. benzene
aqueous AgNO3 is added to a solution of the
112. R-CHO + H2 →RCH2OH,
compound:
1. CCl3 CHO The catalyst used in the above reaction is -
2. CHI3 1. Ni
2. Pd
3. CHCl3
3. Pt
4. C6 H5 CH2 Cl
4. All of above.
106. Acetone

The reaction, RCl +NaI −−

−−→ R − I + NaCl 113. PCl Alc.KOH 1. Conc. H SO5 2 4

Z−
−→X− −−−→Y−− − −− −− −→Z is:
is known as: 2. H O; boil 2

1. Wurtz reaction 1. CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

2. Fittig reaction 2. CH3 − CH − CH3
3. Frankland's reaction |

4. Finkelstein's reaction OH

3. (C2H5)3C-OH
107. In the following sequences of reactions; 4. CH3-CH=CH2
KOH(alc.) HBr KOH(aq)

CH3 CH2 CH2 Br −−−−−→ (A)−→(B)−−−−→ (C)

the product (C) is:
1. propene
2. propyne
3. propan-1-ol
4. propan-2-ol

108. 23g of sodium react with CH3OH to give-

1. 1 mole of O2
2. 1/2 mole of H2
3. 1 mole of H2
4. None of the above

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114. The Williamson's synthesis reaction among 115. In the following reaction,
the following is -

1.

2.

3. C2 H5 I + C2 H5 ON a → C2 H5 − O − C2 H5 + N aI

4.
The major products A and C are respectively:
A C

1.

2.

3.

4.

116. p-nitrophenol is stronger acid than phenol

because nitro group is:
1. Electron withdrawing
2. Electron donating
3. Basic
4. Acidic

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117. 119. SN1 and SN2 products are the same with
(excluding stereoisomer):-

1.

Product of reaction is :

(1) 2.

(2)
(3)

3.

(4)

118. An aromatic compound A (C8H10O) gives 4.

the following tests with the given reagents.
120. CH3

CH3 — C— CH — CH3

| |
EtOH

CH3 Br −−→(A)
Δ

Major product (A) is:

The structure of 'A' is:

1. 2. 1.

2.

3. 4.

3.

4.

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121. CH3 123. Product (A) in the reaction below is:

|

CH3 — C— CH3

Br

(a)
CH3-CH-CH3
l
Br
(b) 1. 2.
CH3-CH-Br
(c)
Compare rate of E2 reaction:-
(1)c>b>a
(2)a>b>c
(3)b>a>c
(4)c>a>b 3. 4.

122. Product (A) in the below mentioned

reaction is:

124. The reactivity order of alkyl halides

depends upon:
1. Nature of alkyl group only
2. Nature of halogen atom only
3. Nature of both alkyl group and a halogen
atom
1. 2.
4. None of the above

125. The given reaction is an example of,

C2H5Br + aqu. KCN → C2H5CN + KBr
1. Elimination
2. Nucleophilic substitution
3. 4. 3. Electrophilic substitution
4. Redox change

126. In the following sequences of reactions;

KOH (alc.) H Br KOH (aq

CH3 CH2 CH2 Br −−−−−→ (A) −

−→ (B) −−−−−→
−H Br

the product (C) is:

(1) propene
(2) propyne
(3) propan-1-ol
(4) propan-2-ol

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127. In the reaction, 131. Phenyl ethyl ether with concentrated

. .hydrobromic
. . . . . . . . . . . .acid on boiling yields:-
+
CH3 C ≡ C¯N a + (CH3 ) CH Cl → .
2

the product formed is: 1. Phenol and ethyl bromide

(1) 4-Methylpent-2-yne 2. Bromobenzene and ethanol
(2) propyne 3. Phenol and ethane
(3) propyne and propene 4. Bromobenzene and ethane
(4) none of these
132. Reaction of phenol with chloroform in the
presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally
128. Which is most reactive for SN2 reactions ? introduces, which one of the following
(1) CH3I functional group?
1. -CH2Cl
(2) C2H5I
2. -COOH
(3) C3H7I
3. -CHCl2
(4) C4H9I
4. -CHO

129. Phenol is: 133. The conversion of m-nitrophenol to

1. a stronger base than NH3 resorcinol involves respectively
2. an acid stronger than carbonic acid 1. reduction, diazotisation and hydrolysis
3. an acid weaker than carbonic acid 2. hydrolysis, diazotisation and reduction
4. None of the above 3. hydrolysis, reduction and diazotisation
4. diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis
130. Identify Z in the following series,
CH3-CH2-CH2OH 134.
Conc. H2 SO4 Br2 1. Alc. KOH

−−−−−−−→ X−
→ Y−−−−−−−→ Z
160 −180°C 2. NaNH2

1. CH3 — CH— CH2 P, Q, and R in the above-mentioned sequence of

reactions are respectively:
| |

1.
NH2 NH2

2. CH3 — CH— CH2

2.
| |

OH OH 3.

3. CH3 — C = CH2
4.
|

OH

4. CH3 — C ≡ CH

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135. The reaction, 137.

is called:
1. Williamson synthesis
2. Williamson continuous etherification process The major products A and C in the above-
3. Etard reaction mentioned reaction are respectively:
4. Gatterman-Koch reaction
1.

Chemistry - Section
B 2.
136. Which of the following will not be soluble
in sodium hydrogen carbonate?
2, 4, 6-
1. 2. Benzoic acid 3.
trinitrophenol
Benezenesulphonic
3. o-Nitrophenol 4.
acid
4.

138. The compound that is most difficult to

protonate is:

1. 2.

3. 4.

139. The conversion of cyclohexanol into

cyclohexene is most effective with
1. Concentrated H3PO4
2. Concentrated HCl
3. Concentrated HCl / ZnCl2
4. Concentrated HBr

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140. Which of the following molecules can 143. Amongst the following, the alcohol that
readily undergo the SN2 mechanism? reacts with conc. HCl /anhydrous ZnCl2 to form
1. (CH3)3C – Cl alkyl halide at room temperature, will be
1. CH3 − CH2 − OH
2. CH2= CH – Cl
2. P h − CH2 − CH2 − OH
3. CH2 = CH – CH2 –CH2Cl CH
3

3. P h − C − OH
|

4.
CH
3

4.

141. Which of the following compounds are

optically active? 144. Which of the following shows geometrical
isomerism?

(i).
1. 2.

(ii).

(iii). 3. 4.

(iv).
1. (i) & (ii)
2. (i) & (iii)
3. (ii) & (iii) 145. Which of the following reacts with
4. (i) & (iv) chloroform and base to form phenyl
isocyanide?
142. 1. Nitrobenzene
2. Phenol
3. Chlorobenzene
4. Aniline

146. What results from an alkyl halide's

reaction with RCOOAg?
Product B is 1. Ester
2. Aldehyde
3. Ether
4. Ketone

1.
2. CH3 − CH2 − O − CH2 CH2 OH
3. CH3 − CH2 − S − CH2 − CH2 − OH
4. CH3 CH2 OH

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147. The mechanism (s) through which 153. Two circuits have coefficient of mutual
isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis is/are : induction of 0.09 henry. Average e.m.f. induced
1. SN 1 and SN 2 mechanisms in the secondary by a change of current from 0
2. Neither SN 1 nor SN 2 mechanisms to 20 ampere in 0.006 second in the primary will
3, SN 1 mechanism only be
4. SN 2 mechanism only (1) 120 V
(2) 80 V
148. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in the (3) 200 V
presence of light and air to form: (4) 300 V
1. Phosgene
2. Formyl chloride 154. The inductance of a coil is 60μH. A current
3. Formaldehyde in this coil increases from 1.0 A to 1.5 A in 0.1
4. Trichloroethanol second. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. is
(1) 60 × 10–6 V
149. Which of the following molecules has the (2) 300 × 10–4 V
highest melting point? (3) 30 × 10–4 V
1. Chlorobenzene
(4) 3 × 10–4 V
2. o-Dichlorobenzene
3. m-Dichlorobenzene
155. The core of a transformer is laminated to
4. p-Dichlorobenzene
reduce energy losses due to
(1) Eddy currents
150. On sulphonation of C6H5Cl, the product
(2) Hysteresis
obtained is- (3) Resistance in winding
1. m-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid is formed (4) None of these
2. Benzene sulphonic acid is formed
3. o-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid is formed 156. A power transformer is used to step up an
4. o-and p-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid is alternating e.m.f. of 220 V to 11 kV to transmit
formed 4.4 kW of power. If the primary coil has 1000
turns, what is the current rating of the
Physics - Section A secondary ? Assume 100% efficiency for the
transformer
151. A magnet is brought towards a coil (i) (1) 4 A
speedily (ii) slowly then the induced (2) 0.4 A
e.m.f./induced charge will be respectively (3) 0.04 A
(1) More in first case / More in the first case (4) 0.2 A
(2) More in first case/Equal in both case
(3) Less in first case/More in second case
(4) Less in first case/Equal in both case

152. A coil having 500 square loops each of the

side 10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field
which increases at the rate of 1.0 tesla/second.
The induced e.m.f. in volts is
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.5
(3) 1
(4) 5

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

157. A square metallic wire loop of side 0.1 m 158. The current I in an inductance coil varies
and resistance of 1 Ω is moved with a constant with time t according to the graph shown in
velocity in a magnetic field of 2 wb/m2 as shown figure. Which one of the following plots shows
in the figure. The magnetic field is the variation of voltage in the coil with time ?
perpendicular to the plane of the loop and the [CBSE PMT 1994]
loop is connected to a network of resistances.
What should be the velocity of the loop so as to
have a steady current of 1 mA in the loop?

(1)
1. 1 cm/sec
2. 2 cm/sec
3. 3 cm/sec
4. 4 cm/sec

(2)

(3)

(4)

159. A generator produces a voltage that is

given by V = 240 sin 120 t, where t is in seconds.
The frequency and r.m.s. voltage are
(1) 60 Hz and 240 V
(2) 19 Hz and 120 V
(3) 19 Hz and 170 V
(4) 754 Hz and 70 V

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160. The peak value of an alternating e.m.f. E is 165. In a series LCR circuit, which one of the
given by E = E0 cos ω t is 10 volts and its following curves represents the variation of
frequency is 50 Hz. At time t =
1
sec, the impedance (Z) with frequency (f)?
600

instantaneous e.m.f. is
(1) 10 V
(2) 5√3 V 1. 2.
(3) 5 V
(4) 1 V

161. If a current I given by I0 sin (ω t −

π
)
2
3. 4.
flows in an ac circuit across which an ac
potential of E = E0 sin ω t has been applied,
then the power consumption P in the circuit
will be
E0 I0
(1) P =
√2 166. The variation of the instantaneous current
(2) P = √2E0 I0 (I) and the instantaneous emf (E) in a circuit are
E0 I0 shown in the figure. Which of the following
(3) P =
2 statements is correct?
(4) P = 0

162. In a LCR circuit having L = 8.0 henry, C =

0.5 μF and R = 100 ohm in series. The resonance
frequency in radian per second is
(1) 600 radian/second
(2) 600 Hz
(3) 500 radian/second
(4) 500 Hz 1. The voltage lags behind the current by π/2.
2. The voltage leads the current by π/2.
163. The power factor of a good choke coil is:
(1) Nearly zero 3. The voltage and the current are in phase.
(2) Exactly zero 4. The voltage leads the current by π.
(3) Nearly one
(4) Exactly one

164. An inductor of inductance L and resistor of

resistance R are joined in series and connected
by a source of frequency ω. The power
dissipated in the circuit is:
2 2 2
(R +ω L )

1.
V
2
V R
2. 2 2 2
(R +ω L )

V
3. 2 2 2
(R +ω L )

√R2 +ω2 L2
4. 2
V

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167. A constant voltage at different frequencies 170. A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100
is applied across a capacitance C as shown in Ω reactance are connected in series across a
the figure. 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50%
charged, the peak value of the displacement
current is
(1) 2.2 A
(2) 11A
(3) 4.4A
(4) 11√2A

171. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field.

Which of the following graphs accurately The frequency of change of direction of the
illustrates how current varies with frequency? induced emf is
(1) once per revolution

(2) twice per revolution

1. 2.
(3) four times per revolution

(4) six times per revolution

3. 4.
172. A coil having number of turns N and cross-
sectional area A is rotated in a uniform
magnetic field B with an angular velocity ω. The
maximum value of the emf induced in it is –
NBA
1. ω
168. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1m has 2
2. NBAω
×10
4
turns per meter. At the centre of the NBA

solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01m is 3. ω 2

placed with its axis coinciding with the 4. NBAω2

solenoid's axis. The current in the solenoid
reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4A in 173. In an ideal transformer, the voltage and
0.05s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π 2 Ω, the the current in the primary are 200 volt and 2
total charge flowing through the coil during amp. respectively. If the voltage in the
this time is secondary is 2000 volt. Then value of current in
1. 32πμC the secondary will be –
2. 16μC 1. 0.2 amp.
3. 32μC 2. 2 amp.
4. 16πμC 3. 10 amp.
4. 20 amp.
169. Which of the following combinations
should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R
circuit used for communication?
(a) R = 20Ω, L = 1. 5H , C = 35 μF
(b) R = 25Ω, L = 2. 5H , C = 45 μF
(c) R = 15Ω, L = 3. 5H , C = 30 μF
(d) R = 25Ω, L = 1. 5H , C = 45 μF

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174. A wire of fixed lengths is wound on a 178. The core of a transformer is laminated so
solenoid of length l and radius r. Its self that:
inductance is found to be L. Now if same wire is energy losses due to eddy currents may be
wound on a solenoid of length l/2 and radius 1. minimized
r/2, then the self inductance will be – the weight of the transformer may be
1. 2L 2.
reduced
2. L 3. rusting of the core may be prevented
3. 4L
the ratio of voltage in primary and
4. 8L 4.
secondary may be increased
175. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of 179. The sun delivers 3
10 w/m
2
of
inductance: electromagnetic flux to the earth's surface. The
1. 0.138 H total power that is incident on a roof of
2. 138.88 H dimensions 8 m×20 m will be
4 5
3. 1.389 H (1) 2. 56 × 10 W (2) 6. 4 × 10 W
4. 13.89 H (3) 4. 0 × 105 W (4) 1. 6 × 105 W

176. A resistance ' R' draws power 'P' when 180. The primary and secondary coils of a
connected to an AC source. If an inductance is transformer have 5O and 1500 turns
now placed in series with the resistance, such respectively. If the magnetic flux ϕ linked with
that the impedance of the circuit becomes 'Z', the primary coils is given by ϕ = ϕ0 + 4t, where
the power drawn will be: ϕ is in webers, t is time in second and ϕ0 is a
2
R
1. P ( ) constant, the output voltage across the
Z
secondary coil is
2. P √
R
1. 120 V
Z
2. 220 V
R
3. P ( ) 3. 30 V
Z
4. 90 V
4. P
181. The variation of EMF with time for four
177. The primary and secondary coils of a types of generators is shown in the figures.
transformer have 50 and 1500 turns Which amongst them can be called AC?
respectively. If the magnetic flux ϕ linked with
the primary coil is given by ϕ = ϕ0 + 4t,
where ϕ is in Weber, t is time in seconds, and
ϕ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the

secondary coil is:

1. 90 V
2. 120 V
3. 220 V
4. 30 V

1. (a) and (d)

2. (a), (b), (c), (d)
3. (a) and (b)
4. only (a)

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182. The number of turns in a coil of wire of

fixed radius & length is 600 and its self- Physics - Section B
inductance is 108 mH. The self-inductance of a 186. A direct current of 2 A and an alternating
coil of 500 turns will be: current having peak value 2 A flow through
1. 74 mH two identical resistance at the same time. The
2. 75 mH ratio of heat produced in the two resistance will
3. 76 mH be
4. 77 mH 1. 1: 1
2. 1: 2
183. The power dissipated in the following 3. 2: 1
circuit will be about half of its maximum value 4. 4: 1
at approximately
187. A circular ring of radius r is at the centre
of a square having side a (a ≫ r) . The mutual
inductance of the system is:
2
μ0 r
1. a
2
√2μ0 r
2. π
1. ω = 1050 rad/s 2√2μ0 r
2

2. ω = 1000 rad/s
3. a
2
2√2μ0 r
3. ω = 950 rad/s
4. πa
4. Both (1) & (3)

188. If potential differences measured in ac

184. In a uniform magnetic field, a ring is voltmeters across the inductor, capacitor, and
rotating about its axis which is parallel to the resistor in series LCR ac circuit are 100 V, 100 V,
magnetic field and the magnetic field is and 50 v respectively, then the peak value of the
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. The applied ac voltage to the circuit is
induced electric field in the ring: 1. 50 V
1. Is zero. 2. 50√2 V
2. Depends on the radius of the ring. 50
3. V
Depends on the nature of the material of the √2

3. 100
ring. 4.
π
V

Depends on the product of the magnetic field

4.
and speed.

185. Calculate the self-inductance of a solenoid

having 1000 turns and length 1 m. The area of
cross-section is 7 cm2 and μr = 1000
1. 888 H
2. 0.88 H
3. 0.088 H
4. 88.8 H

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189. A long straight conductor, carrying current 191. A conducting square loop of side L and
I, is fixed on a smooth plane. A circular loop is resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
placed on the same plane as shown in the velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A
figure. If the current I through the wire is constant magnetic field B exists as shown in the
increasing, then the loop will move towards: figure. Mechanical power required to maintain
its uniform velocity is

1. Right 2 2 2
B L v
2. Left 1.
R
3. Up 2
B L v
2 2

2.
4. Down 2R
2 2 2
B L v
3. 4R
190. A circular loop is placed near a current- 4. Zero
carrying conductor as shown. If the current in
the straight conductor is decreasing, then the 192. Keeping number of turns constant self
direction of the induced current in the loop is inductance L of a solenoid varies with its length
l as
1. L∝l
1
2. L∝ l
3. L∝ l
2

1
4. L∝ l2

1. Clockwise
2. Anticlockwise
3. Into the page
4. Out of the page

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

193. A long conducting wire AH is moved over a 194. If conducting triangle is pulled out with a
conducting triangular wire CDE with a constant uniform velocity from the uniform magnetic
→ field, as shown in the figure, then which graph
v in a uniform magnetic field B directed into
of induced current versus time is possible?
the plane of the paper. Resistance per unit
length of each wire is r. Then

1. A clockwise induced current will flow in the

closed-loop.
2. No induced current will flow in the closed-
loop.
3. Induced current in the closed-loop
alternately changes its direction.
4. An anticlockwise induced, the current will
1. 2.
flow in the closed-loop.

3. 4.

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195. There is a solenoid of length 1.5 m having 198. An ideal transformer is made to step down
1000 turns per metre, kept in a region where the power line voltage of 2200 V for
the magnetic field is increased with time as 0.2 distribution to a city at 220 v. If the full load
T s-1. (radius of the solenoid is
10
cm). The impedance of the city is 4 Ω then the primary
√π
current is
current through resistance 10Ω is 1. 45 A
2. 5.5 A
3. 55 A
4. 0.55 A

199. In the given circuit, switch S is closed at

t=0. After a long time, the iron rod is withdrawn
from the inductor L. Then, the bulb

1. 30 A
2. 3 A
3. 0.3 A
4. 0.03 A
1. Glow with the same brightness
196. A time-varying current is given by 2. Glows more brightly
π
l = 5 sin(ωt + ) Its r.m.s. value is (symbols
3. Gets dimmer
6 4. Stops glowing
have usual meanings)
1. 5√5 A
200. LCR series circuit is connected with an
2. 10 A
alternating emf source. If the peak current and
5 voltage are l0 and V0 respectively then at
3. A
√2 resonance the value of wattless current is
15
1. l0
4. A
√2 l0
2.
√2

197. The value of current in two series LCR 3. √2l0

circuit at resonance is the same when 4. zero
connected across a sinusoidal voltage source.
Then
1. Both circuit should have the same value of
capacitance and inductor
2. In both circuits, the ratio of L and C will be
the same
3. For both the circuits, resistance must be the
same
4. Both circuit should have the same impedance
at all frequencies

Page: 27
 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

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