GENERAL QUESTION ON ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

(18CIV59)

1. In an ecotone, the species which become abundant are called:

a. Edge species
b. Keystone species
c. Endemic species
d. Foster species

2. The objective of Environment studies is

a. Raise consciousness about environment conditions
b. To teach environmentally appropriate behaviour
c. Create an environmental ethic sensitive society
d. All of the above

3. Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?

a. Destruction of mangroves and wetlands
b. Depletion of ground water
c. Increased extinction rate of species
d. None of the above

4. Which of the following is management option for air pollution?

a. Regulations and standards
b. Transport planning
c. Using CNG as fuel
d. All of these

5. Development activities on the hydrosphere cause

a. Air pollution
b. Soil pollution
c. Water pollution
d. Soil erosion

6. The species restricted to be present in one region are called

a. Edge species
b. Endemic species
c. Endangered species
d. Keystone species

7. The basic requirements of human beings are provided by

a. Industrialisation
b. Agriculture
c. Nature
d. Urbanisation

8. Environment is the life support system that includes

a. Air
b. Water
c. Land
d. All of the above

9. The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word which means to
encircle or surround
a. Environ
b. Oikos
c. Geo
d. Aqua

10. Biosphere is
a. The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth
b. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth comprising of all the living
things
c. The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres
d. All the above

11. Atmosphere consists of 79 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by

a. Volume
b. Weight
c. Density
d. All of these

12. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from

a. Greek
b. French
c. Spanish
d. English

13. Which among the following is a climatic factor?

a. pressure
b. humidity
c. temperature
d. all of the above

14. World environment day is on:

a. 5th May
b. 5th June
c. 18th July
d. 16th August

15. Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. soil degradation
d. all of the above

16. Sustainable development means

a. meeting present needs without compromising on future needs
b. progress of human beings
c. balance between human needs and the ability of earth to provide the resources
d. all of the above

17. The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialisation is
a. industry should be closed
b. don’t allow new industrial units
c. industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal
d. industries should be shifted far away from human habitats

18. Sustainable development will not aim at

a. Social economic development which optimizes the economic and social benefits available
in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future
b. Reasonable and equally distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated
continually
c. Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future
generations to meet their own needs
d. Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

19. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

a. Water pollution
b. Soil degradation
c. Water logging
d. All of the above

20. Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains

a. Organic matter
b. Plant nutrients
c. Both a and b
d. none of the above

21. Water logging is a phenomenon in which

a. Crop patterns are rotated
b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation
c. Erosion of soil
d. None of the above

22. The impact of construction of dams

a. Submerged forest
b. Loss of wild life habitat
c. Damages downstream ecosystem
d. All of the above

23. What would you do to prevent environmental damage

a. Plant trees
b. Halt deforestation
c. Control pollution
d. All of the above

24. Environmental impact assessment

a. is the study of feasibility of a project
b. is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a human
action
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

25. Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agricultural practice?
a. Using chemical fertilizers
b. Using insecticides
c. Organic farming
d. None of the above

26. A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer
b. First order consumer
c. Second order consumer.
d. Third order consumer

27. A product of photosynthesis is

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Chlorophyll

28. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants
b. Sun
c. Inorganic nutrients
d. Animals

29. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the
same time refers to a
a. Community
b. Species
c. Population
d. Consumers

30. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter
a. Omnivores
b. Carnivores
c. Herbivores
d. Insectivores

31. The true end of any food chain is the

a. Decomposer
b. Predator
c. Consumer
d. Human

32. The second trophic level in a lake is

a. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplanktons
c. Fishes
d. Benthos

33. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession
a. Lichens
b. Humans
c. Herbs
d. Animals

34. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

a. Bidirectional
b. Unidirectional
c. Multidirectional
d. All rounds

35. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem

a. Tissue culture
b. Herbarium
c. Aquarium
d. Forest

36. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

a. Inverted
b. Upright
c. Linear
d. Irregular

37. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

a. Decrease in population growth
b. Increase in population growth
c. Zero population growth
d. Over population

38. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of

a. Herbivores
b. Primary consumers
c. Secondary consumer
d. Producers

39. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain
a. snakes and frogs
b. Insects and cattle
c. Eagle and snakes
d. Cow and rabbit

40. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates
that
a. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores
b. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency
c. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores
d. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

41. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

a. Pyramid of numbers
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of energy
d. All of the above

42. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle

a. Nitrogen cycle
b. Carbon cycle
c. Sulphur cycle

d. Phosphorus cycle
43. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of
a. Biomes
b. Biogeographically regions
c. Ecosystems
d. Biospheres

44. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

a. Lake
b. Pond
c. Grasslands
d. Forests

45. The final stable community in ecological succession is

a. Climax
b. Pioneer
c. Sere
d. Carnivores

46. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called
a. Standing state
b. Standing crop
c. Humus
d. Detritus

47. Hydrarch succession takes place in

a. Dry areas
b. Bare area
c. Wetter areas
d. None of the above

48. A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer
b. First order consumer
c. Second order consumer.
d. Third order consumer
49. A product of photosynthesis is
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Chlorophyll

50. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants
b. Sun
c. Inorganic nutrients
d. Animals

51. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the
same time refers to a
a. Community
b. Species
c. Population
d. Consumers

52. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter
a. Omnivores
b. Carnivores
c. Herbivores
d. Insectivores

53. The true end of any food chain is the

a. Decomposer
b. Predator
c. Consumer
d. Human

54. The second trophic level in a lake is

a. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplanktons
c. Fishes

d. Benthos
55. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession
a. Lichens
b. Humans
c. Herbs
d. Animals

56. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

a. Bidirectional
b. Unidirectional
c. Multidirectional
d. All rounds
57. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem
a. Tissue culture
b. Herbarium
c. Aquarium
d. Forest
58. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always
a. Inverted
b. Upright
c. Linear
d. Irregular

59. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

a. Decrease in population growth
b. Increase in population growth
c. Zero population growth
d. Over population

60. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of

a. Herbivores
b. Primary consumers
c. Secondary consumer
d. Producers

61. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain
a. snakes and frogs
b. Insects and cattle
c. Eagle and snakes
d. Cow and rabbit

62. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates
that
a. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores
b. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency
c. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores
d. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

63. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

a. Pyramid of numbers
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of energy

d. All of the above

64. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle
a. Nitrogen cycle
b. Carbon cycle
c. Sulphur cycle
d. Phosphorus cycle

65. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of
a. Biomes
b. Biogeographically regions
c. Ecosystems
d. Biospheres

66. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

a. Lake
b. Pond
c. Grasslands
d. Forests

67. The final stable community in ecological succession is

a. Climax
b. Pioneer
c. Sere
d. Carnivores

68. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called
a. Standing state
b. Standing crop
c. Humus
d. Detritus

69. Hydrarch succession takes place in

a. Dry areas
b. Bare area
c. Wetter areas
d. None of the above

70. A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer
b. First order consumer
c. Second order consumer.
d. Third order consumer

71. A product of photosynthesis is

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Chlorophyll

72. Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants
b. Sun
c. Inorganic nutrients
d. Animals

73. A group of living organisms of the same kind living in the same place and at the
same time refers to a
a. Community
b. Species
c. Population
d. Consumers

74. Which of these organisms has a diet consisting only of plant matter
a. Omnivores
b. Carnivores
c. Herbivores
d. Insectivores

75. The true end of any food chain is the

a. Decomposer
b. Predator
c. Consumer
d. Human

76. The second trophic level in a lake is

a. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplanktons
c. Fishes
d. Benthos

77. Which of the following can act as a pioneer species in a xerach succession
a. Lichens
b. Humans
c. Herbs
d. Animals

78. Energy flow in an ecosystem is

a. Bidirectional
b. Unidirectional
c. Multidirectional
d. All rounds

79. Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem

a. Tissue culture
b. Herbarium
c. Aquarium
d. Forest

80. Pyramid of energy in a pond ecosystem is always

a. Inverted
b. Upright
c. Linear
d. Irregular

81. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

a. Decrease in population growth
b. Increase in population growth
c. Zero population growth
d. Over population
82. In a pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystems, the largest population is that of
a. Herbivores
b. Primary consumers
c. Secondary consumer
d. Producers

83. Which of these belong to the category of primary consumers in grazing food chain
a. snakes and frogs
b. Insects and cattle
c. Eagle and snakes
d. Cow and rabbit

84. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem, this situation indicates
that
a. Herbivores have better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores
b. Producers have the lowest energy conversion efficiency
c. Carnivores have a better energy conversion efficacy than herbivores
d. Energy conversion efficiency is same at all trophic levels

85. Which of the ecological pyramid is always upright

a. Pyramid of numbers
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of energy

d. All of the above

86. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle
a. Nitrogen cycle
b. Carbon cycle
c. Sulphur cycle
d. Phosphorus cycle

87. Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra regions are the examples of
a. Biomes
b. Biogeographically regions
c. Ecosystems
d. Biospheres

88. The upright pyramid of numbers is absent in

a. Lake
b. Pond
c. Grasslands
d. Forests

89. The final stable community in ecological succession is

a. Climax
b. Pioneer
c. Sere
d. Carnivores
90. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any given time is called
a. Standing state
b. Standing crop
c. Humus
d. Detritus

91. Hydrarch succession takes place in

a. Dry areas
b. Bare area
c. Wetter areas
d. None of the above

92. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?

a. Oil
b. Coal
c. Natural gas
d. All of the above

93. Which of the following is not an inexhaustible form of energy?

a. Water
b. Wind
c. Solar
d. Fossil

94. Biogas contains mainly

a. Methane
b. Propane
c. Butane
d. Carbon dioxide

95. The burning of fossil fuels releases a large amount of

a. Nitrogen into air
b. Sulphur into air
c. Carbon dioxide into air
d. Oxygen into air

96. A poisonous gas given out of a vehicle exhaust is

a. Methane
b. Ethane
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide

97. The purest form of coal is

a. Anthracite
b. Lignite
c. Peat
d. Bitumen

98. Which one of the following is used as a refrigerant?

a. Freon
b. Teflon
c. Ethanol
d. Benzol

99. Loss of forest has led to

a. Erosion of fertile soil
b. Global warming
c. Loss of habitat of plants and animals
d. All of the above
100. What are the
consequences of excessive mining in an area?
a. Air and water pollution
b. Deforestation
c. Migration of large n
umbers of population
d. All of the above
101. Resources which are directly derived from nature are referred to as
a. Organic resources
b. Natural resources
c. Man made resources
d. None of the above

102. Resources that take too long a period of time to be used as a resource are called as
a. Renewable resource
b. Non-renewable resource
c. Exhaustible resource
d. Inexhaustible resource

103. The fossil fuel that is derived from the dead remains of plants that grew some 250
million years ago is
a. Petroleum
b. Natural gas
c. Coal
d. LPG

104. A resource that cannot be replaced in a reasonably short time is usually referred to
as
a. Renewable
b. Non-renewable
c. Natural
d. Man made

105. Man made resources are alternative to natural resources for a variety of reasons.
Which of these would not be one of those?
a. They increase variety and choice
b. They are cheaper to produce than natural resources
c. They are made from renewable resources
d. They are better suited for the purpose for which they will be used
106. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
a. Coal
b. Oil
c. Natural gas
d. Uranium

107. A liquid fuel that was formed from the ancient remains of sea plants and animals is
a. Natural gas
b. Petroleum
c. Geothermal energy
d. Coal

108. Energy in the rays from the sun is called

a. Solar energy
b. Wind energy
c. Tidal energy
d. Water energy

109. Which is a list of renewable resources?

a. Petroleum, geothermal, wind
b. Biomass, geothermal, hydropower
c. Natural gas, wind, biomass
d. Hydropower, solar, wind energy

110. Energy from the heat inside the earth is

a Natural gas
b. Geothermal
c. Petroleum
d. Terrathermal

111. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our
___________
a. Coal reserves
b. Coal resources
c. Coal reservoirs
d. None of these

112. Which out of the following are the causes of soil erosion?
a. Unrestricted grazing
b. Over cultivation
c. Deforestation
d. All of the above

113. The process of restoring forests that once existed but was removed at some time in
the past is known as
a. Afforestation
b. Reforestation
c. Deforestation
d. None of these
114. Red data book contains data of
a. All plant species
b. All animal species
c. Threatened species
d. Economically important species

115. IUCN Headquarters is at

a. Morges, Switzerland
b. Paris, France
c. Vienna, Austria
d. New York, USA

116. Which of the following regions has the maximum diversity?

a. Mangroves
b. Temperate forest
c. Taiga
d. Coral reefs

117. The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is

a. Habitat pollution
b. Over exploitation
c. Habitat destruction
d. Introduction of exotic species

118. Dodo is
a. Endangered species
b. Rare species
c. Extinct species
d. Exotic species

119. Blue whale is placed under

a. Endangered
b. Rare
c. Extinct
d. Exotic

120. Conservation within the natural habitat is

a. Ex-situ conservation
b. In-situ conservation
c. Ex-vivo conservation
d. In-vivo conservation

121. Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation?
a. Zoo
b. National Park
c. Wild life Sanctuary
d. Biosphere Reserve

122. Ex-situ conservation includes

a. Zoo
b. Botanical Garden
c. Germplasm Bank
d. All of the above

123. Hotspots are regions of high

a. Rareism
b. Endemism
c. Diversity
d. Critically endangered population

124. Endemic species are

a. Rare species
b. Species localized in a specific region
c. Cosmopolitan in distribution
d. None of these

125. Which one of the following has the maximum genetic diversity in India?
a. Tea
b. Teak
c. Mango
d. Wheat

126. Which one of the following regions in India is a hotspot of biodiversity?

a. Sundarbans
b. Western Ghats
c. Eastern Ghats
d. Gangetic plains

127. Darwin’s finches are a good example of

a. Convergent evolution
b. Adaptive radiation
c. Connecting link
d. Industrial melanism

128. Which group of vertebrates comprises of highest number of species

a. Mammals
b. Fishes
c. Reptiles
d. Birds

129. 5th June is observed as

a. World environment day
b. World forest day
c. World population day
d. World wildlife day

130. The unfavorable alteration of environment by human activities is termed as

a. Ecological disturbance
b. Ecological degradation
c. Pollution
d. Catastrophe

131. Biogas contains mainly

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Methane
c. Butane
d. Propane

132. Main source of acid rain is

a. Sulphur dioxide
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide

133. Treated water can be disinfected by adding

a. Alum
b. Fluorine
c. Chlorine
d. Oxygen

134. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amount of

a. Nitrogen
b. Sulphur
c. Carbon
d. Hydrogen

135. Which of the following does not causes air pollution when used for heating
purposes
a. Coal
b. Petrol
c. Kerosene
d. Solar energy

136. pH of rainwater is
a. 5-6
b. 6-7
c. 7-8
d. 8-9

137. A poisonous gas given out of vehicles exhaust is

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Ethane
c. Methane
d. Carbon dioxide

138. A common bactericide used in swimming pools is

a. Chlorine
b. Alum
c. Borax
d. DDT
139. Green house effect is linked to
a. Nitrogen oxides
b. Sulphur dioxides
c. Carbon dioxides
d. Carbon monoxides

140. Disposable glasses and plates are made up of

a. PVC
b. Polystyrene
c. Polyvinyl alcohol
d. Polypropylene

141. Aerosols consisting of solid particles produced by combustion

a. Fog
b. Smog
c. Smoke
d. None of these

142. Which of the following are consequences of ozone depletion

a. Skin cancer and cataract
b. Reduced growth in plants
c. Shortening of zooplanktons and their breeding period
d. All of the above

143. Which out of the following is a measure to control air pollution

a. Reduction in use of fossil fuels
b. Increasing use of renewable energy resources
c. Using catalytic convertors in vehicles
d. All of the above

144. The discharge of warm/hot water directly into rivers is known as

a. Water pollution
b. Thermal pollution
c. Marine pollution
d. None of the above

145. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is an effect of

a. Acid rain
b. Global warming
c. Ozone depletion
d. All of the above

146. Identify the aftermaths of acid rain from the following

a. Dissolving and washing away of nutrients from the soil
b. Increasing the acidity of soils, thereby hindering the growth of plants
c. Damaging the building materials/ heritage sites
d. All of the above

147. Increase in concentration of toxic level in each trophic level is referred to as

a. Eutrophication
b. Biomagnification
c. Bioaccumulation
d. Bioconcentration

148. Pollutants that are easily manageable and decomposable in nature are called
a. Biodegradable pollutants
b. Non-biodegradable pollutants
c. Renewable pollutants
d. None of these

149. The supersonic jets cause air pollution by the thinning of

a. Carbon dioxide layer
b. Sulphur dioxide layer
c. Ozone layer
d. Oxygen layer

150. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution

a. Bryophytes
b. Pteridophytes
c. Lichens
d. Algae

151. BOD stands for

a. Biotic oxidation demand
b. Biological oxygen demand
c. Biological oxidation demand
d. Biochemical oxygen demand

152. A river with high BOD value means

a. Highly polluted
b. Highly clean
c. Highly productive
d. None of the above

153. Which gas is responsible for ozone layer depletion around earth?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Chlorofluorocarbons
c. Oxygen
d. Nitrogen oxide

154. What is Kyoto Protocol?

a. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming.
b. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing acid rain.
c. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for planting trees to control pollution.
d. It is an agreement among countries to start using nuclear energy.

155. Possible health effects of noise pollution includes

a. Hearing loss
b. Hypertension
c. Cardiovascular effects
d. All of the above

156. Noise is measured by sound meter and the unit is

a. Hertz
b. Joule
c. Decibel
d. Seconds
157. Which of the following are major causes of land degradation?
a. Soil erosion
b. Water logging
c. Deforestation
d. Desertification

158. The main components of photochemical smog is

a. Water vapors
b. Nitrogen oxides
c. Sulphur oxides
d. All of the above

159. Which gas is responsible for the global warming?

a. Nitrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Noble gases
d. Hydrogen

160. Which country has organized its cabinet meeting under the sea to drag attention of
the world towards the Global Warming and its threats?
a. Maldives
b. Sri Lanka
c. Fiji
d. Indonesia

161. Which of the following effect is responsible for Global Warming?

a. Green house effect
b. Radioactive effect
c. Solar effect
d. Nuclear effect

162. Which of the following greenhouse gas is entirely anthropogenic in origin?

a. CFCs
b. Methane
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water vapor

163. Which of the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect has the lowest
degree of certainty?
a. Addition of greenhouse gases to the atmosphere results in increased heat energy in the
atmosphere
b. Global warming will result in an increase in the number of tropical storms
c. Global warming will result in rising sea levels
d. The concentrations of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are increasing due to human
activities.

164. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a. Methane
b. Ozone
c. Water vapor
d. Carbon dioxide

165. The two major impacts expected as a result of rising global temperatures are
a. Higher water levels in lakes and streams but more consistent flooding patterns
b. Regional climatic changes and a rise in sea level
c. Longer summers and drier winters
d. Low water levels in lakes and streams and larger floodplains.

166. How are humans making greenhouse gases of our own?

a. Burning fossil fuels
b. Burning forests
c. With large scale agriculture
d. All of these

167. The solar radiation that bounces off the earth back towards the atmosphere is
mostly
a. Gamma radiation
b. X-ray radiation
c. Ultraviolet radiation
d. Infrared radiation

168. Things you can do to decrease global warming include

a. Reduce the usage of your air conditioner on high
b. Turn off your light when you are not using them.
c. Use public transports instead of personal vehicles for transportation.
d. All of the above

169. Excess atmospheric carbon dioxide increases green house effect as carbon dioxide
a. Precipitates dust in the atmosphere
b. Is opaque to infrared rays
c. Reduces atmospheric pressure
d. Is heavier than other gases

170. Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of global warming?
a. More extreme weather patterns
b. Retreat of glaciers
c. Sea level rise
d. An increase of UV-B radiation

171. Which of the following processes adds to the removal of carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere?
a. Burning fossil fuels
b. Photosynthesis
c. Respiration
d. Deforestation

172. Which is the only country who has not ratified the Kyoto Protocol yet?
a. United States
b. Australia
c. Japan
d. India

173. Ozone day is observed on

a. 3rd January
b. 16th September
c. 10th November
d. 26th March

174. Ozone layer is present in

a. Troposphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Thermosphere
d. Stratosphere

175. Which one of the following gases can deplete the ozone layer in the upper
atmosphere?
a. Methane
b. Ammonia
c. Carbon tetrachloride
d. Sulphur dioxide

176. Peeling of Ozone umbrella, which protects us from UV rays, is caused by

a. Carbon monoxide
b. CFCs
c. Coal burning
d. Methane

177. Formation of hole in Ozone is maximum over

a. India
b. Europe
c. Antarctica
d. Africa

178. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of
a. Global warming
b. Ozone depletion
c. Acid rain
d. Pollution

179. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

a. Ozone is a major constituent of photochemical smog
b. Ozone is highly reactive
c. It protects us from harmful UV radiations of sun
d. All of the above

180. Thickness of ozone layer is measured in

a. Decibels
b. Dobson unit
c. Meter
d. Armstrong unit
181. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone is
a. Chlorine
b. Fluorine
c. Carbons
d. Nitrogen peroxide

182. In the breakdown of the ozone layer, the ozone (O3) directly reacts with
a. Ultraviolet light
b. Chlorine atoms
c. Oxygen atoms
d. CFC molecules

183. A population is a group of

a. Individual in a family
b. Individuals in a species
c. Communities in an ecosystem
d. Species in a community

184. The main cause of world population growth in 18th and 19th centuries was
a. Decrease in birth rates
b. Decrease in death rates
c. Industrial revolution
d. None of these

185. What is most important factor for the success of animal population?
a. Natality
b. Adaptability
c. Interspecies activity
d. Unlimited food

186. Human population growth is

a. Horizontal line
b. L-shaped curve
c. J-shaped curve
d. Parabola curve

187. The main factors contributing to the decline in death rate in 20th century were
a. Improved agricultural practices and increased birth rates
b. Improved health care, sanitation and nutrition
c. Endemic poverty and low levels of education
d. European colonization and improved agriculture practices
188. The world population in 2000 was approximately
a. 5.1 billion
b. 2.1 billion
c. 6 billion
d. 8 billon

189. The average life expectancy around the world is currently

a. Stable
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Not changing

190. Exponential growth in population occurs when there is

a. A great environment resistance
b. No environment resistance
c. A fixed carrying capacity
d. No biotic potential

191. The disease which wiped out 33% of population of Europe in the 12th and
13th centuries was
a. Cholera
b. Meningitis
c. Plague
d. Diphtheria

192. A human population is small, there is greater chance of

a. Mutation
b. Gene flow
c. Genetic drift
d. Natural selection

193. Which of the following is a problem not associated with population growth?
a. Increased resource consumption
b. Environmental pollution
c. Food and energy shortages
d. None of these

194. Unrestricted reproductive capacity, in a population, is called

a. Birth rate
b. Carrying capacity
c. Fertility rate
d. Biotic potential

195. The concept that “population increases geometrically while food supply increases
arithmetically” was given by
a. Stuart Mill
b. Charles Darwin
c. Adam Smith
d. Thomas Malthus
196. Population pyramids are useful to
a. Express the population growth rates
b. Indicate the birth rates
c. Indicate the death rates
d. Express age – sex distribution of a population

197. The carrying capacity of a population is determined by

a. Population growth rate
b. Natality
c. Mortality
d. Limiting resources

198. HIV is not likely to be transmitted by

a. Sharing needles of injections
b. Mosquito bites
c. Blood transfusion
d. Breast feeding

199. Today, the world’s number one problem is:

a. Pollution
b. Population explosion
c. Nuclear proliferation
d. Natural calamities

200. Population explosion has occurred in the last

a. 500 years
b. 300 years
c. 400 years
d. 150 years

201. Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of future growth is
called
a. Demography
b. Psychology
c. Biography
d. Kalography

202. One of the critical mechanism by which the environment controls population of
species is
a. Spread of disease
b. Removal of excreta
c. Supply of food
d. Control on death rate

203. If the rate of addition of new member’s increases with respect to the individual lost
of the same population, then the graph obtained has
a. Decline growth
b. Zero growth
c. Exponential growth
d. None of these
204. The number of babies produced per thousand individuals is called
a. Natality
b. Mortality
c. Immigration
d. Emigration

205. The zero population growth due to equal birth and death rates is called
a. Fertility rate
b. Replacement level
c. Natural increase
d. Demographic transition

206. Demographic features of developing countries are

a. High infant mortality, low fertility, young age distribution and uneven population growth
b. High fertility, high density, high mortality rate and young age distribution
c. High fertility, falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and young age distribution
d. High density, high mortality, uneven population growth and very old age distribution

207. Density of a population (D) is

a. D = S(size) / W(weight)
b. D = S(space) / N(number)
c. D = N(number) / S(space)
d. None of the above
208. Each environment
supports a limited population depending upon its
a. Biotic potential
b. Carrying capacity
c. Natality
d. Reproductive potential

209. Group of interbreeding organisms found in a particular area is

a. Population
b. Community
c. Tribe
d. Density

210. In India, human population has higher number of younger age group because of
a. Long life span and low birth rate
b. Short life span and high birth rate
c. Short life span and low birth rate
d. Birth rate is equal to death rate

211. July 11 is
a. World Environment Day
b. World Population Day
c. World AIDS Day
d. World Education Day
212. Number of births per 1000 is
a. Growth rate
b. Conception rate
c. Reproduction rate
d. Crude birth rate

213. Interdisciplinary nature of EVS addresses environmental issues by using the

contents and methods of:
(a) Science and Social Science
(b) Social Science & Environmental Education
(c) Science
(d) Science, Social Science & Environmental Education

214. Which of the following is not a function of roots and plants?

(a) Storing Food
(b) Providing Humus
(c) Giving Support to the Plant
(d) Absorbing water & minerals

215. ‘Experimentation’ is one of the indicators of assessment. Which of the following is

the most appropriate way of assessing experimentation indicator?
(a) Picture Reading
(b) Creative Writing
(c) Demonstrations
(d) Hands-on creativity

216. The neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu are

(a) Kerala, Karnataka & Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala, Gujarat & Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh, Goa & Karnataka
(d) Goa, Karnataka, & Kerala

217. ‘Kuduk’ is a local language of the people of?

(a) Mizoram
(b) Manipur
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand

218. As per NCF 2005, which of the following is the theme of EVS?
(a) Food
(b) Weather
(c) Energy
(d) Solar System

219. ‘Worli’ is a traditional art form, it is in which state?

(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Bihar
220. Which of the following places is termed as ‘Cold Desert’ of Our
Country?
(a) Ladakh
(b) Leh
(c) Ooty
(d) Manali

212. Which one of the following is not a seed?

(a) Black Pepper
(b) Wheat
(c) Sago
(d) Aniseed

213. Which of the following disease can be caused by stagnant water?

(a) Chicken Pox
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Malaria
(d) Polio

214. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of roots of a Banyan
Tree?
(a) Their roots store the food
(b) They are underground roots
(c) Roots hang down from the tree branches
(d) roots provide support to trees like pillars

215. Poems and stories are effective in transacting the theme of EVS. This is because
poems and stories:
(a) can provide the contextual learning environment
(b) can nurture creativity and aesthetic sense
(c) can be rich depictions of the child’s environment
(d) can explain various concepts

216. While making groups for an activity, an EVS teacher should:

(a) make 2 groups only, each with a lot of students
(b) make groups according to their marks
(c) ensure separate groups for boys and girls
(d) ensure cooperation and participation of all students

217. The nature of environment studies does not advocate that:

(a) children get space to learn by doing
(b) children ask a lot of questions
(c) children get a lot of space to explore
(d) children make fewer mistakes

218. ‘Community’ is an important teaching-learning resource in EVS at

primary level because:
(a) it is an easily available resource
(b) it is a very inexpensive resource
(c) it comprises wise & elderly people
(d) it provides learning opportunity in real setting

219. NCF has not recommended any prescribed curriculum and textbooks for EVS for
classes I & II. The most appropriate reason for this is:
(a) to reduce the load of curriculum
(b) EVS is only for class III onwards
(c) learners in classes I & II cannot read and write
(d) to provide a contextual learning environment

220. Which of the following should not be an appropriate indicator for assessment in
EVS at primary level?
(a) Remembering
(b) Questioning
(c) Concern for justice & equality
(d) Cooperation

221. ‘Mapping’ at primary level promotes which of the following skills in learners?
(a) Neat Drawing
(b) Calculations & Study Plan
(c) Drawing according to Scale
(d) Idea about relative positions and orientations

222. This plant has leaves which are used as vegetables. Its seeds are used to produce oil.
(a) Spinach
(b) Mustard
(c) Cabbage
(d) Coconut

223.Select from the following a group of diseases caused by mosquitoes;

(a) Malaria, Dengue, Cholera
(b) Dengue Malaria, Chikunguniya
(c) Malaria, cholera, typhoid
(d) Malaria, Chikunguniya, typhoid

224. EVS teaching should encourage process skills, which are the core of enquiry-based,
hands-on learning. Which of the following is not a skill?
(a) Predicting
(b) Observing
(c) Determining
(d) Inferring

225. If we observe birds, we find that most of the birds often move their neck. It is
because:
(a) in most of the birds, the eyes are fixed and cannot move
(b) their ears are covered and they can fly
(c) the birds have two eyes
(d) their eyes can focus on two different objects at a time.

226. The neighbouring states of Kerala are:

(a) Tamil Nadu & Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka & Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh & Karnataka
(d) Karnataka & Tamil Nadu

227. In which one of the following states of our country do most people like to eat sea
fish cooked in coconut oil?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Goa
(d) Bihar

228. Which of the following characteristics is shared by all of the following? Lizard,
Sparrow, Turtle, Snake
(a) They lay eggs.
(b) They are poisonous.
(c) They can live on land as well as in water.
(d) Their bodies are covered with scales.

229. A person living in New Delhi wants to visit Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) first and
then Ranchi (Jharkhand). The directions of his journey will be first towards:
(a) east and then towards south
(b) west & then towards south
(c) south & then towards east
(d) south & then towards west

230. Aseem likes mangoes. He wants to preserve the mangoes for winters. Which one of
the following will be a good way to preserve them?
(a) make ‘aampapad’ and pickle
(b) Put it in a plastic bag
(c) Store in a refrigerator
(d) prepare juice & store in an air tight container

231. Bronze is a mixture of 2 metals. These 2 metals are:

(a) Copper & Zinc
(b) Copper & Tin
(c) Copper & Iron
(d) Aluminum & Tin

232. “Desert Oak” is a tree whose roots go deep into the ground till they reach water.
The depth of these roots is nearly 30 times the height of the tree. Where can you find
this tree?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Australia
(c) Abu Dhabi
(d) Russia

233. Which is the best period for the people of Bihar to start beekeeping?
(a) January to March
(b) April to June
(c) July to September
(d) October to December

234. In Braille script, rows of raised dots are made on a thick paper. The script is based
on:
(a) 4 points
(b) 6 points
(c) 8 points
(d) 10 points

235. Which of the following birds can see 4 times as far as we can see?
(a) Crows, Kites, nightingale
(b) Eagles, Pigeons, Parrots
(c) Kites, Eagles, Vultures
(d) Doves, Crows, Peacocks

236. Which one of the following birds can rotate its neck backwards to a large extent?
(a) Owl
(b) Mynah
(c) Crow
(d) Sparrow

237. Which one of the following is not a suitable Formative Assessment task in EVS?
(a) Explain the Definitions of important terms given in the lesson.
(b) Perform the given practical activity and record your observations
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of given experimental set-up
(d) discuss disadvantages of water pollutions

238. Reema wants to introduce the topic “Nutrition” to her class V students. She
should:
(a) draw the diagram of the digestive system on the blackboard
(b) give examples of different foods rich in nutrients
(c) use chart showing different kinds of foods
(d) ask the students to open their tiffin boxes, see the contents, followed
by her explanations.

239. Out of the following ways, the most effective way to arouse curiosity among class
VI students is:
(a) provide more hands-on experience
(b) give them more practice in written works
(c) ask probing and imaginative questions
(d) conduct frequent unit tests

240. Pochampally is a village famous for a special kind of cloth, which is also called the
Pochampally. The village is a part of:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala

240. Select the true statements from the following:

I. Elephants love to play with muddy water as it keeps their skin cool
II. Most elephants like to take rest and sleep nearly 10 hours a day.
III. A 3-month old elephant weighs about 300 kg.
IV. Most Adult elephants eat about 100 kg of leaves/twigs in one day.
(a) II & IV only
(b) I & IV only
(c) I, III & IV only
(d) I & II only

241.What is the Dead Sea?

(a) A sea whose water is poisonous
(b) A seas which is saltiest of all oceans and seas
(c) A sea in which high & low tides are very frequent
(d) A sea in which it is dangerous to sail ships

242. A good home assignment in EVS should primarily focus on:

(a) revision & reinforcement
(b) mastery learning
(c) Challenge & Excitement
(d) better utilization of time

243. A good EVS curriculum at the primary stage should:

(a) includes more practice questions in end exercises
(b) provide opportunities to explore surroundings
(c) focus more on detailed explanations of concepts
(d) emphasise more on exact definitions of terms

244. Poems and stories are included in EVS textbooks for the primary stage in order to:
(a) develop literary skills in students.
(b) provide fun and enjoyment in learning of the subject.
(c) enhance understanding of fundamental concepts.
(d) have a change in routine and monotony of presentations of content.

245. Which of the following is not a suitable activity at primary stage to sensitize
students to the concepts of conservation of trees?
(a) organizing a slogan writing competitions on the trees
(b) Encouraging every student to adopt a tree and look after it.
(c) showing children storage of logs of woods
(d) organizing a poster making competitions on trees.

246. Which one of the following be more effective learning experience to emphasis on
social inequalities in an EVS class?
(a) Showing video films of the related issues
(b) Organizing special lectures on the related issue.
(c) conducting a quiz on the issue.
(d) asking students to undertake group projects.

247. The technique of classroom questioning in teaching of EVS can be used best for:
(a) drawing attention of students
(b) arousing curiosity on learners
(c) promoting practical skills
(d) maintaining discipline in the class

248. The animals that are awake at night can see objects
(a) in all colors
(b) only in black & white colors
(c) in green color only
(d) in red color only

249. Who was Al-Biruni?

(a) A Qutabshahi Sultan who ruled our country for about 40 years.
(b) A trader from Afghanistan who came to study the dry fruit markets of
our country.
(c) A traveler from Uzbekistan who wrote a book which is helpful to
know the past of our country.
(d) A traveler who travelled from Kashmir to Kanyakumari to study the
culture of Indian people.

250. Inside the petals, in the middle of the flower, we find a thin powder structure
called:
(a) Anther
(b) Pollen
(c) Radicle
(d) Stigma

251. Higher priority and space has been given in NCERT textbooks on EVS to;
(a) to develop interest in the subject
(b) to have a change in routine and monotonous content
(c) to provide fun and enjoyment for learners
(d) to promote imaginative and creative ability in learners

252. Experimenting, Exploring, Investigating & Questioning constitute essential

elements of active learning of EVS. A teacher arranges the followings activities related
to the concepts of ‘Food we should eat’
(a) draws diagrams of all such foods on the blackboard.
(b) Gives Examples of different foods with essential components of each
food.
(c) asks students to collect related information from all possible sources.
(d) shows a video on the topic

253. Which of the following facts are incorrect?

1. Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth’s climate
system
2. Eutrophication is observed in water bodies
3. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
4. Ozone is harmless to breathe

254. Areas that are under the influence of DDT may observe a decline in the population
of birds. This is due to the fact that
 1. Birds stopped laying eggs altogether
2. The eggs did not hatch
3. Predation of the eggs increased
4. None of the above.

255. Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand) is primarily used for

1. Estimating the types of microbes

2. Determine the level of dissolved oxygen
3. Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water
4. None of the above

256. Cosmic rays, such as gamma rays are a source of

1. Soil Pollution
2. Noise Pollution
3. Thermal Pollution
4. Radiation pollution

257. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is

1. Regulation of hazardous wastes

2. Regulate the production of nuclear energy
3. Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
4. None of the above

258. The presence of _________ in a water body is an indicator of water pollution.

1. Zygosporangium
2. E.Coli
3. Deinococcus radiodurans
4. None of the above

259. Eggshells of birds become unusually thin when exposed to the pesticides in their
environment. The protein that gets affected is ________

1. Calmodulin
2. Cysteine
3. Serine
4. None of the above

260. Lichens are good bioindicators for

1. Environmental radiation
2. Soil pollution
3. Water and air pollution
4. None of the above

261. A moth having a speckled wing, able to blend into its background due to its dark
colouration is called
 1. Industrial melanism
2. Adaptation
3. Predation
4. Evolution

262. Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse gas because

1. Traps heat
2. Traps light
3. Traps warm currents
4. None of the above

263. Trichoderma harzianum is a ________ that is predominantly used as a fungicide

1. Virus
2. Fungus
3. Bacteria
4. Protozoa

264. Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit infrared radiation. Examples
inlude__________

1. Nitrogen
2. Ozone
3. Argon
4. None of the above

265. Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human health. Negative effects include

1. Skin cancers
2. Osteoporosis
3. Dyspepsia
4. None of the above

266. __________ is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem.

1. Decomposers
2. Predator
3. Bio-remediator
4. Bioindicator

267. _________ is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes are converted to
the residue and gaseous products through combustion.

1. Incarnation
2. Incineration
3. Incarceration
4. Incubation

268. Which pyramid is always upright?

 a) Energy b) Biomass c) Number d)All

269. The study of interaction between living organisms and environment is called as
a) Ecosystem b) Ecology c) Phytogeography d) Phytosociology

270. A food web consists of

a) A portion of a food chain c) Interlocking of food chain
b) An organisms position in a food chain d) A set of similar consumers

271. Pyramid of Biomass represents

a) Organic matter at each trophic level b) Energy at each trophic level
c) Organisms at each trophic level d) Biotic & abiotics at each trophic level

272. Which sphere of the environment is having the least storage capacity for matter
a) Biosphere b) Hydrosphere c) lithosphere d) atmosphere

273. The temperature difference of stratosphere is

a) 250 C to 550 C b) -560 C to -20 C c) 100 C to -50 C d) none

274. Mesosphere extends to an altitude of

a) 80 to 90 Km b) 75 to 105 Km c) 55 to 100 Km d) 65 to 125 Km

275. The upper most layer of the atmosphere is called

a) Thermosphere b) Exosphere c) Mesosphere d) Troposphere

276. Which of the following is a lotic type of ecosystem?

a) Lake b) River c) Ocean d) All

277. The government of India adopted National Housing and Habitat Policy in the
year
a) 1998 b) 1996 c) 1995 d) 2000

278. Increased use of pesticides causes

a) Genetic Damage b) Genetic Resistance c) Crop damage d) All

279. World Habitat Day is celebrated on

a) June 5 b) December 8 c) October 6 d) May 8

280. Shelter is created by mankind for his

a) Security b) Privacy c) Protection d) All

281. The EPF and MP act came up in the year-

a) 1948 b) 1923 c) 1961 d) 1952

282. Which of the following is not a step in the EIA process?

a) Identification b) Monitoring & Auditing c) EIS d) Mirroring

283. Organisms which feed on producers directly or indirectly are called

a) Prey b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Detritus
 284. Theme of World Environment Day 2020 is
a) ‘Seven Billion Dreams, One planet, Consume with Care
b) ‘Eat with ecology in mind’
c) ‘Small Islands and climate change’
d) ‘Time for Nature’

285. Organic farming is farming without

a) Synthetic fertilizers b) Pesticides c) Green manures d) Both a & b

286. Outflow of acidic water from abandoned metal mines is called

a) Alkaline liquor b) Acidic liquor c) Acid mine drainage d) All

287. Sustainable development requires change in

a) Use of natural resources b) Elimination of waste
c) Consumption of energy d) All

288. Most commonly used mineral is

a) Soil b) Iron c) Coal d) Copper

289. Decomposers are also called as___________ of Biosphere

a) Reusers b) Reviewers c) Recyclers d) Recovers

290. Which of the following is not a kind of food chain?

a) Predators food chain b) Organic food chain
c) Parasitic food chain d) Saprophytic food chain

291. Food and Agricultural Organization of United Nations provides information

on
a) Quality of food produced b) Dietary differences of the countries
c) Each countries total food supplies d) All

292. Which of the following sponsors several housing schemes in India?

a) VAMBAY b) SJSRY c) IAY d) HUDCO

293. Precipitation and Runoff are the key words related to,
a) Carbon Cycle b) Hydrological Cycle c) Sulphur Cycle d) All

294. Which of the following is a biotic resource?

a) Forest b) Iron c) Water land d) Minerals

295. Which of the following uses maximum quantity of water?

a) Domestic use b) Industries c) Agriculture d) Recreation

296. Aeration of water is done to

a) Decrease oxygen content b) Remove solids
c) Remove Iron & Manganese d) All

297. The most commonly used disinfectant is

a) Alum b) Calcium c) Chlorine d) None
298. The most commonly used coagulant is
a) Alum b) Calcium c) Chlorine d) None

299. At present, Karnataka is having a forest cover of -

a) 24% b) 16.4% c) 20.19% d) 21.9%

300. India is the world leader in the production of

a) Mica b) Iron c) Coal d) Aluminium

301. Excessive concentration of nitrate in drinking water causes

a) Dehydration b) Obesity c) Blue baby syndrome d) none

302. Desired concentration of fluoride in drinking water is

a) 0.5 - 2 mg/L b) 1 - 2 mg/L c) 1 - 1.5 mg/L d) 1.5 - 3 mg/L

303. Which of the following mineral is used in manufacturing coins?

a) Coal b) Nickle c) Aluminium d) All

304. Which district of Karnataka contains highest fluoride groundwater content?

a) Kolar b) Gulbarga c) Raichur d) Chitradurga

305. Water induced diseases are caused due to

a) Fecal contamination b) Sewage c) Toxic matter d) Both a & b

306. Which of the following falls under gaseous cycle?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Sulphur d) All

307. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a) Gas b) Oil c) Peat d) Uranium

308. LPG is a mixture of

a) Nitrogen & Oxygen b) Nitrogen & Methane c) Propane & Butane
d) none

309. Biomass power generation uses

a) Crops b) Animal dung c) Wood d) All

310. The atom bomb is a nuclear explosive based on

a) Nuclear Fusion b) Nuclear Fission c) Nuclear hydrogen reaction d) All

311. The world's annual energy consumption is increasing at a rate of

a) 5 - 10 % b) 10 - 20 % c) 15 - 20 % d) 2 - 5 %

312. Hydrogen can be produced commercially by

a) Cracking of ammonia b) Electrolysis of water c) Both a & b d) Gasification

313. Heating of coal in absence of air to produce coal gas is called

 a) Carbonization of coal b) Coal gasification
c) Coal liquification d) All

314. Percentage of ash in Indian coal is

a) 35 - 45 % b) 25 - 50 % c) 10 - 28 % d) 25 - 30 %

315. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at

a) Kaiga b) Kolar c) Sandur d) Raichur

316. The Chernobyl disaster was an accident in

a) Leakage in gas plant b) Petroleum industry
c) Nuclear Power plant d) all

317. Solar cell generates electricity from sunlight by

a) Flow of charged carriers b) Flow of heat
c) Flow of energy d) All

318. EMR propagates energy at a rate of

a) 3 X 106 m/sec b) 30 X 108 m/sec c) 3 X 108 m/sec d) None

319. Atmospheric pollutants are largely present in

a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Thermosphere d) All
320. Maximum dissolved oxygen is required by
a) Vegetation b) Bacteria c) Fish d) None
321. Many people died in London in 1952 as a result of
a) Fog b) Mist c) Smoke d) Smog

322. Noise pollution from automobiles can be controlled by providing

a) Silencers b) Catalytic converters c) Scrubbers d) All
323. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by providing
a) Silencers b) Catalytic converters c) Scrubbers d) All

324. The noise level humans can hear without any discomfort is
a) 120dB b) 80dB c) 110dB d) 190dB

325. Demography is the study of

a) Animals behavior b) Population Growth c) Rivers d) All

326. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant

 a) CO b) SO2 c) Acid Rain d) CO2

327. The world’s population in the year 2000 was around

a) 8 billion b) 6.1 billion c) 6.5 billion d) 8 billion
328. Plants grown by road side have high content of
a) Lead b) Copper c) Chromium d) Calcium

329. The ozone layer is present in

a) Thermosphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Troposphere

330. Which color of bins is not used in segregation of biomedical waste?

a) Red b) Blue c) Yellow d) Green

331. Air pollution control device used for removing finest dust particle from air is
a) Cyclone Scrubber b) Electrostatic Precipitator c) Gravity Chamber d) All

332. Average thickness of ozone layer across the globe is

a) 200 DU b) 300 DU c) 100 DU d) 500DU

333. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

a) September 5 b) December 16 c) October 16 d) September 16

334. Disposal of biomedical waste is done by

a) Autoclaving b) Incineration c) land filling d) All

335. The protocol that reduces Green House gas emissions is

a) Kyoto protocol b) Montreal protocol c) Vienna protocol d) None

336. Which of the following is not a treatment option for processing e-waste?
a) Microwaving b) Open burning c) Chemical Stripping d) Acid bath

337. The process of movement of nutrients from soil by acid rain is called
a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Leaching d) Infiltration

338. Which state in India produces largest quantity of e-waste?

a) Jharkhand b) Maharashtra c) Karnataka d) Uttar Pradesh

339. What is the average quantity of biomedical waste generated per patient per day
in Indian hospitals?
a) 1.5 Kg b) 1.45 Kg c) 1.75 Kg d) 1.8 Kg

340. pH of acid rain is about

a) 8.7 b) 5.9 c) 7.2 d) 5.6

341. Reduction in brightness of the famous Taj Mahal is due to

a) Soil erosion b) Acid rain c) Global Warming d) Ozone depletion

342. What should be the concentration of Suspended Particulate Matter in residential

area?
a) 500 µg/m3 b) 200 µg/m3 c) 70 µg/m3 d) 100 µg/m3
343. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by installing
a) Scrubber b) Silencers c) Wet collectors d) Catalytic converters

344. Estimated sea level rise by the year 2030 due to global warming is
a) 5 to 10 cm b) 10 to 20 cm c) 10 to 30 cm d) 10 to 15 cm