Acet Compiler Final

ACET ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
ACET
COMPILER
VANDITA SARDA 1 JAI SHREE SHYAM

CA PRAVEEN PATWARI | 8100598543
INDEX
Sl. No. Name Page No.

SECTION 1 - MATHEMATICS
1 Relations and Functions 1-6
2 Arithmetic and Geometric Progressions 7-15
3 Limits 16-34
4 Derivatives 35-43
5 Integration 44-62
6 Vectors 63-69
7 Matrices 70-76
8 Miscellaneous 77-118
SECTION 2 - STATISTICS
9 Central Tendency and Dispersion 119-132
10 Probability, Permutations and Combinations 133-147
11 Discrete Random Variables and Distributions 148-190
12 Continuous Random Variables and Distributions 191-215
13 Correlation and Regression 216-220
SECTION 3 - DATA INTERPRETATION
14 Data Interpretation 221-264
SECTION 4 – ENGLISH
15 Synonyms and Antonyms 265-291
16 One Word Substitution 292-304

ACET RELATIONS AND FUNCTION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
17 Analogies 305-311
18 Idioms 312-317
19 Spotting Errors 318-343
20 Active and Passive 344-346
21 Sentence Improvements 347-351
22 Sentence Rearrangement 352-365
23 Comprehension 366-375
SECTION 5 - LOGICAL REASONING
24 Clock 376-382
25 Calendar 383-386
26 Syllogism 387-399
27 Seating Arrangement 400-415
28 Blood Relations 416-421
29 Sequence and Series 422-425
30 Statement and Assumptions 426-431
31 Miscellaneous 432-444

SECTION 1
MATHEMATICS

RELATIONS AND FUNCTION

a x −1
Q1. The function f x = x is odd or even?
a x +1
Ans. f(x) is an even function.
Q2. The domain of the function f x = x − 1 − x 2 is

1 1
(a) −1, − 2
∪ 2
,1
(b) [−1,1]
1 1
(c) −∞, 2 ∪ 2
, +∞
1
(d) 2
,1
Ans. (d)
Q3. The range of the function f x = 3x 2 − 4x + 5 is
11
(a) −∞,
3
11
(b) −∞,
3
11
(c) 3
,∞
11
(d) 3
,∞
Ans. (c)
x−a
Q4. Let f: R → R be defined by f x = x−b , where a ≠ b. Then f is
(a) Injective but not surjective
(b) Surjective but not injective

(c) Bijective
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q5. If the function f: −∞, ∞ → B defined by f x = −x 2 + 6x − 8 is bijective, then B =
(a) 1, ∞
(b) −∞, 1
(c) −∞. ∞
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
1−x 1
Q6. If f x = ; x ≠ 0 then f f x + f f
1+x x
(a) <2
(b) ≥ 2
(c) =2
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q7. If f is an even function and g is an odd function, then the function fog is
(a) An even function
(b) An odd function
(c) Neither even nor odd
(d) A periodic function
Ans. (a)

1
Q8. The inverse of the function y = 1 − x − 3 4 7
is
1
(a) 3 + 1 − x7 4
1
(b) 3 − 1 − x 7 4
1
(c) 3 − 1 + x7 4
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
1−x
Q9. If f x = the domain of f −1 (x) is
1+x
(a) R
(b) R − −1
(c) (−∞ , −1)
(d) (−1, ∞ )
Ans. (b)
Q10. Let f be a function with domain [-3,5] and let g x = |3x + 4|, then the domain of (fog)(x) is
1
(a) −3, 3
1
(b) −3, 3
1
(c) −3,
3
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q11. Assume that A = {1, 2, 3, … ,14}. Define a relation R from A to A by R = {(x, y) ∶ 3x – y = 0, such
that x, y ∈ A}. Determine and write down its range, domain, and codomain.
Ans. Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4}

Codomain of R = A = {1, 2, 3, … ,14}
Range of R is given by = {3, 6, 9, 12}
Q12. Let f(x) = x2 and g(x) = 2x + 1 be two real functions.
Find 𝐟 + 𝐠 𝐱 , (𝐟 – 𝐠) (𝐱), (𝐟𝐠) (𝐱), (𝐟/𝐠 ) (𝐱)
Ans. (f + g) (x) = x 2 + 2x + 1
(f – g) (x) = x 2 − (2x + 1) = x 2 – 2x – 1
(fg) (x) = x 2 (2x + 1) = 2x 3 + x 2
(f/g) (x) = x 2 /(2x + 1), x ≠ −1/2
Q13. If f: R → R is defined by f(x) = x 2 − 3x + 2, find f(f(x)).
Ans. f(f(x)) = x 4 – 6x 3 + 10x 2 – 3x
Q14. Let f ∶ N → Y be a function defined as f(x) = 4x + 3, where, Y = {y ∈ N: y = 4x + 3 for some x ∈

N}. Find its inverse.
x –3
Ans. 4
x− 2
Q15. Let A = R {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f: A → B defined by f x = x −3 . Is f one-one
and onto?
Ans. Both one one and onto
Q16. If R = x, y : x + 2y = 8 is a relation on N, then write the range of R.
Ans. Range = {3,2,1}
x−1
Q17. What is the range of the function f x = , x ≠ 1?
x−1
Ans. Range = {-1,1}

1
Q18. If f x = 27x 3 and g x = x 3 , then find gof(x).
Ans. gof x = 3x
Q19. State whether the function f: N → N given by f x = 5x is injective, surjective or both.
Ans. Only injective
Q20. If A = 1,2,3, … ,9 and R be the relation in A × A defined by a, b R c, d . If a + d = b + c for

a, b , c, d in A × A. Prove that R is an equivalence relation. Also, obtain the equivalence class
[(2,5)].
Ans. Equivalence class[(2,5)] = {(1,4), (2,5), (3,6), (4,7), (5,8), (6,9)}
Q21. Show that the function f in

2 4x+3
A=R− defined as f x = is one-one and onto. Hence, find f −1 .
3 6x−4
3+4y 3+4x
Ans. x = f −1 y = 6y−4 ⇒ f −1 x = 6x−4
Q22. Given A = {2,3}, B = {4,5}, C = {5,6} then A x (B∩C) is
(a) {(2,5),(3,5)}
(b) {(5,2),(5,3)}
(c) {(2,3),(5,5)}
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

ACET ARITHMETIC AND GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
ARITHMETIC AND GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION

1. The nth element of the sequence 1,3, 5, 7,…… is
(a) n
(b) 2n – 1
(c) 2n + 1
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2. The nth element of the sequence -1, 2, –4, 8,….. is
(a) (-1)n 2n-1
n 1
(b) 2
n
(c) 2
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
7
3.  2i  1 can be written as
i 4
(a) 7  9  11  13
(b) 2 7  2 9  2 11  2 13
(c) 2 7  2 9  2 11  2 13
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4. The sum  of the series –5, 25, –125, 625, ….. can be written as

  5
k
(a)
k 1

5
k
(b)
k 1


 5
k
(c)
k 1
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
2
5. The first three terms of sequence when nth term t n is n  2n are
(a) –1, 0, 3
(b) 1, 0, 2
(c) –1, 0, –3
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. Which term of the progression –1, –3, –5, ….. is –39
(a) 21st
(b) 20th
(c) 19th
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. The value of x such that 8x + x, 6x –2, 2x + 7 will form an AP is
(a) 15
(b) 2
(c) 15/2
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
th th th
8. The m term of an A. P. is n and n term is m. The r term of it is
(a) m+n+r
(b) n + m –2r

(c) m + n + r/2
(d) m + n – r
Ans. (d)
2 1
9. The number of the terms of series 10  9  9  9  ………….. will amount to 155 is
3 3
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) none of these
Ans. (a) or (b)

2
10. The n term of the series whose sum to n terms is 5n  2n is
th
(a) 3n – 10
(b) 10n – 2
(c) 10n – 3
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
11. The 20th term of the progression 1, 4, 7, 10,…………….. is
(a) 58
(b) 52
(c) 50
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
12. The last term of the A.P. 0.6, 1.2, 1.8,........ to 13 terms is
(a) 8.7
(b) 7.8
(c) 7.7
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
13. The sum of the series 9, 5, 1,.... to 100 terms is
(a) –18,900
(b) 18,900
(c) 19,900
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
14. The two arithmetic means between – 6 and 14 is
(a) 2/3,1/3
1
(b) 2/3, 7
3
1
(c) –2/3, –7
3
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
15. The sum of three integers in AP is 15 and their product is 80. The integers are
(a) 2, 8, 5
(b) 8, 2, 5
(c) 2, 5, 8
(d) 8, 5, 2
Ans. (c), (d)

2
16. The sum of n terms of an AP is 3n  5n . The series is
(a) 8, 14, 20, 26
(b) 8, 22, 42, 68

(c) 22, 68,114, ......

(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. The number of numbers between 74 and 25,556 divisible by 5 is
(a) 5,090
(b) 5,097
(c) 5,095
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
18. The pth term of an AP is (3p – l)/6. The sum of the first n terms of the AP is
(a) n (3n + 1)
(b) n (3n + 1)/12
(c) n/12 (3n – 1)
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
19. t 8 of the series 6, 12, 24, …..is
(a) 786
(b) 768
(c) 867
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
20. t12 of the series –128, 64, –32, ......is
(a) –1/16
(b) 16
(c) 1/16
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
21. The sum upto infinity of the series (1+2-2)+(2-1+2-4)+(2-2+2-6)+... is
(a) 7/3
(b) 3/7
(c) 4/7
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
22. The last term of the series 1, –3,9, –27 up to 7 terms is
(a) 297
(b) 729
(c) 927
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2
23. The last term of the series x , x, 1,.... to 31 terms is
28
(a) x
(b) 1/x
28
(c) 1/ x
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
24. The sum of the series –2, 6, –18,.... to 7 terms is
(a) –1094
(b) 1094
(c) –1049
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
25. The sum of the series 243, 81, 27, .... to 8 terms is
(a) 36
 13 
(b)  36 
 30 
1
(c) 36
9
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
26. The second term of a G P is 24 and the fifth term is 81. The series is
(a) 16, 36, 24, 54,…
(b) 24, 36, 53,...
(c) 16, 24, 36, 54,…
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
27. The sum of 3 numbers of a G P is 39 and their product is 729. The numbers are
(a) 3, 27, 9
(b) 9, 3, 27
(c) 3, 9, 27
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
28. In a G. P, the product of the first three terms is 27/8. The middle term is
(a) 3/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 2/5
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
29. If you save 1 paise today, 2 paise the next day 4 paise the succeeding day and so on, then your total
savings in two weeks will be
(a) Rs. 163
(b) Rs. 183
(c) Rs. 163.83
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
30. Sum of n terms of the series 4 + 44 + 444 + ... is
(a) 4/9 {10/9(10n - 1) - n}
(b)  n
10 / 9 10  1  n 
(c)  n
4 / 9 10  1  n 
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
31. Sum of n terms of the series 0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111 + ... is
(a)  
1/ 9 n  1   0.1
n

(b)  
1/ 9 n  1   0.1
n
 / 9
n  1   0.1 / 9
n
(c)
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
32. The sum of the first 20 terms of a G. P is 244 times the sum of its first 10 terms. The common ratio is
(a)  3
(b) 3

(c) 3
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
33. The numbers x, 8, y are in GP and numbers x, y, -8 are in AP. What are the values for x and y
(a) 16,4
(b) 4,16
(c) both
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
34. The product of 3 numbers in G P is 729 and the sum of squares is 819. The numbers are
(a) 9, 3, 27
(b) 27, 3, 9
(c) 3, 9, 27
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
35. The sum of the series 1+2 + 4 + 8 +.... to n term

n
(a) 2 1
(b) 2n  1
n
(c) 1/ 2  1
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
36. The sum of all natural numbers between 500 and 1000, which are divisible by 13, is
(a) 28,400
(b) 28,405

(c) 28,410
(d) None
Ans. (b)
37. The sum of all natural numbers between 100 and 300, which are divisible by 4 or 5, is
(a) 10200
(b) 8200
(c) 2200
(d) 16200
Ans. (d)

ACET LIMITS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
LIMITS
QUESTION 1.
log 1  a x   log 1  b x 
Lt is equal to
x 0 x
A. a +b
B. log a + log b
C. log a – log b
D. a–b
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
lim x  0 In 1  ax   / x  a
lim x  0 In 1  ax   / ax  a
and then :
lim x  0 In 1  ax    In 1  bx    / x
ab
QUESTION 2.
1  cos x
Lt is equal to
x 0 1  x 1
A. 1
B. 0

C. 1/2
D. none of these
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
On rationalizing,
Lt x    0 1  Cosx  /  1  x   1

 It x    0 2sin  x /2  1  x   1 / x

2

 It x    0 2sin  x /2 / x  .sin x /2  1  x   1


 2.1/2.01  1  0
QUESTION 3.
Let f (x) = x sin 1/x, x  0, then the value of the function at x = 0, so that f is continuous at x = 0, is
A. 2
B. 1
C. –1
D. 0
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
f  0  lim  x  0 x sin 1/ x 
We know  x  R,sin 1/ x   1,1
Hence, f  0  lim  x  0 x sin 1/ x 
0
QUESTION 4.
x log 1  x 
Lt is equal to
x 0 1  con x
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1/2
D. none of these
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
lim x  0 1  cos x  /  x log 1  x  
 
 lim x  0 2sin x /2 /  x log 1  x  
2
 lim x  02sin x /2/  x /2  * /1/ 4 / 1/ x log 1  x  

2 2
 lim x  0 log 1  x  / x  1/2
2
QUESTION 5.
Lt
 1  x n  1
is
x 0 x
A. n
B. n–1
C. (n + 1)
D. –n

SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:Consider the given function.

lim x  0 1  x   1)/ x
n

This is 0/0 form.
So, apply L-Hospital rule,
lim x  0 n 1  x   0) /1

n 1
 

lim x  0 n 1  x 
n 1

 n
QUESTION 6.
tan x  x
Lt 2
is equal to
x 0 x tan x
A. 1
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 0
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
lim  x  0   tanx  x  / x tanx

2
As we know that tan x = sinx/cosx
lim  x  0  sinx / cosx  x  / x  sinx / cosx 

2


lim  x  0  sinx  xcosx  / x sinx
2


lim  x  0 cosx   xsinx  cosx  / x cosx  sinx  2x 
2

lim  x  0   cosx  xsinx cosx  / x cosx  2xsinx )
2
lim  x  0 sinx /  xcosx  2sinx 
Hence it is 0/0 form, apply L hospital rule
lim  x   cosx /  xsinx  cosx  2cosx 
 1/(0 +1+2)
= 1/3
QUESTION 7.
2
x cos x
lim is
x 0 1  cos x
A. 2
B. 3/2
C. –3/2
D. 1
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
limx--  0  x  /1  cosx 
2cosx-
Differentiating numerator and denominator

limx--  0 2xcosx  x
2sinx
 / sinx
Differentiating it for a second time

limx--  0 2cos  2xsinx  2xsinx  x
2cosx
 / cosx
Substituting x = 0
= lim x-->0 2/1
=2
QUESTION 8.
sin x  x
Lt 3
is equal to
x 0 x
A. 1/6
1
B. 
3
1
C. 
6
D. 0
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Suppose that the Reqd. Limit L  lim x  0  sinx  x  / x .

3
Substitute x  3y , so that, as x  0 , y  0 .
L  lim y  0 sin3y  3y / 3y  ,

3
 lim y  0 3siny  4sin3y   3y)/ 27y ,

3

 lim y  0 3 siny  y  /27y )  4sin y /27y
3
 3 3
 ,
 L  lim y  0 1/ 9*  siny  y  / y )  4 / 27 *  siny / y  ...  * 
3 3

Note that, here,
 lim y  0  siny  y  / y )
3
 lim x  0  sinx  x  / x )  L .
3
Therefore,  *   L  1/ 9*L  4 /27
or, 8/9L= –4/27
Hence, L = –4/27*9/8
= –1/6
QUESTION 9.
sin  x  h   sin x
2 2
Lt is equal to
x 0 h
A. 2 sin x
B. sin 2 x
C. sin x cos x
2
D. cos x
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
lim  h  0 sin  x  h   sin x  / h

2 2
 
I  lim  h  0  2sin  x  h  cos  x  h   /1
{As we know that sin2x = 2sinxcosx
= sin2x

QUESTION 10.
If k be an integer, then Lt   x   x  is equal to

xk
A. 1
B. –1
C. 0
D. none of these
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
lim x--  k   x  x
Limx  k  k  k
=0
QUESTION 11.
x a
Lt is equal to
x a

x a
A. –1
B. 0
C. 1
D. none of these
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: lt  x-  a-   x  a / x  a

  a  a /  a  a 
  2a /  2a 
= –2a/(–2a)
=1
QUESTION 12.
x
Lt 
x 0 16 x  4
A. is equal to 0
B. is equal to 8
C. does not exist
D. none of these
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
x/ 16  x   4
=  x *

16  x   4  / 


16  x  4  * 

 
 16  x 4 


=  x *

16  x   4 /16  x 16

= 16  x  4 
now at lim x->0
= 16  4 = 8

QUESTION 13.
2 x
The value of the limit Lim x 0 (cos x)cot is
A. 1
1/2
B. e
C. e
1/2
D. e
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Given, Lim x 0  cos x  cot x

2
2
 Lim x 0 (1  cosx  1)cot x
2
 eLim x 0 (cos x  1)  cot x
2
=  eLim x 0 (cos x  1)  tan x
1/2
=e
QUESTION 14.
The values of p and q for which the function
 sin p  1 x  sin x
   , x 0
 x

f  x   q , x  0 is continuous for all x in R, are
 2
 xx  x
 3/2
, x 0
 x

5 1
A. p  ,q 
2 2
3 1
B. p   ,q 
2 2
1 3
C. p  ,q 
2 2
1 3
D. p  ,q  
2 2
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
sin  p  1 h   sin  h 

L.H.L  lim f  x   lim
x 0

h0 h
 sin  p  1  h sin  h 
 lim   p11  p2
x 0

h h
1  h 1
R.H.L  lim f  x   lim
x 
*
h0 h
1 1
 lim 
h0
 1 h 1  2
3 1
and f 0  q  p  ,q 
2 2
QUESTION 15.
Let f: R  R be a function defined by f (x) = min {x + 1, x+ 1} ,Then which of the following is true ?
A. f (x) is differentiable everywhere
B. f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0

C. f (x)  1 for all x  R
D. f (x) is not differentiable at x = 1
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
f  x   min x  1,| x| 1  f  x   x  1  x  R
Hence, f (x) is differentiable everywhere for all x G R.
QUESTION 16.
1
Suppose f(x) is differentiable at x = 1 and lim f 1  h   5, then f ' 1 equals
h0 h
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
f 1  h   f 1 
f ' 1   lim
h0 h
f 1  h 
As function is differentiable so it is continuous as it is given that lim  5 and hence f(1) = 0
h 0 h
f 1  h 
Hence f ' 1   lim 5
h 0 h
QUESTION 17.
  1  1 

If f  x   xe 
|x| x 
, x  0 then f(x) is
0 , x 0

A. discontinuous every where
B. continuous as well as differentiable for all x
C. continuous for all x but not differentiable at x = 0
D. neither differentiable nor continuous at x = 0
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
 1 1
  
f  0  0; f  x   xe  |x| x 
h
R.H.L. lim  0  h  e
2/h
 lim 0
h0 h 0 e2/h
1 1
  
L.H.L. lim  0  h  e h h
0
h0

1 1
  
R.H.D. lim
0  h  e h h
0
0
h0 h
1 1
  
L.H.D. lim
0  h  e h h
0
1
h0 h
therefore, L.H.D.  R.H.D.
f(x) is not differentiable at x = 0.
QUESTION 18.
2
Let a and b be the distinct roots of ax  bx  c  0 , then lim
 2
1  cos ax  bx  c  is equal to
x 
 x   2
2
a
A.   2
2
B. 0
2
a
C.    2
2
1
D.   2
2
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
1  cosa  x    x   
Given limit = lim
x 
 x   2
2   x    x   
2sin  a 
 2 
 lim
x 
x  2

2   x    x    
sin  a  2
a  x     x  
2 2
2  2 
 lim  2 
 
x  x   2 a  x     x  
2 2
4
4
a  x  
2 2

2
QUESTION 19.
2
x
2
 sec tdt
0
The value of lim is
x 0 x sin x
A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
2
x
d 2
dx 0 sec tdt 2 2
sec x .2x
lim  lim (byL’Hospital rule)
x 0 d
 x sin x  x0 sin x  x con x
dx
2 2
2sec x 2 1
 lim  1
x 0  sin x  11
 x  cos x 
 

QUESTION 20.
f is defined in [–5, 5] as f(x) = x if x is rational = –x if x is irrational. Then
A. f(x) is continuous at every x, except x = 0
B. f(x) is discontinuous at every x, except x = 0
C. f(x) is continuous everywhere
D. f(x) is discontinuous everywhere
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let a is a rational number other than 0, in [–5, 5], then
f  a   a and lim f  x   a
x a
[As in the immediate neighbourhood of a rational number, we find irrational numbers]
f (x) is not continuous at any rational number
If a is irrational number, then
f  a   a and lim f  x   a
x a
 f(x) is not continuous at any irrational number clearly
lim f  x   f 0  0
x 0
 f(x) is continuous at x = 0
QUESTION 21.
xf  2  2f  x 
Let f (x) = 4 and f'  x   4 . Then lim is given by
x 2 x 2
A. 2
B. –2
C. –4
D. 3
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Apply L H Rule
xf  2  2f  x  0
We have, lim 0
x 2 x 2  
 lim f 2  2f '  x   f 2  2f ' 2

x 2
 4  2  4  4
QUESTION 22.
p p p p
1  2  3  .....  n
lim p1
is
n n
1
A.
p1
1
B.
1p
1 1
C. 
p p 1
1
D.
p2
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
p p p p
1  2  3  .....  n
lim p1
is
n n

p p p
1  2  .....  n
We have lim p1
;
n n
1
n  x p1 
r
p 1
1
lim  p   x dx  
p
 
n 
r 1 n .n 0  p  1 0 p 1
QUESTION 23.
x
 x2  5x  3 
Lim  2 
x   x  x  3 
 
4
A. e
2
B. e
3
C. e
D. 1
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
x x
 x2  5x  3   4x  1 
lim  2   lim  1  2 
x   x  x  2  x   x  x 2
 
 4x 1x
 x  x 2  x
2 2
 x 2
 4x  1  4x 1 
 l im  1  2  
x  
 x  x 2 
 
2
lim 4x  x  1

e x
2
 lim
 x  1  x  x e 
x  x 2  
1
4
lim x
x 1 2
1  2
x x 4
e e
QUESTION 24.
1  cos 2x
lim is
x 0 2x
A. 1
B. –1
C. zero
D. does not exist
SOLUTION:
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
lim
1  cos 2x
 lim

1  1  2 sin x
2
;
2x 2x
2
2sin x |sin x|
lim  lim
x 0 2x x 0 x

ACET DERIVATIVES ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
DERIVATIVES
Q1. The definition of the first derivative of a function f (x) is
f  x  x   f  x 
(A) f ' x  
x
f  x  x   f  x 
(B) f ' x  
x
f  x  x   f  x 
(C) f '  x   lim
x 0 x
f  x  x   f  x 
(D) f '  x   lim
x 0 x
SOLUTION:
The Correct Answer is (D)
The definition of the first derivative of the function f (x) is
f  x  x   f  x 
f '  x   lim
x 0 x
Choice (B) is incorrect as it is an approximate method to calculate the first derivative of a function f
(x). In fact, choice (B) is the forward divided difference method of approximately calculating the
first derivative of a function.
3x dy
Q2. Given y  5e  sin x, is
dx
3x
(A) 5e  cos x
3x
(B) 15e  cosx
3x
(C) 15e  cosx
3x
(D) 2.666e  cos x

SOLUTION:
The Correct Answer is (B)
Use the sum rule of differentiation
d du dv
u  v   
dx dx dx
Re-write the function as
y=u+v
where
3x
u  5e
v  sin x
du dv
Find and
dx dx
d
dx
 
3x
5e  15e
3x
 
 d ax ax 
 dx e  ae 
 
d  d 
 sin x   cos x  dx  sin x   cos x 
dx  
dy du dv
 
dx dx dx
3x
 15e  cos x
dy
Q3. Given y  sin2x, at x  3 is most nearly
dx
(A) 0.9600
(B) 0.9945
(C) 1.920
(D) 1.989

SOLUTION:
The Correct Answer is (C)
Using the chain rule
u  2x
y  sin u
du
2
dx
dy
 cos u
du
 cos2x
Since,
dy dy du
 
dx du dx
dy
  cos2x   2
dx
At x = 3
dy
  cos6  2 (Don’t forget to use radians)
dx
= 0.9602 × 2
=1.920
3 dy
Q4. Given y  x ln x, is
dx
2
(A) 3x ln x
2 2
(B) 3x ln x  x
2
(C) x
(D) 3x
SOLUTION:
Using the product rule,
d dv du
 uv   u  v
dx dx dx
3
ux
v  ln x
du 2
 3x
dx
dv 1

dx x
Substituting into Equation (1)
dy 3 1 2
 x   ln x  3x
dx x
2 2
 x  3x ln x
The velocity of a body as a function of time is given as v  t   5e

2t
Q5.  4 , where t is in seconds, and v
2
is in m/s. The acceleration in m / s at t = 0.6 s is
(A) –3.012
(B) 5.506
(C) 4.147
(D) –10.00
SOLUTION:
The Correct Answer is (A)
dv
at  
dt

d
dt

2t
5e  4 
 10e
2t
 
 d ax ax 
 dx e  ae 
 
2 0.6 
a  0.6   10e
2
 3.012 m / s
2 2 dy
Q6. If x  2xy  y , then is
dx
xy
(A)
yx
(B) 2x  2y
x 1
(C)
y
(D) x
SOLUTION:
d  2 d d  2
x  2xy   y
dx   dx dx  
dy dy  d dv du 
2x  2x
dx
 2y  2y
dx  dx  uv   u dx  v dx 
 
dy
x  y  y  x
dx
dy x  y

dx y  x
at  0,0  has
1/5
Q7. The curve y  x
(A) a vertical tangent (parallel to y-axis)
(B) a horizontal tangent (parallel to x-axis)

(C) an oblique tangent
(D) no tangent
SOLUTION:
A horizontal tangent (parallel to x-axis)
2 3
Q8. If the curve ay  x  7 and x  y , cut orthogonally at (1,1) then the value of a is
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) –6
(D) 6
SOLUTION:
4
Q9. If y  x  10 and if x changes from 2 to 1.99 what is the change in y
(A) 0.32
(B) 0.032
(C) 5.68
(D) 5.968
SOLUTION:
0.032

The interval on which the function f  x   2x  9x  12x  1 is decreasing is

3 2
Q10.
(A)  1, 
(B) 2, 1
(C) , 2
(D)  1,1
SOLUTION:
2, 1
Q11. Let the f :R  R be defined by f (x) = 2x + cos x, then f
(A) has a minimum at x = 3t
(B) has a maximum, at x = 0
(C) is a decreasing function
(D) is an increasing function
SOLUTION:
is an increasing function
y  x  x  3 decreases for the values of x given by

2
Q12.
(A) 1 < x < 3
(B) x < 0
(C) x > 0
3
(D) 0  x 
2
SOLUTION:
1<x<3
The function f  x   4 sin x  6 sin x  12 sin x  100 is strictly

3 2
Q13.
 3 
(A) increasing in  , 
 2 
 
(B) decreasing in  ,  
2 
   
(C) decreasing in  , 
 2 2
 
(D) decreasing in 0, 
 2
SOLUTION:
   
decreasing in  , 
 2 2
2
Q14. If x is real, the minimum value of x  8x  17 is
(A) –1
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2

SOLUTION:
Q15. The maximum value of sin x. cos x is
1
(A)
4
1
(B)
2
(C) 2
(D) 2 2
SOLUTION:
1
2
x x
Q16. If f  x   and g  x   ,0  x  1 , then in the interval
sin x tan x
(A) both f (x) and g (x) are increasing functions
(B) both f (x) and g (x) are decreasing functions
(C) f(x) is an increasing function
(D) g (x) is an increasing function
SOLUTION:
f(x) is an increasing function

ACET INTEGRATION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
INTEGRATION
Give  2 dx = f  x  + C , then f(x) is

x
Q1.
x
(a) 2
x
(b) 2 log e 2
x
2
(c)
loge 2
x 1
2
(d)
x 1
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
d  2 
x
as  
dx  log e 2 
1 x x
 .2 .loge 2  2
loge 2
1
Q2.  sin2xcos2x dx is equal to
2 2
(a) sin x  cos x  C
(b) –1
(c) tan x  cot x  C
(d) tan x  cot x  C
Answer: (d)

Explanation:
1
 sin2xcos2x dx
2 2
sin x  cos x
 2 2
dx
sin xcos x
 2
  sec x  cosec x dx
2

 tan x  cot x  C
cos 2x – cos 2θ
Q3.  cos x – cos θ
dx is equal to
(a) 2  sin x  x cos    C
(b) 2  sin x  x cos    C
(c) 2  sin x  2x cos    C
(d) 2  sin x  2x cos    C
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 2
2 cos x  cos 
2
dx,
as  cos x  cos 
2
usin g cos 2x  2 cos x  1
 2  cos x  cos   dx
 2sin x  2x . cos   C
2
Q4.  cot x dx is equal to
(a) cot x – x + C
(b) cot x + x + C

(c) –cot x + x + C
(d) –cot x – x + C
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 cosec 
2
 1 dx   cot x  x  C
sin x + cos x 3π 7π
Q5.  1+ sin 2x
dx,
4
<x<
4
is equal to
(a) log |sin x  cos x|
(b) x
(c) log | x|
(d) –x
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
sin x  cos x
as  |sin x  cos x|dx,
   1.dx   x  C
 3 7 
as sin x  cos x  0 for x 
 4 4
sec 7 – 4x  dx = a tan 7 – 4x  + c, then value of a is

2
Q6. If 
(a) 7
(b) –4

(c) 3
1
(d) 
4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
tan 7  4x  1
f sec 7  4x  dx   C   tan 7  4x   C .
2
4 4
3 x
4x + λ4 x 4
Q7. The value of X for which  4 +x
x 4
dx = log |4 + x | is
(a) 1
(b) loge 4
(c) loe4e
(d) 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
3 x
d
as dx
x 4
log |4  x |  x
1
4 x
4
x
 3
. 4 .log e 4  4x  x
4 x
4 
4x  log e 4.4
   log e 4
1 1
dx = sin  ax  + C, then
–1
Q8. If  2 3
4 – 9x
(a) 2
(b) 4

3
(c)
2
2
(d)
3
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
1 1 1 1 1  3x 
 2
dx 
3 2
dx  sin    C
3  2
4  9x 2 2
as 3 x
 
3
 a
2
2
y dt d y
Q9. If x =  and 2
= ay, then value of a is equal to
0 2
1+ 9t dx
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 1
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
dx 1
as 
dy 1  9y
2
dy 2
  1  9y
dx
2
dy 18y dy
 2
 .
dx 2 1  9y
2 dx

2
d y 1 2
 2
 9y . . 1  9y
dx 2
1  9y
 9y
Hence, a = 9
2
x  1– x 
Q10.  e  1+ x2  dx is equal to
x
e
(a) 2
C
1 x
x
e
(b)  2
C
1 x
x
e
(c) C
1  x 
2
2
x
e
(d)  C
1  x 
2
2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 2

x  1  x  2x 
as  e  2 
dx
 1  x2 
   
 
 1x 2x 
 e   2
dx
 
2
1  x 1 x
2 
 
1
f x  2
;
1 x
2x
f ' x  
1  x 
2
2
Using  e f  x   f '  x  dx
x
 e . f x   C
x
x 1
e . 2
C
1 x
π
dx
Q11. 0
2
1+ sin x
is equal to
(a) 0
1
(b)
2
(c) 1
3
(d)
2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:

dx
as 
0
2
 
1  cos   x 
2 

1 2  x
  2 sec    dx
0 2 4 2

 x 2
tan   
1 4 2
 .
2 1

2 0
 x  
  tan     tan   0   1
 4 4  4 
2 dx 2 dx
Q12. Let I1 =  and I2  , then
1
1+ x
2 1 x
(a) I1  I2
(b) I2  I1
(c) I1  I2
(d) I1  2I2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
2 2
we have 1  x  x
 1  x  x for x  1, 2
2
1 1
 
1 x
2 x
2 1 2 dx
 1 2
dx  
1 x
 I1  I2
1 x
a
Q13. If a is such that  xdx  a+ 4, then
0
(a) 0a 4
(b) 2  a  0
(c) a  2 or a  4
(d) 2  a  4
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
a
as 0 x dx  a  4
2
a
 a4
2
2
 a  2a  8  0
  a  1   3
2 2
 3  a  1  3
 2  a  4
1
Q14. The Taylor series expansion of , |z|<1 is
z -2
1 z z z 
2 3
(a)   1    ... 
2  2 4 8 
1 z z z 
2 3
(b)   1    ... 
2  2 4 8 
1 z z z 
2 3
(c)   1    ... 
2  2 4 8 
1 z z z 
2 3
(d) x    1    ... 
2  2 4 8 
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
f ' 0 f ' 0

f  z   f 0   z  0   z  02  ...
1! 2!
1
f  0  
2
1 1 1
f '  0   
 z  22
 2 2
4

2 2 1
f '  0   
 z  2 3
 2 3
4
1 1 1  1 2
f z     z        z  ...
2 4 2  4
2
1 z z
     ...
2 4 8
1 
2 3
z z z
   1     ... 
2  2 4 8 

sin x
Q15. The series expansion of near origin is
x
3
x
(a) 1   ...
3!
3
x
(b) 1  ...
3!
2
x
(c) 1   ...
6
3
x
(d) x  ...
3!
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Given:
sin x
We have to find the series expansion of near origin, or a = 0.
x
Let f(x) = sin x
f(0) = sin (0) = 0,
f'(0) = cos (0) = 1,

f’(0) = –sin(0) = 0,
f”(0) = –1 .... so on
Putting all the values in Taylor series expansion, we get:
Series expansion of sin x will be:

3
x
sin x  x   ...
3!
Therefore the series expansion of near origin will be:

2
sin x x
= 1   ...
x 6
sin x
Q16. The Maclaurin's series expansion of e is
2 4
x x
(a) 1 x   . . . .
2 12
2 4
x x
(b) 1 x   . . . .
2 8
2 4
x x
(c) 1 x   . . . .
2 8
2 4
x x
(d) 1 x   . . . .
2 12
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Substitue in Maclaurin Series

2 3 4
x x x
 0    3  . . . .
sin x
e 1 x 
2 3! 4!
2 4
x x
1 x   . . . .
2 8

Q17. Consider the below data:
x : 0 1 2
f(x) : 4 3 12
2
The value of 0 f  x  dx by Trapezoidal rule will be:
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 9
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
x : 0 1 2
f(x) : 4 3 12
Here: x0  4, x1  3, x2  12, h  1
From equation (1);
2
h
 f  x  dx  2  x0  x2   2 x1 
0
1 22
  4  12  2 3    11
2 2
Q18. For the data,
x : 0 1 2
f(x) : 8 5 6

2 2
the value of 0 f  x  dx by Trapezoidal rule will be:
(a) 92
(b) 75
(c) 123
(d) 42
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
x : 0 1 2
f(x) : 8 5 6
 f  x  
2 : 64 25 36
From the above given data n  2, y0  64, y1  25, y2  36, b  2, a  0
h
b  a 
 2  0  1
Number of intervals 2
By using the Trapezoidal rule we get:

2 2 h 1 150
75
0 f  x   dx 
2
 y 0  y 2  2  y 1    64  36  2 25  
2 2

Q19. Torque exerted on a flywheel over a cycle Is listed in the table.

Flywheel energy
(in J per unit cycle) using Simpson's rule is
Angle (degree) 0 60 120 180 240 300 360
Torque (Nm) 0 1066 –323 0 323 –355 0
(a) 542
(b) 993
(c) 1444
(d) 1986
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Given:
Angle (degree) 0 60 120 180 240 300 360
Torque (Nm) 0 1066 –323 0 323 –355 0
T0 T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6
T
Energy =  Td where  in radians
0
Simpson’s Rule:
xn h
x 0
ydx 
3
 y0  y n   4  y1  y3  y5  . . .  2  y 2  y 4  y 6  . . . 
h
  T0  T6   4  T1  T3  T5   2  T2  T4  
3
 /3
  0  0  4 1066  0  355  2  323  323   992.74
3 
π
tanx
Q20. The value of the integral 0
2
1+ tanx
dx is

(a)
2

(b)
4


(c)
6
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
Explanation:

tanx
Here, we have to find the value of the integral  2
0 1+ tanx
dx

tanx
Let I2 dx...................(1)
0 1+ tanx
b b
As we know that, a f  x  dx  a f a  b  x  dx

cot x
 I2 dx.................(2)
0 1  cot x
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get

tan x cot x 
 2I   2    dx
0 1  tan x 1  cot x 


2

 2I   dx 
0
2
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
π/2 sinx
Q21. The value of the integral 0 sin x + cos x
dx is
(a) 0

(b) 
4

(c)
2

(d)
4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
/2 sin x
Consider, I   dx …. (1)
0 sin x  cosx
 
sin   x 
/2 2 
I dx
0
   
sin   x   cos   x 
2  2 
/2 cosx
I dx ….(2)
0 cosx  sin x
Adding (1) and (2), we have
/2 cos x  sin x
2I   dx
0 cos x  sin x
/2
2I   dx
0

2I   x 02

I
4
x
e
Q22. The value of  e2x – 4dx will be where C is an arbitrary constant.
x
1 e 1
(a) log x C
2 e 1
x
1 2e  1
(b) log x C
3 2e  1

x
1 e 2
(c) log x C
4 e 2
2x
1 e 1
(d) log 2x C
2 e 1
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
x
e
 e2x  4 dx
x
e
 dx
e   2
2 2
x
x
let t = e
x
dt = e dx
dt
  t 2  22
From the standard integral:
dt 1 t a
  t 2  22  4 log t  a  C
x
Put t = e in the above equation, we get:
x x
e 1 e 2
 e2x  4dx  4 log ex  2  C
sin x
Q23. Evaluate:  cosx 3 dx
(a) tan x  sin x  c
2x
tan
(b) C
2
2x
sin
(c) C
2
(d) 
log cos x  c
2

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
sin x
Let I   dx
cosx 3
2
  tan x sec x dx
Let tan x = t
2
 sec x dx  dt
Therefore, the integral becomes.
  t dt
2
t
 C
2
Re-substitute 1 = tan x.
Thus,
2
tan x
 C
2
 4
Q24. Evaluate: 1 x
4
dx
2
(a)
3
4
(b)
3

1
(c)
3
(d) None of above
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 4
I 4
dx
1
x
 4
  4X dx
1

 4X 3 
 
 3 1

4  1 

3  x3 1
4  1 1 
 
3   1 
4

3
0  1
4

3

ACET VECTORS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
VECTORS
Q1. The position vector of the point (1,0,2) is
  
(a) i  j  2k
 
(b) i 2j
 
(c) 2  3k
 
(d) i  2k
 
Answer: (d) i +2k
  
Q2. The modulus of 7i  2J  k
(a) 10
(b) 55
3
(c) 6
(d) 6
3
Answer: (c) 6
  
Q3. If O be the origin and OP  2iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ  4kˆ and OQ  5iˆ  4jˆ  3kˆ ,then PQ is equal to
(a) 7iˆ  7jˆ  7kˆ
(b) 3iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
(c) 7iˆ  7jˆ  7kˆ
(d) 3iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
Answer: (d) 3iˆ + ˆj+ kˆ

Q4. The scalar product of 5iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ and 3iˆ  4jˆ  7kˆ is
(a) 10
(b) –10
(c) 5
(d) –15
Answer: (b) –10

Q5. If a.b  0, then
(a) ab
 
(b) ab
 
(c) a b0
 
(d) a b0
Answer: (a) a  b
 
Q6. ij
(a) 0
(b) 1

(c) k

(d) k
Answer: (a) 0
 
Q7. k j 
(a) 0
(b) 1

(c) i

(d) i

Answer: (d) – i

Q8. a.a 
(a) 0
(b) 1
2
(c) a

(d) a
2
Answer: (c) a
          
Q9.   
If a  i  j  2k and b  3i  2j  k then the value of a  3b 2a  b 
(a) 15
(b) –15
(c) 16
(d) –18
Answer: (b) –15

   
Q10. If a  26, b  7 and a  b  35 , then a.b 
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer: (b) 7
       
Q11. If a  i  2j  3k and b  3i  2j  k , then cos  =
6
(a)
7
5
(b)
7

4
(c)
7
1
(d)
2
5
Answer: (b)
7
Q12. Unit vector perpendicular to each of the vector 3iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ and 2iˆ  2jˆ  4kˆ is
î  ˆj  kˆ
(a)
3
î  ˆj  kˆ
(b)
3
î  ˆj  kˆ
(c)
3
î  ˆj  kˆ
(d)
3
iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
Answer: (c)
3
        
Q13. If 2i  j  k, 6i  j  2k and 14i  5j  4k be the position vector of the points A, B and C respectively,
then
(a) The A, B and C are collinear
(b) A, B and C are not colinear

 
(c) AB  BC
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) The A, B and C are collinear

   
Q14. 
Which one of the following can be written for a  b  a  b  
 
(a) ab
 
(b) 2a  b
2 
(c) a b
 
(d) 2b  b
 
Answer: (b) 2a×b
         
Q15. If OA  2i  j  k,OB  i  3j  5k then OA  OB| 
  
(a) 8 j  11 j  5k
(b) 210
(c) sin 
(d) 40
Answer: (b) 210

   
Q16. If a  b  a  b  1 then a  b is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 0
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) 3
 
Q17. If a  î  ˆj  k, ˆ c  3iˆ  pjˆ  5kˆ are coplanar then P =
ˆ b  î  2jˆ  k,
(a) 6
(b) –6

(c) 2
(d) –2
Answer: (a) 6
Q18. The distance of the point (– 3,4, 5) from the origin
(a) 50
(b) 5 2
(c) (c)6
(d) (d) None of these
Answer: (b) 5 2

Q19. If AB  2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ and the co-ordinates of A are (1,2, –1) then coordinate of B are
(a) (2, 2, –3)
(b) 3, 2, –4)
(c) (4, 2,–1)
(d) (3, 3, –4)
Answer: (b) (3, 3, –4)
Q20. The vector in the direction of the vector î  2jˆ  2kˆ that has magnitude 9 is
(a) î  2jˆ  2kˆ
î  2jˆ  2kˆ
(b)
3
(c) 
3 î  2jˆ  2kˆ 
(d) 
9 î  2jˆ  2kˆ 
 ˆ
Answer: (c) 3 iˆ  2j+2k
ˆ 

Q21. Find the value of X such that the vectors a  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and bˆ  î  2jˆ  3kˆ are orthogonal
(a) 0
(b) 1
3
(c)
2
5
(d) 
2
5
Answer: (d) 
2
Q22. The value of k for which the vectors 3iˆ  6jˆ  kˆ and 2iˆ  4jˆ  kˆ are parallel is
2
(a)
3
3
(b)
2
5
(c)
2
2
(d) 
5
2
Answer: (a)
3

ACET MATRICES ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
MATRICES
n
1. If A is a symmetric matrix and n N, . then A is
(a) symmetric matrix
(b) skew-symmetric matrix
(c) a diagonal matrix
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) symmetric matrix
1 2 
If f  x   x  4x  5 and A  
2
2. 
4 3
8 4 
(a) 8 0 
 
2 1
(b) 2 0
 
0 4
(c) 8 8 
 
1 1
(d) 1 0
 
8 4 
Answer: (a)  
8 0 
 1 2 2 
3. If k  2 1 2  is an orthogonal matrix then the value of k is
 2 2 1
1
(a) 
3
(b) 3

1
(c) 
2
(d) 2
1
Answer: (a) ±
3
1 2 2
If A  2 1 2 then A  4A 
2
4.
2 2 1
(a) 4I
(b) None of these
(c) 3I
(d) 5I
Answer: (a) 4I
3 2
 
3
1
5. If A    then A is equal to
0 1
1 1 26
(a)
27 0 27 
1 1 26
(b)
27 0 27
1  1 26
(c)
27  0 27 
1  1 26
(d)
27  0 27
1 1 26 
Answer: (a)
27 0 27 

6. Let A and B are two matrices of same order 3 × 3, where
 1 3   2 3 2 4
   
A  2 4 8  , B  3 2 5
 3 5 10  2 1 4
   
If A is singular matrix, then transpose of (A + B) is equal to
(a) 24
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 17
Answer: (a) 24
7. The rank of the matrix
 4 1 0 0
3 0 1 0 is :
 
6 0 2 0
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
Answer: (a) 2
cos2  sin2
8. Inverse of the matrix   is :
 sin2 cos2 
 cos2 sin2 
(a)   sin2 cos2
 
cos2 sin2 
(b)  sin2  cos2
 

cos2  sin2
(c)  sin2 cos2 
 
cos2 sin2 
(d)  sin2 cos2
 
 cos2θ sin2θ 
Answer: (a)  
 sin2θ cos2θ
9. If A is a matrix of the order 3 and | A|  8, then |adj A| is equal to
2
(a) 8
3
(b) 8
(c) 8
(d) 1
2
Answer: (a) 8
 1  tan   1 tan  1 b

10. If     then
 tan  1   tan  1  b a 
(1) a  cos 2 (2) a = 1
(3) b  sin 2 (4) b =1
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 are correct

1 4 1
11. Statement 1 : The rank of 2 3 0  is 3
0 1 2 
1 4 1
Statement 2 : The determinant of the matrix 2 3 0  is not equal to zero.
0 1 2 
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for State-
ment-1.
(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
Answer: (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation

for Statement-1.
12. If A is a square matrix, then A – A' is a
(a) diagonal matrix
(b) skew-symmetric matrix
(c) symmetric matrix
(d) none of these
Answer: (b) skew-symmetric matrix
13. If A is any square matrix, then which of the following is skew-symmetric?

T
(a) AA
T
(b) AA
T
(c) AA
T
(d) A A
T
Answer: (b) A  A

 a b 2   
14. If A    and A    , then
b a   
(a) 𝛼 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 , 𝛽 = 𝑎𝑏
(b) 𝛼 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 , 𝛽 = 2𝑎𝑏
(c) 𝛼 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 , 𝛽 = 𝑎2 − 𝑏2
(d) 𝛼 = 2𝑎𝑏 𝛽 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2
(e) Answer: (b) 𝜶 = 𝒂𝟐 + 𝒃𝟐 , 𝜷 = 𝟐𝒂𝒃
 1 2 1
15. Let A    and A  xA  yl , then the values of x and y respectively are
 5 1
1 2
(a) ,
11 11
1 2
(b) ,
11 11
1 2
(c) ,
11 11
1 2
(d) ,
11 11
1 2
Answer: (a) ,
11 11
6 8 5
16. If A  4 2 3 is the sum of a symmetric matrix B and skew-symmetric matrix C, then B is
9 7 1
6 6 7
(a) A  6 2 5
7 5 1
 0 2 2
(b) A   2 5 2
 2 2 0 

6 6 7
(c) A   6 2 5
 7 5 1 
 0 6 2
(d) A   2 2 2
 2 2 0 
6 6 7 
Answer: (a) A = 6 2 5
7 5 1 
5 2 x 
17. If the matrix A   y 2 3 is a symmetric matrix, then find the value of x, y and t respectively.
 4 t 7
(a) 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 2, –3
(c) 4, 2, –7
(d) 2, 4, –7
Answer: (b) 4, 2, –3

ACET MATHEMATICS MISCELLANEOUS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
MATHEMATICS MISCELLANEOUS
Q1. What is 2.89951 rounded to 3 decimal places?
A. 2.899
B. 2.900
C. 2.90
D. 2.810
Answer:(B) 2.90
Q2. What is 4,716 rounded to 3 significant figures?
A. 472
B. 716
C. 4,700
D. 4,720
Answer: (D) 4,720
Q3. What is 0.020581 rounded to 2 significant figures?
A. 0.02
B. 0.021
C. 0.0206
D. 0.02058
Answer: (B) 0.021
Significant figures are counted from the first non-zero digit.
Q4. Calculate tanh−1 0.6
A. 0.0105
B. 0.537
C. 0.693
D. 30.963
Answer: (C) 0.693

1− 1+i −n
Q5. Calculate i where i = 0.062 and n = 10 .
1+i
A. –14.130
B. –12.528
C. 6.865
D. 7.743
Answer: (D) 7.743
1 − 1.062−10
0.062 = 7.743
1.062
1
Q6. Calculate 6v + 8v 2 + 10v 3 + 12v 4 where v = . Give your answer to 3 significantfigures.
1.08
A. 29.173
B. 29.2
C. 33.3
D. 33.333
Answer: (B) 29.2

6 8 10 12
1.08
+ 1.08 2 + 1.08 3 + 1.08 4 = 29.2 to 3SF
1 1 ln 5−1.02 2
Q7. Calculate the value of 0.8 2π
exp − 2 0.8
to 3 decimal places.
A. 0.112
B. 0.210
C. 0.345
D. 0.380
Answer: (D)0.380
2
1 1 𝑙𝑛 5 − 1.02 1 1 2
exp − = exp − 0.7367974
0.8 2𝜋 2 0.8 0.8 2𝜋 2

1
= exp −0.2714352 = 0.380
0.8 2𝜋
5
6!
Q8. Calculate 3
+ 412 +4 20
A. 5.897
B. 243.9
C. 259.7
D. 327.4
Answer: (B) 243.9

6! 5
4 720 5
4
+ 412 + 20 = + 412 + 20 = 240 + 1.782 + 2.115 = 243.9
3 3
1−v n
−nv n
Q9. Evaluate d
i
, given that i = 0.10 , n = 10 , v = 1 + i −1
and d = iv .
Answer:
Using the formulas given:

−1
𝑣 = 1+𝑖 = 1.1−1 = 0.90909
And: 𝑑 = 𝑖𝑣 = 0.1/1.1 = 0.09091
So,
1−1.1−10
1−𝑣 𝑛
− 𝑛𝑣 𝑛 0.1 − 10 × 1.1−10
𝑑 1.1
= = 29.04
𝑖 0.10
Comment
We’ve kept the exact figures throughout the calculation here to ensure that the final answer is accu-
rate. However, you could equally use the calculated values of v and d, provided you retain enough
decimals. Usually 5 significant figures is about right for intermediate calculations.
You’ll meet these symbols when you study compound interest in Subject CT1.
Q10. The interest rate i charged for a financial arrangement satisfies the following equation:
10 5
43,600,000 1 + 𝑖 = 12 × 10 × 366,000 1 + 𝑖 + 60,192,000

By working in units of 1 million, or otherwise, calculate the value of i , expressing youranswer as a

percentage to three significant figures.
Answer:
Expressing the coefficients in units of 1 million and bringing all the terms onto the LHS gives:
10 5
43.6 1 + 𝑖 − 43.92 1 + 𝑖 − 60.192 = 0
This is a quadratic equation in 1 + 𝑖 5

. Using the quadratic formula, we get:
5
43.92 ± 43.92 2 − 4 43.6 −60.192 43.92 ± 111.474
1+𝑖 = =
2 × 43.6 87.2
So,
5
1+𝑖 = 1.782 𝑜𝑟 − 0.775
Disregarding the second possibility (which corresponds to a negative interest rate), we find that:
1
𝑖 = 1.782 5 − 1 = 0.12248 𝑖𝑒 12.2%
Q11. If a function f (x) has the property f (−x) = − f (x) , the function is known as:
A. an odd function
B. a symmetrical function
C. an even function
D. an inverse function
Answer: (A) an odd function
Q12. A person was born on 15 June 1955. If x is defined to be his exact age, what is [x] on21 March 2011?
A. 55
B. 55.75
C. 55.83
D. 56
Answer: (A) 55
The person is 55 years and approximately 9 months.

Q13. Write the expression 4x + 1 < 5 without the use of the modulus sign.
A. x <1
B. x < -1.5
C. –1.5 <x <1
D. –1 <x <1
Answer: (C) –1.5 <x <1
4𝑥 + 1 < 5
−5 < 4𝑥 + 1 < 5
−6 < 4𝑥 < 4
−1.5 < 𝑥 < 1
Q14. Calculate V, where x = 0.8 and V = min(e−x , π/4 ) .

A. 0.443
B. 0.449
C. 0.886
D. 2.226
Answer: (A)0.443
𝜋 𝜋
𝑒 −0.8 = 0.449 𝑎𝑛𝑑 = 0.443 𝑠𝑜 min 𝑒 −𝑥 , = 0.443
4 4
100 !
Q15. Calculate the value of 97!3!to 2 decimal places.
A. 161,700
B. 323,400
C. 15,684,900
D. 31,369,800
Answer: (A) 161,700
100! 100 × 99 × 98
= = 161,700
97! 3! 3!

1
Q16. Evaluate Γ(5.5) . You may use the fact thatΓ 2
= π
A. 52.34
B. 104.69
C. 230.31
D. 287.89
Answer: (A) 52.34
Γ 5.5 = 4.5Γ 4.5 = 4.5 3.5 Γ 3.5 = 4.5 3.5 (2.5)Γ 2.5
= 4.5 3.5 2.5 1.5 Γ 1.5 = 4.5 3.5 2.5 1.5 0.5 Γ 0.5
= 4.5 3.5 2.5 1.5 0.5 π = 52.34

Γ n+1 3n+1 !
Q17. Simplify the expression Γ 3n n−1 !
, where n is an integer.
A. n n + 1 3n + 1
n+1 3n+1
B.
3n n−1
n 3n+1
C. 3n−1 n−1
D. 3n2 3n + 1
Answer: (D) 𝟑𝐧𝟐 𝟑𝐧 + 𝟏

Γ 𝑛 + 1 3𝑛 + 1 ! 𝑛! 3𝑛 + 1 !
= = 𝑛 3𝑛 + 1 3𝑛
Γ 3𝑛 𝑛 − 1 ! 3𝑛 − 1 ! 𝑛 − 1 !
Q18. Evaluate each of the following, quoting your answers to 2 significant figures:
(i) e e
(ii) log e 0.00001
(iii) tanh−1 0.9

(iv) Γ(12)
Answer:
To 2 significant figures, these work out as follows:
(i) 𝑒 𝑒 = 𝑒1.5 = 4.5

(ii) log 𝑒 0.00001 = −12
(iii) tanh−1 0.9 = 1.5
(iv) Γ 12 = 11! = 40,000,000
Q19. Which of the following is the correct simplification of 2x b × x 2 b

+ 2x b x 3 ?
A. 2x 6b
b+b 2
B. 2x + 2x 3+b
C. 4x 3b
D. 2x 3b + 2x 3+b
Answer: (D) 𝟐𝐱 𝟑𝐛 + 𝟐𝐱 𝟑+𝐛
2𝑥 𝑏 × 𝑥 2 𝑏
+ 2𝑥 𝑏 𝑥 3 = 2𝑥 𝑏 𝑥 2𝑏 + 2𝑥 𝑏 𝑥 3 = 2𝑥 3𝑏 + 2𝑥 𝑏 +3
Q20. Simplify e3 x
÷ e2x 3
1
A. e2
x −8x 3
B. e3
1
C.
e 3x
3x
D. e8x 3
𝟏
Answer: (C) 𝐞𝟑𝐱
1
𝑒3 𝑥
÷ 𝑒 2𝑥 3
= 𝑒 3𝑥 ÷ 𝑒 6𝑥 = 𝑒 −3𝑥 =
𝑒 3𝑥
Q21. If log a x = Athen:
A. ax = A
B. xa = A
C. aA = x
D. Aa = x
Answer: (C)𝐚𝐀 = 𝐱
x
Q22. Simplify 2 log a y
+ log a y
A. log a x 2
x 2
B. log a
y
C. log a yx
x2
D. log a y
𝐱𝟐
Answer: (D) 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝐚 𝐲
𝑥 𝑥 2 𝑥2
2 log 𝑎 + log 𝑎 𝑦 = log 𝑎 + log 𝑎 𝑦 = log 𝑎
𝑦 𝑦 𝑦
x+3 5−2x
Q23. Express − as a single fraction:
3x+1 x−1
−5x 2 +15x−8
A. 3x+1 x−1
7x 2 −11x+2
B. 3x+1 x−1
7x 2 −11x−8
C. 3x+1 x−1
−5x 2 15x−2
D.
3x+1 x−1
𝟕𝐱𝟐 −𝟏𝟏𝐱−𝟖
Answer: (C) 𝟑𝐱+𝟏 𝐱−𝟏
𝑥 + 3 5 − 2𝑥 𝑥+3 𝑥−1 5 − 2𝑥 3𝑥 + 1
− = −
3𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 1 3𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 1 𝑥 − 1 3𝑥 + 1
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 3 −6𝑥 2 + 13𝑥 + 5
= −
3𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 1 𝑥 − 1 3𝑥 + 1
7𝑥 2 − 11𝑥 − 8
=
3𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 1
x+3 x 2 +x−6
Q24. Simplify 2x 2 −3x−2 ÷ 2x 2 +3x+1

2x 3 +9x 2 +10x+3
A. 2x 4 −x 3 −17x 2 +16x+12
x+1
B. x−2 2
x 2 +4x+3
C. x 2 −4x+4
x+3 2
D. 2x+1 x+1
𝐱+𝟏
Answer: (B) 𝐱−𝟐 𝟐
𝑥+3 𝑥2 + 𝑥 − 6 𝑥 +3 𝑥+3 𝑥−2

2
÷ 2
= ÷
2𝑥 − 3𝑥 − 2 2𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 1 2𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 2 2𝑥 + 1 𝑥 + 1
𝑥+3 2𝑥 + 1 𝑥 + 1
= ×
2𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 2 𝑥+3 𝑥−2
𝑥+1
=
𝑥−2 2
Q25. Solve the quadratic equation 2x 2 − 5x − 3 = 0
A. x = -0.5 and 3
B. x = 0.5 and - 3
C. x = 0.5 and 3
D. The equation has no real solutions
Answer: (A) x = -0.5 and 3

Factorising gives (2𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 − 3) = 0. Hence 𝑥 = −0.5,3
Q26. Find the solution to x 2 − 12x + 12 = 0 in surd form.
A. 6±2 6
B. 6±4 3
C. −12 ± 6
D. −12 ± 2 3
Answer: (A)𝟔 ± 𝟐 𝟔

12 ± −12 2 − 4 1 12 12 ± 96 12 ± 4 6
𝑥= = = = 6±2 6
2 1 2 2
Q27. Solve the simultaneous equations:
95,432𝑥 + 64,717𝑦 = 57,963
92,404 𝑥 + 64,522𝑦 = 80,068
Answer:
The coefficients in these equations are so horrible that it is better to represent them by letters, find
a general solution, and then substitute the numbers at the end. If we write the equations as:
𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑒
𝑐𝑥 + 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑓
we can then find x by multiplying them by d and b respectively and subtracting, to get:
𝑎𝑑 − 𝑏𝑐 𝑥 = 𝑑𝑒 − 𝑏𝑓
𝑑𝑒 − 𝑏𝑓 64522 × 57963 − 64717 × 80068
⇒𝑥= = = −8.130
𝑎𝑑 − 𝑏𝑐 95432 × 64522 − 64717 × 92404
we can then find x by multiplying them by d and b respectively and subtracting, to get:
𝑐𝑒 − 𝑎𝑓 92404 × 57963 × 95432 × 80068
⇒𝑦= = = 12.884
𝑏𝑐 − 𝑎𝑑 64717 × 92404 × 95432 × 64522
These calculations are much easier if you have a calculator that can store variables to memory A, B,
C etc.

𝛼 𝛼𝛽
= 0.75 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2
= 0.0225
𝛼+𝛽 𝛼+𝛽 𝛼+𝛽+1
Answer:
From the first equation:

𝛼 3
= ⇒ 4𝛼 = 3 𝛼 + 𝛽 ⇒ 𝛼 = 3𝛽
𝛼+𝛽 4
Changing all the 𝛼’s to 𝛽’s in the second equation then gives:

3𝛽2 3
2
= 0.0225 ⇒ = 0.0225
4𝛽 4𝛽 + 1 16 4𝛽 + 1
Rearranging:
1 3
𝛽= − 1 = 1.833
4 16 × 0.0225
⇒ 𝛼 = 3𝛽 = 5.5

𝜆
=9
𝛼−1
𝛼𝜆2
= 162
𝛼−1 2 𝛼−2
Answer:
The easiest way to solve these equations is to square the first equation and substitute it into the
second equation:
2
𝜆 𝛼 𝛼
= 162 ⇒ 92 = 162
𝛼−1 𝛼−2 𝛼−2
This gives:
𝛼
=2
𝛼−2
Form which:
𝛼 = 2 𝛼−2 ⇒ 𝛼 = 4
This gives 𝜆 = 27
Q30. If 2x − 3 < 7 then:
A. −5 < 𝑥 < 2
B. −2 < 𝑥 < 5
C. −5 < 𝑥 < 5
D. x<5

Answer: (B)−𝟐 < 𝑥 < 5
2𝑥 − 3 < 7
−7 < 2𝑥 − 3 < 7
−4 < 2𝑥 < 10
−2 < 𝑥 < 5
Q31. If x 2 − x − 12 < 0 then:
A. x<4
B. x < −3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 > 4
C. x < −3
D. −3 < 𝑥 < 4
Answer: (D) −𝟑 < 𝑥 < 4
Factorising gives (x - 4)(x + 3) <0 . So, either x - 4 <0 and x + 3 >0 (ie-3 <x <4 )orx - 4 >0 and x + 3 <0
(but it is not possible for both of these to be true at the sametime).
x−2 9x−8
Q32. Find the range(s) of values of x for which x 2 +2x−4
>1
Answer:
Rearranging the inequality so that we have zero on the RHS:
𝑥 − 2 9𝑥 − 8
−1>0
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4
Expressing the LHS as a single fraction:
𝑥 − 2 9𝑥 − 8 − 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4
>0
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4
Simplifying:
9𝑥 2 − 26𝑥 + 16 − 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4
>0
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4
8𝑥 2 − 28𝑥 + 20
>0
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4

We can factorise the numerator:
4 2𝑥 − 5 𝑥 − 1
>0
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 4
The denominator equals zero when 𝑥 = −1 ± 5 (ie-3.236 and 1.236).
If we call these a,b (say), the graphs of the numerator and the denominator look like this:
So, the ratio will be positive when both graphs are positive or both are negative, iewhen
𝑥 < −1 − 5 = 𝑎 𝑜𝑟 1 < 𝑥 < −1 + 5 = 𝑏 𝑜𝑟 𝑥 > 2.5

n n+1 2
Q33. k=0 k
2
+ k=1 k =
n
A. 2 k=1 k
2
n+1 2
B. k=0 k
n
C. k 2(n+1) + 2 k=1 k
2
n
D. n+1 2
+2 k=0 k
2
𝐧
Answer: (D) 𝐧 + 𝟏 𝟐
+𝟐 𝐤=𝟎 𝐤
𝟐
𝑛 𝑛 +1 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛
2 2 2 2 2
𝑘 + 𝑘 = 𝑘 + 𝑘 + 𝑛+1 =2 𝑘2 + 𝑛 + 1 2
𝑘=0 𝑘 =1 𝑘=0 𝑘=0 𝑘 =0
Q34. A child receives pocket money of £5 in the first week, then £6 in the second week,increasing by £1
each week. How much does he (she) receive in the first year?
A. £1,456

B. £1,586
C. £1,612
D. £3,172
Answer: (B)£1,586
This is an arithmetic series with a = 5 ,d = 1 and n = 52 . Hence:

1
𝑆52 = 52 2 × 5 + 51 × 1 = £1,586
2
∞ 210
Q35. Evaluate k=1 4 k
A. 70
B. 210
C. 280
D. 840
Answer: (A)70
∞
210 210 210 210
= + 2 + 3 +⋯
4𝑘 4 4 4
𝑘=1
210 1
This is an infinite geometric series with 𝛼 = 4
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟 = 4 .
Hence:
210
4
𝑆∞ = 1 = 70
1−4
n n 1 n 1
Q36. Simplify i=1(1 + 2i + i2 ). You may use the results k=1 k = 2 n(n + 1)and k=1 k
2
= 6 n(n +
1)(2n + 1)
A. 2n3 + 4n2 + 3n
2n 3 +9n 2 +7n+6
B. 6
8n 2 +15n+1
C. 6
2n 3 +9n 2 +13n
D. 6
𝟐𝐧𝟑 +𝟗𝐧𝟐 +𝟏𝟑𝐧

Answer: (D) 𝟔
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛
1 + 2𝑖 + 𝑖 2 = 1+2 𝑖+ 𝑖2
𝑖=1 𝑖=1 𝑖=1 𝑖=1
1 1
= 𝑛+2 𝑛 𝑛+1 + 𝑛 𝑛 + 1 2𝑛 + 1
2 6
1
= 𝑛 + 𝑛2 + 𝑛 + 2𝑛3 + 3𝑛2 + 𝑛
6
2𝑛3 + 9𝑛2 + 13𝑛
=
6
20
Q37. y=1 y 20
x=y x2 =
20
A. x=1 x2 20
y=1 y
20
B. x=1 x2 20
y=x y
20
C. x=y x2 20
y=1 y
20
D. x=1 x2 x
y=1 y
𝟐𝟎 𝐱
Answer: (D) 𝐱=𝟏 𝐱𝟐 𝐲=𝟏 𝐲
Considering the order of x and y we have 1 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 20 . So, if x sums over the numbers 1 to 20,
then looking at the order y must sum from 1 to x.
n 1 n 1
Q38. Calculate 6
x=1
6
y=x 2x y − 1 . You may use the results k=1 k = 2 n(n + 1), k=1 k
2
= 6 n(n +
n 1
1)(2n + 1) and k=1 k
3
= n2 n + 1 2 .
4
A. 350
B. 420
C. 540
D. 630
Answer: (B)420

Swapping the order of summation gives:

6 6 6 𝑦
2𝑥(𝑦 − 1) = 2(𝑦 − 1) 𝑥
𝑥=1 𝑦 =𝑥 𝑦 =1 𝑥=1
6
1
= 2 𝑦−1 𝑦 𝑦+1
2
𝑦 =1
6
= 𝑦3 − 𝑦
𝑦 =1
6 6
3
= 𝑦 − 𝑦
𝑦 =1 𝑦 =1
1 1
= 62 6 + 1 2
− 6 6+1
4 2
= 420
Q39. What is the coefficient of x 5 y 3 in the expansion of the expression 2x + 5y 8

?
A. 56
B. 224,000
C. 448,000
D. 5,600,000
Answer: (B)224,000
The term will be 8𝐶5 2𝑥 5

5𝑦 3
= 56 × 25 × 53 𝑥 5 𝑦 3 = 224,000𝑥 5 𝑦 3
p p−1 p p−1 (p−2) 3 2−5x
Q40. Use the result 1 + x p
= 1 + px + 2!
x2 + 3!
x + ⋯to simplify 3x+2 2
by expanding as
far as the term in x 3 .

1 11 57 243
A. 2
− 4
x+ 8
x2 − 16
x3
57 243
B. 2 − 11x + 2
x2 − 4
x3
23 28 244
C. 2− x+ x2 − x3
3 3 27

2 23 28 244
D. − x+ x2 − x3
9 27 27 243
𝟏 𝟏𝟏 𝟓𝟕 𝟐𝟒𝟑
Answer: (A)𝟐 − 𝟒
𝐱+ 𝟖
𝐱𝟐 − 𝟏𝟔
𝐱𝟑
2 − 5𝑥 2 − 5𝑥
= 2
3𝑥 + 2 2 3
22 𝑥+1
2
−2
1 3
= 2 − 5𝑥 1+ 𝑥
4 2
2 3
1 3 −2 −3 3 −2 −3 −4 3
= 2 − 5𝑥 1 + −2 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 +⋯
4 2 2! 2 3! 2
1 27 2 27 3
= 2 − 5𝑥 1 − 3𝑥 + 𝑥 − 𝑥 +⋯
4 4 2
1 27 2 135 3
= 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑥 − 27𝑥 3 + ⋯ + −5𝑥 + 15𝑥 2 − 𝑥 +⋯
4 2 4
1 11 57 243 3
= − 𝑥 + 𝑥2 − 𝑥 +⋯
2 4 8 16
Q41. The interest rate i for a financial arrangement satisfies the following equation:
½ ¼
20,000(1 + i) + 5,000 1 + i + 2,500 1 + i = 30,000
(i) Find an approximate value for i by using the approximate relationship 1 + i t

≃ 1 + ti, quot-
ing your answer to the nearest 0.01%.
(ii) By refining the approximate relationship to include an additional term, calculatea more accu-
rate value of i.
Answer:
(i) Approximate value for i
Using the approximate relationship, the equation given becomes:

1 1
20000 1 + 𝑖 + 5000 1 + 𝑖 + 2500 1 + 𝑖 = 30000
2 4
𝑖𝑒 27500 + 23125𝑖 = 30000 ⇒ 𝑖 = 10.81%
We could have divided this through by 100 to make the figures easier.

(ii) Improved approximate value for i
If we included the quadratic term in the approximate relationship, it would become:
𝑡
1
1+𝑖 ≈ 1 + 𝑡𝑖 + 𝑡 𝑡 − 1 𝑖 2
2
The equation given would then become:
1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 3 2
20000 1 + 𝑖 + 5000 1 + 𝑖 + − 𝑖 + 2500 1 + 𝑖 + − 𝑖
2 2 2 2 4 2 4 4
= 30000
ie:
27500 + 23125𝑖 − 859.375𝑖 2 = 30000
⇒ −2500 + 23125𝑖 − 859.375𝑖 2 = 0
Solving this quadratic equation, we get:
−23125 ± 23125 2 − 4 −859.375 −2500 −23125 ± 22938.4

𝑖= =
2 −859.375 −1718.75
To get the root consistent with part (i), we need to take the + sign, which gives𝑖 ≈ 10.85%.
Q42. You are given the following results involving series:

∞
𝑥
𝑥𝑘
𝑒 =
𝑘!
𝑘 =0
∞
k+1 k
−1 x
log e 1 + x =
k
k−1
∞
p
p−k+1 k
1+x = 1+ p p−1 … x
k!
k=1
Use these to simplify the following series expressions:

1 1 1
(i) 𝑥 − 𝑥2 + 𝑥3 − 𝑥4 + ⋯
2 6 24
1 1
(ii) 1 + x2 + x4 + ⋯
2 24

1 1 1
(iii) x + 2 x2 + 3 x3 + 4 x4 + ⋯
4 5 6 2 7 3
(iv) + x+ x + x +⋯
0 1 2 3
Answer:
1 1 1
(i) x − 2 x 2 + 6 x 3 − 24 x 4 + ⋯ = 1 − e−x
1 1 1
(ii) 1 + 2 𝑥 2 + 24 𝑥 4 + ⋯ = 2 𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑒 −𝑥
Comment
When you add up the two series the odd powers cancel. You might recognise this as the hyperbolic
cosine function cosh x .
1 1 1
(iii) 𝑥 + 2 𝑥 2 + 3 𝑥 3 + 4 𝑥 4 + ⋯ = − log 𝑒 1 − 𝑥
(iv)      X    X2    X3  ...  1  X 5  1  5X      X 2  ...

4 5 6 7 5 6
0   1 2
  3
  2!
Comment
This last one isn’t at all obvious, but if you write out the terms in the series 1 − 𝑥 −5
and cancel all
the minus signs, you’ll see that they do match up. You’ll need this type of result when you study the
properties of the negative binomial distribution in Subjects CT3 and CT6.
Q43. Differentiate f t = 5(4t ) with respect to t .
A. 20t−1
B. 5 4t ln 4
C. 5t4t−1
D. 20 ln t
Answer: (B) 𝟓 𝟒𝐭 𝐥𝐧 𝟒
Q44. Find the gradient of y = 2x 3 − x 2 + 3 when x = 2 .
A. 15
B. 20
C. 23

D. 44
Answer: (B) 20
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
= 6𝑥 2 − 2𝑥which is 20 when x=2
4
Q45. Find the derivative of f x = 3
x5
12
A. − 8
5x 5
12
B. − 2
55
4
C. 3 −
2
x 5
5
4
D. 3
8
x5
5
𝟏𝟐
Answer: (A)− 𝟖
𝟓𝐱𝟓
4 3 3 −8 12 8 12
𝑓 𝑥 = 3 = 4𝑥 −5 ⇒ 𝑓 ′ 𝑥 = 4 − 𝑥 5 = − 𝑥 −5 = − 8
𝑥5 5 5 5𝑥 5
Q46. Find f ′ u where f u = 5u2 − 7 9
A. 9 5u2 − 7 10
B. 9 5u2 − 7 8
C. 45 5u2 − 7 8
D. 90u 5u2 − 7 8
𝟖
Answer: (D) 𝟗𝟎𝐮 𝟓𝐮𝟐 − 𝟕
Using the chain rule 𝑓 ′ 𝑢 = 9 5𝑢2 − 7 8

× 10𝑢 = 90𝑢 5𝑢2 − 7 8
1 2 2
Q47. Find M′(0) if M t = eμt+2σ t
A. μ
B. eμ
C. μeμ
D. 1
Answer: (A) 𝛍
1 2 2
Using the chain rule 𝑀′ 𝑡 = 𝜇 + 𝜎 2 𝑡 𝑒 𝜇𝑡 +2 𝜎 𝑡
. Hence 𝑀′ 0 = 𝜇𝑒 0 = 𝜇
t
Q48. Find M′(0) if M t = α ln 1 − λ
A. −α
B. α/λ
C. αλ
D. −α/λ
Answer: (B) 𝛂/𝛌

𝛼 1 𝛼
Using the chain rule 𝑀′ 𝑡 = − 𝑡 × −𝜆 = 𝑡 .
1− 𝜆 1−
𝜆 𝜆
𝛼
Hence 𝑀′ 0 =
𝜆
2 4
Q49. Find f′(x) where f x = ln 2ex + e 2x
1
A. 2 4
2e x + 2x
e
2 4
2e x − 2x
B. e
2 4
2e x + 2x
e
2 8
4e x + 2x
C. e
x2 4
2e + 2x
e
2 4
2xe x − 2x
D. 2
e
2
e x + 2x
e
𝟐 𝟒
𝟐𝐱𝐞 𝐱 − 𝟐𝐱
Answer: (D) 𝟐
𝐞
𝟐
𝐞 𝐱 + 𝟐𝐱
𝐞
2 4 2
Now 𝑓 𝑥 = ln 2𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑒 2𝑥 = ln 2𝑒 𝑥 + 4𝑒 −2𝑥 .Using the chain rule gives:
2 4
1 2𝑥𝑒 𝑥 − 𝑒 2𝑥
′ 𝑥2 −2𝑥
𝑓 𝑥 = 2 × 4𝑥𝑒 − 8𝑒 = 2
2𝑒 𝑥 + 4𝑒 −2𝑥 2
𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑒 2𝑥

5x−3 2
Q50. Find f′(x)where f x = ln 4 + e−6
A. −60 5x − 3
5x−3 2
B. −60 5x − 3 ln 4 + e−6
60 5x−3
C. − 2
4+e −6 5x −3
2
60 5x−3 e −6 5x −3
D. − 2
4+e −6 5x −3
𝟐
𝟔𝟎 𝟓𝐱−𝟑 𝐞−𝟔 𝟓𝐱−𝟑
Answer: (D) − 𝟐
𝟒+𝐞−𝟔 𝟓𝐱−𝟑
Using chain rule gives:

5𝑥−3 2
1 5𝑥 −3 2
60 5𝑥 − 3 𝑒 −6
𝑓′ 𝑥 = 5𝑥−3 2
× −6 2 5𝑥 − 3 1
× 5𝑒 −6 =− 5𝑥−3 2
4 + 𝑒 −6 4 + 𝑒 −6
Q51. Differentiate y = 4 − 3x x 2 − 2x + 1 5
with respect to x:
A. x 2 − 2x + 1 4
3 x 2 − 2x + 1 + 5 4x − 3 2x − 2
B. x 2 − 2x + 1 4
−33x 2 + 76x − 43
C. −3 x 2 − 2x + 1 5
+ 5 4 − 3x 2x − 2 4
D. −15 2x − 2 x 2 − 2x + 1 4
Answer: (B) x 2 − 2x + 1 4
−33x 2 + 76x − 43
Using the product and chain rules:

𝑑𝑦
= −3 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 5
+ 4 − 3𝑥 5 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 4
× 2𝑥 − 2
𝑑𝑥
= 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 4
−3 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 + 5 4 − 3𝑥 2𝑥 − 2
= 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 4
−3𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 − 3 + 5 −6𝑥 2 + 14𝑥 − 8
= 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 4
−33𝑥 2 + 76𝑥 − 43
Q52. Find f"(x) where f x = 32x 2 e−4x
A. 64 1 − 8x 2 e−4x
B. 64 1 − 8x + 8x 2 e−4x
C. 1024e−4x
D. 64 1 − 8x 2 + 8x 4 e−4x
Answer: (B) 𝟔𝟒 𝟏 − 𝟖𝐱 + 𝟖𝐱 𝟐 𝐞−𝟒𝐱
Using the product rule:
𝑓 ′ 𝑥 = 64𝑥𝑒 −4𝑥 + 32𝑥 2 × −4𝑒 −4𝑥 = 64𝑥𝑒 −4𝑥 − 128𝑥 2 𝑒 −4𝑥
𝑓 ′ 𝑥 = 64𝑒 −4𝑥 + 64𝑥 −4𝑒 −4𝑥 − 256𝑥𝑒 −4𝑥 − 128𝑥 2 (−4𝑒 −4𝑥 )
= 64𝑒 −4𝑥 − 512𝑥𝑒 −4𝑥 + 512𝑥 2 𝑒 −4𝑥
= 64 1 − 8𝑥 + 8𝑥 2 𝑒 −4𝑥
3x 2
Q53. Differentiate y = ex
twice with respect to x:
6−12x+3x 2
A.
ex
6−12x−3x 2
B.
ex
6+12x+3x 2
C. ex
6+12x−3x 2
D. ex
𝟔−𝟏𝟐𝐱+𝟑𝐱𝟐
Answer: (A) 𝐞𝐱
Now
3𝑥 2
𝑦= = 3𝑥 2 𝑒 −𝑥
𝑒𝑥
Q54. Calculate the maximum value of the function f x = 5 − 2x − 3x 2
A. 6
B. 4
C. 16/3
D. -1/3
Answer: (C) 16/3

1
Now 𝑓′ 𝑥 = −2 − 6𝑥. Setting this equal to zero gives a turning point at 𝑥 = − 3
Since 𝑓 ‘′ 𝑥 = −6 this turning point is a maximum.
1 1 1 2 16
So, the maximum value of this function is 𝑓 − = 5−2 − −3 − =
3 3 3 3
Q55. Which of the following is a graph of y = x(x + 3)(x − 5) ?
Answer: (D)
Since 𝑦 = 𝑥(𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 − 5) we can see that this crosses the x -axis when 𝑥 = 0, −3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 5.
This means it is either C or D. Since we have a positive 𝑥 3 term then 𝑦 → ∞ as 𝑥 → ∞which means it
is D.
Alternatively, we could calculate and determine the turning points using differentiation.
Q56. Find and distinguish between the turning points of the function: f x = x 3 − x 2 − x + 7 .
1 5
A. Maximum (1,6)and minimum − 3 , 7 27

1 16
B. maximum (-1,6)and minimum 3
, 6 27
1 5
C. maximum − 3 , 7 27 and minimum (1,6)
1 16
D. maximum ,6 and minimum (-1,6)
3 27
𝟏 𝟓
Answer: (C)maximum − 𝟑 , 𝟕 𝟐𝟕 and minimum (1,6)
Differentiating and setting the derivative equal to zero gives:

1
𝑓 ′ 𝑥 = 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 1 = 3𝑥 + 1 𝑥 − 1 = 0 ⇒ 𝑥 = − , 1
3
The second derivative is:
𝑓 ′′ 𝑥 = 6𝑥 − 2
1 1
When 𝑥 = 1 we have 𝑓′′(1) > 0 so we have a minimum. When 𝑥 = − we have 𝑓 ′′ − < 0so we
3 3
have a maximum.
90 4 −3x
Q57. Using log differentiation or otherwise, find the value of x for which f x = x e isa maximum.
2
A. –4/3
B. –3/4
C. ¾
D. 4/3
Answer: (D) 4/3

90
We have ln 𝑓(𝑥) = ln 2
+ 4 ln 𝑥 − 3𝑥, so:
𝑑 4
ln 𝑓 𝑥 = − 3
𝑑𝑥 3
4
Setting this equal to zero and solving gives 𝑥 = 3
∂
Q58. What is axy + b xy 2
+ c xy 3
where a, b and c are constants?
∂x
A. a + 2b yx + 3c xy 2

ax 2 y by 2 x 3 cy 3 x 4
B. 2
+ 3
+ 4
C. ay + 2byx + 3cyx 2
D. ay + 2by 2 x + 3cy 3 x 2
Answer: (D) 𝐚𝐲 + 𝟐𝐛𝐲 𝟐 𝐱 + 𝟑𝐜𝐲 𝟑 𝐱 𝟐

𝜕 2 3
𝜕
𝑎𝑥𝑦 + 𝑏 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑐 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥𝑦 + 𝑏𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑐𝑥 3 𝑦 3
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑥
= 𝑎𝑦 + 2𝑏𝑥𝑦 2 + 3𝑐𝑥 2 𝑦 3
∂3 f ∂f
Q59. For the function f x, y, z = xyz 2 , what is ∂x ∂y ∂z × ∂x ?
A. 8xyz − 2x yz 2
B. 8yz
C. 8x 2 yz 3
D. 16x 2 yz 3
Answer: (D)
2
𝑓 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦𝑧 = 𝑥2 𝑦 2 𝑧2
𝜕𝑓
⇒ = 2𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 2
𝜕𝑥
𝜕2𝑓
⇒ = 4𝑥𝑦𝑧 2
𝜕𝑥𝜕𝑦
𝜕3𝑓
⇒ = 8𝑥𝑦𝑧
𝜕𝑥𝜕𝑦𝜕𝑧
Hence:
𝜕3𝑓 𝜕𝑓
× = 8𝑥𝑦𝑧 × 2𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 2 = 16𝑥 2 𝑦 3 𝑧 3
𝜕𝑥𝜕𝑦𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑥
Q60. Evaluate:
𝑒 3𝑥 −𝑒 −3𝑥
(i) lim𝑥 →0 𝑒 𝑥 −𝑒 −𝑥

1 n
(ii) limn→∞ 1 + 2n
Answer:
(i) Limit
𝑒 3𝑥 −𝑒 −3𝑥 0
We can’t evaluate𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑥→0 𝑒 𝑥 −𝑒 −𝑥
by substituting x = 0 because this gives 0.
If we use the exponential series, we find that the denominator is:

1 1
𝑒 𝑥 − 𝑒 −𝑥 = 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 + ⋯ − 1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 − ⋯ = 2𝑥 + 𝑂 𝑥 3
2 2
The numerator is the same, but with x replaced by 3x :
𝑒 3𝑥 − 𝑒 −3𝑥 = 6𝑥 + 𝑂 𝑥 3
So, the limit is:
𝑒 3𝑥 − 𝑒 −3𝑥 6𝑥 + 𝑂 𝑥 3 6 + 𝑂 𝑥3
lim = lim = lim =3
𝑥 →0 𝑒 𝑥 − 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑥 →0 2𝑥 + 𝑂 𝑥 3 𝑥 →0 2 + 𝑂 𝑥 2
(ii) Limit
𝑥 𝑛 1
This limit is the special case of the result lim𝑛 →∞ 1 + 𝑛 = 𝑒 𝑥 when 𝑥 = 2 .
So:
𝑛
1 1
lim 1 + = 𝑒 2 = 𝑒 = 1.649
𝑛→∞ 2𝑛
Q61. Differentiate the following function with respect to i :
−10
100 1− 1+i
10
+5
1+i i
and evaluate the derivative at i = 0.05.
Answer:
Differentiating, we get:
−11 −10
−11
5 𝑖 × 10 1 + 𝑖 − 1− 1+𝑖 ×1
−10 × 100 1 + 𝑖 +
𝑖2
Evaluating this when i= 0.05 gives:

−11 −10
−11
5 0.5 1.05 − 1 + 1.05
−1000 1.05 + = −772.17
0.052
Q62. Which of the following is NOT true?
b a
A. a
f(x) dx = − b
f(x) dx
b b a
B. a
f(x) dx = a
f(x) dx − 0
f(x) dx
b d
C. a dx
f(x) dx = f b − f(a)
b d
D. a dx
f(x) dx is used to find the area under the f(x) curve
𝐛 𝐝
Answer: (D) 𝐚 𝐝𝐱
𝐟(𝐱) 𝐝𝐱 is used to find the area under the f(x) curve
Q63. What is the integral of 6x 2 + 6x + 6?

A. 12x + 6 + c
B. 2x 3 + 3x 2 + 6x + c
C. 6x 3 + 6x 2 + 6x + c
D. 3x 3 + 6x 2 + 6x + c
Answer: (B) 𝟐𝐱 𝟑 + 𝟑𝐱 𝟐 + 𝟔𝐱 + 𝐜
We simply use the rule “raise the power by 1 and divide by the new power”.
2 0.75
Q64. What is 1
x dx?
A. 1.351
B. 0.636
C. 0.477
D. –0.119
Answer: (A) 1.351
2 2
0.75
𝑥1.75 21.75 − 1
𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = = = 1.351
1 1.75 1
1.75
Q65. What is the integral of x 2 + x −2 ?

x 2 +x −2
A. 2
+c
x 3 +x −3
B. 3
+c
x 3 −3x −1
C. 3
+c
x 3 −x −3
D. 3
+c
𝐱𝟑 −𝟑𝐱 −𝟏
Answer: (C) 𝟑
+𝐜
1 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 −1
𝑥 2 + 𝑥 −2 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 −1 + 𝑐 = +𝑐
3 3
4 x
Q66. What is 2
5 dx?
1260
A. ln 6
600
B.
ln 5
1
C. 583
3
625 25
D. ln 4
− ln 2
𝟔𝟎𝟎
Answer: (B)𝐥𝐧 𝟓
4 4
𝑥
5𝑥 54 − 52 600
5 𝑑𝑥 = = =
2 ln 5 2 ln 5 ln 5
Q67. What is Bc x dx?

Bc x
A. + const
ln x
B. Bc x + const
Bc x +1
C. x+1
+ const
Bc x
D. ln c
+ const
𝐁𝐜 𝐱
Answer: (D)𝐥𝐧 𝐜 + 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐬𝐭

This is a standard result, but can be proved as follows:
𝐵𝑒 𝑥 ×ln 𝑐 𝐵𝑐 𝑥
𝐵𝑐 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝐵𝑒 𝑥 ×ln 𝑐 𝑑𝑥 = +𝑐 = +𝑐
ln 𝑐 ln 𝑐
3
Q68. Evaluate 0
λe−λx dx.
A. λ e−3λ − 1
B. 1 − e−3λ
C. λ 1 − e−3λ
D. 1 − e−4.5λ
Answer: (B) 𝟏 − 𝐞−𝟑𝛌

3
3
𝜆𝑒 −𝜆𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = −𝑒 −𝜆𝑥 0
= −𝑒 −𝜆𝑥 − −𝑒 0 = 1 − 𝑒 −𝜆𝑥
0
5
Q69. What is the integral of x+1?
A. 5 ln x + 1 + c
10
B. − +c
x+1 2
5
C. − +c
x+1 2
5
D. +c
ln x+1
Answer: (A) 𝟓 𝐥𝐧 𝐱 + 𝟏 + 𝐜
∞ 4
Q70. Evaluate 0
x 3 e−5x dx
A. 0
B. 0.05
C. 1
D. The integral does not converge
Answer: (B) 0.05

𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑢
Using the substitution 𝑢 = 5𝑥 4 , we see that 𝑑𝑢 = 20𝑥 3 , so 20 = 𝑥 3 𝑑𝑥. Hence, we get
∞ ∞ ∞
3 −5𝑥 4
𝑒 −𝑢 𝑒 −𝑢 0− −
𝑥 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑑𝑢 = − = = 0.05
0 0 20 20 0 20
1 x5
Q71. Evaluate 0 10+x 6 3
dx
A. 0.00000132
B. 0.00000792
C. 0.000145
D. 0.000868
Answer: (C) 0.000145

𝑑𝑤
Using the substitution 𝑤 = 10 + 𝑥 6 (so that 𝑑𝑥 = 6𝑥 5 ), we get
1 11 11
𝑥5 1 1 𝑤 −2
𝑑𝑥 = 𝑤 −3 𝑑𝑤 =
0 10 + 𝑥 6 3 6 10 6 −2 10
1 1 1
=− 2
− 2 = 0.000145
12 11 10
3x 2 +3
Q72. What is the integral of , for x > 0?
2x 2 +6x+1
x 3 +3x
A. 0.5x 4 +3x 2 +x
+c
B. ln 3x 2 + 3 + c
C. 0.5 ln(2x 3 + 6x + 1) + c
D. 3x 3 + 3x ln 2x 3 + 6x + 1 + c
Answer: (C) 𝟎. 𝟓 𝐥𝐧(𝟐𝐱 𝟑 + 𝟔𝐱 + 𝟏) + 𝐜

𝑑𝑢
Using the substitution 𝑢 = 2𝑥 3 + 6𝑥 + 1 (so that 𝑑𝑥 = 6𝑥 2 + 6), we get
3𝑥 2 + 3 1
𝑑𝑥 = 0.5 𝑑𝑢 = 0.5 ln 𝑢 + 𝑐 = 0.5 ln 2𝑥 3 + 6𝑥 + 1 + 𝑐
2𝑥 3 + 6𝑥 + 1 𝑢
2x+5
Q73. Use partial fractions to find the integral of 2x−4 x+1
.

1 k 2x−4 3
A. 2
ln x+1
1
B. ln k x + 1 3
2x − 4 2
1
C. 3 ln(x + 1) − 2 ln 2x − 4 + c
1
D. 3 ln(2x − 4) − 2 ln x + 1 + c
𝟏 𝐤 𝟐𝐱−𝟒 𝟑
Answer: (A) 𝐥𝐧
𝟐 𝐱+𝟏
Let
2𝑥 + 5 𝐴 𝐵
≡ + ⇒ 2𝑥 + 5 = 𝐴 𝑥 + 1 + 𝐵 2𝑥 − 4
2𝑥 − 4 𝑥 + 1 2𝑥 − 4 𝑥 + 1
Substituting 𝑥 = −1 gives 3 = −6𝐵 ⇒ 𝐵 = −1/2
Substituting 𝑥 = 2 gives 9 = 3𝐴 ⇒ 𝐴 = 3
1
2𝑥 + 5 3 3 1
𝑑𝑥 = − 2 𝑑𝑥 = ln 2𝑥 − 4 − ln 𝑥 + 1 + 𝑐
2𝑥 − 4 𝑥 + 1 2𝑥 − 4 𝑥 + 1 2 2
3
1 2𝑥 − 4
= ln 𝑘
2 𝑥+1
1
Q74. What is 0
xe2x dx?
A. -10.778
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 2.097
Answer: (D) 2.097
Using integration by parts gives:

1 1 1
1 2𝑥 1 2𝑥
𝑥𝑒 2𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥𝑒 − 𝑒 𝑑𝑥
0 2 0 0 2
1 2 1 2𝑥 1
= 𝑒 − 𝑒
2 4 0
1 1 1
= 𝑒2 − 𝑒2 +
2 4 4
= 2.097
Q75. Leibniz’s formula states that:

b x b x
d ′ ′
∂f
f(x, t) dt = b x f x, b x − a x f x, a x + x, t dt.
dx a x a x ∂x
d x
What is dx 0
3x 2 − 2t dt?
A. 3x 2
B. 6x 2
C. 6x 2 − 8x
D. 9x 2 − 2x
Answer: (D)𝟗𝐱 𝟐 − 𝟐𝐱
Using Leibniz’s formula gives:

𝑥 𝑥
𝑑 𝜕
3𝑥 2 − 2𝑡 𝑑𝑡 = 1 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑡 𝑡=𝑥 −0+ 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑥 0 0 𝜕𝑥
𝑥
= 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 6𝑥 𝑑𝑡
0
𝑥
= 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 6𝑥𝑡 0
= 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 6𝑥 2
= 9𝑥 2 − 2𝑥
15 10
Q76. Find the value of x=5 y=5
(5x + y) dy dx.
A. 2875
B. 3250
C. 2812.5
D. 1406.25
Answer: (A) 2875

15 10 15
10
5𝑥 + 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑥 = 5𝑥𝑦 + 0.5𝑦 2 𝑦 =5 𝑑𝑥
𝑥=5 𝑦 =5 𝑥 =5
15
= 25𝑥 + 37.5 𝑑𝑥
𝑥=5
15
= 12.5𝑥 2 + 37.5𝑥 𝑥 =5
= 2875
Q77. Using the trapezium rule and 7 ordinates, what is the approximate area under the curve y = 7 − x 2
between x = 1 and x = 4?
A. 40.1875
B. 63.125
C. 80.375
D. 138.25
Answer: (B)63.125
Working with 7 ordinates, the area under the curve is approximately:
1 2
6 + 2 5.52 + 52 + 4.52 +42 + 3.52 + 32 × 0.5 = 63.125
2
f ′′ 0
Q78. If ex is expanded to its fourth term, using the Maclaurin expansion f x = f 0 + f ′ 0 x + x 2 + ⋯,
2!
what is the value of e2 based on this?
A. 5
B. 6.333
C. 7.389
D. 7.667
Answer: (B) 6.333
Using the Maclaurin expansion, we have:
𝑥
𝑥2 𝑥3
𝑒 = 1+𝑥+ + +⋯
2! 3!
So:

22 23
𝑒2 ≅ 1 + 2 + + = 6.333
2! 3!
Q79. (i) Write out the first four terms in the Taylor series for ex and 1 + y −1
, stating the range of
values of x and y for which these series are valid.
(ii) Hence determine the coefficients a,b in the series expansion:
𝑥
= 1 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑥 2 + 𝑂 𝑥 3
𝑒𝑥 −1
Answer:
(i) Taylor’s series
The Taylor series for these functions are:
1 1
𝑒 𝑥 = 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 3 + ⋯ −∞ < 𝑥 < ∞
2 6
And:
−1
1+𝑦 = 1 − 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 − 𝑦 3 + ⋯ −1 < 𝑦 < 1
(ii) Determine the coefficients
Using the series for 𝑒 𝑥 , we find that the series for the denominator is:
1 1
𝑒 𝑥 − 1 = 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑥3 + 𝑂 𝑥4
2 6
So, the original function is:
𝑥 𝑥
= 1 1
𝑒𝑥 − 1 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑥3 + 𝑂 𝑥4
2 6
Cancelling an x on the top and bottom:

−1
𝑥 𝑥 1 1 2
= 1 1 = 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑂 𝑥3
𝑒 𝑥 − 1 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑂 𝑥3 2 6
2 6
1 1
We can now use the series for 1 + 𝑦 −1
with 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 + 6 𝑥 2 + 𝑂 𝑥 3 , which gives:
2
𝑥 1 1 1 1
𝑥
= 1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑂 𝑥3 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑂 𝑥3 + 𝑂 𝑥3
𝑒 −1 2 6 2 6
Multiplying out the terms and ignoring any terms of power greater than 2, we get:

𝑥 1 1 1 1 1
= 1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑥2 + 𝑂 𝑥3 = 1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥2 + 𝑂 𝑥3
𝑒𝑥 −1 2 6 4 2 12
1 1
So 𝑎 = − 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏 =
2 12
Comment
If you follow the calculations through keeping more terms, you’ll find that thecoefficient of the 𝑥 3
𝑥 1 1
term is zero. So 𝑒 𝑥 −1 = 1 − 2 𝑥 + 12 𝑥 2 is actually a very good approximation when x is small.
1 A B
Q80. Find constants A and B such that ≡ +
P 2−5P P 2−5P
Answer:
Partial fractions
The coefficients A and B satisfy the identity:

1 𝐴 𝐵
≡ +
𝑃 2 − 5𝑃 𝑃 2 − 5𝑃
Multiply through by P(2 - 5P) :
1 ≡ 𝐴(2 − 5𝑃) + 𝐵𝑃
𝑖𝑒 1 ≡ 2𝐴 + 𝑃(𝐵 − 5𝐴)
Equating the coefficients of the constant terms and the P terms:

1
𝐴=
2
5
And 𝐵 − 5𝐴 = 0 ⇒ 𝐵 = 5𝐴 = 2
So:
1 1/2 5/2
≡ +
𝑃 2 − 5𝑃 𝑃 2 − 5𝑃
−2 2 10
Q81. If a = 1 and b = 5 then the values x and y such that xa + yb = 7 are:
4 −3 −18
A. x = 1 and y = 6
B. x = −4 and y = 1
C. x = −3 and y = 2
D. x = 2 and y = 1
Answer: (C)𝐱 = −𝟑 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐲 = 𝟐
We need to solve the simultaneous equations:
−2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 10
𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 7
4𝑥 − 3𝑦 = −18
Rearranging the first equation gives 𝑦 = 5 + 𝑥. Substituting this into the secondequation gives
6𝑥 = −18 ⇒ 𝑥 = −3. Hence 𝑦 = 2 .
Q82. The unit vector in the direction of 3i-2j+4k is given by:
A. 29(3i − 2j + 4k)
3
1
B. 21
−2
4
3
1
C. −2
29
4
3 2 4
D. 21
i− 21
j+ 21
k
𝟑
𝟏
Answer: (C) 𝟐𝟗
−𝟐
𝟒
The magnitude of 3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 4𝑘 is 32 + −2 2 + 42 = 29. So, the unit vector in the same direction
is:
3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 4𝑘 1 3
= −2
29 29 4
4 1
Q83. The angle between −1 and 3 is:
3 −2
A. 65.4°

B. 74.8°
C. 105.2°
D. 114.6°
Answer: (C)𝟏𝟎𝟓. 𝟐°
The scaler product is:
4 × 1 + −1 × 3 + 3 × −2 = −5
Hence:
−5 = 42 + −1 2 + 32 12 + 32 + −2 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
= 26 14 cos 𝜃
5
So: cos 𝜃 = − 26 14
⇒ 𝜃 = 105.2°
Q84. Which one of the vectors is orthogonal to 3i − 2j + k?
A. 4i − 4j − 4k
B. −4i − 4j + 4k
C. −4i + 4j − 4k
D. 4i + 4j + 4k
Answer: (B) −𝟒𝐢 − 𝟒𝐣 + 𝟒𝐤
The easiest way to do this is to see which of these vectors has a scalar product of zerowith3𝑖 − 2𝑗 +
𝑘.
4𝑖 − 4𝑗 − 4𝑘 3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 𝑘 = 12 + 8 − 4 ≠ 0
−4𝑖 − 4𝑗 + 4𝑘 3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 𝑘 = −12 + 8 + 4 = 0
−4𝑖 + 4𝑗 − 4𝑘 3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 𝑘 = −12 − 8 − 4 ≠ 0
4𝑖 + 4𝑗 + 4𝑘 3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 𝑘 = 12 − 8 + 4 ≠ 0
1 2 −2 4
Q85. If A = and B = then AB is given by:
−3 −4 −3 5
−2 8
A.
9 −20
−8 14
B.
−6 −32
−8 14
C.
18 −32
−14 −20
D.
−18 −26
−𝟖 𝟏𝟒
Answer: (C)
𝟏𝟖 −𝟑𝟐
1 2 −2 4 −2 − 6 4 + 10 −8 14
𝐴𝐵 = = =
−3 −4 −3 5 6 + 12 −12 − 20 18 −32
3 −2 4
Q86. If A = 1 0 −3 then det A is given by:
−3 1 2
A. 33
B. 5
C. –1
D. –19
Answer: (C)–1
0 −3 1 −3 1 0
det 𝐴 = 3 − −2 +4
1 2 −3 2 −3 1
−3 × 3 + 2 × −7 + 4 × 1
= −1
2 1
Q87. If A = then A−1 is given by:
−4 3
1 3 −1
A. −2
−4 2
0.3 −0.1
B.
0.4 0.2
1 −1 −3
C. −2
−2 −4
2 1
D.
1.5 0.5

𝟎. 𝟑 −𝟎. 𝟏
Answer: (B)
𝟎. 𝟒 𝟎. 𝟐
𝑎 𝑏 1 𝑑 −𝑏 1 3 −1
If 𝐴 = the 𝐴−1 = 𝑎𝑑 −𝑏𝑐 = 6− −4 .
𝑐 𝑑 −𝑐 𝑎 4 2
So, we have:
1 3 −1 1 3 −1 0.3 −0.1
𝐴−1 = = =
6 − −4 4 2 10 4 2 0.4 0.2
Q88. The eigenvalues, λ, of matrix A solve:
A. det A + λI = 0
B. det A − λI = 0
C. det λA − I = 0
D. det A − λ = 0
Answer: (B) det A − λI = 0
3 2
Q89. Which of the following is NOT an eigenvector of A =
6 −1
2
A.
−6
3
B.
−1
1
C.
−3
2
D.
2
𝟑
Answer: (B)
−𝟏
The easiest way to check this is to find out which vectors satisfy
3 2 𝑥 𝑥
6 −1 𝑦 =𝑘 𝑦
Those that do are eigenvectors

3 2 2 −6 2
= = −3
6 −1 −6 18 −6
3 2 3 7 3
= ≠𝑘
6 −1 −1 19 −1
3 2 1 −3 1
= = −3
6 −1 −3 9 −3
3 2 2 10 2
= =5
6 −1 2 10 2
Q90. (i) By considering expressions involving scalar products, find a unit vector of the form ai + bj +
ck that is perpendicular to the displacement vectors -2i + 3j and 10i + k .
(ii) Write down the other unit vector perpendicular to -2i + 3j and 10i + k .
Answer:
(i) Unit perpendicular vector
The scalar (dot) product of two perpendicular vectors is zero. So:
(𝑎i + 𝑏j + 𝑐k)(−2i + 3j) = 0 and (𝑎i + 𝑏j + 𝑐k)(10i + k) = 0
ie−2𝑎 + 3𝑏 = 0 and 10𝑎 + 𝑐 = 0

2
So:𝑏 = 3 𝑎 and 𝑐 = −10𝑎
For a unit vector we also need 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐2 = 1, which gives:
2
2 3
𝑎2 + 𝑎 + −10𝑎 2 = 1⇒𝑎=
3 913
and the required unit vector is:

3 2 30
𝑖+ 𝑗− 𝑘
913 913 913
Comment
If the question hadn’t directed you which method to use (and your knowledge of vectorsis good)
you could also have done this by working out the cross product(−2𝑖 + 3𝑗) ^ (10𝑖 + 𝑘) , then
rescaled to get a unit vector. You will not need crossproducts in the actuarial exams.

(ii) Other unit perpendicular vector
The other unit vector perpendicular to these two vectors is the unit vector pointing in the op-
posite direction, which is just the negative of the one we’ve found i.e.:
3 2 30
− 𝑖− 𝑗+ 𝑘
913 913 913

SECTION 2
STATISTICS

ACET CENTRAL TENDENCY AND DISPERSION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
CENTRAL TENDENCY AND DISPERSION

1. A set of claim amounts (£) is given below.
192 136 253 138 87
112 221 176 336 203
159 55 308 165 254
Present these data graphically using a boxplot.

Answers: Median is £176
The lower quartile is £136
The upper quartile is £253
2. The table below shows the journey y times (in minutes) of students to reach their place of work:
Time (mins), t Number of students
0 ≤ 𝑡 < 10 4
10 ≤ 𝑡 < 20 13
20 ≤ 𝑡 < 40 21
40 ≤ 𝑡 < 60 9
60 ≤ 𝑡 < 120 3
Calculate the standard deviation of these times.
Answer: s = 𝟒𝟎𝟐. 𝟖𝟕= 20.07

3. Shortly before close of trading on a particular day an insurance office has sold 8 new policies. The
sample mean and standard deviation of the sums assured have been calculated, in units of £1,000, as
31.5 and 37.2367, respectively. Another policy for £60,000 is then sold just before the close.
Calculate the sample mean and standard deviation of the full set of 9 sums assured.
Answer: 𝒔 = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟎𝟑𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟗 = 𝟑𝟔, 𝟏𝟎𝟒
4. The marks (%) of a sample of 20 students from a large class in a recent examination had a sample
mean 43 and a sample standard deviation 6. The marks were subsequently adjusted – each mark was
multiplied by 1.3 and the result was then increased by 10.
Calculate the sample standard deviation of the adjusted mark.
Answer: So the new sample standard deviation of the adjusted mark is:
𝟏. 𝟑 × 𝟔 = 𝟕. 𝟖
5. The following data are the rental rates per food for boat storage at the various marinas in two
different regions.
Region A
6.37 6.60 6.27 6.49 6.64 6.82 7.16 6.45 5.60 5.95
4.50 6.60 6.00 6.82 7.04 5.50 7.05 7.05 6.96
Region B
4.60 4.75 4.70 8.75 4.50 5.40 6.00 6.00 6.50 6.00
5.00 5.00 5.50 4.35 4.50 5.20 4.95
(i) Draw stem-and-leaf displays for these data.
(ii) Determine the median rental rate and the interquartile range for each region and comment on
the data display.

Answer:
(i) The stem and leaf diagram for Region A is:
The stem and leaf diagram for Region A is:
Can also round off and make stem and leaf diagram with single digits in the leaves
(ii) The rates in Region A are higher than Region B on average. There is slightly more
variation in the rates for Region B than for Region A.
6. A group of 12 actuaries are weighed. Their weights have a mean of 78 kg and a standard deviation of 4
kg. Find the sum of squares (i.e.∑𝑥 2 ) of their weights.
Answer: 73,184
7. The table below contains he age last birthday at death of 30 male policyholders who held life
assurance policies with a particular company:
Age 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99 100-109
Frequency 1 2 5 10 8 3 1

Find the mean and the standard deviation of the policyholders’ ages.
Answer:
Mean = 76.6 years
𝒔 = 𝟏𝟕𝟐. 𝟗𝟗 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟏𝟓 𝒚𝒆𝒂𝒓𝒔
8. A consumer watchdog measures the length of time (in minutes) for which 40 phone calls to a helpline
were put on hold. The cumulative frequency is given below:
Time (t) Cumulative Frequency
t < 0.5 4
t<1 11
t<2 20
t<3 34
t<4 40
Estimate the interquartile range for the length of time that calls were placed on hold.
Answer:
𝟔
𝑸𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟓 + × 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟐𝟗 𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒔
𝟕
𝟏𝟎
𝑸𝟑 = 𝟐 + × 𝟓 − 𝟐 = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟒𝟑 𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒔
𝟏𝟒
𝑰𝑸𝑹 = 𝑸𝟑 − 𝑸𝟏 = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟒𝟑 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟐𝟗 = 𝟑. 𝟐𝟏 𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒔

9. A random sample of fifty claim amounts (£) arising in a particular section of an insurance company’s
business are displayed below in a stem and leaf plot:
Stem unit = 100
Leaf unit = 10
The sum of the fifty amounts (before rounding) is £92,780.
Calculate the mean and median claim amounts.
Answer:
Using the sum of the fifty amounts given in the question:
£𝟗𝟐, 𝟕𝟖𝟎
𝒙= = £𝟏, 𝟖𝟓𝟓. 𝟔𝟎
𝟓𝟎
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
The median is the 𝟐 × 𝟓𝟎 + 𝟐 = 𝟐𝟓 𝟐th value. Counting through the leaves, we see that this lies
between the 3 and the 4 on the 17 stem (i.e. between 1,730 and 1,740). Hence, the median is
£1,735.

10. For a particular class of insurance policy the distribution of claim amounts is positively skewed.
Which of the following statements about the claim amount distribution is true?
(a) mode > median > mean
(b) mean > median > mode
(c) median > mode > mean
(d) mean > mode > median
Answer:
In Section 5 we had the following diagram:
Hence, we can see that answer B is correct.

11. The frequency table shows the number of claims (of a particular type) made each week in the last
year.
Number of claims per week 0 1 2 3 4 5
Frequency 5 7 15 12 9 4
(i) Calculate the median number of claims per week.

(ii) In the first two weeks of the following year, 3 and 5 claims were made. Add these values to the
frequency distribution and find the new median of these 54 results.
Answer:
(i) the median is 2 claims per week
(ii) the median is 2½ claims per week.

12. The table below contains the age last birthday at death of 30 male policyholders who held life
assurance policies with a particular company:
Age 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79 80-89 90-99 100-109
Frequency 1 2 5 10 8 3 1
Find the mean age of the policyholders.

Answer: The mean is 76.7 years
13. A general insurance company records the amount claimed on the last 100 claims on a particular type
of car insurance. The results were:
Claim Amount, c No. of claims
0 ≤ 𝑐 < £500 6
£500 ≤ 𝑐 < £1.000 11
£1,000 ≤ 𝑐 < £1.500 49
£1,500 ≤ 𝑐 < £2.000 26
£2,000 ≤ 𝑐 < £5.000 8
State the modal group.

Answers: The modal group is £𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 ≤ 𝒄 < £𝟏, 𝟓𝟎𝟎 as it has the highest frequency (49)
14. The number of personal pension reviews completed by a student each day over the last four weeks
are given below:
Reviews completed in a day 4 5 6 7 8
Frequency 5 7 4 3 1
(i) James thinks that the modal amount of reviews completed in a day is 8 as it is the highest
number. What has he done wrong?
(ii) What is the correct mode?
Answer:
(i) It is not the highest number that is the mode, but the number with the highest frequency.
(ii) The mode is 5 reviews as it has the highest frequency (7).
15. The ages of employees in two departments are given below:
Marketing 24 25 27 27 28 28 28 29 29 32
Personnel 27 31 35 38 44 44 47 47 47 51
Draw dotplots for each of these departments and hence compare the two departments.
Answer:
We can see that the ages of those working in Personnel are higher on average than those
working in Marketing. The spread of the ages of those working in Personnel is wider than
Marketing. Finally, the ages appear to be fairly symmetrical in Marketing whereas they are
negatively skewed for Personnel.

16. Represent the following claim amounts on a stem and leaf diagram:
1730, 2480, 3010, 2820, 5390, 6360, 8340, 3710, 2270, 2500, 3450, 4830, 2360, 4340, 7510, 6270,
1750, 2720, 9340, 7550, 11920, 4840, 5670, 930, 2750, 220, 2340, 3510, 4890, 1040, 3410, 5580,
3760
Comment on the shape of the diagram.
Answer:
Rounding each of the claims to the nearest 100 we get a stem and leaf diagram of:
The data is concentrated at the lower end i.e.there are many claims for small amounts and few
claims for high amounts.
17. Another general insurance company recorded the claim amounts that it received during the previous
month:
Claim amount (x) Frequency
0 ≤ 𝑥 < 250 60
250 ≤ 𝑥 < 500 75
500 ≤ 𝑥 < 1,000 50

1,000 ≤ 𝑥 < 2,000 40
2,000 ≤ 𝑥 < 5,000 30
(i) Calculate the frequency densities for each of the groups.
Answer:
Claim amount (x) Frequency Frequency density
𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 < 250 60 𝟔𝟎 ÷ 𝟐𝟓𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟒
𝟐𝟓𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 < 500 75 𝟕𝟓 ÷ 𝟐𝟓𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟑
𝟓𝟎𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 < 1,000 50 𝟓𝟎 ÷ 𝟓𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟏
𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 < 2,000 40 𝟒𝟎 ÷ 𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒
𝟐, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 < 5,000 30 𝟑𝟎 ÷ 𝟑, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
18. Write down the class width for each of these groups:
(i) £150 ≤ x < £170 where x represents a claim amount
(ii) £150 − £169 for claim amounts recorded to the nearest £
(iii) £0 − £149 for claim amounts recorded to the nearest £
(iv) 30 − 35 years for age last birthday before the death of an individual.
Answer:
(i) Class width = £170 - £150 = £20
(ii) Class width = £169.50 - £149.50 = £20
(iii) Class width = £149.50 - £0 = £149.50
(iv) Class width = 36 – 30 = 6 years

19. The sum of deviations of 20 observations measured from 30 is -20. The mean of the observations is
(a) 20
(b) 29
(c) 30
(d) 21
Answer: (b) 29
20. The average marks obtained in an examination by two groups of students was found to be 68 and 73,
respectively. The average marks of all the students was 70. The percentage of all students belonging to
group 1 is
(a) 50
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 60
Answer: (d) 60
21. The numbers -1, 0, 3, x, x+2, 9, 12, 13 are in ascending order. If the median of the numbers is 6, the
arithmetic mean of the numbers is
(a) 5
(b) 5.5
(c) 6
(d) 6.5
Answer: (c) 6
22. The standard deviation and coefficient of variation of a set of observations are 5.2 and 10.4%, respectively.
If each observation is increased by 2, then the coefficient of variation of new observations is
(a) 10%
(b) 20%

(c) 12.4%
(d) 10.4%
Answer: (a) 20%
23. If x is the median of the integers {11,13,3,9,7,19,2,3,21,17, x}, which of the following could possibly be
the value of x?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
Answer: (b) 10
24. Let y1 , y2 , y3 , y4 , y5 , y6 be observations with standard deviation m. the standard deviation of the
observations ay1 + b, ay2 + b, ay3 + b, ay4 + b, ay5 + b, ay6 + b is
(a) |a|m + b
(b) m/|a|
(c) m
(d) |a|m
Answer: (d) |𝐚|𝐦
25. Coefficients of variation of two distributions are 0.4 and 0.5, and their means are 25 and 20,
respectively. Difference of their standard deviations is
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 0
(d) 22.5
Answer: (c) 0

26. Let X be a discrete random variable that takes values 1, 2 and 3 with probabilities 0.5, 0.3 and 0.2,
respectively. Then the expected value of X − 2 is
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.3
(c) -0.3
(d) 0
Answer: (a) 0.7
27. Let X be a random variable with E(X) = 10 and V(X) = 25. Define Y = aX − b, (a > 0 and b are
constants) such that E(Y) = 0 and V(Y) = 1. Then the pair (a, b) is equal to
1 25
(a) 10
, 10
1
(b) ,2
5
1 1
(c) 5 2
,
(d) 5,50
𝟏
Answer: (b) ,𝟐
𝟓
28. The mean of the following distribution is 6, where p is unknown.
Value 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Frequency 1 4 7 6 p 3 1
The distribution has

(a) Median 6 and mode 5
(b) Median 6 and mode 7
(c) Median 5 and mode 5
(d) Median 7 and mode 7
Answer: (b) Median 6 and mode 7

29. The income of 100 families in a certain region are stored in a computer file. The income ranges from `
10,000.00 per year to ` 42,500.00 per year. By mistake, the highest income in the data set is recorded
as ` 4,25,000.00. Which of the following statements regarding the effects of the mistake is true?
(a) The average income is overestimated by ` 4250.00
(b) The median income is correctly estimated
(c) The median income is overestimated
(d) The interquartile range is overestimated
Answer: (b) The median income is correctly estimated

ACET PROBABILITY, PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
PROBABILITY, PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS

1. In a class of 56 students, 28 opted for Mathematics, 30 opted for Biology and 22 opted for both
Mathematics and Biology. If one of these students is selected at random, then probability that the
student has opted neither Mathematics nor Biology is
A. 9/14
B. 5/14
C. 3/28
D. 1/7
Answer: B
Number of students opted Mathematics only = 28 – 22 = 6
Number of students opted Biology only = 30 – 22 = 8
Number of students opted neither Mathematics nor Biology
= 56 – (6 + 8 + 22) = 20
The required probability = 20/56 = 5/14
2. A man decided to visit four cities C1 , C2 , C3 and C4 in a random order. The probability that he visits C1
before C2 and C2 before C3 is
A. 1/6
B. 1/8
C. 1/3
D. 1/12
Answer: A
The number of ways, the man can visit the cities is 4! = 24.
The possible cases that the man visits C1 before C2 and C2 before C3 are C1C2C3C4, C1C2C4C3,
C1C4C2C3, C4C1C2C3.
The number of cases favorable to the event is 4.
The required probability = 4/24 = 1/6
3. For two events E and F, P(E|F) > P(E), then which of the following is correct?
A. P F E < 𝑃(𝐹)
B. P F E = P(F)
C. P E F + P F E < 𝑃 E + P(F)
D. P FE >𝑃 F
Answer: D
𝑷 𝑭𝑬 >𝑃 𝑭
𝑷 𝑬∩𝑭
⇒ >𝑃 𝑬 ⇒𝑷 𝑬∩𝑭 >𝑃 𝑬 𝑷 𝑭 ⇒𝑷 𝑭 𝑬 >𝑃 𝑭
𝑷 𝑭
1 1 1
4. Let 𝐴1 , 𝐴2 , 𝐴3 be independent events with probabilities , , , respectively. Then 𝑃 𝐴1 ∪ 𝐴2 ∪ 𝐴3
2 4 4
equals
A. 9/32
B. 23/32
C. 31/32
D. 1
Answer:B
𝑷 𝑨𝟏 ∪ 𝑨𝟐 ∪ 𝑨𝟑 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑨𝑪𝟏 ∩ 𝑨𝑪𝟐 ∩ 𝑨𝑪𝟑
Since 𝑨𝟏 , 𝑨𝟐 , 𝑨𝟑 are independent, 𝑨𝑪𝟏 , 𝑨𝑪𝟐 , 𝑨𝑪𝟑 are also independent.

𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟗
𝑷 𝑨𝑪𝟏 ∩ 𝑨𝑪𝟐 ∩ 𝑨𝑪𝟑 = 𝑷 𝑨𝑪𝟏 )𝑷 𝑨𝑪𝟐 𝑷(𝑨𝑪𝟑 = 𝟏 − 𝟏− 𝟏− =
𝟐 𝟒 𝟒 𝟑𝟐
𝟗 𝟐𝟑
𝑷 𝑨𝟏 ∪ 𝑨𝟐 ∪ 𝑨𝟑 = 𝟏 − =
𝟑𝟐 𝟑𝟐
5. A man is known to speak truth 80% of the times. He throws a die and reports that the number
appeared is greater than 4. The probability that it is actually a number greater than 4 is
A. 4/5
B. 2/5
C. 2/3
D. 4/7
Answer: C
The probability that the man speaks truth is 0.80.
Let E be the event that the man reports that the number occur is more than 4 in the throwing of
the die.
E1 = the event that the number occurs is more than 4
E2 = number occurs is less than or equal to 4
𝟐 𝟏
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 = = .
𝟔 𝟑
𝟒 𝟐
𝑷 𝑬𝟐 = =
𝟔 𝟑
𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟎
𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎
𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑬𝟏
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬 =
𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 + 𝑷 𝑬𝟐 𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 + 𝑷 𝑬 𝑬𝟐 𝑷 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟎 × + 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎 × = 𝟎. 𝟒
𝟑 𝟑
𝟏
𝟎. 𝟖𝟎 × 𝟑 𝟐
𝑺𝒐, 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬 = =
𝟎. 𝟒 𝟑
6. In a random arrangement of the letters of the words UNIVERSITY, the probability that the two I’s do
not come together is
A. 1/10
B. 9/10
C. 1/5
D. 4/5

Answer: D
𝟏𝟎!
The total number of arrangements = 𝟐!
, of which (i) two I’s come together in 9! choices and (ii)
𝟏𝟎!
do not come together in 𝟐!
− 𝟗! Choices. Hence the required probability is
𝟏𝟎!
𝟐!
− 𝟗! 𝟗! 𝟒
𝟏𝟎! =𝟏− 𝟏𝟎 =
𝟗! × 𝟓
𝟐! 𝟐
2 3 1
7. If 𝑃 𝑋 = , 𝑃 𝑌 = , 𝑃 𝑋 ∩ 𝑌 = , then the value of 𝑃 𝑋 𝐶 𝑌 𝐶 is
5 10 5
A. 5/7
B. 1/2
C. 3/7
D. 6/7
Answer: A
𝟑 𝟕 𝟐 𝟑 𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿𝑪 = , 𝑷 𝒀𝑪 = ,𝑷 𝑿∪ 𝒀 = 𝑷 𝑿 +𝑷 𝒀 − 𝑷 𝑿∩𝒀 = + − = , 𝑷 𝑿𝑪 ∩ 𝒀𝑪
𝟓 𝟏𝟎 𝟓 𝟏𝟎 𝟓 𝟐
𝟏
= 𝟏−𝑷 𝑿∪𝒀 = .
𝟐
𝟏
𝑷 𝑿𝑪 ∩𝒀𝑪 𝟓
Thus 𝑷 𝑿𝑪 𝒀𝑪 = 𝑷 𝒀𝑪
= 𝟐
𝟕 =𝟕
𝟏𝟎
8. A card is drawn from a pack of cards. The card is replaced and the pack is shuffled again. If this
process is executed six times, the probability that 2 spades, 2 clubs and two red cards are drawn is
45 3 4
A. 2
× 4
90
B. 210
1 6
C. 90 × 4
13 13 26
× ×
2 2 2
D. 52
6

Answer: B
The probability of getting a spade is 13/52 =1/4 and that of a club is also ¼. The probability of
getting a red card is 26/52 =1/2. In 6 draws, 2 spades, 2 clubs and two red cards can be
𝟔 𝟒 𝟐
selected in × × = 𝟏𝟓 × 𝟔 × 𝟏 = 𝟗𝟎 ways. Thus, the required probability is
𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟗𝟎
𝟗𝟎 × × × =
𝟒 𝟒 𝟐 𝟐𝟏𝟎
9. Urn A contains 2 white balls and 1 black ball, whereas urn B contains 1 white ball and 5 black balls. A
ball is drawn at random from urn A and placed in urn B. A ball is then drawn from urn B. it happens to
be white. The probability that the ball transferred was white is
A. 4/5
B. 1/5
C. 2/7
D. 5/7
Answer: A
Let E1 be the event that the ball transferred was white, and E 2 be the event that the ball drawn
from urn B is white.
𝟐 𝟐
𝑷 𝑬𝟐 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝟕
× 𝟑 𝟒
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟐 = = =
𝑷 𝑬𝟐 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 + 𝑷 𝑬𝟐 𝑬𝑪𝟏 𝑷 𝑬𝑪𝟏 𝟐
×
𝟐
+
𝟏
×
𝟏 𝟓
𝟕 𝟑 𝟕 𝟑
10. Three cards are drawn simultaneously from a box containing six cards numbered 1,2,3,4,5,6. The
probability that the selected numbers are in arithmetic progression is
A. 7/10
B. 3/10
C. 3/5
D. 1/5
Answer: B
𝟔
All possible cases: = 𝟐𝟎
𝟑
Cases favourable to the event: {(1,2,3), (2,3,4), (3,4,5), (4,5,6), (1,3,5), (2,4,6)}.
Number of cases favourable to the event (selected number are in AP) = 6.
11. If the letters of the word ‘ATTENTION’ are written down at random, the probability that all the T’s
occur together is
A. 1/12
B. 1/72
C. 1/6
D. 7/9
Answer: A
𝟗!
Total number of arrangements =
𝟑!𝟐!
𝟕!
Number of arrangement when all the T’s occur together = 𝟐!
𝟕! 𝟗! 𝟔 𝟏
Required probability = 𝟐! / 𝟑!𝟐! = 𝟗×𝟖 = 𝟏𝟐
12. Consider a system consisting of two components 𝐶1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶2 . It is given that

C1 fails but C2 does not fail = 0.25, P C1 and C2 fail = 0.25
Then P C2 fails C1 has failed is
A. 1/3
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 1/4
Answer: C
Suppose E1 = the event that C1 fails; E2 = the event that C2 fails.
𝑷 𝑪𝟏 𝒇𝒂𝒊𝒍𝒔 𝒂𝒍𝒐𝒏𝒆 = 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓

𝑷 𝑪𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑪𝟐𝒇𝒂𝒊𝒍 = 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 = 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟐 + 𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 + 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟎
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑬𝟐 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 𝟏
𝑷 𝑪𝟐 𝒇𝒂𝒊𝒍𝒔 𝑪𝟏 𝒉𝒂𝒔 𝒇𝒂𝒊𝒍𝒆𝒅 = = =
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝟎. 𝟓𝟎 𝟐
13. Let A and B be two events such that P(A) = 0.6, P(B) = 0.2 and P(A|B) = 0.5.
Then 𝑃(𝐴|𝐵) equals
A. 1/10
B. 3/10
C. 6/7
D. 3/8
Answer: D
𝑷 𝑨 = 𝟎. 𝟔, 𝑷 𝑩 = 𝟎. 𝟐 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑷 𝑨 𝑩 = 𝟎. 𝟓
𝑷 𝑨𝑩 = 𝑷 𝑩 × 𝟎. 𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟏
𝑷 𝑨 ∩ 𝑩 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑨 ∪ 𝑩 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑨 + 𝑷 𝑩 − 𝑷 𝑨𝑩
= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟔 + 𝟎. 𝟐 − 𝟎. 𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑
𝑷 𝑨𝑩 𝟎. 𝟑 𝟑
𝑷 𝑨𝑩 = = =
𝑷 𝑩 𝟎. 𝟖 𝟖
14. A car manufacturer has two plants. Plant I manufactures 60% of the cars and plant II manufactures
40%. At plant I, 90% of the cars are rated as of standard quality and, at plant I, 80% of the cars are
rated as of standard quality. A car is chosen at random and is found to be of standard quality. A car is
chosen at random and is found to be of standard quality. What is the probability that it has come from
plant I?
A. 27/43
B. 2/3

C. 3/43
D. 16/43
Answer: A
Let E1 = the event that a car is manufactured by plant I;
E2 = the event that a car is manufactured by plant II;
S = the event that the car is of standard quality.
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟔, 𝑷 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟒, 𝑷 𝑺 𝑬𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟗, 𝑷 𝑺 𝑬𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟖.
Therefore,
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑺 𝑬𝟏 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟗 𝟓𝟒 𝟐𝟕
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑺 = = = =
𝑷 𝑬𝟏 𝑷 𝑺 𝑬𝟏 + 𝑷 𝑬𝟐 𝑷 𝑺 𝑬𝟐 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟗 + 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟖 𝟖𝟔 𝟒𝟑
15. If a polygon has 65 diagonals, its number of sides is
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 13
Answer: D
𝒏
If n be the number of sides, then − 𝒏 = 𝟔𝟓 ⇒ 𝒏 = 𝟏𝟑
𝟐
16. The number of permutation of six letters chosen from the set {A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I,J}, so that A, B, and C
are always chosen and they occur together is
A. 7P3
B. 7P3 × 6
C. 7P3 × 4
D. 7!

Answer: D
𝟕𝑷𝟑 × 𝟒 × 𝟑! = 𝟕!
17. If there exist only four letters R,A,N,K in an English dictionary, what will be the rank of the word
‘RANK’ in that dictionary?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 23
D. 16
Answer: A
Alphabetical order of the letters A,K,N,R. Number of words starting with A is 6 and same is true
for K and N. the first word starting with R is RAKN, next word will be RANK. Thus the position
of the word RANK is 𝟔 × 𝟑 + 𝟏 + 𝟏 = 𝟐𝟎
18. If A and B are two mutually exclusive events, then they cannot be independent, if
A. P A = 0 and P B ≠ 0
B. P A = 0 and P B = 0
C. P A ≠ 0 and P B ≠ 0
D. P A ≠ 0 and P B = 0
Answer: C
A and B are already mutually exclusive. If they have to be independent too, then 𝑷 𝑨 × 𝑷 𝑩 =
𝑷 𝑨 ∩ 𝑩 = 𝟎, i.e., both P(A) and P(B) cannot be positive.
Conversely, if 𝑷 𝑨 ≠ 𝟎 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑷 𝑩 ≠ 𝟎, A and B cannot be independent.
19. If 𝑃 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = 0.7, 𝑃 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 0.3, the value of𝑃 𝐴𝐶 + 𝑃 𝐵𝐶 is

A. 0
B. 0.4

C. 0.21
D. 1
Answer: D
𝑷 𝑨𝑪 + 𝑷 𝑩𝑪 = 𝟐 − 𝑷 𝑨 − 𝑷 𝑩 = 𝟐 − 𝑷 𝑨 ∪ 𝑩 − 𝑷 𝑨 ∩ 𝑩 = 𝟏
20. A bag contains 2m + 1 coins. It is known that m of these have a tail on both sides, whereas the rest are
fair. A coin is drawn at random from the bag and is tossed. If the probability that ‘toss produces tail’ is
31/42, the value of m is
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 21
Answer: B
A1 : coin drawn is two tailed
A2 : coin drawn is fair
B: the toss produces tail. Required probability
𝟑𝟏 𝒎 𝒎 + 𝟏 𝟏 𝟑𝟏
𝑷 𝑩 = 𝑷 𝑨𝟏 𝑷 𝑩 𝑨𝟏 + 𝑷 𝑨𝟐 𝑷 𝑩 𝑨𝟐 = ⇒ ×𝟏+ × = ⇒ 𝒎 = 𝟏𝟎.
𝟒𝟐 𝟐𝒎 + 𝟏 𝟐𝒎 + 𝟏 𝟐 𝟒𝟐
21. A shipment of 10 television sets includes four that are defective. In how many ways can a hotel
purchase four of these sets and receive at most two defective sets?
A. 195
B. 170
C. 90
D. 185
Answer: D
𝟔 𝟒 𝟔 𝟒 𝟔
Total number of ways = + + = 𝟏𝟓 + 𝟖𝟎 + 𝟗𝟎 = 𝟏𝟖𝟓.
𝟒 𝟏 𝟑 𝟐 𝟐

22. Let A and B be two events with 𝑃 𝐴 = 0.5, 𝑃 𝐵 = 0.3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 0.1. Then 𝑃 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 is
A. 1/7
B. 1/5
C. 3/5
D. 1/9
Answer: A
𝑷 𝑨∩𝑩 ∩ 𝑨∪𝑩 𝑷(𝑨 ∩ 𝑩)

𝑷 𝑨∩𝑩 𝑨∪𝑩 = =
𝑷 𝑨∪𝑩 𝑷 𝑨∪𝑩
𝑷 𝑨 ∪ 𝑩 = 𝑷 𝑨 + 𝑷 𝑩 − 𝑷 𝑨 ∩ 𝑩 = 𝟎. 𝟓 + 𝟎. 𝟑 − 𝟎. 𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟕
So,
𝟎. 𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝑨∩𝑩 𝑨∪𝑩 = =
𝟎. 𝟕 𝟕
23. Two methods, A and B are available for teaching a certain industrial skill. The failure rate is 20% for A
and 10% for B. However, B is more expensive and hence is used only 30% of the time. A worker is
taught the skill by one of the methods but failed to learn it correctly. What was the probability that she
was taught by method A?
A. 7/13
B. 3/17
C. 14/17
D. 6/13
Answer: C
Suppose Failure is denoted by F.
𝑷 𝑭 𝑨 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎, 𝑷 𝑭 𝑩 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎, 𝑷 𝑨 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟎, 𝑷 𝑩 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎.
So,
𝑷 𝑭𝑨 𝑷 𝑨 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟕𝟎 𝟎. 𝟏𝟒 𝟏𝟒
𝑷 𝑨𝑭 = = = =
𝑷 𝑭 𝑨 𝑷 𝑨 +𝑷 𝑭 𝑩 𝑷 𝑩 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟕𝟎 + 𝟎. 𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎 𝟎. 𝟏𝟕 𝟏𝟕

24. Four boys and 3 girls are to sit in a row. The probability that all the boys sit together and so do all the
girls is
A. 144/5040
B. 288/5040
C. 24/5040
D. 1
Answer: B
Arrangement: BBBBGGG or GGGBBBB. The number of ways the boys can sit together and so can
all the girls is 𝟐 × 𝟒! × 𝟑! = 𝟐𝟖𝟖. Required probability
𝟐𝟖𝟖 𝟐𝟖𝟖
= =
𝟕! 𝟓𝟎𝟒𝟎
1 1
25. Let A and B be two events with 𝑃 𝐴 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = . If A is a subset of B then the value of P(B)
4 3
is
A. 1/3
B. 1/12
C. 1/9
D. None of the above
Answer: A
𝑷 𝑨∪𝑩 = 𝑷 𝑨 +𝑷 𝑩 −𝑷 𝑨∩𝑩
= 𝑷 𝑨 + 𝑷 𝑩 − 𝑷 𝑨 (Since A is subset of B)
= 𝑷(𝑩)
This implies P(B) = 1/3
(Alternatively, since 𝑨 ⊆ 𝑩, 𝑨 ∪ 𝑩 = 𝑩.
Therefore,
𝑷 𝑩 = 𝑷 𝑨 ∪ 𝑩 = 𝟏/𝟑)

26. In a population, where 49% of the population is male and 51% is female, about 10% of men and 1% of
women are colorblind. Suppose a person is colorblind, then the probability he is a male is approximately
A. 0.85
B. 0.77
C. 0.91
D. 0.95
Answer: C
Let M: Male, F: Female, C: Colorblind.
𝑷 𝑪 𝑴 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎, 𝑷 𝑪 𝑭 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏, 𝑷 𝑴 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟗, 𝑷 𝑭 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟏
Find
𝑷𝑪𝑴 𝑷 𝑴 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
𝑷 𝑴𝑪 = = = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟎𝟓𝟕 ≈ 𝟎. 𝟗𝟏
𝑷 𝑪 𝑴 𝑷 𝑴 +𝑷 𝑪 𝑭 𝑷 𝑭 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟒𝟗 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟓𝟏
27. The number 9 bus is never on time – it’s always either early or late! The probability that the bus is late
on any day is 0.6, independent of which day it is. What is the probability that the number 9 bus is
(i) late on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday
(ii) early on Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday
(iii) early on Monday, Wednesday and Friday and late on Tuesday and Thursday.
Answer:
Since the probability the bus is late on any day is independent, we get:
(i) 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟏𝟔
(ii) 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟒
(iii) 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟑𝟎𝟒

28. There are 3 jam doughnuts and 4 iced doughnuts on a table. I eat one of these doughnuts and then eat
a second doughnut at random. Find:
(i) P(2nd doughnut is iced |1st doughnut is jam)
(ii) P(2nd doughnut is jam |1st doughnut is jam)
(iii) P(2nd doughnut is iced |1st doughnut is iced) .
Answer:
If the first doughnut I eat is a jam one then there are 2 jam and 4 iced doughnuts left. Hence:
(i) P(2nd doughnut is iced |1st doughnut is jam) = 4/6 = 2/3
(ii) P(2nd doughnut is jam |1st doughnut is jam) = 2/6=1/3
If the first doughnut I eat is an iced one then there are 3 jam and 3 iced doughnuts left.
Hence:
(iii) P(2nd doughnut is iced |1st doughnut is iced) = 3/6 = 1/2
29. My sock drawer contains 4 blue socks and 4 black socks.
(i) In the morning I randomly choose two socks from the drawer. What is the probability that:
(a) I pick a blue sock followed by a black sock
(b) I pick a pair of black socks?
(ii) To be sure that I get a matching pair of socks I decide to randomly choose three socks from the
drawer. What is the probability that:
(a) I pick 3 blue socks
(b) I pick a blue sock followed by 2 black socks?
Answers:
(i) (a) If I pick a blue sock then there are 3 blue and 4 black socks remaining.
𝑷(𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌)
𝑷 𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆 × 𝑷(𝟐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌|𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆)

𝟒 𝟒
= ×
𝟖 𝟕
𝟏𝟔 𝟐
= =
𝟓𝟔 𝟕
(b) If I pick a black sock then there are 4 blue and 3 black socks remaining.
𝑷(𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌)
𝑷 𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌 × 𝑷(𝟐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌|𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌)

𝟒 𝟑
= ×
𝟖 𝟕
𝟏𝟐 𝟑
= =
𝟓𝟔 𝟏𝟒
(ii) (a) Similarly, we get:
𝑷 𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟑𝒓𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆
𝟒 𝟑 𝟐 𝟏
= × × =
𝟖 𝟕 𝟔 𝟏𝟒
(b) And:
𝑷 𝟏𝒔𝒕 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒖𝒆 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟐𝒏𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝟑𝒓𝒅 𝒔𝒐𝒄𝒌 𝒃𝒍𝒂𝒄𝒌
𝟒 𝟒 𝟑 𝟏
= × × =
𝟖 𝟕 𝟔 𝟕

ACET DISCRETE RANDOM VARIABLES AND DISTRIBUTIONS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
DISCRETE RANDOM VARIABLES AND DISTRIBUTIONS

1. The probability function of a random variable X is given by:
𝑃 𝑋 = 𝑥 = 𝑐𝑥 2 𝑥 = 1,2,3 𝑜𝑟 4
Find the value of c.
Answer
Writing out the probability distribution of X , we get:
x 1 2 3 4
𝑷(𝑿 = 𝒙) C 4c 9c 16c
Since the sum of the probabilities must be 1, we have:
∑𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒙 = 𝟎 + 𝒄 + 𝟒𝒄 + 𝟗𝒄 + 𝟏𝟔𝒄 = 𝟏
𝟏
⇒ 𝟑𝟎𝒄 = 𝟏 ⇒ 𝒄 =
𝟑𝟎
2. The number of claims in a year on a particular policy arise according to the following probability
distribution:
Claims 0 1 2
Probability 5 1 1
−𝜃 −𝜃 + 2𝜃
8 4 8
Give the range of possible values that 𝜃 could take.
Answer
Using the fact that the probabilities sum to 1 is not helpful here:
𝟓 𝟏 𝟏
− 𝜽 + − 𝜽 + + 𝟐𝜽 = 𝟏
𝟖 𝟒 𝟖

So, we need to use the fact that each of the probabilities must lie between 0 and 1:
𝟓 𝟓 𝟑 𝟓 𝟑 𝟑 𝟓
𝟎≤ − 𝜽 ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ − ≤ −𝜽 ≤ ⇒ ≥ 𝜽 ≥ − ⇒ − ≤ 𝜽 ≤
𝟖 𝟖 𝟖 𝟖 𝟖 𝟖 𝟖
𝟏 𝟏 𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑 𝟏
𝟎≤ − 𝜽 ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ − ≤ −𝜽 ≤ ⇒ ≥ 𝜽 ≥ − ⇒ − ≤ 𝜽 ≤
𝟒 𝟒 𝟒 𝟒 𝟒 𝟒 𝟒
𝟏 𝟏 𝟕 𝟏 𝟕
𝟎≤ + 𝟐𝜽 ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ − ≤ 𝟐𝜽 ≤ ⇒ − ≤𝜽≤
𝟖 𝟖 𝟖 𝟏𝟔 𝟏𝟔
Now we have to find the range of values that 𝜽 can take, so that all of these conditions are
satisfied. The easiest way to do this is to sketch a number line:
The shaded region shows the values that satisfy all three inequalities. Hence:
𝟏 𝟏
− ≤𝜽≤
𝟏𝟔 𝟒
3. The probability function of a random variable X is given by:
1 3 𝑥
𝑃 𝑋=𝑥 =4 4
𝑥 = 0,1,2,3, … ..
Find:
(i) 𝐏 𝐗=𝟐

(ii) 𝐏(𝐗 ≤ 𝟐)
Answer
We have:
𝟏 𝟑 𝒙
𝑷 𝑿=𝒙 =𝟒 𝟒
𝒙 = 𝟎, 𝟏, 𝟐, 𝟑, …
𝟏 𝟑 𝟐 𝟗
(i) 𝑷 𝑿=𝟐 =𝟒 𝟒
= 𝟔𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟔𝟐𝟓
(ii) Since X can only take the values 0,1, 2, 3, … this means that:
𝑷 𝑿 ≤ 𝟐 = 𝑷(𝑿 = 𝟎, 𝟏 𝒐𝒓 𝟐)
Since a random variable can only take one value at a time, the values are mutually exclusive.
Hence:
𝑷 𝑿 ≤ 𝟐 = 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟎, 𝟏, 𝒐𝒓 𝟐
= 𝑷 𝑿= 𝟎 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟏 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟐
Working out each of these probabilities:

𝟎
𝟏 𝟑 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿=𝟎 = = = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓
𝟒 𝟒 𝟒
𝟏
𝟏 𝟑 𝟑
𝑷 𝑿=𝟏 = = = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟖𝟕𝟓
𝟒 𝟒 𝟏𝟔
𝟗
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐 = 𝟔𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟔𝟐𝟓 from part (i)
Hence:
𝟏 𝟑 𝟗 𝟑𝟕
𝑷 𝑿≤𝟐 = + + = = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟕𝟖𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟒 𝟏𝟔 𝟔𝟒 𝟔𝟒
4. The random variable W has a probability function:
w 2 4 5
𝑷 𝑾=𝒘 0.2 0.5 0.3
(i) Give the cumulative distribution function for W.

(ii) Find FW 1 , FW 4.5 and FW (10).
Answer
(i) From this we get the cumulative distribution function to be:
(ii) Either reading off the graph or using the CDF we get:
𝑭𝑾 𝟏 = 𝟎
𝑭𝑾 𝟒. 𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟕
𝑭𝑾 𝟏𝟎 = 𝟏
5. The cumulative distribution function of a random variable V is given by:
Find:
(i) P(V = 2)
(ii) P V > 1

(iii) P(V < 3)
Answer
We can solve this by obtaining the probability function or by using the cumulative function
directly.
Obtaining the probability function
First, we notice that the CDF jumps up at x = 1, 2,3 and 4 . To obtain the probabilities of
obtaining each of these values, we simply subtract the cumulative probabilities:
v 1 2 3 4
𝑷(𝑽 = 𝒗) 0.216 0.432 0.288 0.064
We can now obtain the probabilities:
(i) 𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑𝟐
(ii) 𝑷 𝑽 > 1 = 𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟐 + 𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟑 + 𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟐𝟖𝟖 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟔𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟖𝟒
(iii) 𝑷 𝑽 < 3 = 𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟏 + 𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟏𝟔 + 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟒𝟖
Using the cumulative distribution function directly.
(i) Using the fact that subtracting cumulative probabilities gives the original probabilities:
𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟐 = 𝑭𝟒 𝟐 − 𝑭𝑽 𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟒𝟖 − 𝟎. 𝟐𝟏𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑𝟐
(ii) Since probabilities of all possible values sum to 1, we get:
𝑷 𝑽 > 1 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑽 ≤ 𝟏 = 𝟏 − 𝑭𝑽 𝟏 = 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟐𝟏𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟖𝟒
(iii) Reading directly from the cumulative distribution function:
𝑷 𝑽 < 3 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟒𝟖
6. The random variable W has a probability function:
w 2 4 5
𝑷 𝑾=𝒘 0.2 0.5 0.3

Calculate:
(i) E W2
(ii) E 5W − 2
1
(iii) E W
Answer
(i) The probability distribution of 𝑾𝟐 is:
𝒘𝟐 𝟐𝟐 𝟒𝟐 𝟓𝟐
𝑷(𝑾 = 𝒘) 0.2 0.5 0.3
⇒ 𝑬 𝑾𝟐 = ∑𝒘𝟐 𝑷 𝑾 = 𝒘
= 𝟐𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟐 + 𝟒𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟓 + 𝟓𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟑 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟑
We don’t actually need to write out the probability distribution – we can simply use the
formula. We’ve only included the distribution here to make it clearer what’s happening.
(ii) The probability distribution of 𝟓𝑾 − 𝟐 is:
5w-2 8 18 23
𝑷 𝑾=𝒘 0.2 0.5 0.3
𝑬 𝟓𝑾 − 𝟐 = ∑ 𝟓𝑾 − 𝟐 𝑷 𝑾 = 𝒘
= 𝟖 × 𝟎. 𝟐 + 𝟏𝟖 × 𝟎. 𝟓 + 𝟐𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟑 = 𝟏𝟕. 𝟓
𝟏
(iii) The probability distribution of is:
𝑾
𝟏 1/2 1/4 1/5

𝑾

𝑷(𝑾 = 𝒘) 0.2 0.5 0.3
𝟏 𝟏
𝑬 = 𝑷 𝑾=𝒘
𝑾 𝒘
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
= × 𝟎. 𝟐 + × 𝟎. 𝟓 + × 𝟎. 𝟑 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟖𝟓
𝟐 𝟒 𝟓
7. The discrete variable X takes 4 distinct values with probabilities:
(1 + 3𝜃)/4, (1 − 𝜃)/4, 1 + 2𝜃 /4, (1 − 4𝜃)/4
This defines a probability distribution if:

1 3
A. −2 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 2
1 1
B. −2 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 8
3 1
C. −4 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 4
1 1
D. − ≤𝜃≤
3 4
Answer
Using the fact that the probabilities sum to 1 is not helpful here. So, we need to use the fact that
each of the probabilities must lie between 0 and 1:
𝟏 + 𝟑𝜽 𝟏
𝟎≤ ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ 𝟎 ≤ 𝟏 + 𝟑𝜽 ≤ 𝟒 ⇒ −𝟏 ≤ 𝟑𝜽 ≤ 𝟑 ⇒ − ≤ 𝜽 ≤ 𝟏
𝟒 𝟑
𝟏−𝜽
𝟎≤ ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ 𝟎 ≤ 𝟏 − 𝜽 ≤ 𝟒 ⇒ −𝟏 ≤ −𝜽 ≤ 𝟑 ⇒ 𝟏 ≥ 𝜽 ≥ −𝟑 ⇒ −𝟑 ≤ 𝜽 ≤ 𝟏
𝟒
𝟏 + 𝟐𝜽 𝟏 𝟏
𝟎≤ ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ 𝟎 ≤ 𝟏 + 𝟐𝜽 ≤ 𝟒 ⇒ −𝟏 ≤ 𝟐𝜽 ≤ 𝟑 ⇒ − ≤ 𝜽 ≤ 𝟏
𝟒 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 − 𝟒𝜽 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑 𝟏
𝟎≤ ≤ 𝟏 ⇒ 𝟎 ≤ 𝟏 − 𝟒𝜽 ≤ 𝟒 ⇒ −𝟏 ≤ 𝟒𝜽 ≤ 𝟑 ⇒ ≥ 𝜽 ≥ − ⇒ − ≤ 𝜽 ≤
𝟒 𝟒 𝟒 𝟒 𝟒

Now we have to find the range of values that 𝜽 can take, so that all of these conditions are
satisfied. The easiest way to do this is to sketch a number line:
The shaded region shows the values that satisfy all four inequalities. Hence:
𝟏 𝟏
− ≤𝜽≤
𝟑 𝟒
This is option D.
8. The random variable Y has probability function:
𝑘
𝑃 𝑌=𝑦 = 𝑦
𝑦 = 1,2,3,4
Find the mean, mode and median of Y .
Answer
Before we can find the mean, mode and median we need to determine k. Writing out the
probability distribution of Y , we get:
y 1 2 3 4
𝑷 𝒀=𝒚 𝒌 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝒌 𝒌 𝒌
𝟐 𝟑 𝟒

Since the sum of the probabilities must be 1, we have:

𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀=𝒚 =𝒌+ 𝒌+ 𝒌+ 𝒌 =𝟏
𝟐 𝟑 𝟒
𝟐𝟓
⇒ 𝒌=𝟏
𝟏𝟐
𝟏𝟐
⇒𝒌= = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟖
𝟐𝟓
So, the probability distribution is:
y 1 2 3 4
𝑷 𝒀=𝒚 𝟎. 𝟒𝟖 𝟎. 𝟐𝟒 𝟎. 𝟏𝟔 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐
The mean is given by:
𝑬 𝒀 = 𝒚𝑷 𝒀 = 𝒚 = 𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟒𝟖 + 𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟐𝟒 + 𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟏𝟔 + 𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐 = 𝟏. 𝟗𝟐
The mode is 1, as this value of y has the greatest probability.

The graph of the cumulative distribution function is:
From this it is clear to see that the median is 2.

9. Customer electricity charges C are calculated according to the formula
𝐶 = 7.00 + 0.0742𝑁
Where N denotes the number of units used.
In a particular area, N is modelled as a random variable with mean 600 andvariance 250.
Calculate the mean and variance of the charges C in their respective units.
Answer
The mean of C is given by:
𝑬 𝑪 = 𝑬 𝟕. 𝟎𝟎 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟒𝟐𝑵
= 𝟕. 𝟎𝟎 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟒𝟐𝑬(𝑵) using 𝑬 𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃 = 𝒂𝑬 𝑿 + 𝒃
= 𝟕. 𝟎𝟎 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟒𝟐 × 𝟔𝟎𝟎 since 𝑬 𝑵 = 𝟔𝟎𝟎
= 𝟓𝟏. 𝟓𝟐
The variance of C is given by:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑪 = 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝟕. 𝟎𝟎 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟒𝟐𝑵
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟒𝟐𝟐 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑵 using 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃 = 𝒂𝟐 𝒗𝒂𝒓(𝑿)
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟒𝟐𝟐 × 𝟐𝟓𝟎 since 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑵 = 𝟐𝟓𝟎
= 𝟏. 𝟑𝟕𝟔𝟒𝟏
10. A simple discrete random variable, X , has probability function given by
𝑃 𝑋 = 0 = 0.4 𝑃 𝑋 = 1 = 0.6
Calculate the coefficient of skewness.
Answer
Both formulae for the skewness require the mean:

𝝁=𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒙𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒙 = 𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟒 + 𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟔
Substituting this into the first formula gives:

𝟑
𝑺𝒌𝒆𝒘 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿 − 𝝁
= 𝑿 − 𝝁 𝟑𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒙
𝟑 𝟑
= 𝟎 − 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟒 + 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟔
= −𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟖
or using our alternating formula gives:
𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝒙𝟐 𝑷(𝑿 = 𝒙) = 𝟎𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟒 + 𝟏𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟔
𝑬 𝑿𝟑 = 𝒙𝟑 𝑷(𝑿 = 𝒙) = 𝟎𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟒 + 𝟏𝟑 + 𝟎. 𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟔
⇒ 𝒔𝒌𝒆𝒘 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿𝟑 − 𝟑𝝁𝑬 𝑿𝟐 + 𝟐𝝁𝟑
= 𝟎. 𝟔 − 𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟔 + 𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟔𝟑
= −𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟖
To calculate the coefficient of skewness we need the variance:
𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝒙𝟐 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒙 = 𝟎𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟒 + 𝟏𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟔
⇒ 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑿 = 𝟎. 𝟔 − 𝟎. 𝟔𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟒
Note that 𝑬(𝑿𝟐 ) was already calculated had we used the alternative skewness formula.
Hence, the coefficient of skewness is given by:

𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟖
− 𝟑 = −𝟎. 𝟒𝟎𝟖𝟐𝟓
𝟎. 𝟐𝟒 𝟐
11. In a game of chance, a large spinner with the numbers 1 – 20 is spun. If the probability of getting any
number is the same, calculate the probability of obtaining:
(i) An even number
(ii) A number greater than 18.

Answer
The probability distribution is:

𝟏
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒙 = 𝟐𝟎 𝒙 = 𝟏, 𝟐, 𝟑, … , 𝟐𝟎
(i) The probability is:
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒆𝒗𝒆𝒏 = 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐, 𝟒, 𝟔, … , 𝟐𝟎
= 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐 + 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟒 + ⋯ + 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐𝟎
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
= + + ⋯+
𝟐𝟎 𝟐𝟎 𝟐𝟎
𝟏𝟎
=
𝟐𝟎
𝟏
=
𝟐
(ii) The probability is:
𝑷 𝑿 > 18 = 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏𝟗, 𝟐𝟎
= 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏𝟗 + 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐𝟎
𝟏 𝟏
= +
𝟐𝟎 𝟐𝟎
𝟏
= = 𝟎. 𝟏
𝟏𝟎
12. An insurance company is assessing the complexity of its claims forms by checking how many of its
forms are correctly completed.
The company picks a sample of 6 forms and counts the number of incorrect forms. It is believed that
the probability of a form being incorrectly completed is 0.1.
Calculate the probability that the company discovers:
(i) Exactly two incorrect forms
(ii) More than 4 incorrect forms

in a randomly picked sample.
Answer
We have 6 forms (trials) each with a 0.1 chance of being incorrectly filled in (success). So, we
have 𝑿 ~ 𝑩𝒊𝒏(𝟔, 𝟎. 𝟏) with probability function is:
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝒙 = 𝟔𝑪𝒙 × 𝟎. 𝟏𝒙 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟔−𝒙 𝒙 = 𝟎, 𝟏, … , 𝟔
(i) Substituting directly into the probability function, we get:
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐 = 𝟔𝑪𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟗𝟖𝟒𝟏𝟓
(ii) Now since X can take the values from 0 to 6, we have:
𝑷 𝑿> 4 = 𝑷 𝑿= 𝟓 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟔
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟒 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟏
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟓
Where:
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟓 = 𝟔𝑪𝟓 × 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟒
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟔 = 𝟔𝑪𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟏𝟔 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟏
13. The number of radioactive particles emitted per hour has a Poisson distribution with 𝜆 = 25.
Find the mean and standard deviation of the number of particles emitted in an hour.
Answer
We have:
𝑿~𝑷𝒐𝒊 𝟐𝟓
So:
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝝀 = 𝟐𝟓
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝝀 = 𝟐𝟓
So, the standard deviation is:
𝟐𝟓 = 𝟓

14. Given that 𝑋~ 𝑃𝑜𝑖 ~ (1.8) , calculate:
(i) 𝑃 𝑋=4
(ii) 𝑃 𝑋 ≥ 1
(iii) 𝑃(2 ≤ 𝑋 < 5)
Answer
(i) Using the probability function:
𝟏. 𝟖𝟒 −𝟏𝟖
𝑷 𝑿=𝟒 = 𝒆 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟐𝟑𝟎
𝟒!
(ii) We have:
𝟏. 𝟖𝟎 −𝟏.𝟖
𝑷 𝑿≥ 𝟏 = 𝟏−𝑷 𝑿= 𝟎 = 𝟏− 𝒆 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟑𝟒𝟕𝟎
𝟎!
(iii) We have:
𝑷 𝟐≤ 𝑿< 5 = 𝑷 𝑿= 𝟐 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟑 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟒
𝟏. 𝟖𝟐 −𝟏.𝟖 𝟏. 𝟖𝟑 −𝟏.𝟖 𝟏. 𝟖𝟒 −𝟏.𝟖

= 𝒆 + 𝒆 + 𝒆
𝟐! 𝟑! 𝟒!
= 𝟎. 𝟐𝟔𝟕𝟕𝟖 + 𝟎. 𝟏𝟔𝟎𝟔𝟕 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟐𝟑𝟎
= 𝟎. 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟖
15. (i) A small company receives home insurance claims at a rate of 3 per month.Calculate the
probability that they receive 20 claims in a year.
(ii) The same company receives car insurance claims at a rate of 4.8 per working week. Calculate
the probability that they receive no claims in a day.
Answer
(i) The number of insurance claims per month has a Poisson distribution with parameter 3.
Therefore, the number of insurance claims per year has a Poisson distribution with
parameter 𝟑 × 𝟏𝟐 = 𝟑𝟔. So:

𝟑𝟔𝟐𝟎 −𝟑𝟔
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐𝟎 = 𝒆 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟐𝟕
𝟐𝟎!
(ii) The number of car insurance claims per week has a Poisson distribution with parameter
4.8.
Therefore, the number of insurance claims per day has a Poisson distribution with
parameter 𝟒. 𝟖 ÷ 𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟔 . So:
𝟎. 𝟗𝟔𝟎 −𝟎.𝟗𝟔
𝑷 𝑿=𝟎 = 𝒆 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟖𝟐𝟖𝟗
𝟎!
16. Car insurance policyholders make claims at a rate of 0.8 per year. Calculate the probability that 5
policyholders make a total of 3 claims in a year.
Answer
The number of claims per year for each policyholder has a Poisson distribution with
parameter 0.8.
The number of claims per year for five policyholders has a Poisson distribution with
parameter 4.
𝟒𝟑
We have: 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟑 = 𝟑!
𝒆−𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟗𝟓𝟑𝟕
17. In a particular road it is estimated that there is a 25% chance that any specified house will be burgled
over a period of two years, independently for each house. There are six houses in the road.
Calculate the probability that fewer than two houses will be burgled over the period.
Answer
Let X be the number of houses burgled over the period. Then 𝑿~𝑩𝒊𝒏(𝟔, 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓).
𝑷 𝑿< 2 = 𝑷 𝑿= 𝟎 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟏
= 𝟔𝑪𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓𝟔 + 𝟔𝑪𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓𝟓
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟕𝟕𝟗𝟖 + 𝟎. 𝟑𝟓𝟓𝟗𝟔 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟑𝟒

18. The probability of suffering a side effect from a certain flu vaccine is 0.005. If 1,000 persons are
inoculated, calculate the probability that at most 1 person suffers a side effect.
Answer
Let X be the number of people suffering a side effect. Then 𝑿~𝑩𝒊𝒏(𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎, 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓)
𝑷 𝑿≤ 𝟏 = 𝑷 𝑿= 𝟎 +𝑷 𝑿= 𝟏
= 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟓𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 + 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟓 𝟗𝟗𝟗
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟔𝟓𝟒𝟎 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟑𝟑𝟒𝟑𝟕 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟎
19. Insurance policies of a particular type covering risks related to accidents are such that each policy,
independently of all others, has probability 0.025 of giving rise to a claim exceeding £100,000 in a
year.
Consider the claims experience of a random sample of 500 such policies over a year.
The most likely number of policies in the sample to give rise to claims exceeding £100,000 is:
A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14
Answer
Let X be the number of policies giving rise to a claim exceeding £100,000 in a year. Then
𝑿~𝑩𝒊𝒏(𝟓𝟎𝟎, 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟓).
The most likely number is the number of policies that has the highest probability of occurring.
Therefore, we need to work out the probability of observing the values given in the question:
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏𝟏 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟏𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟓𝟏𝟏 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟕𝟓𝟒𝟖𝟗
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟗𝟔𝟒𝟖
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏𝟐 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟏𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟓𝟏𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟕𝟓𝟒𝟖𝟖
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟓𝟔𝟖
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏𝟑 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟏𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟓𝟏𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟕𝟓𝟒𝟖𝟕
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟕𝟓
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏𝟒 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝑪𝟏𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟓𝟏𝟒 × 𝟎. 𝟗𝟕𝟓𝟒𝟖𝟔
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟗𝟖𝟑𝟓𝟗

The most likely number of policies is 12 (B)
20. A very crude model for the distribution of claim size, X, in a particular situation represents X as a
discrete random variable, which takes the values £5,000, £10,000, and £20,000 with probabilities 0.4,
0.5, and 0.1 respectively.
Calculate the probability that of five randomly selected claims, three are for £5,000 each and the other
two are for larger amounts.
Answer
Let X be the number of claims for £5,000 (as opposed to over £5,000). Then 𝑿~𝑩𝒊𝒏(𝟓, 𝟎. 𝟒)
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟑 = 𝟓𝑪𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑 × 𝟎. 𝟔𝟐
= 𝟎. 𝟐𝟑𝟎𝟒
21. In a sampling inspection scheme 3 bottles in every box of 12 are examined. If all 3 selected are found
to be faulty, the remaining 9 bottles are examined. If at least one of the first 3 is satisfactory, no
further bottles from the box are examined. Assume that each bottle examined has the same chance
independently of being faulty, equal to 0.4.
When a box is inspected under this sampling scheme, work out the probability that 5 faulty bottles are
found.
Answer
The probability that the first three are faulty is 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑 . Otherwise we won’t continue the
inspection and won’t find 5. We then require that 2 out of the remaining 9 bottles are faulty.
The number of faulty bottles out of 9 has a binomial distribution with parameters n = 9 and p
= 0.4 . The required probability is then 𝟎. 𝟒𝟑 × 𝟗𝑪𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟒𝟐 × 𝟎. 𝟔𝟕 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟑
22. If X has a Poisson distribution with mean 5, what is the value of𝐸(𝑋 2 )?
Answer
Using the formula for the variance backwards: 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 + 𝑬𝟐 𝑿
But the mean and variance of the Poisson(5) distribution are both 5. So: 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝟓 + 𝟓𝟐 = 𝟑𝟎

23. For a certain class of non-life insurance business, the number of claims per policy in a year has a
Poisson distribution with mean 0.2.
What is the probability that there are a total of exactly 3 claims in a year under a group of 12 identical
and unrelated such policies?
Answer
For one policy, the number of claims has a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2. This means
that for 12 policies, the number of claims has a Poisson distribution with mean 2.4.
Let X be the number of claims, then we want 𝑷(𝑿 = 𝟑)
𝒆−𝟐.𝟒 𝟐. 𝟒𝟑
𝑷 𝑿=𝟑 = = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎𝟗
𝟑!
24. For a certain type of insurance business, the number of claims per policy in a year has a Poisson
distribution with mean 0.4.
Consider a policy, which you know, has given rise to at least one claim in the last year. What is the
probability that this policy has in fact given rise to exactly two claims in the least year?
Answer
Let X be the number of claims per policy in a year. We want 𝑷(𝑿 = 𝟐|𝑿 ≥ 𝟏):
𝐏 𝐗 = 𝟐 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐗 ≤ 𝟏 𝑷 𝑿=𝟐
𝑷 𝑿=𝟐𝑿≥𝟏 = =
𝐏 𝐗≥𝟏 𝑷 𝑿≥𝟏
We have:
𝒆−𝟎.𝟒 𝟎. 𝟒𝟐
𝑷 𝑿=𝟐 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓𝟑𝟔𝟐𝟔
𝟐!
𝒆−𝟎.𝟒 𝟎. 𝟒𝟎
𝑷 𝑿≥ 𝟏 = 𝟏−𝑷 𝑿= 𝟎 = 𝟏− = 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟔𝟕𝟎𝟑𝟐𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟐𝟗𝟔𝟖𝟎
𝟎!
Therefore:
𝟎. 𝟎𝟓𝟑𝟔𝟐𝟔
𝑷 𝑿=𝟐𝑿≥𝟏 = = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟔𝟐𝟕
𝟎. 𝟑𝟐𝟗𝟔𝟖𝟎
25. The number of demands made on a service team each day has a Poisson distribution with mean 2.
Under current arrangements the service team can handle, at most, 3 demands per day and no
demands are carried forward.
Calculate the mean number of demands handled by the service team per day.
Answer
The number of demands handled by the team each day is X, where:
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟐 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟏 = 𝟐𝒆−𝟐
𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟐 = 𝟐𝒆−𝟐 𝑷 𝑿 = 𝟑 = 𝟏 − 𝟓𝒆−𝟐
So, the mean of this random variable is:
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝟎 × 𝒆−𝟐 + 𝟏 × 𝟐𝒆−𝟐 + 𝟐 × 𝟐𝒆−𝟐 + 𝟑 𝟏 − 𝟓𝒆−𝟐 = 𝟑 − 𝟗𝒆−𝟐 = 𝟏. 𝟕𝟖𝟐
26. The probability density function of a random variable X is given by:
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑐 1−𝑥 0≤𝑥≤1
Calculate the value of c.
Answer
Using the fact that the total area under the graph (i.e. the total probability) is 1, we get:
𝟏 𝟏
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝒄 𝟏 − 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒄 𝒙 − 𝒙𝟐 =𝒄 𝟏− −𝟎 = 𝒄 = 𝟏
𝟎 𝟐 𝟎 𝟐 𝟐
⇒𝒄=𝟐
27. The probability density function of a random variable W is given by:

3
𝑓 𝑤 = 8 1 + 𝑤2 −1 ≤ 𝑤 ≤ 1
Calculate:
(i) 𝑃 0.3 ≤ 𝑊 ≤ 0.9
(ii) 𝑃 𝑊 ≤ 0.5
(iii) 𝑃 𝑊 ≥ −0.8
Answer
(i) To find 𝑷 𝟎. 𝟑 ≤ 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟗 , we just integrate between 0.3 and 0.9:

𝟎.𝟗
𝟑
𝑷 𝟎. 𝟑 ≤ 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟗 = 𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐 𝒅𝒘
𝟎.𝟑 𝟖
𝟎.𝟗
𝟑 𝟏
= 𝒘 + 𝒘𝟑
𝟖 𝟑 𝟎.𝟑
𝟑
= 𝟎. 𝟗 + 𝟎. 𝟐𝟒𝟑 − 𝟎. 𝟑 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟗 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟏𝟐𝟕𝟓
𝟖
(ii) To find 𝑷 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟓 we integrate from 0.5 down to the start of the function:
𝟎.𝟓
𝟑
𝑷 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟓 = (𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐 ) 𝒅𝒘
−𝟏 𝟖
𝟎.𝟓
𝟑 𝟏
= 𝒘 + 𝒘𝟑
𝟖 𝟑 −𝟏
𝟑 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐𝟓 𝟏
= 𝟎. 𝟓 + − −𝟏 − = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟎𝟑𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟖 𝟑 𝟑
(iii) To find 𝑷(𝑾 ≥ −𝟎. 𝟖) we integrate from -0.8 up to the end of the function:
𝟏
𝟑
𝑷 𝑾 ≥ −𝟎. 𝟖 = 𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐 𝒅𝒘
−𝟎.𝟖 𝟖
𝟏
𝟑 𝟏
= 𝒘 + 𝒘𝟑
𝟖 𝟑 −𝟎.𝟖
𝟑 𝟏 𝟎. 𝟓𝟏𝟐
= 𝟏+ − −𝟎. 𝟖 − = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟔𝟒
𝟖 𝟑 𝟑
28. A random variable, V, has cumulative distribution function:
𝐹 𝑣 = 1 − 𝑒 −0.5𝑣 𝑣≥0
Calculate:
(i) 𝑃 𝑉>2

(ii) 𝑃 𝑉 < 1
(iii) 𝑃 𝑉 = 0.8
Answer
Solving this question by first deriving the probability density function, we get:
𝒇 𝒗 = 𝑭′ 𝒗 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗
(i) To calculate P(V >2) we integrate from 2 upwards. Up to what? Well the function has no
upper limit, so we integrate to infinity:
∞
𝑷 𝑽>2 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝒅𝒗
𝟐
∞
= −𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝟐
= −𝒆−∞ − −𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎 + 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
(ii) To calculateP(V < 1) we just integrate from 1 down to the start of the function (i.e. 0):
𝟏
𝑷 𝑽<1 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝒅𝒗
𝟎
𝟏
= −𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝟎
= −𝒆−𝟎.𝟓 − −𝒆𝟎
= 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟑𝟒𝟕
(iii) Remember that the probability that a continuous random variable is exactly equal to any
number is zero. So:
𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟎. 𝟖 = 𝟎
Alternatively, we could have calculated the probabilities in (i) and (ii) using F(v) directly:
(i) 𝑷 𝑽 > 2 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑽 < 2 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟐 = 𝟏 − 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓×𝟐 = 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
(ii) 𝑷 𝑽 ≤ 𝟏 = 𝑭 𝟏 = 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓×𝟏 = 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟑𝟒𝟕
29. Find the mean of the random variable, X , that has probability density function:

1
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 2≤𝑥≤5
18
Answer
We have:
𝟏 𝟐
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝒙 − 𝟐𝒙 𝟐≤𝒙≤𝟓
𝟏𝟖
Substituting this into the formula for the mean gives:
𝟓 𝟓
𝟏 𝟏
𝝁=𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒙𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙× 𝒙𝟐 − 𝟐𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙𝟑 − 𝟐𝒙𝟐 𝒅𝒙
𝟐 𝟏𝟖 𝟏𝟖 𝟐
𝟓
𝟏 𝟏 𝟒 𝟐 𝟑
= 𝒙 − 𝒙
𝟏𝟖 𝟒 𝟑 𝟐
𝟏 𝟔𝟐𝟓 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝟏𝟔
= − − 𝟒− = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟏𝟖 𝟒 𝟑 𝟑
30. Calculate the median of the random variable, X , that has probability density function:
2
𝑓 𝑥 = 9 𝑥−2 2≤𝑥≤5
Answer
𝟏
Using𝑷 𝑿 < 𝑀 = we get:
𝟐
𝑴
𝟐 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿<𝑀 = (𝒙 − 𝟐) 𝒅𝒙 =
𝟗 𝟐 𝟐
Integrating we get:
𝑴
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏
𝒙 − 𝟐𝒙 =
𝟗 𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏
𝑴 − 𝟐𝑴 − −𝟐 =
𝟗 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 𝟐 𝟒 𝟏
𝑴 − 𝑴− =𝟎
𝟗 𝟗 𝟏𝟖
𝟐𝑴𝟐 − 𝟖𝑴 − 𝟏 = 𝟎
Using the quadratic formula:
𝟖± −𝟖 𝟐− 𝟒 × 𝟐 × −𝟏 𝟖 ± 𝟕𝟐
𝑴= = = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟐 𝒐𝒓 − 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐𝟏
𝟐×𝟐 𝟒
Since f (x) is only defined for the range 𝟐 ≤ 𝒙 ≤ 𝟓 , the median must be 4.12
31. Find the mode of the random variable, X , that has probability density function:
𝑓 𝑥 = 12𝑥 2 1 − 𝑥 0≤𝑥≤1
Answer
We have:
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐𝒙𝟐 𝟏 − 𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐𝒙𝟐 − 𝟏𝟐𝒙𝟑
Differentiating and setting this equal to zero gives:
𝒇′ 𝒙 = 𝟐𝟒𝒙 − 𝟑𝟔𝒙𝟐 = 𝟎
𝟐
⇒ 𝟏𝟐𝒙 𝟐 − 𝟑𝒙 = 𝟎 ⇒ 𝒙 = 𝟎 𝒐𝒓
𝟑
Checking to see which of these values gives the maximum:
𝒇"(𝒙) = 𝟐𝟒 − 𝟕𝟐𝒙
⇒ 𝒇"(𝟎) = 𝟐𝟒 > 0 ⇒ 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝒇"(𝟐/𝟑) = −𝟐𝟒 < 0 ⇒ 𝑚𝑎𝑥

𝟐
So, the mode is 𝒙 = 𝟑
32. A random variable, Z , has a mean of 4. Calculate:
(i) 𝐸 6 − 2𝑍
5𝑍+1
(ii) 𝐸 6
(iii) 𝐸 5
Answer

We are told that 𝑬 𝒁 = 𝟒
Using our rule, we get:
(i) 𝑬 𝟔 − 𝟐𝒁 = 𝟔 − 𝟐𝑬 𝒁
=𝟔− 𝟐×𝟒
= −𝟐
(ii) Since:
𝟓𝒁 + 𝟏 𝟓 𝟏
= 𝒁+
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔
We get:
𝟓𝒁 + 𝟏 𝟓 𝟏
𝑬 = 𝑬 𝒛+
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔
𝟓 𝟏
= 𝟔𝑬 𝒁 +𝟔
𝟓 𝟏
= ×𝟒 +
𝟔 𝟔
= 𝟑. 𝟓
(iii) 𝑬 𝟓 = 𝟓
This follows from the rule 𝑬(𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃) = 𝒂𝑬(𝑿 ) + 𝒃 𝒘𝒉𝒆𝒏 𝒂 = 𝟎 ∶
𝑬(𝒃) = 𝒃
That is to say the expectation of a constant is just the constant.
Since the constant doesn’t change with what the random variable is, we would expect it to be
unchanged. Alternatively, we could see that it is equal to:
𝑬 𝒃 = 𝒃𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒃 𝒇(𝒙) 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒃 × 𝟏 = 𝒃

33. A random variable, Z, has a mean of 11 and a standard deviation of 4. Calculate:
(i) 𝑣𝑎𝑟 10 − 3𝑍
5𝑍−2
(ii) 𝑠𝑑 6
(iii) 𝐸 𝑍 2
Answer
Since the standard deviation is 4, we have 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁 = 𝟒𝟐 = 𝟏𝟔.
(i) 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝟏𝟎 − 𝟑𝒁 = −𝟑 𝟐 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁
= 𝟗𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁
= 𝟗 × 𝟏𝟔 = 𝟏𝟒𝟒
(ii) Since:
𝟓𝒁 − 𝟐 𝟓 𝟐
= 𝒁−
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔
We get:
𝟓𝒁 − 𝟐 𝟓 𝟐
𝒔𝒅 = 𝒔𝒅 𝒁 −
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔
𝟓
= 𝒔𝒅 𝒁
𝟔
𝟓 𝟏
= ×𝟒 = 𝟑
𝟔 𝟑
(iii) Be careful 𝑬 𝒁𝟐 ≠ 𝑬 𝒁 𝟐
. But by rearranging the variance formula we get:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁 = 𝑬 𝒁𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝒁
⇒ 𝑬 𝒁𝟐 = 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁 + 𝑬𝟐 𝒁
So:
𝑬 𝒁𝟐 = 𝟏𝟔 + 𝟏𝟏𝟐 = 𝟏𝟑𝟕

34. Claims on a particular type of insurance policy (in £’s) during 2003 are modelled by a continuous
random variable, X , with probability density function:
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑘𝑒 −0.01𝑥 𝑥>0
(i) Calculate the value of k.
(ii) Show that for 2003, the mean claim amount is £100 and the standard deviation of the claim
amounts is also £100.
(iii) For claims during 2004, the insurance company anticipates that claims are going to rise by 12%.
What will be the mean and standard deviation of the claim amounts during 2004?
Answer
(i) Using the fact that the area under a PDF is 1, we get:
∞ ∞
−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
𝒌 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒌 𝟎 𝒌
𝒌𝒆 𝒅𝒙 = − 𝒆 = 𝟎− − 𝒆 = =𝟏
𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
⇒ 𝒌 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
(ii) Using the formula for the mean, we get:

∞
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒙𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎
We need to use integration by parts. The formula is:

𝒃 𝒃
𝒅𝒗 𝒃
𝒅𝒖
𝒖 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒖𝒗 𝒂 − 𝒗 𝒅𝒙
𝒂 𝒅𝒙 𝒂 𝒅𝒙
𝒅𝒗
Setting 𝒖 = 𝒙 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 we get:
∞ ∞
∞
𝒙𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟎
− −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎
∞
𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
=𝟎+ − 𝒆
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎

𝟏 𝟎
=𝟎− − 𝒆
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
𝟏
=
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
= £𝟏𝟎𝟎
To get the variance, we need the second moment, 𝑬 𝑿𝟐

∞
𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝒙𝟐 𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙𝟐 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎
𝒅𝒗
Using integration by parts again and setting 𝒖 = 𝒙𝟐 𝒂𝒏𝒅 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 we get:
𝒅𝒙
∞ ∞
∞
𝒙𝟐 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒙𝟐 𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟎
− −𝟐𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎
∞ ∞
=𝟎+ 𝟐𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟐𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎
𝒅𝒗
We now need to use integration by parts to calculate this integral. Setting 𝒖 = 𝟐𝒙 𝒂𝒏𝒅 =
𝒅𝒙
𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 we get:
∞ ∞ ∞
−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
𝟐𝒙𝒆 𝒅𝒙 = −𝟐𝒙 𝒆 − −𝟐 𝒆 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
∞
𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
= 𝟎 + −𝟐 𝒆
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎
𝟐
=𝟎− − 𝒆𝟎
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟐
𝟐
= = 𝟐𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟐
Alternatively, we could use the integral from the previous page:
∞
𝒙𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎
𝟎
∞ ∞
⇒ 𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 ⇒ 𝟐 𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟐𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟎 𝟎

Hence:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑿 = 𝟐𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 − 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟐 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
So, the standard deviation is given by:
𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = £𝟏𝟎𝟎
(iii) Now, X is the random variable for the claim size during 2003. So, 1.12X will be the random
variable for the claim size during 2004.
𝑬 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝑬 𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐 × £𝟏𝟎𝟎 = £𝟏𝟏𝟐
𝒔𝒅 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝒔𝒅 𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐 × £𝟏𝟎𝟎 = £𝟏𝟏𝟐
35. In an investigation into the proportion (𝜃) of lapses in the first year of a certain type of policy, the
uncertainty about 𝜃 is modelled by taking 𝜃 to have a beta distribution with parameters 𝛼 =
1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 = 9 , that is, with density:
8
𝑓 𝜃 = 9 1−𝜃 ∶ 0<𝜃<1
Using this distribution, calculate the probability that 𝜃 exceeds 0.2.
Answer
To find probabilities for a continuous random variable, we use:
𝒃
𝑷 𝒂<𝑋<𝑏 = 𝒇 𝒙 𝐝𝐱
𝒂
So:
𝟏
𝑷 𝜽 > 0.2 = 𝒇 𝜽 𝒅𝜽
𝟎.𝟐
𝟏
𝟖
= 𝟗 𝟏−𝜽 𝒅𝜽
𝟎.𝟐
𝟗 𝟏
= 𝟏− 𝟏−𝜽 𝟎.𝟐
= 𝟎 − −𝟎. 𝟖𝟗

= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑𝟒𝟐𝟐
36. A random variable X, which can be used in certain circumstances as a model for claim sizes, has
cumulative distribution function:
Calculate the value of the conditional probability 𝑃 𝑋 > 3 𝑋 > 1 .
Answer
Using the conditional probability formula:
𝑷 𝑿 > 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 1 𝑷 𝑿>3

𝑷 𝑿>3𝑿>1 = =
𝑷 𝑿>1 𝑷 𝑿>1
Now 𝑭(𝒙) = 𝑷(𝑿 < 𝒙) , 𝒔𝒐 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝒙) = 𝟏 − 𝑭(𝒙) . Hence:
𝟑 𝟑
𝟐 𝟐
𝑷 𝑿> 3 = 𝟏−𝑭 𝟑 = 𝟏− 𝟏− =
𝟐+𝟑 𝟑
𝟑 𝟑
𝟐 𝟐
𝑷 𝑿< 1 = 𝟏−𝑭 𝟏 = 𝟏− 𝟏− =
𝟐+𝟏 𝟑
So:
𝟐 𝟐
𝟓
𝑷 𝑿>3𝑿>1 = = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟏𝟔
𝟐 𝟑
𝟑

37. A continuous random variable, Y , has probability density function:
1
𝑓 𝑦 = 4−𝑦 1≤𝑦≤3
4
Calculate the mean, median, mode and variance of Y.
Answer
We have:
𝟏
𝒇 𝒚 = 𝟒−𝒚 𝟏≤𝒚≤𝟑
𝟒
𝟑
𝟏
𝑬 𝒀 = 𝒚𝒇 𝒚 𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒𝒚 − 𝒚𝟐 𝒅𝒚
𝟒 𝟏
𝟑
𝟏 𝟏
= 𝟐𝒚𝟐 − 𝒚𝟑
𝟒 𝟑 𝟏
𝟏 𝟏
= 𝟏𝟖 − 𝟗 − 𝟐 −
𝟒 𝟑
𝟏 𝟏
= ×𝟕
𝟒 𝟑
𝟓
𝟏 = 𝟏. 𝟖𝟑
𝟔
𝟏
The median, M, can be found using 𝑷 𝒀 < 𝑀 = 𝟐
𝑴
𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀<𝑀 = 𝟒 − 𝒚 𝒅𝒚 =
𝟒 𝟏 𝟐
Integrating we get:
𝑴
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝟒𝒚 − 𝒚𝟐 =
𝟒 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐

𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝟒𝑴 − 𝑴𝟐 − 𝟑 =
𝟒 𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 𝟐 𝟑
𝑴 −𝑴+𝟏 = 𝟎
𝟖 𝟖
𝑴𝟐 − 𝟖𝑴 + 𝟏𝟏 = 𝟎
Using thequadratic formula:
𝟖± −𝟖 𝟐− 𝟒 × 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟏 𝟖 ± 𝟐𝟎
𝑴= = = 𝟏. 𝟕𝟔 𝒐𝒓 𝟔. 𝟐𝟒
𝟐×𝟏 𝟐
Since f ( y) is only defined for the range 1£ x £ 3 , the median must be 1.76
The mode is the value that gives the greatest value of f ( y) .
Using differentiation is not helpful:

𝟏
𝒇′ 𝒚 = − ≠𝟎
𝟒
A quick sketch of the PDF shows that the mode is 1:
To get the variance we need to calculate 𝑬(𝒀𝟐 ) :

𝟑
𝟐 𝟐
𝟏
𝑬 𝒀 = 𝒚 𝒇 𝒚 𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒𝒚𝟐 − 𝒚𝟑 𝒅𝒚
𝟒 𝟏
𝟑
𝟏 𝟒 𝟑 𝟏 𝟒
= 𝒚 − 𝒚
𝟒 𝟑 𝟒 𝟏

𝟏 𝟏 𝟒 𝟏
= 𝟑𝟔 − 𝟐𝟎 − −
𝟒 𝟒 𝟑 𝟒
𝟏 𝟐 𝟐
= × 𝟏𝟒 = 𝟑
𝟒 𝟑 𝟑
Hence:
𝟐
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟓 𝟏𝟏
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒀 = 𝑬 𝒀 −𝑬 𝒀 = 𝟑 − 𝟏 = = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟓
𝟑 𝟔 𝟑𝟔
38. A plumber has a call-out charge of £20 and in addition he charges £30 per hour for all his jobs. In a
particular week the mean and standard deviation of the lengths of his jobs are 3.5 hours and 0.5 hours
respectively.
What are the mean and standard deviation of the invoice values for this particular week?
Answer
If H is the number of hours worked, and C is the cost then:
𝑪 = 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑯
The mean of the cost, C, is given by:
𝑬 𝑪 = 𝑬 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑯
= 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑬 𝑯 𝒖𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝑬 𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃 = 𝒂𝑬 𝑿 + 𝒃
= 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎 × 𝟑. 𝟓 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝑬 𝑯 = 𝟑. 𝟓
= £𝟏𝟐𝟓
The standard deviation of the cost, C, is given by:
𝒔𝒅 𝑪 = 𝒔𝒅 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑯
= 𝟑𝟎𝒔𝒅 𝑯 𝒖𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒔𝒅 𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃 = 𝒂 × 𝒔𝒅(𝑿)
= 𝟑𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟓 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒔𝒅 𝑯 = 𝟎. 𝟓
= £𝟏𝟓

39. Calculate the coefficient of skewness for the random variable W, which has the following probability
density function:
2
𝑓 𝑤 = 𝑤 1≤𝑤≤2
3
Answer
The skewness is given by:
𝑺𝒌𝒆𝒘 𝑾 = 𝑬 𝑾𝟑 − 𝟑𝝁𝑬 𝑾𝟐 + 𝟐𝝁𝟑
Calculating the moments 𝑬(𝑾), 𝑬(𝑾𝟐 ) 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑬(𝑾𝟑 ) :

𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟏 𝟑 𝟐 𝟖 𝟏 𝟓
𝝁=𝑬 𝑾 = 𝒘𝒇(𝒘) 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 = − = 𝟏 = 𝟏. 𝟓
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑 𝟗
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟒 𝟐 𝟏 𝟏
𝑬 𝑾𝟐 = ∫ 𝒘𝟐 𝒇 𝒘 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘𝟑 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 = 𝟒− =𝟐
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟒 𝟏 𝟑 𝟒 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟓 𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐
𝑬 𝑾𝟑 = ∫ 𝒘𝟑 𝒇 𝒘 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘𝟒 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 = 𝟔 − =𝟒 = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟑
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟓 𝟏 𝟑 𝟓 𝟓 𝟏𝟓
This gives:
⇒ 𝑺𝒌𝒆𝒘 𝑾 = 𝑬 𝑾𝟑 − 𝟑𝝁𝑬 𝑾𝟐 + 𝟐𝝁𝟑
𝟑
𝟐 𝟓 𝟏 𝟓
=𝟒 − 𝟑×𝟏 ×𝟐 + 𝟐× 𝟏
𝟏𝟓 𝟗 𝟐 𝟗
= −𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟐𝟏
To get the coefficient of skewness, we need the variance:

𝟐
𝟏 𝟓 𝟏𝟑
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑾 = 𝑬 𝑾𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑾 = 𝟐 − 𝟏 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟎𝟐𝟓
𝟐 𝟗 𝟏𝟔𝟐

Therefore, the coefficient of skewness is:

𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟐𝟏
− = −𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟗
𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟎𝟐𝟓𝟏.𝟓
40. Write down the cumulative density function, 𝐹 𝑥 for 𝑋~𝑈(−2,6) and use it to calculate:
(i) 𝑃 𝑋<5
(ii) 𝑃 𝑋 > 1.7
(iii) 𝑃(−1 < 𝑋 < 5.5)
Answer
The cumulative density function of 𝑿 ~𝑼(−𝟐, 𝟔) is:
𝒙−𝒂 𝒙+𝟐
𝑭 𝒙 =𝑷 𝑿<𝑥 = =
𝒃−𝒂 𝟖
𝟓+𝟐 𝟕
(i) 𝑷 𝑿<5 =𝑭 𝟓 = = = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟕𝟓
𝟖 𝟖
(ii) 𝑷 𝑿 > 1.7 = 𝟏 − 𝑷(𝑿 < 1.7) since probabilities sum to 1
= 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟏. 𝟕
𝟑. 𝟕
=𝟏− = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟑𝟕𝟓
𝟖
(iii) 𝑷 −𝟏 < 𝑋 < 5.5 = 𝑷 𝑿 < 5.5 − 𝑷 𝑿 < −1
= 𝑭 𝟓. 𝟓 − 𝑭 −𝟏
𝟕. 𝟓 𝟏
= − = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟖 𝟖
41. The random variable X has the distribution𝑋~𝑈(𝑎, 𝑏). The mean of X is 10 and the standard deviation
is 4. Calculate the values of a and b.
Answer
For 𝑿 ~𝑼(𝒂, 𝒃) we have:

𝟏
𝐄 𝐗 = 𝐚 + 𝐛 = 𝟏𝟎
𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝒃−𝒂 = 𝟒𝟐
𝟏𝟐
Rearranging the mean gives 𝒃 = 𝟐𝟎 − 𝒂. Substituting this into the variance:

𝟏 𝟐
𝟐𝟎 − 𝒂 − 𝒂 = 𝟏𝟔
𝟏𝟐
𝟐
𝟐𝟎 − 𝟐𝒂 = 𝟏𝟗𝟐
Solving this:
𝟐𝟎 − 𝟐𝒂 = ± 𝟏𝟗𝟐
𝟐𝟎 ± 𝟏𝟗𝟐
𝒂= = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟗𝟑 𝒐𝒓 𝟑. 𝟎𝟕
𝟐
⇒ 𝒃 = 𝟐𝟎 − 𝟑. 𝟎𝟕 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟗𝟑 𝒐𝒓 𝒃 = 𝟐𝟎 − 𝟏𝟔. 𝟗𝟑 = 𝟑. 𝟎𝟕
Since a <b , we have a = 3.07 and b = 16.93.
42. Given that 𝑋~𝐸𝑥𝑝 𝜆 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃 𝑋 > 40 = 0.7
(i) Calculate 𝜆
(ii) Calculate 𝑃 𝑋 > 105 𝑋 > 80
Answer
∞ ∞
(i) 𝑷 𝑿 > 40 = ∫𝟒𝟎 𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝟒𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀 = 𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀
or using the cumulative density function:
𝑷 𝑿 > 40 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟒𝟎 = 𝟏 − 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀 = 𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀
But since 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟒𝟎) = 𝟎. 𝟕 , we have:

𝟏
𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀 = 𝟎. 𝟕 ⇒ 𝝀 = − 𝐥𝐧 𝟎. 𝟕 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟗𝟐
𝟒𝟎
(ii) Using the conditional probability formula, we get:

𝑷 𝑿 > 105 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 80

𝑷 𝑿 > 105 𝑿 > 80 =
𝑷 𝑿 > 80
𝑷 𝑿 > 105
=
𝑷 𝑿 > 80
So, we need to calculate 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟖𝟎) 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟏𝟎𝟓) :
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 80 = 𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝟖𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟗𝟐×𝟖𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
𝟖𝟎
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 105 = 𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟓
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟗𝟐×𝟏𝟎𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟐
𝟏𝟎𝟓
Hence:
𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟐
𝑷 𝑿 > 105 𝑿 > 80 = = 𝟎. 𝟖
𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
43. A random variable, Y, is uniformly distributed with mean 7 and standard deviation 5.
(i) Obtain the PDF of Y.
(ii) Calculate 𝑃(𝑌 > 5|𝑌 > 0)
Answer
(i) For 𝒀 ~𝑼(𝒂, 𝒃) we have:

𝟏
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒂+𝒃 = 𝟕
𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝒃−𝒂 = 𝟓𝟐
𝟏𝟐
Rearranging the mean gives 𝒃 = 𝟏𝟒 − 𝒂. Substituting this into the variance:
𝟏 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏𝟒 − 𝒂 − 𝒂 = 𝟐𝟓 ⇒ 𝟏𝟒 − 𝟐𝒂 = 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟐
Solving this:

𝟏𝟒 − 𝟐𝒂 = ± 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟒 ± 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝒂= = −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 𝒐𝒓 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔
𝟐
⇒ 𝒃 = 𝟏𝟒 − −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 = 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔 𝒐𝒓 𝒃 = 𝟏𝟒 − 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔 = −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔
Since 𝒂 < 𝒃, we have𝒂 = −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒃 = 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔 . Hence:
𝟏
𝒇 𝒚 = − 𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 < 𝑦 < 15.66
𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐

𝑷 𝒀 > 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑌 > 0 𝑷 𝒀>5
𝑷 𝒀>5𝒀>0 = =
𝑷 𝒀>0 𝑷 𝒀>0
𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔 𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔
𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀>5 = 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟏𝟓𝟒𝟕
𝟓 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟓
𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔 𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔
𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀>0 = 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟎𝟒𝟏𝟓
𝟎 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟎
Hence:
𝟎. 𝟔𝟏𝟓𝟒𝟕
𝑷 𝒀>5𝒀>0 = = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟖𝟏
𝟎. 𝟗𝟎𝟒𝟏𝟓
44. Claim amounts are modelled as an exponential random variable with mean £1,000.
(i) Calculate the probability that one such claim amount is greater than £5,000.
(ii) Calculate the probability that a claim amount is greater than £5,000 given that it is greater than
£1,000.
Answer
The mean is £1,000, so:
𝟏 𝟏
𝝁= = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 ⇒ 𝝀 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏
𝝀 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
This gives a PDF of:
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒙>0
(i) We find the probability by integrating the PDF:

∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟕𝟒
or by using the cumulative density function:
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 5000 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟕𝟒

𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 1000 𝑷 𝑿 > 5000
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 𝑿 > 1000 = =
𝑷 𝑿 > 1000 𝑷 𝑿 > 1000
So, we need to calculate 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎) by integrating the PDF:
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 1000 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 1000 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 1000 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
Substituting this into our conditional probability formula gives:

𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟕𝟒
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 𝑿 > 1000 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑
𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
45. Claim sizes are modelled by an exponential distribution with mean £50. Determine the probabilities
that an individual claim:
(i) Exceeds £50
(ii) Exceeds £200
(iii) Exceeds £200, given that it exceeds £50.

Answer
The mean is £50, so:

𝟏 𝟏
𝝁= = 𝟓𝟎 ⇒ 𝝀 =
𝝀 𝟓𝟎
𝟏
𝟏
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟓𝟎 𝒆−𝟓𝟎𝒙 𝒙>0

∞ ∞
𝟏 −𝟏𝒙 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿 > 50 = 𝒆 𝟓𝟎 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟓𝟎𝒙 = 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
𝟓𝟎 𝟓𝟎 𝟓𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 50 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 50 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟓𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
(ii) We find the probability by integrating the PDF:

∞ ∞
𝟏 −𝟏𝒙 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿 > 200 = 𝒆 𝟓𝟎 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟓𝟎𝒙 = 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟐
𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝟓𝟎 𝟐𝟎𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 200 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 200 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟐𝟎𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟐
(iii) Using the conditional probability formula:

𝑷 𝑿 > 200 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 50 𝑷 𝑿 > 200 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟐
𝑷 𝑿 > 200 𝑿 > 50 = = = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟗𝟖
𝑷 𝑿 > 50 𝑷 𝑿 > 50 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
46. The median, m, of the distribution of a continuous random variable X is defined by the relation
𝑃 𝑋 < 𝑚 = 0.5
Show that the median of an exponential random variable is about 0.7 of the mean.
Answer
Using P(X <m) = 0.5, we get:
𝒎
𝑷 𝑿<𝑚 = 𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟓
𝟎

𝒎 𝟏
⇒ 𝒆−𝝀𝒙 =
𝟎 𝟐
𝟏
𝟏 − 𝒆−𝝀𝒎 =
𝟐
𝟏
𝒆−𝝀𝒎 =
𝟐
𝟏
−𝝀𝒎 = 𝐥𝐧
𝟐
𝝀𝒎 = 𝐥𝐧 𝟐
𝟏
𝒎= 𝐥𝐧 𝟐
𝝀
𝟏
Since the mean is𝝁 = , we can see the median is 𝒍𝒏 𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟗𝟑 times the mean.
𝝀
47. The number of accidents in a factory is represented by a Poisson distribution averaging 2 accidents
per 5 days. Evaluate the probability that the time from one accident to the next exceeds 3 days.
Answer
2 accidents per 5 days is 0.4 accidents per day. So, if X is the number of claims per day we have:
𝑿 ~ 𝑷𝒐𝒊(𝟎. 𝟒)
This means the waiting time, T, between these claims is:
𝑻 ~ 𝑬𝒙𝒑(𝟎. 𝟒)
The probability that the waiting time is greater than 3 days can be found by integration:
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑻>3 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝒆−𝟎.𝟒𝒕 𝒅𝒕 = −𝒆−𝟎.𝟒𝒕 𝟑
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟏𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟗
𝟑
Alternatively, we could use the cumulative density function:
𝑷 𝑻 > 3 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑻 < 3 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟑 = 𝒆−𝟏.𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟗

48. What is E X 2 for X~N(μ, σ2 ) ?
Answer
Since:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑿
This gives:
𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 + 𝑬𝟐 𝑿
= 𝝈𝟐 + 𝝁𝟐
49. Find these probabilities:
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 < 1.23
(ii) 𝑃 𝑍 < 2.725
Answer
(i) Reading from the standard normal the table

𝑷 𝒁 < 𝟏. 𝟐𝟑 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟗𝟎𝟔𝟓
(ii) 2.725 halfway between 2.72 and 2.73. Now reading from the standard normal table
𝑷 𝒁 < 2.72 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟕𝟒
𝑷 𝒁 < 2.73 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟖𝟑
Since 2.725 is halfway between these it will be:
𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟕𝟒 + 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟖𝟑
𝑷 𝒁 < 2.725 = = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟓
𝟐
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 > 2.17
(ii) 𝑃(𝑍 > 0.08)
Answer
(i) Using the fact that the area under the graph is 1, we have:
𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝒁 < 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕
Now reading 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕) from the standard normal table in Appendix A:

𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕 = 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟖𝟓𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎
(i) Similarly:
𝑷 𝒁 > 0.08 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝒁 < 0.08 using area = 1
= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟓𝟑𝟏𝟖𝟖 from tables
= 𝟎. 𝟒𝟔𝟖𝟏𝟐
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 < −1.50
(ii) 𝑃 𝑍 < −0.21
(iii) 𝑃(𝑍 < −2.05)
Answer
(i) Using our ‘swap the sign, swap the sign’ symmetry result:
𝑷 𝒁 < −𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎
Now using the fact that the area under the graph is 1:
𝑷 𝒁 < −𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝒁 < 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎
Reading the value of 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎) from the table
𝑷(𝒁 < −𝟏. 𝟓𝟎) = 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟑𝟑𝟏𝟗 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟔𝟔𝟖𝟏
(i) Similarly:
𝑷 𝒁 < −0.21 = 𝑷(𝒁 > 0.21) by symmetry
= 𝟏 − 𝑷(𝒁 < 0.21) using area = 1
= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟓𝟖𝟑𝟏𝟕 from tables
= 𝟎. 𝟒𝟏𝟔𝟖𝟑
(i) We get:
𝑷 𝒁 < −2.05 = 𝑷(𝒁 > 2.05) by symmetry
= 𝟏 − 𝑷(𝒁 < 2.05) using area = 1

= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟕𝟗𝟖𝟐 from tables
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟖
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 > −3.94
(ii) 𝑃 𝑍 > −0.73
Answer
𝑷(𝒁 > −𝟑. 𝟗𝟒) = 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟑. 𝟗𝟒)
We can read this value directly from the table

𝑷(𝒁 > −𝟑. 𝟗𝟒) = 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟑. 𝟗𝟒) = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟔
(i) Similarly:
𝑷 𝒁 > −0.73 = 𝑷(𝒁 < 0.73) by symmetry
= 𝟎. 𝟕𝟔𝟕𝟑𝟎 from tables

ACET CONTINUOUS RV AND DISTRIBUTIONS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
CONTINUOUS RV AND DISTRIBUTIONS

1. The probability density function of a random variable X is given by:
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑐 1−𝑥 0≤𝑥≤1
Calculate the value of c.
Answer
Using the fact that the total area under the graph (i.e. the total probability) is 1, we get:
𝟏 𝟏
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝒄 𝟏 − 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒄 𝒙 − 𝒙𝟐 =𝒄 𝟏− −𝟎 = 𝒄 = 𝟏
𝟎 𝟐 𝟎 𝟐 𝟐
⇒𝒄=𝟐
2. The probability density function of a random variable W is given by:

3
𝑓 𝑤 = 8 1 + 𝑤2 −1 ≤ 𝑤 ≤ 1
Calculate:
(i) 𝑃 0.3 ≤ 𝑊 ≤ 0.9

(ii) 𝑃 𝑊 ≤ 0.5
(iii) 𝑃 𝑊 ≥ −0.8
Answer
(i) To find 𝑷 𝟎. 𝟑 ≤ 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟗 , we just integrate between 0.3 and 0.9:

𝟎.𝟗
𝟑
𝑷 𝟎. 𝟑 ≤ 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟗 = 𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐 𝒅𝒘
𝟎.𝟑 𝟖
𝟎.𝟗
𝟑 𝟏
= 𝒘 + 𝒘𝟑
𝟖 𝟑 𝟎.𝟑
𝟑
= 𝟎. 𝟗 + 𝟎. 𝟐𝟒𝟑 − 𝟎. 𝟑 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟗 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟏𝟐𝟕𝟓
𝟖

(ii) To find 𝑷 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟓 we integrate from 0.5 down to the start of the function:
𝟎.𝟓
𝟑
𝑷 𝑾 ≤ 𝟎. 𝟓 = (𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐 ) 𝒅𝒘
−𝟏 𝟖
𝟎.𝟓
𝟑 𝟏
= 𝒘 + 𝒘𝟑
𝟖 𝟑 −𝟏
𝟑 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐𝟓 𝟏
= 𝟎. 𝟓 + − −𝟏 − = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟎𝟑𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟖 𝟑 𝟑
(iii) To find 𝑷(𝑾 ≥ −𝟎. 𝟖) we integrate from -0.8 up to the end of the function:
𝟏
𝟑
𝑷 𝑾 ≥ −𝟎. 𝟖 = 𝟏 + 𝒘𝟐 𝒅𝒘
−𝟎.𝟖 𝟖
𝟏
𝟑 𝟏
= 𝒘 + 𝒘𝟑
𝟖 𝟑 −𝟎.𝟖
𝟑 𝟏 𝟎. 𝟓𝟏𝟐
= 𝟏+ − −𝟎. 𝟖 − = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟔𝟒
𝟖 𝟑 𝟑
3. A random variable, V, has cumulative distribution function:

𝐹 𝑣 = 1 − 𝑒 −0.5𝑣 𝑣≥0
Calculate:
(i) 𝑃 𝑉>2
(ii) 𝑃 𝑉 < 1
(iii) 𝑃 𝑉 = 0.8
Answer
Solving this question by first deriving the probability density function, we get:
𝒇 𝒗 = 𝑭′ 𝒗 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗
(i) To calculate P(V >2) we integrate from 2 upwards. Up to what? Well the function has no
upper limit, so we integrate to infinity:
∞
𝑷 𝑽>2 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝒅𝒗
𝟐
∞
= −𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝟐
= −𝒆−∞ − −𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎 + 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖

(ii) To calculate P(V < 1) we just integrate from 1 down to the start of the function (i.e. 0):
𝟏
𝑷 𝑽<1 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝒅𝒗
𝟎
𝟏
= −𝒆−𝟎.𝟓𝒗 𝟎
= −𝒆−𝟎.𝟓 − −𝒆𝟎
= 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟑𝟒𝟕
(iii) Remember that the probability that a continuous random variable is exactly equal to any
number is zero. So:
𝑷 𝑽 = 𝟎. 𝟖 = 𝟎
Alternatively, we could have calculated the probabilities in (i) and (ii) using F(v) directly:
i. 𝑽 > 2 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑽 < 2 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟐 = 𝟏 − 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓×𝟐 = 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
ii. 𝑷 𝑽 ≤ 𝟏 = 𝑭 𝟏 = 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓×𝟏 = 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟎.𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟑𝟒𝟕
4. Find the mean of the random variable, X , that has probability density function:
1
𝑓 𝑥 = 18 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 2≤𝑥≤5
Answer
We have:
𝟏 𝟐
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝒙 − 𝟐𝒙 𝟐≤𝒙≤𝟓
𝟏𝟖
Substituting this into the formula for the mean gives:
𝟓 𝟓
𝟏 𝟏
𝝁=𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒙𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙× 𝒙𝟐 − 𝟐𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙𝟑 − 𝟐𝒙𝟐 𝒅𝒙
𝟐 𝟏𝟖 𝟏𝟖 𝟐
𝟓
𝟏 𝟏 𝟒 𝟐 𝟑
= 𝒙 − 𝒙
𝟏𝟖 𝟒 𝟑 𝟐
𝟏 𝟔𝟐𝟓 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝟏𝟔
= − − 𝟒− = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟏𝟖 𝟒 𝟑 𝟑

5. Calculate the median of the random variable, X , that has probability density function:
2
𝑓 𝑥 = 9 𝑥−2 2≤𝑥≤5
Answer
𝟏
Using 𝑷 𝑿 < 𝑀 = 𝟐 we get:
𝑴
𝟐 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿<𝑀 = (𝒙 − 𝟐) 𝒅𝒙 =
𝟗 𝟐 𝟐
Integrating we get:
𝑴
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏
𝒙 − 𝟐𝒙 =
𝟗 𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏
𝑴 − 𝟐𝑴 − −𝟐 =
𝟗 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 𝟐 𝟒 𝟏
𝑴 − 𝑴− =𝟎
𝟗 𝟗 𝟏𝟖
𝟐𝑴𝟐 − 𝟖𝑴 − 𝟏 = 𝟎
𝟖± −𝟖 𝟐− 𝟒 × 𝟐 × −𝟏 𝟖 ± 𝟕𝟐
𝑴= = = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟐 𝒐𝒓 − 𝟎. 𝟏𝟐𝟏
𝟐×𝟐 𝟒
Since f (x) is only defined for the range 𝟐 ≤ 𝒙 ≤ 𝟓 , the median must be 4.12
6. Find the mode of the random variable, X , that has probability density function:
𝑓 𝑥 = 12𝑥 2 1 − 𝑥 0≤𝑥≤1
Answer
We have:
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐𝒙𝟐 𝟏 − 𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐𝒙𝟐 − 𝟏𝟐𝒙𝟑

Differentiating and setting this equal to zero gives:
𝒇′ 𝒙 = 𝟐𝟒𝒙 − 𝟑𝟔𝒙𝟐 = 𝟎
𝟐
⇒ 𝟏𝟐𝒙 𝟐 − 𝟑𝒙 = 𝟎 ⇒ 𝒙 = 𝟎 𝒐𝒓
𝟑
Checking to see which of these values gives the maximum:
𝒇"(𝒙) = 𝟐𝟒 − 𝟕𝟐𝒙
⇒ 𝒇"(𝟎) = 𝟐𝟒 > 0 ⇒ 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝒇"(𝟐/𝟑) = −𝟐𝟒 < 0 ⇒ 𝑚𝑎𝑥
𝟐
So, the mode is 𝒙 = 𝟑
7. A random variable, Z, has a mean of 4. Calculate:
(i) 𝐸 6 − 2𝑍
5𝑍+1
(ii) 𝐸 6
(iii) 𝐸 5
Answer
We are told that 𝑬 𝒁 = 𝟒
Using our rule, we get:
(i) 𝑬 𝟔 − 𝟐𝒁 = 𝟔 − 𝟐𝑬 𝒁
=𝟔− 𝟐×𝟒
= −𝟐
(ii) Since:
𝟓𝒁 + 𝟏 𝟓 𝟏
= 𝒁+
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔
We get:
𝟓𝒁 + 𝟏 𝟓 𝟏
𝑬 = 𝑬 𝒛+
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔

𝟓 𝟏
= 𝑬 𝒁 +
𝟔 𝟔
𝟓 𝟏
= ×𝟒 +
𝟔 𝟔
= 𝟑. 𝟓
(iii) 𝑬 𝟓 = 𝟓
This follows from the rule 𝑬(𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃) = 𝒂𝑬(𝑿 ) + 𝒃 𝒘𝒉𝒆𝒏 𝒂 = 𝟎 ∶
𝑬(𝒃) = 𝒃
That is to say the expectation of a constant is just the constant.
Since the constant doesn’t change with what the random variable is, we would expect it to be
unchanged. Alternatively, we could see that it is equal to:
𝑬 𝒃 = 𝒃𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒃 𝒇(𝒙) 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒃 × 𝟏 = 𝒃
8. A random variable, Z, has a mean of 11 and a standard deviation of 4. Calculate:
(i) 𝑣𝑎𝑟 10 − 3𝑍
5𝑍−2
(ii) 𝑠𝑑 6
(iii) 𝐸 𝑍 2
Answer
Since the standard deviation is 4, we have 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁 = 𝟒𝟐 = 𝟏𝟔.
(i) 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝟏𝟎 − 𝟑𝒁 = −𝟑 𝟐 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁
= 𝟗𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁
= 𝟗 × 𝟏𝟔 = 𝟏𝟒𝟒
(ii) Since:
𝟓𝒁 − 𝟐 𝟓 𝟐
= 𝒁−
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔

We get:
𝟓𝒁 − 𝟐 𝟓 𝟐
𝒔𝒅 = 𝒔𝒅 𝒁 −
𝟔 𝟔 𝟔
𝟓
= 𝒔𝒅 𝒁
𝟔
𝟓 𝟏
= ×𝟒 = 𝟑
𝟔 𝟑
(iii) Be careful 𝑬 𝒁𝟐 ≠ 𝑬 𝒁 𝟐
. But by rearranging the variance formula we get:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁 = 𝑬 𝒁𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝒁
⇒ 𝑬 𝒁𝟐 = 𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒁 + 𝑬𝟐 𝒁
So:
𝑬 𝒁𝟐 = 𝟏𝟔 + 𝟏𝟏𝟐 = 𝟏𝟑𝟕
9. Claims on a particular type of insurance policy (in £’s) during 2003 are modelled by a continuous ran-
dom variable, X , with probability density function:
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑘𝑒 −0.01𝑥 𝑥>0
(i) Calculate the value of k.
(ii) Show that for 2003, the mean claim amount is £100 and the standard deviation of the claim
amounts is also £100.
(iii) For claims during 2004, the insurance company anticipates that claims are going to rise by 12%.
What will be the mean and standard deviation of the claim amounts during 2004?
Answer
(i) Using the fact that the area under a PDF is 1, we get:
∞ ∞
−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
𝒌 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒌 𝟎 𝒌
𝒌𝒆 𝒅𝒙 = − 𝒆 = 𝟎− − 𝒆 = =𝟏
𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
⇒ 𝒌 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
(ii) Using the formula for the mean, we get:

∞
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒙𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎
We need to use integration by parts. The formula is:
𝒃 𝒃
𝒅𝒗 𝒃
𝒅𝒖
𝒖 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒖𝒗 𝒂 − 𝒗 𝒅𝒙
𝒂 𝒅𝒙 𝒂 𝒅𝒙
𝒅𝒗
Setting 𝒖 = 𝒙 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 we get:
∞ ∞
∞
𝒙𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟎
− −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎
∞
𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
=𝟎+ − 𝒆
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎
𝟏 𝟎
=𝟎− − 𝒆
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
𝟏
=
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
= £𝟏𝟎𝟎
To get the variance, we need the second moment, 𝑬 𝑿𝟐

∞
𝟐 𝟐
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒙 𝒇 𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙𝟐 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎
𝒅𝒗
Using integration by parts again and setting 𝒖 = 𝒙𝟐 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 we get:
∞ ∞
∞
𝒙𝟐 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒙𝟐 𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟎
− −𝟐𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎
∞ ∞
=𝟎+ 𝟐𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟐𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎

𝒅𝒗
We now need to use integration by parts to calculate this integral. Setting 𝒖 = 𝟐𝒙 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒅𝒙 =
𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 we get:
∞ ∞ ∞
−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
𝟐𝒙𝒆 𝒅𝒙 = −𝟐𝒙 𝒆 − −𝟐 𝒆 𝒅𝒙
𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎 𝟎 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏
∞
𝟏 −𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
= 𝟎 + −𝟐 𝒆
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝟎
𝟐
=𝟎− − 𝒆𝟎
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟐
𝟐
= = 𝟐𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟐
Alternatively, we could use the integral from the previous page:
∞
𝒙𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎
𝟎
∞ ∞
−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙
⇒ 𝒙𝒆 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 ⇒ 𝟐 𝒙𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟐𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟎 𝟎
Hence:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑿 = 𝟐𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 − 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟐 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
So, the standard deviation is given by:
𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = £𝟏𝟎𝟎
(iii) Now, X is the random variable for the claim size during 2003. So, 1.12X will be the random
variable for the claim size during 2004.
𝑬 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝑬 𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐 × £𝟏𝟎𝟎 = £𝟏𝟏𝟐
𝒔𝒅 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐𝒔𝒅 𝑿 = 𝟏. 𝟏𝟐 × £𝟏𝟎𝟎 = £𝟏𝟏𝟐

10. In an investigation into the proportion (𝜃) of lapses in the first year of a certain type of policy, the un-
certainty about 𝜃 is modelled by taking 𝜃 to have a beta distribution with parameters 𝛼 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 =
9 , that is, with density:
8
𝑓 𝜃 = 9 1−𝜃 ∶ 0<𝜃<1
Using this distribution, calculate the probability that 𝜃 exceeds 0.2.
Answer
To find probabilities for a continuous random variable, we use:
𝒃
𝑷 𝒂<𝑋<𝑏 = 𝒇 𝒙 𝐝𝐱
𝒂
So:
𝟏
𝑷 𝜽 > 0.2 = 𝒇 𝜽 𝒅𝜽
𝟎.𝟐
𝟏
𝟖
= 𝟗 𝟏−𝜽 𝒅𝜽
𝟎.𝟐
𝟗 𝟏
= 𝟏− 𝟏−𝜽 𝟎.𝟐
= 𝟎 − −𝟎. 𝟖𝟗
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑𝟒𝟐𝟐
11. A random variable X, which can be used in certain circumstances as a model for claim sizes, has cumu-
lative distribution function:
0 , x 0

F  x     2 3
1    , x 0
  2 x 
Calculate the value of the conditional probability 𝑃 𝑋 > 3 𝑋 > 1 .

Answer
Using the conditional probability formula:
𝑷 𝑿 > 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 1 𝑷 𝑿>3

𝑷 𝑿>3𝑿>1 = =
𝑷 𝑿>1 𝑷 𝑿>1
Now 𝑭(𝒙) = 𝑷(𝑿 < 𝒙) , 𝒔𝒐 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝒙) = 𝟏 − 𝑭(𝒙) . Hence:

𝟑 𝟑
𝟐 𝟐
𝑷 𝑿> 3 = 𝟏−𝑭 𝟑 = 𝟏− 𝟏− =
𝟐+𝟑 𝟑
𝟑 𝟑
𝟐 𝟐
𝑷 𝑿< 1 = 𝟏−𝑭 𝟏 = 𝟏− 𝟏− =
𝟐+𝟏 𝟑
So:
𝟐 𝟐
𝟓
𝑷 𝑿>3𝑿>1 = = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟏𝟔
𝟐 𝟑
𝟑
12. A continuous random variable, Y , has probability density function:

1
𝑓 𝑦 = 4−𝑦 1≤𝑦≤3
4
Calculate the mean, median, mode and variance of Y.
Answer
We have:
𝟏
𝒇 𝒚 = 𝟒−𝒚 𝟏≤𝒚≤𝟑
𝟒
𝟑
𝟏
𝑬 𝒀 = 𝒚𝒇 𝒚 𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒𝒚 − 𝒚𝟐 𝒅𝒚
𝟒 𝟏
𝟑
𝟏 𝟏
= 𝟐𝒚𝟐 − 𝒚𝟑
𝟒 𝟑 𝟏

𝟏 𝟏
= 𝟏𝟖 − 𝟗 − 𝟐 −
𝟒 𝟑
𝟏 𝟏
= ×𝟕
𝟒 𝟑
𝟓
𝟏 = 𝟏. 𝟖𝟑
𝟔
𝟏
The median, M, can be found using 𝑷 𝒀 < 𝑀 = 𝟐
𝑴
𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀<𝑀 = 𝟒 − 𝒚 𝒅𝒚 =
𝟒 𝟏 𝟐
Integrating we get:
𝐌
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝟒𝐲 − 𝐲 𝟐 =
𝟒 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝟒𝐌 − 𝐌 𝟐 − 𝟑 =
𝟒 𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏 𝟐 𝟑
𝐌 −𝐌+𝟏 = 𝟎
𝟖 𝟖
𝐌 𝟐 − 𝟖𝐌 + 𝟏𝟏 = 𝟎
𝟖± −𝟖 𝟐− 𝟒 × 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟏 𝟖 ± 𝟐𝟎
𝑴= = = 𝟏. 𝟕𝟔 𝒐𝒓 𝟔. 𝟐𝟒
𝟐×𝟏 𝟐
Since f ( y) is only defined for the range 1£ x £ 3 , the median must be 1.76
The mode is the value that gives the greatest value of f ( y) .
Using differentiation is not helpful:
𝟏
𝒇′ 𝒚 = − ≠𝟎
𝟒

A quick sketch of the PDF shows that the mode is 1:
To get the variance we need to calculate 𝑬(𝒀𝟐 ) :
𝟏 𝟑
𝑬 𝒀𝟐 = 𝒚𝟐 𝒇 𝒚 𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒 𝟏
𝟒𝒚𝟐 − 𝒚𝟑 𝒅𝒚
𝟑
𝟏 𝟒 𝟑 𝟏 𝟒
= 𝒚 − 𝒚
𝟒 𝟑 𝟒 𝟏
𝟏 𝟏 𝟒 𝟏
= 𝟑𝟔 − 𝟐𝟎 − −
𝟒 𝟒 𝟑 𝟒
𝟏 𝟐 𝟐
= × 𝟏𝟒 = 𝟑
𝟒 𝟑 𝟑
Hence:
𝟐
𝟐 𝟓 𝟏𝟏
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝒀 = 𝑬 𝒀𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝒀 = 𝟑 − 𝟏 = = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟓
𝟑 𝟔 𝟑𝟔

13. A plumber has a call-out charge of £20 and in addition he charges £30 per hour for all his jobs. In a
particular week the mean and standard deviation of the lengths of his jobs are 3.5 hours and 0.5 hours
respectively.
What are the mean and standard deviation of the invoice values for this particular week?
Answer
If H is the number of hours worked, and C is the cost then:
𝑪 = 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑯
The mean of the cost, C, is given by:
𝑬 𝑪 = 𝑬 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑯
= 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑬 𝑯 𝒖𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝑬 𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃 = 𝒂𝑬 𝑿 + 𝒃
= 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎 × 𝟑. 𝟓 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝑬 𝑯 = 𝟑. 𝟓
= £𝟏𝟐𝟓
The standard deviation of the cost, C, is given by:
𝒔𝒅 𝑪 = 𝒔𝒅 𝟐𝟎 + 𝟑𝟎𝑯
= 𝟑𝟎𝒔𝒅 𝑯 𝒖𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒔𝒅 𝒂𝑿 + 𝒃 = 𝒂 × 𝒔𝒅(𝑿)
= 𝟑𝟎 × 𝟎. 𝟓 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒆 𝒔𝒅 𝑯 = 𝟎. 𝟓
= £𝟏𝟓
14. Calculate the coefficient of skewness for the random variable W, which has the following probability
density function:
2
𝑓 𝑤 = 𝑤 1≤𝑤≤2
3
Answer
The skewness is given by:
𝑺𝒌𝒆𝒘 𝑾 = 𝑬 𝑾𝟑 − 𝟑𝝁𝑬 𝑾𝟐 + 𝟐𝝁𝟑

Calculating the moments 𝑬(𝑾), 𝑬(𝑾𝟐 ) 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑬(𝑾𝟑 ) :
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟑 𝟐 𝟖 𝟏 𝟓
𝝁=𝑬 𝑾 = 𝒘𝒇(𝒘) 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘𝟐 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 = − = 𝟏 = 𝟏. 𝟓
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑 𝟗
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟒 𝟐 𝟏 𝟏
𝑬 𝑾𝟐 = 𝒘𝟐 𝒇 𝒘 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘𝟑 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 = 𝟒− =𝟐
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟒 𝟏 𝟑 𝟒 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟓 𝟐 𝟐 𝟏 𝟐
𝑬 𝑾𝟑 = 𝒘𝟑 𝒇 𝒘 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘𝟒 𝒅𝒘 = 𝒘 = 𝟔 − =𝟒 = 𝟒. 𝟏𝟑
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟓 𝟏 𝟑 𝟓 𝟓 𝟏𝟓
This gives:
⇒ 𝑺𝒌𝒆𝒘 𝑾 = 𝑬 𝑾𝟑 − 𝟑𝝁𝑬 𝑾𝟐 + 𝟐𝝁𝟑

𝟑
𝟐 𝟓 𝟏 𝟓
=𝟒 − 𝟑×𝟏 ×𝟐 + 𝟐× 𝟏
𝟏𝟓 𝟗 𝟐 𝟗
= −𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟐𝟏
To get the coefficient of skewness, we need the variance:
𝟐
𝟏 𝟓 𝟏𝟑
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑾 = 𝑬 𝑾𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑾 = 𝟐 − 𝟏 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟎𝟐𝟓
𝟐 𝟗 𝟏𝟔𝟐
Therefore, the coefficient of skewness is:
𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓𝟐𝟏
− = −𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟗
𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟎𝟐𝟓𝟏.𝟓
15. Write down the cumulative density function, 𝐹 𝑥 for 𝑋~𝑈(−2,6) and use it to calculate:
(i) 𝑃 𝑋<5
(ii) 𝑃 𝑋 > 1.7
(iii) 𝑃(−1 < 𝑋 < 5.5)
Answer
The cumulative density function of 𝑿 ~𝑼(−𝟐, 𝟔) is:
𝒙−𝒂 𝒙+𝟐
𝑭 𝒙 =𝑷 𝑿<𝑥 = =
𝒃−𝒂 𝟖
𝟓+𝟐 𝟕
(i) 𝑷 𝑿<5 =𝑭 𝟓 = 𝟖
= 𝟖 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟕𝟓
(ii) 𝑷 𝑿 > 1.7 = 𝟏 − 𝑷(𝑿 < 1.7) since probabilities sum to 1
= 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟏. 𝟕
𝟑. 𝟕
=𝟏− = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟑𝟕𝟓
𝟖
(iii) 𝑷 −𝟏 < 𝑋 < 5.5 = 𝑷 𝑿 < 5.5 − 𝑷 𝑿 < −1
= 𝑭 𝟓. 𝟓 − 𝑭 −𝟏
𝟕. 𝟓 𝟏
= − = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟖 𝟖
16. The random variable X has the distribution𝑋~𝑈(𝑎, 𝑏). The mean of X is 10 and the standard deviation
is 4. Calculate the values of a and b.
Answer
For 𝑿 ~𝑼(𝒂, 𝒃) we have:
𝟏
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒂 + 𝒃 = 𝟏𝟎
𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝒃−𝒂 = 𝟒𝟐
𝟏𝟐
Rearranging the mean gives 𝒃 = 𝟐𝟎 − 𝒂. Substituting this into the variance:
𝟏 𝟐
𝟐𝟎 − 𝒂 − 𝒂 = 𝟏𝟔
𝟏𝟐
𝟐
𝟐𝟎 − 𝟐𝒂 = 𝟏𝟗𝟐
Solving this:
𝟐𝟎 − 𝟐𝒂 = ± 𝟏𝟗𝟐
𝟐𝟎 ± 𝟏𝟗𝟐
𝐚= = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟗𝟑 𝐨𝐫 𝟑. 𝟎𝟕
𝟐

⇒ 𝐛 = 𝟐𝟎 − 𝟑. 𝟎𝟕 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟗𝟑 𝐨𝐫 𝐛 = 𝟐𝟎 − 𝟏𝟔. 𝟗𝟑 = 𝟑. 𝟎𝟕
Since a <b , we have a = 3.07 and b = 16.93.
17. Given that 𝑋~𝐸𝑥𝑝 𝜆 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃 𝑋 > 40 = 0.7
(i) Calculate 𝜆
(ii) Calculate 𝑃 𝑋 > 105 𝑋 > 80
Answer
∞ ∞
(i) 𝑷 𝑿 > 40 = 𝟒𝟎
𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝟒𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀 = 𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀
or using the cumulative density function:
𝑷 𝑿 > 40 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟒𝟎 = 𝟏 − 𝟏 − 𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀 = 𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀
But since 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟒𝟎) = 𝟎. 𝟕 , we have:
𝟏
𝒆−𝟒𝟎𝝀 = 𝟎. 𝟕 ⇒ 𝝀 = − 𝐥𝐧 𝟎. 𝟕 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟗𝟐
𝟒𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 105 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 80

𝑷 𝑿 > 105 𝑿 > 80 =
𝑷 𝑿 > 80
𝑷 𝑿 > 105
=
𝑷 𝑿 > 80
So, we need to calculate 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟖𝟎) 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟏𝟎𝟓) :
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 80 = 𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝟖𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟗𝟐×𝟖𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
𝟖𝟎
∞
∞
𝐏 𝐗 > 105 = 𝛌𝐞−𝛌𝐱 𝐝𝐱 = −𝐞−𝛌𝐱 𝟏𝟎𝟓
= 𝟎 − −𝐞−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟗𝟐×𝟏𝟎𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟐
𝟏𝟎𝟓

Hence:
𝟎. 𝟑𝟗𝟐
𝑷 𝑿 > 105 𝑿 > 80 = = 𝟎. 𝟖
𝟎. 𝟒𝟗
18. A random variable, Y, is uniformly distributed with mean 7 and standard deviation 5.
(i) Obtain the PDF of Y.
(ii) Calculate 𝑃(𝑌 > 5|𝑌 > 0)
Answer
(i) For 𝒀 ~𝑼(𝒂, 𝒃) we have:
𝟏
𝑬 𝑿 = 𝒂+𝒃 = 𝟕
𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝒃−𝒂 = 𝟓𝟐
𝟏𝟐
Rearranging the mean gives 𝒃 = 𝟏𝟒 − 𝒂. Substituting this into the variance:
𝟏 𝟐 𝟐
𝟏𝟒 − 𝒂 − 𝒂 = 𝟐𝟓 ⇒ 𝟏𝟒 − 𝟐𝒂 = 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟐
Solving this:
𝟏𝟒 − 𝟐𝒂 = ± 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟒 ± 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝐚= = −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 𝐨𝐫 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔
𝟐
⇒ 𝐛 = 𝟏𝟒 − −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 = 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔 𝐨𝐫 𝐛 = 𝟏𝟒 − 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔 = −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔
Since 𝐚 < 𝑏, we have𝐚 = −𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐛 = 𝟏𝟓. 𝟔𝟔 . Hence:
𝟏
𝒇 𝒚 = − 𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 < 𝑦 < 15.66
𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐

𝑷 𝒀 > 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑌 > 0 𝑷 𝒀>5

𝑷 𝒀>5𝒀>0 = =
𝑷 𝒀>0 𝑷 𝒀>0
𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔 𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔
𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀>5 = 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟏𝟓𝟒𝟕
𝟓 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟓
𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔 𝟏𝟓.𝟔𝟔
𝟏 𝟏
𝑷 𝒀>0 = 𝒅𝒙 = 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟎𝟒𝟏𝟓
𝟎 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟏𝟕. 𝟑𝟐 𝟎
Hence:
𝟎. 𝟔𝟏𝟓𝟒𝟕
𝑷 𝒀>5𝒀>0 = = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟖𝟏
𝟎. 𝟗𝟎𝟒𝟏𝟓
19. Claim amounts are modelled as an exponential random variable with mean £1,000.
(i) Calculate the probability that one such claim amount is greater than £5,000.
(ii) Calculate the probability that a claim amount is greater than £5,000 given that it is greater than
£1,000.
Answer
The mean is £1,000, so:
𝟏 𝟏
𝝁= = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 ⇒ 𝝀 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏
𝝀 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒙>0
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟕𝟒
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 5000 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟓 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟕𝟒
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 1000 𝑷 𝑿 > 5000

𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 𝑿 > 1000 = =
𝑷 𝑿 > 1000 𝑷 𝑿 > 1000
So, we need to calculate 𝑷(𝑿 > 𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎) by integrating the PDF:
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑿 > 1000 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟏𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 1000 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 1000 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
Substituting this into our conditional probability formula gives:
𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟕𝟒
𝑷 𝑿 > 5000 𝑿 > 1000 = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑
𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
20. Claim sizes are modelled by an exponential distribution with mean £50. Determine the probabilities
that an individual claim:
(i) Exceeds £50
(ii) Exceeds £200
(iii) Exceeds £200, given that it exceeds £50.
Answer
The mean is £50, so:

𝟏 𝟏
𝝁= = 𝟓𝟎 ⇒ 𝝀 =
𝝀 𝟓𝟎
𝟏
𝟏
𝒇 𝒙 = 𝟓𝟎 𝒆−𝟓𝟎𝒙 𝒙>0

∞ ∞
𝟏 −𝟏𝒙 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿 > 50 = 𝒆 𝟓𝟎 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟓𝟎𝒙 = 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
𝟓𝟎 𝟓𝟎 𝟓𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 50 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 50 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟓𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
(ii) We find the probability by integrating the PDF:
∞ ∞
𝟏 −𝟏𝒙 𝟏
𝑷 𝑿 > 200 = 𝒆 𝟓𝟎 𝒅𝒙 = −𝒆−𝟓𝟎𝒙 = 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟐
𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝟓𝟎 𝟐𝟎𝟎
𝑷 𝑿 > 200 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑿 < 200 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟐𝟎𝟎 = 𝒆−𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟐
(iii) Using the conditional probability formula:
𝑷 𝑿 > 200 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋 > 50 𝑷 𝑿 > 200 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟐

𝑷 𝑿 > 200 𝑿 > 50 = = = = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟗𝟖
𝑷 𝑿 > 50 𝑷 𝑿 > 50 𝟎. 𝟑𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟖
21. The median, m, of the distribution of a continuous random variable X is defined by the relation
𝑃 𝑋 < 𝑚 = 0.5
Show that the median of an exponential random variable is about 0.7 of the mean.
Answer
Using P(X <m) = 0.5, we get:
𝒎
𝑷 𝑿<𝑚 = 𝝀𝒆−𝝀𝒙 𝒅𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟓
𝟎
𝒎 𝟏
⇒ 𝒆−𝝀𝒙 =
𝟎 𝟐
𝟏
𝟏 − 𝒆−𝝀𝒎 =
𝟐

𝟏
𝒆−𝝀𝒎 =
𝟐
𝟏
−𝝀𝒎 = 𝐥𝐧
𝟐
𝝀𝒎 = 𝐥𝐧 𝟐
𝟏
𝒎= 𝐥𝐧 𝟐
𝝀
𝟏
Since the mean is𝝁 = 𝝀 , we can see the median is 𝒍𝒏 𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟗𝟑 times the mean.
22. The number of accidents in a factory is represented by a Poisson distribution averaging 2 accidents
per 5 days. Evaluate the probability that the time from one accident to the next exceeds 3 days.
Answer
2 accidents per 5 days is 0.4 accidents per day. So, if X is the number of claims per day we have:
𝑿 ~ 𝑷𝒐𝒊(𝟎. 𝟒)
This means the waiting time, T, between these claims is:
𝑻 ~ 𝑬𝒙𝒑(𝟎. 𝟒)
The probability that the waiting time is greater than 3 days can be found by integration:
∞
∞
𝑷 𝑻>3 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝒆−𝟎.𝟒𝒕 𝒅𝒕 = −𝒆−𝟎.𝟒𝒕 𝟑
= 𝟎 − −𝒆−𝟏𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟗
𝟑
Alternatively, we could use the cumulative density function:
𝑷 𝑻 > 3 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝑻 < 3 = 𝟏 − 𝑭 𝟑 = 𝒆−𝟏.𝟐 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟗
23. What is 𝐸 𝑋 2 for 𝑋~𝑁(𝜇, 𝜎 2 ) ?
Answer
Since:
𝒗𝒂𝒓 𝑿 = 𝑬 𝑿𝟐 − 𝑬𝟐 𝑿

This gives:
𝑬 𝑿𝟐 = 𝐯𝐚𝐫 𝐗 + 𝐄𝟐 𝐗
= 𝛔𝟐 + 𝛍𝟐
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 < 1.23
(ii) 𝑃 𝑍 < 2.725
Answer
(i) Reading from the standard normal the table
𝑷 𝒁 < 𝟏. 𝟐𝟑 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟗𝟎𝟔𝟓
(ii) 2.725 halfway between 2.72 and 2.73. Now reading from the standard normal table
𝑷 𝒁 < 2.72 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟕𝟒
𝑷 𝒁 < 2.73 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟖𝟑
Since 2.725 is halfway between these it will be:
𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟕𝟒 + 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟖𝟑
𝑷 𝒁 < 2.725 = = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟔𝟕𝟖𝟓
𝟐
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 > 2.17
(ii) 𝑃(𝑍 > 0.08)
Answer
(i) Using the fact that the area under the graph is 1, we have:
𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝒁 < 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕
Now reading 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕) from the standard normal table in Appendix A:
𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟐. 𝟏𝟕 = 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟖𝟓𝟎𝟎 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎

(ii) Similarly:
𝑷 𝒁 > 0.08 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝒁 < 0.08 using area = 1
= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟓𝟑𝟏𝟖𝟖 from tables
= 𝟎. 𝟒𝟔𝟖𝟏𝟐
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 < −1.50
(ii) 𝑃 𝑍 < −0.21
(iii) 𝑃(𝑍 < −2.05)
Answer
𝑷 𝒁 < −𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎
Now using the fact that the area under the graph is 1:
𝑷 𝒁 < −𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝑷 𝒁 > 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎 = 𝟏 − 𝑷 𝒁 < 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎
Reading the value of 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟏. 𝟓𝟎) from the table
𝑷(𝒁 < −𝟏. 𝟓𝟎) = 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟑𝟑𝟏𝟗 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟔𝟔𝟖𝟏
(ii) Similarly:
𝑷 𝒁 < −0.21 = 𝑷(𝒁 > 0.21) by symmetry
= 𝟏 − 𝑷(𝒁 < 0.21) using area = 1
= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟓𝟖𝟑𝟏𝟕 from tables
= 𝟎. 𝟒𝟏𝟔𝟖𝟑

(iii) We get:
𝑷 𝒁 < −2.05 = 𝑷(𝒁 > 2.05) by symmetry
= 𝟏 − 𝑷(𝒁 < 2.05) using area = 1
= 𝟏 − 𝟎. 𝟗𝟕𝟗𝟖𝟐 from tables
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟖
(i) 𝑃 𝑍 > −3.94
(ii) 𝑃 𝑍 > −0.73
Answer
𝑷(𝒁 > −𝟑. 𝟗𝟒) = 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟑. 𝟗𝟒)
We can read this value directly from the table
𝑷(𝒁 > −𝟑. 𝟗𝟒) = 𝑷(𝒁 < 𝟑. 𝟗𝟒) = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟔
(i) Similarly:
𝑷 𝒁 > −0.73 = 𝑷(𝒁 < 0.73) by symmetry
= 𝟎. 𝟕𝟔𝟕𝟑𝟎 from tables

ACET CORRELATION AND REGRESSION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
CORRELATION AND REGRESSION

1. In case the correlation coefficient between two variables is 1, the relationship between the two va-
riables would be
(a) y = a + bx
(b) y = a + bx, b > 0
(c) y = a + bx, b < 0
(d) y = a + bx, both (a) and (b) being positive.
Answer: Option (b)
2. If the relationship between two variables x and y in given by 2x + 3y + 4 = 0, then the value of the cor-
relation coefficient between x and y is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) –1
(d) negative.
Answer: Option (c)
3. The two lines of regression become identical when
(a) r=1
(b) r = –1
(c) r=0
(d) (a) or (b).
Answer: Option (d)
4. The regression coefficients remain unchanged due to a

(a) Shift of origin
(b) Shift of scale

(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) (a) or (b).
Answer: Option (a)
5. If for two variable x and y, the covariance, variance of x and variance of y are 40, 16 and 256 respec-
tively, what is the value of the correlation coefficient?
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.625
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5
Answer: Option (b)
6. If u + 5x = 6 and 3y – 7v = 20 and the correlation coefficient between x and y is 0.58 then whatwould
be the correlation coefficient between u and v?
(a) 0.58
(b) –0.58
(c) –0.84
(d) 0.84
Answer: Option (b)
7. If the relation between x and u is 3x + 4u + 7 = 0 and the correlation coefficient between x and y is -
0.6, then what is the correlation coefficient between u and y?
(a) –0.6
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.6
(d) –0.8
Answer: Option (c)

8. From the following data
x: 2 3 5 4 7
y: 4 6 7 8 10
The coefficient of correlation was found to be 0.93. What is the correlation between u and v as given
below?
u: –3 –2 0 –1 2
v: –4 –2 –1 0 2
(a) –0.93
(b) 0.93
(c) 0.57
(d) –0.57
Answer: Option (b)
9. If the regression line of y on x and of x on y are given by 2x + 3y = –1 and 5x + 6y = –1 then the arith-
metic means of x and y are given by
(a) (1, –1)
(b) (–1, 1)
(c) (–1, –1)
(d) (2, 3)
Answer: Option (a)
10. Given the following equations: 2x – 3y = 10 and 3x + 4y = 15, which one is the regression equation of x
on y?
(a) 1st equation
(b) 2nd equation
(c) both the equations
(d) none of these
Answer: Option (d)

11. If the regression coefficient of y on x, the coefficient of correlation between x and y andvariance of y
3
are –3/4, and 4 respectively, what is the variance of x?
2
(a) 2/ 3/2
(b) 16/3
(c) 4/3
(d) 4
Answer: Option (b)
12. The following results relate to bivariate data on (x, y):
2 2
xy  414, x  120, y  90, x  600, y  300, n  30 . Later or, it was known that two pairs of ob-
servations (12, 11) and (6, 8) were wrongly taken, the correct pairs of observations being (10,9) and
(8,10). The corrected value of the correlation coefficient is
(a) 0.752
(b) 0.768
(c) 0.846
(d) 0.953
Answer: Option (c)
13. Given the following data:
Variable: x y
Mean: 80 98
Variance 4 9
Coefficient of correlation = 0.6
What is the most likely value of y when x = 90 ?
(a) 90
(b) 103
(c) 104
(d) 107
Answer: Option (d)
14. Given below the information about the capital employed and profit earned by a company
over the last twenty five years: Mean SD
Capital employed (Rs. 0000) 62 5
Profit earned (Rs. 000) 25 6
Correlation coefficient between capital employed and profit = 0.92. The sum of the Regression coeffi-
cients for the above data would be:
(a) 1.871
(b) 2.358
(c) 1.968
(d) 2.346
Answer: Option (a)

SECTION 3
DATA
INTERPRETATION

ACET DATA INTERPRETATION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
DATA INTERPRETATION
1. The bar chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the production of various model of a
mobile manufacturing company in 2007 and 2008. The total production in 2007 was 35 lakh mobile
phones and in 2008 the production was 44 lakh. Study the chart and answer the following questions.
100%
90%
80%
70%
60%
50%
40%
30%
20%
10%
0%
2007 2008
F E D C B A
(a) Total number of mobiles of models A, B, and E manufactured in 2007 was

(i) 24,50,000
(ii) 22,75,000
(iii) 21,00,000
(iv) 19,25,000
(b) For which model was the percentage variation in production from 2007 to 2008 the maximum?
(i) B and C
(ii) C and D
(iii) D and E
(iv) A and B

(c) What was the difference in the number of B type mobiles produced in 2007 and 2008?
(i) 3,55,000
(ii) 2,70,000
(iii) 2,25,000
(iv) 1,75,000
(d) If the percentage production of A type mobiles in 2008 was same as that in 2007, then the
number of A type mobiles produced in 2008 would have been
(i) 14,00,000
(ii) 13,20,000
(iii) 11,70,000
(iv) 10,50,000
(e) If 85% of the D type mobiles produced in each year were sold by the company, how many D type
mobiles remained unsold?
(i) 76,500
(ii) 93,500
(iii) 1,18,500
(iv) 1,22,500
Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iii)

2. The sub divided bar diagram given below depicts H.S. Students of a school for three years. Study the
diagram and answer the questions.
(a) The percentage passed in 1st division in 2008 was
(i) 27%
(ii) 32%
3
(iii) 15 %
8
13
(iv) 11 17 %
(b) The pass percentage in 2008 was
(i) 67%
(ii) 73%
2
(iii) 79 3 %
6
(iv) 82 17 %

(c) In which year the school had the best results for H.S. in respect of percentage if pass candidates?
(i) 2008
(ii) 2009
(iii) 2010
(iv) The percentage of pass candidates are same for the three years
(d) The percentage of the students passed in 2nd division in the year 2010 was
(i) 30%
(ii) 40%
(iii) 50%
(iv) 60%
Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
3. Answer the questions based on the following graph.
Revenue obtained by a publishing house while selling journals, magazines and books (` In lakh)

(a) Which year shows the highest change in revenue obtained from magazines?
(i) 1989
(ii) 1991
(iii) 1990
(iv) 1992
(b) In 1991, what percent of the total revenue came from journals?
(i) 46%
(ii) 56%
(iii) 36%
(iv) 26%
(c) The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from atleast two categories is
(i) 1
(ii) 2
(iii) 3
(iv) 4
(d) If 1993 were to show the same growths as 1991 over 1990, the revenue in 1993 must be
(i) 194 lakh
(ii) 185 lakh
(iii) 172 lakh
(iv) 179 lakh
Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iv)

4. The following table given expenditure details of a family during the years 1991 to 1995. Study the table
and answer the questions.
Expenditure (in ₹ ‘000’)

Items of expenditure
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 Total
1. Food 800 900 1050 1200 1400 5350
2. House Rent 150 150 210 240 300 1050
3. Clothing 75 100 130 170 250 725
4. Fuel and Electricity 30 40 50 60 70 250
5. Education 150 170 200 260 300 1080
6. Medical Services 75 90 100 110 150 525
7. Miscellaneous 220 250 260 360 430 1520
Total 1500 1700 2000 2400 2900 10500
(a) What is the percent increase in expenditure on Education during 1991 to 1995?
(i) 50%
(ii) 75%
(iii) 100%
(iv) 150%
(b) Considering the total expenditure for all the five years together, what is the percent expenditure
on House Rent?
(i) 15%
(ii) 12%
(iii) 10%
(iv) 8%

(c) There is no increase in expenditure in 1992 as compared to 1991 on item
(i) Food
(ii) House Rent
(iii) Clothing
(iv) Medical Services
(d) In the light of the total expenditure for 1991, 1992, 1993, 1994 and 1995, what will be the likely
expenditure in 1996?
(i) ₹ 3000000
(ii) ₹ 3200000
(iii) ₹ 3500000
(iv) ₹ 3700000
(e) Which item of expenditure accounted for the maximum part of total expenditure in all the five
years?
(i) Clothing
(ii) Education
(iii) House Rent
(iv) Food
Answers
(a) iii
(b) iii
(c) ii
(d) iii
(e) iv
5. Study the following graph to answer these questions.

Percent profit earned by two companies A and B over the years
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 = 𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒 − 𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒

𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡 = × 100%
𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
A B
(a) If the income of company ‘A’ in 1998 was ₹142500, what was its expenditure in that year?
(i) ₹ 95000
(ii) ₹ 105000
(iii) ₹ 95500
(iv) ₹ 99500
(b) Expenditure of company ‘B’ in 1999 was 90% of its expenditure in 1998. Income of company ‘B’
in 1999 was what percent of its income in 1998
(i) 130.5%
2
(ii) 96 3 %
(iii) 121.5%
1
(iv) 93 3 %

(c) If the expenditure of company ‘A’ in 1997 was ₹70 lakh and income of company A in 1997 was
equal to its expenditure in 1998, what was the total income (in ₹ lakhs) of the company A in
1997 and 1998 together?
(i) 175
(ii) 131.25
(iii) 218.75
(iv) Cannot be determined
(d) Expenditure of company ‘B’ in years 1996 and 1997 were in the ratio of 5:7 respectively. What
was the respective ratio of their income?
(i) 10:13
(ii) 8:13
(iii) 13:14
(iv) 11:14
(e) Total expenditure of company ‘A’ and ‘B’ together in 2001 was ₹ 13.5 lakhs. What was the total
income of the two companies (in ₹ lakhs) in that year?
(i) 19.576
(ii) 20.25
(iii) 19.75
(iv) Cannot be determined
Answers
(a) (i)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
(e) (iv)

6. The following graph gives Sales, Expenses and Capital of a company for a period of five years from
1994 to 1998. Read the graph and answer the questions.
(a) What has been the simple average growth rate per annum of expenses between 1994 and 1998?
(i) 25%
1
(ii) 33 %
3
(iii) 40%
(iv) 130%
(b) In which year was the sales to expense ratio lowest?
(i) 1994
(ii) 1996
(iii) 1997
(iv) 1998
(c) What was the percent increase in sales (in ₹ crores) from 1994 to 1998?
(i) 50%
(ii) 60%

(iii) 80%
(iv) 100%
(d) In which year was the ratio of profits to capital the highest?
(i) 1998
(ii) 1995
(iii) 1996
(iv) 1997
(e) In which year was the ratio of sales to capital the lowest?
(i) 1998
(ii) 1997
(iii) 1996
(iv) 1995
Answers
(a) (ii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iii)

7. Study the bar diagram given below carefully and answer the following questions based on it.
(a) The birth rate of which country is 25% more than that of Germany?
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) England
(iv) New Zealand
(b) The birth rate of India is what percent of the birth rate of England?
(i) 165%
(ii) 155%
(iii) 140%
(iv) 100%
(c) The birth rate of China is how many times the birth rate of Germany?
(i) 0.4
(ii) 5.2
(iii) 4.0
(iv) 2.5

(d) What is the ratio of birth rates of India to that of Sweden?

(i) 5:11
(ii) 11:5
(iii) 2:1
(iv) 1:2
(e) By how much percent is the birth rate of England less than the birth rate of New Zealand?
(i) 30%
(ii) 33 1/3 %
(iii) 45%
(iv) 50%
Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)
(e) (ii)
8. Following graph shows wheat production, in thousands tonnes from 1985 to 1990. Answer the
questions given below.

(a) What is the percent increase in production in 1986 as compared to 1985?

(i) 45%
(ii) 37.5%
(iii) 52%
(iv) 51%
(b) Which year’s production is 50% of the sum of production of 1985 and 1990?
(i) 1985
(ii) 1987
(iii) 1989
(iv) 1990
(c) If the production during 1991 is more than the average production of the given years, which is
the minimum production during 1991?
(i) 104000 tonnes
(ii) 134000 tonnes
(iii) 121000 tonnes
(iv) 100900 tonnes
(d) How many year’s production is more than the average production?
(i) Three
(ii) Two
(iii) One
(iv) Four
(e) Sum of production during ‘odd’ years is how many times that of the even’ years?
(i) 1.8 times
(ii) 8 times
(iii) 2.5 times
(iv) 0.68 times

Answers
(a) (ii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (iv)
9. Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given production in India (in million
metres).
(a) The total cloth production in India in 1983-84 was (in million metres)
(i) 11750
(ii) 12370
(iii) 14480
(iv) 9010

(b) What is approximately the growth in cloth produced in India from 1981-82 to 1984-85?
(i) 6%
(ii) 2%
(iii) 10%
(iv) 19%
(c) For what percentage of total cloth produced in India in 1984-85 did the denim and cotton sector
together account for?
(i) 90%
(ii) 56%
(iii) 46%
(iv) 73%
(d) What was the percentage increase in denim from 1982-83 to 1983-84?
(i) 3.6%
(ii) 5%
(iii) 13.6%
(iv) 18%
(e) What was the percentage decrease in polyester from 1982-83 to 1984-85?
(i) 16%
(ii) 10%
(iii) 6%
(iv) 0.6%

Answers
(a) (ii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iv)
10. Refer to the following table. Read the table and answer the questions.
Food Grains Production in a
Country in 1999 (in lakh tonne)
State Rice Wheat Jowar Pulses Others
P 45 103 - 27 29
Q 48 86 73 19 15
R 59 32 67 14 31
S 41 37 59 21 15
T 37 22 41 13 11
U 68 15 12 - 18
V 57 8 7 12 10
W 38 28 31 22 45
(a) Which state had the highest grain production?
(i) P
(ii) Q

(iii) R
(iv) S
(b) What was the production of rice production to wheat production in the country?
(i) 1:1
(ii) 331:339
(iii) 393:331
(iv) 2:1
(c) Jowar was the most important food grain in the states/states
(i) Q, R, S
(ii) Q
(iii) R, S
(iv) R, S, T
(d) State P alone accounted for approximately, what percentage of wheat production in the country?
(i) 73%
(ii) 50%
(iii) 41%
(iv) 30%
(e) If the average per hectare yield of rice in the country was 30 tons, then the area (approx..) under
rice cultivation during the year was approx. (in lakh hectares)
(i) 1.5
(ii) 8
(iii) 13
(iv) 40

Answers
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (iv)
(e) (iii)
11. Following table gives the population of a locality from 1988 to 1992. Read the table and answer the
questions.
Increase (+) or decrease (-)

Years Men Women Children Total
over preceding year
1988 65104 60387 - 146947 -
1989 70391 62516 - - +(11630)
1990 - 63143 20314 153922 -
1991 69395 - 21560 - -(5337)
1992 71274 65935 23789 160998 -
(a) The number of children in 1988 is

(i) 31236
(ii) 125491
(iii) 14546
(iv) 21456
(b) The total population in 1989 is
(i) 144537
(ii) 158577

(iii) 146947
(iv) 149637
(c) Number of children in 1989 is
(i) 25670
(ii) 14040
(iii) 13970
(iv) 15702
(d) Number of women in 1991 is
(i) 57630
(ii) 56740
(iii) 52297
(iv) 62957
(e) Increase or decrease of population in 1992 over 1991 is
(i) –(12413)
(ii) +(12413)
(iii) +155661
(iv) +7086
Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (i)
(d) (i)
(e) (ii)

12. Study the following graph to answer the given questions. The chart shows production of Company A
and B over the years (in lakh units).
(a) For company B, what is the percent decrease in production from 2000 to 2001?
(i) 75%
(ii) 50%
(iii) 25%
(iv) 10%
(b) In 2007, the production of company A is approximately what percent of production in 2006?
(i) 60%
(ii) 157%
(iii) 192%
(iv) 50%

(c) for company B, in which year is the percentage increase/decrease in the production from the
previous year the highest?
(i) 2007
(ii) 2001
(iii) 2005
(iv) 2002
(d) What is the difference in the total production of the two companies for the given years?
(i) 2700000
(ii) 3100000
(iii) 270000
(iv) 310000
(e) Which of the following is the closest average production in lakh units of company A for the given
years?
(i) 4.1
(ii) 3.5
(iii) 4.3
(iv) 3.9
Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (iv)

13. The following questions are based on the pie chart given below. Study the pie chart and answer the
questions.
(a) The central angle for the sector on ‘Paper Cost’ is

1
(i) 22 °
2
(ii) 16°
(iii) 54.8°
(iv) 36°
(b) If the ‘Printing Cost’ is ₹17500, the Royalty paid is
(i) ₹8750
(ii) ₹7500
(iii) ₹3150
(iv) ₹6300

(c) If the ‘Miscellaneous Expenses’ are ₹6000, how much more are ‘Binding and Cutting charges’
than ‘Royalty’?
(i) ₹6000
(ii) ₹5500
(iii) ₹4500
(iv) ₹10500
(d) The central angle corresponding to the sector on ‘Printing Cost’ is more than that of
‘Advertisement Charges’ by
(i) 72°
(ii) 61.2°
(iii) 60°
(iv) 54.8°
(e) The ‘Paper Cost’ is approximately what percent of ‘Printing Cost’?
(i) 20.3%
(ii) 28.6%
(iii) 30%
(iv) 32.5%
Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (ii)
(e) (ii)

14. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Degreewise distribution of employees working in various departments of an organization and the

ratio of number of men to number of women.
Total employees 3250
Respective ratio of number of men to number of women in each department.
Department Men Women
Production 4 1
HR 12 13
IT 7 3
Marketing 3 2
Accounts 6 7

(a) What is the number of men working in the marketing department?
(i) 442
(ii) 435
(iii) 450
(iv) 429
(b) What is the ratio of the number of women working in the HR department to the number of men
working in the IT department?
(i) 18:35
(ii) 13:28
(iii) 14:17
(iv) 19:17
(c) The number of men working in the production department of the organisation is what percent
of the total number of employees working in that department?
(i) 92%
(ii) 82%
(iii) 80%
(iv) 73%
(d) The number of women working in the IT department of the organisation is what percent of the
total number of employees in the organisation from all the department together?
(i) 4.8%
(ii) 4.6%
(iii) 4.5%
(iv) 4.7%

Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
15. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Ratio of men to women
Department Men Women
Production 11 1
HR 1 3
IT 5 4
Marketing 7 5
Accounts 2 7

(a) What is the number of men working in the marketing department?
(i) 132
(ii) 174
(iii) 126
(iv) 189
(b) The number of men working in the production department of the organisation is what percent of
the total number of employees working in that department?
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(i) 89.76
(ii) 91.67
(iii) 88.56
(iv) 94.29
(c) What is the ratio of the number of men working in the accounts department to the total number
of employees working in that department?
(i) 9:2
(ii) 7:6
(iii) 2:9
(iv) 6:7
(d) What is the ratio of the number of women working in the HR department to the total number of
employees in that department?
(i) 3:4.
(ii) 2:5
(iii) 2:9
(iv) 3:7

Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
16. Answer the following questions based on the Venn diagram given below. A group of students were
surveyed to find out which of the three types of food F1, F2 and F3, they liked.
(a) The number of students who liked exactly one type of food is
(i) 34
(ii) 22
(iii) 7
(iv) 15
(b) The number of students who liked F1 and F2 but not F3 is
(i) 5
(ii) 7

(iii) 9
(iv) 12
(c) The number of students who liked F1 or F3 is
(i) 41
(ii) 30
(iii) 19
(iv) 11
Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (i)
(c) (ii)
17. Suppose 80 candidates appeared for a combined test in English and Mathematics. Let E and m denote
the set of candidates passed in English and Mathematics, respectively, and is shown in the following
Venn-diagram. The numbers 12, 18, 30 and x in different parts of the diagram indicate the number of
students in those parts.
The number of candidates passed in Mathematics is
(i) 32
(ii) 20
(iii) 50
(iv) 38
Answer
17. (iii)
18. 1500 students appeared in an examination, which consists of three papers: Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics. 190 students passed in Physics only, 180 students passed in Chemistry only, whereas
240 students passed in Mathematics only. 366 students passed in both Physics and Mathematics, 346
students passed in both Mathematics and Chemistry, whereas 326 passed in both Physics and
Chemistry. 206 students passed in all the three papers (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
C
C P
P
M M
(a) How many students failed in Chemistry?
(b) How many students failed in only one subject?
(c) How many students failed in at least 1 subject?
(d) How many students failed in Chemistry and Mathematics?
(e) How many students passed in at least one subject?

Answers
(a) 854
(b) 420
(c) 1294
(d) 454
(e) 1236
19. The incoming batch at CFM Business School has a total of 90 female candidates (girls). For the Annual
Sports Festival, they had to send a Girls Team, and hence the Sports-in-charge was checking out how
many of the girls play one or more of these sports - Basketball, Volleyball or Handball in the girl.
The following were the observations of the Sports-in-charge:
● For every five girls who play both Volleyball and Basketball, there are three girls who play
Basketball but do not play Volleyball
● The number of girls who play Handball only is 50% more than the number of girls who play
exactly one of Basketball and Volleyball, besides playing Handball
● Out of every ten girls who play Volleyball, there are three girls who do not play Basketball
● One in every three girls who play exactly one of Basketball and Volleyball, play Handball too
● Every five in nine girls in the incoming batch play Volleyball
● Exactly two-fifths of the girls who play both Basketball and Volleyball, also play Handball
● Out of every seven girls who play Basketball, but rot Volleyball; only three of them play Handball
Basketball Volleyball
Handball
(a) The number of girls who play neither Basketball nor Handball are?
(i) 16
(ii) 12
(iii) 13
(iv) 15
(b) How many of the girls play Volleyball but only one of the other two sports?
(i) 21
(ii) 24
(iii) 25
(iv) 38
(c) What is the ratio of the number of girls who play exactly one of the three sports to the number of
girls who play at least two of the three sports?
(i) 0.84
(ii) 1.17
(iii) 1.27
(iv) 0.89
(d) What is the difference in the number of girls who play Volleyball and those who play Basketball?
(i) 6
(ii) 12
(iii) 9
(iv) 8
Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
20. The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a
book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based on it.
Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book
Royalty Promotion cost

15% 10%
Printing cost
20%
Binding
20%
Transportation
cost
10%
Paper Cost
25%
(a) If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what
will be amount of royalty to be paid for these books?
(i) 19,450
(ii) 21,200
(iii) 22,950
(iv) 26,150

(b) What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?
(i) 15°
(ii) 24°
(iii) 54°
(iv) 48°
(c) The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is ` 180, then
what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?
(i) 36
(ii) 37.50
(iii) 42
(iv) 44.25
(d) If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500, then
what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?
(i) 187.50
(ii) 191.50
(iii) 175
(iv) 180
(e) Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by:
(i) 5%
(ii) 33 ½ %
(iii) 20%
(iv) 25%

Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)
(e) (iv)
21. The pie chart given below shows the distribution of students who failed in an examination. If the total
marks number of students was 500, answer the questions given below based on this pie chart.
(a) The number of students failed in science is less than the number of students failed in all other
subjects by:
(i) 170
(ii) 140
(iii) 180
(iv) 160
(b) The central angle of the sector for the students who failed in mathematics is:

(i) 30°
(ii) 100°
(iii) 105.2°
(iv) 108°
(c) The total number of students who did not qualify in Mathematics and Language and Science is:
(i) 460
(ii) 490
(iii) 480
(iv) 470
(d) Number of students who failed in mathematics is less than the students who did not qualify in
language by what number?
(i) 20
(ii) 40
(iii) 30
(iv) 50
(e) The percentage of students who have failed in Mathematics and Language is:
(i) 65.5%
(ii) 60%
(iii) 66%
(iv) 62%
Answers
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iii)
(e) (iii)
22. The following pie-chart shows the preference of musical instruments of 60000 people surveyed over
whole India. Examine the chart and answer the questions.
Preference (in percentage) or musical instruments of 60000 people
(a) If the number of people who prefer Flute are decreased by 2100, then the percentage of people
who prefer flute would have been:
(i) 9.5%
(ii) 6.5%
(iii) 7.5%
(iv) 8.5%
(b) The total number of people who prefer either Sarod or Guitar, is greater than the total number of
people who prefer either violin or Sitar by:

(i) 1200
(ii) 1600
(iii) 1100
(iv) 1400
(c) The number of people who prefer the musical instrument Sarod is:
(i) 7400
(ii) 8400
(iii) 6400
(iv) 8600
(d) If 16% of the people prefer Piano, would go with the people who prefers Flute, the percentage of
people who prefer Flute would have been
(i) 13.5%
(ii) 14.5%
(iii) 15.5%
(iv) 12.5%
(e) The number of people who prefer Guitar is greater than the total number of people who prefer
either Flute or Piano by:
(i) 1200
(ii) 1100
(iii) 1300
(iv) 1400
Answers
(a) (iii)

(b) (i)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iv)
(e) (i)
23. The Pie chart shows the expenditure of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the
graph and answer the questions.
The expenditure of a country on various sports

(a) If the total amount spent on cricket and hockey together is ` 80000, the total amount spend on
sports is
(i) ` 1,00,000
(ii) ` 2,00,000
(iii) ` 2,50,000
(iv) ` 3,00,000
(b) How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?
(i) 27%
(ii) 35%
(iii) 37.5%
(iv) 75%
(c) How much percent less is spent on Football than that on Cricket?
(i) 22%
(ii) 27%
(iii) 100/3%
(iv) 37%
Answers
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
24. The following pie-chart shows the export of different food grains from India in 2010. Study the chart
and answer the questions:
The export of different food grains from India in 2010
(a) Of the total export of food-grains, the percentage of crop B exported is

(i) 15%

(ii) 20%
(iii) 18%
(iv) 10%
(b) If a total of 1.5 million quintals of crop F was exported, the amount of total food-grains exported
in million quintals was
(i) 8.7
(ii) 12
(iii) 10.8
(iv) 9.6
(c) The three crops which combine to contribute to exactly 50% of the total export of food-gains are
(i) A, F and others
(ii) B, C and D
(iii) A, B and C
(iv) C, F and D
(d) If a total of 1.5 million quintals of crop F was exported, then the total quantity of D and E that
was exported, in million quintals, was
(i) 1.2
(ii) 1.5
(iii) 4.5
(iv) 6.5
(e) If the revenue from 1 quintal of crop A is thrice that from 1 quintal of crop C, then the ratio of the
total revenues of A and C is
(i) 1:6
(ii) 2:3
(iii) 3:2
(iv) 6:1
Answers
(a) (ii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
(e) (iv)
25. The pie chart given below shows the marks obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks
obtained by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given below based on this pie
chart.
(a) In which subject did the student obtain 105 marks?

(i) Maths
(ii) Social Studies
(iii) Science
(iv) Hindi
(b) What is the marks obtained in Science?
(i) 105
(ii) 120
(iii) 135
(iv) 150
(c) How many more marks were obtained by the student in maths than those in Hindi?
(i) 30
(ii) 20
(iii) 10
(iv) 40
(d) How many more marks were obtained by the student in Science and Maths together?
(i) 220
(ii) 255
(iii) 180
(iv) 225
(e) How many more marks were obtained by the students in Science than those in English?
(i) 37.5
(ii) 30
(iii) 35
(iv) 40
Answers
(a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)
(e) (i)

SECTION 4
ENGLISH

ACET SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS
In each of the following sentences, a word or phrase is written in italicised letter. For Each italicised part
four words/phrases are listed below each sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the italicised
part.
Q1. A million cinemas a year bring the same stale balderdash.

(a) adventure
(b) nonsense
(c) thriller
(d) romance
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Balderdash' and 'nonsense' both have same meaning.
Q2. There must be lively discussion of Indian authors if we are to foster our knowledge.
(a) promote
(b) cherish
(c) nourish
(d) nurture
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Foster' and 'nurture' have the same meaning -to help to grow.
Q3. Buoyed by these visions of the future of his son, the artist soldiered on.
(a) continued bravely
(b) stopped further
(c) struggled hard
(d) fought on
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Soldiered on' means 'to continue very bravely'

Q4. Last fortnight, the rain came to the parched soils of India after the merciless drought had already
sapped the vitality and livelihood of millions of peasants.
(a) decreased
(b) demolished
(c) destroyed
(d) drained away
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'sapped' means 'to be drained away' i.e. taken the moisture away.
Q5. The boy gave a vivid description of all that happened.
(a) brilliant
(b) fresh
(c) explanatory
(d) picturesque
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Vivid' means 'picturesque' i.e. very lively.
Q6. It is compulsory for all the students to join this tour.
(a) regular
(b) necessary
(c) dutiful
(d) obligatory
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Compulsory' and "obligatory' both mean 'necessary'.
Q7. Some of the discoveries of modem science are simply marvellous.
(a) praiseworthy
(b) commendable
(c) admirable
(d) amazing
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Marvellous' gives the sense of 'amazing'.
Q8. The teacher felt that the student lacked discrimination in the study of his data.
(a) imagination
(b) good taste
(c) objectivity
(d) good judgement
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Discrimination' has the context of 'good judgement'.
Q9. We don't know how we are to recompense you for the trouble you have taken.
(a) reward
(b) help
(c) praise
(d) thank
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Recompense' and 'reward' both have same meaning-a prize or a present for a good
deed.
Q10. John Milton wrote 'Paradise Lost' to vindicate the ways of God to man.
(a) explain
(b) support
(c) justify
(d) criticise
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Vindicate' has the sense of 'justifying'.
Q11. When youngsters do not have good role-models to emulate they start searching for them among
sportsmen or film stars.
(a) inhabit
(b) imitate
(c) mollify
(d) modify
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Emulate' and 'imitate' both mean 'to copy'.
Q12. The eyewitness testimony was incontrovertible.
(a) debatable
(b) unquestionable
(c) unacceptable
(d) disputable
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Incontrovertible' means 'unquestionable'.
Q13. The invasion forces had no artillery and were completely annihilated.
(a) reduced
(b) destroyed
(c) dismembered
(d) split
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Annihilate' means 'to destroy'.
Q14. The novel was so interesting that I was oblivious of surroundings.
(a) indifferent
(b) watchful
(c) unmindful
(d) precarious
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Oblivious' means 'unmindful' i.e. forgetful.
Q15. Elsie is seventy years old and a fanatical gardener.
(a) crazy
(b) fantastic
(c) excessively enthusiastic

(d) obsessed
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Fanatical' gives the sense of being excessively enthusiastic.
Q16. The courage shown by the soldiers at this moment of crisis is exemplary.
(a) admirable
(b) clear
(c) elementary
(d) suitable
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Exemplary' means 'admirable' i.e. worthy to be praised.
Q17. Grandfather has been getting feeble of late.
(a) tall
(b) weak
(c) diseased
(d) small
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Feeble' means 'weak'.
Q18. Even though Akshay does not study hard, he always comes first in his class.
(a) scores
(b) stands
(c) arrives
(d) completes
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Comes' has the context 'stands'.
Q19. The arguments of the lawyer of the accused were so persuasive that the judge acquitted him.
(a) convincing
(b) clever
(c) eloquent
(d) logical
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Persuasive' means 'convincing' i.e. appealing to logic and rationale.
Q20. Your master will like you if you are diligent.
(a) conscientious
(b) obedient
(c) meticulous
(d) hard working
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Diligent' means 'hard working'.
Q21. We should always try to maintain and promote communal amity.
(a) understanding
(b) bondage
(c) friendship
(d) contention
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Amity' means 'friendship.'
Q22. Before I could make out anything he had spoken again.
(a) find out
(b) apprehend
(c) explain
(d) reveal
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'To make out anything' means ‘to apprehend' i.e. to understand.

Q23. It is amazing how such a motley group could get along so well.
(a) heterogeneous
(b) assorted
(c) promiscuous
(d) confused
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Motley' and 'assorted' both have the meaning -Divergent.
Q24. His speech was nothing but a string of platitudes.
(a) grand statements
(b) stereo typed statements
(c) noble sentiments
(d) humorous anecdotes
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Platitudes' means 'stereo typed statements'.
Q25. He wrote a scathing review of the prize-winning novel.
(a) biased
(b) scornful
(c) unbalanced
(d) subjective
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Scathing' and 'scornful' both have a meaning-filled with anger, rage and atrocity.
Q26. India has made spectacular progress in Science and technology.
(a) remarkable
(b) great
(c) formidable
(d) super
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Spectacular' means 'remarkable'.
Q27. The opposition criticised the ruling party for the deteriorating law and order situation in the state.
(a) disrupting
(b) worsening
(c) crumbling
(d) eroding
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Deteriorating' and 'worsening' both have a meaning- getting bad in condition.
Q28. The flat has been refurbished recently.
(a) white-washed
(b) painted
(c) renovated
(d) repaired
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Refurbished' means 'renovated' i.e. making something look new.
Q29. Even the most careful researcher cannot predict the possible future ramifications of his findings.
(a) uses
(b) developments
(c) consequences
(d) conclusions
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Ramifications' and 'consequences' both have meaning- resultant of an action or a

deed.
Q30. He ended his speech on a supercilious note which was quite unexpected of a person of balanced and
stable temperament.
(a) defamatory
(b) contemptuous
(c) superfluous
(d) irrelevant
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Supercilious' and 'contemptuous' both have a meaning. -derogatory in nature.
Q31. Graduation day is a momentous day for most students.
(a) memorable
(b) melancholy
(c) important
(d) hectic
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Momentous' means 'important'.
Q32. The two opposing parties have reached a stalemate.
(a) dilemma
(b) deadlock
(c) exhaustion
(d) settlement
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Stalemate' and 'deadlock' both have a meaning-a condition where no final decision is
made.
Q33. The Prime Minister delivered an impromptu speech to the students.
(a) important impressive
(b) inspiring
(c) offhand
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Impromptu' and 'offhand' both have a meaning-without plan or preparation.

Q34. This is a lucrative business.

(a) profitable
(b) dangerous
(c) challenging
(d) questionable
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Lucrative' means 'Profitable' -worthy getting a profit.
Q35. Forthrightness in speech may not always be a desirable quality.
(a) outspokenness
(b) obliqueness
(c) mendacity
(d) equivocation
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Forthrightness' and 'outspokenness' both have a meaning-straight forward.
Q36. Such conduct deserves reprimand.
(a) praise
(b) punishment
(c) rebuke
(d) reward
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Reprimand' means 'punishment'.
Q37. On public occasions, she was very punctilious about forms and manners.
(a) serious
(b) careful
(c) artificial
(d) casual
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Punctilious' means 'careful'.
Q38. She is very discreet.

(a) mannered
(b) mild
(c) proud
(d) prudent
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Discreet' and 'prudent' both have a meaning 'conscious about future'.
Q39. After he came back from his evening walk, he felt famished.
(a) exhausted
(b) hungry
(c) peevish
(d) relaxed
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Famished' means 'hungry'.
Q40. She purchased gimcrack ornaments from the market.
(a) expensive
(b) worthless
(c) rare
(d) smuggled
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Gimcrack' means 'worthless' i.e. without any significant usage.
Q41. He is a good looking but insipid young man.
(a) arrogant
(b) unscrupulous
(c) sick
(d) lacking in spirit
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Insipid' means 'lacking in spirit'.
Q42. He had insidiously wormed his way into her affections.

(a) in a polite manner
(b) in a secret manner
(c) in ugly way
(d) in a forceful manner
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Insidiously' means 'in a secret manner'.
Q43. His boss' criticism left him feeling rather abashed.
(a) annoyed
(b) arrogant
(c) embarrassed
(d) awakened
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Abashed' means 'embarrassed'.
Q44. The inexorable demands of the workers brought the company to a closure.
(a) unreasonable
(b) relentless
(c) monetary
(d) violent
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Inexorable: means 'relentless' i.e. without any particular end.
Q45. The acerbic remarks of the manager were unwarranted.
(a) bitter
(b) furious
(c) arrogant
(d) childish
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Acerbic' means 'bitter'.
Q46. It was an astute move to sell the property at that stage.

(a) shrewd
(b) unwise
(c) dishonest
(d) inexplicable
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Astute' and 'shrewd' both have the meaning- with the element of the cunningness.
Q47. The five experiments gave disparate results.
(a) similar
(b) encouraging
(c) strange
(d) different
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Disparate' means 'different'.
Q48. The young girl appeared self-possessed in front of TV cameras.
(a) shy
(b) confident
(c) introvert
(d) extrovert
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Self-possessed' means 'confident'
Q49. The chairman conducted the meeting with aplomb.
(a) arrogance
(b) annoyance
(c) poise
(d) authority
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: ‘Aplomb' and 'poise' both have a meaning 'with confidence'.
Q50. The officer gave a lucid explanation of the company's course of action.
(a) vague
(b) unconvincing
(c) long
(d) clear
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Lucid' means 'clear'.
Q51. Self-reliance has been adopted as an important objective of economic planning in modem India.
(a) refused
(b) forsaken
(c) denied
(d) discarded
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Adopted' means 'to accept' hence 'discarded' is its antonym that gives the sense 'to
reject'.
Q52. His appointment was confirmed last month.
(a) disappointment
(b) suspension
(c) dismissal
(d) discharge
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Appointment' means 'to offer employment'. Hence 'dismissal' is antonym.
Q53. He has a passion for indigenous goods.
(a) native
(b) foreign
(c) silly
(d) cheap
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Indigenous' means 'related to the native place' but 'foreign' gives the opposite sense.'
Q54. He made an exhaustive list of the items his secretary should attend to.
(a) short incomplete
(b) interesting
(c) meticulous
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Exhaustive' means 'complete' hence 'incomplete' is its antonym.
Q55. I like his friendly attitude.
(a) jealous
(b) envious
(c) hostile
(d) vicious
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: Antonym of 'friendly' is 'hostile' i.e. filled with enmity.
Q56. He appears to be a phony person.
(a) beautiful
(b) unread
(c) genuine
(d) ugly
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Phony' means 'fake'. Hence, 'genuine' is its antonym.
Q57. He was in a dejected mood.
(a) jubilant
(b) rejected
(c) irritable
(d) romantic
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Dejected' means 'being in a sad mood' so 'jubilant' is antonym which gives the sense
of 'being happy'.

Q58. Philosophers say that the world is an illusion.

(a) a fact
(b) a reality
(c) an actuality
(d) a truth
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Illusion' is 'not being real'. So, the antonym will be 'reality'.
Q59. There was a marked deterioration in his condition.
(a) improvement
(b) revision
(c) reformation
(d) amendment
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Deterioration' means 'worsening of a condition'. So, 'improvement' is its antonym.
Q60. This offer has come as a great boon to me.
(a) curse
(b) blemish
(c) trouble
(d) misfortune
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Boon' and 'curse' are antonyms to each other.
Q61. I liked the poem for its literal meaning.
(a) deep
(b) complex
(c) fictitious
(d) figurative
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Literal' means 'exact' while 'figurative' means 'contextual'. Hence these are anto-
nyms.
Q62. His book has a short but useful introduction.

(a) end
(b) conclusion
(c) termination
(d) deduction
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Introduction' and 'Conclusion' are the antonyms to each other.
Q63. The Principal hardly managed to give the papers a cursory glance.
(a) curious
(b) thorough
(c) through
(d) superficial
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Cursory' means 'casual' while 'thorough' means 'careful'. Hence, these are antonyms.
Q64. The attack on the freedom of the press is a retrograde step.
(a) progressive
(b) stubborn
(c) punitive
(d) aggressive
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Retrograde' means 'declining'. Hence, 'progressive' is its antonym.
Q65. We received a cordial welcome from our host.
(a) indifferent
(b) distrustful
(c) cold
(d) official
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Cordial' means 'affectionate'. Hence, 'indifferent' is its antonym.
Q66. We should not belittle the value of small things.

(a) extol
(b) praise
(c) inflate
(d) expand
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Belittle' means 'to consider small' hence 'extol' is its antonym that means 'to amplify
the value'.
Q67. It used to be said that travel broadens one’s outlook.
(a) narrows
(b) shrinks
(c) contracts
(d) restricts
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Broadens' means 'to expand'. So, 'narrows' will be antonym that means 'to shrink.'
Q68. The criminal was detained by the police.
(a) deterred
(b) released
(c) dismissed
(d) protected
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Detained' means 'to keep in the legal custody'. Hence, 'released' will be the antonym.
Q69. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.
(a) advisable
(b) unnecessary
(c) superfluous
(d) optional
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Obligatory' means 'compulsory'. So, 'optional' will be its antonym.
Q70. The government empowered itself to attach the assets of all the scam suspects.
(a) release
(b) return
(c) donate
(d) detach
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Attach' means 'to confiscate' or 'to seize'. Hence, 'release' is its antonym.
Q71. His urbane attitude won him many friends.
(a) indifferent
(b) violent
(c) rustic
(d) rude
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Urbane' means 'polite'. Hence, the antonym will be 'rude'.
Q72. The leader might have had some covert reason for the change of his political affiliations.
(a) unjustifiable
(b) obvious
(c) inexplicable
(d) flimsy
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Covert' means 'hidden'. So, the antonym will be 'obvious.
Q73. Lucy is a smart girl.
(a) lazy
(b) active
(c) indecent
(d) casual
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Smart' and 'Lazy' are antonyms.
Q74. The room was filled with a delicious odour.

(a) bitter
(b) repulsive
(c) strange
(d) unpalatable
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Delicious' means 'tasty'. But, the word 'unpalatable' means 'not tasty'.
Q75. That man is known for his elegance.
(a) awkwardness
(b) indelicacy
(c) clumsiness
(d) savagery
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Elegance' means 'marvelousness' So, 'awkwardness' is its antonym.
Q76. Unsettled conditions in the land led to the exodus of hundreds of its citizens.
(a) invasion
(b) intrusion
(c) immigration
(d) expulsion
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Exodus' means 'exit'. So, the antonym of the word is 'immigration'.
Q77. In the interest of one's own reputation one should avoid ostentation while entertaining friends.
(a) miserliness
(b) simplicity
(c) purity
(d) innocence
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Ostentation' means 'to show off'. Hence, 'simplicity' is its antonym.
Q78. Everything about him especially his talkative nature proclaims his effeminacy.
(a) aggressiveness
(b) attractiveness
(c) manliness
(d) boorishness
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Effeminacy' means 'pertaining to the feminine behaviour'. Hence, the opposite will be
'Manliness'.
Q79. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems facing the country.
(a) indefinite
(b) vague
(c) idealistic
(d) optimistic
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Pragmatic' means 'practical'. So, the antonym will be 'idealistic'.
Q80. She used to disparage her neighbours every now and then.
(a) please
(b) praise
(c) belittle
(d) denigrate
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Disparage' means 'to criticise'. Hence, the antonym will be 'praise'.
Q81. The plantation workers were on a collision course before the labour officer intervened.
(a) retaliatory
(b) perfunctory

(c) conciliatory
(d) circuitous
Answer: Option (c)

Explanation: 'Collision' means a dash between two' while 'conciliatory' means 'an agreement or
harmony'. So, both are antonyms.
Q82. Every self-respecting circus needs at least one dwarf.
(a) pigmy
(b) undersized
(c) giant
(d) human
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Dwarf' means 'small' and 'giant' ·means 'huge'. So, they are antonyms.
Q83. Of all the companions of our joyous ascent, there were only the two of us left.
(a) descant
(b) descendant
(c) descent
(d) decent
Answer: Option (c)

Explanation: 'Ascent' and 'descent' are opposite to each other.
Q84. Our knowledge of the past is still largely a matter of conjecture.

(a) certainty
(b) guess
(c) position
(d) form
Answer: Option (a)

Explanation: 'Conjecture' means 'guess'. Hence, its antonym will be ‘certainty’.

Q85. In all places and at all times, there is a profusion of talents.
(a) plenty
(b) scarcity
(c) aversion
(d) generosity
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Profusion' means 'in plenty or 'in ample'. Hence, 'Scarcity' is its antonym that means
'Less in quantity'.
Q86. It was altercation throughout and there was no discussion.
(a) consonance
(b) alternative
(c) inconsistency
(d) resonance
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Altercation' means 'disagreement' and 'consonance' means 'agreement’. So, these are
opposites.
Q87. We were surprised by the hostile attitude of the villagers.
(a) gentle
(b) friendly
(c) self
(d) forgiving
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Hostile' and 'friendly' are antonyms.
Q88. His style was smooth, but there was no mistaking his determination.
(a) hard
(b) dense
(c) harsh
(d) rough
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Smooth' and 'rough' are the antonyms to each other.
Q89. Unlike the other candidates, his manner was entirely languid.
(a) energetic
(b) lazy
(c) liquid
(d) slow
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Languid' means 'Lazy' and thus 'energetic' is its opposite.
Q90. People who are actually running the system often take a myopic view of the situation.
(a) farsightedness
(b) visionary
(c) blind
(d) glassy
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Myopic' is 'near sightedness'. So, 'farsightedness' is its antonym.
Q91. He is a very timid person.
(a) chivalrous
(b) bold
(c) outgoing
(d) dashing
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Timid' means 'coward'. Hence, the antonym is 'bold'.

Q92. Genuine drugs are available in most of the medical shops.

(a) spurious
(b) dubious
(c) wrong
(d) harmful
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Genuine' means 'real'. So, antonym will be 'spurious' i.e. 'fake'.
Q93. That was a dauntless action.
(a) cowardly
(b) secret
(c) subtle
(d) devious
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Dauntless' means 'brave'. So, its antonym will be 'cowardly'.
Q94. The momentum of the movement slackened in course of time.
(a) stopped
(b) quickened
(c) multiplied
(d) recovered
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation: 'Slackened' means · 'slow'. Hence, 'quickened' is its antonym.
Q95. He is a man of mellow temper.
(a) fickle
(b) hot
(c) irrational
(d) excitable
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation: 'Mellow' means 'soft'. Hence; its antonym will be 'excitable'.
Q96. They have not been eating nourishing food.
(a) unhygienic
(b) undercooked
(c) poor
(d) heavy
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Nourishing' means 'healthy and nutritious'. So, 'unhygienic' will be its antonym.
Q97. His was a delicate constitution.
(a) fit
(b) strong
(c) rugged
(d) ungainly
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Delicate' means 'tender'. So, antonym will be 'rugged' which means strong'.
Q98. Let us not aggravate the sufferings of the, poor.
(a) advocate
(b) appreciate
(c) alleviate
(d) abbreviate
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: 'Aggravate' means 'to worsen the situation'. So, its antonym will be 'alleviate' which
means 'to take out of the sufferings'.
Q99. Misogynists are not applauded in society.
(a) Philanthropists
(b) Philogists

(c) Philogynists
(d) Philanderers
Answer: Option (c)

Explanation: 'Misogynists' means 'one who hates women'. Hence its antonym will be 'philogynists'
which means 'lover of women folks'.
Q100. Her vivacity attracted everybody.
(a) lethargy
(b) truthfulness
(c) beauty
(d) apathy
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: 'Vivacity' means 'energetic'. So, 'lethargy' will be its antonym that has the meaning
'dull' or 'lazy'.

ACET ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION
1. One who does not believe in the existence of God – Atheist
2. The life-history of someone written by himself – Autobiography
3. One who plays not to earn money but for pleasure – Amateur
4. Without name or identification – Anonymous
5. A place where birds are kept – Aviary
6. One who believes in destruction of all forms of government – Anarchist
7. One who is appointed to settle disputes between two parties – Arbitrator
8. A medicine which makes the effect of poison zero – Antidote
9. One who is unable to pay one's debt – Bankrupt, Insolvent
10. One whose religious view is very narrow – Bigot
11. An object which breaks easily – Brittle
12. One who eats human beings' flesh – Cannibal
13. Composed of things from all parts of the world – Cosmopolitan
14. Someone or something existing at the same period as another – Contemporary
15. One who believes very easily – Credulous
16. A place for burying the dead – Cemetery
17. Eating flesh or meat – Carnivorous
18. Someone leaving one's country to settle in another – Emigrant
19. A disease spreading over a large area – Epidemic
20. Speech without prior preparation – Extempore
21. Producing the desired result – Efficacious
22. Suitable for selection – Eligible
23. One who spends without care and excessively – Extravagant

24. One who believes in fate – Fatalist

25. Very choosy and hard to please – Fastidious
26. Killing of one's own brother – Fratricide
27. An office or post without pay – Honorary
28. Killing of man – Homicide
29. Done or given without charge or fee – Gratis
30. Something that cannot be read – Illegible
31. Someone that cannot be defeated – Invincible
32. A place that cannot be reached – Inaccessible
33. That which cannot be explained – Inexplicable
34. That which cannot be corrected – Incorrigible
35. That which cannot be done without, absolutely necessary – Indispensable
36. That which cannot be erased – Indelible
37. That which cannot be avoided – Inevitable
38. That which cannot be understood or realised easily – Inscrutable
39. That which cannot be changed or ended – Irrevocable
40. Not to the point – Irrelevant
41. That which never fails or faults – Infallible
42. One who wastes his time without any job – Idler
43. Killing of one's own mother – Matricide
44. One who dies for one's country or for others – Martyr
45. Marrying with one person – Monogamy
46. Hater of mankind – Misanthrope
47. An attitude measuring everything in terms of money or profit – Materialistic
48. One who can be hired to do any illegal act – Mercenary
49. A drug causing sleep or intoxication – Narcotic

50. No longer in use – Obsolete

51. One who speaks skilfully – Orator
52. All powerful – Omnipotent
53. Present everywhere – Omnipresent
54. Knowing everything – Omniscient
55. Marrying with more than one – Polygamy
56. One who knows many languages – Polyglot
57. A single cure for all diseases – Panacea
58. Happening after one's death – Posthumous
59. One who uses others to survive – Parasite
60. Killing of one's own father – Patricide
61. A person doing good acts for mankind – Philanthropist
62. One who lives alone and avoids people – Recluse
63. Habitually reserved and silent – Reticent
64. Murder of king – Regicide
65. One who walks in sleep -Somnambulist
66. One who talks in sleep – Somniloquist
67. A post or office high in reputation and pay but no work – Sinecure
68. Talking to oneself – Soliloquy
69. One who is made to suffer for another – Scapegoat
70. With the opinion or agreement of all – Unanimous
71. Very clear in meaning – Unambiguous
72. That which cannot be predicted before – Unforeseen
73. Using too many words in writing or speaking – Verbose
74. A person who has had long experience in a particular field – Veteran
75. Examination of one's thoughts or experience – Introspection

76. Killing (out of mercy) someone suffering from incurable disease – Euthanasia
77. Written in a document after it has been signed – Postscript
78. Religious song – Hymn
79. The policy of extending a country’s empire – Imperialism
80. Blood relationship – Consanguinity
81. Opposed to great or sudden change – Conservative
82. Using someone else's ideas as own – Plagiarism
83. Someone not sure about God's existence – Agnostic
84. One who leaves a religion or faith – Apostate
85. One who has who taste for literature, art or music – Philistine
86. Deriving pleasure by inflicting pain on others – Sadism
87. One having excessive enthusiasm for a cause – Fanatic
88. An insult to God – Blasphemy
89. One who loves books – Bibliophile
90. One who is indifferent to pleasure or pain – Stoic
91. One who poses himself as someone he is not – Imposter
92. Code of diplomatic etiquette – Protocol
93. A word for word copy – Verbatim
94. That which cannot be understood – Unintelligible
95. A story intended to reveal a moral or spiritual truth – Parable
96. One who travels from place to place – Itinerant
97. One who uses both his hands with equal skill – Ambidextrous
98. A short journey for fun – Excursion
99. One who doubts every good thing – Cynic
100. Giving undue favours to one's relatives – Nepotism
101. Not allowing the light to pass through – Opaque

102. An official sent on a diplomatic mission – Emissary

103. One who abstains completely from alcoholic drinks – Teetotaller
104. One who loves to entertain one's guests – Hospitable
105. A general pardon for political convicts – Amnesty
106. Study of celestial bodies – Astronomy
107. Study of collection of coins, tokens, paper money etc. – Numismatics
108. Study of earth and rocks – Geology
109. Study of election trends – Psephology
110. Study of flying aeroplanes – Aviation
111. Study of religion – Theology
112. Study of science of insects – Entomology
113. Study of sound and sound waves – Acoustics
114. Study of the influence of planets and stars on human events – Astrology
115. One who knows a lot about good food and wine – Connoisseur
116. One who is beyond reform – Incorrigible
117. Well known for bad qualities – Notorious
118. Perfectly, highly skilled reached the zenith of art – Consummate
119. One with unlimited power – Autocrat
120. One who walks on ropes – Funambulist
121. An expert in writing by hand – Chirographer
122. Study of the law of the flow of water and other liquids – Hydraulics
123. Study of the relation between the organism and their environment – Ecology
124. Study of various aspects of aging – Gerontology
125. Printing using a stone or a metal plate with a completely smooth surface – Lithography

In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for
the given words/sentences.
Q1. To examine one's own thoughts and feelings

(a) Meditation
(b) Retrospection
(c) Reflection
(d) Introspection
Answer: Option (d)
Q2. Custom of having many wives
(a) Monogamy
(b) Bigamy
(c) Polygamy
(d) Matrimony
Answer: Option (c)
Q3. To cause troops to spread out in readiness for battle
(a) Align
(b) Collocate
(c) Deploy
(d) Disperse
Answer: Option (c)
Q4. Anything written in a letter after it is signed
(a) Posterity
(b) Post diction
(c) Postscript
(d) Corrigendum
Answer: Option (c)

Q5. The policy of extending a country's empire and influence
(a) Imperialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Internationalism
(d) Communism
Answer: Option (a)
Q6. The custom of having more than one husband at the same time
(a) Polygamy
(b) Polyandry
(c) Debauchery
(d) Bigamy
Answer: Option (b)
Q7. List of headings of the business to be transacted at a meeting
(a) Schedule
(b) Agenda
(c) Proceedings
(d) Excerpts
Answer: Option (b)
Q8. To send an unwanted person out of the country
(a) Exclude
(b) Ostracise
(c) Deport
(d) Expatriate.
Answer: Option (c)

Q9. A government run by dictator
(a) Democracy
(b) Autocracy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Theocracy
Answer: Option (b)
Q10. One who is determined to exact full vengeance for wrongs done to him
(a) Vindicator
(b) Usurer
(c) Vindictive
(d) Virulent
Answer: Option (c)
Q11. An office or post with no work but high pay
(a) Honorary
(b) Sinecure
(c) Gratis
(d) Ex-officio
Answer: Option (b)
Q12. Murder of a brother
(a) Patricide
(b) Regicide
(c) Homicide
(d) Fratricide
Answer: Option (d)

Q13. A person living permanently in a certain place
(a) Native
(b) Resident
(c) Domicile
(d) Subject
Answer: Option (c)
Q14. To slap with a flat object
(a) Hew
(b) Swat
(c) Chop
(d) Gnaw
Answer: Option (b)
Q15. Regard for others as a principle of action
(a) Cynicism
(b) Nepotism
(c) Philanthropy
(d) Altruism
Answer: Option (d)
Q16. Person who believes that God is everything and everything is God
(a) Agnostic
(b) Theist
(c) Pantheist
(d) Pantechnicon
Answer: Option (c)

Q17. Simplest and smallest form of plant life, present in air, water and soil; essential to life but may
cause disease
(a) Virus
(b) Amoeba
(c) Bacteria
(d) Toxin
Answer: Option (c)
Q18. Relationship by blood or birth
(a) Parentage
(b) Affiliation
(c) Consanguinity
(d) Nepotism
Answer: Option (c)
Q19. Opposed to great or sudden change
(a) Static
(b) Revolutionary
(c) Conservative
(d) Evolutionary
Answer: Option (c)
Q20. Walking in sleep
(a) Somniloquism
(b) Somnambulism
(c) Obsession
(d) Hallucination
Answer: Option (b)

Q21. Belief or opinion contrary to what is generally accepted
(a) Unbelief
(b) Superstition
(c) Non conformity
(d) Heresy
Answer: Option (d)
Q22. A person who kills somebody especially for political reason
(a) Criminal
(b) Murderer
(c) Assassin
(d) Hangman
Answer: Option (c)
Q23. A person who rules without consulting the opinion of others
(a) Democrat
(b) Bureaucrat
(c) Autocrat
(d) Fanatic
Answer: Option (c)
Q24. Study of mankind
(a) Pathology
(b) Physiology
(c) Philology
(d) Anthropology
Answer: Option (d)

Q25. Through which light cannot pass
(a) Dull
(b) Dark
(c) Obscure
(d) Opaque
Answer: Option (d)
Q26. Stealing from the writings of others
(a) Copying
(b) Reframing
(c) Reproducing
(d) Plagiarism
Answer: Option (d)
Q27. A short stay at a place
(a) Halt
(b) Interlude
(c) Intermission
(d) Sojourn
Answer: Option (d)
Q28. Constant effort to achieve something
(a) Perseverance
(b) Attempt
(c) Enthusiasm
(d) Vigour
Answer: Option (a)

Q29. A person not sure of the existence of God
(a) Theist
(b) Atheist
(c) Agnostic
(d) Cynic
Answer: Option (c)
Q30. Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass or stones
(a) Oleograph
(b) Mosaic
(c) Tracery
(d) Relief
Answer: Option (b)
Q31. One who deserts his religion
(a) Deserter
(b) Turn-coat
(c) Fanatic
(d) Apostate
Answer: Option (d)
Q32. One who uses fear as a weapon of power
(a) Terrorist
(b) Militant
(c) Extremist
(d) Anarchist
Answer: Option (a)

ACET ANALOGIES ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
ANALOGIES
1. Raj has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood. It
takes Raj 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Raj is sick or has other plans, his friend Shrey, who
lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him.
A. Raj and Shrey live in the same neighborhood.
B. It takes Shrey more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers.
C. It is dark outside when Raj begins his deliveries.
D. Shrey would like to have his own paper route.
Answer: Option A
The fact that Raj and Shrey live on the same street indicates that they live in the same neighborhood.
There is no support for any of the other choices.
2. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific yew has a fleshy,
poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of the Pacific yew, was discovered to be
a promising new anticancer drug.
A. Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people.
B. Taxol has cured people from various diseases.
C. People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew.
D. The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.
Answer: Option C
Given the information presented, the only statement that could be considered true is that the fruit should
not be eaten because it is poisonous. There is no support that taxol is poisonous or that taxol has cured
anyone (choices a and b). There is no support for choice d.
3. Lucy is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a dog. Her parents have
told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an apartment, but they have given her permis-
sion to have a bird. Lucy has not yet decided what kind of bird she would like to have.
A. Erin's parents like birds better than they like dogs.
B. Lucy does not like birds.
C. Lucy and her parents live in an apartment.

D. Lucy and her parents would like to move.

Answer: Option C
Since Lucy's parents think a dog would not be happy in an apartment, we can reasonably conclude that
the family lives in an apartment. We do not know if Lucy's parents dislike dogs (choice a) or if Lucy dis-
likes birds (choice b). There is no support for choice d.
4. Tom's commute never bothered him because there were always seats available on the train and he
was able to spend his 40 minutes comfortably reading the newspaper or catching up on paperwork.
Ever since the train schedule changed, the train has been extremely crowded, and by the tome the
doors open at his station, there isn't a seat to be found.
A. Tom would be better off taking the bus to work.
B. Tom's commute is less comfortable since the train schedule changed.
C. Many commuters will complain about the new train schedule.
D. Tom will likely look for a new job closer to home.
Answer: Option B
The passage tells us that Tom's commute didn't bother him because he was always able to sit down and
comfortably read or do paperwork. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that Tom's commute has be-
come less comfortable since the schedule change, because it is very crowded and he can no longer find a
seat. There is no information given that supports choices a, c, and d.
5. When they heard news of the hurricane, Ben and Rue decided to change their vacation plans. Instead
of traveling to the island beach resort, they booked a room at a fancy new spa in the mountains. Their
plans were a bit more expensive, but they'd heard wonderful things about the spa and they were re-
lieved to find availability on such short notice.
A. Ben and Rue take beach vacations every year.
B. The spa is overpriced.
C. It is usually necessary to book at least six months in advance at the spa.
D. Ben and Rue decided to change their vacation plans because of the hurricane.
Answer: Option D
The first sentence makes this statement true. There is no support for choice a. The passage tells us that
the spa vacation is more expensive than the island beach resort vacation, but that doesn't necessarily
mean that the spa is overpriced; therefore, choice b cannot be supported. And even though the paragraph
says that the couple was relieved to find a room on short notice, there is no information to support choice
c, which says that it is usually necessary to book at the spa at least six months in advance.

6. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to

A. speed
B. hiking
C. needle
D. direction
Answer: Option D
An odometer is an instrument used to measure mileage. A compass is an instrument used to determine
direction. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect because none is an instrument.
7. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
A. winter
B. bear
C. dream
D. sleep
Answer: Option D
A marathon is a long race and hibernation is a lengthy period of sleep. The answer is not choice a or b
because even though a bear and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the analogy.
(Choice c) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not synonymous.
8. Window is to pane as book is to
A. novel
B. glass
C. cover
D. page
Answer: Option D
A window is made up of panes, and a book is made up of pages. The answer is not (choice a) because a
novel is a type of book. The answer is not (choice b) because glass has no relationship to a book. (Choice
c) is incorrect because a cover is only one part of a book; a book is not made up of covers.
9. Yard is to inch as quart is to
A. gallon
B. ounce
C. milk
D. liquid
Answer: Option B
A yard is a larger measure than an inch (a yard contains 36 inches). A quart is a larger measure than an
ounce (a quart contains 32 ounces). Gallon (choice a) is incorrect because it is larger than a quart.
Choices c and d are incorrect because they are not units of measurement.
Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the original pair
of words.
10. MONK : DEVOTION

A. maniac: pacifism
B. explorer : contentment
C. visionary: complacency
D. rover: wanderlust
E. philistine: culture
Answer: Option D
Devotion is characteristic of a monk; wanderlust is characteristic of a rover.
11. SLAPSTICK: LAUGHTER
A. fallacy: dismay
B. genre: mystery
C. satire: anger
D. mimicry: tears
E. horror: fear
Answer: Option E
Slapstick results in laughter; horror results in fear.
12. VERVE: ENTHUSIASM
A. loyalty: duplicity

B. devotion: reverence
C. intensity: color
D. eminence: anonymity
E. generosity: elation
Answer: Option B
Verve and enthusiasm are synonyms; devotion and reverence are synonyms.
13. SPY: CLANDESTINE
A. accountant: meticulous
B. furrier: rambunctious
C. lawyer: ironic
D. shepherd: garrulous
E. astronaut: opulent
Answer: Option A
A spy acts in a clandestine manner; an accountant acts in a meticulous manner.
14. COBBLER: SHOE
A. jockey: horse
B. contractor: building
C. mason: stone
D. cowboy: boot
E. potter: paint
Answer: Option B
A cobbler makes and repairs shoes; a contractor builds and repairs buildings.
The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. For each

item, find the word that completes the bottom row of words.
15.
candle lamp floodlight
hut cottage ?
A. tent
B. city
C. dwelling
D. house
Answer: Option D
Above the line, the relationship shows a progression of sources of light. The relationship below the line
shows a progression of types of housing, from smallest to largest. (Choice a) is incorrect because a tent is
smaller than a house. Choices b and c are wrong because they are not part of the progression.
16.
daisy flower plant
bungalow house ?
A. building
B. cottage
C. apartment
D. city
Answer: Option A
Above the line, the relationship is as follows: A daisy is a type of flower, and a flower is a type of plant. Be-
low the line, the relationship is as follows: A bungalow is a type of house, and a house is a type of building.
17.
palette easel brush
textbook Lessonplan ?
A. artist
B. teacher

C. report card
D. paint
Answer: Option C
The objects above the line are all things used by an artist. The objects below the line are all things used
by a teacher.
18.
rule command dictate
doze sleep ?
A. snore
B. govern
C. awaken
D. hibernate
Answer: Option D
The words above the line show a continuum: Command is more extreme than rule, and dictate is more
extreme than command. Below the line, the continuum is as follows: Sleep is more than doze, and hiber-
nate is more than sleep. The other choices are not related in the same way.
19.
apples fruit supermarket
novel book ?
A. bookstore
B. magazine
C. vegetable
D. shopping
Answer: Option A
The relationship above the line is as follows; apples are a kind of fruit; fruit is sold in a supermarket. Be-
low the line, the relationship is: a novel is a kind of book; books are sold in a bookstore.

ACET IDIOMS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
IDIOMS
Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct
meaning of proverb/idiom. In case there is no appropriate meaning given, select E ('None of
these') as the answer.
1. To make a clean breast of
A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To confess without of reserve
D. To destroy before it blooms
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
2. To keep one's temper
A. To become angry
B. To be in a good mood
C. To preserve one's energy
D. To be aloof from
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
3. To catch a tartar
A. To trap a wanted criminal
B. To catch a dangerous person

C. To meet a with disaster
D. To deal with a person who is more than one's match
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
4. To drive home
A. To find one's roots
B. To return to a place of rest
C. Back to one's original position
D. To emphasise
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
5. To have an axe to grind
A. A private end to serve
B. To fail to arouse interest
C. To have no result
D. To work for both sides
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
6. To cry wolf
A. To listen eagerly
B. To give a false alarm
C. To turn pale
D. To keep off starvation
E. None of these
Answer: Option B

7. To end in smoke
A. To make one understand
B. To ruin oneself
C. To excite great applause
D. To overcome someone
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
8. To be above board
A. To have a good height
B. To be honest in any business deal
C. To have no debts
D. To attempt to be beautiful
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
9. To put one's hand to plough
A. To take up agricultural work or farming
B. To undertake a difficult task
C. To get entangled into unnecessary disputes
D. To take interest in any technical work
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
10. To pick holes
A. To find some reason to quarrel
B. To destroy something

C. To criticise someone
D. To cut some part of an item
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
11. To leave someone in the lurch
A. To come to compromise with someone
B. To be a constant source of annoyance to someone
C. To put someone at ease
D. To desert someone in one's difficulties
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
12. To play second fiddle
A. To be happy, cheerful and healthy
B. To reduce the importance of one's senior
C. To support the role and views of another person
D. To assist someone in driving a vehicle
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
13. To beg the question
A. To refer to an event
B. To invite an obvious query or question
C. To raise an objection to an argument
D. To be discussed further
E. None of these
Answer: Option B

14. A black sheep
A. An unlucky person
B. A lucky person
C. An ugly person
D. A partner who takes no share of the profits
E. None of these
Answer: Option E
15. A man of straw
A. A man of no substance
B. A very active person
C. A worthy fellow
D. An unreasonable person
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
16. To smell a rat
A. To observe signs of a plague epidemic
B. To sense odour of a dead rat
C. To suspect foul dealings
D. To be in a bad mood
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
17. To hit the nail right on the head
A. To do the right thing
B. To destroy one's reputation

C. To elaborate one's views
D. To teach someone a lesson
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
18. To set one's face against
A. To oppose with determination
B. To judge by appearances
C. To get out of a difficult situation
D. To look at a person steadily
E. None of these
Answer: Option A

ACET SPOTTING ERRORS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions to Solve
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q1. (solve as per the direction given above)

A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: We discussed the problem so thoroughly
A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: sank in the Pacific Ocean
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'I could not put up at a hotel'


A. The Indian radio
B. which was previously controlled by the British rulers
C. is free now from the narrow vested interests.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: is now free from the narrow vested interests.
A. If I had known
B. this yesterday
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: I would have helped him
A. A lot of travel delay is caused
B. due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
C. on behalf of the railways.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: on the part of the railways
A. One of the members
B. expressed doubt if
C. the Minister was an atheist.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: expressed doubt that

A. I have got
B. my M.Sc. degree
C. in 1988.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: I got
A. Having received your letter
B. this morning, we are writing
C. to thank you for the same.
D. No error.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
A. If you lend him a book
B. he will lend it to some one else
C. and never you will get it back.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: and you will never get it back
A. According to the Bible
B. it is meek and humble
C. who shall inherit the earth.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: it is the meek and the humble

A. Do the roses in your garden smell
B. more sweetly
C. than those in ours?
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: sweeter
A. Block of Residential flats
B. are coming up
C. near our house.
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Blocks of Residential flats
A. You can get
B. all the information that you want
C. in this book.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: all the information you want
A. The students were
B. awaiting for
C. the arrival of the chief guest.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: awaiting

A. Sixty miles
B. are
C. a good distance.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Sixty miles is a good distance.
A. They have been
B. very close friends
C. until they quarrelled.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'They had been'
A. When the dentist came in
B. my tooth was stopped aching
C. out of fear that I might lose my tooth.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: my tooth stopped aching
A. It is the duty of every citizen to do his utmost
B. to defend the hardly-won
C. freedom of the country.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to defend the hard-won

A. No sooner did I open the door
B. when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in
C. making us shiver from head to foot
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: than the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in
A. If a man diligently seeks to come into the contact
B. with the best that has been thought and said in this world
C. he will become simple and unselfish.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: If a man diligently seeks to come into contact
A. You must
B. remember me
C. to post this letter.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: remind me
A. I shall certainly
B. write you
C. when I shall reach New Delhi.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: when I reach New Delhi

A. On the busy Ring Road
B. we witnessed a collusion
C. between a truck and an auto.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: we witnessed a collision
A. Mr.Praful Patel
B. is not attending his office
C. for the last one month.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: has not been attending his office
A. He couldn't but help
B. shedding tears at the plight of the villagers
C. rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: He couldn't help
A. He will certainly help you
B. if you will ask him
C. in a pleasant manner.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: if you ask him
A. The brand propositon now therefore had to be that Keokarpin Antiseptic Cream is more effec-
tive
B. because it penetrates deepdown (beinglight and non-sticky) and works from within
C. (because of its ayurvedic ingredients) to keep skin blemish, free and helps cope with cuts
nicks, burns and nappy rash.
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The brand proposition now therefore is
A. Will you please buy
B. some jaggery for me
C. if you go to the market?
D. No error.
Answer: Option D
A. Most of the members at the meeting felt
B. that the group appointed for investigating the case
C. were not competent to do the job efficiently.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: was not competent to do the job efficiently
A. In these days of inflation
B. a ten rupee's note will not buy you

C. even an ordinary meal.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: a ten rupee note will not buy you
A. He persisted
B. to do it
C. in spite of my advice
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: in doing it
A. The long-awaited moment at last came,
B. and we set out for the station
C. as merry a band of children as I have ever seen before or since.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: as merry a band of children as I have ever seen since or before
A. Our conception of
B. what should a science of mental life be
C. has changed considerably since James' time.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: what a science of mental life should be
A. He is not coming tomorrow
B. as he is having a pain in the chest
C. and has to see a doctor.

D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: 'and he has to see a doctor'
A. Many times the news has been published
B. in the papers that the end of the world will be certain
C. if a nuclear war breaks out.
D. No error.
Answer: Option D
A. The reason Ram
B. is absent from his duty
C. is because he is unwell.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The reason why Ram
A. Azharuddin is one of the finest batsmen
B. that India have produced
C. over the decades.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: that India has produced
A. The thief broke in the
B. house at the
C. dead of night
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The thief broke into the
A. May I
B. know who you want
C. to see please
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: know whom you want
A. You cannot withdraw
B. all your money until
C. you give a prior notice
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'unless’ for ‘until’ to state a condition.
A. You should behave with others
B. the same way which you
C. expect them to behave with you.
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'as' in place of 'which'.
A. Either he nor his brother
B. was informed about the venue
C. of the meeting of our society

D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Neither he nor his.
A. He not only believes
B. in hard work but also
C. in honesty of the highest order
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Say 'he believes not only'.
A. No sooner did she
B. reach the station
C. then it started raining
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Use 'than' for 'then'.
A. The captain and his wife
B. were invited for the
C. cultural function at my home
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'to' in place of 'for'.
A. Lightweight and easy to handle
B. automatic scooters have been a
C. godsend for women commuters

D. No error (d)
Answer: Option D
Explanation: No error.
A. Let no one
B. remain with doubt that
C. India is getting stronger and stronger
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'in' for 'with'.
A. When the students reached late
B. the teacher objected their entering the class
C. without his permission
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Insert 'to' after 'objected'.
A. Sheela advised to her
B. child not to play
C. with the ball on the road
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Remove 'to'.
A. The expert mason reported
B. to the owner of the hotel that
C. there was no question of the wall's falling down.

D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Say ' the falling down of the wall'.
A. "This blade's edge is sharper
B. ''than any other blades's,"
C. said the representative of the company
D. No error
Answer: Option D
A. Your son's-in law's friend is seriously ill and
B. he wants you
C. to see him as soon as possible
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation:Say 'son-in-law's'.
A. You know it well that your success in life
B. depends not on my advice
C. but on somebody's else
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Say ‘somebody else's'.
A. He suggested me
B. that I should go to nursery
C. to bring some beautiful summer's flowers

D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Say 'summer flowers'.
A. No sooner we entered
B. than he got up
C. and left the room
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Insert 'had' after 'sooner'.
A. He ultimately decided
B. to willingly and cheerfully accept
C. the responsibilityentrusted to him
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Place 'accept' before 'willingly'.
A. The gang members has confessed that
B. they had been obtaining bank account details
C. of their victims from a source based in Kenya.
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: For plural subject "gang members" use plural verb “have" in place of "has".
A. Mahesh thought that he would pass
B. in the examination although he did not
C. answer most of the questions correct

D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Say 'correctly'.
A. Kunal’s father advised him
B. not to ride the motorcycle
C. lately at night
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Use 'late' for 'lately'.
A. Looking into the situation
B. that prevailed a few years ago
C. he was taken that decision
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Use 'took' for 'was taken'.
A. If you had not come in time
B. the child would have taken
C. by the dacoits
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'have been' in place of 'have'.
A. I knew our college library was run chaotically
B. but only recently did I discover
C. how bad the situation is

D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Say 'the situation was'.
A. They talked for a while
B. and then they will continue to play
C. the game till tomorrow morning
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Use 'will talk' for 'talked'.
A. We got everything ready
B. for all of them
C. long before they arrived
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Say 'we had got'.
A. He looks more depressed
B. than her but I don't
C. know the reason
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'she' for 'her'.
A. The person which was
B. recommended for the position
C. did not fulfil the prescribed qualifications

D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Use 'who' in place of 'which'.
A. Weather officials told that there is
B. likely to be wide spreading rainfall all over the
C. region over the next few weeks
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Say “said" in place of ''told" as the object is unexpressed.
A. If all of you quarrel
B. among yourself we shall not
C. be able to solve your problems
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'yourselves' in place of 'yourself.
A. They have invited Ramesh and I
B. to the function
C. to be held in the next month
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation:Say ' Ramesh and me'.
A. We should drink several glasses
B. of the water daily
C. if we want to remain healthy

D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Remove 'the'.
A. Children who have had
B. good Pre-School Education are most likely
C. to out do other children at school
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Insert 'a' before 'good’.
A. On my request Jatin
B. introduced me to his friend
C. who is singer and scientist
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Insert 'a' before 'singer'.
A. The burglars were caught just as
B. they were about to
C. escape from the jail
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Remove 'the'.
A. The teacher drew
B. and attention of the boys
C. to the importance of regular practice

D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Say 'the attention'.
A. The committee has asked for more information
B. and will again consider the entries on
C. the next meeting
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use "in" instead of “on”.
A. The monsoon showers and the fell in temperature
B. have brought a smile
C. on many faces
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: "Fell" is to be replaced by "fall".
A. ''I have never seen
B. such a lovely spectacles in my life,"
C. said the passer by.
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Say 'spectacle'.
A. When you see his off springs
B. you can't
C. believe that be is above seventy

D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Use 'offspring' for 'offsprings'.
A. An earthquake
B. is a natural phenomena
C. and nobody can check it, be sure
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Say 'a natural phenomenon'.
A. The Secretary of the worker's union remarked that
B. the present government is so selfish that
C. it cared very little about solving anyone else's problem
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use ‘was' in place of 'is’.
A. Please explain to me
B. how is a digital computer different
C. from an analogue computer
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Place 'is' after'computer'.
A. School children in the city were in
B. for a surprise as they were treated to a feast
C. of some children's films being screened in the local theatres

D. No error
Answer: Option D
A. The Secretary and Treasurer
B. were not present
C. at today's meeting
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use ‘was' in place of 'were'.
A. There is no field of
B. human endeavour that has been so
C. misunderstood as health
D. No error
Answer: Option D
A. My book is superior
B. than yours although it has
C. cost me much less
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Use 'to' for 'than'.
A. When Charles was in hospital
B. his sister sent
C. much fruit than his uncle

D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Use 'more’ in place of 'much'.
A. Dilip's performance in the film
B. was worst than Amit's
C. but was not as bad as Vinod's
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Say 'was worse'.
A. The teacher said that
B. Ajay was capable of
C. doing more better work
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Remove 'more'.
A. Even Shushruta has warned
B. that this provided the medical
C. Practitioner Power over the patient which could be misused
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Say "provides" instead of "Provided".
A. He discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the programme
C. that we found it very easy to work it out

D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Remove "about" after "discussed".
A. An Iranian ship
B. Laden with huge merchandise
C. got drowned in the Ocean
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Use "sank" instead of "drowned".
A. Rakhi could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Correct phrase is "put up at a hotel".
A. The Indian radio
B. which was previously controlled by the British rulers
C. is free now from the narrow vested interests
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Write "is now free from".
A. If she had known
B. this yesterday
C. she will helped him

D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Write "would have" for "will".
A. A lot of delay in travelling is caused
B. Due to the inefficiency and lack of proper management
C. On behalf of the railways
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Write “on the part of the railways".
A. One of the members
B. Expressed doubt if
C. The player was an atheist
D. No error
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Remove “expressed" before "doubt" and write "doubted".
A. You have got
B. Your M.Sc. degree
C. in 1988
D. No error
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Remove "have" when the time isspecified.
A. Having received her letter
B. This morning, I am writing
C. To thank her forthe same

D. No error
Answer: Option D
A. If I lend him a pen
B. He will lend it to someone else
C. And never I will get it back
D. No error
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Use "never" after "will".

ACET ACTIVE AND PASSIVE ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
ACTIVE AND PASSIVE

In the questions below the sentences have been given in Active/Passive
voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the
given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
1. After driving Professor Shreya to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.
A. After being driven to the museum, Professor Shreya was dropped at his hotel.
B. Professor Shreya was being driven dropped at his hotel.
C. After she had driven Professor Shreya to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
D. After she was driven Professor Shreya to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
Answer: Option A
2. I remember my sister taking me to the museum.
A. I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister.
B. I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
C. I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.
D. I remember taken to the museum by my sister.
Answer: Option B
3. Who is creating this mess?
A. Who has been created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
C. By whom this mess is being created?
D. By whom is this mess being created?
Answer: Option D
4. They greet me cheerfully every morning.
A. Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.

B. I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.

C. I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
D. Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me.
Answer: Option B
5. Darjeeling grows tea.
A. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
B. Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
C. Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
D. Tea grows in Darjeeling.
Answer: Option C
6. They have built a perfect dam across the river.
A. Across the river a perfect dam was built.
B. A perfect dam has been built by them across the river.
C. A perfect dam should have been built by them.
D. Across the river was a perfect dam.
Answer: Option B
7. Do you imitate others?
A. Are others being imitated by you?
B. Are others imitated by you?
C. Have others being imitated by you?
D. Were others being imitated by you?
Answer: Option B
8. You need to clean your shoes properly.
A. Your shoes are needed to clean properly.
B. You are needed to clean your shoes properly.
C. Your shoes need to be cleaned properly.

D. Your shoes are needed by you to clean properly.

Answer: Option C
9. He is said to be very rich.
A. He said he is very rich.
B. People say he is very rich.
C. He said it is very rich.
D. People say it is very rich.
Answer: Option B
10. The invigilator was reading out the instructions.
A. The instructions were read by the invigilator.
B. The instructions were being read out by the invigilator.
C. The instructions had been read out by the invigilator.
D. The instructions had been read by the invigilator.
Answer: Option B

ACET SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives
to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no im-
provement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.
Q1. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on getting
B. hell bent for getting

C. hell bent upon getting
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Q2. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the protes-
tant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q3. If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.
A. If the room was brighter

B. If the room are brighter
C. Had the room been brighter
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C

Q4. The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge. then Vice-
roy of India, shot a tiger than measured 11 feet and 6 inches.
A. improved
B. broken
C. bettered
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q5. His powerful desire brought about his downfall.

A. His intense desire
B. His desire for power
C. His fatal desire
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q6. Will you kindly open the knot?

A. untie
B. break
C. loose
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Q7. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?

A. lend me any rupees
B. borrow me a few rupees
C. lend me a few rupees
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C

Q8. During his long discourse, he did not touch that point.
A. touch upon
B. touch on
C. touch of
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q9. He found a wooden broken chair in the room.

A. wooden and broken chair
B. broken wooden chair
C. broken and wooden chair
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q10. I took the cycle which he bought yesterday.

A. that he bought yesterday
B. that which he had bought yesterday
C. that he had bought yesterday
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Q11. If you are living near a marketplace you should be ready to bear the disturbances caused by traffic.
A. to bear upon
B. to bear with
C. to bear away
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q12. 20 kms are not a great distance in these days of fast moving vehicles.
A. is not a great distance
B. is no distance

C. aren't a great distance

D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Q13. The more they earn, more they spend.

A. More they earn, more they spend
B. More they earn, the more they spend
C. The more they earn, the more they spend
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Q14. It became clear that the strangers were headinginto a serious disaster.
A. along
B. towards
C. for
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q15. I would have waited for you at the station if I knew that you would come.
A. had known
B. was knowing
C. have known
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Q16. My opinion for the film is that it will bag the national ward.
A. opinion to
B. opinion about
C. opinion on
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q17. Whenever my students come across new words, I ask them to look for them in the dictionary.
A. to look it up
B. to look them up
C. to look at them
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q18. Realising is the significance of technical education for developing country, the government laid
aside a large sum on it during the last plan-period.
A. laid up
B. set aside
C. laid out
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Q19. No sooner he had returned home then his mother felt happy.
A. had he returned home when
B. he had returned home than
C. did he return home than
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Q20. Taxpayers are to be conscious of their privileges.

A. have to
B. need
C. ought to
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A

ACET SENTENCE REARRANGEMENT ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SENTENCE REARRANGEMENT
In each of the following sentences, a word or phrase is written in italicised letter. For Each italicised part
four words/phrases are listed below each sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the italicised
part.
Q1. The broker said that, a person/(P), should shop carefully/(Q) who buys ahouse/(R), for the lowest
interest rate/(S).
(a) PSRQ
(b) SRQP
(c) RQPS
(d) SPRQ
Answer: Option (d)
Q2. The only time, when this dynamic cricketer/(P), was on the 1979 tour of England/(Q), failed with
the bat/(R), the tag of an all-rounder did not fit him/(S).
(a) SQPR
(b) PRQS
(c) SRPQ
(d) PQSR
Answer: Option (a)
Q3. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/(P), after reading a sailing magazine/(Q), had decided/(R), to build his
own boat nine years earlier/(S).
(a) PRQS
(b) RSQP
(c) RQPS
(d) PSRQ
Answer: Option (b)

Q4. When, it becomes an honour of a life time/(P), in recognition of their greatperformance/(Q), illu-
strious personalities/(R) win an award/(S).
(a) RPQS
(b) PQRS
(c) QRSP
(d) RSQP
Answer: Option (d)
Q5. The inspector argued that no force was used, beyond that was necessary to put anend to the distur-
bances/(P), by the police/(Q), produced/(R), by the anti-socialelements/(S).
(a) QPRS
(b) SPRQ
(c) PSRQ
(d) QRPS
Answer: Option (a)
Q6. Though my father, he is deeply concerned/(P), about their needs/(Q), makes hischildren/(R), carry
out their duties promptly/(S).
(a) RSPQ
(b) PRQS
(c) RSQP
(d) PQRS
Answer: Option (a)
Q7. Making, had formed from the receding tide/(P), I noticed a man fishing in/(Q), onmy way to a fa-
vourite fishing spot/(R), a very small pool of water that/(S).
(a) SPQR
(b) RQSP
(c) SQRP
(d) RPSQ
Answer: Option (b)
Q8. Around the World, painful terminal diseases/(P), the question of humanedeath/(Q), people are
wrestling with/(R), especially in the face of/(S).
(a) RSQP
(b) PQRS
(c) RQSP
(d) PSQR
Answer: Option (c)
Q9. Like most people, all of their behaviour/(P), entrepreneurs are complex/(Q), canexplain/(R), and
no one theory/(S).
(a) QPRS
(b) RSQP
(c) QSRP
(d) RPQS
Answer: Option (c)
Q10. The unfortunate reality, as a result of this decline England is/(P), peripheralsport in England
and/(Q), cricket is today a/(R), peripheral to world cricket/(S).
(a) SQPR
(b) RPQS
(c) SPQR
(d) RQPS
Answer: Option (d)
Q11. The students know that, to control unruly students/(P), in the college administration/(Q), their new
principal/(R), has taken a number of strongmeasures/(S).
(a) RSPQ
(b) RSQP
(c) PQRS
(d) QRSP
Answer: Option (b)
Q12. The government has assured the people that, in the Kargil operation/(P), who have sacrificed their
lives/(Q) will be properly looked after/(R), the families of all thosesoldiers/(S)
(a) PSRQ
(b) SQRP
(c) SRQP
(d) SPRQ
Answer: Option (b)
Q13. The Portuguese, had a great talent/(P), as also for choosing the right place tobuild/(Q), for building
houses/(R), who arrived in Goa 400 years ago/(S).
(a) RPSQ
(b) SQPR
(c) RQSP
(d) SPRQ
Answer: Option (d)
Q14. In life, some rules are /(P), as in business /(Q), they seem almost instinctive /(R),learnt so early
that/(S)
(a) RSPQ
(b) QPSR
(c) RPSQ
(d) QSPR
Answer: Option (b)
Q15. For thousands of years, one of the most important fruits /(P), The strange fruit ofthis bush/(Q), of
the Mediterranean region/®, has been regarded as/(S).
(a) PQRS
(b) QSPR
(c) PSQR
(d) QRPS
Answer: Option (b)
Q16. Everyone knows that, it is difficult/(P), to speak more politely /(Q), to go to themanager/(R), and
tell him that he ought/(S).
(a) QSRP
(b) PRSQ
(c) QRSP
(d) PSRQ
Answer: Option (b)
Q17. The concept of death, that it has been reduced/(P), as an inevitability /(Q), is soancient/(R), to a
cliché/(S).
(a) SPRQ
(b) QRPS
(c) SRPQ
(d) QPRS
Answer: Option (b)
Q18. The specific, ability requirements of the job/(P), depend on the/(Q), required foradequate job per-
formance/(R), intellectual or physical abilities/(S).
(a) PQRS
(b) SRQP
(c) PRQS
(d) SQRP
Answer: Option (b)
Q19. If, no amount of experience could alter them/(P), they could be fixed at birthand/(Q), completely
dictated by heredity/(R), personality characteristics were/(S).
(a) QRSP
(b) SPQR
(c) QPSR
(d) SRQP
Answer: Option (d)
Q20. The great powers engaged, in spite of common knowledge/(P), in arming themselves to the
teeth/(Q), total destruction of the human race/(R), that anotherwar will mean/(S).
(a) QRSP
(b) SPQR
(c) QPSR
(d) SRQP
Answer: Option (c)
Q21. Right from, used as a measure of time and have /(P). pre-historic times the phases/(Q). formed the
basis of the earlier calendars /®, of the moon have been /(S).
(a) QRPS
(b) PSQR
(c) QSPR
(d) PRQS
Answer: Option (c)
Q22. Today, in the country/(P), offers the best connectivity, both /(Q), Kerala, amongall states/, in terms
of telecom and Datacom /(S).
(a) RPQS
(b) SQPR
(c) RQPS
(d) SPQR
Answer: Option (a)
Q23. Summer vacation, that their children learn something worthwhile/(P), who are able to provide ser-
vices for anxious parents/(Q), who want to make sure of/(R), ithas become a big business for
those/(S).
(a) PRQS
(b) SQRP
(c) RQPS
(d) SRQP
Answer: Option (b)

Q24. Each culture, flourishes when it comes/(P), own tradition and yet/(Q), drawsstrength from its /(R),
into contact with others/(S).
(a) RQPS
(b) SPQR
(c) RPQS
(d) SQPR
Answer: Option (a)
Q25. According to the standard big-bang theory, in a moment of infinitetemperature/(P), the universe
came into existence/(Q), some ten to fifteen billionyears ago/(R), and density/(S).
(a) PSRQ
(b) QPSR
(c) RPQS
(d) QSPR
Answer: Option (b)
Q26. S1:In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important
person in the room.
P: For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.
Q: On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee.
R: While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee.
S: As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.
S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.
The Proper sequence should be:
(a) RSQP
(b) PQRS
(c) SQPR
(d) QSRP
Answer: Option (d)
Q27. S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe.
P: Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is
considerable.
Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.
S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force
of attraction gravity.
(a) PRQS
(b) PRSQ
(c) QSRP
(d) QSPR
Answer: Option (d)
Q28. S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kept its trams.
P: As a result, there horrendous congestion.
Q: It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R: They run down the center of the road
S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.

S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.
(a) PRSQ
(b) PSQR
(c) SQRP
(d) RPSQ

Answer: Option (d)
Q29. S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.
P: The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves.
Q: A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.
R: The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.
S: The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with ani-
mals.
S6: The god molded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.

(a) PQRS
(b) PQSR
(c) QPSR
(d) QPRS
Answer: Option (d)
Q30. S1: Smoke oozed up between the planks.
P: Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.
Q: The rising gale fanned the smoldering fire.
R: Everyone now knew there was fire on board.

S: Flames broke out here and there.
S6: Most people bore the shock bravely.
(a) SRQP
(b) QPSR
(c) RSPQ
(d) QSRP
Answer: Option (a)

Q31. S1: When a satellite is launched, the rocket begins by going slowly upwards through the air.
P: However, the higher it goes, the less air it meets.
Q: As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster.
R: For the atmosphere becomes thinner.
S: As a result, there is less friction.
S6: Consequently, the rocket still does not become too hot.
(a) QPRS
(b) QSPR
(c) PQRS
(d) PQSR
Answer: Option (a)
Q32. S1: Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the north of Italy.
P: There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the island of Venice.
Q: In this city there are no motor cars, no horses, no buses.
R: These small islands are near one another.
S: It is not an island but a hundred and seventeen islands.
S6: This is because Venice has no streets.
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) SRPQ
(d) PQSR
Answer: Option (c)

Q33. S1: The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by the people of the area.
P: Some people spoke of seeing a huge, shadowy form a Hound at midnight on the moor.
Q: But they spoke of it in tones of horror.
R: Nobody had actually seen the hound.
S: This shadowy form did not reveal any details about the animal.
S6: The Hound of Baskervilles remains an unsolved mystery.
(a) SPQR
(b) SPRQ
(c) PSRQ
(d) PQRS
Answer: Option (c)
Q34. S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner time.
P: One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.
Q: One plate was for himself and other was for his cat.
R: she drooped a mouse into her own plate and another into her master plate.
S: He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.
S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.

(a) QSPR
(b) PSRQ
(c) QRSP
(d) RPQS
Answer: Option (a)

Q35. S1: Satyajit Ray made several films for children.
P: Later film makers have followed his lead.
Q: Today other nations are making the children's film in a big way.
R: This was at a time when no director considered children as potential audience.

S: Ray was, thus, a pioneer in the field.
S6: But today few think of Ray as a maker of children's films.
(a) PSRQ
(b) RSQP
(c) RSPQ
(d) SQRP
Answer: Option (c)
Q36. S1: Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants preserved in rocks dating back in millions of
years.
P: Records of the history of the world are contained in fossils.
Q: Through the ages, plants have evolved from simple to more complex forms.
R: First there were water plants then land plants appeared during the Paleozoic era.
S: But since the fossil remains appear locked in rock layers, they are closely related to the ge-
ologist area of investigation.
S6: The fossil plants indicate the age of the rock, and also point to facts regarding climate, tem-
perature and topography.
(a) RQSP
(b) SQRP
(c) PSQR
(d) QRPS
Answer: Option (d)
Q37. S1: And then Gandhi came.
P: Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us, all you who live by their exploi-
tation.
Q: He was like a powerful current of fresh air, like a beam of light, like a whirlwind that upset
many things.
R: He spoke their language and constantly drew their attention to their appalling conditions.
S: He didn't descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses of India.
S6: Political freedom took new shape and then acquired a new content.
(a) QSRP
(b) SRQP
(c) RSQP
(d) PRSQ
Answer: Option (b)
Q38. S1: The Bhagavadgita recognises the nature of man and the needs of man.
P: All these three aspects constitute the nature of man.
Q: It shows how the human being is rational one, an ethical one and a spiritual one.
R: More than all, it must be a spiritual experience.
S: Nothing can give him fulfilment unless it satisfies his reason, his ethical conscience.
S6: A man whom does not harmonise them, is not truly human.
(a) PSRQ
(b) RSPQ
(c) QPSR
(d) PSQR
Answer: Option (c)
Q39. S1: I usually sleep quite well in the train, but this time I slept only a little.
P: Most people wanted it shut and I wanted it open.
Q: As usual, I got angry about the window.

R: The quarrel left me completely upset.
S: There were too many people too much huge luggage all around.
S6: It was shut all night, as usual
(a) RSQP
(b) SQPR
(c) SQRP
(d) RSPQ
Answer: Option (b)

ACET COMPREHENSION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
COMPREHENSION
A. At this stage of civilization, many nations have close and vital contact with each other.
It is now essential that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished. They
should adapt to understand a bit of the historical experiences and resulting mentality
of each country. It will be the fault of the British to expect the people of other countries
to have similar reactions as them to political and international events. Our goodwill
and positive intentions often result in nothing because we expect other people to be
like us. This can be corrected by knowing about their history - not necessarily in detail
but in broad outlines and about the prevalent social and political conditions which has
given each nation its present character.
1. According to the author, 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly a product of its
A. history
B. international position
C. politics
D. present character
Answer: Option A
2. The need for greater understanding between nations
A. was always there
B. is no longer there
C. is more important today than ever before
D. will always be there
Answer: Option C

3. The character of a nation is the result of its
A. mentality
B. cultural heritage
C. gross ignorance
D. socio-political conditions
Answer: Option D
4. According to the author his countrymen should
A. read the story of other nations
B. have a better understanding of other nations
C. not react to other actions
D. have vital contacts with other nations
Answer: Option B
5. The British prefer others to react to political situations like
A. us
B. themselves
C. others
D. each other’s
Answer: Option B
B. We must look up to the progress in the human sciences, to undo the evils which have
resulted from the knowledge of the physical world. This knowledge has been acquired
hastily and superficially by a population who are unconscious of the imperative
changes that the new acquired knowledge has brought in. The path to a happier world,
than any path known in the past, lies open before us if atavistic destructive passions
can be kept on leash while the necessary adaptations are made. Fears are inevitable in
time, but hopes are equally rational and far more likely to bear good fruit. We must

learn to think less of the dangers to avoid. Rather we must focus on the good that will
be in our grasp if we believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts. Whatever unplea-
sant consequences that may have been brought about by science might have a way
more glorious achievement. No previous age has been fraught with problems so mo-
mentous; and it is to science that we must look up to for a happy future.
1. What does science liberate us from?
It is liberating us from
A. fears and destructive passions
B. slavery to physical nature and passions
C. bondage to physical nature
D. idealistic hopes of glorious future
Answer: Option B
2. Human sciences should be developed because they will
A. provide more knowledge of the physical word
B. make us conscious of the changing world
C. make us conscious of the change in ourselves
D. eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world
Answer: Option D
3. If man's bestial yearning is controlled
A. the future will be tolerable
B. the future will be brighter than the present
C. the present will be brighter than the future
D. the present will become tolerable
Answer: Option B

4. Fears and hopes according to the author

A. are closely linked with the life of modern man
B. can bear fruit
C. can yield good results
D. are irrational
Answer: Option A
5. To carve out a bright future man should
A. analyze dangers that lie ahead
B. try to avoid dangers
C. overcome fear and dangers
D. cultivate a positive outlook
Answer: Option D
C. The object underlying the rules of natural justice is to "prevent miscarriage of justice"
and secure "fair play in action". As pointed out earlier, the requirement of recording
the reasons for a decision of an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial func-
tions achieves this objective by excluding arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fair-
ness in decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principle of nat-
ural justice, which governs the exercise of power by administrative authorities, its rules
are not embodied. The extent of their application depends upon the particular statuto-
ry framework where the jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authori-
ty. With regard to the exercise of a particular power by an administrative authority,
including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial functions by the legislature, while con-
ferring the said power, the authority may feel that it would not be in the larger public
interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be rec-
orded and be communicated to the aggrieved party, and it may dispense of with such a
requirement.
1. "The rules of the natural justice are not embodying rules" means that these rules
A. are left deliberately vague
B. cannot be satisfactorily interpreted

C. are flexible
D. cannot be visualized
Answer: Option C
2. From the passage it is clear that it is the legislature that
A. invests the administrative authority with enormous powers
B. embodies rules
C. has the larger interests of public welfare
D. leaves administrative authority enough discretion to interpret rules
Answer: Option A
3. According to the passage, there is always a gap between
A. rules of natural justice and their application
B. conception of a rule and its concretization
C. demand for natural justice and its realization
D. intention and execution
Answer: Option A
4. "To dispense with a requirement" means
A. to do without the demand
B. to drop the charge
C. to cancel all formal procedure
D. to alter the provisions of the case
Answer: Option A
5. According to the passage, natural justice can be brought about by
A. administrative authority remaining vigilant
B. administrative authority upholding rules of natural justice
C. administrative authority farming rules suitably
D. administrative authority observing the rules of fair play
Answer: Option D
D. The strength of the electronics industry in Japan lies in the ability of the Japanese to
organise production and marketing rather than in their achievements in original re-
search. The British are generally recognised as a far more inventive collection of indi-
viduals, but never seem to be able to exploit what they invent. There are many exam-
ples, from the TSR Z hovercraft, high speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph,
BSA and Norton Motorcycle which all prove this sad rule. The Japanese were able to
exploit their strengths in marketing and development many years ago, and their suc-
cess was at first either not recognised in the West or was dismissed as something which
could have been produced only at their low price. They were sold because they were
cheap copies of other people's ideas churned out of a workhouse which was dedicated
to hard grind above all else.
1. It is evident from the passage that the strength of a country's industry depends upon
A. original research
B. international cooperation
C. dedicated workforce
D. electronic development
Answer: Option C
2. The sad rule mentioned in this passage refers to
A. the inability of the Japanese to be inventive like the British
B. the inability of the British to be industrious like the Japanese
C. the lack of variety in Japanese inventions
D. the poorer marketing ability of British
Answer: Option D
3. The TSR Z hovercraft, high speed train, Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of
A. Japanese success
B. British failure

C. British success
D. Japanese failure
Answer: Option B
4. According to the passage, prosperity in industry depends upon
A. productivity
B. inventiveness
C. marketing ability
D. official patronage
Answer: Option C
5. The main theme of this passage is
A. electronic industry in Japan
B. industrial comparison between Japan and Britain
C. the role of marketing efficiency in industrial prosperity
D. the importance of original research in industry
Answer: Option C
E. Courage is not the only basis of virtue; it is its expression. Faith, hope, charity and all
the rest don't become virtues until one has the courage to exercise them. There are
roughly two types of courage - the first, an emotional state which urges a man to risk
injury or death, is physical courage. The second, a more reasoning attitude which
enables him to consider his career, his happiness, his whole future, or his judgement of
what he thinks is right or worthwhile, is moral courage. I have known many men, who
had marked physical courage, but lacked moral courage. Some of them were in high
places, but they failed to be great in themselves because they lacked moral courage. On
the other hand, I have seen men who undoubtedly possessed moral courage but were

very cautious about taking physical risks. But I have never met a man with moral cou-
rage who couldn't, when it was really necessary, face a situation boldly.
1. A man of courage is
A. cunning
B. intelligent
C. curious
D. careful
Answer: Option D
2. Physical courage is an expression of
A. emotions
B. deliberation
C. uncertainty
D. defiance
Answer: Option A
3. A man with moral courage can
A. defy his enemies
B. overcome all difficulties
C. face a situation boldly
D. be very pragmatic
Answer: Option C
4. People with physical courage often lack
A. mental balance
B. capacity for reasoning
C. emotional stability
D. will to fight
Answer: Option B

5. All virtues become meaningful because of
A. faith
B. charity
C. courage
D. hope
Answer: Option C
F. Piccadilly Circus was full of loneliness. It seethes and echoes there. To live near it and
look down on it, is a discomforting exercise. You can't feel the pulse of London here,
though people expect to. To Londoners it is a maddening obstruction between one
place and another, and few voluntarily linger there. The only locals are those who live
off the lingerers; The lingerers are primarily sightseers, with a fair sprinkling of people
hoping to draw attention to themselves - typically from the provinces. They have come
to see the heart of London and expect to see spectacle, glamour, and vice.
1. Piccadilly circus is
A. the name of a circus company
B. a lonely and resounding old building
C. a centrally located area in London
D. a huge heap of ruins
Answer: Option C
2. The passage implies that
A. some Londoners love to spend their time near the Piccadilly circus
B. no Londoner wants to be in Piccadilly circus
C. Piccadilly circus is a hazardous place
D. Piccadilly circus is place of vice
Answer: Option C

3. According to this passage, people from outside London go to Piccadilly circus because it is
A. a historical place
B. full of glamour
C. full of exciting people
D. the pulse of London
Answer: Option B
4. For those who live near Piccadilly circus, it is
A. a very noisy place
B. crowded with people
C. an obstruction to traffic
D. an awkward structure
Answer: Option C
5. The lingerers found in Piccadilly circus are mainly
A. the citizens of London
B. sightseers from provincial areas of Britain
C. people who want to show off
D. local idlers
Answer: Option B

SECTION 5
LOGICAL
REASONING

ACET CLOCK ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
CLOCK
Q1. A clock is fast by 15 min in 24 h. It is made right at 12 noon, what time will it show at 4 am?
(a) 4:10 am
(b) 4:15 am
(c) 3:45 am
(d) 4:30 am
ANSWER:
From 12 noon to next day 4 am = (12+4)=16h
Clock gains in 24 h = 15 min
Clock will gain in 1h=15/24 min
So, clock will gain in 16h

15
= × 16 = 10 𝑚𝑖𝑛
24
Hence, time in the clock at 4 am = 4h, 10 min = 4:10 am
Q2. At what angle, the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 min past 5?
1
(a) 58 2 °
(b) 64°
1
(c) 67 °
2
1
(d) 72 °
2
ANSWER:
Angle traced by hour hand in

°
15 21 360 21 1°
5+ = h= × = 157
60 4 12 4 2

So, angle traced by minutes hand in

°
360
15 min = × 15 = 90°
60
Hence, required angle
°
1
= 157 − 90°
2
1°
= 67
2
Q3. At what time between 7 and 8 O'clock, will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line
but, not together?
(a) 5 min past 7
2
(b) 5 11 min past 7
3
(c) 5 min past 7
11
5
(d) 5 11 min past 7
ANSWER:
We know that, when the hands of the clock are in the same straight line but not together, they are
30 min spaces apart.
At 7 O’clock they are 25 min spaces apart.
∴ Minute hand needs to gain only 5 min spaces.
5 min spaces are gained in
60 5
× 5 min = 5 min
55 11
5
So, required time = 5 11 min past 7
Q4. At what time between 5 and 5:30 are the hands of a clock 5 min apart?
4
(a) 20 11 min past 5
7
(b) 21 11 min past 5

8
(c) 20 11 min past 5
9
(d) 21 11 min past 5
ANSWER:
At 5 O'clock the minute hand is 25 min spaces apart. The two hands will be 5 min apart between 5
and 5 : 30, if the minute hand will gain (25 - 5) i.e. 20 min spaces.
Now, 55 min are gained in 60 min

60
20 min are gained in 55
× 20 min
240 9
= min = 21 min
11 11
9
∴ The hands will be 5 min apart at 21 11 min past 5.
Q5. A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock gains 10 min in a day. What will be the true time when
the watch indicates 3 pm the next day?
(a) 12 min past 2 pm
(b) 45 min past 2 pm
(c) 48 min past 2 pm
(d) 30 min past 2 pm
ANSWER:
Time from 10 am to 3 pm the next day = 29 h.
Now, 24 h 10 min of the clock in question = 24 h of the correct clock.

145
i.e. 6
hr of the clock in question = 24 h of the correct clock
29h of the clock in question

6
= 24 × 145 × 29 h of correct clock
= 28 h 48 min of correct clock
So, the correct time is 28 h 48 min after 10 am i.e. 48 min past 2 pm.

Q6. At what time between 9 and 10 O’clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line
but not together?
4
(a) 16 min past 9
11
2
(b) 16 min past 9
11
4
(c) 15 11 min past 9
3
(d) 15 11 min past 9
ANSWER:
At 9 O’clock the hands of the clock are 15 min spaces apart. To be in opposite directions they must
be 30 min spaces apart. So, the minute hand has to gain only (30-15) min i.e. 15 min spaces. 55 min
spaces are gained in 60 min 15 min spaces are gained in
60 180 4
× 15 min = min = 16 min
55 11 11
4
∴ Required time = 16 11 min past 9.
Q7. At what time between 5 and 6 O’clock will the hands of clock be at right angle?
10
(a) 10 11 min past 5
7
(b) 43 11 min past 5
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
ANSWER:
At 5 O’clock the minute hand will be 25 min spaces behind the hour hand. Now, when the two hand
are at right angle, they are 15 min spaces apart. So, there are two cases.
Case I When this minute hand is 15 min spaces behind the hour hand. To be in the position, the
minute hand will have to gain (25-15) = 10 min spaces.
Now, 55 min spaces are gained in 60 min

∴ 10 min spaces are gained in

60 120 10
× 10 min = min = 10 min
55 11 11
10
They are at right angle at = 10 11 min past 5.
Case II When the minute hand is 15 min spaces ahead of the hour hand. To be in this position, the
minute hand will have to gain (25+15)=40 min spaces
Now, 55 min spaces are gained in 60 min
∴ 40 min spaces are gained in

60 480 7
× 40 min = min = 43 min
55 11 11
7
So, they are right angle at 43 min past 5.
11
Q8. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 min slow at 10 am on Wednesday and is 2 ½ min fast at 1
pm the following day. When was it will show the correct time?
(a) 10:30 pm Wednesday
(b) 9:15 pm Wednesday
(c) 10:45 pm Wednesday
(d) 10 pm Wednesday
ANSWER:
Time from 10 am on Wednesday to 10pm on the following day
= 1 day 3 h = 27 h
1 9
The watch gains 2 + 2 min or min in 27 h
2 2
9
Now, 2 min are gained in 27 h.
2
∴ 2 min are gained in 27 × 9 × 2 = 12h
So, the watch is correct at 10pm on Wednesday.

Q9. If the hands of a clock coincide every 64 min (true time) in 24 hrs. how much a day does the
clock gain?
5
(a) 31 6 min
8
(b) 32 min
11
8
(c) 33 11 min
5
(d) 34 6 min
ANSWER:
55 min are gained by minute hand in 60 min.
60 min will be gained by minute hand in

60 720 5
× 60 min = min = 65 min
55 11 11
5
Thus, the hands of a correct clock coincide every 65 11 min.
But the hands of the clock in question coincide every 64 min.

5
∴ In every 64 min the clock in question gains 1 11 min
In 24h the clock in question gains

16 1
= × × 24 × 60 min
11 64
360 8
= min = 32 min
11 11
Q10. If in a clock, 12 is replaced by 1, 11 by 2, 10 by 3 and so on, then what will be the time in that
clock corresponding to 'twenty minutes past three in the usual clock'?
(a) Twenty minutes past eleven
(b) Forty minutes past ten
(c) Forty minutes past eleven
(d) None of the above

ANSWER:
So, the time will be ‘Forty five minutes past nine’. There is no such option.

ACET CALENDAR ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
CALENDAR
Q1. If a month in a year starts with Monday, then the date of the fourth day after the second Sat-
urday in that month, will be
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
ANSWER:
1st day of month is Monday.
6th day of month is Saturday.
13th day of month is second Saturday.
∴ 17th day is the fourth day after second Saturday.
Q2. If 18thFebruary, 1997 falls on Tuesday, then what will be the day on 18thFebruary, 1999?
(a) Monday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Thursday
(d) Friday
ANSWER:
18thFebruary, 1997 is Tuesday. So, 17thFebruary, 1998 will also Tuesday.
Again, 16thFebruary, 1999 will also be Tuesday. Hence, 18thFebruary, 1999 will be Thursday.
Q3. What day of the week was on 1stJanuary, 2001?
(a) Wednesday
(b) Tuesday

(c) Monday
(d) Sunday
ANSWER:
1stJanuary, 2001 means 2000 complete years + 1 day of January, 2001
Number of odd days in 2000yrs = 0
Number of odd days in January, 2001 = 1
Total number of odd days = 0 + 1 = 1
So, the required day was Monday.
Q4. What was the day of the week on 15thAugust, 1947?
(a) Friday
(b) Monday
(c) Saturday
(d) Sunday
ANSWER:
Odd days in 1600yr = 0
46yr = (11 leap year + 35 ordinary year) =(11 × 2 + 35 × 1) =1 odd day
Odd days in 1946yr = (0 + 1 + 1) = 2
Month Odd days
January 3
February 0 (ordinary year)
March 3
April 2

May 3
June 2
July 3
August 1 (15 + 7)
Total 17
17 ÷ 7 = 3 odd days
Total odd days = 2 + 3 = 5
∴ Required day = Friday
Q5. On what dates of June, 2005 did Monday fall?
(a) 6th, 13th, 20th, 27th
(b) 7th, 14th, 21st, 28th
(c) 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th
(d) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th
ANSWER:
We shall find the date on 1stJune, 2005.
1st June, 2005 = (2004yr + Period from 1.1.2005 to 1.6.2005)
4yr = (1 leap year + 3 ordinary year)
= 1 × 2 + 3 days
= 5 odd days
Jan Feb March April May June
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 1

= 152 days
= 21 weeks + 5 days
= 5 odd days
Total number of odd days (0 + 5 + 5)
= 10 odd days
= 3 odd days
So, 1stJune, 2005 was Wednesday.
So, 6th, 13th, 20th, and 27thJune 2005 are Monday.

ACET SYLLOGISM ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SYLLOGISM
Directions
In each question given below are two statements followed by 4 conclusions. You have to take the two
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given two statements, disregarding commonly
known facts.
Q1. Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats.
Conclusions:
(1) No door is cat.
(2) No cat is door.
(3) Some cats are dogs.
(4) All the cats are dogs.
A. Only (2) and (4)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (3) and (4)
D. Only (3)
E. E. All the four
Answer: D
Explanation:

Q2. Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white.
Conclusions:
(1) Some blue are green.
(2) Some white are green.
(3) Some green are not white.
(4) All white are blue.
A. Only (1) and (2)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (1) and (4)
D. Only (2) and (4)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q3. Statements: All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates.
Conclusions:
(1) All men are mammals.
(2) All mammals are men.
(3) Some vertebrates are mammals.
(4) All vertebrates are men.

A. Only (4)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1)
E. Only (1) and (3)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q4. Statements: All the phones are scales. All the scales are calculators.
Conclusions:
(1) All the calculators are scales.
(2) All the phones are calculators
(3) All the scales are phones.
(4) Some calculators are phones.
A. Only (1) and (4)
B. Only (3) and (4)
C. Only (2) and (4)
D. Only (1) and (2)
E. Only (1) and (3)
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q5. Statements: Some tables are T.V. Some T.V. are radios.
Conclusions:
(1) Some tables are radios.
(2) Some radios are tables.
(3) All the radios are T.V.
(4) All the T.V. are tables.
A. Only (2) and (4)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (4)
D. Only (1) and (4)
E. None of the four.
Answer: E
Explanation:

Q6. Statements: Some pens are books. Some books are pencils.
Conclusions:
(1) Some pens are pencils.
(2) Some pencils are pens.
(3) All pencils are pens.
(4) All books are pens.
A. Only (1) and (3)
B. Only (2) and (4)
C. All the four

D. None of the four
E. Only (1)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q7. Statements: All the goats are tigers. All the tigers are lions.
Conclusions:
(1) All the goats are lions.
(2) All the lions are goats.
(3) Some lions are goats.
(4) Some tigers are goats.

A. All the four
B. Only (1), (2) and (3)
C. Only (1), (3) and (4)
D. Only (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q8. Statements: All the books are pencils. No pencil is eraser.
Conclusions:
(1) All the pencils are books.
(2) Some erasers are books.
(3) No book is eraser.
(4) Some books are erasers.
A. Only (3)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (1) and (2)
D. Only (2) and (3)
E. Only (3) and (4)
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q9. Statements: All the research scholars are psychologists. Some psychologists are scientists.
Conclusions:
(1) All the research scholars are scientists.
(2) Some research scholars are scientists.
(3) Some scientists are psychologists.
(4) Some psychologists are research scholars.
A. Only (3) and (4)
B. None of the four
C. All the four
D. Only (3)
E. Only (2) and (4)
Answer: A
Explanation:

Q10. Statements: All the locks are keys. All the keys are bats. Some watches are bats.
Conclusions:
(1) Some bats are locks.
(2) Some watches are keys.
(3) All the keys are locks.
A. Only (1) and (2)
B. Only (1)
C. Only (2)
D. Only (1) and (3)
Answer: B
Explanation:

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-17)
In each question given below are two statements followed by two conclusions number I and II. You have
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given two statements, disre-
garding commonly known facts.
Given answer
(a) if only Conclusion I follows
(b) if only Conclusion II follows
(c) if neither I nor II follows
(d) if both I and II follow
Q11. Statements
I. All terrorists are human.
II. All humans are bad.
Conclusions
I. All terrorists are bad.
II. No human can be a terrorist.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Clearly, only conclusion I follows.

Q12. Statements
I. Some artists are followers.
II. Some followers are famous.
Conclusions
I. Some artists are famous.
II. Some followers are artists.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Clearly, only conclusion II follows.

Q13. Statements
I. All men are snakes.
II. All snakes are rats.
Conclusions
I. All men are rats.
II. All rats are men.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:

Q14. Statements
I. Woman artist cannot play.
II. Some women artists are athletes.
Conclusions
I. Male athletes can play.
II. Some athletes can play.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Hence, neither I nor II follows.
Q15. Statements
I. Some cats are crows.
II. All the crows are grapes.
Conclusions
I. All the grapes are crows.
II. Some Cats are grapes.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:

Q16. Statements
I. All cars fly.
II. Some bus fly.
Conclusions
I. All cars are bus.
II. Some bus do not fly.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Q17. Statements
I. All leaders are good team workers.
II. All good team workers are good orators.

Conclusions
I. Some good team workers are leaders.
II. All good orators are leaders.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:

ACET SEATING ARRANGEMENT ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SEATING ARRANGEMENT
Directions for question 1-3
Read the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven children A,B,C,D,E,F and G are standing in a line. G is to the right of D and to the left of B. A is
on the right of C. A and D have one child between them. E and B have two children between them.
D and F have two children between them.
Q1. Who is on the extreme right?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) F
(d) G
Q2. Who is exactly in the middle?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
Q3. Who is on the extreme left?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
SOLUTIONS (Q. NOS. 1-3)

We are given, G is to the right of D and to the left of B, i.e. D, G, B. A is on the right of C, i.e. C, A. E and B have
two children between them, i.e. E, D, G, B. Also, A and D have one child between them, i.e. C, A, E, D, G, B.
Since, D and F have two children between them. So,

1. F is on the extreme right.
2. D is exactly in the middle.
3. C is on the extreme left.
Directions for question 4-6

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
M, D, P, K, R, T and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is second to the right of P
who is third to the right of K. T is third to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of D. M
is third to the left of R.
Q4. Who is second to the right of T?
(a) D
(b) K
(c) M
(d) Data inadequate
Q5. In which of the following pairs is second person sitting to the immediate right of the first
person?
(a) DT
(b) TP
(c) PR
(d) KW
Q6. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(a) W
(b) P
(c) K
(d) T

According to the question, the arrangement is as follows
4. M is second to the right to T.
5. W is sitting to the immediate right of K.
6. W is to the immediate left of R.
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Read the following information to answer the questions based on it.
Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows :
(i) E and F have one letter between them.
(ii) G is to the right of A.
(iii) B is to the immediate left of F.
(iv) There is one letter between D and A.
(v) D is not G's neighbour.
(vi) G and F have two letters between them.
Q7. Which letter is second to the left of letter A?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E

Q8. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letters series so obtained?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) E
(d) None of these
Q9. Which pair pf the letters is adjacent to the letter B?
(a) A and C
(b) G and E
(c) E and F
(d) C and D
Q10. Five people are standing in a queue outside the ATM for cash withdrawal. The two people
standing at the extreme ends are Pankaj and Vijender. Anita is standing behind Rohit. Babita
is in front of Vijender. Rohit is standing between Pankaj and Anita. Counting from the front,
at which place is Anita?
(a) Fourth
(b) Second
(c) First
(d) Third

The given figure shows the arrangement of given seven letters
7. Letter D is second to the left of letter A.
8. It is clear from the diagram that letter G is in the middle of the letters arrangement.
9. Clearly, letters E and F are adjacent to B.

10. According to the given information, five people are standing in a queue as shown below
It is clearly shown that the position of Anita is third from the front.
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats.
(iv) R next to U gets a South facing flat and T gets a North facing flat.
Q11. Whose flat is between Q and S?
(a) T
(b) U
(c) R
(d) P

Q12. The flats of which of the other pair, than SU, is diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) PT
(b) QP
(c) QR
(d) TS
Q13. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose flat will be next to that of U?
(a) Q
(b) T
(c) P
(d) R
Q14. Which of the combination get South facing flats?
(a) URP
(b) UPT
(c) QTS
(d) Data inadequate
Q15. To arrive at the answers to the above questions, which of the following statements can be
dispensed with?
(a) None
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Only (iii)


Below figure shows the correct positions of persons.
11. Clearly, T’s flat is between Q and S.
12. As given is statement (iii), S and U are diagonally opposite. Similarly, from the figures we can say P and
Q are also diagonally opposite.
13. Position after interchanging T and P.
Next to U’s flat is R’s flat.
14. U, R and P get the South facing flats.
15. All the information are required to answer these questions.
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) These questions are based on the information given below.
Six girls are sitting in a circle. Sonia is sitting opposite to Radhika. Poonam is sitting right of Radhi-
ka but left Deepti. Monika is sitting left of Radhika. Kamini is sitting right of Sonia and left of Moni-
ka. Now Deepti and Kamini, Monika and Radhika manually exchange their positions.
Q16. Who will be opposite to Sonia?
(a) Radhika
(b) Monika
(c) Kamini
(d) Sonia
Q17. Who will be sitting left of Kamini?
(a) Poonam
(b) Deepti
(c) Radhika
(d) Sonia
Q18. Who will be sitting left of Deepti?
(a) Sonia
(b) Monika
(c) Radhika
(d) Poonam
Q19. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting around a circle. Q is between P and T. P is second
right to R, who is immediate right of S. which of the following is the position of T?
(a) Immediate left of S
(b) Immediate right of Q
(c) 4th right to R
(d) All of these
SOLUTIONS (Q16-19)
According to the question, sitting arrangement is as follows

After interchanging the positions of Deepti with Kamini and Monika with Radhika as given in the question,
we have the order of sitting of girls as given in the figure.
16. Monika will be at the opposite to Sonia.
17. Poonam will be sitting just left of Kamini.
18. Sonia will be sitting just left of Deepti.
19. Below figure shows the correct position of. persons sitting around the circle.
It is clear from the diagram that T is
(i) immediate left of S
(ii) immediate right of Q
(iii) 4th right to R
Hence, all the options are true.

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-22) These questions are based on the information given below.
Four ladies A, B, C and D and four gentlemen E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle around a table fac-
ing each other.
(i) No two ladies or two gentlemen sitting side-by-side.
(ii) C, who is sitting between G and E, is facing D.
(iii) F is between D and A and is facing G.
(iv) H is to the right of B.
Q20. Who is sitting to the left of A?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
Q21. E is facing whom?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) G
(d) H
Q22. Who are immediate neighbours of B?
(a) G and H
(b) E and F
(c) E and H
(d) F and H

Q23. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table, A is between E and F, E is opposite to D
and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. who is opposite to B?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) F
(d) None of these
Q24. 6 persons are sitting along a hexagonal dining table to have dinner. B is between F and C. A is
between E and D and F is to the left of D. who is between A and F?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) B
Q25. There are six houses in a row. Mr. Lal has Mr. Bhasin and Mr. Sachdeva as neighbours. Mr.
Bhatia has Mr. Gupta and Mr. Sharma as neighbours. Mr. Gupta’s house is not next to Mr.
Bhasin or Mr. Sachdeva and Mr. Sharma does not live next to Mr. Sachdeva. Who are Mr. Bha-
sin’s next door neighbours?
(a) Mr. Lal and Mr. Bhasin
(b) Mr. Lal and Mr. Sachdeva
(c) Mr. Sharma and Mr. Lal
(d) Only Mr. Lal
SOLUTIONS (Q20-25)
Given figure shows the correct position of persons sitting around the circle.

20. It is clear from the figure that F is sitting to the left of A.
21. It is clear from the diagram that E is facing H.
22. G and H are immediate neighbours of B.
23. On the basis of given information in the question, we have two possible arrangements.
In both the arrangements F is opposite to B.
24. Arrangement according to the question is as follows
Clearly, D is between A and F.
25. The given figure shows the correct positions of eight members According to the question,
Hence, it is clear from the diagram that Mr. Bhasin's next door neighbours are Mr. Lal and Mr. Sharma.

Directions for question (26-31) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below it.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is third to the left of A. E is
fourth to the right of A. D is fourth to the left of J, who is second to the right of A. F is third to the
right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of A.
Q26. What is H’s position with respect to E?
(a) Third to the left
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Fifth to the right
(d) Fifth to the left
Q27. Who is third to the right of G?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) A
(d) None of these
Q28. Who is fifth to the right of E?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
Q29. Who is second to the left of H?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) D
(d) Data inadequate

Q30. Who is to the immediate right of D?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) A
(d) Data inadequate
Q31. In which of the following groups, the third person is sitting between the first and the second
person?
(a) CDF
(b) EBC
(c) HFA
(d) JGE

The sitting arrangement is as .shown below
26. H is third to the left of E.
27. C is third to the right of G.
28. A is fifth to the right of E.
29. F is second to the left of H.
30. F is to the immediate right of D.
31. Clearly, A is sitting between F and H.

Directions for question (32-34) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below it.
L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the centre. O is sitting between L and R. Q is
second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N is not an immediate neighbour of R.
Q32. Which of the following is not correct?

(a) R is second to the right of L
(b) M is second to the left of N
(c) L sits exactly between O and P
(d) P sits to the opposite of N
Q33. How many persons are seated between L and Q, if we count anti-clockwise from L to Q?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Q34. Who is to the immediate left of P?
(a) L
(b) N
(c) M
(d) O

According to the question, the seating arrangement is as shown below

32. Clearly, P is not sitting opposite to N. hence, statement given in option (d) is not correct.
33. Three persons-O, R and M are sitting between L and Q.
34. N is to the immediate left of P.
Directions for question (35-36) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on
their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to the group?
Q35. (a) QPN
(b) MOR
(c) LRO
(d) ROL
Q36. (a) LP
(b) RM
(c) MQ
(d) NP

35. Clearly, except ROL in all others the third person is sitting between the first and second persons.
36. Clearly, except LP in all others the second person is sitting to the right of the first person.

ACET BLOOD RELATIONS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
BLOOD RELATIONS
Q1. Introducing a man, Neeraj said, "His wife is the onlydaughter of my wife." How is Neeraj related to
thatman?
(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Son
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation: The only daughter of Neeraj’swife is the daughter of Neeraj and her husband is the
son-in-law of Neeraj.
Hence, Neeraj is the father-in-law of the man.
Q2. Shyama says that father of Rajiv's father is my father.How is Shyama related to Rajiv?
(a) Sister
(b) Mother
(c) Aunt (Father's sister)
(d) Niece
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation:From the information given in thequestion, it is clear that Rajiv's fatheris the brother
of Shyama. Therefore, Shyama is related as aunt (father'ssister) to Rajiv.
Q3. Pointing to Raman in the photograph, Aditi said, "Theonly son of his mother is my father". How is
Aditirelated to Raman?
(a) Mother's sister
(b) Bua (Father's sister)
(c) Daughter
(d) Niece
Answer: Option (c)

Explanation:The only son of Raman's mother isRaman himself and Aditi says that heis her father.
Therefore, Aditi is related as daughter to Raman.
Q4. Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The father of herbrother is the only son of my grandfather." How
isthat lady related to that man?
(a) Sister
(b) Daughter
(c) Aunt (Father's sister)
(d) Mother-in-law
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation: The father of her brother means herfather and the only son of mygrandfather means
my father. Therefore, lady's father is also thefather of the man. Hence, the lady isrelated as sister to
that man.
Q5. A man said to a woman, "The only sister of yourbrother is my mother." How is that man related to
thatwoman?
(a) Father
(b) Son
(c) Husband
(d) Brother
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation:The information given in the questioncan be used as “The only sister ofyour brother
(i.e. you) is my mother".Hence, the man is related as son to that woman.
Q6. Pointing to a man in the photograph, Archana said, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather''.
How isthe man related to Archana?
(a) Cousin
(b) Nephew

(c) Brother
(d) Son
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation:The only son of Archana’s grandfathermeans Archana's father and his son is Archana's
brother. Hence, the man is related as brother to Archana.
Q7. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rita said, "He is thebrother of the daughter of the wife of my hus-
band."How is the man on the stage related to Rita?
(a) Son
(b) Husband
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation:Wifeof her husband means herself.And brother of her daughter means her son. Hence,
the man on the stageis the son of Rita.
Q8. Dis B's father. Bis C's sister-in-law and A's daughter.How is A related to D?
(a) Wife
(b) Mother
(c) Father
(d) Husband
Answer: Option (a)
Explanation:According to the question, D is thefather of B and B is the daughter ofA. Therefore, A is

the wife of D.
Q9. Atold B, "Yesterday I met the only brother of thedaughter of my grandmother."Whom didA meet?
(a) Cousin
(b) Brother

(c) Nephew
(d) Father
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation:The daughter of A's grandmother is thesister of A’s father and the only brother ofA's
father's sister is A's father himself. Hence, A met his father.
Q10. Neelam, who is Rohit's daughter, says to Indu, "Yourmother Reeta is the younger sister of my father,
who is thethird child of Sohanji". How is Sohanji related to Indu?
(a) Maternal uncle
(b) Father
(c) Grandfather
(d) Father-in-law
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation:From the information given in the question, it is concluded that Sohanji is the father of
Rohit and Reeta, who is the mother of Indu. Therefore, Sohanji is the grandfather of Indu.
Q11. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother ofher mother. How is that man related to the
woman?
(a) Nephew
(b) Son
(c) Cousin
(d) Uncle
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation:Brother of woman’s mother is the material uncle of the women and the son of material
uncle is related as cousin to the woman.
Q12. Ramesh is the brother of Amit. Sushma is the sister ofSatish. Amit is the son of Sushma. How is Ra-
meshrelated to Sushma?
(a) Father
(b) Brother

(c) Son
(d) Nephew
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation:
Q13. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu's sister is Reema.Reema's husband is Rajan. Raghu's mother is
Lakshmi.Lakshmi's husband is Rajesh. How is Rajesh related to Rajan?
(a) Uncle
(b) Son-in-law
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Cousin
Answer: Option (c)
Explanation:
From relation tree we can say that Rajesh is the father-in-law of Rajan.

Q14. Introducing a girl, Vipin said, "Her mother is the onlydaughter of my mother-in-law." How is Vipin
related tothat girl?
(a) Uncle
(b) Father
(c) Brother
(d) Husband
Answer: Option (b)
Explanation:The only daughter of Vipin'smother-in-law is the wife ofVipin. Therefore, the state-
ment,in other words implies that "Hermother is my wife." Hence, it isclear that Vipin is the father
ofthat girl.

ACET SEQUENCE AND SERIES ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
SEQUENCE AND SERIES
NUMBER SERIES
Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next.
Q1. 42 40 38 35 33 31 28
A. 25 22
B. 26 23
C. 26 24
D. 25 23
E. 26 22
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
This is an alternating subtraction series in which 2 is subtracted twice, then 3 is subtracted once,
then 2 is subtracted twice, and so on.
Q2. 8 12 9 13 10 14 11
A. 14 11
B. 15 12
C. 8 15
D. 15 19
E. 85
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
This is an alternating addition and subtraction series, in which the addition of 4 is alternated with
the subtraction of 3.

Q3. 13 29 15 26 17 23 19
A. 21 23
B. 20 21
C. 20 17
D. 25 27
E. 22 20
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Here, there are two alternating patterns, with every other number following a different pattern. The
first pattern begins with 13 and adds 2 to each number to arrive at the next; the alternating pattern
begins with 29 and subtracts 3 each time.
Q4. 44 41 38 35 32 29 26
A. 24 21
B. 22 19
C. 23 19
D. 29 32
E. 23 20
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
This is a simple subtraction series, in which 3 is subtracted from each number to arrive at the next.
Q5. 16 26 56 36 46 68 56
A. 80 66
B. 64 82
C. 66 80
D. 78 68
E. 66 82
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Here, every third number follows a different pattern from the main series. In the main series, be-
ginning with 16, 10 is added to each number to arrive at the next. In the alternating series, begin-
ning with 56, 12 is added to each number to arrive at the next.
LETTER SERIES
Q1. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

A. OLPA
B. KLMA
C. LLMA
D. KLLA
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The second and forth letters in the series, L and A, are static. The first and third letters consist of an
alphabetical order beginning with the letter E.
Q2. CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU
A. GRR
B. GSS
C. ISS
D. ITT
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The first letters are in alphabetical order with a letter skipped in between each segment: C, E, G, I, K.
The second and third letters are repeated; they are also in order with a skipped letter: M, O, Q, S, U.

Q3. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____

A. UAV
B. UAT
C. TAS
D. TAT
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In this series, the third letter is repeated as the first letter of the next segment. The middle letter, A,
remains static. The third letters are in alphabetical order, beginning with R.
Q4. QPO, NML, KJI, _____, EDC
A. HGF
B. CAB
C. JKL
D. GHI
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
This series consists of letters in a reverse alphabetical order.
Q5. JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____
A. OEP
B. NEO
C. MEN
D. PFQ
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
This is an alternating series in alphabetical order. The middle letters follow the order ABCDE. The
first and third letters are alphabetical beginning with J. The third letter is repeated as a first letter in
each subsequent three-letter segment.

ACET STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assump-
tions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
1. Statement: "You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and
your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation." - A line in an ap-
pointment letter.
Assumptions:The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment
offer.
Generally, an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as the statement mentions.
So, I is implicit. The statement mentions that the individual's worth shall be reviewed (during pro-
bation period) before confirmation. So, II is also implicit.

2. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.

Assumptions:At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since the statement talks of putting the child in school at the age of 5, it means that the child is men-
tally prepared for the same at this age. So, I is implicit. But nothing about admission after 6 years of
age is mentioned in the statement. So, II is not implicit.
3. Statement: "In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to
our employees." - In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Assumption I goes against the statement. So, it is not implicit. The allowance will serve as a reward
to the employees and shall provoke them to come on time. So, II is implicit.

4. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above 18
years of age.
Assumptions:There are unemployed youth in India who needs monetary support.
The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
I directly follows from the statement and so is implicit. Also, the statement is a suggestion and does
not tell about a government policy or its position of funds. So, II is not implicit.
5. Statement: "If you trouble me, I will slap you." - A mother warns her child.
Assumptions:With the warning, the child may stop troubling her.
All children are basically naughty.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The mother warns her child with the expectation that he would stop troubling her. So, I is implicit.
The general nature of children cannot be derived from the statement. So, II is not implicit.

6. Statement: The State government has decided to appoint four thousand primary school teachers
during the next financial year.
Assumptions:There are enough schools in the state to accommodate four thousand additional pri-
mary school teachers.
The eligible candidates may not be interested to apply as the government may not finally appoint
such a large number of primary school teachers.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Such decisions as given in the statement are taken only after taking the existing vacancies into con-
sideration. So, I implicit while II isn't.
7. Statement: A warning in a train compartment - "To stop train, pull chain. Penalty for improper use
` 500."
Assumptions:Some people misuse the alarm chain.
On certain occasions, people may want to stop a running train.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Clearly, the penalty is imposed to prevent people from misusing the alarm chain. This means that
some people misuse it. So, I is implicit. The alarm chain is provided to stop the running train in
times of urgency. So, II is also implicit.
8. Statement: If it is easy to become an engineer, I don't want to be an engineer.
Assumptions:An individual aspires to be professional.
One desires to achieve a thing which is hard earned.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, nothing is mentioned about the professional nature of the job. So, I is not implicit. The
statement hints that one rejects a thing that is easy to achieve. So, II is implicit.
9. Statement: The concession in rail fares for the journey to hill stations has been cancelled because it
is not needed for people who can spend their holidays there.
Assumptions: Railways should give concession only to needy persons.
Railways should not encourage people to spend their holidays at hill stations.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The statement mentions that concessions should not be given to people who can afford to spend
holidays in hill stations. This means they should be given only to needy persons. So, I is implicit. But,
II does not follow from the statement and is not implicit.
10. Statement: "The bridge was built at the cost of Rs. 128 crores and even civil bus service is not uti-
lizing it, what a pity to see it grossly underutilized." - A citizen's view on a new flyover linking east
and west sides of a suburb.
Assumptions:The building of such bridges does not serve any public objective.
There has to be some accountability and utility of money spent on public projects.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, the statement expresses grave concern over a newly-built flyover not being utilized by pub-
lic. This implies that such projects need to be taken up only after working out their utility and that
the huge expenditure incurred on building such structures is worthwhile only if they prove useful
for the public. Thus, only II is implicit.

ACET LR MISCELLANEOUS ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE
LR MISCELLANEOUS
Directions (Q1-Q2).
Read the information given below carefully and answer the following questions:
Five friends A, B, C, D and E travelled from Tamil Nadu to five different states Uttar Pradesh, Maharash-
tra, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Punjab by 5 different modes of transport: Cycle, Bus, Train, Truck, and
Bike. The one who travelled to Rajasthan did not travel by Bike. C went to Karnataka by Truck and B went
to Maharashtra by Train. D travelled by Bike and E travelled by Bus. Tamil Nadu is not connected by
Cycle to Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Q1. What means of Transport did C use?

(a) Bus
(b) Cycle
(c) Train
(d) Truck
(e) Bike
Answer: (d) Truck
A Punjab Cycle
B Maharashtra Train
C Karnataka Truck
D Uttar Pradesh Bike
E Rajasthan Bus
Q2. Which state did E travel to?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka

(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) Punjab
Answer: (a) Rajasthan
Pankaj, Qasif, Rajat, Supriya, Tina, Uttkarsh, Vartika, Waseem and Zoya are sitting around a circle
facing at the centre. Rajat is third to the right of Zoya who is second to the right of Pankaj. Supriya is
not an immediate neighbour of Zoya and Rajat. Tina is third to the left of Supriya. Qasif is third to
the right of Waseem who is not an immediate neighbour of Supriya. Vartika is not a neighbour of
Zoya.
Q3. How many people are sitting between Waseem and Supriya (counted clockwise from Supriya)?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Two
(e) Three
Answer: (e) Three
Q4. Who is sitting 3rd to the right of Vartika?
(a) Tina
(b) Pankaj
(c) Qasif
(d) Rajat
(e) Zoya
Answer: (e) Zoya
Q5. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
(a) index
(b) glossary

(c) chapter
(d) book
Answer: (d) Book. Rest are all parts of a book.
Q6. Which word is the odd man out?

(a) trivial
(b) unimportant
(c) important
(d) insignificant
Answer: (c) Important. Remaining are synonyms of each other.
Q7. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

(a) wing
(b) fin
(c) beak
(d) rudder
Answer: (c) Beak. Rest are parts of an aero plane.
Q8. Which word is the odd man out?

(a) hate
(b) fondness
(c) liking
(d) attachment
Answer: (a) hate. Rest are positive emotions.
Q9. Pick the odd man out?

(a) just
(b) fair

(c) equitable
(d) biased
Answer: (d) Biased. The others signify honesty.
Q10. CUP : LIP :: BIRD : ?
(a) GRASS
(b) FOREST
(c) BEAK
(d) BUSH
Answer: (c) BEAK. You drink out of a cup with your lips. Similarly, birds bite grass with their
beaks.
Q11. Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?
(a) Lamb
(b) Horse
(c) Elephant
(d) Tiger
Answer: (b) Horse. Cat’s feet are called paws and horse’s are called hoofs.
Q12. Safe : Secure :: Protect :
(a) Lock
(b) Guard
(c) Sure
(d) Conserve
Answer: (b) Guard

Q13. Melt: Liquid :: Freeze :
(a) Ice
(b) Solid
(c) Condense
(d) Push
Answer: (b) Solid
Q14. Parts: Strap:: Wolf :
(a) Flow
(b) Animal
(c) Wood
(d) Fox
Answer: (a) Flow
Q15. An Informal Gathering occurs when a group of people get together in a casual, relaxed manner.
Which situation below is the best example of an Informal Gathering?
(a) A debating club meets on the first Sunday morning of every month.
(b) After finding out about his salary raise, Jay and a few colleagues go out for a quick dinner after
work.
(c) Meena sends out 10 invitations for a bachelorette party she is giving for her elder sister.
(d) Whenever she eats at a Chinese restaurant, Roop seems to run into Dibya.
Answer: (b) After finding out about his salary raise, Jay and a few colleagues go out for a
quick dinner after work.
Q16. A Tiebreaker is an additional contest carried out to establish a winner among tied contestants.
Choose one situation from the options below that best represents a Tiebreaker.
(a) At halftime, the score is tied at 2-2 in a football match.
(b) Serena and Maria have each secured 1 set in the game.

(c) The umpire tosses a coin to decide which team will bat first.
(d) RCB and KKR each finished at 140 all out.
Answer: (d) RCB and KKR each finished at 140 all out.
Q17. Re-entry occurs when a person leaves his or her social system for a period of time and then returns.
Which situation below best describes Re-entry?
(a) When he is offered a better paying position, Jawed leaves the hotel he manages to manage
another one in a neighbouring city.
(b) Charan is spending her final year of college studying abroad in China.
(c) Manan is readjusting to civilian life after 2 years of overseas merchant navy service.
(d) After 5 miserable months, Neha decides that she can no longer share her room with roommate
Hital.
Answer: (c) Manan is readjusting to civilian life after 2 years of overseas merchant navy ser-
vice
Q18. Posthumous Award occurs when an award is given to someone, after their death. Choose one situa-
tion below as the best example of a Posthumous Award.
(a) Late yesteryear actress Sridevi was awarded with a Lifetime Achievement Award posthu-
mously in Film fare 2019.
(b) Chitra never thought she’d live to receive a third Booker prize for her novel.
(c) Emanuel has been honoured with a prestigious literary award for his writing career and his
daughter accepted the award on behalf of her deceased father.
(d) Meenal’s publisher cancelled her book contract after she failed to deliver the manuscript on
time.
Answer: (a) and (c)
Late yesteryear actress Sridevi was awarded with a Lifetime Achievement Award posthu-
mously in Film fare 2019.
Emanuel has been honoured with a prestigious literary award for his writing career and his
daughter accepted the award on behalf of her deceased father.

Q19. Kevin, Joseph, and Nicholas are 3 brothers. If the following statements are all true, which of them is
the youngest?
A. Kevin is the oldest.
B. Nicholas is not the oldest.
C. Joseph is not the youngest.
(a) Joseph
(b) Kevin
(c) Nicholas
(d) Both Joseph and Nicholas
Answer: (c) Nicholas
Next 3 questions are based on the following info -

Mazzini, an Italian specialty restaurant, stays open every Monday to Saturday but is closed on all Sun-
days. On Mondays, only lunch is served, as well as on Tuesdays and Thursdays. On Wednesdays, Fridays
and Saturdays, just dinner is served. The restaurant’s floors are polished and plants are watered only on
days that Quantum is open for business, according the following schedule:
A. Plants are watered two days each week, but never on consecutive days and never on the same day
that floors are polished.
B. Floors are polished on Monday and two other days each week, but never on consecutive days and
never on the same day that plants are watered
Q20. According to a schedule, the restaurant’s floors are polished on either…

(a) Tuesday or Wednesday
(b) Tuesday or Thursday
(c) Wednesday or Thursday
(d) Thursday or Friday
(e) Thursday or Saturday
Answer: (c) Wednesday or Thursday

Q21. If dinner is served on the same day as plants are watered, which of the following is correct?
(a) Plants are watered on Tuesday.
(b) Floors are polished on Thursday.
(c) Plants are watered on Wednesday.
(d) Floors are polished on Wednesday.
(e) Plants are watered on Saturday.
Answer: (b) Floors are polished on Thursday
Q22. Assume that floors are polished on consecutive days but all other scheduling policies are untam-
pered. For how many of the days can it be determined whether plants are watered and floors are
polished?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
(e) six
Answer: (e) six
Q23. Statement: Anger is energy, in a more proactive way and how to channelize it is in itself a skill.
Assumptions:
I. Anger needs to be channelized.
II. Only skilful people can channelize anger to energy.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) if either I or II is implicit.
(d) if neither I or II is implicit.
(e) if both I and II are implicit.
Answer: (b) Only II is implicit.

Q24. Statement: Medicine ‘P’ is a drug which is causing ripples in the medical field.
Assumptions:
I. No other drug is causing ripples in the medical field.
II. Medicine ‘P’ is a great drug.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) if either I or II is implicit.
(d) if neither I or II is implicit.
(e) if both I and II are implicit.
Answer: (d) if neither I or II is implicit.
Q25. Raj has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood.
It takes Raj 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Raj is sick or has other plans, his friend Shrey,
who lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him.
(a) Raj and Shrey live in the same neighborhood.
(b) It takes Shrey more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers.
(c) It is dark outside when Raj begins his deliveries.
(d) Shrey would like to have his own paper route.
Answer: Option (a) Raj and Shrey live in the same neighborhood
Explanation:
The fact that Raj and Shrey live on the same street indicates that they live in the same neighbor-
hood. There is no support for any of the other choices.
Q26. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific yew has a
fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of the Pacific yew, was discov-
ered to be a promising new anticancer drug.
(a) Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people.
(b) Taxol has cured people from various diseases.

(c) People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew.
(d) The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.
Answer: Option (c) People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew
Explanation:
Given the information presented, the only statement that could be considered true is that the fruit
should not be eaten because it is poisonous. There is no support that taxol is poisonous or that taxol
has cured anyone (choices a and b). There is no support for choice d.
Q27. Lucy is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a dog. Her parents
have told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an apartment, but they have given her
permission to have a bird. Lucy has not yet decided what kind of bird she would like to have.
(a) Erin's parents like birds better than they like dogs.
(b) Lucy does not like birds.
(c) Lucy and her parents live in an apartment.
(d) Lucy and her parents would like to move.
Answer: Option (c) Lucy and her parents live in an apartment
Explanation:
Since Lucy's parents think a dog would not be happy in an apartment, we can reasonably conclude
that the family lives in an apartment. We do not know if Lucy's parents dislike dogs (choice a) or if
Lucy dislikes birds (choice b). There is no support for choice d.
Q28. Tom's commute never bothered him because there were always seats available on the train and he
was able to spend his 40 minutes comfortably reading the newspaper or catching up on paperwork.
Ever since the train schedule changed, the train has been extremely crowded, and by the tome the
doors open at his station, there isn't a seat to be found.
(a) Tom would be better off taking the bus to work.
(b) Tom's commute is less comfortable since the train schedule changed.

(c) Many commuters will complain about the new train schedule.
(d) Tom will likely look for a new job closer to home.
Answer: Option (b) Tom's commute is less comfortable since the train schedule changed
Explanation:
The passage tells us that Tom's commute didn't bother him because he was always able to sit down
and comfortably read or do paperwork. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that Tom's commute
has become less comfortable since the schedule change, because it is very crowded and he can no
longer find a seat. There is no information given that supports choices a, c, and d.
Q29. When they heard news of the hurricane, Ben and Rue decided to change their vacation plans. In-
stead of traveling to the island beach resort, they booked a room at a fancy new spa in the moun-
tains. Their plans were a bit more expensive, but they'd heard wonderful things about the spa and
they were relieved to find availability on such short notice.
(a) Ben and Rue take beach vacations every year.
(b) The spa is overpriced.
(c) It is usually necessary to book at least six months in advance at the spa.
(d) Ben and Rue decided to change their vacation plans because of the hurricane.
Answer: Option (d) Ben and Rue decided to change their vacation plans because of the hurricane
Explanation:
The first sentence makes this statement true. There is no support for choice a. The passage tells us
that the spa vacation is more expensive than the island beach resort vacation, but that doesn't nec-
essarily mean that the spa is overpriced; therefore, choice b cannot be supported. And even though
the paragraph says that the couple was relieved to find a room on short notice, there is no informa-
tion to support choice c, which says that it is usually necessary to book at the spa at least six months
in advance.
A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that describes
the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which
of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.

Q30. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to
(a) speed
(b) hiking
(c) needle
(d) direction
Answer: Option (d) direction
Explanation:
An odometer is an instrument used to measure mileage. A compass is an instrument used to deter-

mine direction. Choices a, b, and c are incorrect because none is an instrument.
Q31. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
(a) winter
(b) bear
(c) dream
(d) sleep
Answer: Option (d) sleep
Explanation:
A marathon is a long race and hibernation is a lengthy period of sleep. The answer is not choice a or
b because even though a bear and winter are related to hibernation, neither completes the analogy.
(Choice c) is incorrect because sleep and dream are not synonymous.
Q32. Window is to pane as book is to
(a) novel
(b) glass

(c) cover
(d) page
Answer: Option (d) page
Explanation:
A window is made up of panes, and a book is made up of pages. The answer is not (choice a) b e-
cause a novel is a type of book. The answer is not (choice b) because glass has no relationship to a
book. (Choice c) is incorrect because a cover is only one part of a book; a book is not made up of
covers.
Q33. Yard is to inch as quart is to
(a) gallon
(b) ounce
(c) milk
(d) liquid
Answer: Option (b) ounce
Explanation:
A yard is a larger measure than an inch (a yard contains 36 inches). A quart is a larger measure than
an ounce (a quart contains 32 ounces). Gallon (choice a) is incorrect because it is larger than a
quart. Choices c and d are incorrect because they are not units of measurement.


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ACET ACTUATORS EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTE

VANDITA SARDA 1 JAI SHREE SHYAM

Sl. No. Name Page No.

VANDITA SARDA 1 JAI SHREE SHYAM

VANDITA SARDA 2 JAI SHREE SHYAM

VANDITA SARDA 1 JAI SHREE SHYAM

RELATIONS AND FUNCTION

Ans. f(x) is an even function.

Q2. The domain of the function f x = x − 1 − x 2 is

Q3. The range of the function f x = 3x 2 − 4x + 5 is

(a) Injective but not surjective

(b) Surjective but not injective

VANDITA SARDA 1 JAI SHREE SHYAM

(d) None of these

Q5. If the function f: −∞, ∞ → B defined by f x = −x 2 + 6x − 8 is bijective, then B =

(d) None of these

(d) None of these

(a) An even function

(b) An odd function

(c) Neither even nor odd

(d) A periodic function

VANDITA SARDA 2 JAI SHREE SHYAM

(d) None of these

(c) (−∞ , −1)

(d) None of these

Ans. Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4}

VANDITA SARDA 3 JAI SHREE SHYAM

Codomain of R = A = {1, 2, 3, … ,14}

Range of R is given by = {3, 6, 9, 12}

Q12. Let f(x) = x2 and g(x) = 2x + 1 be two real functions.

Find 𝐟 + 𝐠 𝐱 , (𝐟 – 𝐠) (𝐱), (𝐟𝐠) (𝐱), (𝐟/𝐠 ) (𝐱)

(fg) (x) = x 2 (2x + 1) = 2x 3 + x 2

(f/g) (x) = x 2 /(2x + 1), x ≠ −1/2

Q13. If f: R → R is defined by f(x) = x 2 − 3x + 2, find f(f(x)).

Ans. f(f(x)) = x 4 – 6x 3 + 10x 2 – 3x

Q14. Let f ∶ N → Y be a function defined as f(x) = 4x + 3, where, Y = {y ∈ N: y = 4x + 3 for some x ∈

Ans. Both one one and onto

Q16. If R = x, y : x + 2y = 8 is a relation on N, then write the range of R.

Ans. Range = {3,2,1}

Ans. Range = {-1,1}

VANDITA SARDA 4 JAI SHREE SHYAM

Q19. State whether the function f: N → N given by f x = 5x is injective, surjective or both.

Ans. Only injective

Q20. If A = 1,2,3, … ,9 and R be the relation in A × A defined by a, b R c, d . If a + d = b + c for

Ans. Equivalence class[(2,5)] = {(1,4), (2,5), (3,6), (4,7), (5,8), (6,9)}

Q21. Show that the function f in

Q22. Given A = {2,3}, B = {4,5}, C = {5,6} then A x (B∩C) is

(d) none of these

VANDITA SARDA 5 JAI SHREE SHYAM

ARITHMETIC AND GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION

VANDITA SARDA 6 JAI SHREE SHYAM

(d) none of these

(d) none of these

6. Which term of the progression –1, –3, –5, ….. is –39

(d) none of these

7. The value of x such that 8x + x, 6x –2, 2x + 7 will form an AP is

(d) none of these

VANDITA SARDA 7 JAI SHREE SHYAM

(d) none of these

Ans. (a) or (b)