12th Zoology Chapter 1 To 4 Sura Guide em 214857

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ZOOLOGY
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(Short version and Long version)
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12th Standard
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Based on the New Syllabus and
New Textbook for the year 2019-20
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Salient Features
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Complete Solutions to Textbook Exercises.

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Exhaustive Additional Questions in all Units.

NEET based Questions with Answers are also given.
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UNIT I Chapter 1
Reproduction
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in Organisms
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CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
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1.1 Modes of reproduction
1.2. Asexual reproduction
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1.3. Sexual reproduction
MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

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Asexual reproduction : Reproduction by single parent involving amitotic or mitotic divisions only.
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Sexual reproduction : Participation of two individuals and involves formation of male and female gamete.
Fission : Division of parent body into two or more identical Daughter individuals.
Binary fission : Parent organism divides into two daughter cells.
Multiple fission : Parent body divides into many similar daughter cells.
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Strobilation : A special type of transverse fission giving rise to number of individuals.

Budding : Parent body produces one or more buds which separate from the parent and lead an
independent life
Gemmule : Internal buds formed is sponge which can tolerate adverse conditions and are a means
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of asexual reproduction.
Apolysis : Separation of gravid proglottids from the body of a tape worm.
Regeneration : Regrowth in the injured region.
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External fertilization : Fusion of male & female gametes takes place outside the body of the female organism.
Internal fertilization : Fusion of male and female gametes takes place within the body of the female organism.
Fertilization
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: Fusion of male & female gametes.

Conjugation : Type of sexual reproduction between two individuals, where certain amount of nuclear
material exchange takes place after which they separate.
Parthenogenesis
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: Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization.

Oviparous condition : Young ones hatch from eggs laid outside the mother’s body.
Viviparous condition : Animals give birth to young ones.
Ovoviviparous : Embryo develops inside the eggs and remains in the mother’s body until they are ready
conditions to hatch.
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Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology
Concept Map
Chapter 1
Simple irregular fission
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Transverse fission
Binary fission Longitudinal fission
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Oblique fission
Multiple fission Repeated fission
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Fission
Sporulation
Strobilation
Asexual
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Fragmentation
Exogenous budding
Endogenous budding
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Restorative
Regeneration
Reparative
External fertilization
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Syngamy
Internal fertilization
Reproduction Sexual Conjugation Autogamy
Automixis Exogamy
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Hologamy
Paedogamy
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Oviparous Merogamy
Ovoviviparous Isogamy
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Viviparous Anisogamy
Natural
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Parthenogenesis Complete parthenogenesis

Artificial
Incomplete parthenogenesis
Paedogenesis
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Evaluation
1. In which type of parthenogenesis are only Reason: Asexual reproduction involves
males produced? only mitosis and no meiosis.
(a) Arrhenotoky (b) Thelytoky A B C D
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(c) Amphitoky (d) Both a and b [Ans. (C) If A is true but R is false]
[Ans. (a) Arrhenotoky] III. Assertion: Viviparous animals give better
protection to their offsprings.
2. Animals giving birth to young ones: Reason: They lay their eggs in the safe places
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(a) Oviparous (b) Oviviviparous of the environment.
(c) Viviparous (d) Both a and b A B C D
[Ans. (c) Viviparous] [Ans. (C) A is true but R is false]
3. The mode of asexual reproduction in bacteria 6. Name an organism where cell division is itself
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is by a mode of reproduction.
Reproduction in Organisms
(a) Formation of gametes Ans. Bacteria, Amoeba.
(b) Endospore formation
7. Name the phenomenon where the female
(c) Conjugation
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gamete directly develops into a new organism
(d) Zoospore formation
with an avian example.
[Ans. (b) Endospore formation]
Ans. Phenomenon – Parthenogenesis
4. In which mode of reproduction variations are Eg: Turkey.
seen
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8. What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples
(a) Asexual (b) Parthenogenesis from animals.
(c) Sexual (d) Both a and b Ans. (i) Development of an egg into a complete
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[Ans. (c) Sexual] individual without fertilization is known as

5. Assertion and reasoning questions: parthenogenesis.
In each of the following questions there are (ii) Parthenogenesis is of two main types
two statements. One is assertion (A) and other namely, Natural Parthenogenesis and
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is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as Artificial Parthenogenesis.

A. If both A and R are true and R is correct (iii) Ex: Honey bees, Gall fly.
explanation for A. 9. Which type of reproduction is effective
B. If both A and R are true but R is not the -Asexual or sexual and why?
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correct explanation for A. Ans. (i) Reproduction is a biological process by

C. If A is true but R is false. which organisms produce their young
D. If both A and R are false. ones. Reproduction results in continuation
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I. Assertion: In bee society, all the members of species and introduces variations
are diploid except drones. in organisms which are essential for
Reason: Drones are produced by adaptation and evolution of their own kind.
parthenogenesis.
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(ii) Sexual Reproduction can only bring about

A B C D variation in the organism since it involves
[Ans. (A) Both A and R are true and fusion of gametes from two different
R is correct explanation for A] individuals, (parents). A sexual reproduction
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II. Assertion: Offsprings produced by asexual involves uniparental inheritance and cannot
reproduction are genetically identical to the bring about variation.
parent. (iii) Thus, sexual & asexual reproduction can
help to create the next generation but only
sexual reproduction is said to be more
effective than asexual reproduction
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10. The unicellular organisms which reproduce parthenogenesis occurs in Nature in many
by binary fission are considered immortal. animals such as honey bees. Artificially it
Justify. can be induced in animals by physical or
Ans. (i) In binary fission (asexual reproduction), chemical stimuli which is called artificial
Chapter 1
the parental organism divides into two parthenogenesis.

halves and each half forms a daughter (b) In honey bees both sexual reproduction and
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individual. This is seen in unicellular parthenogenesis occurs, and it is described
organism like bacteria, Amoeba etc. as incomplete parthenogenesis. It is a kind
(ii) At maturity the single parent cell divides, of natural parthenogenesis.
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to form the daughter cells. The parent cell During sexual reproduction, the fertilized
does not die but it becomes a part of the eggs (zygotes) develop into queen bee and
daughter cells formed. workers (females). The unfertilized eggs
(iii) Thus the unicellular organisms which develop into drones (males). This honey
reproduce by binary fission are considered bees are called parthenogenesis animals.
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immortal. In honey bees the normal chromosomal
(iv) In other cases of asexual reproduction, number in a cell is 2n = 32. Gametes
the parent produces special structures (sperms & egg) will have only n = 16
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like buds, spores etc for reproduction but chromosomes since they are haploid. The
the parent organism continues to live and female bees are formed by fertilization of
grow. It dies a natural death. gametes.
11. Why is the offspring formed by asexual sperm (n) + egg (n) = 2n
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reproduction referred as a clone? Therefore they have 32 chromosomes.
Ans. Clones refers to the group of genetically Since the drones (males) are formed
identical cells or organisms asexually produced from unfertilized eggs(n) they have only
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from a single progenitor cell or organism 16 chromosomes. Honey bees show

Asexual reproduction involves a single parent. incomplete parthenogenesis.
Offsprings produced by asexual reproduction 14. Differentiate between the following:
are morphologically and genetically similar to
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple
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their parents and are hence called clones.

fission in Plasmodium
12. Why are the offsprings of oviparous animal (b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra
at a greater risk as compared to offsprings of (c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria
viviparous organisms?
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Ans.
Ans. Oviparous animals lay eggs outside their body. (a) Binary Fission in Multiple fission in
These eggs are exposed to various environmental Amoeba Plasmodium
conditions and may be eaten by predators also.
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They face lot of risks until the young ones The nucleus divides The nucleus divides
hatche. But the offsprings of viviparous animals mitotically only once. repeatedly
are more safe and protected in the maternal The cell constricts The cytoplasm divides
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womb until they are born. in the middle after into as many parts
nuclear division to as that of nuclei and
13. Give reasons for the following: form the daughter each part encircles a
(a) Some organisms like honey bees are cells. daughter nucleus.
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called parthenogenetic animals

Two daughter cells are Many daughter cells
(b) A male honey bee has 16 chromosomes
formed. are formed.
where as its female has 32 chromosomes.
Ans. (a) Development of an egg into a complete
individual without fertilization is known as
parthenogenesis It is of two types. Natural
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(b) Budding in Yeast Budding in 15. How is juvenile phase different from
Hydra reproductive phase?
Ans. Organisms have three phases – Juvenile phase,
Yeast is a unicellular The Bud is
reproductive phase and senescent phase.
organism. The single cell developed by
produces an outgrowth to mitotic divisions (i) Juvenile phase/ vegetative phase is the
period of growth between the birth of the
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form a bud. Nucleus of the of its cells and is
parent cell divides and a multicellular. individual upto reproductive maturity.
daughter nuclei enters the (ii) During reproductive phase/ maturity
bud which is unicellular. phase the organisms reproduce and their
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offsprings reach maturity period.
A Chain of buds may be Chain of buds
formed in the parent cell at are not formed. (iii) Senescent phase begins at the end of
times. reproductive phase when degeneration
sets in the structure and functioning of the
In both cases, the buds separate and lead an
body.
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independent life
(c) Regeneration is regrowth in the injured region 16. What is the difference between syngamy and
fertilization?
Regeneration in Regeneration in
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Ans. The entire process involved in fusion of male
Planaria lizard
and female gamete in sexual reproduction
It shows the Lizard shows the is called fertilization. It includes the entry of
morphallaxis type of epimorphosis type of sperm into the egg followed by fusion of nuclei
regeneration in which regeneration in which to form a zygote. Syngamy refers to the process
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the whole body grows replacement of lost of fusion of the male & female gametes. (fusion
from a small fragment body parts occur. of cytoplasm and nuclei)
The whole body can It shows the restorative
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be got by regeneration type of regeneration

in which several body
parts can only develop
but the whole body
cannot develop.
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Additional Questions
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Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark
I. Choose the Correct options 3. Multiple fission is seen in ________

for the below Questions (a) Vorticella and ceratium
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(b) Plasmodium and paramecium

1. Transverse Binary fission is seen is ____ (c) Amoeba and cyanobacteria
(a) Vorticella (b) Paramecium (d) Vorticella and plasmodium
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(c) Plasmodium (d) Euglena [Ans. (d) Vorticella and plasmodium]

[Ans. (b) Paramecium]
4. During favourable conditions _______ shows
2. In dinoflagellates the types of asexual multiple fission.
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reproduction seen is __________ (a) Plasmodium

(a) Simple Binary fission (b) Amoeba
(b) Multiple fission (c) Planaria
(c) Oblique binary fission (d) Euglena
(d) Longitudinal binary fission [Ans. (b) Amoeba]
[Ans. (c) Oblique binary fission]
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5. Plasmotomy is observed in _______ 14. Conjugation is seen in _________
(a) Giant Amoeba (b) Hydra (a) Vorticella (b) Amoeba
(c) Plasmodium (d) Ceratium (c) Reptiles (d) Actinosphaerium
[Ans. (a) Giant Amoeba] [Ans. (a) Vorticella]
Chapter 1
6. Giant Amoeba refers to _________ 15. Paedogamy is the sexual union of ____
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(a) Opalina (b) Pelomyxa (a) morphologically different gametes
(c) Ceratium (d) Trichonympha (b) physiologically different gametes
[Ans. (b) Pelomyxa] (c) young individuals immediately after the
formation from parents
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7. ________ is seen in Aurelia.
(d) dissimilar gametes
(a) Binary fission (b) Regeneration
[Ans. (c) young individuals immediately after
(c) Sporulation (d) Strobilation
the formation from parent cell]
[Ans. (d) Strobilation]
16. ________ is a seasonal breeder
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8. Budding is seen in ________
(a) Poultry (b) Honey bees
(a) Noctiluca (b) Amoeba
(c) Deers (d) Rabbit
(c) Nostoc (d) Planaria
[Ans. (c) Deers]
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[Ans. (a) Noctiluca]
17. Technique used for cultivation of sponges is
9. Gemmules are ________
based on ______
(a) Exogenous growth
(a) Multiple fission (b) Parthenogenesis
(b) Daughter nuclei
(c) Regeneration (d) Autogamy
(c) Internal buds
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[Ans. (c) Regeneration]
(d) Regenerated parts
[Ans. (c) Internal buds] 18. External fertilization is seen is _______
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(a) Mammals and birds

10. Regeneration is not seen in ________
(b) Reptiles and sponges
(a) Starfish (b) Lizard
(c) Fishes and birds
(c) Hydra (d) Sea Anemone
(d) Sponges and amphibians
[Ans. (d) Sea Anemone]
[Ans. (d) Sponges and amphibians]
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11. Autogamy is seen in __________

19. Isogamy is observed in ______
(a) Paramecium (b) Plasmodium
(a) Monocystis (b) Mammals
(c) Hydra (d) Amoeba
(c) Trichonympha (d) Reptiles
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[Ans. (a) Paramecium]

[Ans. (a) Monocystis]
12. If the entire organism behaves as a gamete, the
20. Human beings exhibit ________
Phenomenon is called ____
(a) Hologamy (b) Exogamy
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(a) Autogamy (b) Syngamy

(c) Isogamy (d) Paedogammy
(c) Morphallaxis (d) Hologamy
[Ans. (b) Exogamy]
[Ans. (d) Hologamy]
21. Paedogenesis is seen in _______
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13. Conjugation is a type of ________

(a) Gall fly (b) Honey bees
(a) Asexual reproduction
(c) Aphis (d) Hydra
(b) Autogamy
[Ans. (a) Gall fly]
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(c) External fertilization

(d) Sexual reproduction 22. Ovovivipary is seen in ______
[Ans. (d) Sexual reproduction] (a) Solenobia (b) Humans
(c) Birds (d) Shark
[Ans. (d) Shark]
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23. Which statement is incorrect regarding the II. Choose the Correct options for
type of binary fission?
the below Fill in the blanks
(a) Transverse binary fission in seen in
Planaria. 1. Paramecium and planaria show ________
(b) Longitudinal binary fission in seen in types of division during asexual reproduction
Euglena. (a) Transverse binary fission
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(c) Oblique binary fission in seen in flagellates . (b) Longitudinal binary fission
(d) Simple binary fission in seen in Amoeba. (c) Simple binary fission
[Ans. (c) Oblique by fission in seen in (d) Oblique binary fission
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flagellates] [Ans. (a) Transverse binary fission]
24. All of the following are methods of asexual 2. Special type of transverse division seen in
reproduction except. Aurelia is called ________.
(a) Regeneration (b) Conjugation (a) plasmotomy (b) strobilation
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(c) Sporulation (d) Fragmentation (c) pedal laceration (d) sporulation
[Ans. (d) Conjugation] [Ans. (b) strobilation]
25. This is a method of sexual reproduction 3. Fragmentation in sea Anemone is also known
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in which individuals of the same species as ________.
temporarily write and exchange certain (a) morphallaxis (b) pedal laceration
amount of nuclear material and then get (c) archaeocytes (d) epimorphosis
separated. [Ans. (b) pedal laceration]
(a) Syngamy (b) Conjugation
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4. Endogenous buds are seen in _________.
(c) Parthenogenesis (d) Paedogenesis (a) Trichonympha (b) Hydra
[Ans. (b) Conjugation] (c) Actinosphaerium (d) Noctiluca
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26. All the following animals are continuous [Ans. (d) Noctiluca]
breeders, except. 5. The gravid proglottids are cut off from the
(a) Frogs (b) Honey bees parent body in ________
(c) Poultry (d) Rabbit (a) Tapeworm (Taenia solium)
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[Ans. (a) Frogs] (b) Liver fluke

27. In honey bees, the mode of reproduction is (c) Planaria (d) Blood fluke
(a) Sexual and Asexual [Ans. (a) Tapeworm (Taenia solium)]
(b) Sexual and Parthenogenesis
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6. Regeneration was first studied by ______

(c) Asexual and Parthenogenesis (a) A.G. Tansley (b) Charles Bonnet
(d) All the above (c) Abraham Trembley (d) Walter Gilbert
[Ans. (b) Sexual and Parthenogenesis] [Ans. (c) Abraham Trembley]
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28. In honey bees, the unfertilized egg produces. 7. Regeneration was first studied in _______
(a) Queen bee (b) Worker bee (a) star fish (b) Planaria
(c) Drones
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(c) Hydra (d) Aurelia

(d) Worker bee and male honey bee [Ans. (c) Hydra]
[Ans. (c) Drones]
8. Starfish shown ____ type of regeneration.
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29. This is the sexual union of young individuals (a) epimorphosis - reparative
produced immediately after the division of the (b) epimorphosis (restorative)
adult parent cell by mitosis. (c) morphallaxis
(a) Paedogamy (b) Hologamy (d) paedogenesis
(c) Merogamy (d) Anisogamy [Ans. (b) epimorphosis (restorative)]
[Ans. (a) Paedogamy]
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9. The sexual union of young individuals III. Identify the correct Statements
produced immediately after the division of the
parent cell is called _____. 1. (i) Budding is seen in leucosolenia
(a) Paedogamy (b) hologamy (ii) In paramecium multiple fission occurs
Chapter 1
(c) merogamy (d) isogamy (iii) In autogamy, the male and female
[Ans. (a) Paedogamy] gametes are produced by the same cell.
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10. _________ refers to the fusion of small sized, (iv) Internal fertilization occurs in frogs
morphologically different gametes (a) i and iii (b) i and iv
(a) Isogamy (b) Hologamy (c) ii and iii (d) ii and iv
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(c) Paedogamy (d) Merogamy [Ans. (a) i and iii]
[Ans. (d) Merogamy] 2. (i) Lizard is a continuous breeder.
11. Fusion of morphologically and physiologically (ii) Asexual reproduction is also known as
similar gametes is called ________. somatogenic reproduction
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(a) anisogamy (b) hologamy (iii) In repeated fission, young ones do not
(c) isogamy (d) merogamy separate till fission process is completed.
[Ans. (c) isogamy] (iv) strobilation is a kind of longitudinal
fission.
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12. Exchange of certain amount of nuclear material (a) i and iii (b) i, ii and iv
during sexual reproduction is called ________. (c) ii and iii (d) ii and iv
(a) strobilation (b) conjugation [Ans. (c) ii and iii]
(c) pedal laceration (d) sporulation
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[Ans. (b) conjugation] IV. Match the following
13. Paedogenetic parthenogenesis is seen in ____
1. 1. Strobilation (a) Hydra
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(a) planula larvae of enidarians

2. Regeneration (b) Noctiluca
(b) Cydippid larvae of pleurobranchia
3. Conjugation (c) Bacteria
(c) Redia larvae of liver fluke
4. Endogenous budding (d) Aurelia
(d) Trochophore larvae of Annelids.
A) 1 – b 2 – c 3 – a 4 – d
[Ans. (c) Redia larvae of liver fluke]
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B) 1 – d 2 – a 3 – c 4 – b
14. In ______ types of natural parthenogenesis C) 1 – d 2 – a 3 – b 4 – c
only females are produced. D) 1 – a 2 – d 3 – c 4 – b
(a) Thelytoky (b) Arrhenotoky [Ans. (B) 1 – d 2 – a 3 – c 4 – b]
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(c) paedogenesis (d) Amphitoky

2. 1. Archaeocytes (a) Gall fly
[Ans. (a) Thelytoky]
2. Buds (b) Gemmules
15. In ______ types of parthenogenesis egg can 3. Pseudopodiospores (c) Hydra
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develop into individuals of any sex.

4. Parthenogenesis (d) Amoeba
(a) Thelytoky (b) paedogenesis
(A) 1 – d 2 – b 3 – a 4–c
(c) Amphitoky (d) Arrhenotoky
(B) 1 – d 2 – c 3 – a 4–b
[Ans. (c) Amphitoky]
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(C) 1 – c 2 – b 3 – d 4–a
16. ______ is a process by which the proglottids (D) 1 – b 2 – c 3 – d 4–a
are cut off from the tapeworm. [Ans. (D) 1 – b 2–c 3–d 4 – a]
(a) Apolysis (b) pedal laceration
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(c) budding (d) plasmotomy

[Ans. (a) Apolysis]
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V. Identify the correct 4 – Outer membrane
assertion and reason 5 – Monaxon spicules
(a) 1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C 5- E
In each of the following questions there are two
statements. One is assertion (A) and other is (b) 1-C 2-B 3-A 4-E 5-D
reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as (c) 1-D 2-E 3-B 4-C 5-A
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A. If both A and R are true and R is correct (d) 1-A 2-E 3-D 4-B 5-C
explanation for A [Ans. (c) 1-D 2-E 3-B 4-C 5-A]
B. If both A and R are true but R is not the 2. A D
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correct explanation for A
C. If A is true but R is false
D. If both A and R are false.
1. Assertion : In paramecium, the macronucleus
divides by amitosis and the micronucleus
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divides by mitosis. B C E
Reason : Paramecium shows transverse binary
fission Identify the correct option to label the diagram
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[Ans. (A) Both A and R are true and R is 1 – Bud forming 2 – Osculum
correct explanation for A] 3 – Bud growing 4 – Daughter individual
5 – Individual parent
2. Assertion : Ovoviviparity is seen is shark
(a) 1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C 5- E
Reason : Placenta is formed to transfer nutrients
to the embryo (b) 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A
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(c) 1-D 2-E 3-B 4-C 5-A
[Ans. (C) A is true but R is false]
(d) 1-A 2-E 3-D 4-B 5-C
Assertion : The embryos of ovoviviparous
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3. [Ans. (b) 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A]

animals have no placental connection with their
mothers. 3. A
B
Reason : Embryos receive nourishment from
the egg yolk.
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C
[Ans. (A) Both A and R are true and R is D
correct explanation for A]
VI. Identify the correct options

.s
E
for the parts of the diagram
B Identify the correct option to label the diagram

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1. A
C Identify the structure
D
1 – Immature proglottids
2 – Gravid proglottids
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3 – Scolex
E 4 – Mature proglottids
5 – Neck
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(a) 1-C 2-E 3-A 4-D 5- B

(b) 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A
Identify the correct option to label the diagram (c) 1-D 2-E 3-B 4-C 5-A
1 – Archaeocytes 2 – Inner membrane (d) 1-A 2-E 3-D 4-B 5-C
3 – Micropyle [Ans. (a) 1-C 2-E 3-A 4-D 5- B]
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VII. Identify the Correct pair IX. Identify the Odd-man out
from the below from the below
1. i. Shark - placenta 1. (a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium

Chapter 1
ii. Taenia solium - Regeneration (c) Vorticella (d) Hydra

iii. Frog - Continuous breeder
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[Ans. (d) Hydra]
iv. Plasmotomy - Pelomyxa Reason: It reproduces, asexually by budding
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iii whereas the others reproduce asexually by
(c) i and iv (d) i, ii and iv fission.
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[Ans. (c) i and iv] 2. (a) Hydra (b) Noctiluca
2. i. Sporogony - Paramecium (c) Sea anemones (d) Leucosolenia
ii. Bacteria - Uniparental inheritance [Ans. (c) sea anemones ]
iii. Amoeba - Multiple fission Reason: It reproduces asexually by fragmentation
s.
iv. Birds - External fertilization whereas the others reproduce a sexually by
(a) i, ii and iv (b) iii and iv Budding.
(c) ii and iv (d) ii and iii 3. (a) Conjugation (b) Hologamy
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[Ans. (c) ii and iii] (c) Paedogamy (d) Regeneration
VIII. Identify the Incorrect [Ans. (d) Regeneration]
pair from the below
Reason: It is associated with asexual reproduction
whereas the others are associated with sexual
reproduction.
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1. i. Starfish - Gemmule
ii. Exogamy - Amoeba 4. (a) Honey bees (b) Shark
iii. Tapeworm - Pig
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(c) Human being (d) Cow

iv. Continuous breeder - Poultry [Ans. (c) Honey bees]
(a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv Reason: It shows sexual reproduction and
(c) i and iv (d) i and ii parthenogenesis in its life cycle, whereas the
[Ans. (d) i and ii] others show sexual reproduction only
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2. i. Planaria - Morphallaxis
ii. Conjugation - Amoeba
Answer in one word*
iii. Autogamy - Paramecium
iv. Apolysis - sea anemones 1. Ovoviviparity is seen in ____ [Ans. shark]
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(a) i and iii (b) ii and iv 2. _______ serves to transfer nutrients to the
(c) ii and iii (d) i, iii and iv young ones of viviparous animals before birth.
[Ans. (b) ii and iv] [Ans. placenta]
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3. i. Hologamy - Fusion of nature 3. The eggs are covered by a membrane in ____

individuals [Ans. Amphibians]
ii. Merogamy - Fusion of small sized, 4. Replacement of lost body parts is called _____
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morphologically different [Ans. epimorphosis]

gametes. 5. Exogenous buds are seen in ____.
iii. Paedogamy - Fusion of young individuals [Ans. Hydra]
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iv. Isogamy - Fusion of dissimilar 6. Division of cytoplasm is called ________

gametes. [Ans. cytokinesis]
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iv
7. Division of nucleus is called _______.
(c) ii and iii (d) iv
[Ans. karyokinesis]
[Ans. (d) iv]
* Only for quick revision not in pattern
10

8. Repeated fission is seen in _________. 5. Define regeneration mention the types.
[Ans. vorticella] Ans. (i) Regeneration is regrowth in the injured
9. Oblique binary fission is seen in ______. region.
[Ans. ceratium] (ii) Regeneration is of two types,
(a) morphallaxis (b) epimorphosis.
10. Longitudinal binary fission is seen in ______
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[Ans. vorticella] 6. What is morphallaxis?
11. The multiple fission of the schizont in Ans. It is a type of regeneration. In morphallaxis,
plasmodium is called ______ the whole body grows from a small fragment.
E.g. Hydra.
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[Ans. schizogony]
12. Schizogony leads to the production of _______ 7. What is epimorphosis?
in plasmodium. [Ans. Merozoites] Ans. (i) It is type of regeneration which involves
13. Multiple fission of the oocyte in plasmodium is replacement of the lost body pants. It is of
called ______. two types.
s.
[Ans. sporogony] (ii) Reparative regeneration, only certain
14. During multiple fission Amoebae produce damaged tissue can be regenerated.
________. (iii) Restorative regeneration – several body
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[Ans. Amoebulae or Pseudopodiospores] parts can develop. E.g. Star fish.
15. The temporary union of two individuals of same 8. What is syngamy?
species is called ____. Ans. In syngamy, the fusion of two haploid gametes
[Ans. conjugation] takes place to produce a diploid zygote.
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9. What is autogamy?
Very Short Answers 2 Marks
Ans. It is a type of fertilization. In autogamy, the male
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1. Name the types of fission. and female gametes are produced by the same
Ans. Binary fission, multiple fission, sporulation, and cell or same organism and both the gametes fuse
strobilation. together to form a zygote.
E.g. Actinosphaerium and Paramecium.
2. What is peculiar about the cell division of
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paramecium? 10. What is exogamy?

Ans. In paramecium, the macronucleus divides Ans. It is a type of fertilization. In exogamy, the male
by amitosis and the micronucleus divides by and female gametes are produced by different
mitosis. parents and they fuse to form a zygote. So it is
.s
biparental. E.g. Human – dioecious or unisexual

3. What is plasmotomy? animal.
Ans. (i) Plasmotomy is the division of
multinucleated parent into many 11. Define hologamy.
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multinucleate daughter individuals with Ans. It is a type of fertilization. In lower organisms,

the division of nuclei. sometimes the entire mature organisms do
(ii) Nuclear division occurs later to maintain not form gametes but they themselves behave
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normal number of nuclei. as gametes and the fusion of such mature

individuals is known as hologamy.
(iii) Plasmotomy occurs in Opalina and
Pelomyxa. E.g. Trichonympha.
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(iv) It is a method of asexual reproduction. 12. What is merogamy?

Ans. It is a type of fertilization in merogamy, the
4. What are exogenous buds?
fusion of small sized and morphologically
Ans. When buds are formed on the outer surface
different gametes (merogametes) takes place.
of the parent body, it is known as exogenous
budding. E.g. Hydra.
11

13. Define isogamy. 21. Mention the types of asexual reproduction
Ans. The fusion of morphological and physiological seen in amoeba.
identical gametes (isogametes) is called isogamy. Ans. (i) Binary fission
E.g. Monocystis. (ii) Encystment and spore formation –
Chapter 1
unfavourable conditions
14. Define conjugation.
(iii) Sporulation - unfavourable conditions
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Ans. Conjugation is the temporary union of the two
individuals of the same species. During their 22. During which stages does multiple fission
union both individuals, called the conjugants occur is plasmodium.
exchange certain amount of nuclear material Ans. In plasmodium multiple fission occurs in the
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(DNA) and then get separated. E.g. Paramecium schizont and oocyte stages.
15. How are animals classified based on breeding 23. Mention the different modes of asexual
periods? reproduction.
Ans. (i) On the basis of time, breeding animals Ans. The different modes of asexual reproduction
s.
are of two types: seasonal breeders and seen in animals are fission, sporulation,
continuous breeders. budding, gemmule formation, fragmentation
(ii) Seasonal breeders reproduce at particular and regeneration.
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period of the year such as frogs, lizards, 24. Identify the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E
most birds, deers etc., Continuous breeders for the below diagram.
continue to breed throughout their sexual B
maturity. E.g. honey bees, poultry, rabbit

A
C
etc.
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D
16. Mention the phases in the life cycle of an

organism. E
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Ans. Juvenile phase / Vegetative phase, reproductive

phase/ maturity phase, Senescent phase.
17. What is paedogenesis? Ans. A – Monaxon spicules
Ans. (i) In paedogenetic parthenogenesis B – Micropyle
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(paedogenesis) the larvae produce a new C – Outer membrane

generation of larvae by parthenogenesis. D – Archaeocytes
(ii) It occurs in the sporocysts and Redia larvae E – Inner membrane
of liver fluke. 25. Identify the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E
.s
18. What is artificial parthenogenesis? for the below diagram.

Ans. In artificial parthenogenesis, the unfertilized egg A D
(ovum) is induced to develop into a complete

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individual by physical or chemical stimuli.

E.g. Annelid and seaurchin eggs.
19. Name the types of natural parthenogenesis.
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B C E
Ans. (i) Arrhenotoky – e.g. honey bees
(ii) Thelytoky – e.g. Solenobia Ans. A – Individual parent
(iii) Amphitoky – e.g. Aphis. B – Bud forming
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C – Bud growing
20. With regard to asexual reproduction, mention
two phenomena seen is Hydra. D – Osculum
D – Daughter individual
Ans. Budding and Regeneration.
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26. Identify the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E 2. What is repeated fission?
for the below diagram. Ans. If multiple fission produces four or many
A daughter individuals by equal cell division and
B the young ones do not separate until the process
is complete, then this division is called repeated
fission. E.g. Vorticella.
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C
D 3. Explain multiple fission in plasmodium.
Ans. (i) In Plasmodium, multiple fission occurs in
the schizont and in the oocyte stages. When
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multiple fission occurs in the schizont,
E
the process is called schizogony and the
daughter individuals are called merozoites.
(ii) When multiple fission occurs in the oocyte,
Ans. A – Scolex
s.
it is called sporogony and the daughter
B – Neck individuals are called sporozoites.
C – Immature proglottids 4. Explain encystment in amoeba.
D – Mature proglottids
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Ans. (i) During unfavorable conditions Amoeba
E – Gravid proglottids withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes
27. Identify the parts marked as A, B, C, D, E and a three-layered, protective, chitinous cyst
F for the below diagram. wall around it and becomes inactive. This
phenomenon is called encystment.
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D
(ii) When conditions become favourable, the
F encysted Amoeba divides by multiple fission
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A and produces many minute amoebae called

B pseudopodiospore or amoebulae.
C (iii) The cyst wall breaks off liberating the
young pseudopodiospores.
E 5. What is strobilation?
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Ans. A - Chromosomes Ans. (i) In some metazoan animals, a special type of

B – Nucleoli transverse fission called strobilation occurs.
C – Nucleus (ii) In the process of strobilation, several
.s
D – Longitudinal furrow transverse fissions occur simultaneously

E – Nuclear constriction giving rise to a number of individuals
F – Daughter Euglena which often do not separate immediately
from each other. E.g. Aurelia.
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Short Answers 3 Marks 6. Differentiate exogenous and endogenous

1. What is asexual reproduction? budding.
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Ans. (i) Reproduction by a single parent without Ans.

Endogenous
the involvement of gamete formation is Exogenous budding
Budding
asexual reproduction and the offspring
produced are genetically identical. Buds are formed on Buds are formed
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(uniparental inheritance) the outer surface of inside the cytoplasm

the parent body. within the body of the
(ii) Asexual reproduction is usually by
amitotic or mitotic division of the somatic parent
(body) cells, hence is also known as E.g. Hydra E.g. Noctiluca
somatogenic or blastogenic reproduction.
Eg. members of Protista, Bacteria.
13

7. What is apolysis? Write its significance. (ii) No new individual is formed but
Ans. (i) In Tape worm the gravid proglottids are after conjugation the two conjugants
regularly cut off either singly or in groups (participating organisms) show changes
from the posterior end by a process called in their nuclear content. When they
Chapter 1
apolysis. reproduce by asexual method, their off

(ii) This is very significant since it helps in springs will inherit the nuclear content
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transferring the developed embryos from with changes. Hence conjugation is
the primary host (man) to find a secondary considered to a form of reproduction.
host (pig).
11. What are gemmules?
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8. Explain the types of fertilization depending on Ans. (i) It is a mode of asexual reproduction in
the place of occurrence. sponges.
Ans. Depending upon the place where the fertilization (ii) Internal buds called gemmules are formed
takes place, it is of two types. which is a hard ball, consisting of an
s.
(i) External fertilization: In external internal mass of food laden archaeocytes.
fertilization, the fusion of male and female (iii) During unfavourable conditions, the
gametes takes place outside the body of sponge disintegrates, but the gemmule
female organisms in the water medium. withstands adverse conditions.
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E.g. sponges, fishes and amphibians. (iv) The gemmules hatch during favourable
(ii) Internal fertilization: In internal conditions.
fertilization, the fusion of male and female 12. Draw a gemmule and label any 2 parts.
gametes takes place within the body of Ans. Micropyle
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female organisms. E.g. reptiles, aves and
mammals.
Archaeocytes
ab
9. Differentiate autogamy and exogamy.

Ans. Autogamy Exogamy
It is a type of fertilization It is a type of
in which male and fertilization in which
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female gametes are the male and female

produced by the same gametes produced 13. Differentiate oviparous and viviparous
cell or same organism by different parents condition.
and both gametes fuse fuse to form a Ans.
.s
Oviparous Viviparous
together to form a zygote.
condition condition
zygote.
The young ones hatch The animals give
Only one parent is It is biparental
from eggs laid outside birth to young ones.
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involved E.g. human being the mother's body

E.g. paramecium
The eggs are covered by The eggs lack a
hard calcareous shells in calcareous shell
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10. Why is conjugation considered to be a form of

reproduction though there is no formation of land animals.
a new individual? The embryo is The embryo is
Ans. (i) Conjugation is the temporary union nourished by egg yolk. nourished in
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of the two individuals of the same the uterus of the

species. During which they exchange parent through the
certain amount of nuclear material placenta.
(DNA) and then get separated. Parental care is less Parental care is for a
E.g. bacteria. E.g. Reptiles longer period
E.g. mammals
14

14. What is ovoviviparous condition? 18. Longitudinal furrow
Ans. (i) In Ovoviviparous animals, the embryo Daughter
develops inside the egg and remains in the Chromosomes
Euglena
Nucleus
mother’s body until they are ready to hatch. Nucleoli
Nucleus
(ii) This method of reproduction is similar
to Viviparity but the embryos have no
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Nuclear
placental connection with the mother and constriction
receive their nourishment from the egg yolk. (i) Identify the Process.
Ovoviviparity is seen in fishes like shark. (ii) Name the Organism.
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Ans. (i) Longitudinal binary fission
15. How does budding occurs is hydra?
(ii) Euglena
Ans. (i) Buds are formed on the outer surface of
the parent body, it is known as exogenous 19. Tentacles
budding e.g. Hydra.
s.
(ii) In Hydra when food is plenty, the ectoderm
cells increase and form a small elevation Mouth
on the body surface. Manubrium
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(iii) Ectoderm and endoderm are pushed out to Ephyrae budding
form the bud. The bud contains an interior
lumen in continuation with parent’s
gastrovascular cavity.
(iv) The bud enlarges, develops a mouth and a
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circle of tentacles at its free end.
(v) When fully grown, the bud constricts at
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the base and finally separates from the Stalk

parent body and leads an independent life. Stolon
Adhesive disc
16. Describe pedal laceration.
Ans. (i) In fragmentation, the parent body breaks (i) Identify the animal.
(ii) What is significant about the animal.
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into fragments (pieces) and each of the

fragment has the potential to develop into Ans. (i) Aurelia
a new individual. (ii) The significance is that Aurelia reproduces
(ii) Fragmentation or pedal laceration occurs asexually by a special type of transverse
.s
in many genera of sea anemones. fission called strobilation.

(iii) Lobes are constricted off from the pedal
Long Answers 5 Marks
disc and each of the lobe grows mesenteries
and tentacles to form a new sea anemone. 1. Write a note on regeneration.
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17. Describe the different phases of life cycle in an Ans. (i) Regeneration is regrowth in the injured
organism. region. Regeneration was first studied in
Hydra by Abraham Trembley in 1740.
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Ans. Organisms have three phases in its life cycle.

(ii) Regeneration is of two types, morphallaxis
(i) Juvenile phase/ vegetative phase is the
period of growth between the birth of the and epimorphosis. In morphallaxis the
individual upto reproductive maturity. whole body grows from a small fragment.
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(ii) Reproductive phase/ maturity phase the

E.g. Hydra and Planaria.
organisms reproduce and their offsprings (iii) When Hydra is accidentally cut into
reach maturity period. several pieces, each piece can regenerate
(iii) Senescent phase begins at the end of the lost parts and develop into a whole new
reproductive phase when degeneration sets individual.
in the structure and functioning of the body.
15

(iv) The parts usually retain their original E.g. In honeybees; fertilized eggs (zygotes)
polarity, with oral ends, by developing develop into queen and workers, whereas
tentacles and aboral ends, by producing unfertilized eggs develop into drones
basal discs. (male).
Chapter 1
(v) Epimorphosis is the replacement of lost (vi) In paedogenetic parthenogenesis

body parts. It is of two types, namely (paedogenesis) the larvae produce a new
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reparative and restorative regeneration. generation of larvae by parthenogenesis.
(vi) In reparative regeneration, only certain (vii) It occurs in the sporocysts and Redia larvae
damaged tissue can be regenerated, of liver fluke. It is also seen in the larvae of
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whereas in restorative regeneration several some insects. E.g. Gall fly.
body parts can develop. E.g. star fish, tail (viii) In artificial parthenogenesis, the
of wall lizard. unfertilized egg (ovum) is induced to
2. Explain parthenogenesis. develop into a complete individual by
physical or chemical stimuli. E.g. Annelid
s.
Ans. (i) Development of an egg into a complete
and seaurchin eggs.
individual without fertilization is known
as parthenogenesis. 3. Write notes on binary fission in animals.
(ii) It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet Ans. In binary fission, the parent organism divides
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in 1745. Parthenogenesis is of two main into two halves and each half forms a daughter
types namely, natural Parthenogenesis individual. The nucleus divides first amitotically
and artificial Parthenogenesis. or mitotically (karyokinesis), followed by the
(iii) In certain animals, parthenogenesis division of the cytoplasm (cytokinesis). The
o
occurs regularly, constantly and naturally resultant offsprings are genetically identical to
in their life cycle and is known as natural the parent. Depending on the plane of fission,
binary fission is of the following types
ab
parthenogenesis.
Natural parthenogenesis are of different (i) Simple irregular binary fission
types: (ii) Transverse binary fission
a) Arrhenotoky : In this type only males (iii) Longitudinal binary fission
are produced by parthenogenesis. (iv) Oblique binary fission
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E.g: honey bees (i) Simple binary fission is seen in Amoeba

b) Thelytoky : In this type of like irregular shaped organisms, where
parthenogenesis only females are the plane of division is hard to observe.
produced by parthenogenesis. The contractile vacuoles cease to function
.s
E.g: Solenobia and disappear. The nucleoli disintegrate

c) Amphitoky : In this type and the nucleus divides mitotically. The
parthenogenetic egg may develop cell then constricts in the middle, so the
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into individuals of any sex. E.g: Aphis. cytoplasm divides and forms two daughter
(iv) Natural parthenogenesis may be of two cells.
types, viz., complete and incomplete.
Complete parthenogenesis is the
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only form of reproduction in certain

animals and there is no biparental
sexual reproduction. These are no male
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organisms and so, such individuals are

represented by females only.
(v) Incomplete parthenogenesis is found (ii) In transverse binary fission, the plane
in some animals in which both sexual of the division runs along the transverse
reproduction and parthenogenesis occurs. axis of the individual. E.g. Paramecium
16

and Planaria. In Paramecium the Longitudinal furrow
macronucleus divides by amitosis and the
micronucleus divides by mitosis. Daughter Euglena
Chromosomes Nucleus
Macronucleus Nucleoli
New oral
groove Nucleus
forming
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Micronucleus
Daughter Nuclear
paramecia
New
contractile Longitudinal binary fission in Euglena
vacuoles
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New
Hots
oral groove
forming
Transverse binary fission in Paramecium
(iii) In longitudinal binary fission, the 1. The organisms exhibiting sexual reproduction
shows variations. Give reasons.
s.
nucleus and the cytoplasm divides in
the longitudinal axis of the organism. In Ans. (i) Sexual reproduction involves formation of
flagellates, the flagellum is retained usually gametes by meioses brings in exchange of
chromosomal segments between paternal
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by one daughter cell. The basal granule is
divided into two and the new basal granule and maternal chromosomes.
forms a flagellum in the other daughter (ii) Fertilization is a chance of probability
individual. E.g. Vorticella and Euglena. because the ovum is can be fertilized by
(iv) In oblique binary fission the plane any of the sperms. Hence variations will
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of division is oblique. It is seen in occur and degree of variations cannot be
dinoflagellates. E.g. Ceratium. predicted in sexual reproduction.
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
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17
Unit Test
[Time : 1 hr] [Marks: 25]
Chapter 1
I. Choose the Correct Answer. 10 × 1 = 10 (b) If both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation for A
m
1. Technique used for cultivation of sponges is
based on ______ (c) If A is true but R is false
(a) Multiple fission (b) Parthenogenesis (d) If both A and R are false.
(c) Regeneration (d) Autogamy 7. Which statement is incorrect regarding the
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2. Conjugation is a type of ________ type of binary fission stated?
(a) Asexual reproduction (a) Transverse binary fission in seen in
Planaria.
(b) Autogamy
(c) External fertilization (b) Longitudinal binary fission in seen in
s.
Euglena.
(d) Sexual reproduction
(c) Oblique binary fission in seen in flagellates.
3. Choose the correct pair (d) Simple binary fission in seen in Amoeba.
i. Shark - placenta
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ii. Taenia solium - Regeneration 8. Division of cytoplasm is called ________
iii. Frog - Continuous breeder (a) karyokinesis (b) cytokinesis
iv. Plasmotomy - Pelomyxa (c) Trichonympha (d) Paedogamy
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iii 9. The mode of asexual reproduction in bacteria
o
(c) i and iv (d) i, ii and iv is by
(a) Formation of gametes
4. (i) Lizard is a continuous breeder.
ab
(b) Endospore formation

(ii) Asexual reproduction is also known as
somatogenic reproduction (c) Conjugation
(iii) In repeated fission, young ones do not (d) Zoospore formation
separate till fission process is completed. 10. In which mode of reproduction variations are
(iv) strobilation is a kind of longitudinal seen
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fission. (a) Asexual (b) Parthenogenesis

(a) i and iii (b) i, ii and iv (c) Sexual (d) Both a and b
(c) ii and iii (d) ii and iv
II. Very Short Answer 2×2=4
.s
5. Starfish shown ____ type of regeneration. 11. What is repeated fission? Give an example.
(a) epimorphosis - reparative 12. Explain apolysis.
(b) epimorphosis (restorative)
III. Short Answer 2×3=6
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(c) morphallaxis
(d) paedogenesis 13. What is
(a) Merogamy (b) Hologamy
6. Assertion : Ovoviviparity is seen is shark
14. Draw a gemmula and label any two parts.
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Reason : Placentas is formed to transfer

nutrients to the embryo IV. Long Answer 1×5=5
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct 15. Write a note on parthenogenesis.
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explanation for A

18
UNIT I Chapter 2
Human
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Reproduction
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CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
s.
2.1 Human reproductive system
2.2 Gametogenesis
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2.3 Menstrual cycle
2.4 Menstrual disorders and menstrual hygiene
2.5 Fertilisation and implantation
2.6 Maintenance of pregnancy and embryonic development
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2.7 Parturition and lactation
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Concept Map
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.s
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19

Gametogenesis : Formation of gametes by spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Chapter 2
Insemination : Transfer of sperms by the male into the female genital tract.
Fertilisation : Fusion of male and female gametes to form zygote is called fertilisation.
m
Cleavage : Rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote which convert the single celled zygote into a
multicellular structure called blastocyst.
Implantation : Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall.
co
Placentation : Formation of placenta which is the intimate connection between foetus and uterine
wall of the mother for exchange of nutrients.
Gastrulation : Process by which blastocyst is changed into a gastrula with three primary germ layers
Organogenesis : Formation of specific tissues, organs and organ systems from three germ layers.
s.
Parturition : Expulsion of the foetus from the mother’s womb.
Sertoli cells : Elongated and pyramidal cells which provide nourishment to sperms till maturation.
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Semen : Milky white fluid which contains sperms & seminal plasma
Fallopian tube : Oviduct or uterine tube which receives the egg after ovulation
Uterus : Hollow, thick – walled, inverted pear shaped structure in female reproductive system
in which implantation of embryo occurs.
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Mammary glands : Modified sweat glands involved in lactation in females and rudimentary in males.
Spermatogenesis : Process of formation of sperms in seminiferous tubules of testis
ab
Oogenesis : Process of development of ovum in the ovaries

Spermiogenesis : The spermatids are transformed into mature sperms by the process of spermiogenesis.
FSH : Follicle stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary gland
LH : Lutenizing Hormone produced by the pituitary gland
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ABP : Androgen Binding protein

Acrosome : Pointed structure at the tip of the sperm head.
Hyaluronidase : Proteolytic enzyme produced by acrosome of sperm,
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Menstrual cycle : Ovarian cycle occurring once in every 28/29 days during reproductive life of female
from menarche to menopause except during pregrancy.
Graafian follicle : Mature ovarian follicle which releases the egg.
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Corpus luteum : Temporary endocrine gland formed from ruptured graffian follicle during pregnancy.
Placenta : Disc shaped temporary endocrine organ formed during pregnancy which connects
foetus and uterine wall.
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Gastrulation : The transformation of the blastocyst into a gastrula with the primary germ layers by
the movement of the blastomeres is called gastrulation.
Gestation : Period for which the foetus is in the mother’s womb.
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hCS : Human Chorionic Somatomammotropin

hCG : Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
hPL : Human Placental Lactogen
Polyspermy : Entry of more than one sperm into the ovum.
20
Evaluation
1. The mature sperms are stored in the 9. The process which the sperm undergoes before
(a) Seminiferous tubules (b) Vas deferens penetrating the ovum is
(c) Epididymis (d) Seminal vesicle (a) Spermiation (b) Cortical reaction
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[Ans. (c) Epididymis] (c) Spermiogenesis (d) Capacitation
2. The male sex hormone testosterone is secreted [Ans. (d) Capacitation]
from 10. The milk secreted by the mammary glands
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(a) Sertoli cells (b) Leydig cell soon after child birth is called
(c) Epididymis (d) Prostate gland (a) Mucous (b) Colostrum
[Ans. (b) Leydig cell] (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
3. The glandular accessory organ which produces [Ans. (b) Colostrum]
the largest proportion of semen is
s.
11. Colostrum is rich in
(a) Seminal vesicle (a) Ig E (b) Ig A
(b) Bulbourethral gland (c) Ig D (d) Ig M
(c) Prostate gland [Ans. (b) Ig A]
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Human Reproduction
(d) Mucous gland [Ans. (a) Seminal vesicle]
12. The Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) is
4. The male homologue of the female clitoris is produced by
(a) Scrotum (b) Penis (a) Leydig cells (b) Hypothalamus
(c) Urethra (d) Testis (c) Sertoli cells (d) Pituitary gland
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[Ans. (b) Penis] [Ans. (c) Sertoli cells]
5. The site of embryo implantation is the 13. Which one of the following menstrual
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(a) Uterus (b) Peritoneal cavity irregularities is correctly matched?

(c) Vagina (d) Fallopian tube (a) Menorrhagia - excessive menstruation
[Ans. (a) Uterus] (b) Amenorrhoea - absence of
menstruation
6. The foetal membrane that forms the basis of
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(c) Dysmenorrhoea - irregularity of

the umbilical cord is
menstruation
(a) Allantois (b) Amnion
(d) Oligomenorrhoea - painful menstruation
(c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac
[Ans. (b) Amenorrhoea - absence of
[Ans. (a) Allantois]
.s
menstruation]
7. The most important hormone in intiating and 14. Find the wrongly matched pair
maintaining lactation after birth is (a) Bleeding phase - fall in oestrogen and
(a) Oestrogen (b) FSH
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progesterone
(c) Prolactin (d) Oxytocin (b) Follicular phase - rise in oestrogen
[Ans. (c) Prolactin] (c) Luteal phase - rise in FSH level
(d) Ovulatory phase - LH surge
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8. Mammalian egg is
(a) Mesolecithal and non cleidoic [Ans. (c) Luteal phase - rise in FSH level]
(b) Microlecithal and non cleidoic
(c) Alecithal and non cleidoic
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(d) Alecithal and cleidoic

[Ans. (c) Alecithal and non cleidoic]
21

Answer the following type of questions in the release of Gonadotrop in Releasing
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) hormone.
(a) A and R are true, R is the correct (ii) Oogenesis is the process of development
explanation of A of the female gamete or egg in the ovaries.
Chapter 2
(b) A and R are true, R is not the correct During foetal development, certain cells
explanation of A in the germinal epithelium of foetal ovary
m
(c) A is true, R is false divide by mitosis and produce millions of
(d) Both A and R are false oogonia or egg mother cells.
15. A – In human male, testes are extra (iii) No more oogonia are added after birth.
co
abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs. The oogonial cells enter into prophase I of
R – Scrotum acts as thermoregulator and meiosis to form primary oocytes which are
keeps temperature lower by 2°C for temporarily arrested at this stage.
normal sperm production . (iv) The primary oocytes then become primary
[Ans. (a) A and R are true, R is the follicles. From birth to puberty, a large
s.
correct explanation of A] number of follicles degenerate. At puberty
16. A – Ovulation is the release of ovum from the primary follicle undergoes further
the Graafian follicle. development and finally releases the ovum.
ok
R – It occurs during the follicular phase of
20. Expand the acronyms
the menstrual cycle.
a. FSH b. LH c. hCG d. hPL
[Ans. (c) A is true, R is false]
Ans. (a) FSH – Follicular Stimulating Hormone
17. A – Head of the sperm consists of acrosome (b) LH – Leutinising Hormone
o
and mitochondria. (c) hCG – Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
R – Acrosome contains spiral rows of
(d) hPL – Human Placental Lactogen.
ab
mitochondria.
[Ans. (d) Both A and R are false] 21. How is polyspermy avoided in humans?
Ans. (i) During the process of fertilization in
18. Mention the differences between
humans, the acrosome of the sperm enters
spermiogenesis and spermatogenesis.
through the corona radiata and zona
Ans.
ur
Spermiogenesis Spermatogenesis pellucida layers of the ovum by releasing

Spermiogenesis Spermatogenesis is a enzyme called hyaluronidase. which is
is a part of the sequence of all called acrosomal reaction.
spermatogenesis in the events involved (ii) Once fertilization is accomplished,
.s
which the haploid in the formation cortical granules from the cytoplasm
spermatids formed of male gametes or of the ovum form a barrier called the
from secondary the sperms in the fertilization membrane around the ovum.
w
spermatocytes are seminiferous tubule This prevents further penetration of other

transformed into of the testis. sperms. Thus polyspermy (entry of more
mature spermatozoa. than one sperm into an egg) is prevented.
It is a stage in the It includes
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22. What is colostrum? Write its significance.

maturation phase of multiplication,
Ans. The mammary glands of a female secrete a
spermatogenesis. growth and
yellowish fluid called colostrum during the
maturation phase.
initial days after parturition.
w
19. At what stage of development are the gametes Significance :

formed in new born male and female? (i) It has less lactose than milk and almost no
Ans. (i) In a new born male, spematogenesis fat, but it contains more proteins, vitamin
(formation of sperms) starts at the age of A and minerals.
puberty. It is initiated due to the increase
22

(ii) It is rich in IgA antibodies. It helps to 25. What is inhibin? State its functions.
protect the infants digestive tract against Ans. (i) Inhibin is a hormone secreted by the
bacterial infections. sertoli cells in the stratified epithelium of
(iii) It is the ideal food for infants since it the seminiferous tubule in the testis.
contains all constituents in suitable (ii) Function: It is involved in the negative
concentration and is easily digestable. feedback control of sperm production.
m
(iv) It is loaded with immune, growth and
tissue repair factors. 26. Mention the importance of the position of the
(v) It acts as a natural antimicrobial agent to
testes in humans.
Ans. Testes are the primary male sex organs. They
co
actively stimulate the maturation of the
infant’s immune system. are a pair of ovoid bodies lying in the scrotum.
(vi) It is fully sufficient till 6 months of age for The scrotum is a sac of skin that hangs outside
all infants. the abdominal cavity. Since viable sperms cannot
be produced at normal body temperature,
s.
23. Placenta is an endocrine tissue. Justify. the scrotum is placed outside the abdominal
Ans. (i) Human embryo is surrounded by 3 cavity to provide a temperature 2-3°C lower
embryonic membranes. The chorionic villi than the normal internal body temperature.
and uterine tissues form the disc shaped Thus, the scrotum acts as a thermoregulator for
ok
Human Reproduction
placenta. It is a temporary endocrine organ spermatogenesis.
formed during pregnancy and connects
27. What is the composition of semen?
the foetus to the uterine wall through the
Ans. (i) Semen is a milky white fluid which contains
umbilical cord.
sperms and the seminal plasma secreted
o
(ii) During pregnancy, the placenta acts as a
from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland
temporary endocrine gland and produces
and bulbourethral glands.
large quantities of human Chorionic
ab
(ii) The seminal plasma contains fructose

Gonadotropin (hCG), human Chorionic
sugar, ascorbic acid, prostaglandins and
Somatomammotropin (hCS) or human
a coagulating enzyme called vesiculase
Placental Lactogen (hPL), oestrogens and
which enhance sperm mobility. It also
progesterone which are essential for a
contains citrate, several enzymes and
ur
normal pregnancy.
prostate specific antigens. It also provides
(iii) A hormone called relaxin is also secreted nutrients and contains chemicals that
during the later phase of pregnancy which protect and activate the sperms.
helps in relaxation of the pelvic ligaments (iii) It acts as a transport medium for the
.s
at the time of parturition. It should be sperms.

noted that hCG, hPL and relaxin are
produced only during pregnancy. 28. Name the hormones produced from the
placenta during pregnancy.
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(iv) Thus placenta is a endocrine tissue.

Ans. Hormones produced by the placenta during
24. Draw a labeled sketch of a spermatozoan. pregnancy are:
Ans. Acrosome (i) human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
w
(ii) human Chorionic Somatomammotropin

Head
Nucleus
Neck (hCS)
Mitochondria (iii) human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
w
(iv) Oestrogens
Middle piece
(v) Progesterone
Tail (vi) Relaxin
23

29. Define gametogenesis.
Ans. Gametogenesis is the process of formation of gametes i.e., sperms and ovary from the primary sex
organs in all sexually reproducing organisms. Meiosis plays the most significant role in the process of
gametogenesis.
Chapter 2
30. Describe the structure of the human ovum with a neat labelled diagram.
m
Ans. (i) Human ovum is non-cleidoic, alecithal and microscopic in nature.
(ii) Its cytoplasm called ooplasm contains a large nucleus called the germinal vesicle.
(iii) The ovum is surrounded by three coverings namely an inner thin transparent vitelline membrane,
middle thick zona pellucida and outer thick coat of follicular cells called corona radiata.
co
(iv) Between the vitelline membrane and zona pellucida is a narrow perivitelline space.
Corona radiata
Zona Pellucida
s.
Vitelline membrane
Nucleus
Germinal Vesicle
Ooplasm
Ans.
o ok
31. Give a schematic representation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans.
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
ab
Multiplication
Phase
ur
Growth
Phase
.s
w Maturation
Phase
w
w
24

32. Explain the various phases of the menstrual (ii) The corpus luteum secretes large amount
cycle. of progesterone which is essential for the
Ans. Menstrual cycle comprises of the following maintenance of the endometrium.
phases (iii) If fertilisation takes place, it paves way for
1. Menstrual phase the implantation of the fertilized ovum.
(iv) The uterine wall secretes nutritious fluid in
m
2. Follicular or proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase the uterus for the foetus. So, this phase is
4. Luteal or secretory phase also called as secretory phase.
(v) During pregnancy all events of menstrual
co
1. Menstrual phase:
(i) The cycle starts with the menstrual phase cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
when menstrual flow occurs and lasts for 33. Explain the role of oxytocin and relaxin in
3-5 days. parturition and lactation.
(ii) Menstrual flow is due to the breakdown Ans. Relaxin – It is a hormone secreted by the
s.
of endometrial lining of the uterus, and its placents and also found in corpus luteum. It
blood vessels due to decline in the level of helps in relaxation of the pelvic ligaments at the
progesterone and oestrogen. time of parturition.
ok
(iii) Menstruation occurs only if the released (i) Oxytocin – It is a hormone produced
Human Reproduction
ovum is not fertilized. by posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
2. Follicular or proliferative phase: As pregnancy progresses, increase in
(i) The follicular phase extends from the 5th oxytocin concentration promotes, uterine
day of the cycle until the time of ovulation. contractions which facilitale downward
o
movement of the foetus. The powerful
(ii) During this phase, the primary follicle in
concentration of the uterine muscles leads
the ovary grows to become a fully mature
to the expulsion of the baby through birth
ab
Graafian follicle and simultaneously,

canal resulting in child birth or parturition.
the endometrium regenerates through
(ii) It causes the “Let-Down” reflex - the
proliferation.
actual ejection of milk from the alveoli of
(iii) These changes are induced by the secretion the mammary glands. During lactation,
of gonadotropins like FSH and LH, which
ur
oxytocin also stimulates the recently

increase gradually during the follicular phase. emptied uterus to contract, helping it to
(iv) It stimulates follicular development and return to pre - pregnancy size.
secretion of oestrogen by the follicle cells.
34. Identify the given image and label its parts
.s
3. Ovulatory phase:
marked as a, b, c and d
(i) Both LH and FSH attain peak level in the
d
middle of the cycle (about the 14th day).
w
(ii) Maximum secretion of LH during the mid

a
cycle called LH surge induces the rupture
of the Graafian follicle and the release of b
the ovum (secondary oocyte) from the
w
ovary wall into the peritoneal cavity. This c

process is called as ovulation.
w
4. Luteal or secretory phase:

(i) During luteal phase, the remaining part of
the Graafian follicle is transformed into a Ans. Human Ovum
transitory endocrine gland called corpus a – Vitelline membrane
luteum. b – Nucleus
c – Zona Pellucida
d – Corona radiata
25

35. The following is the illustration of the sequence (b)
The pituitary hormone leutinising
of ovarian events (a-i) in a human female. hormone and the ovarian hormone
oestrogen are responsible for the above
mentioned events.
Chapter 2
(c) (i) The endometrium of the uterus

becomes thicker to receive the fertilized
m
ovum in anticipation. (Implantation)
a) Identify the figure that illustrates (ii)
The uterine wall secretes nutritious
ovulation and mention the stage of fluid in the uterus for the foctus.
co
oogenesis it represents. (d) ‘C’ indicates developmental stage of follicle
b) Name the ovarian hormone and the in the Ovary when the ovum has not been
pituitary hormone that have caused the released. ‘H’ indicates a stage where the
above-mentioned events. ovum has been released and the remaining
c) Explain the changes that occurs in the part of the ruptured graafian follicle has
s.
uterus simultaneously in anticipation. transformed into a temporary endocrine
d) Write the difference between C and H. gland called corpus luteum to produce
Ans. (a)
The figure ‘F’ illustrates ovulation. additional hormones for pregnancy.
ok
It represents the maturation stage of
oogenesis.
Zoology Long Version Questions (for pure science Group)

o
Q.No. 1 to 9 Refer Evaluation. 27. Refer Evaluation Q.No.26
ab
10. Painful menstruation is termed as 28. Refer Evaluation Q.No.27

(a) Dysmenorrhoea (b) Menorrhagia 29. Refer Evaluation Q.No.28
(c) Amenorrhoea 30. Refer Evaluation Q.No.29
(d) Oligomenorrhoea 31. Refer Evaluation Q.No.30
ur
[Ans. (a) Dysmenorrhoea]

32. Refer Evaluation Q.No.31
13. Refer Evaluation Q.No.12 34. List the various menstrual disorders.
.s
Ans. (i) Amenorrhoea :

Absence of menstruation is called
15. Refer Evaluation Q.No.14 amenorrhoea. If menarche does not
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16. Refer Evaluation Q.No.15 appear till the age of 18, it is called primary
17. Refer Evaluation Q.No.16 amenorrhoea. Absence of menstruation
for over three consecutive months is
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secondary amenorrhoea.
(ii) Polymenorrhoea :
20. Refer Evaluation Q.No.19 1. Polymenorrhoea is a term used to
21. Refer Evaluation Q.No.20 describe a menstrual cycle that is
w
22. Refer Evaluation Q.No.21 shorter than 21 days.

23. Refer Evaluation Q.No.22 2. It may be due to hyperactivity of the
anterior pituitary gland, psychological
disturbances and malnutrition,
25. Refer Evaluation Q.No.24 Chronic pelvic inflammation by
26

certain sexually transmitted diseases (iv) Menorrhagia :
(STD) such as chlamydiasis or 1. Heavy and prolonged menstrual
gonorrhoea can cause inflammation period that disrupts a woman’s normal
in the uterus causing polymenorrhoea. activities is referred to as menorrhagia.
(iii) Dysmenorrhoea : Pain associated with 2. Menorrhagia may be due to hormonal
menstruation is called dysmenorrhoea. imbalance, ovarian dysfunction,
m
There are two types uterine fibroids and may also be due
1. Primary dysmenorrhoea is pain or to cancer of the ovary, uterus or cervix.
cramps during menstrual period. (v) Oligomenorrhoea : Oligomenorrhoea is a
co
2. Secondary dysmenorrhoea is caused condition with infrequent menstrual periods.
by a disorder in the reproductive It occurs in women of childbearing age.
system like endometriosis or uterine 35. Refer Evaluation Q.No.33
fibroids. 36. Refer Evaluation Q.No.34
s.
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Human Reproduction
6. The ____________ glands in human female
I. Choose the Correct options are homologous to the prostate gland in male
for the below Questions (a) Bartholin’s glands (b) Skene’s glands
o
(c) mammary glands (d) Cowper’s gland
1. ___________ are endocrine cells. [Ans. (b) Skene’s glands]
(a) Inhibitin (b) Leydig cells
ab
(c) Oogonia (d) Sertoli cells 7. _________ is popularly known as sperm lysin.
[Ans. (b) Leydig cells] (a) Inhibitin (b) Hyaluronidase
(c) Androgen (d) Acrosome
2. ___ is not linked to male reproductive system. [Ans. (b) Hyaluronidase]
(a) Prostate gland
ur
(b) Corpus albicans 8. The whole process of spermatogenesis takes

about _______ days
(c) Cowper’s gland
(a) 25 (b) 42 (c) 64 (d) 72
(d) bulbourethral glands
[Ans. (c) 64]
[Ans. (b) Corpus albicans]
.s
9. The _______ is the smallest human cell.

3. Testosterone is secreted by ___________
(a) sperm (b) neuron
(a) spermatocytes (b) sperm
(c) nephron (d) alveoli
w
(c) polar bodies (d) leydig cells

[Ans. (a) sperm]
[Ans. (d) leydig cells]
10. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of
4. ____________ is not a part of female
_______
w
reproductive system in human.

(a) testosterone (b) relaxin
(a) Cervix (b) Infundibulum
(c) oestrogen (d) progesterone
(c) Isthmus (d) Prostate gland
[Ans. (d) progesterone]

w
[Ans. (d) Prostrate gland]

11. _______ is not linked to polymenorrhoea
5. The ____________ glands in human female
are homologous to the bulbouretural glands (a) Shorter cycle (b) Gland activity
(a) Bartholin’s glands (b) Skene’s glands (c) Malnutrition (d) Pain
(c) mammary glands (d) Cowper’s gland [Ans. (d) Pain]
[Ans. (a) Bartholin’s glands]
27

12. _______ may be due to cancer of the ovary 3. Expulsion of baby from the mother’s womb is
(a) Amenorrhoea (b) Dysmenorrhoea called ______.
(c) Menorrhagia (a) implementation (b) parturition
(d) Oligomenorrhoea [Ans. (c) Menorrhagia] (c) insemination (d) gestation
Chapter 2
[Ans. (b) parturition]

13. _______ is a berry shaped cluster of cells
m
(a) Blastula (b) Gastrula 4. Each testis is covered by a fibrous layer ______.
(c) Morula (d) Zygote (a) tubulus rectus (b) corona radiata
[Ans. (c) Morula] (c) vitelline membrane (d) tunica albuginea

co
[Ans. (d) tunica albuginea]
14. The term after birth refers to ________
(a) Parturition (b) Lactation 5. The scrotum acts as _____ for spermatogenesis.
(c) Remains of placenta (a) chemoregulator (b) thermoregulator
(d) Corpus albicans (c) enzyme regulator (d) photo regulator
[Ans. (b) thermoregulator]
s.
[Ans. (c) Remains of placenta]
15. ‘Let Down’ reflex for lactation is caused by ___ 6. The _____ is the site for spermatogereis.
(a) Prolactin (b) Oxytocin (a) epididymis (b) vas deferens
ok
(c) Lactogenic hormone (d) Progesterone (c) seminiferous tubules (d) tubulus rectus
[Ans. (b) Oxytocin] [Ans. (c) seminiferous tubules]
16. Among the extra embryonic membranes the 7. ______ cells nourish the sperms.
_______ is the outer most membrane (a) Leydig cells (b) Interstitial cells
(c) Spermatogonic cells (d) Sertoli cells
o
(a) amnion (b) chorion
(c) allantois [Ans. (d) Sertoli cells]
(d) vitelline membrane[Ans. (b) chorion]
ab
8. ______ is a hormone produced by sertoli cells.

17. The dividing embryo takes ______ days to (a) Inhibin (b) Progesterone
move to the uterus from the fallopian tube (c) Testosterone (d) Oestrogen
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 4-5 (d) 2 [Ans. (a) Inhibin]
[Ans. (c) 4-5] 9. The _____ cells of the testis are endocrine in
ur
18. Capacitation is a _______ event nature.

(a) physical (b) biochemical (a) sertoli (b) leydig
(c) both a and c (c) nurse
.s
(d) Enzyme mediated (d) spermatogonic [Ans. (b) leydig]

[Ans. (b) biochemical] 10. The male hormones are called _______.
II. Choose the Correct options for (a) estrogen (b) progesterone
w
(c) relaxin (d) androgens

the below Fill in the blanks
[Ans. (d) androgens]
1. The transfer of sperms by the male into the 11. _______ stores the sperms temporarily until
w
female genital tract is called ________ they mature.

(a) implantation (b) parturition (a) testis (b) epididymis
(c) insemination (d) gastrulation (c) vasa efferentia (d) vas deferens
w
[Ans. (c) insemination] [Ans. (b) epididymis]

2. Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall is 12. Bulbourethral glands are also called _______.
called________.
(a) prostate gland (b) Cowper’s gland
(a) Implantation (b) Parturition
(c) Skene’s glands (d) Bartholin’s glands
(c) Insemination (d) gastrulation [Ans. (b) Cowper’s gland]
[Ans. (a) Implantation]
28

13. The seminal fluid has a coagulating enzyme 22. The spermatids are transformed into mature
called _______. sperms by a process called _______.
(a) vesiculase (b) hyaluronidase (a) spermiation (b) spermiogenesis
(c) amylase (d) lactase (c) gametogenesis (d) oogenesis
[Ans. (a) vesiculase] [Ans. (b) spermiogenesis]
m
14. The proximal part of the fallopian tube bears a 23. Sperms are released into the cavity of the
funnel shaped _______. seminiferous tubule by a process called _____.
(a) Graafian follicle (b) Oogonia (a) spermiogenesis (b) spermatogenesis
(c) Infundibulum (d) corpus luteum
co
(c) spermiation (d) gametogenesis
[Ans. (c) Infundibulum] [Ans. (c) spermiation]
15. The finger shaped _________ in the female 24. The unequal divisions during oogenesis
reproductive system collect the ovum after results in small cells called _____.
ovulation. (a) oogonia (b) primary oocyte
s.
(a) Infundibulum (b) Fimbriae (c) secondary oocyte (d) polar bodies
(c) Ampulla (d) Isthmus [Ans. (d) polar bodies]
[Ans. (b) Fimbriae]
ok
25. Normal menstrual or ovarion cycle occurs
Human Reproduction
16. _______ is the birth canal. once in ______ days.
(a) Cervix (b) Cervical canal (a) 28/29 (b) 17/18
(c) Uterus (d) Vagina (c) 60/65 (d) 58/60
[Ans. (d) Vagina] [Ans. (a) 28/29]
o
17. A mature follicle produces ______ polar 26. The ruptured Graafian follicle forms _______.
bodies during oogenesis. (a) corpus luteum (b) primary follicle
ab
(a) four (b) three (c) two (d) one (c) oogonia (d) secondary follicle
[Ans. (b) three] [Ans. (a) corpus luteum]
18. The ________ glands occur posterior to the 27. LH surge is seen in ______ phase of menstrual
vagina. cycle.
ur
(a) Skene’s glands (b) Cowper’s gland (a) follicular phase (b) luteal phase
(c) prostate gland (d) Bartholin’s glands (c) ovulatory (d) menstrual
[Ans. (d) Bartholin’s glands] [Ans. (c) ovulatory]
19. The ______ glands are located on the anterior
.s
28. ______ is a temporary endocine gland formed

wall of vagina. during pregnancy from the follicle.
(a) Skene’s glands (b) Bartholin’s glands (a) oestrogen (b) corpus luteum
(c) prostate gland (d) Cowper’s gland
w
(c) progesterone (d) relaxin

[Ans. (a) Skene’s glands] [Ans. (b) corpus luteum]
20. The thin ring of tissue that particularly closes 29. The ______ phase of menstrual cycle is also
the vaginal opening_______.
w
called secretory phase.

(a) labia majora (b) hymen (a) Ovulatory (b) Menstrual
(c) labia minora (d) clitoris (c) Luteal (d) Follicular
[Ans. (b) hymen]
w
[Ans. (c) Luteal]

21. The ______ are modified sweat gland seen in 30. ________ is a biochemical event which enables
both sexes. a sperm to fertilize an egg.
(a) Skene’s glands (b) Bartholin’s glands (a) Capacitation (b) Gastrulation
(c) Mammary gland (d) Cowper’s gland (c) Spermiogenesis (d) Gametogenesis
[Ans. (c) Mammary gland] [Ans. (a) Capacitation]
29

31. The follicular cells of the ovum are held 40. The hormone _______ brings about powerful
together by a substance called _______. contraction of uterine muscles during child
(a) hyaluronidase (b) progesterone birth
(c) oestrogen (d) hyaluronic acid (a) Relaxin (b) Oestrogen
Chapter 2
[Ans. (d) hyaluronic acid] (c) Progesterone (d) Oxytocin

[Ans. (d) Oxytocin]
m
32. The ______ prevents poly spermy.
(a) vitelline membrane 41. The hormone _______ produced by anterior
(b) fertilization membrane pituitary plays a major role in lactation.
(a) oxytocin (b) prolactin
co
(c) zona pellucida
(d) corona radiata (c) progesterone (d) oestrogen
[Ans. (b) fertilization membrane] [Ans. (b) prolactin]
33. The stage where the embryo looks like a fluid 42. Colostrum has less ______ than milk.
filled hollow ball is called _______. (a) protein (b) minerals
s.
(a) trophoblast (b) morula (c) lactose (d) vitamin A
(c) gastrula (d) blastocyst [Ans. (c) lactose]
[Ans. (d) blastocyst] 43. ________ is a natural antimicrobial agent to
ok
34. The ____ is a double layered embryonic stimulate the maturation of infants immune
membrane. system.
(a) chorion (b) amnion (a) IgA antibodies (b) Amniotic fluid
(c) allantois (d) yolksac (c) Milk (d) Colostrum
o
[Ans. (b) amnion] [Ans. (d) Colostrum]
35. Human pregnancy lasts for _______ days. 44. ________ is the first ejaculation of semen.
ab
(a) 280 (b) 300 (c) 290 (d) 310 (a) Azospermia (b) Spermarche
[Ans. (a) 280] (c) Prostatits
(d) Orchidectomy [Ans. (b) Spermarche]
36. ______ connects the foetus and maternal
tissues. III. Identify the correct Statements
ur
(a) Chorionic villi (b) Uterus

(c) Placenta (d) Corpus albicans 1. (i) Fertilization occurs after acrosomal
[Ans. (c) Placenta] reaction.
(ii) Placenta is an temporary exocrine gland
.s
37. The ___ contractions lead to false labour formed during pregnancy
pains. (iii) Ectopic pregnancy can lead to death
(a) Let - Down reflex (b) Ferguson reflex (iv) Ferguson reflex creates fake labour
(c) Foetal ejection reflex (d) Braxter - Hicks
w
(a) i and iii (b) i, iii and iv

[Ans. (d) Braxter - Hicks] (c) ii and iv (d) ii & iii
38. The foetal ejection reflex is also called ______ [Ans. (a) i and iii]
reflex.
w
2. (i) PPL helps in lactation

(a) Ferguson (b) Let - Down (ii) hCS helps in fertilization
(c) Braxter - Hicks (d) Parturition (iii) Egg is the largest human cell
[Ans. (a) Ferguson]
w
(iv) 14th day of menstrual cycle is the

39. _______ is a hormone secreted by the placenta ovulatory phase
and also found in the corpus luteum (a) i, iv (b) ii and iii
(a) Oxytocin (b) Relaxin (c) I, ii and iv (d) i, iii, iv
(c) Inhibin (d) Testosterone [Ans. (d) i, iii, iv]
[Ans. (b) Relaxin]
30

III. Identify the Wrong Statements V. Identify the correct
assertion and reason
1. (i) For fertilization to occur, the egg must
be transported earlier to the fallopian In each of the following questions there are two
tube. statements. One is assertion (A) and other is
(ii) Twins are formed because fertilization reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
m
membrane is formed later. A. A and R are true, R is the correct explanation
(iii) Binding of sperms to receptor molecules of A
in zona. Pellucida is seen during B. A and R are true, R is not the correct
co
fertilization explanation of A
(iv) Morula is formed before blastocyst C. A is true, R is false
(a) All the above (b) i, iii and iv D. Both A and R are false
(c) i and ii (d) ii and iv 1. Assertion : The primary germ layers are
[Ans. (c) i and ii] formed during gastrulation.
s.
2. (i) Testis acts as a thermoregulator. Reason : The body organs are formed from
primary germ layers.
(ii) Seminal vesicles secrete an acidic fluid
(iii) Vesiculase is a enzyme in seminal fluid [Ans. (a) A and R are true, R is the correct
ok
Human Reproduction
(iv) Hymen can get disrupted due to physical explanation of A]
exercises. 2. Assertion :
The process of oogenesis must get
(a) All the above (b) i and ii completed before fertilization
(c) iii and ii (d) i, iv and ii Reason : The egg after II Meiosis is ready
o
[Ans. (b) i and ii] for fertilization.
[Ans. (D) Both A and R are false]
IV. Match the following
ab
3. Assertion :
By 36th week, the baby is positioned
1. 1. Hyaluronidase (a) Interstitial cells into pelvis for parturition
2. Vesiculase (b) Sertoli cells Reason :
The Braxter –Hick’s contractions
3. Testosterone (c) Acrosomal reaction will begin for parturition.
4. Inhibin (d) Seminal vesicle [Ans. (C) A is true but R is false]
ur
(A) 1 – a 2 – b 3 – d 4 – c
(B) 1 – c 2 – d 3 – a 4 – b
VI. Identify the Correct pair
(C) 1 – c 2 – a 3 – d 4 – b from the below
.s
(D) 1 – a 2 – d 3 – c 4 – b 1. (i) Mammary gland – areola

[Ans. (B) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b] (ii) Sperms – Relaxin
2. 1. Corpus luteum (a) secretory phase (iii) polar body – 46 chromosmes
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2. Skene's gland (b) follicle (iv) Middle piece – ATP

3. Uterus (c) Leutinising (a) i and iv (b) ii and iv
hormone (c) i, ii and iv (d) ii and iii
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4. Ovulation (d) Prostate gland [Ans. (a) i and iv]

(A) 1 – d 2 – a 3 – c 4 – b 2. (i) Amenorrhoea – Short cycle
(B) 1 – a 2 – c 3 – d 4 – b (ii) Dysmenorrhoea – Uterine fibroids
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(C) 1 – b 2 – d 3 – c 4 – a (iii) Oligomenorrhoes – Pain

(D) 1 – b 2 – d 3 – a 4 – c (iv) Polymenorrhoea – P s y c h o l o g i c a l
[Ans. (D) 1-b 2-d 3-a 4-c] disturbances
(a) i, ii and iv (b) ii and iii
(c) ii and iv (d) i, ii and iii
[Ans. (c) ii and iv]
31

VIII. Identify the Incorrect 5. (a) Menarche (b) amenorrhoea
(c) Gonorrhoea (d) Menorrhagia
pair from the below
[Ans. Gonorrhoea]
1. (i) Dizygotic twins – Two sperms Reason: It is a sexually transmitted disease and
Chapter 2
(ii) Epiblast – Gastrula the others are related to menstrual cycle.
m
(iii) Amnion – Umbilical cord
Answer in one word*
(iv) Colostrum – I g A antibodies
(a) i, ii and iv (b) i and iv 1. The inner glandular layer of the uterus is called
(c) iii and iv (d) ii and iii _______. [Ans. endometrium]
co
[Ans. (d) ii and iii] 2. The acrosome is formed from ________.
2. (i) Ovary – Cryptorchism [Ans. Golgi body]
(ii) Nurse cells – Seminiferous 3. The cap like pointed tip of a sperm is called ____
tubules [Ans. acrosome]
s.
(iii) Gametogenesis – Meiosis
4. The middle piece of the sperm contains _____
(iv) GnRH – Lactation
[Ans. mitochondria]
(a) i, iii and iv (b) ii and iv
5. The acrosome contains the enzyme ______.
ok
(c) i and iv (d) iii only
[Ans. Hyaluronidase]
[Ans. (c) i and iv]
6. A mature ovarion follicle is called _______.
[Ans. graafian follicle]
IX. Identify the Odd-man out
7. The outer thick coat covering ovum is called
o
from the below
_____. [Ans. corona radiata]
1. (a) Skene’s glands (b) endometrium 8. Puberty is also called _______.
ab
(c) mammary glands (d) Fallopian tube [Ans. menarche]

[Ans. Mammary glands]
9. Menstruation does not occur during _______.
Reason: They occur in both sexes but the others
[Ans. pregnancy]
are found only in female reproductive system.
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10. Release of ovum from follicle is called

2. (a) Lutenizing hormone (b) Oxytocin _________. [Ans. ovulation]
(c) Progestrone (d) Hyaluronic acid
[Ans. Hyaluronic acid] 11. When the corpus luteum. degenerates it leaves a
scar tissue called _________.
Reason: It is not a hormone whereas the other
.s
[Ans. corpus albicans]

three are hormones.
12. Absence of menstruation is called _______.
3. (a) Axoneme (b) Mitochondria [Ans. Amenorrhoea]
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(c) acrosome
13. A menstrual cycle that is shorter is called
(d) fertilization membrane
_______. [Ans. Polymenorrhoea]
[Ans. fertilization membrane]
Reason: It is not a part of the sperm whereas the 14. Pain associated with menstruation is called
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others are parts of sperm _______. [Ans. Dysmenorrhoea]

15. Heavy and prolonged menstrual period is
4. (a) Polar body (b) Primary follicle
called_________. [Ans. Menorrhagia]
(c) Secondary follicle (d) Spermatogonia
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[Ans. Spermatogonia] 16. Infrequent menstrual period is called

Reason: It is associated with male reproductive ___________. [Ans. Oligomenorrhoea]
system whereas the others are associated with 17. The ecofriendly way to destroy sanitary napkins
female reproductive system. are by use of ________. [Ans. incinerator]
32

18. Colostrum does not contain________. 10. Name the types of cells found in seminiferous
[Ans. fat] tubule.
19. Failure of spermatogenesis is called _______. Ans. (i) Sertoli cells or nurse cell
[Ans. azospermia] (ii) Spermatogonic cells.
20. Surgical removal of testis is called__________. 11. What are leydig cells?
m
[Ans. Orchidectomy] Ans. (i) Leydig cells or Interstitial cells are found
21. The mitochandrial spiral in middle piece of in soft connective tissue surrounding
sperm is called ________. [Ans. Nebenkern] the seminiferous tubules of tests and are
endocrine in nature.
co
(ii) They secrete androgens namely
testosterone. Hormone which initiates the
1. Define Gametogenesis. process of spermatogenesis.
Ans. Formation of gametes in males and females by
12. Name the accessory ducts associated with male
s.
spermatogenesis and oogenesis respectively.
reproductive system.
2. Define Insemination. Ans. The accessory ducts associated with the male
Ans. Transfer of sperms by the male into the female reproductive system include rete testis, vasa
ok
genital tract is called Insemination. efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
Human Reproduction
3. Define fertilisation. 13. What is the significance of epididymis?
Ans. Fusion of male and female gametes to form Ans. (i) The epididymis is a single highly coiled tube
zygote, is called fertilisation. that temporarily stores the spermatozoa
and they undergo physiological maturation
o
4. Define Cleavage.
and acquire increased motility and
Ans. Cleavage refers to the rapid mitotic divisions of
fertilizing capacity.
ab
the zygote which convert the single celled zygote

(ii) It is found in the testis.
into a multicellular structure called blastocyst.
14. Name the accessory glands of the male
5. Define Implantation.
reproductive system.
Ans. Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall is
Ans. The accessory glands of the male reproductive
called Implantation.
ur
system include the paired seminal vesicles and

6. What is Placentation? bulbourethral glands also called Cowper’s gland
Ans. The process of formation of placenta which is the and a single prostate gland.
intimate connection between foetus and uterine
15. What is the function of seminal fluid?
.s
wall of the mother for exchange of nutrients is Ans. The seminal fluid acts as a transport medium,
called Placentation. provides nutrients, contains chemicals that
7. What is Gastrulation? protect and activate the sperms and also facilitate
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Ans. It is a process by which blastocyst is changed their movement.

into a gastrula with three primary germ layers, 16. Name the accessory organs of the female
namely ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm. reproductive system.
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8. What is Organogenesis? Ans. The fallopian tubes (uterine tubes or oviducts),

Ans. Formation of specific tissues, organs and uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory
organ systems from three germ layers is called organs.
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Organogenesis. 17. Describe the location and shape of the uterus.

9. What is Parturition? Ans. The uterus or womb is a hollow, thick-walled,
Ans. Expulsion of the baby from the mother’s womb muscular, highly vascular and inverted pear
is called Parturition. shaped structure lying in the pelvic cavity
between the urinary bladder and rectum.
33

18. What is endometrium? 28. What is abdominal delivery or Caesarean
Ans. (i) The inner glandular layer of the uterus is section?
called endometrium. Ans. When normal vaginal delivery is not possible due
(ii) The endometrium undergoes cyclic to factors like position of the baby and nature
Chapter 2
changes during the menstrual cycle. of the placenta, the baby is delivered through a
surgical incision in the woman’s abdomen and
m
19. Name the glands associated with female
uterus. It is also termed as abdominal delivery or
reproductive hyster.
Caesarean Section or ‘C’ Section.
Ans. Bartholins glands and skene’s glands
29. What is “Let – Down” reflex?
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20. Define spermiogenesis.
Ans. The hormone oxytocin brings about the “Let -
Ans. The spermatids are transformed into mature down” reflex which is the actual ejection of milk
spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called from the alveoli of the mammary glands.
spermiogenesis.
30. What is azospermia?
s.
21. What is spermiation?
Ans. Azospermia refers to the failure of
Ans. Sperms are finally released into the cavity spermatogenesis. It is seen in males.
of seminiferous tubules by a process called
spermiation. It follows spermiogenesis. 31. What is orchidectomy?
ok
Ans. Castration or surgical removal of testis is known
22. What is ovulation? as orchidectomy.
Ans. The release of ovum by the rupture of the
Graafian follicle is called ovulation. It occurs 32. What are the initiatives taken by the
during ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle. Government of Tamilnadu to highlight the
o
importance of Breast feeding?
23. What is Morula? Ans. The Government of Tamil Nadu has also
Ans. Following fertilization, after 72 hours, a loose
ab
initiated various projects like Mother’s Milk

collection of cells is formed from the zygote by Bank, Feeding rooms in bus terminals and also
cleavage. The berry shaped cluster of 16 or more organizes awareness campaigns during the first
cells is called morula. week of August to highlight the importance of
24. What is ectopic pregnancy? breast feeding to infants.
ur
Ans. (i) If the fertilised ovum is implanted outside 33. What are the functions of centrioles in the
the uterus it results in ectopic pregnancy. sperm?
(ii) The growth of the embryo may cause Ans. (i) The proximal centriole lies towards the
internal bleeding, infection and in some nucleus and plays a role in the first division
.s
cases even death due to rupture of the of the zygote.

fallopian tube. (ii) Distal centriole gives rise to axial filament
of the sperm.
25. Name the extra embryonic membranes.
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Ans. Amnion, yolk sac, allantois and chorion

34. What is the function of middle piece of sperm?
Ans. It contains mitochondria and produces energy
26. What is the function of yolk sac in a human in the form of ATP molecules for the movement
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embryo? of sperm.
Ans. The yolk sac forms a part of the gut and is the
source of the earliest blood cells and blood Short Answers 3 Marks
vessels. What is the function of Sertoli cells?
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1.
27. What is after birth? Ans. (i) Sertoli cells are elongated and pyramidal
Ans. The placenta along with the remains of the and provide nourishment to the sperms till
umbilical cord called “after birth” is expelled out maturation.
after delivery. (ii) They also secrete inhibin, a hormone
which is involved in the negative feedback
control of sperm production.
34

2. What is the role of FSH & LH in 8. What is polymenorrhoea?
spermatogenesis? Ans. It denotes a menstrual cycle that is shorter than
Ans. (i) FSH stimulates testicular growth and 21 days which may be due to hyperactivity
enhances the production of Androgen of anterior pituitary gland, psychological
Binding Protein (ABP) by the sertoli cells disturbances, malnutrition, sexually transmitted
and helps in the process of spermiogenesis. disease etc.
m
(ii) LH acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates 9. What is menorrhagia?
the synthesis of testosterone which in turn Ans. (i) Heavy and prolonged menstrual period
stimulates the process of spermatogenesis. that disrupts a woman’s normal activities is
co
3. What is acrosome? referred to as menorrhagia.
Ans. (i) Acrosome is a small cap like pointed (ii) Menorrhagia may be due to hormonal
structure present at the tip of the nucleus imbalance, ovarian dysfunction, uterine
and is formed mainly from the Golgi body fibroids and may also be due to cancer of
s.
of the spermatid. the ovary, uterus or cervix.
(ii) It contains hyaluronidase, a proteolytic 10. What is menopause?
enzyme, popularly known as sperm lysin Ans. (i) Menopause is the phase in a women’s life
ok
which helps to penetrate the ovum during
Human Reproduction
when ovulation and menstruation stops.
fertilisation.
(ii) The average age of menopause is 45-50
4. What is LH surge? years. It indicates the permanent cessation
Ans. During the ovulatory phase of the menstrual of the primary functions of the ovaries.
cycle, maximum secretion of leutinising
o
11. What is acrosome reaction?
hormone occurs during the mid cycle (about
Ans. (i) During fertilization the acrosomal
14th day) which is called LH surge and induces
membrane of the sperm releases the
ab
ovulation.
proteolytic enzyme called hyaluronidase to
5. What is corpus luteum? break the hyaluronic acid which binds the
Ans. (i) It is a temporary endocrine gland formed follicular cells around the ovum.
from the ruptured Graafian follicle. (ii) This is called acrosome reaction. This
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(ii) It secretes a large amount of progesterone helps the sperm to enter the ovum.
which is essential for maintenance of the 12. Name the different types of twins formed.
endometrium of the uterus. If fertilization Ans. (i) Monozygotic twins – single fertilized egg splits
does not occur it degenerates. into two embryos. The individuals are of the
.s
6. Why does menstrual flow occur? same sex, look alike and share the same genes.
Ans. (i) Menstrual flow occurs due to breakdown (ii) Dizygotic twins – Two eggs are fertilized
of endometrial lining of the uterus and its by two sperms. The two individuals may
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blood vessels due to decline in the level of or may not be of same sex and are non-
progesterone and oestrogen. identical.
(ii) This happens when the released ovum is (iii) Siamese twins – conjoined twins joined
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not fertilized. during birth.

7. What is secretory phase of menstrual cycle? 13. What is the function of amnion?
Ans. (i) The Luteal phase of menstrual cycle Ans. (i) The amnion is a double layered translucent
w
involves formation of corpus luteum and membrane filled with the amniotic fluid.
thickening of endometrium of uterus for (ii) It provides a buoyant environment to
implantation. protect the developing embryo from injury,
(ii) The uterine wall secretes nutritious fluid regulates the temperature of the foetus and
for the foetus. So the phase is called provides a medium in which the foetus can
secretory phase. move.
35

14. What is the significance of allantois? menstrual cycles, increased androgen levels,
Ans. (i) The allantois is an extra embryonic excessive facial or body hair growth (hirsutism),
membrane which forms a small out acne, obesity, reduced fertility and increased risk
pocketing of embryonic tissue at the caudal of diabetes. Treatment for PCOS includes a healthy
Chapter 2
end of the yolk sac. lifestyle, weight loss and targeted hormone therapy.
(ii) It is the structural base for the umbilical
m
20. In the diagram given below
cord that links the embryo to the placenta 1
and ultimately it becomes part of the

urinary bladder.
co
15. What are Braxter-Hick’s contractions? 2
Ans. (i) Throughout pregnancy the uterus 3

undergoes periodic episodes of weak and
(a) Label the parts and
strong contractions.
(b) Identify the name of the diagram.
s.
(ii) These contractions called Braxter-Hick’s
Ans. (a) 1 – Uterus 2 – Cervix 3 – Vagina
contractions lead to false labour.
(b) The given diagram is identified as Female
16. What is Ferguson reflex? Reproductive system of Human
ok
Ans. (i) During parturition the descent of the foetus
21. In the diagram given below.
causes dilation of cervix of the uterus and
1
vaginal canal resulting in a neurohumoral 2
reflex called Foetal ejection reflex or
Ferguson reflex. 3
o
(ii) This initiates the secretion of oxytocin
from the neurohypophysis which in turn
ab
brings about the powerful contraction

of the uterine muscles and leads to the
expulsion of the baby through the birth
canal.
ur
17. What is Relaxin? (a) Identify the diagram

Ans. (i) Relaxin is a hormone secreted by the placenta (b) Label the parts indicated.
and also found in the corpus luteum.
Ans. (a) Human Sperm
(ii) It promotes parturition by relaxing the
.s
pelvic joints and by dilatation of the cervix (b) 1 – Acrosome 2 – Nucleus 3 – Neck
with continued powerful contractions. 22. In the diagram given below
18. What is Capacitation?
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Ans. The sperms deposited in the female 1

2
reproductive tract undergo capacitation, which
is a biochemical event that enables the sperm to
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penetrate and fertilise the egg. 3
19. What is Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

Ans. PCOS is a complex endocrine system disorder
w
that affects women in their reproductive years. (a) Identify the diagram
Polycystic means ‘many cysts’. It refers to many (b) Label the parts
partially formed follicles on the ovaries, which
Ans. (a) Human foetus within the uterus
contain an egg each. But they do not grow to
maturity or produce eggs that can be fertilized. (b) 1 – Umbilical cord
Women with PCOS may experience irregular 2 – Fallopian tube
3 – Amniotic fluid
36

Long Answers 5 Marks (v) The neck is very short and is present
between the head and the middle piece. It
1. Differentiate Spermatogenesis and oogenesis. contains the proximal centriole towards
the nucleus which plays a role in the first
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis division of zygote and the distal centriole
It takes place in the It occurs in the gives rise to the axial filament of the sperm.
m
seminiferous tubules of follicles of the ovary
testis (vi) The middle piece possesses mitochondria
spirally twisted around the axial filament
It begins at puberty in In females it initiates called mitochondrial spiral or nebenkern.
co
males. in the foetal stages.
It produces energy in the form of ATP
Spermatogonia are the Oogonia is the the egg molecules for the movement of sperms.
sperm mother cells and mother cell and only
many of them undergo one cell undergoes Acrosome
maturation phase to form maturation phase at a Head
s.
Nucleus
sperms. time except in cases of
fraternal twins. Neck
I & II Mieotic divisions I & II meiotic Mitochondria

Middle piece
ok
are equal and each divisions are unequal
Human Reproduction
spermatogonia forms 4 and finally only one
haploid spermatids. haploid ovum and 3 Tail
small haploid polar
bodies are formed
o
The spermatids No such changes are
undergo a stage called observed. Structure of human sperm
Spermiogenesis to become
ab
(vii) The tail is the longest part of the sperm

functional sperm. and is slender and tapering.
The meiotic divisions The second meiotic (viii) It is formed of a central axial filament
are completed and division is never or axoneme and an outer protoplasmic
spermaticly are formed. completed it sheath. The lashing movements of the tail
ur
fertilization does not

push the sperm forward.
take place.
4. Explain the process of fertilization in human
3. Describe the structure of a sperm
beings.
Ans. Structure of human spermatozoan
.s
Ans. (i) Fertilisation occurs when a haploid sperm

(i) The human sperm is a microscopic,
fuses with a haploid ovum to form a
flagellated and motile gamete. The whole
fertilized egg or diploid zygote.
body of the sperm is enveloped by plasma
(ii) The sperms deposited in the female
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membrane and is composed of a head,

reproductive tract undergo capacitation,
neck and a tail.
which is a biochemical event that enables
(ii) The head comprises of two parts namely
the sperm to penetrate and fertilise the egg.
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acrosome and nucleus.

(iii) Fertilisation occurs only if the ovum and
(iii) Acrosome is a small cap like pointed
sperms are transported simultaneously
structure present at the tip of the nucleus
to the ampullary isthmic junction of the
and is formed mainly from the golgi body
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fallopian tube.
of the spermatid.
(iv) Before a sperm can enter the egg, it must
(iv) It contains hyaluronidase, a proteolytic
penetrate the multiple layers of granulosa
enzyme, popularly known as sperm lysin
(follicular) cells which are around the
which helps to penetrate the ovum during
ovum forming the corona radiata. The
fertilisation.
follicular cells are held together by an
37

adhesive cementing substance called structural base for the umbilical cord that links
hyaluronic acid. the embryo to the placenta and ultimately it
(v) The acrosomal membrane disintegrates becomes part of the urinary bladder.
releasing the proteolytic enzyme,
Chapter 2
Chorion:
hyaluronidase during sperm entry through The chorion is the outermost membrane which
the corona radiata and zona pellucida. This
m
encloses the embryo and all other membranes
is called acrosomal reaction. and also helps in the formation of the placenta.
(vi) Once fertilisation is accomplished, cortical Chorionic Villi:
granules from the cytoplasm of the ovum
The trophoblast cells in the blastocyst send out
co
form a barrier called the fertilisation
several finger like projections called chorionic
membrane around the ovum preventing
villi carrying foetal blood and are surrounded
further penetration of other sperms. Thus
by sinuses that contain maternal blood. The
polyspermy is prevented.
chorionic villi and the uterine tissues form the
This is followed by cleavage
s.
disc-shaped placenta.
Entry of Nucleus and Formation of fertilization
other components of membrane.
Placenta:
sperm.
Placenta is a temporary endocrine organ formed
ok
Break down of zona during pregnancy and it connects the foetus to
pellucida
the uterine wall through the umbilical cord. It
is the organ by which the nutritive, respiratory
Acrosome reaction.
and excretory functions are fulfilled.
o
Sperm migrates to coat of Hots
follicle cells and binds to
receptors in zona pellucida
1. In females a oogonia forms a single ovum
ab
Events of fertilisation only. What is the significance of the oogonia

undergoing meiosis I & II when in a male, each
5. Write a note a extra embryonic membranes. spematogonia forms 4 sperms.
Ans. The extra embryonic membranes namely the Ans. The meiotic divisions I & II take place in
ur
amnion, yolk sac, allantois and chorion protect order to ensure that the ovum is haploid since
the embryo from dessication, mechanical shock normal chromosomal number is important
and help in the absorption of nutrients and for formation of normal zygote. Further polar
exchange of gases. bodies have less cellular contents and are small
.s
Amnion since they do not participate in fertilization most

The amnion is a double layered translucent of the cellular contents lie in the ovum.
membrane filled with the amniotic fluid. It
2. Menstruation does not occur during
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provides a buoyant environment to protect

pregnancy give reason.
the developing embryo from injury, regulates
Ans. Pregnancy begins soon after the formation of
the temperature of the foetus and provides a
zygote after fertilization.
medium in which the foetus can move.
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Following this the uterus, accessory organs and

Yolk sac: glands of female reproductive system get ready
The yolk sac forms a part of the gut and is the to receive the zygote and nourish it.
source of the earliest blood cells and blood Menstruation occurs by disintegration of the
w
vessels. uterine wall and corpus luteum, if fertilization

Allantois: has not occurred. Therefore during pregnancy
The allantois is an extra embryonic membrane menstruation ceases and this continues till
which forms a small out pocketing of embryonic parturition or child birth.
tissue at the caudal end of the yolk sac. It is the
38
Unit Test
Time : 1 hr] [Marks: 25
I. Choose the Correct Answer 10×1 = 10 (a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation
of A
1. The foetal membrane that forms the basis of
m
(b) A and R are true, R is not the correct
the umbilical cord is
explanation of A
(a) Allantois (b) Amnion
(c) A is true, R is false
(c) Chorion (d) Yolk sac
(d) Both A and R are false
co
2. The Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) is
produced by 9. Choose the odd man out
(a) Leydig cells (b) Hypothalamus (a) Skene’s glands (b) Endometrium
(c) Sertoli cells (d) Pituitary gland (c) Mammary glands (d) Fallopian tube
s.
3. _________ is popularly known as sperm lysin 10. The _____________glands in human female
(a) Inhibitin (b) Hyaluronidase are homologous to the prostate glands in male
(c) Androgen (d) Acrosome (a) Bartholins glands (b) skene’s glands
(c) mammary glands (d) cowper’s glands
ok
4. Identify the correct pair from the below.
Human Reproduction
(i) Mammary gland – Areola II. Very Short Answer 2×2 = 4
(ii) Sperms – Relaxin 11. What is placenta?
(iii) Polarbody – 46 chromosmes 12. Mention the significance of location of testis.
(iv) Middle piece – ATP
o
(a) i and iv (b) ii and iv III. Short Answer 2×3 = 6
(c) i, ii and iv (d) ii and iii 13. In the diagram given below.
ab
5. Identify the wrong statement from the below. 1
(i) Testis acts as a thermoregulator. 2
(ii) Seminal vesicles secrete an acidic fluid 3

(iii) Vesiculase is a enzyme in seminal fluid
(iv) Hymen can get stretched due to physical
ur
exercises.
(a) All the above (b) i and ii
(c) iii and ii (d) i, iv and ii
6. Which one of the following menstrual
.s
irregularities are correctly matched?

(a) Menorrhagia - excessive menstruation
(b) Amenorrhoea - absence of (a) Identify the diagram
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menstruation (b) Label the parts indicated.

(c) Dysmenorrhoea - irregularity of 14. What is the function of yolk sac?
menstruation
IV. Long Answer 1×5 = 5
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(d) Oligomenorrhoea - painful menstruation

15. List the differences between spermatogenesis
7. _______ is a berry shaped cluster of cells and oogenesis.
(a) Blastula (b) Gastrula (OR)
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(c) Morula (d) Zygote Write a note on menstrual cycle.

8. Assertion : By 36 week, the baby is positioned
th
into pelvis for parturition.

Reason : The Braxter – Hick’s contractions
will begin for parturition.

39
UNIT I Chapter 3
Reproductive
m
Health
co
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
s.
3.1 Need for reproductive health Problems and strategies
3.2. Amniocentesis and its statutory ban
ok
3.3. Social impact of sex ratio, female foeticide and infanticide
3.4. Population explosion and birth control
3.5. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)
3.6. Sexually transmitted diseases (STD)
3.7. Infertility
o
3.8. Assisted reproductive technologies (ART)
3.9. Detection of foetal disorders during early pregnancy
ab
ConceptMap
Concept Map
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.s
w
w
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40

Female foeticide : Aborting the female in the mother’s womb.
Female infanticide : Female infanticide is ‘killing the female child after her birth.
m
PCPNDT Act : Preconception and prenatal diagnostic technique act.
POCSO Act : Prevention of children from sexual offences.
co
Birth control : Voluntary use of Contraceptive procedures to prevent fertilization.
Lactational amenorrhea : Delay in ovarian cycles due to lactation.
Barrier method of
: Ovum and sperm are prevented from meeting to prevent fertilization
contraception
s.
Tubectomy : Surgical Sterilisation in women
Vasectomy : Surgical Sterilisation in men
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Reproductive Health
Azoospermia : Absence of spermatozoa in the ejaculate semen.
Inability to conceive or produce children even after the unprotected sexual
Infertility
cohabitation
Scanning technique which helps to detect fluid disorders during early
o
Ultrasonography :
pregnancy.
Taking a small sample of amniotic fluid to diagnose for chromosomal
Amniocentesis
ab
:
abnormalities.
Foetoscope : An instrument used to monitor the foetal heart rate.
ACRONYMS
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Intra Uterine Devices

IUD : Devices inserted by medical experts in the uterus as a Contraceptive
measure.
.s
Medical termination of pregnancy (voluntary or intentional termination

MTP :
of pregnancy in a Non-surgical way)
STD : Sexually transmitted diseases.
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AIDS : Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

HIV : Human immunodeficiency virus.
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HPV : Human papilloma virus

HBV : Hepatitis B Virus
IUI : Intra Uterine Insemination
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IVF : In Vitro Fertilization

ZIFT : Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
GIFT : Gamete Intra-fallopian Transfer
ICSI : Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection
CVS : Chorionic Villus Sampling
41
Evaluation
1. Which of the following is correct regarding 5. The approach which does not give the defined
HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea and action of contraceptive is
Chapter 3
trichomoniasis? (a) Hormonal Prevents entry of
m
(a) Gonorrhoea is a STD whereas others are contraceptive sperms, prevent
not. ovulation and
(b) Trichomoniasis is a viral disease whereas fertilization
others are bacterial.
co
(b) Vasectomy Prevents
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are
spermatogenesis
diseases.
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas (c) Barrier method Prevents fertilization
others are not. (d) Intra uterine Increases phagocytosis
[Ans. (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others device of sperms, suppresses
s.
are diseases] sperm motility and
fertilizing capacity of
2. Which one of the following groups includes
sperms
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sexually transmitted diseases caused by
bacteria only? [Ans. (b) Vasectomy - Prevents spermatogenesis ]
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea and candidiasis
6. Read the given statements and select the
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis and gonorrhoea
correct option.
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea and trichomoniasis
Statement 1: Diaphragms, cervical caps
o
(d) Syphilis, trichomoniasis and pediculosis
and vaults are made of rubber and are
[Ans. (b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis and
inserted into the female reproductive
ab
gonorrhoea]
tract to cover the cervix before coitus.
3. Identify the correct statements from the Statement 2: They are chemical barriers
following of conception and are reusable.
(a) Chlamydiasis is a viral disease. (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and
(b) Gonorrhoea is caused by a spirochaete statement 2 is the correct explanation of
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bacterium, Treponema palladium. statement 1.

(c) The incubation period for syphilis is 2 to 14 (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but
days in males and 7 to 21 days in females. statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
(d) Both syphilis and gonorrhoea are easily statement 1.
.s
cured with antibiotics. (c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is

[Ans. (d) Both syphilis and gonorrhoea incorrect.
are easily cured with antibiotics] (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
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4. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by [Ans. (c) Statement 1 is correct but

(a) blocking fallopian tube statement 2 is incorrect]
(b) inhibiting release of FSH and LH
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(c) stimulating release of FSH and LH

(d) causing immediate degeneration of released
ovum.
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[Ans. (b) inhibiting release of

FSH and LH]
42

7. Match column I with column II and select the Ans. A – Barrier methods
correct option from the codes given below. B – Lactational amenorrhoea
C – Tubectomy
Column I Column II
D – CuT
A. Copper (i) LNG-20
releasing IUD 11. Correct the following statements
m
B. Hormone (ii) Lippes loop a) Transfer of an ovum collected from donor
releasing IUD into the fallopian tube is called ZIFT.
b) Transfering of an embryo with more than
C. Non medicated (iii) Saheli
8 blastomeres into uterus is called GIFT.
co
IUD
c) Multiload 375 is a hormone releasing
D. Mini pills (iv) Multiload-375
IUD.
(a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) Transfer of an ovum collected from donor
Ans. (a)
(b) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii) into the fallopian tube is called GIFT
s.
(c) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (Gamete Intra – fallopian transfer)
(d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (b) Transferring of an embryo with more than
[Ans. (d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)] 8 blastomeres into uterus is called IUT
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8. Select the incorrect action of hormonal (Intra uterine transfer)
Reproductive Health
contraceptive pills from the following (c) Multi load 375 is a copper releasing IUD.
(a) Inhibition of spermatogenesis.
(b) Inhibition of ovulation. 12. Which method do you suggest the couple
(c) Changes in cervical mucus impairing its to have a baby, if the male partner fails to
o
ability to allow passage and transport of inseminate the female or due to very low
sperms. sperm count in the ejaculate?
Ans. Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
ab
(d) Alteration in uterine endometrium to make

it unsuitable for implantation. 13. Expand the following a) ZIFT b) ICSI
[Ans. (a) Inhibition of spermatogenesis.]
Ans. (a) ZIFT – Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
9. What is amniocentesis? Why a statutory ban is (b) ICSI – Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection
imposed on this technique?
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Ans. Amniocentesis is a prenatal technique used 14. What are the strategies to be implemented in
to detect any chromosomal abnormalities in India to attain total reproductive health?
the foetus and it is being often misused to Ans. These programmes are popularly named as
determine the sex of the foetus. Once the sex ‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH).
.s
of the foetus is known, there may be a chance Major tasks carried out under these programmes
of female foeticide. Hence, a statutory ban on are:
amniocentesis is imposed. (i) Creating awareness and providing medical
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assistance to build a healthy society.

10. Select the correct term from the bracket and
(ii) Introducing sex education in schools to
complete the given branching tree
provide information about adolescence
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Periodic abstinence
Natural methods B and adolescence related changes.
Coitus interruptus
Condoms, vaults,
(iii) Educating couples and those in the
A Caps etc marriageable age groups about the
Birth control
available birth control methods and family
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Oral contraceptives Pills

methods
Vasectomy planning norms.
Surgical methods
C (iv) Creating awareness about care for pregnant
IUDs D women, post-natal care of mother and
(Barriers, Lactational amenorrhoea, child and the importance of breast feeding.
CuT, Tubectomy)
43

(v) Encouraging and supporting governmental 15. Differentiate foeticide and infanticide.
and non-governmental agencies to identify Ans.
new methods and/or to improve upon the Foeticide Infanticide
existing methods of birth control. It refers to ‘aborting It is ‘killing the child
Chapter 3
Health care programmes such as massive the foetus in the after the birth’.
m
child immunization, supply of nutritional mother’s womb’
food to the pregnant women, Janani Suraksha intentionally.
Yojana, Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram,
RMNCH+A approach etc., are taken up at the
co
national level by the Government of India.
16. Describe the major STDs and their symptoms.

Ans. STD refers to sexually transmitted diseases. Some of the major sexually transmitted diseases and their
s.
symptoms are:
Name of the
Causative agent Symptom
Disease
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Bacterial STI
Affects the urethra, rectum and throat and in females the
Neisseria cervix also get affected.
Gonorrhoea
gonorrhoeae Pain and pus discharge in the genital tract and burning
o
sensation during urination.
Primary stage: Formation of painless ulcer on the
ab
external genitalia.
Secondary stage: Skin lesions, rashes, swollen joints and
Treponema fever and hair loss.
Syphilis
palladium Tertiary stage: Appearance of chronic ulcers on nose,
lower legs and palate. Loss of movement, mental
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disorder, visual impairment, heart problems, gummas

(soft non-cancerous growths) etc
Chlamydia Trachoma , affects the cells of the columnar epithelium in
Chlamydiasis
.s
trachomatis the urinogenital tract, respiratory tract and conjunctiva.

Viral STI
Sores in and around the vulva, vagina, urethra in female
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Herpes simplex or sores on or around the penis in male.

Genital herpes
virus Pain during urination, bleeding between periods.
Swelling in the groin nodes.
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Human papilloma Hard outgrowths (Tumour) on the external genitalia,

Genital warts
virus (HPV) cervix and perianal region.
Hepatitis B virus Fatigue, jaundice, fever, rash and stomach pain.
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Hepatitis-B
(HBV) Liver cirrhosis and liver failure occur in the later stage.
Human
Enlarged lymph nodes, prolonged fever, prolonged
AIDS immunodeficiency
diarrhoea, weight reduction, night sweating.
virus (HIV)
44

Name of the
Causative agent Symptom
Disease
Fungal STI
Attacks mouth, throat, intestinal tract and vagina.
Candidiasis Candida albicans Vaginal itching or soreness, abnormal vaginal discharge
m
and pain during urination.
Protozoan STI
Vaginitis, greenish yellow vaginal discharge, itching
co
Trichomonas
Trichomoniasis and burning sensation, urethritis, epididymitis and
vaginalis
prostatitis.
17. How are STDs transmitted? collected either from the husband or from
s.
Ans. (i) Normally Sexually transmitted infections a healthy donor and is introduced into the
(STI) are transmitted from person to uterus through the vagina by a catheter
person during intimate sexual contact with after stimulating the ovaries to produce
ok
an infected partner. more ova.
Reproductive Health
(ii) Infections like Hepatitis-B and HIV are The sperms swim towards the fallopian
transmitted sexually as well as by sharing tubes to fertilize the egg, resulting in
of infusion needles, surgical instruments, normal pregnancy.
etc with infected people, blood transfusion
o
or from infected mother to baby. 20. Amniocentesis, the foetal sex determination
test, is banned in our country, Is it necessary?
18. Write the preventive measures of STDs. comment.
ab
Ans. Prevention of STDs (Sexually Transmitted Ans. (i) Amniocentesis is a prenatal technique used
diseases) to detect any chromosomal abnormalities
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partner/ multiple in the foetus.
partners (ii) This can be done to check if the baby is
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(ii) use condoms normal or has any kind of genetic defect.

(iii) In case of doubt, consult a doctor for (iii) If the baby shows genetic abnormalities,
diagnosis and get complete treatment. abortion of the foetus may be required,
19. The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer Therefore amniocentesis can help to
.s
of female gametes into the fallopian tube, can confirm the healthy status of the foetus. But
gametes be transferred to the uterus to achieve using the technique for sex determination
the same result? Explain. must be banned, because it can lead to
female foeticide.
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Ans. (i) Fertilization of sperm and egg takes place

(iv) Now a days other tests are also available to
in the fallopian tube. The fertilized egg
(Zygote) slowly move down and reaches test the chromosomal abnormalities of the
foetus.
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the uterus as a ball of cells for implantation.

(ii) Therefore in most cases related to the 21. Open Book Assessment
Assisted Reproductive Technology, the ‘Healthy reproduction, legally checked
zygote is transferred to the uterus. birth control measures and proper family
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(iii) In a method called as Intra—uterine planning programmes are essential for

insemination male gametes are introduced the survival of mankind’ Justify.
in the uterus. Ans. Open book Assessment
This is a procedure to treat infertile men The teacher may request students to make use
with low sperm count. The semen is of the text and find answers for the same in the
class.
45
Chapter 3
I. Choose the Correct options
m
for the below Questions
9. PAP smear can help to detect
1. The family planning programme was initiated (a) Jaundice (b) Cancer
co
by India in ________ (c) AIDS (d) Hepatitis B
(a) 1953 (b) 1972 [Ans. (b) Cancer]
(c) 1963 (d) 1951
[Ans. (d) 1951] 10. _______ vaccination of girls between 9–13
years can prevent cervical cancer.
2. In the year______ india is expected to become
s.
(a) HIV (b) HPV
the largest country in population size _____
(c) MMR (d) HBV
(a) 2021 (b) 2025
[Ans. (b) HPV]
(c) 2022 (d) 2030
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11. Mayer – Rokitansky syndrome is a condition
[Ans. (c) 2022]
in which
3. Sperm remains active for ______ hours in the (a) Ova are not produced
female reproductive tract (b) Ovaries are not formed
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 72 (d) 78 (c) Uterus is not functioning
o
[Ans. (c) 72] (d) Fallopian tube is ruptured
4. Saheli is an example for ______ method [Ans. (c) Uterus is not functioning]
ab
(a) Mechanical barrier (b) Chemical barrier 12. Test tube baby is got by ______ technique
(c) Hormonal barrier (a) IUI (b) CVS
(d) Intra uterine devices (c) ICSI (d) IVF
[Ans. (c) Hormonal barrier] [Ans. (d) IVF]
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5. Formation of chronic ulcer is a symptom of __ 13. Cryopreservation of embryos are done when
(a) Genital herpes (b) Syphilis ______
(c) Gonorrhoea (d) AIDS (a) When eggs are not available
[Ans. (b) Syphilis] (b) Sperm count is less
.s
6. Fatigue, Jaundice, stomach pain are the (c) More embryos are available than the required
symptoms of________ (d) there is abnormality in the embryo
(a) Genital warts (b) AIDS [Ans. (c) More embryos are available than
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(c) Chlamydiasis (d) Hepatitis–B the required]

[Ans. (d) Hepatitis–B]
14. One sperm is directly injected into cytoplasm
7. The incubation period for _______ varies of the egg in _____technique
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between 1–8 months. (a) ICSI (b) GIFT

(a) HPV (b) HIV (c) IUT (d) TCSE
(c) HBV (d) candida [Ans. (a) ICSI]
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[Ans. (a) HPV]

15. _______ involves taking a sample of placental
8. The incubation period for ________ can be tissues to test for chromosomal abnormalities
more than 10 years. (a) CVS (b) ICSI
(a) HPV (b) HBV (c) TESE (d) IVF
(c) Treponema (d) HIV [Ans. (a) CVS]
[Ans. (d) HIV]
46

16. _______ is needed for normal functioning of 24. This is not the Major task of RCH.
reproductive structures (a) Vaccinating the mother and child for
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E infectious diseases
(c) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin C (b) Introducing six education in Schools
[Ans. (b)Vitamin E (c) Educating couples about the available with
control
m
17. _______ is observed as world population day
(d) Creating awareness about care for pregnant
(a) 11th June (b) 11th April
Women
(c) 11th July (d) 11th May
[Ans. (a) Vaccinating the mother and child
co
[Ans. (c) 11th July]
for infectious diseases]
18. International diseases refer to _______
25. All the following aims at creating a safe and
(a) Syphilis and AIDS
secure environment for both females and
(b) AIDS and Gonorrhoea
males. Except.
(c) AIDS and Hepatitis B
s.
(a) Sexual Harassment at work place Act.
(d) Syphilis and Gonorrhoea
(b) POCSO Act
[Ans. (d) Syphilis and Gonorrhoea]
(c) Recommendation of Justice Verma
19. Most of the intrauterine transfer of embryo is
ok
Committee, 2013.
Reproductive Health
done at______ stage (d) PCPNDT [Ans. (d) PCPNDT]
(a) 8 celled (b) 16 celled
26. This is an ideal contraceptive for females who
(c) 32 celled (d) 4 celled want to delay pregnancy.
[Ans. (a) 8 celled] (a) Oral contraceptives
o
20. ______ is an epidemic disease. (b) IUDs
(a) HPV (b) HIV (c) Diaphragms, cervical caps
ab
(c) Cervical cancer (d) Jaundice (d) Vaults [Ans. (b) IUDs]
[Ans. (b) HIV] 27. At which stage the embryo is transferred into
21. In India, Family Planning Programme was the uterus.
introduced in (a) 4 celled stage (b) 8 celled stage
ur
(a) 1941 (b) 1951 (c) 12 celled stage (d) 16 celled stage
(c) 1961 (d) 1971 [Ans. (b) 8 celled stage]
[Ans. (b) 1951] 28. This technique is used to diagnose the
22. Expansion of the RCH is __________ . chromosomal abnormities.
.s
(a) Reproduction and Children Health (a) Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
Programme. (b) Micro Testicular Sperm Extraction
(b) Reproductive and Child’s Health (c) Amniocentesis
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Committee. (d) GIFT

(c) Reproduction and Critical Health Care. [Ans. (c) Amniocentesis]
(d) Reproductive and Child Health Care.
29. Identify the bacterial STI
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[Ans.(c) Reproductive and Child Health Care] 1. Affects the urethra, vectron and throat
23. One of the following prevents sperm from 2. In females cervix is affected.
heading off to penis as the discharge has no 3. Pain and pus discharge in the genital tract.
w
sperms in it. 4. Burning sensation during urination.

(a) Tubectomy (b) LNG – 20 (a) Gonorrhoea. (b) Syphilis
(c) Vasectomy (d) Cu T 380 Ag (c) Chlanydiasis. (d) Lympho
[Ans. (c) Vasectomy] [Ans. (a) Gonorrhoea]
47

30. An abnormal foetal heart beat rate or pattern 3. ______ is a prenatal technique to detect
indicates the foetus is not getting enough chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus
(a) Nutrients (b) Oxygen (a) Amniocentesis
(c) Blood. (d) Signals. (b) PSA test (Prostate Specific Antigens Test)
Chapter 3
[Ans. (b) Oxygen] (c) PAP test
m
31. Fatigue, jaundice, fever, rash, stomach pain, (d) PT test (Prothrombin Time Test)
liver Cirrhosis and liver failure – are the [Ans. (a) Amniocentesis]
symptoms of 4. The problem of overpopulation can be
(a) Chalmydiasis
co
overcome by ______
(b) Lynphogvanuloma Veneveum. (a) awareness program (b) free education
(c) Hepatitis (c) Birth control (d) meals scheme
(d) Syphilis[Ans. (c) Hepatitis] [Ans. (c) Birth control]
s.
32. In this Assisted Reproductive Tech nology 5. Foaming tablets and jellies are ______ barriers
(ART), the sperms and egg are allowed to for birth control
united outside the body and then transformed (a) mechanical (b) Chemical
into the woman’s uterus. (c) hormonal (d) natural
ok
(a) Intra – uterine insemination (IUI) [Ans. (b) Chemical]
(b) In vitro Fertilization (IVF) 6. Oral contraceptive pills contain synthetic
(c) Zygote Intra – Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) _________ and ________ hormones
(d) Intra uterine transfer (IUT). (a) androgen and testosterone
o
[Ans. (b) In vitro Fertilization (IVF)] (b) Androgen and Oxytocin
33. Cervical Cancer can be diagnosed by ___X__ (c) relaxin and inhibin
ab
combined with ___Y__ test, but the stage of (d) Progesterone and estrogen
Cancer is determined by ___Z__ [Ans. (d) Progesterone and estrogen]
7. _____ is an example of a contraceptive pill.
X Y Z (a) Alesse (b) Ortho Tri-cyclen
ur
(a) HPV PAP Smear PET Scan (c) Saheli (d) Eryosterol
(b) PAP Smear HPV PET Scan [Ans. (c) Saheli]
(c) MRI CT Scan MRI 8. IUD’s increase _______ of the sperm within
(d) PET Scan X – Ray CT Scan the uterus
.s
(a) Endocytosis (b) Pinocytosis

[Ans. (b) PAP Smear - HPV - PET Scan] (c) Phagocytosis (d) Exocytosis
[Ans. (c) Phagocytosis]
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II. Choose the Correct options for 9. The ______ method of contraception has a
the below Fill in the blanks success rate of 95 – 99% in India.
1. Prevention of children from sexual offences is (a) IUDs Intra-uterine devices
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covered under_______ act (b) Hormonal

(a) PCPNDT (b) patent act (c) Chemical (d) mechanical
(c) ART (d) POCSO [Ans. (a) IUDs Intrauterine devices]
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[Ans. (d) POCSO] 10. Diseases like ______ are transmitted sexually
2. ________ can be diagnosed by PAP smear test and by sharing of needless
(a) Cervical cancer (b) Bone cancer (a) gonorrhoea (b) genital herpes
(c) Blood cancer (d) Intestinal cancer (c) AIDS/Hepatitis – B (d) candidiasis
[Ans. (a) Cervical cancer] [Ans. (c) AIDS/Hepatitis - B]
48

11. ______ is a sexually transmitted diseases 18. ______ is a method used to detect foetal
caused by protozoan diseases during early pregnancy
(a) Trichomoniasis (b) Genital warts (a) CT scanning (b) MRI scanning
(c) Syphilis (d) Candidiasis (c) Ultrasound scanning (d) PET scanning
[Ans. (a) Trichomoniasis] [Ans. (c) Ultrasound scanning]
m
12. _______ is a sexually transmitted disease 19. Usage of _______ greatly reduces the risk of
caused by a fungus STI.
(a) Chlamydiasis (b) Candidiasis (a) IUDS. (b) Latex Condoms.
(c) Saheli (d) Lippes loop
co
(c) Genital herps (d) Syphilis
[Ans. (b) Candidiasis] [Ans. (b) Latex Condoms]
13. ______ is a cause of infertility in women III. Identify the correct Statements
(a) varicocoele
(b) Endometriosis/Uterine fibroids 1. (i) HPV causes tumours
s.
(c) well developed ovaries (ii) Syphilis is transmitted sexually by
(d) hormonal balance sharing of needles
[Ans. (b) Endometriosis/Uterine fibroids] (iii) The statutory marriageable age for males
ok
is 18 years
Reproductive Health
14. ______ is a procedure to treat infertile man (iv) Surgical sterilization methods block the
with low sperm count transfer of gametes
(a) Intra-uterine insemination (a) i, iii and iv (b) i and iv
(b) In vitro fertilization (c) iii and iv (d) ii only
o
(c) Intra-uterine transfer [Ans.(b) i and iv]
(d) Zygote intra-fallopian transfer 2. (i) Saheli contains synthetic testosterone
ab
[Ans. (a) Intra-uterine insemination] and estrogen

15. _____ is a method for preservation of embryos (ii) Non medicated IUDs are made of copper
(a) Mechanical preservation (iii) Lactational amenorrhoea cause infertility
(b) Chemical preservation (iv) Embryo transfer techniques helps to
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(c) Cryopreservation treat many causes of infertility

(d) Heat preservation (a) i and iii (b) ii and iii
[Ans. (c) Cryopreservation] (c) iv only (d) i, iii, and iv
[Ans.(c) iv only]
16. _______ is a condition in which there is
.s
absence of spermatozoa in the ejaculate serum IV. Identify the Wrong Pair
(a) teratozoospermia 1. (i) Chemotherapy
– Cervical cancer
(b) Asthenozoospermia
w
(ii) IVF – Egg retrival

(c) Oligozoospermia (iii) Contraceptive
– Infertility
(d) Azoospermia [Ans. (d) Azoospermia]
(iv) Cryopreservation
– Avoid ovarian
17. Coitus can be avoided on the 14th day of stimulation
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the menstrual cycle to prevent fertilization, (a) iii only (b) ii, and iv
because ________ takes place on that day. (c) iv (d) i and iv only
(a) Lactation. [Ans.(a) iii only]
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(b) Ovulation.
(c) Sperms are more active.
(d) Uterus is ready for implantation.
[Ans. (b) Ovulation]
49

2. (i) Doppler device – Foetal heart VI. Identify the correct
(ii) NACO – Family planning assertion and reason
(iii) 4 – D ultrasound– Early pregnancy
(iv) Herpes simplex – Enlarged lymph In each of the following questions there are two
Chapter 3
nodes statements. One is assertion (A) and other is

reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
m
(a) i and iv (b) ii, and iv
(c) i and iii (d) iii and iv (a) A and R correct, R is the correct explanation
[Ans.(b) ii, and iv] of A
(b) A and R right but R is not the correct
3. (i) Non-medicated IUD – Lippes loop
co
explanation of A
(ii) Saheli – Plastic loop
(c) A is correct R is false
(iii) Hormone releasing
(d) Both A & R are false
IUD – Progestasert
(iv) Copper releasing IUD – Multi load 375 1. Assertion : STD can be prevented by
s.
(a) i and iv (b) ii Monogamy
(c) i and iii (d) iii and iv Reason : TNHSP, a unit of Health and
[Ans.(b) ii] family welfare development of
Government of Tamil Nadu does
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V. Match the following free screening for cervical and
breast cancer.
1. 1. GIFT (a) Fallopian tube
[Ans. (b) A and R correct, R is not the
2. ICSI (b) placental tissue
correct explanation of A]
3. CVS (c) uterus
o
4. ZIFT (d)injection of sperm 2. Assertion : MTP during the second trimester
(A) 1 – b 2–a 3–c 4–d is risky for the parent & foetus
ab
(B) 1 – a 2–b 3–d 4–c Reason : It must be performed by trained

(C) 1 – a 2–d 3–b 4–c medical personnel
(D) 1 – c 2–b 3–c 4–d [Ans. (a) A and R correct, R is the correct
[Ans. (C) 1-a 2-d 3-b 4-c] explanation of A]
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2. 1. Syphilis (a) Trachoma 3. Assertion :

Oral contraceptives are not
2. Gonorrhoea(b) Greenish yellow recommended for birth control
discharge Reason : Surgical sterilisation is the best
3. Chlamydiasis (c) Ulcer birth control method for all age
.s
4. Trichomoniasis (d) Pain and pus groups

(A) 1 – d 2–a 3–c 4–b [Ans. (d) Both A & B are false]
(B) 1 – c 2–a 3–d 4–b 4. Assertion : Vitamin E helps in the normal
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(C) 1 – b 2–a 3–d 4–c functioning of reproductive

(D) 1 – c 2–d 3–a 4–b structures in man.
[Ans. (D) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b] Reason : Vitamin E is known as anti
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3. 1. IUD A. LNG – 20 sterility vitamin.

2. Natural method B. Meeting of gametes [Ans. (a) Both A and R correct. R is the
3. IUS C. Phagocytosis explanation to A]
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4. Diaphragm D. Rhythm 5. Assertion : Condomes safeguards the user

(A) 1 – b 2–c 3–a 4–d from AIDS and STDs.
(B) 1 – c 2–d 3–a 4–b Reason : Condoms are made of
(C) 1 – c 2–d 3–b 4–c polyunthane, latex and lambskin.
(D) 1 – a 2–c 3–b 4–d [Ans. (a) A and R correct, R is the correct
[Ans. (B) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b] explanation of A]
50

VII. Choose the odd man out 6. Surgical sterilisation in women is called
_________ [Ans. Tubectomy]
1. (a) Saheli (b) CuT – 380 7. Cervical cancer is caused by _______
(c) LNG – 20 (d) GnRH [Ans. Human papilloma virus HPV]
[Ans. GnRH]
8. In Mayer Rokitansky syndrome, female _____
Reason: It is a hormone, whereas the others are
m
example of contraceptives. [Ans. Do not have functional uterus]
9. _______ is a hormone releasing IUD
2. (a) IUD (b) ICSI [Ans. Progestasert/LNG – 20]
(c) Vasectomy (d) IUS
co
10. ______ is a copper releasing IUD.
[Ans. ICSI]
[Ans. NovaT, Multi load 375
Reason: It is a technique to achieve pregnancy
whereas the others are birth control methods. 11. Surgical sterilisation in male is called ______
[Ans. Vasectomy]
3. (a) Amniocentesis (b) CVS
s.
12. Medical termination of pregnancy is safe upto
(c) Ultrasound scanning (d) Foetoscope
_______ weeks [Ans. 12]
[Ans. Foetoscope]
13. The contraceptive pill saheli contains a
Reason: It is an instrument to monitor the foetal
non – steroidal preparation called_______
ok
heart beat whereas the others are techniques to
Reproductive Health
[Ans. Centchroman]
detect abnormalities in the foetus
14. Foetal hear beat during pregnancy is monitored
4. (a) Syphilis (b) Candidiasis by use of _______ [Ans. Foetoscope]
(c) chlamydiasis (d) Gonorrhoea
15. There is no incubation period for the cavsal
o
[Ans. Candidiasis]
organism in ______ [Ans. Candidiasis]
Reason: It is an sexually transmitted infection
caused by fungus whereas the others are sexually
ab
Give Reasons
transmitted infections caused by bacteria.
5. (a) Candidiasis (b) Hepatitis B 1. Hormone – releasing IUDs are called IVS
(c) Genital herpes (d) Genital warts (Intrauterine systems)
[Ans. (a) Candidiasis is a Fungal STI (disease)] Ans. They increase the viscosity of the cervical mucus
ur
and thereby prevent sperms from entering the

6. (a) Cervical cancer (b) Trichomoniasis cervix.
(c) Genital wants (d) Cervical dysplasia
[Ans. (b) Trichonomiasis is a proto zoan
2. Surgical sterilisation method can prevent
pregnancy permanently
.s
SIT (disease)]
Ans. Surgical sterilisation methods are the
Answer in one word* permanent contraception methods advised
for male and female partners to prevent any
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1. Government of India legalized MTP in _______.

more pregnancies. It blocks the transport of the
[Ans. 1971]
gametes and prevents conception.
2. Saheli was developed by Central drug research
3. Modification in life style can prevent cervical
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institute located at _______ [Ans. Lucknow]

cancer
3. Cervical cancer can be prevented with ______
Ans. Modification in lifestyle can also help in
[Ans. Vaccination]
preventing cervical cancer. Healthy diet,
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4. Natural AIDS control organization was avoiding tobacco usage, preventing early
established in______ [Ans. 1992] marriages, practicing monogamy and regular
5. 1st December is observed as _______ exercise minimize the risk of cervical cancer.
[Ans. World AIDS day]
51

9. Name two sexually transmitted infections and
their casual agent.
1. What is PCPNDT Act? Ans.
Disease Casual agent
Chapter 3
Ans. Government of India has taken various steps

like PCPNDT Act (Preconception and Prenatal Hepatitis-B Hepatitis B virus
m
diagnostic technique act-1994) enacted to ban AIDS HIV(Human
the identification of sex and to prevent the use Immunodeficiency Virus)
of prenatal diagnostic techniques for selective
10. Mention two sexually transmitted diseases
abortion.
co
caused by bacteria.
2. Define birth control. Ans. Syphilis and Gonorrhoea
Ans. The voluntary use of contraceptive procedures
11. Mention two sexually transmitted diseases
to prevent fertilization or prevent implantation
caused by virus.
of a fertilized egg in the uterus is termed as birth
s.
Ans. AIDS and Genital Herpes.
control.
12. What is cervical dysplasia?
3. What are the characteristics of an ideal
Ans. Cervical cancer is caused by a sexually
contraceptive?
ok
transmitted virus called Human Papilloma virus
Ans. An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly,
(HPV). HPV may cause abnormal growth of
easily available, with least side effects and should
cervical cells or cervical dysplasia.
not interfere with sexual drive.
13. What is IUT?
4. What is the purpose of barrier method of
o
Ans. IUT - Intra Uterine Transfer
contraception?
(i) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is
Ans. In these methods, the ovum and sperm are
inserted into uterus to complete its further
ab
prevented from meeting so that fertilization

does not occur. development.
(ii) It is a method to achieve pregnancy by
5. What is Saheli? Assisted Reproductive technology.
Ans. Saheli, is a contraceptive pill devised by Central
Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, 14. Define Infertility.
ur
India. It contains a non-steroidal preparation Ans. Inability to conceive or produce children even
called centchroman. after unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
infertility.
6. What is the role of IUDs?
.s
Ans. IUD - Intra-Uterine Device. They increase of 15. Define Surrogacy.

phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus and Ans. Surrogacy is a method of assisted reproduction
prevent meeting of gametes there by acting as or agreement whereby a woman agrees to carry a
pregnancy for another person, who will become
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birth control measure.

the newborn child's parent after birth.
7. Define Tubectomy and Vascetomy.
Ans. (i) Tubectomy is the surgical sterilisation 16. Why is Ultrasonography performed during
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method in women. pregnancy?

(ii) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilisation Ans. Ultrasonography is usually performed in the
method in male. first trimester for dating, determination of the
number of foetuses, and for assessment of early
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8. What does MTP stand for? pregnancy complications.

Ans. (i) MTP stands for medical termination of
17. What is CVS?
pregnancy
Ans. CVS - Chorionic Villus Sampling. CVS is a
(ii) Medical method of abortion is a voluntary
prenatal test that involves taking a sample of
or intentional termination of pregnancy in
the placental tissue to test for chromosomal
a non-surgical or non-invasive way.
abnormalities.
52

18. What is a Foetoscope? cryopreservation can provide an additional
Ans. (i) Foetoscope is used to monitor the foetal opportunity for pregnancy, through a Frozen
heart rate and other functions during late embryo transfer (FET), without undergoing
pregnancy and labour. The average foetal another ovarian stimulation and retrieval.
heart rate is between 120 and 160 beats per 6. What is GIFT?
minute.
m
Ans. GIFT - Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer
(ii) An abnormal foetal heart rate or pattern
(i) Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor
may mean that the foetus is not getting into the fallopian tube. In this the eggs are
enough oxygen and it indicates other collected from the ovaries and placed with
co
problems. the sperms in one of the fallopian tubes.
19. What is Mayer-Rokitansky syndrome? (ii) The zygote travels toward the uterus and
Ans. All women are born with ovaries, but some do gets implanted in the inner lining of the
not have functional uterus. This condition is uterus.
s.
called Mayer-Rokitansky syndrome. 7. What is embryo transfer technique?
Ans. The transfer of an embryo with more than 8
Short Answers 3 Marks
blastomeres stage into uterus is called embryo
1. What is lactational amenorrhoea? transfer technique.
ok
Reproductive Health
Ans. Menstrual cycles resume as early as 6 to 8 weeks
8. What are the causes of infertility in human
from parturition. However, the reappearance
beings?
of normal ovarian cycles may be delayed for
Ans. Inability to conceive or produce children even
six months during breastfeeding. This delay in
after unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
o
ovarian cycles is called lactational amenorrhoea. infertility.
It serves as a natural but an unreliable form of
Causes of infertility:
birth control.
ab
(i) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), uterine

2. Mention the type of IUDs with example. fibroids and endometriosis are the most
Ans. (i) Copper releasing IUD - Multiload 375 common causes of infertility in women.
CuT 380. (ii) Low body fat or anorexia in women. i.e. a
(ii) Hormone – releasing IUD - LNG-20. psychiatric eating disorder characterised
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(iii) Non-medicated IUD - Lippes loop. by the fear of gaining weight.

3. Mention any 3 causes for infertility. (iii) Under developed ovaries or testes.
Ans. (i) Low body fat or anorexia in women. i.e. a
9. What is micro-testicular sperm extraction (TESE)?
psychiatric eating disorder characterised
.s
Ans. Microsurgical sperm retrieval from the testicle

by the fear of gaining weight.
involves a dilation of the microscope, the
(ii) Under developed ovaries or testes.
seminiferous tubules under the microscope
(iii) Female may develop antibodies against her
and small amount of testicular tissue in areas
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partner's sperm.
of active sperm production are removed. This
4. What is ZIFT? is improved for sperm yield compared to
Ans. ZIFT - Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer. As traditional biopsy techniques.
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in IVF, the zygote upto 8 blastomere stage is

transferred to the fallopian tube by laparoscopy. 10. How will you detect the foetal disorders,
The zygote continues its natural divisions during the early stages of pregnancy?
Ans. The techniques used to detect the foetal disorders
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and migrates towards the uterus where it gets

implanted. during the early stages of pregnancy are:
(i) Ultrasound scanning
5. What is Cryopreservation? (ii) Amniocentesis
Ans. Cryopreservation (or freezing) of embryos (iii) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
is often used when there are more embryos (iv) Foetoscope
than needed for a single IVF transfer. Embryo
53

Long Answers 5 Marks 2. Explain about breast self Examination and
Early diagnosis of Cancer.
1. Write notes on any two techniques in Assisted Ans. Breast self examination and early diagnosis of
Reproductive Technology (ART). cancer
Chapter 3
Ans. A collection of procedures which includes the (i) Breast is divided into 4 quadrants and the
handling of gametes and / or embryos outside center (Nipple) which is the 5th quadrant.
m
the body to achieve a pregnancy is known (ii) Each quadrant of the breast is felt for lumps
as Assisted Reproductive Technology. ART using the palm of the opposite hand.
includes (iii) The examination is done in both lying
co
(i) Intra-uterine insemination (IUI): This is down and standing positions, monthly
a procedure to treat infertile men with low once after the 1st week of menstrual cycle.
sperm count. The semen is collected either This way if there are lumps or any deviation of
from the husband or from a healthy donor the nipple to one side or any blood discharge
and is introduced into the uterus through from the nipple we can identify cancer at an
s.
the vagina by a catheter after stimulating early stage. Mammograms are done for women
the ovaries to produce more ova. The above the age of 40 years and for young girls and
sperms swim towards the fallopian tubes women below 40 years. Ultrasound of the breast
ok
to fertilize the egg, resulting in normal aids in early diagnosis.
pregnancy. 3. Write a note on cervial cancer.
(ii) In vitro fertilization (IVF): In this Ans. Cervical cancer: Cervical cancer is caused
technique, sperm and eggs are allowed to by a sexually transmitted virus called Human
unite outside the body in a laboratory. One Papilloma virus (HPV). HPV may cause
o
or more fertilized eggs may be transferred abnormal growth of cervical cells or cervical
into the woman’s uterus, where they may dysplasia.
ab
implant in the uterine lining and develop. The most common symptoms and signs of
Excess embryos may be cryopreserved cervical cancer are pelvic pain, increased vaginal
(frozen) for future use. IVF is used to treat discharge and abnormal vaginal bleeding. The
many causes of infertility. risk factors for cervical cancer include
(iii) The basic steps in an IVF treatment cycle (i) Having multiple sexual partners
ur
are ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval, (ii) Prolonged use of contraceptive pills
fertilization, embryo culture and embryo Cervical cancer can be diagnosed by a
transfer. Egg retrieval is done by minor Papanicolaou smear (PAP smear) combined
surgery under general anesthesia, using with an HPV test. X-Ray, CT scan, MRI and a
.s
ultrasound guide after 34 to 37 hours of PET scan may also be used to determine the stage
hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) of cancer. The treatment options for cervical
injection. The eggs are prepared and cancer include radiation therapy, surgery and
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stripped from the surrounding cells. At chemotherapy.

Modern screening techniques can detect
the same time, sperm preparation is done
precancerous changes in the cervix. Therefore
using a special media. After preparing the
screening is recommended for women above
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sperms, the eggs are brought together.

30 years once in a year. Cervical cancer can
10,000-1,00,000 motile sperms are needed be prevented with vaccination. Primary
for each egg. Then the zygote is allowed to prevention begins with HPV vaccination of
divide to form 8 celled blastomere and then
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girls aged 9 – 13 years, before they become

transferred into the uterus for a successful sexually active. Modification in lifestyle can
pregnancy. The transfer of an embryo with also help in preventing cervical cancer. Healthy
more than 8 blastomeres stage into uterus diet, avoiding tobacco usage, preventing early
is called embryo transfer technique. marriages, practicing monogamy and regular
exercise minimize the risk of cervical cancer.
54

4. What is infertility and write its causes. 5. What is ART? Explain any two fo ART.
Ans. Inability to conceive or produce children even Ans. A collection of procedures, which includes the
after unprotected sexual cohabitation is called handling of gametes and/or embryos outside
infertility. That is, the inability of a man to the body to achieve a pregnancy, is known as
produce sufficient numbers or quality of sperm Assisted Reproductive Technology. It increases
to impregnate a woman or inability of a woman the chance of pregnancy in infertile couples.
m
to become pregnant or maintain a pregnancy. ART includes intra-uterine insemination
The causes for infertility are tumours formed (IUI), in vitro fertilization, (IVF) Embryo
in the pituitary or reproductive organs, transfer (ET), Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
co
inherited mutations of genes responsible for the (ZIFT), Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT),
biosynthesis of sex hormones, malformation Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI),
of the cervix or fallopian tubes and inadequate Preimplantation genetic diagnosis, oocyte and
nutrition before adulthood. Long-term stress sperm donation and surrogacy.
damages many aspects of health especially the (i) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection
s.
menstrual cycle. Ingestion of toxins (heavy (ICSI): In this method only one sperm is
metal cadmium), heavy use of alcohol, tobacco injected into the focal point of the egg to
and marijuana, injuries to the gonads and aging fertilize. The sperm is carefully injected
also cause infertility. into the cytoplasm of the egg. Fertilization
ok
Reproductive Health
Other causes of infertility: occurs in 75 - 85% of eggs injected with
(i) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), uterine the sperms. The zygote is allowed to divide
fibroids and endometriosis are the most to form an 8 celled blastomere and then
common causes of infertility in women. transferred to the uterus to develop a
o
(ii) Low body fat or anorexia in women. i.e. a protective pregnancy.
psychiatric eating disorder characterised (ii) Surrogacy: Surrogacy is a method of
assisted reproduction or agreement
ab
by the fear of gaining weight.

(iii) Undescended testes and swollen veins whereby a woman agrees to carry a
(varicocoele) in scrotum. Tight clothing pregnancy for another person, who will
in men may raise the temperature in the become the newborn child's parent after
scrotum and affect sperm production. birth. Through in vitro fertilization (IVF),
ur
(iv) Under developed ovaries or testes. embryos are created in a lab and are
(v) Female may develop antibodies against her transferred into the surrogate mother's
partner's sperm. uterus.
(vi) Males may develop an autoimmune
.s
response to their own sperm.

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55
Unit Test
Chapter 3
I. Choose the Correct Answer. 10 × 1 = 10 (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
m
1. Which one of the following groups includes
statement 1.
sexually transmitted diseases caused by
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
bacteria only?
incorrect.
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea and candidiasis
co
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis and gonorrhoea
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea and trichomoniasis 8. Identify the Wrong Statements:
(d) Syphilis, trichomoniasis and pediculosis (i) Chemotherapy – cervical cancer
2. International diseases refer to _______ (ii) IVF – Egg retrival
s.
(a) Syphilis and AIDS (iii) Contraceptive – Infertility
(b) AIDS and Gonorrhoea (iv) Cryopreservation – Avoid ovarian
(c) AIDS and Hepatitis B stimulation
(a) iii only (b) ii, and iv
ok
(d) Syphilis and Gonorrhoea
(c) iv (d) i and iv only
3. Most of the intrauterine transfer of embryo is [Ans.(a) iii only]
done at______ stage
(a) 8 celled (b) 16 celled 9. The ______ method of contraception has a
(c) 32 celled (d) 4 celled success rate of 95 – 99% in india.
o
(a) IUDs Intrauterine devices
4. Sperm remains active for ______ hours in the (b) Hormonal
ab
female reproductive tract

(c) Chemical
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 72 (d) 78
(d) mechanical
5. Usage of _______ greatly reduces the risk of
10. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by
STI.
(a) blocking fallopian tube
(a) IUDS. (b) Latex Condoms.
ur
(b) inhibiting release of FSH and LH

(c) Saheli (d) Lippes loop
(c) stimulating release of FSH and LH
6. One sperm is directly injected into cytoplasm (d) causing immediate degeneration of released
of the egg in _____technique ovum.
.s
(a) ICSI (b) GIFT

(c) IUT (d) TCSE II. Very Short Answer 2×2=4
11. What is CVS?
7. Read the given statements and select the
w
correct option. 12. What is the role of IUDs?

Statement 1: Diaphragms, cervical caps III. Short Answer 2×3=6
and vaults are made of rubber and are
13. How are STDs transmitted?
w
inserted into the female reproductive

tract to cover the cervix before coitus. 14. What is GIFT?
Statement 2: They are chemical barriers IV. Long Answer 1×5=5
of conception and are reusable.
w
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and 15. What are the strategies to be implemented in
statement 2 is the correct explanation of India to attain total reproductive health?
statement 1.

56
UNIT II Chapter 4
Principles of
m
Inheritance
co
and Variation
s.
o
CHAPTER SNAPSHOT
ok
4.01 Multiple alleles
ab
4.02 Human blood groups

4.03 Genetic control of Rh factor
4.04 Sex determination in human, insects and birds
4.05 Sex linked inheritance
ur
4.06 Karyotyping
4.07 Pedigree analysis
4.08 Mendelian disorders
4.09 Chromosomal abnormalities
.s
4.10 Extra chromosomal inheritance

4.11 Eugenics, euphenics and euthenics
w
w
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57
Concept Map
Chapter 4
m
co
s.
o ok
ab
ur
.s
w
w
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58

When three or more alleles of a gene that control a particular trait occupy the
Multiple allelism : same locus on the homologous chromosome of an organism, they are called
multiple alleles and their inheritance is called multiple allelism.
m
Genetics : Genetics is a branch of biology that deals with the study of heredity and variations.
An antigen discovered in surface of RBC of Rhesus monkey and later in human
Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Rh factor :
beings.
co
Erythroblastosis Haemolysis of Foetal RBC's due to incompatibility of Rh factor between maternal
:
foetalis basis and foetal blood.
Heterogametic : organism produces two types of gametes.
Homogametic : organism produces similar type of gametes.
s.
In eukaryotes, chromatin is formed by a series of repeating units called
Nucleosome :
Nucleosome.
Sex – switch gene : A gene located on X chromosome of Drosophila having two states of activity.
ok
Some parts of the body in the individual expresses male character and other
Gynandromorph :
parts express female characters.
Condensed body represented by inactive chromosome found in chromosome
Barr body :
of Drosophila.
o
DNA ligase : Enzyme which acts as paste molecule to join broken DNA fragments.
Holandric genes Y linked genes which have no corresponding allele in X chromosome.
ab
:
A disease caused by recessive X – linked gene in which blood lacks a normal
Haemophilia :
clotting substance.
A disease caused by a recessive X linked gene in which the affected person is
Colour blindness :
unable to distinguish red and green colour.
ur
A technique by which complete set of chromosomes are separated from a cell

Karyotype :
and arranged in pairs.
Idiogram : Diagrammatic representation of chromosomes.
.s
Genetic code : A sequence of three mRNA bases which codes for a amino acid.
Study of traits as they have appeared in a given family line for several past
Pedigree analysis :
generations.
w
A autosomal recessive disorder in which abnormal haemoglobin is produced in

Thalassemia :
the affected individual.
Inborn error of phenylalanine metabolism due to pair of autosomal recessive
Phenyl Ketonuria :
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genes in human beings.

Inborn error of metabolism caused due to autosomal recessive gene causing
Albinism :
absence of melanin pigment in the affected individual.
Chromosomal disorders caused in human beings due to non-disjunction of
w
Syndromes :
chromosomes.
Cytoplasmic Inheritance of characters controlled by non – nuclear genomes found in
:
inheritance chloroplast, mitochondria etc.
Kappa particles : Cytoplasmic symbionts occurring in some strains of ciliated paramecium.
Eugenics : Application of the laws of genetics for the improvement of human race.
59
Evaluation
1. Haemophilia is more common in males 7. Which of the following is true about Rh factor
Chapter 4
because it is a in the offspring of a parental combination

(a) Recessive character carried by DdXDd (both Rh positive)?
m
Y-chromosome (a) All will be Rh-positive
(b) Dominant character carried by (b) Half will be Rh positive
Y-chromosome
(c) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome (c) About ¾ will be Rh negative
co
(d) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome (d) About one fourth will be Rh negative
[Ans. (d) Recessive trait carried by [Ans. (d) About one fourth will be Rh negative]
X-chromosome]
8. What can be the blood group of offspring
2. ABO blood group in man is controlled by when both parents have AB blood group?
s.
(a) Multiple alleles
(a) AB only (b) A, B and AB
(b) Lethal genes
(c) Sex linked genes (c) A, B, AB and O (d) A and B only
[Ans. (b) A, B and AB]
ok
(d) Y-linked genes [Ans. (a) Multiple alleles]
3. Three children of a family have blood groups 9. If the childs blood group is ‘O’ and fathers
A, AB and B. What could be the genotypes of blood group is ‘A’ and mother’s blood group
their parents? is ‘B’ the genotype of the parents will be
(a) IA IB and ii (b) IA Io and IBIo
o
(a) IA IA and IB Io (b) IA Io and IB Io
(c) I I and I I
B B A A
(d) IA IA and ii
(c) IA Io and IoIo . (d) IoIo and IB IB
[Ans. (b) IA Io and IBIo]
ab
[Ans. (b) IA Io and IB Io]

4. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Three or more alleles of a trait in the 10. XO type of sex determination and XY type of
population are called multiple alleles. sex determination are examples of.
(b) A normal gene undergoes mutations to (a) Male heterogamety
form many alleles
ur
(b) Female heterogamety

(c) Multiple alleles map at different loci of a (c) Male homogamety
chromosome
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) A diploid organism has only two alleles out
of many in the population. [Ans. (a) Male heterogamety]
.s
[Ans. (c) Multiple alleles map at different 11. In an accident there is great loss of blood and
loci of a chromosome] there is no time to analyse the blood group
which blood can be safely transferred?
5. Which of the following phenotypes in the
w
(a) ‘O’ and Rh negative

progeny are possible from the parental
combination AxB? (b) ‘O’ and Rh positive
(a) A and B only (b) A,B and AB only (c) ‘B’ and Rh negative
w
(c) AB only (d) A,B,AB and O d) ‘AB’ and Rh positive

[Ans. (d) A,B,AB and O] [Ans. (a) ‘O’ and Rh negative]
6. Which of the following phenotypes is not 12. Father of a child is colourblind and mother is
w
possible in the progeny of the parental carrier for colourblindness, the probability of
genotypic combination IAIO X IAIB? the child being colour blind is.
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(a) AB (b) O
(c) 100% (d) 75%
(c) A (d) B [Ans. (b) O] [Ans. (b) 50% ]
60

13. A marriage between a colourblind man and a 22. ZW-ZZ system of sex determination occurs in
normal woman produces (a) Fishes (b) Reptiles
(a) All carrier daughters and normal sons (c) Birds (d) All of these
(b) 50% carrier daughters, 50% normal daughters [Ans. (d) All of these]
(c) 50% colourblind sons, 50% normal sons 23. Co-dominant blood group is
m
d) All carrier offsprings (a) A (b) AB (c) B (d) O
[Ans. (a) All carrier daughters and normal sons] [Ans. (b) AB]
24. Which of the following is incorrect regarding

14. Mangolism is a genetic disorder which is caused
by the presence of an extra chromosome number. ZW-ZZ type of sex determination?
co
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 4 (d) 23 (a) It occurs in birds and some reptiles
[Ans. (b) 21] (b) Females are homogametic and males are
heterogametic
15. Klinefelters’ syndrome is characterized by a (c) Male produce two types of gametes
karyotype of (d) It occurs in gypsy moth
s.
(a) XYY (b) XO [Ans. (b) Females are homogametic and
(c) XXX (d) XXY males are heterogametic]
[Ans. (d) XXY]
25. What is haplodiploidy?
ok
16. Females with Turners’ syndrome have Ans. (i) It is a system of sex determination in which
(a) Small uterus sex of the offspring is determined by the
(b) Rudimentary ovaries number of sets of chromosomes it receives.
(c) Underdeveloped breasts (ii) Eg. Honey bees in which fertilized eggs
d) All of these [Ans. (d) All of these] develop into females (Queen or worker
o
bees) and unfertilized eggs develop into
17. Pataus’ syndrome is also referred to as males (drones) by parthenogenesis.
(a) 13-Trisomy (b) 18-Trisomy
ab
(iii) This means males have half the number of

(c) 21-Trisomy. (d) None of these chromosomes (haploid - n) and females
[Ans. (a) 13-Trisomy ] have double the number of chromosomes
18. Who is the founder of Modern Eugenics movement? (diploid - 2n). Hence the method is called
(a) Mendel (b) Darwin haplodiploidy.
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(c) Francis Galton (d) Karl pearson 26. Distinguish between heterogametic and
[Ans. (c) Francis Galton] homogametic sex determination systems?
Ans. Heterogametic sex Homogametic sex
19. Improvement of human race by encouraging
.s
the healthy persons to marry early and produce determination determination

large number of children is called Sex chromosome may Sex chromosome
(a) Positive eugenics (b) Negative eugenics be disimilar or heter may be similar or
(c) Positive euthenics (d) Positive euphenics omorphic in the other homomorphic in
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[Ans. (a) Positive eugenics] sex. one sex.

20. The _______deals with the control of several Heteromorphic Individuals having
inherited human diseases especially inborn individuals produce two homomorphic
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errors of metabolism. types of gametes and are sex chromosomes

said to be heterogametic. provide only one
(a) Euphenics (b) Eugenics
2 types type of gamete
(c) Euthenics (d) All of these are said to be
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[Ans. (a) Euphenics ] 1) Heterogametic males

2) Heterogametic females. homogametic.
21. “Universal Donor” and “Universal Recipients”
Eg. Males are the Eg. Females are the
blood group are ___ and ___ respectively.
Heterogametic sex as homogametic sex,
(a) AB, O (b) O, AB they have one X and one because they have
(c) A, B (d) B, A Y chromosome (XY) female 2 X’s (XX)
[Ans. (b) O, AB] chromosomes.
61

27. What is Lyonisation? 31. Mention the symptoms of Phenylketonuria.
Ans. (i) In the XY chromosomal system of sex Ans. It is characterized by severe mental retardation,
determination, males have only one X light pigmentation of skin and hair.
chromosome, whereas females have Phenylpyruvic acid is excreted in the urine.
Chapter 4
two. In mammals the necessary dosage

compensation is accomplished by the 32. Mention the symptoms of Downs syndrome.
m
inactivation of one of the X chromosome in Ans. It is characterized by severe mental retardation,
females so that both males and females have defective development of the central nervous
only one functional X chromosome per cell. system, increased separation between the eyes,
(ii) Mary Lyon suggested that Barr bodies flattened nose, ears are malformed, mouth is
co
represented an inactive chromosome, constantly open and the tongue protrudes.
which in females becomes tightly coiled
into a heterochromatin, a condensed 33. Differentiate Intersexes from Supersexes.
and visible form of chromatin (Lyon’s Ans. According to geneic balance theory (C. B. Bridges),
hypothesis). The number of Barr bodies the sex of an individual is determined by the ratio
s.
observed in cell was one less than the of X chromosome to that of its autosome sets.
number of X-Chromosome. XO females This ratio is termed sex index
have no Barr body, whereas XXY males Number of X Chromosomes  X 
have one Barr body. Sex index =  
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Number of Sets of Autosomes  A 
(iii) The discovery of X inactivator is attributed Change in this ratio leads to a changed sex
by British Genetician Mary Lyon and is phenotype.
called as Lyonisation.
Super Sex Inter Sex
28. What is criss-cross inheritance?
Super sexes one of These flies are
o
Ans. It is the transmission of a gene from mother
two type namely super intermediate between
to son or father to daughter. The character is
inherited to the second generation through the females and super normal males and
ab
carrier of first generation. E.g. Inheritance of males. females.

gene causing haemophilia (x linked inheritance). Super females have Their chromosomal
29. Why are sex linked recessive characters more a chromosome constitution is either
common in the male human beings? constitution 2A + 3A + XXY or 3A +
Ans. (i) Male human beings are hemizygous. Their XXX and the sex ratio XX.
ur
sex chromosomes consist of one X and one is 1.5. These flies

Y chromosomes. have an additional ‘X’
(ii) Sex linked character are inherited through chromosome than the
genes in sex chromosomes since males normal female and are
.s
inherit one allele only for sex linked known as metafemales.

character (one X and Y chromosomes ) Super males have
they express the trait commonly. a chromosomal
(iii) In female there are two x chromosome constitution 3A + XY
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representing the sex chromosomes for and the sex ratio is

each sex linked character. Therefore 0.33. These flies have
expression of the character depends on an additional sets of
w
both the alleles. Sex linked inherited autosome than the

traits are more common in males than normal male flies
females because, males are hemizygous and are known as
and therefore express the trait when they metamales.
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inherit one mutant allele.

These flies are very They have a mixture
30. What are holandric genes?
Ans. The genes present in the differential region
weak and sterile in of male and female
of Y chromosome are called Y-linked or nature. sex characters and are
holandric genes. The Y- linked genes have sterile is nature.
no corresponding allele in X chromosome.
Eg: Hypertrichosis
62

34. Explain the genetic basis of ABO blood Genetic basis of the human ABO blood groups
grouping man.
Ans. ABO system of blood grouping in humans Antigens Antibodies
ABO blood
is based on the chemical difference due to present on present
Genotype group
presence of antigens on the surface of the RBC red blood in blood
phenotype
and epithelial cells as follows: cell plasma
m
Blood IAIA Type A A Anti -B
Antigen
group IAIo Type A A Anti -B

A Presence of A antigen IBIB Type B B Anti -A
co
B Presence of B antigen IBIo Type B B Anti -A
O absence of A and B antigen Neither
AB presence of A and B antigen IAIB Type AB A and B Anti - A nor
Anti-B
(i) Bernstein discovered that, the inheritance of
s.
Neither A Anti -A and
different blood group in humans is determined IoIo Type O
nor B anti -B
by a number of multiple allelic series.
(ii) The three autosomal alleles located 35. How is sex determined in human beings?
ok
on chromosome 9 are concerned with Ans. In human beings the sex is determined by
determination of blood group. XX-XY type (Lygaeus type)
(iii) The gene controlling blood type is labelled
as ‘L’ or I. The gene (isoagglutination) I Genes determining sex in human beings are
exists in three allelic forms IA, IB and Io located on two sex chromosomes, called
o
(iv) IA specifies A antigen, IB allele determined allosomes. In mammals, sex determination
B antigen and Io allele specifies no antigen. is associated with chromosomal differences
between the two sexes, typically XX females
ab
(v) Each allele (IA and IB) produces a

transferase enzyme. IA allele produces and XY males. 23 pairs of human chromosomes
N-acetyl galactose transferase and can include 22 pairs of autosomes (44A) and
add N-acetyl galactosamine (NAG) and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY).
IB allele encodes for the enzyme galactose Females are homogametic producing only one
ur
transferase that adds galactose to the type of gametes (egg), each containing one X
precursor (i.e. H substances) In the case chromosome while the males are heterogametic
of IO/IO allele no terminal transferase producing two types of sperms with X and Y
enzyme is produced and therefore called chromosomes.
.s
“null” allele and hence cannot add NAG or The sex of the embryo depends on the fertilizing
galactose to the precursor. sperm. An egg fertilized by an ‘X’ bearing sperm
(vi) IA and IB are dominant to IO but co produces a female, if fertilized by a Y bearing
– dominant to each other (IA = IB). sperm a male is produced.
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The dominance hierarchy is given as

(IA =IB>IO). Male Female
(vii) A child receives one of three alleles from (Heterogametic) (Homogametic)
Parents 44A + XY 44A + XX
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each parent giving rise to six positive Gametes Sperms Ova

genotypes and four possible blood type (22A+X)(22A+Y) (22A+X) (22A+X)
(phenotypes)
Hero types Phenotype
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IAIA IAIo A group

IBIB IBIo B group
IA IB AB group Offsprings/
Progeny (44A+XX) (44A+XY) (44A+XX) (44A+XY)
Io Io O group Female Male Female Male
Sex determination in human beings
63

36. Explain male heterogamety. F m
P1 AAXX AAXY
Ans. Heterogametic Males: In this method of sex
Gametes AX AX AY
determination the males are heterogametic
producing dissimilar gametes while females
Chapter 4
are homogametic producing similar gametes. F1 Generation AAXX AAXY
m
It is of kinds XX-XO type and XX-XY type. F m
(i) XX-XO Type: Eg. Cockroaches and
grasshoppers. XX-XY Type of sex determination
co
(a) The female with two X chromosomes 37. Brief about female heterogamety.
are homogametic (XX) while the Ans. Heterogametic Females: In this method of sex
males with only one X chromosome determination, the homogametic male possesses
are heterogametic (XO). two ‘X’ chromosomes as in certain insects and
(b) The presence of an unpaired X certain vertebrates like fishes, reptiles and birds
s.
chromosomes determines the producing a single type of gamete; while females
male sex. The males with unpaired produce dissimilar gametes.
‘X’ chromosome produce two The female sex consists of a single ‘X’
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types of sperms, one half with X chromosome or one ‘X’ and one ‘Y’ chromosome.
chromosome and other half without Thus the females are heterogametic and produce
X chromosome. two types of eggs. Heterogametic females are of
(c) The sex of the offspring depends two types, ZO-ZZ type and ZW-ZZ type.
upon the sperm that fertilizes the (i) ZO-ZZ Type: Eg. Certain moths,
o
egg. butterflies and domestic chickens. In
F m this type, the female possesses single
ab
P1 AAXX AAXO
‘Z’ chromosome in its body cells and is
Gametes AX AX AO
heterogametic (ZO) producing two kinds
of eggs some with ‘Z’ chromosome and
some without ‘Z’ chromosome, while the
F1 Generation AAXX AAXO male possesses two ‘Z’ chromosomes and
ur
F m
is homogametic (ZZ).
XX-XO Type of sex determination F m
P1 AZZO AAZZ
(ii) XX-XY type (Lygaeus Type) : This Gametes AZ AO AZ
.s
method of sex determination is seen in

human beings and in Drosophila.
(a) The females are homogametic with
F1 Generation AAZZ AAZO
XX chromosome, while the males
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M F
are heterogametic with X and Y
chromosome. ZO-ZZ Type of sex determination
(b) Homogametic females produce
only one kind of egg, each with (ii) ZW-ZZ type: Eg. Insects (gypsy moth)
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one X chromosome, while the and in vertebrates such as fishes. In this

heterogametic males produce method the female has one ‘Z’ and one ‘W’
two kinds of sperms some with chromosome (ZW) producing two types
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X chromosome and some with Y of eggs, some carrying the Z chromosomes

chromosome. and some carry the W chromosome. The
(c) The sex of the embryo depends on the male sex has two ‘Z’ chromosomes and is
fertilizing sperm. An egg fertilized
homogametic (ZZ) producing a single type
by an ‘X’ bearing sperm produces a
female, if fertilized by a ‘Y’ bearing of sperm.
sperm, a male is produced.
64

F m develop into females (Queen or Worker)
P1 AAZW AAZZ and unfertilized eggs develop into males
Gametes AZ AW AZ (drones) by parthenogenesis. It means
that the males have half the number of
chromosomes (haploid) and the females
F1 Generation AAZZ AAZW have double the number (diploid), hence
m
M F
the name haplodiplody for this system of
ZW-ZZ Type of sex determination sex determination.

(iii) This mode of sex determination facilitates
38. Give an account of genetic control of Rh factor.
co
the evolution of sociality in which only one
Ans. The term Rh factor refers to the immunogenic D diploid female becomes a queen and lays
antigen of Rh blood group system. the eggs for the colony.
Genetic control of Rh factor (iv) All other females which are diploid having
(i) Fisher and Race hypothesis: Rh factor developed from fertilized eggs help to
s.
involves three different pairs of alleles raise the queen’s eggs and so contribute
located on three different closely linked to the queen’s reproductive success and
loci on the chromosome pair. This system indirectly to their own, a phenomenon
ok
is more commonly in use today, and uses known as Kin Selection.
(v) The queen constructs their social
the 'Cde' nomenclature.
environment by releasing a hormone that
(ii) Three pairs of Rh alleles (Cc, Dd and Ee)
suppresses fertility of the workers.
occur at 3 different loci on homologous
o
chromosome pair-1. The possible 40. Discuss the genic balance mechanism of sex
genotypes will be one C or c, one D or d, determination with reference to Drosophila.
one E or e from each chromosome. For Ans. (i) Genic balance mechanisms of sex
ab
E.g. CDE/cde; CdE/cDe; cde/cde; CDe/CdE determination in Drosophila was first

etc., All genotypes carrying a dominant ‘D’ studied by C. B. Bridges.
allele will produce Rh+positive phenotype (ii) In Drosophila, the presence of Y chromosome
and double recessive genotype ‘dd’ will is essential for the fertility of male sex, but
give rise to Rh– negative phenotype.
ur
does not determine the male sex.

(iii) Wiener Hypothesis Wiener proposed the (iii) The gene for femaleness is located on the
existence of eight alleles (R1, R2, R0, Rz, r, r1, X chromosome and those for maleness are
r11, ry) at a single Rh locus. All genotypes located on the autosomes.
.s
carrying a dominant ‘R allele’ (R1, R2, R0, (iv) When geneticist C. B. Bridges, working
Rz) will produce Rh+positive’ phenotype with Drosophila, crossed a triploid (3n)
and double recessive genotypes (rr, rr1, female with a normal male, he observed
rr11, rry) will give rise to Rh-negative
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many combinations of autosomes and sex

phenotype. chromosomes in the offspring.
39. Explain the mode of sex determination in (v) He suggested that sex in Drosophila is
determined by the balance between the
w
honeybees.
Ans. (i) In hymenopteran insects such as genes for femaleness located on the ‘X’
honeybees, ants and wasps a mechanism chromosomes and those for maleness
of sex determination called haplodiploidy located on the ‘autosomes’ . Hence the
w
mechanism of sex determination is sex of an individual is determined by

common. the ratio of its X chromosome to that of
(ii) In this system, the sex of the offspring its autosome sets. This ratio is termed
is determined by the number of sets of sex index and is expressed as:
chromosomes it receives. Fertilized eggs Number of X Chromosomes  X 
Sex index =  
Number of Sets of Autosomes  A 
65

(vi) Change in this ratio leads to a changed sex
A+X A+Y
phenotype. The results obtained from a
2A + XX 3A + XXX 3A + XXY
cross between triploid female Drosophila Triplod Female Triploid Intersex
Chapter 4
(3A:3X) with a diploid male (2A: XY) is

2A + X 3A + XX 3A + XY
shown in below.
Triploid Intersex Super Male
m
(vii) Bridges classical cross of a triploid
A + XX 2A + XXX 2A + XXY
(3A+XXX) female fly and a diploid Super female Diploid Female
(2A+XY) male fly
A+X 2A + XX 2A + XY
co
Triploid F Diploid M Diploid Female Diploid Male
Parent 3A + XXX 2A + XY
Gametes (2A + XX) (A + X) (A + X) (A + Y)
s.
(2A + X) (A + XX)
Different doses of X chromosomes and autosome sets
and their effect on sex determination in Drosophila
ok
Number of ‘X’ Number of
Number of X chromosome
Phenotype Chromosomes Autosome sets Sex Index =
Number of autosome sets
(X) (A)
Meta female / Super female 3 2 3/2 = 1.5
o
Tetraploid 4 4 4/4 = 1.0
Normal Triploid 3 3 3/3 = 1.0
ab
Female Diploid 2 2 2/2 = 1.0

Haploid 1 1 1/1 = 1.0
Inter sex 2 3 2/3 = 0.67
Normal male 1 2 ½ =0.50
ur
Meta male / Super male 1 3 1/3 = 0.33
A sex–switch gene in Drosophila directs female development. This gene, sex–lethal (SxL) located on
the X chromosome, has two states of activity. When it is ‘on’ it directs female development and when
.s
it is ‘off ’ maleness ensures. Other genes located on the X chromosome and autosomes regulate this
sex-switch gene. However, the Y- chromosome of Drosophila is required for male fertility.
w
41. What are the applications of Karyotyping? 42. Explain the inheritance of sex linked characters
Ans. (i) It helps in gender identification. in human being.
(ii) It is used to detect the chromosomal Ans. (i) The inheritance of a trait that is
w
aberrations like deletion, duplication, determined by a gene located on one of

translocation, nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes is called sex linked
chromosomes. inheritance.
(iii) It helps to identify the abnormalities of (ii) Genes present on the differential region
w
chromosomes like aneuploidy. of X or Y chromosomes are called sex

(iv) It is also used in predicting the evolutionary linked genes. The genes present in the
relationships between species. differential region of “X” chromosome are
called X linked genes. The X–linked genes
(v) Genetic diseases in human beings can be
have no corresponding alleles in the Y
detected by this technique.
chromosome.
66

(iii) The genes present in the differential region nuclear genes to the progeny but do
of Y chromosome are called Y- linked or not make equal contribution of extra
holandric genes. The Y linked genes have chromosomal genes hence, the crosses
no corresponding allele in X chromosome. can yield different (or) non Mendelian
(iv) The Y linked genes inherit along with Y results. Extra chromosomal inheritance in
chromosome and they phenotypically Limnaea peregra.
m
express only in the male sex. (vi) Limnaea peregra is a freshwater snail.
(v) Sex linked inherited traits are more The shell of these animals are spirally

common in males than females because, coiled. The coiling of the shell is clockwise
co
males are hemizygous and therefore (dextral) or anticlockwise (sinistral).
express the trait when they inherit one (vii) Both type of coilings are produced by two
mutant allele. different types of genetically controlled
(vi) The X – linked and Y – linked genes in cleavages namely, dextral cleavage and
the differential region (non–homologus sinistral cleavage.
s.
region) do not undergo pairing or crossing (viii) In Limnaea, dextral coiling is normal and
over during meiosis. The inheritance of sinistral coiling is a mutant character.
X or Y linked genes is called sex-linked
(ix) Direction of coiling is determined by a
inheritance.
ok
pair of nuclear genes, D(dextral) and d
X linked Inheritance - Eg. Colour blindness
(sinistral). The gene for dextral (D) being
Y linked Inheritance - Eg. hypertrichosis dominant over sinistral coiling (d). In
43. What is extra chromosomal inheritance? Fig. a dextral snail provides the eggs and
Explain with an example. a sinistral snail provides the sperm. The
o
Ans. (i) Certain characters are controlled by non- offsprings are all dextral (Dd), in the F1
nuclear genomes found in chloroplast, generation.
ab
mitochondria, infective agents and (x) When the F1 heterozygous dextral

plasmids. These characters do not reveal individual (Dd) were self crossed the F2
Mendelian pattern of inheritance. generation showed dextral coiling with
(ii) The inheritance of the extra chromosomal genotype of 1DD, 2Dd and 1dd.
genes are found to exhibit maternal (xi) When a reciprocal cross is made the F1
ur
influence. individuals have Dd genotype but are

(iii) Although both male and female parents coiled sinistrally, as in the female parent. In
contribute equally to the zygote in terms both the crosses the F1 are phenotypically
of chromosomal genes, the female parent similar to the female parent, though the
.s
usually contributes the zygote’s initial offsprings in both crosses have the same
cytoplasm and organelles, since the sperms genotype Dd. This is because the genotype
contain very little cytoplasm. If there are of the maternal parent determines the
w
hereditary units in the cytoplasm, these phenotype of the offspring.

will be transmitted to the offsprings (xii) When the F1 sinistral individuals were
through the egg, so the offsprings exhibit self crossed, the shell coiling in the F2
maternal effect.
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generation, were all dextral. This is

(iv) The cytoplasmic extranuclear genes have because the genes do not segregate in the
a characteristic pattern of inheritance F2 generation. Only in the F3 generation
which do not resemble the genes of
w
segregation occurs in the ratio of

nuclear chromosomes and is known 3 dextral : 1 sinistral.
as extra chromosomal or extra nuclear
(xiii) Reason: The type of cleavage depends
or cytoplasmic inheritance and exhibit
maternal influence. on the organization of the egg which is
established before the maturation division
(v) In extra nuclear inheritance, male and
of the oocyte nucleus and by the influence
female parents contribute equally their
of the maternal genotype.
67

(xiv) The direction of coiling of the shell depends upon the orientation of the mitotic spindle during the
first cleavage.
(xv) Obviously, maternal control affects only one generation. In each generation the coiling is dependent
on the maternal genotype.
Chapter 4
m
co
s.
o ok
3 dextral: 1 sinistral
ab
Shell coiling in Limnaea

44. Comment on the methods of eugenics.
Ans. Application of the laws of genetics for the improvement of human race is called eugenics.
Two methods of Eugenics are:
ur
(i) Constructive method or Positive eugenics

(ii) Restrictive method or Negative eugenics
(i) Positive eugenics: Positive eugenics attempts to increase consistently better or desirable germplasm
.s
and to preserve the best germplasm of the society. The desirable traits can be increased by adopting
the following measures:
(a) Early marriage of those having desirable traits
w
(b) Subsiding the fit and establishing sperm and egg banks of precious germ plasm.
(c) Educating the basic principles of genetics and eugenics.
(d) Improvement of environmental conditions.
w
(e) Promotion of genetic research.

(ii) Negative eugenics: Negative eugenics attempts to eliminate the defective germplasm of the society
by adopting the following measures:
w
(a) Sexual separation of the defectives

(b) Sterilization of the defectives
(c) Control of immigration and
(d) Regulation of marriages
68
9. The lygaeus type (XX – XY) type of sex
Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark determination is seen in __________.
(a) Fishes (b) Chickens
m
I. Choose the Correct options
(c) Human beings (d) Gypsy moth
for the below Questions
[Ans. (c) Human beings]

1. The blood group __________ is called 10. The ZO – ZZ type of sex determination is seen
co
universal donor. is __________.
(a) A (b) AB (a) moths (b) Reptiles
(c) B (d) O [Ans. (d) O] (c) Human beings (d) Bugs
2. The blood group __________ is called [Ans. (a) moths]
s.
universal recipient. 11. The ZW – ZZ type of sex determination is seen
(a) AB (b) O is __________
(c) B (d) A (a) Butterflies (b) Drosophila
ok
[Ans. (b) AB] (c) Gypsy moth (d) Human being
3. The ABO blood group was discovered by [Ans. (c) Gypsy moth]
_________. 12. Sex index is applicable to __________
(a) Sturli (b) Decastelle (a) Homogenetic condition
o
(c) Landsteiner (b) Heterogametic condition
(d) Alexander wiener [Ans. (c) Landsteiner] (c) Genic balance
ab
4. The inheritance of blood group is determined (d) Gynandromorphs[Ans. (c) Genic balance]
by multiple alleles as discovered by_______. 13. X chromosomes was discovered by ________.
(a) Landsteiner (b) Bernstein (a) Landsteiner (b) Henking
(c) Alexander castelle (d) lyon (c) Stevens (d) Bridges
[Ans. (b) Bernstein]
ur
[Ans. (b) Henking]

5. The __________ is called null allele. 14. Y chromosomes was discovered by _________
(a) IA (b) IO IB (a) Stevens (b) Landsteiner
(c) IO (d) IB IB (c) Henking (d) Wiener
.s
[Ans. (c) IO] [Ans. (a) Stevens]

6. The secretors have the I allele in ________. 15. __________was first reported by John Cotto.
(a) tears (b) Gastric juice (a) Erythroblastosis foetalis
w
(c) Saliva (d) All of these (b) Haemophilia

[Ans. (d) all of these] (c) Colour blindness
7. __________ proposed the existence of 8 alleles (d) Haplodiploidy [Ans. (b) Haemophilia]
w
at a single Rh locus. 16. Scientists who contributed to karyotyping ___

(a) Fischer (b) Landsteiner (a) Tjio and Levan (b) John Cotto
(c) Bernstein (d) Wiener (c) Bridges (d) Wiener
w
[Ans. (d) Wiener] [Ans. (a) Tjio and Levan]

8. XX – XO type of sex determination is in _____ 17. Depending on position of centromere
(a) Cockroaches (b) Drosophila and relative length of two arms human
(c) Humans (d) Moths chromosomes can be classified into ____ type.
[Ans. (a) Cockroaches] (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5 [Ans. (c) 4]
69

18. _______ are examples of mendelian disorders. II. Choose the Correct options
(a) Thalassemia (b) Albinism for the below Fill in the blanks:
(c) Phenylketonuria (d) Haemophilia
[Ans. (d) Haemophilia] 1. Incompatibility of blood groups leading to,
Chapter 4

19. __________ is a disease where abnormal clumping of erythrocytes is called __________.
m
haemoglobin is produced in patients. (a) agglutination
(a) Phenylketonuria (b) non-agglutination
(b) Huntington’s chorea (c) Inhibition
(c) Thalassemia (d) Albinism (d) repolarization [Ans. (a) agglutination]
co
[Ans. (c) Thalassemia] 2. One gene ‘L’ controlling blood groups is
20. Phenylketonuria is linked to chromosome __. named after __________
(a) 9 (b) 10 (a) C. B. Bridges (b) Henking
(c) 12 (d) 8 [Ans. (c) 12] (c) Landsteiner (d) Stevens
s.
[Ans. (c) Landsteiner]
21. Cooley’s anaemia refers to __________
(a) Phenylketonuria (b) Haemophilia 3. The allele I° is called __________.
(a) Dominant allele (b) null allele
ok
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Turner’s sundrome [Ans. (c) Thalassemia] (c) Co-dominant allele (d) epistatic allele
[Ans. (b) null allele]
22. The gene responsible for _______ is inherited
as an autosomal recessive lethal gene in man 4. The alleles IA and IB are ________
(a) Huntington’s chorea (a) Hypostatic
o
(b) Albinism (b) Co-dominant
(c) Colourblindness (c) Recessive
ab
(d) Phenylketonuria [Ans. (b) Albinism] (d) Epistatic [Ans. (b) Co-dominant]
23. __________ is an inborn error of metabolism 5. Individuals who possess the I antigens related
caused due to autosomal recessive gene. to gene I in body fluids are called_________.
(a) Thalassemia (b) Albinism (a) secretors (b) enzymes
ur
(c) Phenylketonuria (c) Lymph fluids (d) hormones

(d) Huntington’s chorea [Ans. (b) Albinism] [Ans. (a) secretors]
24. Trisomy 21 refers to __________ 6. Rh factor was discovered in the blood of _____.
(a) Patau’s syndrome (a) Frog (b) Carp
.s
(b) Down’s syndrome (c) Rhesus monkey (d) Calotes

(c) Klinefilters syndrome [Ans. (c) Rhesus monkey]
(d) Turners syndrome
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7. Incompatibility of Rh factor can lead to

[Ans. (b) Down’s syndrome] __________ in a pregnant woman.
25. Patau’s syndrome is called __________. (a) Haemophilia
(a) Trisomy – 21 (b) Trisomy-13 (b) Sickle cell anaemia
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(c) xxy males (d) xo females (c) Aplastic anaemia

[Ans. (b) Trisomy-13] (d) erythroblastosis foetalis
[Ans. (d) erythroblastosis foetalis]
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26. People with _______ have 45 chromosomes.

(a) Turner’s syndrome 8. The XX – XY type of sex determination is also
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome known as ___________ type.
(c) Down’s syndrome (a) Haploid - diploid (b) Lygaeus
(d) Patau’s syndrome (c) Gynandromorphs (d) Genic balance
[Ans. (a) Turner’s syndrome]
[Ans. (b) Lygaeus]
70

9. In gypsy moth we find __________ type of sex 2. (i) The females are carriers of haemophilia
determination. (ii) Albinism is classified into alpha and beta
(a) ZW – ZZ (b) XX - XY types.
(c) XX - XO (d) ZO - ZZ (iii) The symbol stands for mating.
(iv) XXY females suffer from Klinefelters
[Ans. (a) ZW – ZZ] syndrome
m
10. Genic balance mechanism was first studied by (a) i, iii and iv (b) ii and iv
__________. (c) i and iii (d) iv only

(a) John Cotto (b) C. B. Bridges [Ans. (c) i and iii]
co
(c) Bernstein (d) Wiener
V. Match the following
[Ans. (b) C. B. Bridges]
1. 1. Kappa (a) eugenics
11. Sex switch genes have been reported in ______. 2. Phenyl pyruvic acid (b) hypertrichosis
(a) Grasshopper (b) Cockroach 3. Germplasm (c) chromosome 12
s.
(c) Wasp (d) Drosophila 4. Holandric genes (d) bacterium
[Ans. (d) Drosophila] (A) 1 – c 2–d
3–b 4–a
12. In ___________ the tissues of male and female (B) 1 – d 2–a
3–b 4–c
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genotype type form a mosaic. (C) 1 – d 2–c
3–a 4–b
(a) Haplo-diploidy (D) 1 – c 2–b
3–a 4–d
(b) Gynandromorphy [Ans. (C) 1–d 2–c 3–a 4–b]
(c) Genic balance 2. 1. Karyotyping (a) Metaphase
(d) Lygaeus type [Ans. (b) Gynandromorphy] 2. XO females (b) Barr body
o
13. Sex chromatin is also called as __________. 3. 3n female (c) Aneuploidy
4. Lyon (d) Bridges
ab
(a) polar body (b) nucleus

(c) nucleolus (d) Barr body (a) 1-a 2 - c 3-d 4-b
[Ans. (d) Barr body]
(b) 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a
(c) 1-b 2-d 3-a 4-c
14. The number of Barr bodies follows _________. (d) 1-c 2-a 3-d 4-b
ur
(a) N-0 Rule (b) N-3 rule [Ans. (A) 1-a 2-c 3-d 4-b]
(c) N-1 rule (d) N-2 rule
3. 1. I A. Fischer
[Ans. (c) N-1 rule]
2. R1 B. Bridges
15. Kin selection is seen in __________. 3. Cde C. Landsteiner
.s
(a) Honey bees (b) Drosophila 4. X/A D. Wiener

(c) Grasshopper (d) Cockroach (A) 1 - b 2 - c 3 - d 4 - a
[Ans. (a) Honey bees] (B) 1 - a 2 - c 3 - d 4 - b
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(C) 1 - d 2 - c 3 - a 4 - b
IV Identify the correct Statements
(D) 1 - c 2-d 3-a 4-b
1. (i) Y linked genes are transmitted from [Ans. (D) 1-c 2-d 3-a 4-b]
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mother to son.
(ii) People with IA IO genotype have O blood
group.
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(iii) Human Y chromosome is shorter than

X chromosome.
(iv) Fertilized eggs develop into Drones
(a) i,iv (b) ii,iii,iv
(c) i and iii (d) iii only
[Ans. (d) iii only]
71

VI Identify the correct VIII Identify the Odd-man out
assertion and reason: from the below
In each of the following questions there are two 1. (a) I° (b) Rh

Chapter 4
statements. One is assertion (A) and other is (c) I

B
(d) IA [Ans. (b) Rh]
reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as Reason: It belongs to Rh Blood grouping whereas
m
A. A and R are true, R is the correct explanation the others come under ABO Blood groups.
of A.
B. A and R are true, R is not the correct 2. (a) Cockroaches (b) Drosophila
explanation of A. (c) Human beings (d) Butterflies
co
C. A is true, R is false. [Ans. (d) Butterflies]
D. Both A and R are false. Reason: They are heterogametic females whereas
1. Assertion : ABO Blood grouping is based on the others are heterogametic males.
multiple alleles. 3. (a) 22A + X (b) 22A + Y
s.
Reason : There are 6 possible genotypes and (c) 44AA + XY (d) 22AA + XY
4 possible blood types [Ans. (d) 22AA + XY]
[Ans. (a) A and R are true, R is the correct Reason: It is an abnormal chromosomal
ok
explanation of A] complement of human whereas others are
2. Assertion : The Kappa in paramecium appears normal chromosomal complements of a human.
to be a bacterium. 4. (a) Hemophilia (b) Colour blindness
Reason : Kappa particles are not dependent (c) Turner’s syndrome
o
on the chromosomal genes. (d) Muscular Dystrophy
[Ans. (c) A is true, R is false] [Ans. (c) Turner’s syndrome]
ab
3. Assertion : Phenylketonuria occurs due to Reason: It is a disease caused due to chromosomal

the mutation in gene PAH on abnormality whereas the others are disease due
chromosome 11. to X linked genes.
Reason : DOPA is not converted to melanin. 5. (a) Barr body (b) kin selection
[Ans. (d) Both A and R are false]
ur
(c) honey bees (d) Haplodiploidy

[Ans. (a) Barr body]
VII Identify the Incorrect pair
Reason: It deals with dosage compensation
from the below:
in sex determination whereas others linked to
.s
1. (i) Downs syndrome - Trisomy 13 haplodiploidy

(ii) Shell coiling in snail - C y t o p l a s m i c
inheritance Answer in one word*
(iii)Kappa particle - Sonneborn
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1. Y linked genes are also called ___________.

(iv) Eugenics - Galton
(a) i and iv (b) i only [Ans. holandric genes]
(c) ii and iii (d) i, ii and iv 2. Sex linked traits are more common in males
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[Ans. (b) i only] because they are ___________.

2. (i) SRY - X Chromosome [Ans. hemizygous]
(ii) Heterogametic female - XX–XO 3. Red – green colour blindness is also called
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(iii)Barr body - Sex Chromatin

____________ [Ans. daltonism]
(iv) Rh factor - Landsteiner
(a) i and iv (b) ii and iii and iv 4. Persons suffering from haemophilia lack the
(c) ii only (d) i and ii clotting substance called __________.
[Ans. (c) ii only] [Ans. thromboplastin]
72

5. Hemophilia follows __________ pattern of
Inheritance. [Ans. criss – cross]
6. Cell division in cells can be arrested by use of a 1. Mention two measures under negative
substance called ________ [Ans. colchicines] eugenics.
7. For karyotype cells in ___________ stages of Ans. (i) Sexual separation of the defectives.
m
cell division are photographed (ii) Sterilization of the defectives
[Ans. metaphase] (iii) Control of immigration and
(iv) Regulation of marriages

8. Genetic disease in human can be detected by the
co
technique ____________. [Ans. karyotyping] 2. Mention the symptoms seen in trisomy 13/
9. __________ is a family tree. [Ansz pedigree] Pataus’s syndrome.
Ans. It is characterized by multiple and severe body
10. Absence of melanin results in a condition called
malformations as well as profound mental
__________. [Ans. Albinism]
deficiency. Small head with small eyes, cleft palate,
s.
11. In skin during pigment formation DOPA is malformation of the brain and internal organs are
converted into __________ [Ans. melanin] some of the symptoms of this syndrome.
12. The enzyme ______ converts DOPA to Melanin. 3. What is a syndrome?
ok
[Ans. Tyrosinase]
Ans. Group of signs and symptoms that occur together
13. Involuntary jerking of the body and degeneration and characterize a particular abnormality
of nervous system are symptoms of __________. is called a syndrome. In humans, Down’s
[Ans. Huntington’s chorea] syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Klinefelter's
o
14. ___________ is an example of Autosomal syndrome, Patau’s syndrome are some of the
aneuploidy in humans. examples of chromosomal disorders.
ab
[Ans. Down’s syndrome/Patau’s syndrome] 4. What is Lyon’s hypothesis?

Ans. Mary Lyon suggested that Barr bodies
15. _______ is an example of Allosomal abnormality
represented an inactive chromosome, which
in humans.
[Ans. Klinefelter’s syndrome / Turner’s syndrome] in females becomes tightly coiled into a
heterochromatin, a condensed and visible
ur
16. Shell coiling in Limnaea exhibits __________ form of chromatin. The number of Barr bodies
inheritance. observed in cell was one less than the number
[Ans. Extra chromosomal / Cytoplasmic] of X-Chromosome. XO females have no Barr
17. Kappa particles in paramecium were studied by body, whereas XXY males have one Barr body.
.s
__________.[Ans. Sonneborn] 5. What are Gynandromorphy?

18. The killer paramecia are said to posses Ans. These individuals have parts of their body
__________. [Ans. kappa particle] expressing male characters and other parts
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19. The kappa particles liberates a toxin called __ of the body expressing female characters.
[Ans. paramecin] The organism is made up of tissues of male
and female genotype and represents a mosaic
20. The term __________ means well born. pattern.
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[Ans. Eugenics]
6. How does hemophilia affect an individual?
21. The term eugenics was coined by __________.
Ans. A person with a recessive gene for
[Ans. Francis Galton]
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haemophilia lacks a normal clotting substance

22. The term Euphenics was coined by __________. (thromboplastin) in blood, hence minor injuries
[Ans. Joshua Lederberg] cause continuous bleeding, leading to death.
23. The science of improving human race by
improving environmental conditions is called
_ _________. [Ans. Euthenics]
73

7. What is Rh factor or Rh antigen? passive immunity and prevents the formation
Ans. (i) Rh factor is a immunogenic D antigen of anti D antibodies in the mothers blood by
of the Rh blood group system found on destroying the Rh foetal RBC before the mother’s
the surface of the erythrocytes of Rhesus immune system is sensitized. This has to be done
Chapter 4
monkey and human beings. In the blood it whenever the woman attains pregnancy.
is inherited as a dominant trait.
m
5. Draw a schematic representation to show
(ii) An individual having D antigen are Rh D ZW – ZZ type of sex determination.
(Rh+) and those without D antigen are Rh Ans. F m
D negative (Rh–). P1 AAZW AAZZ
co
Gametes AZ AW AZ
Short Answers 3 Marks
1. Why are people with O blood group called as F1 Generation AAZZ AAZW
universal donors?
s.
M F
Ans. People with ‘O’ blood group lack both ‘A’ and ‘B’ 6. What is SRY?
antigens. Therefore when ‘O’ blood is donated Ans. SRY stands for sex determining region Y. It
to another individual, his blood will not produce is a gene found in the euchromatin regions of
ok
any antibodies against it. Therefore people with the Non–combining region of Y chromosome.
‘O’ blood group are called as universal donors. It codes for testes determining factor (TDF)
present in testes of Males. This gene does not
2. ‘AB’ Blood group individuals are called occur in X chromosome.
universal recipients. Justify.
7. What is sex Index?
o
Ans. People with AB blood group have both ‘A’
antigen and B antigen in their RBCs. Therefore Ans. In Drosophila the sex is determined by the
they can receive blood from ‘A’ group, ‘B’ balance between the genes for femaleness located
ab
group or ‘O’ group individuals their blood will on the ‘X’ chromosome and those for maleness
not produce antibodies against any of them. located on the ‘autosomes’ (A). Hence the sex of
Therefore people with ‘AB’ blood group are an individual is determined by the ratio of its X
called as universal recipients. chromosome to that of the autosome A sets. This
ratio is termed as sex index and is expressed as
ur
3. What is null allele?

Number of X chromosomes (X)
Ans. In ABO blood group, each allele (IA and Sex Index =
IB) produces a transferase enzyme. IA allele Number of sets of autosomes (A)
produces N-acetyl galactose transferase and can change in this ratio leads to a changed sex
.s
add N-acetyl galactosamine (NAG) and IB allele phenotype.

encodes for the enzyme galactose transferase 8. Females are carriers of Haemophilia. Give
that adds galactose to the precursor (i.e. H Reason.
w
substances) In the case of IO/IO allele no terminal Ans. Haemophilia is a disease caused by a recessive X
transferase enzyme is produced and therefore – linked gene. If a normal female marries a colour
called “null” allele and hence cannot add NAG blind male or vice versa, the gene is carried in
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or galactose to the precursor. the X – chromosome of the female (female has 2

4. How can erythroblasts foetalis be prevented? X Chromosomes). If both the chromosomes carry
the receive gene she becomes colour blind. If one X
Ans. If the mother is Rh negative and foetus is
chromosome caries the recessive gene she may not
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Rh positive, anti D antibodies should be

suffer from the disease but will be a carrier carrying
administered to the mother at 28th and 34th
the gene to the next generation. Haemophilia
week of gestation as a prophylactic measure. If
follows the characteristics criss - cross pattern of
the Rh negative mother delivers Rh positive child
inheritance. The females are carriers of the disease
then anti D antibodies should be administered and world transmit the disease to 50% of their
to the mother soon after delivery. This develops son’s even if a male parent is normal.
74

9. What is the role of the gene responsible for 15. What is the chemical reaction that is affected
colour blindness in a normal human beings? in people suffering from Albinism?
Ans. A dominant X – linked gene is necessary for the Ans. 3, 4 dihydroxy
formation of colour sensitive cells, the cones.
→ Melanin
Tyro sin ase
which helps to distinguish colours. A recessive phenylalanine
form of the gene is incapable of producing the
m
(DOPA)
cones. Hence the affected person is unable to Affected individuals lack the tyrosinase enzyme
distinguish red and green colour. which converts DOPA to melanin pigment

10. What are Y linked or holandric genes? responsible for skin colour. It is caused due to
co
Ans. (i) The genes present in the non-homologous autosomal recessive genes.
region of the Y chromosome are called 16. What is the reason for the occurrence of
Y - linked genes or holandric genes. chromosomal abnormalities?
(ii) The Y - linked genes have no corresponding Ans. (i) Chromosomal disorders are caused
allele in X - chromosome.
s.
by errors in the number or structure of
(iii) These genes are transmitted directly from chromosomes.
father to son, because males inherit the Y (ii) Chromosomal anomalies usually occur
chromosome from the father. when there is an error in cell division.
ok
(iv) Eg. Gene for Hypertrichosis (excessive Failure of chromatids to segregate during
development of hairs on pinna of the ear). cell division resulting in the gain or loss
11. What is karyotyping? of one or more chromosomes is called
Ans. Karyotyping is a technique through which aneuploidy. It is caused by non-disjunction
a complete set of chromosomes is separated of chromosomes. Eg. Down’s syndrome.
o
from a cell and the chromosomes are arranged 17. What is extra chromosomal or cytoplasmic
in pairs. An idiogram refers to a diagrammatic inheritance.
ab
representation of chromosomes. Ans. Certain characters are controlled by

non – nucleas genomes found in chloroplast,
12. What is Pedigree analysis?
Mitochondria, infective agents and plasmids,
Ans. Pedigree is a “family tree”, drawn with standard
and do not reveal Mendelian pattern of
genetic symbols, showing the inheritance Inheritance. This is called as extra chromosomal
ur
pathway for specific phenotypic characters. inheritance. They exhibit maternal influence
Pedigree analysis is the study of traits as they in their pattern of inheritance. Eg. Inheritance
have appeared in a given family line for several of the shell coiling pattern in fresh water snail
past generations. Limnaea peregra.
.s
13. What are Mendelian disorders? 18. What are Kappa particles.
Ans. Alteration or mutation in a single gene causes Ans. They are cytoplasmic symbionts occurring
Mendelian disorders. These disorders are in some strains of the ciliated paramecium
w
transmitted to the offsprings on the same which have their own DNA. It liberates a toxin
line as the Mendelian pattern of inheritance. paramecin and strains which possess these
Some examples for Mendelian disorders are particles are called ‘killer paramecia’. Inheritance
w
Thalassemia, albinism, phenylketonuria, etc. of killer trait, is by extra chromosomal

These disorders may be dominant or recessive inheritance.
and autosomal or sex linked. 19. What is euphenics?
14. Draw the symbols for Ans. The symptomatic treatment of genetic disease of
w
(a) Mating (b) Dizygotic twins. man is called Euphenics or Medical engineering.
Ans. Mating Dizygotic twins In 1960, Joshua Lederberg coined the term
euphenics. It means normal appearing. It
deals with the control of several inherited
human diseases especially the inborn errors of
metabolism. Eg. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
75

20. What is euthenics? diploid having developed from fertilized eggs
Ans. The science of improvement of existing help to raise the queen’s eggs and so contribute
human race by improving the environmental to the queen’s reproductive success and
conditions is called euthenics. It can be achieved indirectly to their own, a phenomenon known
Chapter 4
by subjecting them to better nutrition, better as Kin Selection. The queen constructs their
unpolluted ecological conditions, better social environment by releasing a hormone that
m
education and sufficient medical facilities. suppresses fertility of the workers. Eg. Honey
bees.
21. What is erythoblastosis foetalis (or)
Haemolytic disease of the new born (HDN)? 23. What is Sex-switch gene?
co
(or) Write about the incompatiability of Ans. (i) A gene, sex–lethal (SxL) located on the X
Rh-factor. chromosome, in Drosophila directs female
Ans. (i) Rh incompatability has great significance development.
in child birth. If a woman is Rh negative (ii) This gene has two states of activity. When
s.
and the man is Rh positive, the foetus may it is ‘on’ it directs female development and
be Rh positive having inherited the factor when it is ‘off’ maleness ensures.
from its father. (iii) Other genes located on the X chromosome
(ii) The Rh negative mother becomes and autosomes regulates sex switch gene.
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sensitized by carrying Rh positive foetus (iv) However, the Y chromosome of Drosophila
within her body. is required for male fertility.
(iii) Due to damage of blood vessels, during
child birth, the mother’s immune system Long Answers 5 Marks
o
recognizes the Rh antigens and gets 1. Explain criss-cross pattern of inheritance with
sensitized. The sensitized mother produces an example. (or) Explain Inheritance of colour
Rh antibodies.
ab
blindness.
(iv) The antibodies are IgG type which are Ans. In human beings a dominant X – linked gene is
small and can cross placenta and enter the necessary for the formation of colour sensitive
foetal circulation. By the time the mother cells, the cones. The recessive form of this gene
gets sensitized and produce anti ‘D’ is incapable of producing colour sensitive cone
ur
antibodies, the child is delivered. cells. Homozygous recessive females (XcXc)

(v) Usually no effects are associated with and hemizygous recessive males (XcY) are
exposure of the mother to Rh positive unable to distinguish red and green colour. The
antigen during the first child birth, inheritance of colour blindness can be studied in
.s
subsequent Rh positive children carried the following two types of marriages.

by the same mother, may be exposed to (i) Marriage between colour blind man and
antibodies produced by the mother against normal visioned woman:
A marriage between a colour blind man
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Rh antigen, which are carried across the

placenta into the foetal blood circulation. and a normal visioned woman will produce
normal visioned male and female individuals in
(vi) This causes haemolysis of foetal RBCs
F1 generation but the females are carriers. The
resulting in haemolytic jaundice and
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marriage between a F1 normal visioned carrier

anaemia. This condition is known as
woman and a normal visioned male will produce
Erythoblastosis foetalis or Haemolytic one normal visioned female, one carrier female,
disease of the new born (HDN).
w
one normal visioned male and one colour blind

22. Define Kin selection. male. Colour blind trait is inherited from the
Ans. The mode of sex determination which facilitates male parent to his grandson through carrier
the evolution of sociality in which only one daughter, which is an example of criss-cross
diploid female becomes a queen and lays the pattern of inheritance.
eggs for the colony. All other females which are
76

2. Write a note on thalassemia.
Ans. (i) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive
disorder. It is caused by gene mutation
resulting in excessive destruction of
RBC’s due to the formation of abnormal
haemoglobin molecules. Normally
m
haemoglobin is composed of four
polypeptide chains, two alpha and two beta

globin chains. Thalassemia patients have
co
defects in either the alpha or beta globin
chain causing the production of abnormal
haemoglobin molecules resulting in
anaemia.
(ii) Thalassemia is classified into alpha and
s.
beta based on which chain of haemoglobin
molecule is affected. It is controlled by two
closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
ok
chromosome 16. Mutation or deletion of one
Marriage between colour blind
man and normal visioned woman
or more of the four alpha gene alleles causes
Alpha Thalassemia. In Beta Thalassemia,
(ii) Marriage between normal visioned man production of beta globin chain is affected.
and colour blind woman: It is controlled by a single gene (HBB) on
o
(a) If a colour blind woman (XcXc) chromosome 11. It is the most common
marries a normal visioned male type of Thalassemia and is also known
ab
(XCY), all F1 sons will be colourblind as Cooley’s anaemia. In this disorder the
and daughters will be normal alpha chain production is increased and
visioned but are carriers. damages the membranes of RBC.
(b) Marriage between F1 carrier female
3. Write a note on allosomal chromosomal
with a colour blind male will produce
ur
abnormalities.
normal visioned carrier daughter,
colourblind daughter, normal Ans. Mitotic or meiotic non-disjunction of sex
visioned son and a colourblind son chromosomes causes allosomal abnormalities.
in the F2 generation. Several sex chromosomal abnormalities have
.s
been detected. Eg. Klinefelter’s syndrome and

Turner’s syndrome.
(i) Klinefelter's Syndrome (XXY Males)
w
This genetic disorder is due to the presence

of an additional copy of the X chromosome
resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. Persons
w
with this syndrome have 47 chromosomes

(44AA+XXY). They are usually sterile
males, tall, obese, with long limbs, high
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pitched voice, under developed genitalia

and have feeble breast (gynaecomastia)
development.
(ii) Turner’s Syndrome (XO Females)
Marriage between normal visioned This genetic disorder is due to the loss of
man and colour blind woman
a X chromosome resulting in a karyotype
77

of 45, X. Persons with this syndrome have germplasm of the society by adopting the
45 chromosomes (44 autosomes and one X following measures:
chromosome) (44AA+XO) and are sterile (a) Sexual separation of the defectives
females. Low stature, webbed neck, under (b) Sterilization of the defectives
Chapter 4
developed breast, rudimentary gonads lack (c) Control of immigration and
m
of menstrual cycle during puberty, are the (d) Regulation of marriages
main symptoms of this syndrome. Euphenics:
4. Discuss the methods adopted for the The symptomatic treatment of genetic disease of
co
improvement of human race. man is called Euphenics or Medical engineering.
In 1960, Joshua Lederberg coined the term
Ans. The methods adopted for the improvement of
Euphenics. It means normal appearing. It
human beings are
deals with the control of several inherited
(i) Eugenics human diseases especially the inborn errors of
s.
(ii) Euthenics metabolism. Eg. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
(iii) Euphenics
Euthenics:
Eugenics: The science of improvement of existing
ok
Application of the laws of genetics for the human race by improving the environmental
improvement of human race is called eugenics. conditions is called euthenics. It can be achieved
The term eugenics means “well born” and by subjecting them to better nutrition, better
was coined by Francis Galton in 1885. For the unpolluted ecological conditions, better
betterment of future generations it is necessary education and sufficient medical facilities.
o
to increase the population of outstanding people
5. Write a note on any 2 Mendelian disorders
and to decrease the population of abnormal and
occurring in human beings.
ab
defective people by applying the principles of

eugenics. Ans. The Mendelian disorders in human beings are
Two methods of Eugenics (a) Thalassemia
(i) Constructive method or Positive eugenics (b) Sickle cell anaemia
(ii) Restrictive method or Negative eugenics (c) Huntington chorea
ur
(i) Positive eugenics: Positive eugenics (d) Phenylketonuria

attempts to increase consistently better (e) Albinism
or desirable germplasm and to preserve Thalassemia:
.s
the best germplasm of the society. The (i) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive
desirable traits can be increased by disorder. It is caused by gene mutation
adopting the following measures: resulting in excessive destruction of
(a) Early marriage of those having RBC’s due to the formation of abnormal
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desirable traits haemoglobin molecules. Normally

(b) Subsiding the fit and establishing haemoglobin is composed of four
sperm and egg banks of precious polypeptide chains, two alpha and two
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germplasm beta globin chains.

(c) Educating the basic principles of (ii) Thalassemia patients have defects in either
genetics and eugenics the alpha or beta globin chain causing the
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(d) Improvement of production of abnormal haemoglobin

environmentalconditions molecules resulting in anaemia.
(e) Promotion of genetic research (iii) Thalassemia is classified into alpha and
(ii) Negative eugenics: Negative Eugenics beta based on which chain of haemoglobin
attempts to eliminate the defective molecule is affected. It is controlled by two
78

closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on 1. Down’s Syndrome/Trisomy – 21:
chromosome 16. Mutation or deletion Trisomic condition of chromosome - 21 results
of one or more of the four alpha gene in Down’s syndrome. It is characterized by severe
alleles causes Alpha Thalassemia. In Beta mental retardation, defective development of
Thalassemia, production of beta globin the central nervous system, increased separation
chain is affected. It is controlled by a single between the eyes, flattened nose, ears are
m
gene (HBB) on chromosome 11. It is the malformed, mouth is constantly open and the
most common type of Thalassemia and is tongue protrudes.

also known as Cooley’s anaemia. In this 2. Patau’s Syndrome/Trisomy-13:
co
disorder the alpha chain production is
(i) Trisomic condition of chromosome
increased and damages the membranes of
13 results in Patau’s syndrome. Meiotic
RBC.
non disjunction is thought to be the cause
Huntington’s chorea: for this chromosomal abnormality.
(i) It is inherited as an autosomal dominant
s.
(ii) It is characterized by multiple and severe
lethal gene in man. body malformations as well as profound
(ii) It is characterized by involuntary jerking mental deficiency. Small head with small
of the body and progressive degeneration eyes, cleft palate, malformation of the
ok
of the nervous system, accompanied by brain and internal organs are some of the
gradual mental and physical deterioration. symptoms of this syndrome.
(iii) The patients with this disease usually die b. Allosomal abnormalities in humanbeings:
between the age of 35 and 40.
Mitotic or meiotic non-disjunction of sex
o
6. Write notes on chromosomal abnormalities chromosomes causes allosomal abnormalities.
in human beings. (or) What is aneuploidy? Several sex chromosomal abnormalities have
ab
Explain it. been detected. Eg. Klinefelter’s syndrome and

Ans. In human beings the diploid (2n) body cell has
Turner’s syndrome.
46 chromosomes (23 pairs). 1. Klinefelter’s Syndrome (XXY Males):
(i) chromosomal abnormalities are caused This genetic disorder is due to the presence
of an additional copy of the X chromosome
ur
by errors is the number or structure of

chromosome. resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. Persons
(ii) Failure of chromatids to segregate during with this syndrome have 47 chromosomes
cell division resulting in the gain or loss (44AA+XXY). They are usually sterile males,
tall, obese, with long limbs, high pitched voice,
.s
of of one or more choromosomes called

aneuploidy. It is caused by the non- under developed genitalia and have feeble breast
disjunction of chromosomes. (gynaecomastia) development.
(iii) There abnormalities causes various
w
2. Turner’s Syndrome (XO Females):

syndromes in human beings. They are This genetic disorder is due to the lossof a
X chromosome resulting in a karyotype of
Aneuploidy
45, X. Persons with this syndrome have 45
w
Autosomal Allosomal chromosomes (44 autosomes and one X

aneuploidy aneuploidy chromosome) (44AA+XO) and are sterile
females. Low stature, webbed neck, under
w
developed breast, rudimentary gonads lack of

1. D own’s 1. K linefelter’s Syndrome menstrual cycle during puberty, are the main
Syndrome/ (XXY Males) symptoms of this syndrome.
Trisomy – 21 2. Turner’s Syndrome
2. Patau’s Syndrome/ (XO Females)
Trisomy-13
79
Unit Test
Chapter 4
I. Choose the Correct Answer. 10 × 1 = 10
m
1. ZW – ZZ system of sex determination occurs (a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation
in __________. of A
(a) Fishes (b) Reptiles (b) A and R are true, R is not the correct
co
(c) Birds (d) All of these explanation of A
2. Which of the following phenotypes are possible (c) A is true, R is false
in offspring from the parental combination A (d) Both A and R are false
X O? 9. Choose the mismatched pair:
s.
(a) A and B (b) O only (i) SRY - X Chromosome
(c) A only (d) A and O (ii) Heterogametic - XX–XO
3. Klinefelters syndrome is characterized by female
(iii) Barr body - Sex Chromatin
ok
(a) XYY (b) XO
(iv) Rh factor - Landsteiner
(c) XXY (d) XXX
(a) i and iv (b) ii and iii and iv
4. In gypsy moth we find __________ type of sex (c) ii only (d) i and ii
determination.
10. Choose the correct statement:
o
(a)ZW - ZZ (b) ZO - ZZ
(i) Y linked genes are transmitted from
(c) XX - XY (d) XX - XO
mother to son.
ab
5. Y – Chromosome was discovered by ________. (ii) People with IA IO gene type have O blood
(a) stevens (b) Henking group.
(c) Bertram (d) Sonneborn (iii) Human Y chromosome is shorter than
X chromosome
6. Red – green colour blindness is also called (iv) Fertilized eggs develop into Drones
ur
____________. (a) i,iv (b) ii,iii,iv

(a) daltonism (b) glucoma (c) i and iii (d) iii only
(c) myopia (d) presbyopia
II. Very Short Answer 2×2 = 4
.s
7. 1. Karyotyping A. Metaphase
11. Define eugenics.
2. XO females B. Barr body
3. 3n female C. Aneuploidy 12. What is criss cross inheritance?
4. Lyon D. Bridges
w
III. Short Answer 2×3 = 6

(a) 1-A 2-C 3-D 4-B
13. List any three applications of karyotype
(b) 1-C 2-B 3-D 4-A
(c) 1-B 2-D 3-A 4-C 14. What is trisomy 21?
w
(d) 1-C 2-A 3-D 4-B IV. Long Answer 1×5 = 5

8. Mark the correct answer as 15. Write a note on genetic control of ABO Blood
groups.
w
Assertion (A): The Kappa in paramecium

appears to be a bacterium (OR)
Reason (R): Kappa particles are not dependent Write a note on Thalassemia
on the chromosomal genes.

80

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MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

Strobilation : A special type of transverse fission giving rise to number of individuals.

: Fusion of male & female gametes.

: Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization.

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

Simple irregular fission

Multiple fission Repeated fission

Parthenogenesis Complete parthenogenesis

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

 [Ans. (c) Sexual] individual without fertilization is known as

is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as Artificial Parthenogenesis.

correct explanation for A. Ans. (i) Reproduction is a biological process by

(ii) Sexual Reproduction can only bring about

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

the parental organism divides into two parthenogenesis.

from a single progenitor cell or organism 16 chromosomes. Honey bees show

their parents and are hence called clones.

called parthenogenetic animals

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

be got by regeneration type of regeneration

Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark

I. Choose the Correct options 3. Multiple fission is seen in ________

(b) Plasmodium and paramecium

(c) Plasmodium (d) Euglena  [Ans. (d) Vorticella and plasmodium]

reproduction seen is __________ (a) Plasmodium

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

(a) Mammals and birds

11. Autogamy is seen in __________

[Ans. (a) Paramecium]

(a) Autogamy (b) Syngamy

13. Conjugation is a type of ________

(c) External fertilization

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

[Ans. (a) Frogs] (b) Liver fluke

6. Regeneration was first studied by ______ 

(c) Hydra (d) Aurelia

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

(a) planula larvae of enidarians

(c) paedogenesis (d) Amphitoky

develop into individuals of any sex.

(c) budding (d) plasmotomy

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

3. [Ans. (b) 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A]

VI. Identify the correct options

B Identify the correct option to label the diagram

(a) 1-C 2-E 3-A 4-D 5- B

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

1. i. Shark - placenta 1. (a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium

ii. Taenia solium - Regeneration (c) Vorticella (d) Hydra

(c) Human being (d) Cow

3. i. Hologamy - Fusion of nature 3. The eggs are covered by a membrane in ____

morphologically different  [Ans. epimorphosis]

iv. Isogamy - Fusion of dissimilar 6. Division of cytoplasm is called ________

Sura’s ➠ XII Std - Zoology

paramecium? 10. What is exogamy?

[Ans. (c) Sexual] individual without fertilization is known as

(c) Plasmodium (d) Euglena [Ans. (d) Vorticella and plasmodium]

[Ans. (a) Paramecium]

[Ans. (a) Frogs] (b) Liver fluke

6. Regeneration was first studied by ______

(c) Hydra (d) Aurelia

(c) paedogenesis (d) Amphitoky

(c) budding (d) plasmotomy

3. [Ans. (b) 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-E 5-A]

3. i. Hologamy - Fusion of nature 3. The eggs are covered by a membrane in ____

morphologically different [Ans. epimorphosis]

iv. Isogamy - Fusion of dissimilar 6. Division of cytoplasm is called ________

Reason : Placentas is formed to transfer

(c) Dysmenorrhoea - irregularity of