Biology

Cell — The Structural and Functional
Unit of Life
Class 10 - Selina Concise Biology Solutions
Very Short Answer Type
Question 1
Identify the cellular structures with the help of the following clues:
(a) It synthesizes the respiratory enzymes.
(b) It is made up of lipoprotein.
(c) A non-living rigid layer surrounding the plasma membrane.
(d) Supportive framework for the cell.
(e) It consists of cisternae, vesicles and vacuoles.
(f) It destroys foreign substances.
(g) It gives turgidity to the plant cells.
(h) It is made up of DNA threads.
(i) It contains chromatin fibres.
(j) It initiates and regulates cell division.
Answer
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cell membrane/plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
(e) Golgi apparatus
(f) Lysosomes
(g) Vacuoles
(h) Chromatin fibres
(i) Nucleus
(j) Centrosome
Question 2
Give two examples of each:
(a) Unicellular animals
(b) Unicellular plants
(c) Cell organelles
(d) Cell inclusions
(e) Stains which make the nucleus distinct.
Answer
(a) Unicellular animals — Amoeba, Paramecium
(b) Unicellular plants — Chlamydomonas, Diatoms
(c) Cell organelles — Mitochondria, Nucleus
(d) Cell inclusions — Pigments, Granules
(e) Stains which make the nucleus distinct — Iodine, Eosin.
Question 3
Name the following:
(a) A plastid without pigment.
(b) A pigment which is not found in plastids.
(c) The orange-red pigment found in the chromoplast.
(d) Scattered Golgi complex, found in plant cells.
(e) Amoeboid blood cells of human body.
(f) The smallest cell of human body.

(g) Bean-shaped cells of stomata.
(h) The part of cytoplasm which is devoid of the organelles.
(i) The folds/finger-like projections from the inner wall of the mitochondria.
(j) The tubules of Golgi complex.
Answer
(a) Leucoplast
(b) Anthocyanin
(c) Carotene
(d) Dictyosomes
(e) White blood cells (WBCs)
(f) Red blood cells (RBCs)
(g) Guard cells
(h) Cytosol
(i) Cristae
(j) Cisternae
Descriptive Type
Question 1
Define the following terms:
(a) Cell
(b) Organelles
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Protoplasm
(e) Nucleus
Answer
(a) Cell — Cell is the structural and functional unit of life capable of independent existence. All
cells are basically alike in chemical composition and metabolic processes and arise from a pre-
existing cell.
(b) Organelles — Organelles are specialized and membrane-bound, living structures in a cell
concerned with definite functions.
(c) Cytoplasm — Cytoplasm is the part of the cell which is inside the cell membrane and outside
the nucleus. It is a semi-liquid substance and contains several organelles, each concerned with a
specific function.
(d) Protoplasm — The living parts of the cell which consist of cytoplasm, nucleus and other
living bodies collectively constitute protoplasm or protoplast.
(e) Nucleus — Nucleus is a large spherical body lying nearly in the centre of the cytoplasm. It is
surrounded by a double layered nuclear membrane with nuclear pores.
Question 2
Distinguish between the following pairs:
(a) Plant cell and animal cell
(b) Cell wall and cell membrane
(c) Centrosome and chromosome
(d) Chloroplast and chromoplast
Answer
Features Plant cell Animal cell
Size It is usually larger in size. It is usually smaller in size.
Cell wall It consists of a definite cell wall made up of cellulose. It lacks a cell wall.
Vacuoles It consists of large and prominent vacuoles. It consists of small and temporary vacuoles.
Cytoplasm It consists of less dense cytoplasm. It consists of denser and more granular cytoplasm.
(a) Plant Cell and Animal Cell

(b) Cell Wall and Cell Membrane
Cell Wall Cell Membrane
It is the outermost covering in plant cells. It is the outermost covering in animal cells.
It is non-living and rigid layer. It is thin, flexible and living membrane.
It is freely permeable. It is semi-permeable.
It is made up of cellulose. It is made up of lipoproteins.
(c) Centrosome and Chromosome
Centrosome Chromosome
It is a clear space of cytoplasm located close to the nucleus. It is a highly coiled structure contained within the nucleus.
Usually one centrosome is present per cell. Several chromosomes can be present per cell.
t consists of two rod-like structures made of protein tubulin. It consists of DNA coiled around histone protein core.
It initiates and regulates cell division. It transfers hereditary characters from parents to offspring.
(d) Chloroplast and Chromoplast
Chloroplast Chromoplast
It is green in colour. It is variously coloured.
It contains the pigment chlorophyll. It contains pigments such as xanthophyll and carotene.
It traps solar energy for photosynthesis. It imparts colour to flowers and fruits.
Chapter 2
Structure of Chromosomes, Cell

Cycle and Cell Division
Progress Check 1
Question 1
Fill in the blanks:
1. Chromatin fibre is made up of DNA and ............... .

2. The two sister chromatids of a chromosome are attached to each other at ............... .
3. The structure of DNA was first discovered by............... .
4. The three components of a nucleotide are ............... and ............... .
5. DNA strand wound around a histone octamer forms a complex called a ............... .
6. A specific sequence of nucleotides on a chromosome constitutes a ............... .
Answer
1. Chromatin fibre is made up of DNA and Histones .

2. The two sister chromatids of a chromosome are attached to each other at centromere .
3. The structure of DNA was first discovered by Rosalind Franklin .
4. The three components of a nucleotide are phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base .
5. DNA strand wound around a histone octamer forms a complex called a nucleosome .
6. A specific sequence of nucleotides on a chromosome constitutes a gene .
Multiple Choice Type
Question 1
The chromatin material is formed of
1. DNA only
2. DNA and Histones
3. Histones only
4. Nucleotides
Answer
DNA and Histones
Reason — DNA surrounds a core of 8 Histones to form a unit called nucleosome. These
nucleosomes coil to form chromatin fibres.
Question 2
The term "chromosomes" literally means
1. Inherited bodies
2. Twisted threads
3. Coloured bodies
4. Shining threads
Answer
Coloured bodies
Reason — The chromosomes readily pick up certain dyes and get coloured, hence the name
chromosomes.
Question 3
The number of chromosomes in a certain type of cell division is halved. This kind of cell
division occurs in
1. only testis
2. only ovary
3. both ovary and testis
4. all body cells
Answer
both ovary and testis
Reason — In Meiosis, the number chromosomes is halved and it occurs in the sex cells or
gametes. It takes place in the reproductive organs — testis and ovary.
Question 4
Synthesis phase in the cell cycle is called so for the synthesis of more of
1. RNA
2. RNA and proteins
3. DNA
4. Glucose
Answer
DNA
Reason — In synthesis phase, more DNA is synthesised and the chromosomes are duplicated.
Question 5
In which one of the following options the stages of mitosis have been given in correct sequence?
1. Prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase

2. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
3. Anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase
4. Telophase, anaphase, prophase, metaphase
Answer
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Reason — The stages of mitosis in correct sequence are:
Prophase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase
Question 6
The new cells are to be produced for all except:
1. Growth
2. Movement
3. Repair
4. Replacement
Answer
Movement
Reason — New cells need to be produced for Growth, Repair, Replacement and Reproduction.
Question 7
The chromosomes are duplicated in :
1. M phase
2. G1 phase
3. S phase
4. G2 phase
Answer
S phase
Reason — In the S phase (i.e., Synthesis phase) more DNA is synthesised and the chromosomes
are duplicated.
Question 8
Triple hydrogen bonds are present between :
1. Adenine and Thymine

2. Adenine and Cytosine
3. Adenine and Guanine
4. Guanine and Cytosine
Answer
Guanine and Cytosine
Reason — Triple hydrogen bonds are present between Guanine and Cytosine.
Question 9
In the cells of a human male body, the number of autosomes is :
1. 23 pairs
2. 22 pairs
3. 1 pair
4. 46 pairs
Answer
22 pairs
Reason — Out of total 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs are autosomes and 1 pair is sex
chromosome.
Question 10
The basis of genetic variation in the living organisms during mitosis occurs due to :
1. Cell division
2. Mutation
3. Crossing over
4. Karyokinesis
Answer
Crossing over
Reason — Crossing over results in change of gene sequence which is responsible for variation.
Question 11
After a mitotic cell division, a human female cell will have :
1. 22 + X chromosomes
2. 44 + XY chromosomes
3. 44 + XX chromosomes
Answer
44 + XX chromosomes
Reason — After mitotic cell division, the resulting daughter cells will have the same number and
type of chromosomes as the parent cell. A human female cell has 46 chromosomes. Out of these
46, two are sex chromosomes (XX).
Question 12
The correct sequence of phases in interphase is:
1. G1, G2 and S
2. S, G2 and G1
3. G1, S and G2
4. G2, S and G1
Answer
G1, S and G2
Reason — The correct sequence is G1 → S → G2.
Question 13
The phase of karyokinesis which is almost the reverse of prophase is :
1. Interphase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase
Answer
Telophase
Reason — In telophase, chromatids thin out in the form of chromatin fibres. In prophase,
chromosomes become distinct.
Question 14
The lengthwise arrangement of DNA mainly consists of a phosphate group attached with :
1. Hexose sugar
2. Purines
3. Pentose sugar
4. Pyrimidines
Answer
Pentose sugar
Reason — The lengthwise arrangement of DNA mainly consists of a phosphate group attached
with five-carbon pentose (ribose) sugar.
Question 15
The number of histone proteins associated with the DNA in a nucleosome is:
1. 6
2. 8
3. 4
4. 1
Answer
Reason — A nucleosome has 8 histone proteins.
Question 16
The pyrimidine bases of DNA are:
1. Adenine and Guanine

2. Guanine and Cytosine
3. Adenine and Thymine
4. Thymine and Cytosine
Answer
Thymine and Cytosine
Reason — Thymine and Cytosine are pyrimidine; and Adenine and Guanine are purine.
Question 17
The female gamete/egg cell of a human cell will have:
2. 44 + XY chromosomes
3. 22 + X chromosomes
4. 22 + Y chromosomes
Answer
22 + X chromosomes
Reason — Chromosome number is halved in gametes (sex cells) so the female gamete/egg cell
of a human cell will have 22 + X chromosomes.
Question 1
Name the following:

(a) The repeating components of each DNA strand lengthwise.
(b) The complex structure consisting of DNA strand and a core of histones.
(c) The type of bond which joins the complementary nitrogenous bases.
(d) The three components of nucleotide.
Answer
(a) Nucleotides
(b) Nucleosome
(c) Hydrogen Bond
(d) Phosphate, Sugar and Nitrogenous base.
Question 2
Imagine one cell (A) has undergone one mitotic division and another cell (B) has completed its
meiotic division. How many daughter cells would the two produce?
Cell A: ...............
Cell B: ...............
Answer
Cell A produces 2 cells

Cell B produces 4 cells
Question 3
Match the events given in column A with the phase in mitotic cell division in column B
Column "A"
(a) Chromosomes get arranged in a horizontal plane at the equator.
(b) Daughter chromosomes move to the opposite poles of a spindle.
(c) Chromosomes become visible as fine long threads.
(d) Chromosomes lose their distinctiveness and gradually become transformed into a chromatin network.
Answer
Column "A"
(a) Chromosomes get arranged in a horizontal plane at the equator.
(b) Daughter chromosomes move to the opposite poles of a spindle.
(c) Chromosomes become visible as fine long threads.
(d) Chromosomes lose their distinctiveness and gradually become transformed into a chromatin network.
Question 4
Fill in the blanks
(a) DNA replicates in the ............... phase of the cell cycle.
(b) Mitosis occurs in our ............... cells.
(c) Meiosis occurs only in ............... cells.
(d) Modern humans have 46 chromosomes. Their sperms and eggs will have ...............
chromosomes each.
(e) During the pairing of chromosomes in meiosis, the ............... chromosomes come to lie side
by side.
(f) The two non-sister chromatids of a paired chromosome are attached to each other at ...............
during the process of crossing over.
Answer
(a) DNA replicates in the synthesis phase of the cell cycle.
(b) Mitosis occurs in our somatic (body) cells.
(c) Meiosis occurs only in reproductive cells.
(d) Modern humans have 46 chromosomes. Their sperms and eggs will have 23 chromosomes
each.
(e) During the pairing of chromosomes in meiosis, the homologous chromosomes come to lie
side by side.
(f) The two non-sister chromatids of a paired chromosome are attached to each other
at chiasma during the process of crossing over.
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Name these:
(a) Two main constituents of Chromatin
(b) Two kinds of Nucleic acids
(c) Three components of a Nucleotide
(d) Four Nitrogenous bases
(e) Two kinds of Nitrogenous bases
(f) Two components of Nucleosome
(g) Two kinds of Cell division
(h) Four main phases of Karyokinesis
(i) Two steps of the process Mitosis
(j) Two kinds of haploid cells of human body
Answer
(a) DNA and Histones
(b) RNA and DNA
(c) Phosphate, Sugar and Nitrogenous bases
(d) Adenine, Guanine, Thymine and Cytosine
(e) Purine and Pyrimidine
(f) DNA and Histone
(g) Mitosis and Meiosis
(h) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(i) Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis

(j) Male gamete (22 + Y) and Female gamete (22 + X)
Question 2
What are the rungs of the "DNA ladder" made of?
Answer
The rungs of the DNA ladder are made of four types of nitrogenous bases. These are:
1. Adenine (A)
2. Guanine (G)
3. Cytosine (C)
4. Thymine (T)
Question 3
Correct the following statements for mistakes, if any.
(a) The four nitrogenous bases in the DNA are Guanine, Thiamine, Adrenaline and Cytosine.
(b) Genes are specific sequences of bases on a chromosome.
(c) A nucleotide is composed of a sulphate, a sugar (pentose) and a nitrogenous base.
(d) Nucleosomes are groups of cysteine molecules surrounded by DNA strands.
(e) If there are 46 chromosomes in a cell, there will be 23 chromatin fibres inside the nucleus
during interphase.
Answer
Corrected statements are as follows:
(a) The four nitrogenous bases in the DNA are Guanine, Thymine, Adenine and Cytosine.
(b) Genes are specific sequences of nucleotides on a chromosome.
(c) A nucleotide is composed of a phosphate, a sugar (pentose) and a nitrogenous base.
(d) Nucleosomes are groups of histone molecules surrounded by DNA strands.
(e) If there are 46 chromosomes in a cell there will be 46 chromatin fibres inside the nucleus
during interphase.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Chromosome
(b) Gene
(c) Cell division
(d) Chromatid
(e) Aster
Answer
(a) Chromosome — Chromosomes are formed of very long, highly coiled and condensed
chromatin fibres which are made of DNA (about 40%) and histones (about 60%). They are
present in the nucleus of the cell. They carry the chemical instructions for the reproduction of the
cell.
(b) Gene — Genes are specific sequences of nucleotides on a chromosome that encode particular
proteins which express in the form of some particular feature of the body. They are the units of
heredity which are transferred from parents to offsprings and are responsible for some specific
characteristics of the offspring.
(c) Cell Division — Cell division is the method in which the cell divides and the duplicated
chromosomes get evenly distributed into the daughter cells.
(d) Chromatid — Duplicated chromosomes consist of two identical strands, each of these is
called a chromatid. Before replication, one chromosome is composed of one DNA molecule. In
replication, the DNA molecule is copied, and the two molecules are known as chromatids.
During the later stages of cell division these chromatids separate longitudinally to become
individual chromosomes.
(e) Aster — During mitosis in an animal cell, after the centrosome splits into two along with
simultaneous duplication of the centrioles contained in it, each centriole is surrounded by
radiating rays and is termed aster (meaning star).
Question 2
Give reason:
(a) Gametes must be produced by meiosis for sexual reproduction.
(b) Why is meiosis referred to as 'reductional division'?

(c) The children of the same parents, howsoever similar, are different from each other in certain
aspects.
Answer
(a) Gametes must be produced by meiosis for sexual reproduction because the numbers of
chromosomes are reduced to half during meiosis and then the normal diploid numbers of
chromosomes are regained during the process of fertilization.
(b) Meiosis is referred to as 'reductional division' because the number of chromosomes are
reduced to half i.e. out of the 23 pairs of chromosomes in humans, only single set of
chromosomes are passed on to the sex cells. This is essential because when the male and female
gametes fuse during fertilization, the normal double (diploid) number of chromosomes is
reacquired. The diploid number, as a rule, is expressed as “2n” and the haploid number as "n".
(c) The mixing up or recombination of genes during meiotic division provides for the
innumerable variations and diversity in the progeny. That is how, the children of the same
parents, howsoever similar, are different from each other in certain aspects.
Question 3
(a) Cytokinesis and Karyokinesis
(b) DNA and RNA
(c) Nucleosome and Nucleotide
(d) Centrosome and Centromere
(e) Haploid and Diploid
Answer
(a) Difference between Cytokinesis and Karyokinesis
Cytokinesis Karyokinesis
It is the division of the cytoplasm. It is the division of the nucleus.
It occurs after karyokinesis. It is the first division.
It results in the formation of two daughter cells. It results in the formation of two nuclei.
(b) Difference between DNA and RNA
DNA RNA
DNA is Deoxyribonucleic acid. RNA is Ribonucleic acid.
It consists of four distinct bases: Thymine, Adenine, Cytosine It consists of four distinct bases: Uracil, Ade
and Guanine. and Guanine.
The DNA is a double-stranded molecule. The RNA is a single-stranded molecule.
It is located in the nucleus of a cell and in the mitochondria. It is found in the cytoplasm, nucleus, and in
(c) Difference between Nucleosome and Nucleotide
Nucleosome Nucleotide
Nucleosome is the complex that is made up of DNA The chemical composition of nucleotide consists of
wrapped around histone proteins. group, a sugar and a nitrogenous base.
(d) Difference between Centrosome and Centromere
Centrosome Centromere
It is an organelle of the animal cell surrounding the centrioles, located near It is a non-stainable part of chro
the nucleus. which two chromatids join.
It contains one or two centrioles which move towards the opposite poles and It provides attachment of spindl
forms spindle fibres during cell division. cell division.
(e) Difference between Haploid and Diploid
Haploid Diploid
Only half the number of chromosomes (only one member from each pair) is Full Set of chromosomes is p
passed on to each daughter cell. daughter cell.
It is denoted by n. It is denoted by 2n.

Haploid Diploid
This state is found during meiotic division. This state is found during mit
Question 4
Write full form of the following abbreviations:
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
Answer
(a) DNA — Deoxyribonucleic acid
(b) RNA — Ribonucleic acid
Question 5
Given below are the sets of four terms. Choose the odd one and write the category of the
remaining terms:
(a) Adenine, Guanine, Adrenaline, Thymine
(b) Pentose sugar, Histones, Phosphate group, Nitrogenous bases
(c) Metaphase, Anaphase, Interphase, Telophase
(d) G1 phase, M phase, G2 phase, S phase
(e) Chromoplast, Chromosome, Chloroplast, Leucoplast
Answer
(a) Odd one out — Adrenaline

Adenine, Guanine, Thymine — Nitrogenous bases
(b) Odd one out — Histones

Pentose sugar, Phosphate group, Nitrogenous bases — form nucleotide
(c) Odd one out — Interphase

Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase — Phases of Mitosis
(d) Odd one out — M phase

G1 phase, G2 phase, S phase — Phases of Interphase
(e) Odd one out — Chromosome
Chromoplast, Chloroplast, Leucoplast — Plastids
Structured/ Application/ Skill Type
Question 1
Given below is a schematic diagram of a portion of DNA.
(a) How many strands are shown in the diagram?
(b) How many nucleotides have been shown in each strand?
(c) Name the parts numbered 1,2,3,4 and 5 respectively.
(d) Name the DNA unit constituted by the parts 1, 2 and 3 collectively.
Answer
(a) 2 strands are shown in the diagram.
(b) 2 on each strand.
(c) The parts are as follows:
• 1 → Phosphate
• 2 → Sugar
• 3 → Bases
• 4 → Hydrogen Bond
• 5 → Base
(d) The DNA unit constituted by the parts 1, 2 and 3 collectively is called Nucleotide.
Question 2
The three sketches given below (A, B and C) are intended to represent the replication of DNA.
What should be their correct sequence starting with the first and ending with the last?
Answer
The correct sequence is :

B, C and A
Question 3
The diagram below represents a stage during cell division. Study the same and then answer the
questions that follow:
a. Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
b. Identify the above stage and give a reason to support your answer.
c. Mention the type of cells in our body where this type of cell division occurs.
d. Name the stage prior to this stage and draw a diagram to represent the same.
Answer
(a) The parts are as follows:
• 1 → Centromere
• 2 → Spindle fibres
• 3 → Chromatids
(b) The stage described in the diagram is the late anaphase of mitosis in an animal cell. The stage
can be identified by the presence of separated chromatids which are found at the two poles of the
cell. The appearance of the furrow in the cell membrane classifies the stage as the late anaphase.
(c) The division is mitotic and this kind of cell division occurs in all the cells of the body except
for the reproductive cells.
(d) The stage before anaphase is metaphase. Below diagram shows metaphase:
Question 4
Draw a labelled diagram to show the metaphase stage of mitosis in an animal cell having "6"
chromosomes.
Answer
Below diagram shows the metaphase stage of mitosis in an animal cell having 6 chromosomes:
Question 5
The diagram given below represents a certain phenomenon which occurs during meiosis. Name
and explain the phenomenon by using the terms - homologous chromosomes, chromatids, and
crossing-over.
Answer
The phenomenon shown in the diagram is termed Crossing-Over. It is the exchange of

chromatid material between the two members of a homologous pair of chromosomes while the
maternal and paternal chromosomes are separating.
Question 6
Given below is a diagram representing a stage during mitotic cell division in an animal cell.
Examine it carefully and answer the questions which follow.
(a) Identify the stage. Give one reason in support of your answer.
(b) Name the cell organelle that forms the 'aster'.
(c) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
(d) Name the stage that follows the one shown here. How is that stage identified?
(e) Mention two points of difference between mitosis and meiosis with regard to:
1. The number of daughter cells produced.

2. The chromosome number in the daughter cells.
Answer
(a) By observing the given figure we can say that it is the late prophase stage because the nuclear
membrane and nucleolus have disappeared.
(b) Centrioles is the cell organelle that form the aster.
(c) The parts are as follows:
• 1 → Centromere
• 2 → Chromatids
• 3 → Spindle fibre
(d) The stage that follows the one shown here is Metaphase. In Metaphase, the centromeres of
chromosomes are drawn to the equator by equal pull of two chromosomal spindle fibres that
connects each centromere to the opposite poles, forming a metaphasic plate.
(e) Difference between mitosis and meiosis :
Mitosis Meiosis
Mitosis Meiosis
It produce two daughter cells. It produce Four daughter cells.
Full set of chromosomes is passed on to each daughter cell. Only half the number of chromosomes is passed o
This is the diploid (2n) number of chromosomes. daughter cell. This is the haploid (n) number of c
Question 7
Given below are three diagrammatic sketches (A, B and C) of one and the same particular phase
during mitotic type of cell division.
(a) Identify the phase.
(b) What is the diploid number of chromosomes shown in them?
(c) Identify whether these are animal cells or plant cell? Give reasons.
Answer
(a) It is Metaphase.
(b) The diploid number of chromosomes shown in them is 4.
(c) Categorisation of cell A, B and C are as given below:
• Cell A - It is an animal cell as the centrosome has split into two centrioles and the
centrioles have formed asters. Also, no cell wall is present.
• Cell B - It is an animal cell as the centrosome has split into two centrioles and the
centrioles have formed asters. Also, no cell wall is present.
• Cell C - It is a plant cell as no centrioles are seen and cell wall is present.
Question 8
Shown below are four stages (A, B, C, D) (not in sequence) of a certain kind of cell division.
(a) Is it a plant cell or an animal cell? Give two reasons.
(b) Is it undergoing mitosis or meiosis?
(c) What should be the correct sequence of these four stages among themselves?
(d) Name the stage that should precede the earliest of these stages.
(e) Draw the stage named above inside the blank space provided.
Answer
(a) This figure is of the animal cell because:
1. Centrosomes on centrioles are present.

2. Cell wall is absent
(b) It is undergoing mitosis.
(c) The correct sequence is B, C, D and A
(d) The stage that should precede the earliest of these stages is interphase.
(e) Below diagram shows interphase stage of mitosis:

Chapter 3
Genetics — Some Basic

Fundamentals
Progress Check 1
Question 1
Mention if the following statements are True or False:
(i) Genetics and heredity are the same thing.
(ii) "Like begets like", this applies only to animals.
(iii) The entire human population shows variations.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected statement — Genetics and heredity are related but not the same thing. (Heredity
means the transmission of genetically based characteristics from parents to offspring whereas
Genetics is the study of heredity.)
(ii) False
Corrected statement — "Like begets like", this applies to all organisms.
(iii) True
Question 2
Which of the following in humans are established genetic traits ? (Tick-mark the correct ones) in
the box provided.
(i) Capacity to be a good cricketer
(ii) Curly hair
(iii) Left-handedness
(iv) Quality of voice
(v) Red-green colour blindness
Answer
Following are the established genetic traits in humans:
• Curly hair
• Left-handedness
• Red-green colour blindness
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Mention the following:
(i) Total number of pairs of chromosomes in each body cell in humans ............... .
(ii) Number of pairs of autosomes in one cell of humans ............... .
Answer
(i) 23
(ii) 22
Question 2
A certain couple got only four daughters in a row and no son. Does it mean that the husband does
not produce Y-bearing sperms? Explain.
Answer
No, it does not mean that the husband does not produce Y-bearing sperms. During conception,
half of the sperm released are X-bearing and the other half are Y-bearing. In this case, only the
X-bearing sperm fertilized the wife's eggs in each instance. This can happen due to random
chance, as the probability of having a male or female child is approximately 50% for each
pregnancy.
Progress Check 3
Question 1
Write the basic unit of heredity ?
Answer
Gene is the basic unt of heredity.
Question 2
Define the following terms :-
(i) Allele
(ii) Dominant gene
(iii) Genotype
(iv) Phenotype
(v) Recessive gene
Answer
(i) Alternative forms of a gene, occupying the same position on homologous chromosomes and
depicting different forms of the same character are called alleles.
(ii) The gene which can super-rule or mask the effect of its allele is called Dominant gene.
(iii) The set of genes present in the cells of an organism is called its genotype.
(iv) The observable characteristics which are genetically controlled are called as phenotype.
(v) The form of allele which remains submissive in presence of dominant form and expresses
only in homozygous condition is called recessive gene.
Question 3
Mention the number of paired homozygous chromosomes in
(i) Human female
(ii) Human male
Answer
(i) 23
(ii) 22
Reason — The term used in the above question should be "homologous". All the 23 pairs of
chromosomes in female are homologous while in male only 22 pairs are homologous because
one pair (sex chromosomes-XY) is different in size and gene sequence.
Question 4
Can there be a heterozygous recessive? Explain.
Answer
No, there can never be a heterozygous recessive. In case of a heterozygous condition, there is
one dominant gene and one recessive gene. The character of dominant gene will be expressed as
it will mask the expression of recessive gene. Therefore, the recessive gene will always express
in homozygous condition and there cannot be a heterozygous recessive.
Question 5
List any four traits in humans which you can easily study just by observing and making family
charts.
Answer
Eye colour (Brown/Blue), Hand (Left/Right Handedness), Earlobe (Free/Attached) and Cheeks
(Dimpled/Normal).
Progress Check 4
Question 1
Who discovered for the first time the basic principles of genetics?
Answer
Gregor John Mendel
Question 2
Give the common and scientific names of the organism on which Gregor Mendel had worked.
Answer
Common name — Garden pea

Scientific name — Pisum sativum
Question 3
(i) Monohybrid and Dihybrid cross
(ii) Genotype and Phenotype
(iii) Character and Trait
(iv) Dominant and Recessive Allele
(v) Autosomes and Sex chromosomes
Answer
(i) Difference between Monohybrid and Dihybrid cross:
Monohybrid Cross Dihybrid cross
Single feature is taken into consideration Two features are taken into consideration.
Phenotypic ratio in second generation is 3:1 Phenotypic ratio in second generation is 9:3:3:1
Genotypic ratio is 1:2:1 Genotypic ratio obtained is very complex
(ii) Difference between Genotype and Phenotype:
Genotype Phenotype
Set of genes present in any organism is known as its Characters expressed or physical appearance of chara
genotype. phenotype.
Can be determined by genotyping method. Can be determined by observation.
It is formed by expressed and unexpressed genes. It consists of only expressed genes.
(iii) Difference between Character and Trait:
Character Trait
Any inheritable feature of an organism is

The alternative forms of a character are called traits.
a character.
Character Trait
For example, within the character of flower colour, specific traits

For example, flower colour is a character.
blue, or white flower colour.
(iv) Difference between Dominant and Recessive Allele:
Dominant Allele Recessive Allele
The gene that remains unexpressed in presence o

The gene that expresses itself phenotypically.
allele.
Expresses in homozygous as well as heterozygous

Expresses only in homozygous condition.
condition.
Represented by capital letters. Represented by small letters.
(v) Difference between Autosomes and Sex chromosomes:
Autosomes Sex chromosomes
Autosomes are chromosomes that determine the general body features. Sex chromosomes determine the sex
Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes. Humans have 1 pair sex chromosome
Question 4
Write two characters of pea pod with their alternative traits.
Answer
Two characters of pea pod with their alternative traits are :
S.
Character Alternative trait
No.
1. Pod colour Green and Yellow

S.
Character Alternative trait
No.
2. Pod shape Inflated and Constricted
Question 1
Which one of the following is the phenotypic monohybrid ratio in F2 generation?
1. 3:1
2. 1:2:1
3. 2:2
4. 1:3
Answer
3:1
Reason — The phenotypic monohybrid ratio in F2 generation is 3:1 because 3 of the offsprings
have dominant allele and one is homozygous recessive.
Question 2
If a pure tall plant is crossed with a pure dwarf plant, then offspring will be
1. all tall
2. all dwarf
3. 3 tall 1 dwarf
4. 50% tall 50% dwarf
Answer
all tall
Reason — Tallness is a dominant character which will be expressed in heterozygous condition.
Question 3
The 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 dihybrid ratio is due to
1. segregation
2. crossing over
3. independent assortment
4. homologous pairing
Answer
independent assortment
Reason — The 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 dihybrid ratio is due to independent assortment as the allele of one
character is independent of other.
Question 4
A plant with green pods and smooth seeds with genotype Ggss will give rise to the following
gametes:
1. Gg and Ss
2. Gs and ss
3. Gs and gs
4. Gg and gs
Answer
Gs and gs
Reason — Only two types of gametes are possible i.e. Gs and gs, as gene 's' is in homozygous
condition. This is in accordance to the law of independent assortment.
Question 5
The disease colour blindness is a :
1. Recessive X-linked disease

2. Dominant Y-linked disease
3. Recessive Y-linked disease
4. Dominant X-linked disease
Answer
Recessive X-linked disease
Reason — The disease colour blindness is due to recessive gene that occurs on the X-
chromosome.
Question 6
The physical expression of a character is called :
1. Genotype
2. Alleles
3. Phenotype
4. Traits
Answer
Phenotype
Reason — Phenotype are the observable characteristics that are genetically controlled.
Question 7
Purity of gametes is linked to :
1. Law of dominance
2. Law of independent assortment
3. Law of segregation
4. Law of limiting factor
Answer
Law of segregation
Reason — Two alleles of a character are independent and separate during formation of gametes.
They do not mix with each other or lose their identity.
Question 8
The phenotypic dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is
1. 9:3:1:1
2. 9:1:3:1
3. 9:1:3:3
4. 9:3:3:1
Answer
9:3:3:1
Reason — The phenotypic dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 9:3:3:1 due to the law of
independent assortment.
Question 9
In the human male, a sperm contains autosomes and :
1. X and Y chromosomes
2. Only X chromosome
3. X or Y chromosome
4. Only Y chromosome
Answer
X or Y chromosome
Reason — In the human male, a sperm contains autosomes and either an X chromosome or a Y
chromosome.
Question 10
If the mother is normal and the father is haemophilic, then their two daughters will be :
1. Normal
2. Haemophilic
3. Carrier
4. None
Answer
Carrier
Reason — Since mother is normal, one of the X chromosome in daughters will be normal.
Hence they will be carrier due to X chromosome received from father.
Question 1
Match the terms in column I with their the explanations in column II.
Column I Column II
(Term) (Explanation)
a. Genetics (i) Chromosomes similar in size and shape
b. Autosomes (ii) The alternative forms of a gene
c. Recessive gene (iii) Study of laws of inheritance of characters
d. Allele (iv) A gene that can express only when in a similar pair
e. Homologous chromosomes (v) Chromosomes other than the pair of sex chromosomes
Answer
Column I Column II
(Term) (Explanation)
a. Genetics (iii) Study of laws of inheritance of characters
b. Autosomes (v) Chromosomes other than the pair of sex chromosomes
c. Recessive gene (iv) A gene that can express only when in a similar pair
d. Allele (ii) The alternative forms of a gene
e. Homologous chromosomes (i) Chromosomes similar in size and shape
Question 2
Name any two genetic diseases in humans.
Answer
Colour blindness and Haemophilia are two genetic diseases in humans.

Question 3
Which one of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant and which one homozygous
recessive in regard to tongue rolling:
Rr, rr, RR?
Answer
Homozygous recessive – rr
Homozygous dominant - RR
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Rewrite the correct form of the statement by changing the first or the last word only:
(a) Duplicated chromosomes remain attached at a point termed as centrosome.
(b) The full complement of DNA of an organism is termed as genetics.
(c) The inheritable feature of an organism is termed as heredity.
(d) Terminal flower position is a dominant trait of pea flower.
(e) Alternative forms of a gene are called traits.
Answer
(a) Duplicated chromosomes remain attached at a point termed as centromere.
(b) The full complement of DNA of an organism is termed as Genome.
(c) The inheritable feature of an organism is termed as character.
(d) Axillary flower position is a dominant trait of pea flower.
(e) Alternative forms of a gene are called Allele.
Question 2
Among lion, tiger and domestic cat, all the three have the same number of 38 chromosomes, yet
they have different appearances. How do you account for such differences?
Answer
All species have a fixed number of chromosomes. However, the characteristics of species
including physical appearance, body functions, behavior, etc. are not simply the outcome of
chromosome number, but these are the result of the units called genes which the chromosomes
carry. The lion and the cat have the same number of chromosomes (38). Yet one is distinct from
the other in body size, appearance, colour, behavior, etc. All such characteristics of an organism
are the result of the genes located on the chromosomes.
Question 3
List any three features of garden pea with their dominant and recessive traits.
Answer
Character Dominant trait Recessive t
Flower Colour Purple White
Seed Colour Yellow Green
Seed Shape Round Wrinkled
Pod Shape Inflated Constricted
Flower Position Axial Terminal
Question 4
Explain why generally only the male child suffers from colour blindness and not the female?
Answer
Colour blindness is caused due to recessive genes, which occur on the ‘x’ chromosomes. Males
have only one X chromosome. If there is recessive gene present on X chromosome, then the
male will suffer from colour-blindness. Females have two X chromosomes. It is highly
impossible that both the X chromosomes carry abnormal gene. Hence, if one gene is abnormal
and since it is recessive, its expression will be masked by the normal gene present on the other X
chromosome. Due to this reason, females are unlikely to suffer from colour-blindness.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Pedigree chart
(b) Variations
(c) Mutation
Answer
(a) Pedigree chart — A pedigree chart is a diagram that shows the occurrence and appearance
or phenotypes of a particular gene or organism and its ancestors from one generation to the next.
In the pedigree chart, males are shown by squares and females by circles.
(b) Variations — The small differences among the individuals of the same species are called
variations.
(c) Mutation — Mutation is a sudden change in one or more genes, or in the number or in the
structure of chromosomes. Mutation alters the hereditary material of an organism's cells and
results in a change in certain characters or traits for example :
1. Sickle cell anaemia

2. Radioactive radiations
Question 2
State the three Mendel's laws of inheritance.
Answer
Mendel's law of inheritance are as follows —
1. Law of Dominance — Out of a pair of contrasting characters present together, only one
is able to express itself while the other remains suppressed. The one that expresses is
the dominant character and the one that is unexpressed is the recessive one.
2. Law of Segregation (also called the law of purity of gametes) — The two members of a
pair of factors separate during the formation of gametes. They do not blend but segregate
or separate into different gametes. The gametes combine together by random fusion at the
time of zygote formation.
3. Law of Independent Assortment — When there are two pairs of contrasting characters,
the distribution of the members of one pair into the gametes is independent of the
distribution of the other pair.
Question 3
Does the sex of the child depend on the father or is it just a matter of chance? Discuss.
Answer
The sex of the child depends upon the kind of sperm that fertilises the egg. The egg contains only
one X chromosome, but half of the sperms released into the genital tract of the female during
coitus are X-bearing and the remaining half are Y-bearing. It is simply a matter of chance as to
which category of sperm fuses with the ovum:
• If the egg (X) is fused by X-bearing sperm, the resulting combination is XX i.e. female
constitution and the child produced is a female (Daughter).
• If the egg (X) is fused by Y-bearing sperm, the resulting combination is XY i.e. male
constitution and the child produced is a male (Son).
Question 4
(a) Karyotype and Karyokinesis
(b) Autosomes and Sex chromosomes
(c) Homozygous and Heterozygous chromosomes
Answer
(a) Difference between karyotype and karyokinesis —
Karyotype Karyokinesis
The complete set of chromosomes in the cells of an organism is its The division of the nucleus during mitos
karyotype. karyokinesis.
(b) Difference between autosomes and sex chromosomes
Autosomes Sex chromosomes
They determine the somatic traits. They determine the sex of an organism.
They are numbered as 1 to 22. They are recognized by the letters XO, XY, ZO, ZW.
They show Mendelian inheritance. They do not show Mendelian inheritance.
Human show 22 pairs of autosomes. Humans show only 1 pair of sex chromosome.
(c) Difference between homozygous and heterozygous chromosomes
Homozygous chromosomes Heterozygous chromosomes
It has two same copies of the same allele coding for a It contains two different copies of alleles codin
particular trait. particular trait.
Structured / Application / Skill Type
Question 1
In a certain species of animals, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). Predict the
genotype and phenotype of the offspring, when both parents are 'Bb' or have heterozygous black
fur.
Answer
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
In the question it is given that B refers to black fur and b refers to brown fur. So the genotype
and phenotype of the offspring will be:
Genotype — 1 (Homozygous Black Fur) : 2 (Heterozygous Black Fur) : 1 (Homozygous Brown

Fur)
Phenotype — 3 (Black Fur): 1 (Brown Fur)
Question 2
Two pairs (A and B) of rabbits were crossed as given below:
(a) Can you tell which coat colour (black or white) is dominant?
(b) Is the coat colour sex-linked?
Answer
(a) Black
(b) No
Question 3
Make a Punnett square and find out the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of F1 and F2 generations
in the progeny of a genetic cross between:
(a) A pure tall (TT) pea plant with a pure dwarf (tt) pea plant.
(b) Red flower variety of pea (RR) with white flower variety of pea (rr).
Answer
(a) A pure tall (TT) pea plant with a pure dwarf (tt) pea plant:
F2 Generation:
Gametes T
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
Genotype - 1 (Homozygous tall) : 2 (Heterozygous tall) : 1 (Homozygous dwarf)

Phenotype - 3 (Tall) : 1 (Dwarf)
(b) Red flower variety of pea (RR) with white flower variety of pea (rr):
F2 Generation:
Gametes R
R RR Rr
r Rr rr
Genotype — 1 (Homozygous red) : 2 (Heterozygous red) : 1 (Homozygous white)
Phenotype — 3 (Red) : 1 (White)
Question 4
Mendel crossed a homozygous pea plant having round seeds (RR) with a homozygous pea plant
having wrinkled seeds (rr). He got different results. On the basis of it, answer the following
questions:
(a) Which character of seed is studied in the experiment?
(b) Which of the above two traits is dominant ?
(c) Write the phenotype and genotype of F1 offspring.
(d) Mention and state the Mendel’s law shown in the above cross.
(e) Make a Punnett square for F2 generation when two plants of F1 offspring are crossed with
each other.
(f) Write the phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny.
(g) What will be the genotypic ratio of F2 offsprings ?
(h) What are the two traits of seed colour ? Also mention which is dominant and recessive ?
(i) Write the scientific name of garden pea.
(j) Write two main features of pea plant due to which Mendel had selected it for his hybridisation
studies.
Answer
(a) Shape of seed
(b) Round seed shape is dominant.

(c) Phenotype — Round seed
Genotype — Rr
(d) Law of dominance, which states that out of a pair of contrasting characters present together,
only one is able to express itself while the other remains suppressed.
(e)
Gamete R r
RR Rr
Rr rr
(f) Phenotypic ratio — 3:1
(g) Genotypic ratio — 1:2:1
(h) The two traits of seed colour are:
1. Yellow (dominant)
2. Green (recessive)
(i) Pisum sativum
(j) The two main features due to which Mendel selected pea plants are :
1. Many varieties were available in alternative forms of a character.

2. The life span of pea plants is short and many generations can be obtained and studied in
less time.
Question 5
A homozygous plant having round (R) and yellow (Y) seed is crossed with another homozygous
plant having wrinkled (r) and green (y) seeds. Answer the following questions :
(a) Give the genotype of the F1 generation.
(b) Mention the phenotype of the F1 offsprings.
(c) Give the possible combinations of gametes that can be obtained from F1 hybrids.
(d) Give the dihybrid phenotypic ratio and the phenotype of the offsprings of the F2 generation
when two plants of F1 generation are crossed.
(e) Name and state the law which explains the dihybrid phenotypic ratio.
Answer
(a) Genotype : RrYy
(b) All Round and yellow seeds
(c) RY, Ry, rY, ry
(d) 9:3:3:1
(e) Law of Independent Assortment, which states that the distribution of the alleles of one
character into the gametes is independent of the distribution of the alleles of the other character.
Chapter 4
Absorption by Roots — The Process

Involved
Progress Check 1
Question 1
List the three primary functions of root.
Answer
The three primary functions of root are:
1. Fixes the plant in soil giving it support.

2. Absorbs water and mineral nutrient from soil.
3. Conducts absorbed water and mineral to stem.
Question 2
Mention four purposes for which the plants need water.
Answer
Plants need water for:
1. Photosynthesis
2. Transpiration
3. Transportation
4. Mechanical stiffness
Question 3
Where are the mineral nutrients mostly used in plants?
Answer
The mineral nutrients are used by plants in formation of cell and cell organelles as well as in
synthesis of various compounds and enzymes.
Question 4
List three main characteristics of the roots that enable them to draw water from the soil.
Answer
Three main characteristics of the roots that enable them to draw water from the soil are:
1. Surface area of roots is enormous.

2. Root hairs contain cell sap, of a higher concentration than that of the surrounding water.
3. Root hairs have thin walls.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Write true or false.
(i) Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of their lower concentration to that of a
higher one.
(ii) Osmosis includes diffusion, but not vice versa.
(iii) Osmosis is unidirectional.
(iv) Exosmosis may cause bursting of a cell.
(v) Semi-permeable membrane prevents the passage of the solute molecules.
(vi) In an experiment on osmosis, if external pressure is applied on a dilute solution, less water
will pass into the concentrated solution.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected Statement — Diffusion is the free movement of molecules of a substance (solute or
solvent, gas, liquid) from the region of their higher concentration to the region of their lower
concentration when the two are in a direct contact.
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) False
Corrected Statement — Endosmosis may cause bursting of a cell.
(v) True
(vi) False
Corrected Statement — In an experiment on osmosis, if external pressure is applied on a dilute
solution, more water will pass into the concentrated solution.
Question 2
In what way is active transport opposite to diffusion?
Answer
Diffusion Active transport
Diffusion is the free movement of molecules of a substance (solute or

It is the movement of a salt or an ion f
solvent, gas, liquid) from the region of their higher concentration
of its lower concentration to a region
to the region of their lower concentration when the two are in a
concentration through a living memb
direct contact.
Question 3
A cell kept in a certain solution bursts after some time. Comment upon the kind of solution.
Answer
The solution is a hypotonic solution i.e., concentration of solute in it is less than that of cell sap.
A cell when kept in hypotonic solution swells and finally bursts due to endosmosis.
Question 4
Which process — diffusion, osmosis or active transport, needs involvement of energy?
Answer
Active transport needs involvement of energy.
Question 5
Can we call diffusion passive transport? If so, how?
Answer
Yes, we can call diffusion as passive transport as it occurs according to concentration gradient
i.e., from higher concentration of solute to lower concentration. It does not involve any energy
expense.
Progress Check 3
Question 1
Name the following :
(i) The state of a cell when it cannot accommodate any more water.
(ii) Pressure of the cell contents on the cell wall.
(iii) The condition that is opposite to turgid.
(iv) The state of a plasmolysed cell after the re-entry of water.
(v) The pressure under which water passes from the living cells of a root into xylem.
Answer
(i) Turgid
(ii) Turgor Pressure
(iii) Flaccid
(iv) Deplasmolysed
(v) Root pressure
Progress Check 4
Question 1
Look at figure. Why was oil added over water in the test tubes?
Answer
Oil was added over water in the test tubes to avoid the loss of water due to evaporation.
Question 2
Look at the experiment shown in figure. Why was it necessary to take coloured eosin solution in
water in the beaker?
Answer
Coloured eosin solution in water was taken to stain xylem vessel in order to show that there is
upward movement of absorbed water.
Question 3
Which part of the stem, the xylem or the phloem, is located deeper internally ?
Answer
The xylem is located deeper and the phloem is relatively superficial in location.
Question 4
Look at figure. Why has the stem below the ring stopped growing and even slightly decayed?
Answer
The stem below the ring stopped growing and even slightly decayed because its food supply was
cut. After girdling, the lower portion of stem remains alive for few days due to stored food in it
but later it stops to grow.
Question 1
The hydrostatic pressure of the cell sap on the cell wall is called :
1. Turgor pressure
2. Osmotic pressure
3. Wall pressure
4. Atmospheric pressure
Answer
Turgor pressure
Reason — Turgor pressure is the pressure applied by the cell contents on the wall of cell.
Question 2
When a cell in solution shrinks and loses its shape, then the solution is :
1. Isotonic
2. Potable water
3. Hypotonic
4. Hypertonic
Answer
Hypertonic
Reason — The concentration of solutes in hypertonic solution is more than the cell sap. When a
cell is kept in such solution, water moves out of the cell and it shrinks.
Question 3
The process for which energy is required is :
1. Passive transport
2. Diffusion
3. Osmosis
4. Active transport
Answer
Active transport
Reason — Active transport involves use of energy as such transport is against the gradient.
Question 4
The highest water potential is that of :
1. 10% sugar solution

2. Honey
3. 10% salt solution
4. Pure water
Answer
Pure water
Reason — Water potential is the capacity of water to move out to higher concentrated solution.
It is maximum for pure water.
Question 5
When the cells of a plant are fully distended, the condition is called :
1. Flaccidity
2. Shrinkage
3. Plasmolysis
4. Deplasmolysis
Answer
Deplasmolysis
Reason — When plasmolysed cell is kept in a hypotonic solution, it absorbs water and gets fully
distended.
Question 6
Which of the following creates a suction force in plants ?
1. Transportation
2. Translocation
3. Transpiration
4. Transformation
Answer
Transpiration
Reason — Transpiration (loss of water through plant surface) creates a suction force called
transpiration pull. It works with root pressure due to which the roots absorb water.
Question 7
The phenomenon by which living/dead plant cells absorb water by surface attraction is called :
1. Inhibition
2. Cohesion
3. Adhesion
4. Imbibition
Answer
Imbibition
Reason — Substances which are made up of cellulose or proteins are hydrophilic. They can
imbibe water due to surface attraction.
Question 8
Which of the following is a living semi-permeable membrane ?
1. Cell wall
2. Cell membrane
3. Cellulose
4. None
Answer
Cell membrane
Reason — Cell membrane is semi-permeable due to its structure. It allows entry of some
substances and prevent the movement of some other materials.
Question 9
Addition of salt to pickles is a method of killing the bacteria by :
1. Imbibition
2. Diffusion
3. Deplasmolysis
4. Plasmolysis
Answer
Plasmolysis
Reason — Adding salt to the pickle increases the concentration of solute outside the cells of
bacteria. This results in movement of water outwards from the cell and thus bacteria gets killed.
Question 10
Root pressure can be measured by using :
1. Sphygmomanometer
2. Barometer
3. Manometer
4. Thermometer
Answer
Manometer
Reason — Manometer is the instrument to measure root pressure.
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) The condition of a cell placed in a hypotonic solution.
(b) The process by which intact plants lose water in the form of droplets from leaf margins.
(c) The process by which water enters root hairs.
(d) The tissue concerned with upward conduction of water in plants.
(e) The term for the inward movement of solvent molecules through the plasma membrane of a
cell.
(f) The process by which molecules distribute themselves evenly within the space they occupy.
(g) The pressure which is responsible for the movement of water molecules across the cortical
cells of the root.
Answer
(a) Turgidity
(b) Guttation
(c) Osmosis
(d) Xylem
(e) Endosmosis
(f) Diffusion
(g) Root pressure
Question 2
Give the equivalent terms for the following:
(a) Pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell wall.
(b) The condition in which the cell contents are shrunken.

(c) Loss of water through a cut stem.
Answer
(a) Turgor pressure
(b) Flaccidity
(c) Bleeding
Question 3
Complete the following statements:
(a) Hypotonic solution is one in which the solution kept outside the cell has ............... solute
concentration than inside the cell.
(b) Active transport is one in which the ions outside the roots move in by utilising ............... .
(c) The bending movements of certain flowers towards the sun and the sleep movements of
certain plants at night are examples of ............... .
Answer
(a) Hypotonic solution is one in which the solution kept outside the cell has lower solute
concentration than inside the cell.
(b) Active transport is one in which the ions outside the roots move in by utilising energy from
the cell.
(c) The bending movements of certain flowers towards the sun and the sleep movements of
certain plants at night are examples of turgor movements.
Question 4
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative from those given in brackets.
(a) When placed in a more concentrated solution, the cell contents will ............... (shrink / swell
up).
(b) The pressure by which the ............... molecules tend to cross the semi-permeable membrane
is called osmotic pressure. (salt / water)
(c) Active transport is in a direction ............... to that of diffusion. (opposite / same)
Answer
(a) When placed in a more concentrated solution, the cell contents will shrink.
(b) The pressure by which the water molecules tend to cross the semi-permeable membrane is
called osmotic pressure.
(c) Active transport is in a direction opposite to that of diffusion.
Question 5
Match the items in column I with those in column II
Column I Column II
(a) Xylem (i) semi-permeable
(b) Phloem (ii) permeable
(c) Cell membrane (iii) downward flow of sap
(d) Root pressure (iv) upward flow of water
(e) Cell wall (v) guttation
Answer
Column I Column II
(a) Xylem (iv) upward flow of water
(b) Phloem (iii) downward flow of sap
(c) Cell membrane (i) semi-permeable
(d) Root pressure (v) guttation
(e) Cell wall (ii) permeable
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Differentiate between the following :
(a) Plasmolysis and Deplasmolysis
(b) Turgor Pressure and Wall Pressure
(c) Hypotonic and Hypertonic solution
(d) Turgidity and Flaccidity
Answer
(a) Difference between Plasmolysis and Deplasmolysis
Plasmolysis Deplasmolysis
It refers to the shrinkage of the cytoplasm and withdrawal of the Deplasmolysis is the recovery of a plasmol
plasma membrane from the cell wall caused due to the it is placed in water, wherein the cell's prot
withdrawal of water when placed in a hypertonic solution. swells up due to the re-entry of water.
In Plasmolysis, the cell becomes flaccid. In Deplasmolysis, the cell becomes turgid.
(b) Difference between Turgor pressure and Wall pressure
Turgor Pressure Wall Pressure
Wall pressure is the pressure exerte

Turgor pressure is the pressure of the cell contents on the cell wall.
wall on the cell content.
It helps keeps plant stems erect, keeps leaves expanded, involve in

It helps maintain the structure of ce
opening and closing of stomata, etc.
It acts towards the outside from the cell. It acts towards the inside of the cell
(c) Difference between Hypotonic and Hypertonic solution
Hypotonic Solution Hypertonic Solution
The solution outside the cell has a lower solute concentration The solution outside the cell has higher solute
than the fluids inside the cell. than the fluids inside the cell.
Hypotonic Solution Hypertonic Solution
Exosmosis occurs as the water molecules mov

Endosmosis occurs as the water molecules move into the cell.
cell.
When placed in Hypotonic Solution, the cell slightly enlarges When placed in Hypertonic Solution, the cell
or even bursts. and loses shape.
(d) Difference between Turgidity and Flaccidity
Turgidity Flaccidity
It is the state of a cell in which the cell wall is rigid and stretched by an It is the condition in which the
increase in the volume of vacuoles due to the absorption of water. shrunken and the cell is not tig
It occurs when the cell is place

It occurs when the cell is placed in Hypotonic solution.
solution.
It is caused by Endosmosis. It is caused by Exosmosis.
Water moves into the cell. Water moves out of the cell.
Question 2
Mention whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Correct the false statements
by altering the last word only.
(a) Addition of salt to pickles prevents the growth of bacteria because they turn turgid.
(b) Cells that have lost their water content are said to be deplasmolysed.
(c) Xylem is the water conducting tissue in plants.
(d) The protoplasm shrinks, when a cell is kept in hypotonic solution.
(e) The cell wall of the root cell is a differentially permeable membrane.
Answer
(a) False
Corrected statement — Addition of salt to pickles prevents the growth of bacteria because they
turn flaccid.
(b) False
Corrected statement — Cells that have lost their water content are said to be plasmolysed.
(c) True
(d) False
Corrected statement — The protoplasm shrinks, when a cell is kept in hypertonic solution.
(e) False
Corrected statement — The cell wall of the root cell is a permeable membrane.
Question 3
Mention whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) and give explanation in
support of your answer.
(a) Guttation is another name for bleeding in plants.
(b) Soaked seeds burst their seed coats.
(c) If the phloem of a twig is removed keeping the xylem intact, the leaves of a twig wilt.
(d) Guttation in plants occurs maximum at mid-day.
(e) Raisins when submerged in water swell up due to endosmosis.
Answer
(a) False
Reason — Guttation is the process by which drops of water appear along leaf margins due to
excessive root pressure whereas bleeding is the loss of cell sap through a cut stem.
(b) True
Reason — The seeds and grains swell up when soaked in water due to imbibition and
endosmosis. The force generated by water thus absorbed is strong enough to make the seeds
coats burst.
(c) False
Reason — The leaves of the twig remain turgid since its xylem is intact and xylem is responsible
for water conduction in plants.
(d) False
Reason — Guttation is the exudation of drops of xylem sap on the tips of leaves and occurs due
to excessive root pressure. It is maximum when root pressure is maximum which occurs in the
early mornings or at night. This is because during these times, transpiration is very low and water
absorption is very high.
(e) True
Reason — When raisins are submerged in water, concentration of solute inside the raisins is
more than the concentration of water. Water acts as a hypotonic solution for raisins due to which
endosmosis occurs. As raisins absorb water due to endosmosis, they swell up.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
Give two examples of turgor movements in plants.
Answer
Two examples of turgor movements in plants.
(i) The rapid dropping of the leaves of the sensitive plant Mimosa pudica, is an outstanding
example of turgor movement. If one of the leaves is touched, even lightly, the leaflets fold up
and within 2 to 3 seconds, the entire leaf droops. If the leaf is touched somewhat strongly, the
wave of folding and drooping spreads from the stimulated leaf to all neighbouring leaves.
(ii) Turgor movements are found in insectivorous plants whose leaves close up to entrap a
living prey. When the insect comes in contact with the leaf, it loses its turgor hence closing the
leaves of the plant.
Question 2
(a) Imbibition
(b) Diffusion
(c) Osmosis
(d) Osmotic pressure
(e) Active transport
(f) Tonicity
(g) Root pressure
Answer
(a) Imbibition — Imbibition is a phenomenon by which the living or dead plant cells absorb
water by surface attraction. Its the passive absorption of water by substances such as cellulose (in
cell wall) and starch.
(b) Diffusion — Diffusion is the free movement of molecules of a substance (solute or solvent,
gas, liquid) from the region of their higher concentration to the region of their lower
concentration when the two are in a direct contact.
(c) Osmosis — Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from their region of higher
concentration (dilute solution or with a lower solute concentration) to their region of lower
concentration (concentrated solution or with a higher solute concentration) through a semi
permeable membrane.
(d) Osmotic pressure — Osmotic pressure is the minimum pressure that must be exerted to
prevent the passage of the pure solvent into the solution when the two are separated by a semi-
permeable membrane.
(e) Active transport — Active transport is the passage of a substance from its lower to higher
concentration through a living cell membrane using energy from the cell.
(f) Tonicity — Relative concentration of the solutions that determine the direction and extent of
diffusion is called tonicity.
(g) Root pressure — The upward flow of water due to heavy pressure from the roots is called
root pressure. Thus, it is one of the forces to raise water up through the stem into the leaves.
Question 3
Give reasons for the following:
(a) If you sprinkle some common salt on grass growing on a lawn, it is killed at that spot.
(b) If you uproot a plant from the soil, its leaves soon wilt.
(c) It is better to transplant seedlings in a flower-bed in the evening and not in the morning.
(d) A plant cell when kept in a hypertonic salt solution for about 30 minutes turns flaccid.
(e) Potato cubes when placed in water become firm and increase in size.
Answer
(a) When common salt is sprinkled on grass growing in lawn, the common salt acts as a
hypertonic solution for the grass. The cells of grass start losing water, grass becomes flaccid and
Plasmolysis occurs causing the protoplasm to go away from the cell wall. This creates gaps
between the membrane and the cell wall. Grass cells shrink completely and ultimately get killed.
(b) If a plant is uprooted, the leaves continue losing water by transpiration, but there is no more
water absorbed by the roots. This does not allow the compensation for the loss of water by
transpiration hence the leaves of the uprooted plant wilt soon.
(c) Transplantation in the evening helps the seedlings to adjust for a longer time during the night
(cooler temperatures) because the quantity of water absorbed exceeds the loss of water through
transpiration. Therefore, it is better to transplant seedling in a flower bed in the evening and not
in the morning.
(d) When a plant cell is kept in a hypertonic salt solution, it starts losing water due to
Plasmolysis. As the solution outside the cell has higher solute concentration than the fluids inside
the cell so exosmosis occurs. In 30 minutes, the plant cell will lose its distended appearance, the
cytoplasm will shrink and the plasma membrane will withdraw from the cell wall causing the
plant cell to turn flaccid.
(e) Potato cubes contain excess of salts and sugars as compared to the water in which the cubes
are placed. Hence, due to endosmosis, water from the surrounding enters the potato cubes
making them firm and increasing their size.
Question 4
What are the four main forces which contribute to the ascent of sap (upward movement of water
and minerals) ? Name them and explain in short.
Answer
The four main forces which contribute to the ascent of sap are:
1. Root pressure — Root pressure builds up sufficient force to push the sap in the xylem
vessels up to a certain height and may be enough for herbaceous plants.
2. Capillary force — Capillarity (narrow diameter) of xylem vessels causes the water from
a lower level to rise to fill up the vacuum created by the loss of water due to transpiration
from the leaves. Narrower the diameter of a tube, greater will be the height of water
rising in it exerting a force called capillary force.
3. Transpiration pull — As the water is lost from the leaf surface by transpiration, more
water molecules are pulled up due to the tendency of water molecules to remain joined
(cohesion), and thus to produce a continuous column of water through the stem.
4. Adhesion — It causes the water to stick to the surface of cells thus drawing more water
molecules from below when the leaf cells lose water during transpiration. This pulling
force (or suction force) provided by the leaves is important for tall trees.
Question 5
What is transpirational pull? How is it caused?
Answer
As water is lost from the leaf surface by transpiration, more water molecules are pulled up due to
the tendency of water molecules to remain joined i.e. cohesion. This produces a continuous
column of water throughout the stem which is known as 'transpiration pull'. A negative pressure
or tension is produced in the xylem that pulls the water from the roots and soil. Transpirational
pull is an important force which causes the ascent of sap.
Question 1
A leaf cell of a water plant was placed in a liquid other than pond water. After sometime, it
assumed a shape as shown below:
(a) Give the term for the state of the cell it has acquired.
(b) Name the structure which acts as a selectively permeable membrane.
(c) Comment on the nature (tonicity) of the liquid surrounding the cell.
(d) Name any one feature of this plant cell which is not present in an animal cell.
(e) Redraw in the space provided, the diagram of the cell if it is soon placed in ordinary water for
some time.
Answer
(a) Flaccid cell
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) The liquid surrounding the cell is hypertonic solution. It has higher solute concentration
outside the cell than the fluids inside the cell.
(d) Cell wall
(e) The cell will become turgid as follows:

Question 2
The diagram given below represents an experimental set-up to demonstrate a certain process.
Study the same and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the process.
(b) Define the above named process.
(c) What would you observe in the experimental set-up after an hour or so?
(d) What control experiment can be set up for comparison?
(e) Keeping in mind the root-hair, cell and its surroundings, name the parts that correspond to (1)
concentrated sugar solution (2) parchment paper and (3) water in the beaker.
(f) Name any other material that can be used instead of parchment paper in the above
experiment.
(g) Mention any two advantages of the process to the plants.
Answer
(a) Osmosis
(b) Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from their region of higher concentration
(dilute solution or with a lower solute concentration) to their region of lower concentration
(concentrated solution or with a higher solute concentration) through a semi permeable
membrane.
(c) After an hour or so, the level of sugar solution in the thistle funnel will rise and the level of
water in the beaker will drop slightly.
(d) As a control, take another thistle funnel with plain water filled in it and suspend it in another
beaker also containing water. Again mark the level on its stem.
(e) The corresponding parts are mentioned below:
1. Concentrated sugar solution → Cell sap (of higher concentration than that of the
surrounding water) within the root hair.
2. Parchment paper → Cell membrane of root hair.
3. Water in the beaker → Water in soil.
(f) The other substance that can be used instead of parchment paper in the above experiment is
cellophane paper or animal bladder.
(g) Advantages of the osmosis process are —
1. It controls the absorption of water by root hairs from the soil.

2. It controls opening and closing of stomata during transpiration through its regulation of
the turgidity of guard cells.
Question 3
The diagram below represents a layer of epidermal cells showing a fully grown root hair. Study
the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.

(b) The root hair cell is in a turgid state. Name and explain the process that caused this state.
(c) Mention one distinct difference between the parts labelled A and B.
(d) Draw a diagram of the above root hair cell as it would appear when a concentrated solution of
fertilizers is added near it.
Answer
(a) The parts labelled A, B, C and D are:
• A → Cell wall
• B → Cell membrane
• C → Cytoplasm
• D → Nucleus
(b) A root hair gets turgid because of the absorption of water from the surrounding. Absorption
of water by root hair is achieved by the process of Osmosis. Root hairs contain cell sap which
has a higher concentration of salts as compared to the outside soil water. This causes the water
from the surrounding to move in because of endosmosis and in the process the root hair gets
turgid.
(c) The cell wall of a root hair is freely permeable and allows both salt and water to pass through
whereas the cell membrane of a root hair is semi-permeable and does not allow large dissolved
salt molecules to pass through.
(d) Below is the diagram of the root hair cell as it would appear when a concentrated solution of
fertilizers is added near it:
Question 4
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the process being studied in the above experiment.
(b) Explain the process mentioned in (a) above
(c) Why is oil placed over water?
(d) What do we observe with regard to the level of water when this set up is placed in (1) bright
sunlight (2) humid conditions (3) windy day?
(e) Mention any three adaptations found in the roots of the plant which enable them to carry out
the process mentioned in (a).
Answer
(a) The process of absorption of water by plant roots through osmosis is being studied here.
(b) Absorption of water by the root is by means of root hairs. A root hair contains cell sap which
has a higher concentration of salts as compared to the outside soil water. This difference sets of
osmosis and the outside soil water diffuses into the root hair. From the cell bearing root hair,
water continues to pass to adjoining cells one after another to finally enter the xylem vessels. The
turgidity acquired by the cells in the process also helps to push the water upwards through the
xylem vessels.
(c) The surface of water is covered with oil to prevent any loss of water by evaporation.
(d) Roots absorb water and hence, the level of water in set up A falls down. Since the surface of
water was covered with oil, there will be no effect of factors such as bright sunlight, humid
conditions and windy day on the given set up. Hence, the level of water.
(d) Below are the observations with regard to the level of water for the different situations:
• Bright Sunlight — When this set up is placed in bright sunlight, the water level in the test
tube is seen to be less when compare to its initial marking as the rate of transpiration is
very high.
• Humid Conditions — When this set up is placed in humid conditions, the water level in
the test tube decreases from its initial mark, but at a very slow rate as the rate of
transpiration is reduced.
• Windy Day — When this set up is placed in windy day the rate of transpiration highly
increases thus the level of the water in the test tube is seen to decrease fast from its initial
marking.
(e) Adaptations in plants to foster the process of absorption of water by plant roots:
1. Large surface area provided by rootlets and root hairs.

2. Root hairs contain cell sap at a higher concentration than that of the surrounding water
3. Root hairs with thin walls.
Question 5
Three cylinders of potato were carefully dried on a blotting paper and weighed. Each piece
weighed 3 grams. Each one was placed in the beaker as shown below:
Answer the following questions:

(a) After 48 hours, which potato cylinder would be the heaviest?
(b) The movement of which substance is mainly responsible for the weight change in the potato
cylinders?
(c) Name and define the process which is responsible for the movement of substance mentioned
in answer (b).
(d) Write specific names of the processes which occur in beakers B and C [kinds of processes
defined in answer (c)].
(e) Would there be any difference in the weight of the potato cylinder in beaker A after 48 hours?
Give reason.
Answer
(a) After 48 hours, Cylinder B kept in distilled water will be the heaviest as distilled water will
act as a hypotonic solution for Potato Cylinder. The Potato Cylinder will absorb distilled water
from the beaker through the process of endosmosis and its weight will increase.
(b) Movement of water between potato cylinders and beakers is mainly responsible for the
weight change in the potato cylinders.
(c) The physical process which is responsible for the movement of substance mentioned in
answer (b) is Osmosis. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from their region of higher
concentration to their region of lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
(d) The process that takes place in beaker B is osmosis, which is diffusion of water across the
membrane of the potato slice cells. Plasmolysis occurs in beaker C as the potato shrinks due to
hypotonic solution of 20% sucrose solution.
(d) Beaker B → Endosmosis

Beaker C → Exosmosis
(e) There will be no change in the weight of the potato cylinder in beaker A because it is kept in
air. As there is no movement of water between potato cylinder and beaker so no significant
change in the weight of the potato cylinder is observed in beaker A.
Question 6
The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of a part of the cross-section of the root
in the root hair zone. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) The parts labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 are :
1. Root hair, Xylem vessel, Soil particles, Cortex respectively.

2. Xylem vessel, Soil particles, Root hair, Cortex respectively.
3. Root hair, Xylem vessel, Cortex, Soil particles respectively.
4. Cortex, Soil particles, Xylem vessel, Root hair respectively.
(b) The process that enables the passage of water from soil into the root hair is :
1. Diffusion
2. Active transport
3. Osmosis
4. Passive absorption
(c) The kind of force which exists between a liquid and any surface is called as :
1. Cohesive force
2. Adhesive force
3. Capillarity
4. Suction force
(d) The kind of force between the same kind of liquid molecules is :
1. Capillary force
2. Transpirational pull
3. Adhesive force
4. Cohesive force
(e) Sometimes exudation of water occurs from the margin of the leaves in early morning or
night. It is termed as :
1. Transpiration
2. Bleeding
3. Guttation
4. Osmosis
Answer
(a) Root hair, Xylem vessel, Soil particles, Cortex respectively.
(b) Osmosis
(c) Adhesive force
(d) Cohesive force
(e) Guttation
Question 7
Study the experimental setup in the figure and then answer the questions that follow.
(a) What phenomenon is being studied by this setup?
(b) Explain the phenomenon mentioned in (a) above.
(c) What is meant by 'semipermeable membrane'?
(d) What will you observe in the setup after about half an hour? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer
(a) Osmosis phenomenon is being studied by this setup.
(b) Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from their region of higher concentration
(dilute solution or with a lower solute concentration) to their region of lower concentration
(concentrated solution or with a higher solute concentration) through a semi permeable
membrane.
(c) A semipermeable membrane is a membrane which allows the passage of molecules

selectively. It allows a solvent such as water molecules to pass through it freely but prevents the
passage of the solute (sugar or salt molecules in solution).
(d) Water molecules will continue to pass from 5% sucrose solution to 10% sucrose solution
through the semipermeable membrane due to osmosis. This will continue till the concentration of
water molecules becomes the same in both ends of the setup.
Question 8
Given below is the figure of a plant cell showing different kinds of pressure acting upon it. Study
the figure and answer the questions that follow:
(a) In the figure, 1, 2 and 3 represent :
1. Cytoplasm, Nucleus, Vacuole respectively

2. Vacuole, Cytoplasm, Cell wall respectively.
3. Cytoplasm, Cell membrane and vacuole respectively.
4. Cytoplasm, Cell wall and Vacuole respectively.
(b) B in the figure represents :

1. Osmotic pressure
2. Turgor pressure
3. Wall pressure
4. Diffusion pressure
(c) A in the figure represents :
1. imbibition pressure
2. Wall pressure
3. Turgor pressure
4. Osmotic pressure
(d) C in the figure represents :
1. Turgor pressure
2. Osmotic pressure
3. Wall pressure
4. Imbibition pressure
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a plasmolysed plant cell.
Answer
(a) Cytoplasm, Cell wall and Vacuole respectively.
(b) Wall pressure
(c) Turgor pressure
(d) Osmotic pressure
(e) Labelled diagram of a plasmolysed plant cell is given below :

Chapter 5
Transpiration
Progress Check 1
Question 1
Transpiration is best defined as (tick-mark the correct option).
(a) loss of water from the plant.
(b) loss of water as vapour from the plants.
(c) evaporation of water from the surface of leaves.
Answer
loss of water as vapour from the plants.
Question 2
In one of the experiments to demonstrate transpiration, we used cobalt chloride paper. What are
the characteristics of this paper that suit the experiment?
Answer
Cobalt chloride paper is an indicator of moisture. It is blue when dry but turns pink when
exposed to moisture.
Question 3
Look at the experiment shown in figure below. Suppose you took a single flower with a long
stalk dipping in water, instead of a leafy twig. Will it serve the purpose? Yes/No. Give reason.
Answer
No, it will not serve the purpose because the number of stomata is much lesser on petals as
compared to leaves. Moreover, there are no roots also to actively absorb water and increase the
rate of transpiration. Hence, the water loss through transpiration will be negligible in this case.
Question 4
Mention any two limitations in the use of potometers.
Answer
Two limitations in the use of potometer are:
1. Introducing the air bubble is not very easy.

2. Any change in the outside air temperature may affect the position of the air bubble in the
capillary tube.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
From the following list, pick out the parts through which the water vapour of transpiration leaves
the leaf and rearrange them in proper sequence.
Xylem vessels, mesophyll cells, stoma, intercellular space and substomatal space.
Answer
Xylem vessels → mesophyll cells → intercellular space → substomatal space → stoma
Question 2
Does diffusion play a role in the passage of water vapour from the leaf during transpiration? If
so, how?
Answer
Yes, diffusion plays a role in the passage of water vapour from the leaf during transpiration. The
entire movement of water vapour from a cell into the outside atmosphere is a result of diffusion.
The molecules of water vapour, like those of any gas, move from the region of their higher
concentration to the region of their lower concentration.
Question 3
In any experiment to demonstrate transpiration, the leaf must remain attached to its parent plant.
Why is this so?
Answer
In any experiment to demonstrate transpiration, the leaf must remain attached to its parent plant
because on detachment the leaf may die and stomata gets closed.
Question 4
Out of the three kinds of transpiration, which one is maximum and which one is minimum?
1. Maximum ...............
2. Minimum ...............
Answer
1. Stomatal transpiration
2. Cuticular transpiration
Progress Check 3
Question 1
How will the following conditions affect transpiration ?
(i) Still air
(ii) Midday high temperature
(iii) Dry air
(iv) Dim sunlight
(v) Insufficient absorption of water by the roots
Answer
(i) Still air — decreases transpiration
(ii) Midday high temperature — increases transpiration
(iii) Dry air — increases transpiration
(iv) Dim sunlight — decreases transpiration
(v) Insufficient absorption of water by the roots — decreases transpiration
Question 2
List any three adaptations in plants to reduce transpiration.
Answer
1. Sunken stomata covered by hairs.

2. Fewer Stomata
3. Narrow leaves (reduce the surface area)
Progress Check 4
Question 1
List any four advantages of transpiration to the plant.
Answer
Four advantages of transpiration to the plants are:
1. It has a cooling effect on leaf surface. This cooling effect helps the plant withstand the
heat. Intense heat can destroy the enzymes.
2. It maintains the suction force due to transpirational pull and thus maintains ascent of sap.
3. Regular ascent of sap results in proper absorption and distribution of water and minerals.
4. Transpiration also maintains the turgidity of plant cells.
Question 2
How would you justify the statement that transpiration contributes in bringing rain?
Answer
Plant release a large quantity of water vapour into atmosphere. For instance, an apple tree may
lose 30 litres of water per day and a maize plant can lose 2 litres of water per day. Therefore, the
large stretch of field and dense forests contribute a huge quantity of moisture through
transpiration. This moisture further bring the rains.
Question 3
Differentiate between guttation and transpiration.
Answer
S.
Guttation Transpiration
No.
It occurs from the edges of leaves by It occurs from whole plant surface through stomata, l
1.
hydathodes. cuticle.
2. It occurs in early morning or night. It occurs in the presence of sunlight.

S.
Guttation Transpiration
No.
3. Loss of water is in liquid form. loss of water is in vapour form.
4. It has no effect on turgidity. It may lead to loss of turgidity and cause wilting.
5. Opening of hydathodes are not regulated. Stomatal transpiration is regulated by guard cells.
6. It has no cooling effect. It has cooling effect.
7. It occurs in humid condition. It occurs in dry condition.
Question 4
Plants have no blood, yet we sometimes say that a plant is "bleeding". How do you justify this ?
Answer
Plants when injured, ooze out cell sap from the ruptured surface due to root pressure. This is very
similar to bleeding in animals. Therefore, the term bleeding is used for it.
Question 1
The process of evaporative loss of water from the aerial parts of plant is:
1. Ascent of sap
2. Translocation
3. Transpiration
4. Exudation
Answer
Transpiration
Reason — Loss of water in form of vapour from aerial parts of plant through stomata, lenticel
and cuticle is called Transpiration.
Question 2
The process of oozing out of the fluids from a plant part is :
1. Transpiration
2. Excretion
3. Transportation
4. Exudation
Answer
Exudation
Reason — Exudation refers to oozing out of fluids from plant either from hydathodes or from
injured part.
Question 3
Transpiration occurs:
1. More from adaxial surface of a monocot leaf

2. More from adaxial surface of a dicot leaf
3. Equal from both the surfaces of a dicot leaf
4. More from abaxial surface of a dicot leaf
Answer
More from abaxial surface of a dicot leaf
Reason — The lower or the abaxial side of leaf has more stomata which results in more
transpiration.
Question 4
Guttation takes place through:
1. Stomata
2. Lenticels
3. Hydathodes
4. Cuticle
Answer
Hydathodes
Reason — Hydathodes are small pores found in angiospermic plants (leaves) through which
fluid oozes out in form of tiny droplets.
Question 5
The apparatus used to measure the rate of transpiration is:
1. Barometer
2. Clinostat
3. Manometer
4. Potometer
Answer
Potometer
Reason — Potometers are the devices to measure rate of transpiration.
Question 6
Which of the following is an external factor affecting the rate of transpiration ?
1. Number of stomata
2. Exposed surface
3. Humidity
4. Sunken stomata
Answer
Humidity
Reason — Humidity of the atmosphere decides the rate of transpiration. If the humidity is more
then the diffusion of water vapour from sub stomatal space is slow.
Question 7
The upper layer of mesophyll in a leaf consists of elongated ground tissue called:
1. Spongy parenchyma.
2. Palisade cells
3. Xylem cells
4. Phloem cells
Answer
Palisade cells
Reason — The upper layer of mesophyll in a leaf consists of elongated ground tissue called
palisade mesophyll.
Question 8
Transpiration is significant for all except:
1. Cooling effect
2. Suction pull
3. Ascent of sap
4. Translocation of food
Answer
Translocation of food
Reason — Translocation of food is carried out by phloem tissue and is not dependent on
transpiration.
Question 9
Hydathodes are located on:
1. At the petiole
2. Upper surface of leaves
3. Lower surface of leaves
4. Margins of leaves
Answer
Margins of leaves
Reason — Hydathodes are the tiny pores located on leaf margins. They are responsible for
guttation.
Question 10
When guard cells are flaccid, the stoma must be:
1. Open
2. Neither open nor closed
3. Closed
4. None of these
Answer
Closed
Reason — When guard cells are flaccid, their inner wall is relaxed closing the stomata.
Similarly, when the guard cells become turgid the inner wall is pulled outwards opening the
stomata.
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) Openings on the stem through which transpiration occurs.
(b) The process by which the intact plant loses water in the form of droplets.
(c) An instrument used to find the rate of transpiration.
(d) A plant in which the stomata are sunken.
(e) The apparatus to record the rate of transpiration in a cut shoot.
(f) Any two parts of a leaf which allow transpiration.
(g) The structure in a leaf that allows guttation.
(h) Loss of water as droplets from the margins of certain leaves.
Answer
(a) Lenticels.
(b) Guttation.
(c) Potometer.
(d) Nerium.
(e) Ganong's potometer.
(f) Stomata and Cuticle.
(g) Hydathodes.
(h) Guttation.
Question 2
Fill in the blanks:
(a) Transpiration is the loss of water as water ............... from the ............... parts of the plant.
(b) Closing of ............... and shedding of leaves reduce ............... .
(c) Transpiration helps in creating ............... force and in eliminating excess ............... .
Answer
(a) Transpiration is the loss of water as water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant.
(b) Closing of stomata and shedding of leaves reduce transpiration.
(c) Transpiration helps in creating suction force and in eliminating excess water (heat).
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Given below is an example of a certain structure and its special functional activity:
chloroplasts and photosynthesis
In a similar way, write the functional activity against each of the following:
(a) Hydathodes and ...............
(b) Leaf spines and ...............
(c) Lenticels and ...............
(d) Xylem and ...............
Answer
(a) Hydathodes and guttation.
(b) Leaf spines and protection and reduced transpiration.
(c) Lenticels and transpiration.
(d) Xylem and conduction of water and mineral salts.
Question 2
State whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F)? Rewrite the false statements
in the correct form.
(i) Most transpiration occurs at midnight.
(ii) Transpiration creates a pull for the upward movement of the sap.
(iii) Wind velocity has an effect on transpiration.
(iv) Atmospheric humidity promotes transpiration from a green plant.
(v) Transpiration helps to cool the body of the plant.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected statement — Most transpiration occurs at mid-day.
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) False
Corrected statement — Atmospheric humidity reduces transpiration from a green plant.
(v) True
Question 3
Match the terms given in column A with column B:
Column A Column B
(a) Hydathodes (i) Photosynthesis
(b) Stomata (ii) Respiration
(c) Cuticle (iii) Regulates opening and closing of stomata
(d) Lenticels (iv) Reduces loss of water
(e) Guard cells (v) Guttation
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Hydathodes (v) Guttation
(b) Stomata (i) Photosynthesis
(c) Cuticle (iv) Reduces loss of water
(d) Lenticels (ii) Respiration
(e) Guard cells (iii) Regulates opening and closing of stomata
Question 4
Name these:
(a) Three kinds of transpiration.
(b) Three external factors which increase the rate of transpiration.
(c) Three intrinsic features which reduce the rate of transpiration.
(d) Three extrinsic factors which decrease the rate of transpiration.
(e) Four kinds of potometers on the basis of the name of scientists who discovered them.
Answer
(a) Three kinds of transpiration:
1. Stomatal transpiration.
2. Lenticular transpiration.
3. Cuticular transpiration.
(b) Three external factors which increase the rate of transpiration:
1. Increase in intensity of Sunlight.

2. Low humidity.
3. Increase in velocity of wind.
(c) Three intrinsic features which reduce the rate of transpiration:

1. Sunken stomata.
2. Narrow leaves.
3. Thick cuticles.
(d) Three extrinsic factors which decrease the rate of transpiration:
1. Increase in humidity.
2. Increase in carbon dioxide level in atmosphere.
3. Increase in temperature.
(e) Four potometers named after their discoverers :
1. Farmers's potometer
2. Ganong's potometer
3. Darwin's potometer
4. Garreau's potometer
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Transpiration
(b) Exudation
(c) Potometer
(d) Wilting
(e) Hydathodes
(f) Cuticle
Answer
(a) Transpiration — Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from the
aerial parts (leaves and stem) of the plant.
(b) Exudation — The process by which plants lose water or other fluids along with dissolved
substances directly in liquid form and not as water vapour is called exudation.
(c) Potometer — Potometer is a device that measures the rate of water intake by a plant and this
water intake is almost equal to the water lost through transpiration.
(d) Wilting — The drying out, drooping and withering of the leaves of a plant due to inadequate
water supply, excessive transpiration, or vascular disease.
(e) Hydathodes — Special pore-bearing structures present on the margins of the leaf to allow
exudation are called hydathodes.
(f) Cuticle — Cuticle is a waxy layer secreted by the epidermis on the two surfaces of the leaf
which prevents evaporation of water from the leaf surfaces.
Question 2
(a) Stomata and Lenticels
(b) Guttation and Bleeding
(c) Transpiration and Evaporation
Answer
(a) Difference between stomata and lenticels
Stomata Lenticels
They are minute openings in the epidermal layer of leaves. They are minute openings on the surface of old
Maximum transpiration occurs through stomata. Lesser transpiration occurs through lenticels.
(b) Difference between Guttation and Bleeding
Guttation Bleeding
It occurs from the edges of leaves by hydathodes in uninjured plants. It occurs from any cut or injured part
The exudate is mainly water with some dissolved mineral salts. The exudate is mainly plant sap and
It occurs during early mornings or late nights. It occurs at the time of injury.
It happens in certain plants like Banana, Nasturtium, Strawberry. It occurs in all plants that have been
(c) Difference between Transpiration and Evaporation

Transpiration Evaporation
It is the loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial It is the loss of water from the surface of wate
parts of the plant. form of vapour.
It is a slow process. It is comparatively a faster process.
Question 3
Give reason/suitable explanation for each :
(a) Nerium loses less amount of water during transpiration.
(b) More transpiration occurs from the under surface of a dicot leaf.
(c) Transpiration increases with the velocity of wind.
(d) Leaves of some plants wilt during midday and recover in the evening.
(e) Guttation normally occurs during early mornings or late nights.
(f) Forests tend to bring more rains.
Answer
(a) Nerium loses less amount of water during transpiration because they have sunken stomata
that are covered with hair like structures called trichome.
(b) More transpiration occurs from the under surface of a dicot leaf because the number of
stomata is more on abaxial (lower) side of leaf.
(c) Transpiration increases with the velocity of wind because when wind blows faster, the water
vapour released during transpiration is removed faster and the area outside the leaf does not get
saturated with water vapour.
(d) Leaves of some plants wilt during midday due to high rate of transpiration. They usually
recover by evening as the loss of water is compensated by absorption.
(e) Guttation normally occurs during early mornings or late nights when there is least
transpiration. The hydrostatic pressure built, forces out the excess water directly from the tips of
veins in the leaf.
(f) Due to transpiration, huge quantities of water are released into the atmosphere by vast
stretches of forests. Thus, transpiration increases the moisture in the atmosphere and brings more
rain.
Question 1
The given figure represents an experiment:
(a) Leaf A was coated with grease on both the surfaces.
(b) Leaf B was coated with grease on the lower surface.
(c) Leaf C was coated with grease on the upper surface.
(d) Leaf D was left without any application of grease.
All the four leaves A, B, C and D were left in a room for about 24 hours.
(i) Which leaf dries first? Give reason.
(ii) Which leaf dries last? Give reason.
Answer
(i) Leaf D — The leaf with no greasing on either surfaces would dry first because it would lose
water from both surfaces i.e. it would lose maximum quantity of water.
(ii) Leaf A — It was coated with grease on both the surfaces. Hence, it would dry last because
greasing prevents evaporation of water and transpiration occurs through stomata which are
present more on the lower surface of the leaf.
Question 2
Given below is the diagram of an apparatus used to study a particular phenomenon in plants:
(a) Name the apparatus.
(b) What is it used for?
(c) What is the role played by the air-bubble in this experiment?
(d) What is the use of the reservoir?
(e) What happens to the movement of the air-bubble if the apparatus is kept:
1. In the dark
2. In sunlight
3. In front of a fan
Give a reason in each case.
Answer
(a) Name of the apparatus is Ganong's potometer.
(b) Ganong’s potometer is used to measure the rate of water intake by a plant.
(c) The air bubble which was introduced into the horizontal graduated capillary tube moves
along as transpiration proceeds. As the water is lost from the twig, a suction force is set up which
pulls the water from the beaker and the bubble in the capillary tube moves along.
(d) Reservoir is used to release the water into the capillary tube by opening the stop cock.
(e) The movement of air bubble is affected as follows:
1. If the apparatus is kept in the dark, there will be no transpiration as the stomata would be
closed. As a result, there would be no movement of the air bubble and it would remain
stable.
2. During the day, the stomata are open to facilitate the inward diffusion of CO2 for
photosynthesis. At night they are closed. Therefore, more transpiration occurs during the
day. As a result, the movement of the air bubble would be larger since there would be
more loss of water due to transpiration.
3. If the apparatus is kept in front of a fan, the rate of transpiration will be more. As a result,
the movement of the air bubble would be larger since there would be more loss of water
due to transpiration as the velocity of wind/air increases.
Question 3
Given ahead is the diagram of an experimental set up to study the process of transpiration in
plants. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the colour of dry cobalt chloride paper.
(b) Is the experimental leaf a monocot or a dicot? Give a reason to support your answer.
(c) Why are glass slides placed over the dry cobalt chloride papers?
(d) After about half an hour what change, if any, would you expect to find in the cobalt chloride
paper placed on the dorsal and ventral sides of the leaf? Give a reason to support your answer.
Answer
(a) Blue.
(b) The experimental leaf is a dicot leaf as it shows reticulate venation and there are more
number of stomatal openings on the undersurface of a dicot leaf. Hence, transpiration is more
and can be easily observed.
(c) Glass slides are placed over the dry cobalt chloride papers so as to retain the strips in their
position.
(d) The cobalt chloride paper on the dorsal side will turn less pink or turns pink in a much longer
time while the one on the ventral side will turn more pink. This occurs because the ventral
surface has more number of stomata as compared to the dorsal surface. As a result, the rate of
transpiration is more on the ventral side than on the dorsal side of a dicot leaf.
Question 4
An outline sketch of a tree is shown in a diagram below. Study the same and answer the
(a) Name and define the phenomenon labelled A in the diagram.
(b) Write the significance of the process mentioned in A for the plants.
(c) What do the direction of arrows in B and C indicate? Name the phenomenon.
(d) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of an opened stomata.
Answer
(a) A is transpiration. Transpiration is the evaporative loss of water from the aerial parts (leaves
and stem) of the plants.
(b) Significance of transpiration for the plants:
1. Cooling effect.
2. Creating suction force.
3. Distribution of water and minerals.
(c) Arrow B indicates water passing up the trunk and the phenomenon is ascent of sap. Arrow C
indicates water absorbed by roots from the soil and the phenomenon is called Endosmosis.
(d) Below diagram shows an opened stomata:
Question 5
The figure given below represents an experimental set up with a weighing machine to
demonstrate a particular process in plants. The experimental set up was placed in bright sunlight.
Study the diagram and answer the following questions.
(a) Name the process intended for study.
(b) Define the above mentioned process.
(c) When the weight of the test tubes A and B is taken before and after the experiment, what
change is observed? Justify.
(d) What is the purpose of keeping the test tube B in the experimental setup?
(e) What is the purpose of putting oil in the test tube?
Answer
(a) Transpiration
(b) Transpiration is a process by which water is lost in the form of water vapour from aerial parts
of the plant.
(c) Weight of test tube A before the experiment was more than its weight after the experiment.
This is because water from test tube A has evaporated due to transpiration.
Weight of test tube B remains the same before and after the experiment, because no loss of water
occurs in test tube B.
(d) Test tube B is used here as a control. This makes the observation of the change in test tube A
easy.
(e) The purpose of putting oil in the test tube is to prevent loss of water from the test tube by
evaporation.
Question 6
An apparatus as shown below was set up to investigate a physiological process in plants. The
setup was kept in sunlight for two hours. Droplets of water were then seen inside the bell jar.
Answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the process being studied.
(b) Explain the process named above in (a).
(c) Why was the pot covered with a plastic sheet?
(d) Suggest a suitable control for this experiment.
(e) Mention two ways in which this process is beneficial to plants.

(f) List three adaptations in plants to reduce the above mentioned process.
Answer
(a) Transpiration
(b) Transpiration is a process during which water is lost in the form of water vapour through
aerial parts of the plant.
(c) The pot is covered with a plastic sheet to prevent evaporation of water from the soil.
(d) A control for this experiment will be an empty polythene bag with its mouth tied.
(e) Transpiration is beneficial to plants in the following ways:
1. It creates a suction force in the stem which enables the roots to absorb water and
minerals.
2. It helps in cooling the plant in hot weather.
(f) Some plants have developed adaptations to reduce transpiration to cut down loss of water
such as:
1. Sunken stomata
2. Narrow leaves
3. Reduced exposed surface by rolling or folding of leaves.
Question 7
Given below is the figure of a stoma. Study the same and answer the following questions:
(a) Label the guidelines A and B.
(b) Write the exact location of the above mentioned structures.
(c) Mention one important role of structure A.
(d) Write three important roles of structure B.
(e) Redraw the same figure when structures A are in flaccid condition. When does flaccid
condition occur ?
Answer
(a) The guidelines A and B are:
• A → Guard cells
• B → Stoma
(b) Most of them are found under the leaf i.e. abaxial side of leaf.
(c) It regulates the opening and closing of the stomata.
(d) Three important roles of structure B are:
1. Transpiration.
2. Intake of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
3. Respiration.
(e) The flaccid condition occurs when there is less absorption of water. In such condition the
cells lose their turgidity and the stomata closes.
Chapter 6
Photosynthesis
Progress Check 1
Question 1
Answer the following in "Yes" or "No"
(i) All parts of a green plant carry out photosynthesis.
(ii) All green parts of a plant carry out photosynthesis.
(iii) Photosynthesis is the only biological process that releases oxygen into the air.
(iv) Out of nine types of chlorophylls, chlorophyll a and b are the most abundant.
(v) Too much light destroys chlorophyll.
(vi) No transpiration occurs during photosynthesis.
(vii) During sunlight, the guard cells turn flaccid to open the stomata.
Answer
(i) No
Corrected Statement — A few parts of a green plant like roots and flowers does not carry out
photosynthesis as they lack chloroplasts and chlorophyll.
(ii) Yes
(iii) Yes
(iv) Yes
(v) Yes
(vi) No
Corrected Statement — Photosynthesis and transpiration go on side by side.
(vii) No
Corrected Statement — During sunlight, the guard cells turn turgid to open the stomata.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Write the overall summary of the chemical equation of photosynthesis.
Answer
6CO2+12H2O→chlorophylllight energyC6H12O6+6H2O+6O2↑6CO2+12H2
Olight energychlorophyllC6H12O6+6H2O+6O2↑
Question 2
Which single substance in the above equation is repeated in raw material as well as reproduced as
an end product?
Answer
Water
Question 3
What is the source of oxygen released in photosynthesis — CO2 or H2O ?
Answer
H 2O
Question 4
What happens in photolysis?
Answer
The energy of Sun absorbed is used in splitting the water molecule into its two components
(Hydrogen and Oxygen) and releasing electrons. This process is termed as photolysis.
Question 5
Dark reaction involves utilisation of CO 2 in producing C6H12O6 (glucose). Why is this phase called
dark reaction ?
Answer
The given reaction does not require light. It can occur during day as well as night. Therefore, it is
known as Dark reaction.
Question 6
Glucose produced during photosynthesis is soon polymerised into starch. What does
polymerisation mean?
Answer
The process of conversion of many simpler molecules into a complex, bigger molecule is termed
as polymerisation. Several molecules of glucose join together to form a starch molecule.
Question 7
Why is it better to call the dark phase of photosynthesis as "light-independent phase"?
Answer
The old term 'dark-phase' did not mean that it occurs when it is dark i.e. night. It only means that
the reactions are not dependent on light. That is why, it is now better called as "light-independent
phase".
Progress Check 3
Question 1
How do the following favour increased photosynthesis?
(i) Large surface area of the leaf.
(ii) Thinness of the leaf.
(iii) More numerous stomata.
Answer
(i) Large surface area of the leaf enables maximum light absorption by plant. Increased absorption
of solar energy increases the Photosynthesis.
(ii) Thinness of the leaf reduces the distance between cells facilitating rapid transport of raw
materials and translocation of food.
(iii) More numerous stomata allow rapid gaseous exchange and speed up the process of
photosynthesis.
Question 2
Name the three end-products of photosynthesis and mention the fate of each of them in the plant.
Answer
The three end products of photosynthesis are:
1. Glucose (C6H12O6) — It is used in following four ways:

i. immediately consumed by the plant cells
ii. stored in the form of insoluble starch
iii. converted into sucrose
iv. used in synthesizing fats, proteins,etc.
2. Water — can be reutilized in continuance of photosynthesis.
3. Oxygen — It is used in respiration in the leaf cells. Extra oxygen is released and diffused
out in atmosphere.
Question 3
If we keep on increasing CO2 concentration in the air, will the rate of photosynthesis also keep on
increasing in direct proportion? Yes/No. Explain.
Answer
Increasing carbon dioxide concentration increases rate of photosynthesis but it is stabilised at a

particular point (upto 0.02% of CO2 ) if there is no change in light intensity. If the light intensity is
increased then increase in carbon dioxide concentration further increases the rate of
photosynthesis and is again stabilised at 0.05% of CO 2.
Progress Check 4
Question 1
Why is it necessary to destarch the leaves of a plant before performing an experiment on

photosynthesis?
Answer
In any experiment on photosynthesis, the presence of starch shows that the process of
photosynthesis occurred. Therefore it is necessary to remove any pre-existing starch from the
leaves. For destarching, the plant is kept for 24-48 hours in dark. It stops the synthesis of starch
and the pre-existing starch, by then, is removed from leaves and is stored in storage organs.
Question 2
Why do we perform the iodine test ?
Answer
We perform the iodine test to test the presence of starch.
Question 3
What chemical do you use to remove CO 2 from inside a flask in certain experiments on
photosynthesis ?
Answer
Potassium hydroxide
Question 4
All food chains start with a plant. Why is this so?
Answer
The plants are called producers. They are the only organism with ability to convert the solar energy
into chemical energy of the food. Therefore, all food chains start with a plant.
Question 5
The honey bee produces honey. In terms of the food chain, is the honey bee a producer or a
consumer?
Answer
In terms of food chain, the honey bee is a consumer as it consumes plant nectar and derive its
energy from nectar to carry out all the physiological processes. Honey produced by it is derived
indirectly from plants. Therefore, Honey bee cannot be called as a producer.
Question 1
Chlorophyll is located in :
1. Stroma
2. Thylakoid
3. Stoma
4. Fret
Answer
Thylakoid
Reason — Chlorophyll is located in the walls of thylakoid.
Question 2
Which of the following is not applicable to the process of photosynthesis ?

1. Oxygen is evolved
2. Carbon dioxide is absorbed
3. Carbon dioxide is evolved
4. Water is utilized
Answer
Carbon dioxide is evolved
Reason — In the process of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is absorbed and oxygen is evolved as a
by-product.
Question 3
The colour of VIBGYOR spectrum which is reflected by chlorophyll is:
1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow
Answer
Green
Reason — The colour of any object is the light that is reflected by it. The chlorophyll reflects green
colour and therefore it is green to our eyes.
Question 4
The basic functional unit of solar energy which is absorbed by the pigment chlorophyll is:
1. Proton
2. Phytochrome
3. Phyton
4. Photon
Answer
Photon
Reason — The basic functional unit of solar energy is photon that is absorbed by the chlorophyll
molecules and this leads to start of chain of reactions of photosynthesis.
Question 5
The molecules of water split during:

1. Photorespiration
2. Phosphorylation
3. Photolysis
4. Photophosphorylation
Answer
Photolysis
Reason — The chlorophyll molecule absorbs solar energy and this energy is used to split the water
molecule. This process ia called photolysis. (photo means light, lysis means disintegration)
Question 6
The granum is a pile of many :
1. Frets
2. Stoma
3. Stroma
4. Thylakoids
Answer
Thylakoids
Reason — Stacked thylakoids are known as granum.
Question 7
Which of the following is used to remove chlorophyll from the leaves:
1. Iodine solution
2. Methylated spirit
3. Potassium hydroxide
4. Soda lime
Answer
Methylated spirit
Reason — The leaf is boiled in Methylated spirit to remove chlorophyll.
Question 8
The raw material which is reduced during photosynthesis is :
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Glucose
3. Water
4. Oxygen
Answer
Carbon dioxide
Reason — Carbon dioxide loses its oxygen or is reduced to form glucose. (loss of oxygen is
reduction)
Question 9
The optimum temperature for the process of photosynthesis is :
1. 53°C
2. 45°C
3. 25°C
4. 35°C
Answer
35°C
Reason — The rate of photosynthesis is maximum at 35°C and falls beyond it.
Question 10
Conversion of several glucose molecules into starch is termed as :
1. Photolysis
2. Phosphorylation
3. Polymerisation
4. Photorespiration
Answer
Polymerisation
Reason — Polymerisation is the process by which simple monomers (glucose) join to form
complex polymers (starch).
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) The category of organisms that prepare their own food from basic raw materials.
(b) The kind of plastids found in the mesophyll cells of the leaf.
(c) The compound which stores energy in the cells.
(d) The first form of food substance produced during photosynthesis.
(e) The source of CO 2 for aquatic plants.
(f) The part of chloroplast where the dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place.
Answer
(a) Autotrophs.
(b) Chloroplasts.
(c) ATP (Adenosine triphosphate).
(d) Glucose.
(e) The carbon dioxide dissolved in water.
(f) Stroma.
Question 2
Given below are groups of terms. In each group, the first pair indicates the relationship between
the two terms. Complete the second pair accordingly.
(a) Chlorophyll : Magnesium :: Haemoglobin : ............... .
(b) Light reaction : Granum :: Dark reaction : ............... .
(c) Producers : Autotrophs :: Consumers : ............... .
(d) Respiration : Carbon dioxide :: Photosynthesis : ............... .
(e) Water and minerals : Xylem :: Prepared food : ............... .
Answer
(a) Chlorophyll : Magnesium :: Haemoglobin : Iron
(b) Light reaction : Granum :: Dark reaction : Stroma
(c) Producers : Autotrophs :: Consumers : Heterotrophs

(d) Respiration : Carbon dioxide :: Photosynthesis : Oxygen
(e) Water and minerals : Xylem :: Prepared food : Phloem
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Identify the false statements and rewrite them correctly by changing the first or last word only.
(a) Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs during night time.
(b) Photosynthesis requires enzymes.
(c) Green plants are consumers.
(d) Photosynthesis results in loss of dry weight of the plants.
(e) Photosynthesis stops at a temperature of about 35°C.
(f) Photosynthesis occurs only in cells containing chloroplasts.
(g) Green plants perform photosynthesis.
(h) Algae are autotrophs.
Answer
(a) False
Corrected statement — Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs simultaneously with light reaction.
(b) True
(c) False
Corrected statement — Green plants are producers.
(d) False
Corrected statement — Respiration results in loss of dry weight of the plants.
(e) False
Corrected statement — Photosynthesis stops at a temperature of about 40°C.
(f) True
(g) True
(h) True
Question 2
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answer from the choices given in the brackets.
(a) The site of light reaction in the cells of a leaf is ............... (cytoplasm, stroma, grana).
(b) The chemical substance used to test the presence of starch in the cell of a leaf is ...............
(CaCl2, iodine solution, Benedict solution).
(c) Stroma is the ground substance in ............... (cytoplasm, chloroplast, ribosomes).
(d) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is known as ............... (Hill reaction, cyclic
phosphorylation, Calvin cycle).
(e) In the flowering plants, food is transported in the form of ............... (sucrose, glucose, starch).
Answer
(a) The site of light reaction in the cells of a leaf is grana.
(b) The chemical substance used to test the presence of starch in the cell of a leaf is iodine
solution.
(c) Stroma is the ground substance in chloroplast.
(d) The dark reaction of photosynthesis is known as Calvin cycle.
(e) In the flowering plants, food is transported in the form of Sucrose.
Question 3
Are the following statements true or false? Give reason in support of your answer.
(a) The rate of photosynthesis continues to rise as long as the intensity of light rises.
(b) The outside atmospheric temperature has no effect on the rate of photosynthesis.
(c) If you immerse a leaf intact on the plant in ice cold water, it will continue to photosynthesise in
bright sunshine.
(d) Destarching of the leaves of a potted plant can occur only at night.
(e) If a plant is kept in bright light all the 24 hours for a few days, the dark reaction (biosynthetic
phase) will fail to occur.
(f) Photosynthesis is considered as a process supporting all life on earth.
Answer
(a) False
Corrected statement — Photosynthesis increases with the light intensity up to a certain limit only,
and then it gets stabilised at the point S'(0.02% CO 2).
(b) False
Corrected statement — The atmospheric temperature is an important external factor affecting
photosynthesis. With the rise in temperature, the rate of photosynthesis rises. This rise occurs up
to the optimum temperature of 35°C (maximum suitable temperature when the photosynthesis
occurs best) after which the rate falls and stops above 40°C.
(c) False
Corrected statement — Ice cold water will hamper the process of photosynthesis in the immersed
leaf, even if there is sufficient sunshine because the temperature is an important factor for the rate
of photosynthesis.
(d) False
Corrected statement — For destarching, the potted plant can be kept in a dark room for 24-48
hours. During this period, all the starch will be removed from the leaves and stored in the storage
organs.
(e) False
Corrected statement — If a plant is kept in bright light all the 24 hours for a few days, the dark
reaction (biosynthetic phase) will continue to occur because the dark reaction is independent of
light and it occurs simultaneously with the light dependent reaction.
(f) True
Question 4
Given below are five terms. Rewrite the terms in the correct order so as to be in logical sequence
with regard to photosynthesis: (i) water molecules, (ii) oxygen, (iii) grana, (iv) hydrogen and
hydroxyl ions, (v) photons.
Answer
Photons, grana, water molecules, hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, oxygen.
Question 5
State any four differences between photosynthesis and respiration.
Answer
Photosynthesis Respiration
Photosynthesis utilizes carbon dioxide and water in the presence of light Respiration uses oxygen and gluco
to produce glucose and oxygen. activities of the cell.
Respiration results in loss of dry w

Photosynthesis results in gain of dry weight of the plants.
plants.
Photosynthesis Respiration
The raw materials for the photosynthesis are water, carbon dioxide and
The raw material for respiration is
sunlight.
Photosynthesis occurs in plants and some photosynthetic bacteria. Respiration occurs in all living org
Question 6
Complete the following food chains by writing the names of appropriate organisms in the blanks:
(i) Grass → ............... → Snake → ...............
(ii) ............... → Mouse ............... → Peacock
Answer
(i) Grass → Grasshopper → Snake → Hawk
(ii) Corn → Mouse → Snake → Peacock
Question 7
Name these :
(a) Two aquatic plants which can be used for the experiment of photosynthesis.
(b) Two plants having variegated leaves.
(c) Two raw materials for photosynthesis.
(d) Four essentials for photosynthesis.
(e) Two main phases of photosynthesis.
Answer
(a) Hydrilla, Elodea
(b) Geranium, Croton
(c) Carbon dioxide, water
(d) Light, Chlorophyll, Carbon dioxide and water
(e) Photo-chemical phase, Biosynthetic phase

Question 8
Match the terms given in column A with column B:
Column A Column B
Chlorophyll Removes/absorbs CO2
Methylated spirit Tests presence of starch
Potassium hydroxide Traps solar energy
Iodine solution Produces oxygen
Water Bleaches chlorophyll
Answer
Column A Column B
Chlorophyll Traps solar energy
Methylated spirit Bleaches chlorophyll
Potassium hydroxide Removes/absorbs CO2
Iodine solution Tests presence of starch
Water Produces oxygen
Question 9
Complete the following by filling the blanks 1 to 5 with appropriate words/ terms/ phrases:
To test the leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (1) ............... . It is next boiled in methylated
spirit to (2) ............... . The leaf is placed in warm water to soften it. It is then placed in a dish and
(3) ............... solution is added. The region, which contains starch, turns (4) ............... and the
region, which does not contain starch, turns (5) ............... .
Answer
To test the leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (1) kill the cells. It is next boiled in
methylated spirit to (2) remove chlorophyll. The leaf is placed in warm water to soften it. It is then
placed in a dish and (3) iodine solution is added. The region, which contains starch, turns (4) blue-
black and the region, which does not contain starch, turns (5) brown..
Question 10
Write the exact location of each :
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Chloroplast in the parts of a plant
(c) Stroma
(d) Guard cells
(e) Palisade cells
Answer
(a) Wall of thylakoid.
(b) Mesophyll cells of upper and lower epidermis of leaves.
(c) Chloroplast.
(d) Stomata.
(e) Beneath epidermis.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Thylakoids
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Photolysis of water
(e) Polymerisation
Answer
(a) Photosynthesis — Photosynthesis is the process by which living plant cells, containing
chlorophyll, produce food substances (glucose and starch), from carbon dioxide and water, by
using light energy and release oxygen as a by-product.
(b) Thylakoids — Closely packed flattened sacs arranged in piles in the interior of chloroplasts are
called Thylakoids.
(c) Chloroplast — Chloroplasts are minute oval bodies bounded by a double membrane which
contains Thylakoids arranged in piles called Grana lying in a colourless ground substance called
Stroma.
(d) Photolysis of water — Photolysis of water is defined as the splitting of H 2O molecules into
hydrogen ions and oxygen in the presence of light.
(e) Polymerisation — Polymerisation is the process in which several glucose molecules are
transformed to produce one molecule of starch.
Question 2
Given below is the figure of an experimental set-up, showing a physiological act of the plants.
Study and answer the following questions.
(a) What is the objective of this experiment ?
(b) Name and define the process shown here.
(c) Why do we destarch the leaves before performing the experiment ?

(d) How do we destarch the leaves ?
(e) What will be the observation when we pour iodine solution over the bleached experimental leaf.
(f) Write a well-balanced equation of the above process.
Answer
(a) The objective of given experiment is to show that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis.
(b) The process shown here is photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis is the process by which living plant cells, containing chlorophyll, produce food
substances (glucose and starch), from carbon dioxide and water, by using light energy and release
oxygen as a by-product.
(c) We destarch the leaves before experiment in order to remove the starch from leaves so that
occurence of photosynthesis can be detected.
(d) To destarch the leaves the plant is kept in dark for 24-48 hours. This stops photosynthesis in
the plant. During this time the starch already present in the leaves is translocated to storage organ
of the plant fom the leaves.
(e) When we pour iodine solution over the bleached experimental leaf the area where starch is
present turns blue.
(f) The equation for photosynthesis is given below:
Question 3
Give reasons/explain:
(a) It is necessary to place a plant in the dark before starting an experiment on photosynthesis.
(b) It is not possible to demonstrate respiration in a green plant kept in sunlight.
(c) Most leaves have the upper surface more green and shiny than the lower surface.
(d) During the starch test, the leaf is -
1. boiled in water.
2. boiled in methylated spirit.
Answer
(a) A plant used for experiments on photosynthesis should initially be placed in the dark for 24 to
48 hours to destarch the leaves. During this period, all the starch will be removed from the leaves
and stored in the storage organs. The leaves will not show the presence of starch. So the various
experiments on photosynthesis can be carried out effectively.
(b) If a green plant is kept in bright light, it tends to use up all the CO 2 produced during respiration,
for photosynthesis. Thus, the release of CO 2 cannot be demonstrated. Hence, it is difficult to
demonstrate respiration as these two processes occur simultaneously.
(c) Due to more amount of chlorophyll on the upper surface more light is trapped. The chloroplasts
are concentrated in the upper layers of the leaf which helps cells to trap the sunlight quickly. The
upper surface is more green and shiny because it has a waxy coating to prevent loss of water due
to evaporation.
(d) During the starch test,
1. The leaf is boiled in water to kill the cells.

2. The leaf is boiled in methylated spirit till it becomes pale-white due to the removal of
chlorophyll. The leaf now becomes hard and brittle.
Question 4
Distinguish between the following pairs on the basis of words indicated in the brackets ( )
(a) Light reaction and Dark reaction (end products)
(b) Producers and Consumers (organisms)
(c) Grass and Grasshopper (mode of nutrition)
(d) Stoma and Stroma (structure)
Answer
(a) Differences between light reaction and dark reaction (end products) —
Light Reaction Dark Reaction
ATP and NADPH are the end products of this reaction. Glucose is the main product formed during dark
The water molecule split into hydrogen and oxygen. No splitting of water.
(b) Differences between producers and consumers (organisms) —
Producers Consumers
They are autotrophs. They are heterotrophs.

Producers Consumers
They can convert inorganic substances into organic They cannot convert inorganic substances into o
substances. substances.
It includes green plants and photosynthetic micro-organisms. It includes herbivores and carnivores.
For example — green plants For example — Animals
(c) Differences between grass and grasshopper (mode of nutrition) —
Grass Grasshopper
Green grass being a producer is capable of producing its own Grasshopper is a primary consumer (herbivore)
food by photosynthesis. feeds on producers like grass.
(d) Differences between stoma and stroma (structure) —
Stoma Stroma
A stoma is a microscopic pore surrounded by two specialized Stroma is the colourless ground substance fou
guard cells found in the leaves and stems. Its main function is chloroplast. It is the site of the light independ
gaseous exchange. photosynthesis.
Question 5
How would you demonstrate that green plants release oxygen when exposed to light?
Answer
1. Place some water plants (Elodea or Hydrilla) in a beaker containing pond water and cover
them by a short-stemmed funnel.
2. Invert a test-tube full of water over the stem of the funnel. (Ensure that the level of water in
the beaker is above the level of stem of the inverted funnel).
3. Place the apparatus in the sun for a few hours. Bubbles of the gas will collect in the test-
tube.
4. Test the gas in the test-tube. A glowing splinter bursts into flame which shows the
presence of oxygen.
Question 6
Describe the main chemical changes which occur during photosynthesis in
1. Light reaction
2. Dark reaction
Answer
Light reaction
The light reaction occurs in two main steps:
Step 1 — Activation of chlorophyll

The chlorophyll on exposure to light energy becomes activated by absorbing photons.
Step 2 — Splitting of Water

The absorbed energy is used in splitting the water molecule (H 2O) into its two components
(Hydrogen and Oxygen) and releasing electrons.
2�2�⟶energy of 4 photons4�++4�−+�22H2O⟶energy of 4 photons4H++4e−+O2

This reaction is known as photolysis of water.
End result of the products of photolysis

The hydrogen ions (H+) are picked up by a compound NADP (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
phosphate) to form NADPH.
��++�−+�+⟶enzyme��NADP++e−+H+⟶enzymeNADPH
The oxygen (O) component is given out as molecular oxygen (O 2).
2�⟶�22O⟶O2
The electrons (e-) are used in converting ADP (adenosine diphosphate) into energy rich compound
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) by adding one phosphate group P i (inorganic phosphate).
��+�� (inorganic phosphate)⟶��ADP+Pi (inorganic phosphate)⟶ATP

This process is called photophosphorylation.
Dark reaction
The reactions in this phase do not require light energy and occur simultaneously with the light
reaction. The time gap between the light and dark reaction is less than one thousandth of a
second. In the dark reaction, ATP and NADPH molecules (produced during light reaction) are used
to produce glucose (C6H12O6) from carbon dioxide. Fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide
occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast through a series of reactions. The glucose produced is
either immediately used up by the cells or stored in the form of starch.
Below is the summary of events in Light reaction and Light independent reactions of
photosynthesis:
Question 1
Given below is a schematic diagram to illustrate some aspects of photosynthesis.
(a) Fill up the gaps, in blank spaces (1-4), by writing the names of the correct items.
(b) What phenomenon do the thick arrows A and B indicate?

Answer
(a) Blank spaces (1-4) are labelled below:
• 1 → Sunlight
• 2 → Oxygen
• 3 → Glucose
• 4 → Xylem
(b) Phenomena represented by thick arrows A and B are:
• A → Transpiration
• B → Translocation
Question 2
Given below is the representation of a certain phenomenon in nature with four organisms 1-4.
(a) Name the phenomenon represented.

(b) Name any one organism that could be shown at No .5
(c) Name the biological process which was the starting point of the whole chain.
(d) Name one natural element which all the organisms 2-4 and even 5 are getting from No. 1 for
their survival.
Answer
(a) Food chain
(b) Hawk, Eagle
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Oxygen
Question 3
A potted plant with variegated leaves was taken in order to prove a factor necessary for
photosynthesis. The potted plant was kept in the dark for 24 hours and then placed in bright
sunlight for a few hours. Observe the diagram and answer the questions:
(a) What aspect of photosynthesis is being tested in the above diagram?
(b) Why was the plant placed in the dark before beginning the experiment?
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the process of photosynthesis.
(d) What will be the result of starch test when performed on leaf A shown in the diagram?
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a chloroplast.

Answer
(a) The above experiment is conducted to show that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.
(b) The plant was placed in the dark before beginning the experiment to destarch the leaves.
(c) Balanced chemical equation representing the process of photosynthesis is given below:
(d) After the starch test on leaf A, only the green parts of the leaf turn bluish, showing the presence
of starch.
(e) Below diagram shows Chloroplast with its different parts labelled:
Question 4
Given below is the diagram of an experimental set-up:
a. What is the objective of this experiment?
b. Will it work satisfactorily? Given reason.
c. What alteration (s) will you make in it for obtaining expected result?
d. Would you take any step before starting the experiment? Describe this step and explain its
necessity.
Answer
(a) The objective is to prove that carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis.
(b) No, the experiment will not work satisfactorily because, the beaker contains lime water which
does not absorb CO2
(c) To obtain expected result replace the lime water from potassium hydroxide because it absorbs
carbon dioxide.
(d) Before starting the experiment, it is necessary to destarch the leaves of the plant by keeping
the plant in complete darkness for 48 hours. This is because if the plant is not destarched, then
the experiment will give false results because starch stored previously may be detected in the leaf
placed in the beaker even if no starch is produced during the experiment.
Question 5
Draw a neat diagram of the stomatal apparatus found in the epidermis of leaves and label the
Stoma, Guard cells, Chloroplast, Epidermal cells, Cell wall and Nucleus.
Answer
Below diagram shows the stomatal apparatus found in the epidermis of leaves with all the
different parts labelled:
Question 6
Given below is the diagram of an experimental set-up (final stage). Study the same and answer the
following questions :
(a) What is the main aim of the experiment?
(b) Oxygen gas shown in the experiment is released from which of the raw materials ?
(c) How would you confirm the presence of oxygen gas?
(d) Name the chemical substance which can be added in water to enhance the process/rate of
release of oxygen gas.
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the same experiment for its initial stage.
Answer
(a) The main aim of the experiment is to show that oxygen is produced during photosynthesis.
(b) Oxygen is released from Water (H 2O).
(c) The gas present in the test tube makes a glowing splinter bursts into flames. This shows the
presence of oxygen.
(d) Sodium Bicarbonate

Chapter 7
Chemical Coordination in Plants

Question 1
The only phytohormone which is a gas at ordinary temperature:
1. Ethane
2. Ethyl alcohol
3. Ethylene
4. Ethyne
Answer
Ethylene
Reason — Ethylene is the only hormone which is gas at ordinary temperature.
Question 2
The hormone which promotes the ripening of fruits is:
1. Auxins
2. Gibberellins
3. Cytokinins
4. Ethylene
Answer
Ethylene
Reason — Ethylene helps in natural as well as artificial ripening of fruits.
Question 3
A growth inhibiting hormone in plants:

1. Gibberellins
2. Indole-3 acetic acid
3. Abscisic Acid
4. Cytokinins
Answer
Abscisic Acid
Reason — Abscisic Acid acts as growth inhibitor by slowing down plant metabolism.
Question 4
The hormone which stimulates cell division:
1. Auxins
2. Cytokinins
3. Gibberellins
4. Abscisic acid
Answer
Cytokinins
Reason — Cytokinins stimulate plant growth by promoting cell division. They are present in
large amount in germinating seeds and developing fruits.
Question 5
Development of fruits without fertilization is called:
1. Parthenogenesis
2. Parthenon
3. Parthenocarpy
4. Dormancy
Answer
Parthenocarpy
Reason — Development of fruits without fertilization is called Parthenocarpy. It can be induced

by auxins.
Question 6
The response by parts of the plant towards stimulus is called as:
1. Nastic movement
2. Tropism
3. Tactic movement
4. Senescence
Answer
Tropism
Reason — Growth movements occurring in response to unidirectional external stimuli in a plant

part is called tropic movements.
Question 7
Apical dominance is influenced by :
1. Gibberellins
2. Ethylene
3. Cytokinins
4. Auxins
Answer
Auxins
Reason — The phenomenon of the suppression of growth of lateral buds by apical buds is called
apical dominance and it is seen due to presence of auxin in apex region of plant.
Question 8
The growth movement of plant parts which occurs due to touch stimulus is called:
1. Heliotropism
2. Chemotropism
3. Hydrotropism
4. Thigmotropism
Answer
Thigmotropism
Reason — The growth movement of plant parts which occurs due to touch stimulus is called
thigmotropism. For example, coiling of tendrils to their support.
Question 9
The instrument which can be used to demonstrate geotropism is:
1. Manometer
2. Thermostat
3. Clinostat
4. Barometer
Answer
Clinostat
Reason — Geotropism can be demonstrated in laboratory by using Clinostat. It has two set-ups
with planted pots. One is static while the other rotates.
Question 10
The hormone which accelerates senescence (ageing) and abscission of leaves is :
1. IAA
2. GA3
3. ABA
4. GA1
Answer
ABA
Reason — Abscisic Acid (ABA) is the hormone which accelerates senescence (ageing) and
abscission of leaves. It is a growth inhibitor.
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Match the items in column A with those of column B.
Column A Column B
(a) Auxin (i) apical dominance

Column A Column B
(b) Gibberellin (ii) cell-division
(c) Cytokinin (iii) fruit ripening
(d) Ethylene (iv) internodal elongation
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Auxin (i) apical dominance
(b) Gibberellin (iv) internodal elongation
(c) Cytokinin (ii) cell division
(d) Ethylene (iii) fruit ripening
Question 2
Complete the following sentences:
(a) Growth of root towards water is ............... .
(b) ............... hormone inhibits apical dominance.
(c) ............... and ............... induce chemotropism of angiosperms and gymnosperms.
(d) ............... of sweet peas exhibit thigmotropism.
(e) ............... is also called as "stress hormone".
Answer
(a) Growth of root towards water is hydrotropism .
(b) Cytokinins hormone inhibits apical dominance.
(c) Sugars and peptones induce chemotropism of angiosperms and gymnosperms.

(d) Tendrils of sweet peas exhibit thigmotropism.
(e) Abscisic acid is also called as "stress hormone".
Question 3
How is movement in plants different from that in animals?
Answer
Differences between movement in plants and movement in animals are as follows —
Movement in plants Movement in animals
Plant movements are often related to growth. Animal movements are not related to growth.
Plant movements are confined to only some plant parts. Animal movements involve movement of the entire
No muscles are involved in plant movements. Muscles are involved in animal movements.
It involves bending, twisting and elongation of plant

It involves displacement from one place to another.
parts.
Movement is said to be non-locomotory. Movement is said to be locomotory.
Plants generally move to secure support, capture food or Animals generally move to find mates, for protectio
to find water or soil nutrients. environmental changes and to capture food.
Question 4
Name the stimulus which causes the following movements in plants: phototropism,
thigmotropism, hydrotropism and geotropism.
Answer
• Phototropism → Light
• Thigmotropism → Touch
• Hydrotropism → Water
• Geotropism → Gravity
Question 5
Name the following.
(a) A hormone that stimulates growth by cell division.
(b) A growth-retarding hormone in plants.
(c) The main auxin found in most plants.
Answer
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Indole 3-acetic acid (IAA)
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Phytohormones
(b) Tropism
(c) Clinostat
(d) Apical dominance
(e) Parthenocarpy
(f) Abscission
(g) Heliotropism
Answer
(a) Phytohormones — Phytohormones or plant hormones are naturally occurring small organic
molecules.
(b) Tropism — Response or orientation of a plant to certain stimulus that acts with greater
intensity from one direction to another is called tropism.
(c) Clinostat — Clinostat is a mechanical device that rotates at a slow speed to demonstrate
geotropism.
(d) Apical dominance — The phenomenon of the suppression of growth of lateral buds by
apical buds is called apical dominance.
(e) Parthenocarpy — Development of fruits without fertilisation is called parthenocarpy.
(f) Abscission — Abscission is the shedding of various parts of a plant such as leaves, buds,
flowers and fruits.
(g) Heliotropism — The phenomenon in which the young flower heads follow the sun across
the sky as it moves from east to west direction is called heliotropism.
Question 2
List five plant growth hormones and mention one important role of each.
Answer
1. Auxins — Auxins promote the growth of stem, roots and fruits by cell elongation.
2. Gibberellins — Gibberellins promote the growth of internodes by cell elongation.
3. Cytokinins — Cytokinins stimulate cell division.
4. Ethylene — Ethylene helps in ripening of fruits.
5. Abscisic acid — Abscisic acid induces dormancy of buds and seeds.
Question 3
Differentiate between:
(a) Thigmotropism and geotropism
(b) Positive and negative tropism
(c) Stimulus and response
(d) Phototropism and chemotropism
Answer
(a) Difference between thigmotropism and geotropism
Thigmotropism Geotropis
Directional growth move

Directional growth movement of a plant part in response to the touch of an object.
part in response to gravit
Example — Plants such as sweet peas, Cuscuta and vines have tendrils which coil Example — Growth of ro
Thigmotropism Geotropis
around other plants in response to one sided contact or touch. downward direction.
(b) Difference between positive and negative tropism
Positive tropism Negative tropism
Movement of plant part towards the direction of the stimulus Movement of plant part against the direction of
is called positive tropism. called negative tropism.
Example — Shoots show positive phototropism and grow in Example — Roots show negative phototropism
the direction of sunlight. against the direction of sunlight.
(c) Difference between stimulus and response
Stimulus Response
Change in the internal or external environment of an Resulting action or movement caused by the stimu
organism is called a stimulus. response.
Example — In phototropism, the bending of the sh

Example — In phototropism, sunlight is the stimulus.
response to the stimulus of sunlight.
(d) Difference between phototropism and chemotropism
Phototropism Chemotropism
It means the movement in response to the It is the phenomenon of growth or movement of a plant part to
stimulus of light. source of nutrients or chemicals.
Example — Growth of shoots of plants in Example — Growth of pollen tube towards sugar and peptone
upward direction. gametophyte.
Question 1
The tea plants are never allowed to grow lengthwise. This is done by cutting their apical buds, a
process known as pruning. In this way, tea plants get a dense growth and easy yield. Answer the
following questions:
(a) Name the scientific phenomenon that is being overcome by pruning.
(b) What plant hormone is responsible for the scientific phenomenon mentioned in (a).
(c) Name one plant hormone which inhibits the said phenomenon.
Answer
(a) Apical dominance
(b) Auxins
(c) Cytokinins
Question 2
The figure given below shows the stages of ripening in a banana. Answer the questions that
follow:
(a) Name the plant hormone responsible for the above changes.
(b) Mention two characteristic features of this hormone.
Answer
(a) The plant hormone responsible for the above changes is Ethylene. It is the only hormone
which is a gas at ordinary temperature. It is produced in fruits and remain in the same fruit.
(b) Characteristic features of ethylene are:

1. It is synthesised in flowers, germinating seeds and ripening fruits.
2. It promotes root growth and root hair formation and also induces and promotes fruit
ripening.
Question 3
The diagram given alongside shows a type of tropism. Study the same and answer the questions
that follow:
(a) Name and define the type of tropism shown in the diagram.
(b) Label the guidelines (1) to (4).
(c) Name two effective stimulants that help in the growth of part (2).
(d) Name two groups of plants where part (2) grows towards gametophyte with the help of the
stimulants mentioned in (c).
Answer
(a) The type of tropism shown in the diagram is Chemotropism. It is the phenomenon of growth
of plant organs in response to chemicals.
(b) Guidelines (1) to (4) are labelled below:
• 1 → Pollen grain
• 2 → Pollen tube
• 3 → Ovule
• 4 → Ovary
(c) Sugars and peptones.
(d) Gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Question 4
Study the diagrams given below and answer the following questions.
(a) Name the structures shown as X and Y in the figures (A) and (B), respectively.
(b) Write the functions performed by the structures X and Y.
(c) Name the phenomenon depicted and define it.
(d) How do the structures X and Y differ from each other?
(e) Give examples of the plants which show the said phenomenon.
Answer
(a) X → Stem tendrils, Y → Leaf tendrils.
(b) Stem tendrils (X) and leaf tendrils (Y) enable the plant to climb up a support.
(c) Thigmotropism is the phenomenon depicted. It is the growth movement of plant parts in
response to touch stimulus.
(d) Stem tendrils (X) arise from the stem while leaf tendrils (Y) arise from the leaf of the plant.
(e) Sweet Pea, Vines and Cuscuta.
Question 5
Given below are the figures showing some kinds of tropic movements in plants. Study the same
and answer the following questions:
(a) Which one of these figures is correct? Give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Name the kind of movements shown by the root system and the shoot system. Define each.
(c) What are the two stimuli which affect root system and shoot system? Name them.
(d) Which of the following stimuli affect the growth of root strongly?
1. Gravity
2. Water
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a pistil showing
chemotropism in an angiospermic plant.
Answer
(a) Figure A is correct as it shows roots growing towards gravity and shoot growing away from
gravity.
(b) Root shows positive geotropism and shoot shows negative geotropism.
Positive geotropism is defined as movement of plant towards earth's gravity. For example, roots
show positive geotropism.
Negative geotropism is defined as movement of plant away from gravity. For example, shoot
shows negative geotropism.
(c) Root system — Gravity

Shoot system — Light
(d) Gravity
(e) Below diagram shows chemotropism in a pistil:

Question 6
The box given below contains twelve words. Out of these, ten can be arranged in five suitable
matching pairs. Make these five pairs in the form of a table.
Auxin, Abscisic acid, Fruit ripening, Cytokinins, Closure of stomata, Parthenocarpy, Ethylene, Gibberellins, Tro
elongation, Cuscuta, Cell division
Answer
Plant
Function
Hormone
Auxin Parthenocarpy
Abscisic Acid Closure of stomata
Cytokinins Cell division
Ethylene Fruit Ripening
Gibberellins Stem elongation
Question 7
The figure given below depicts a kind of tropic movement in plants. Study the same and answer
the following questions.
(a) What kind of a movement is shown in figure. Define it.
(b) How does this movement differ from geotropism?
(c) Name the stimulus responsible for thigmotropism. Give one example of a plant showing
thigmotropism.
(d) Name one stimulus which gives a positive response for the roots but negative response for the
shoot.
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the part of plant showing leaf tendril. Name the plant.
Answer
(a) Phototropism.
It is defined as the movement in response to the stimulus of light.
(b) Stimulus for phototropism is light whereas for geotropism it is gravity.
(c) Touch is the stimulus for thigmotropism.

Example — The tendrils of sweet pea plant start coiling around the support in response to touch.
(d) Gravity
(e) Sweet pea plant shows thigmotropism. The labelled diagram showing leaf tendril is given
below:
Chapter 8
The Circulatory System

Progress Check 1
Question 1
Name the two fluids that circulate in the body.
Answer
Blood and Lymph
Question 2
In a coloured diagram, why do we generally show the pulmonary artery in blue and pulmonary
vein in red colour ?
Answer
Conventionally, all veins are shown in blue colour and all arteries are shown in red colour. But
pulmonary vein and artery are exceptions to it. The pulmonary artery is shown in blue as it
contains deoxygenated blood and pulmonary vein is shown in red colour because it contains
oxygenated blood.
Question 3
Name any four substances transported by blood.
Answer
Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Digested food and Hormones are the four substances transported by
blood.
Progress Check 2
Question 1

(i) The yellow coloured fluid part of the blood.
(ii) The respiratory pigment contained in RBCs.
(iii) Any two organelles absent in mature RBCs.
(iv) The process of WBCs squeezing out through the walls of the blood capillaries.
Answer
(i) Plasma
(ii) Haemoglobin
(iii) Nuclei, Mitochondria
(iv) Diapedesis
Question 2
Mention the following:
(i) Average life span of RBCs.
(ii) Range of RBCs per mm3 in a normal adult human female.
(iii) The two major categories of WBCs.
(iv) Blood cells involved in leukaemia.
Answer
(i) 120 days
(ii) 4.5 million
(iii) Granular & Non-granular
(iv) Leukocytes
Progress Check 3
Question 1
State which of the following statements are True.
(i) Process of coagulation starts with the release of a substance from RBCs.
(ii) Blood fails to clot readily in the case of deficiency of calcium.
(iii) The solid fibrin and thrombin are one and the same thing.
(iv) The clear liquid that oozes out after the formation of a clot is serum.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected Statement — Process of coagulation starts with the release of a substance from
platelets.
(ii) True
(iii) False
Corrected Statement — The solid fibrin and thrombin are different. Thrombin converts
fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin in presence of calcium ions.
(iv) True
Question 2
(i) The category of vitamin required for clotting of blood.
(ii) Any two diseases related with blood clotting.
(iii) The antibodies present in the plasma of O type blood group.
(iv) The animal for which Rh stands in the context of blood group.
Answer
(i) Vitamin K
(ii) Haemophilia, Dengue
(iii) Antibody A and B
(iv) Rhesus (common monkey)
Progress Check 4
Question 1
Fill in the blanks :

(i) Ventricles have ............... walls when compared with those of auricles.
(ii) Ventricles give rise to two large blood vessels called ............... and ...............
Answer
(i) Ventricles have thick walls when compared with those of auricles.
(ii) Ventricles give rise to two large blood vessels called pulmonary artery and aorta.
Question 2
Where are the following located?
(i) Tricuspid valve
(ii) Mitral valve
(iii) Pulmonary semilunar valves
Answer
(i) Tricuspid valve — Right Ventricle
(ii) Mitral valve — Left Ventricle
(iii) Pulmonary semilunar valves — Pulmonary Artery
Question 3
Can you answer why the pulmonary artery shown in figure is blue in colour ?
Answer
The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation. Hence, it is
shown in blue colour in the diagram.
Progress Check 5
Question 1
(i) Contraction phase of heart.
(ii) The structure that holds the heart valves in position.
Answer
(i) Systole
(ii) Tendinous cords (Chordae tendinae)
Question 2
Mention the phase of heart beat in which both the atrio-ventricular valves are closed.
Answer
Ventricular Systole
Progress Check 6
Question 1
Fill in the blanks
(i) The ............... have thin and less muscular ............... , and have ............... to prevent back flow
of ............... .
(ii) ............... carry blood to an organ and break up into ............... ending in capillaries.
(iii) Walls of capillaries consist of a single layer of squamous ............... cells.
(iv) The substances to and from the tissues diffuse through the walls of ............... .
Answer
(i) The auricles have thin and less muscular walls, and have Cuspid valves to prevent back flow
of blood.
(ii) Arteries carry blood to an organ and break up into arterioles ending in capillaries.
(iii) Walls of capillaries consist of a single layer of squamous epithelial cells.
(iv) The substances to and from the tissues diffuse through the walls of capillary.
Progress Check 7
Question 1
Name the two major circulations of blood in the human body.
Answer
1. Pulmonary (lung) circulation

2. Systemic (body) circulation
Question 2
From where to where do the following blood vessels carry blood?

(i) Pulmonary artery
(ii) Renal artery
(iii) Posterior vena cava
(iv) Hepatic vein
(v) Hepatic portal vein
Answer
(i) Pulmonary artery — From right ventricle to lungs
(ii) Renal artery — from aorta into kidney
(iii) Posterior vena cava — from lower parts of body into right atrium
(iv) Hepatic vein — from liver into posterior vena cava
(v) Hepatic portal vein — from stomach and intestine to liver
Question 3
Define portal vein.
Answer
A portal vein is one which starts with capillaries and also ends in capillaries
Progress Check 8
Question 1
What is pulse ?
Answer
Pulse is the alternate expansion and elastic recoil of the wall of the artery during ventricular
systole.
Question 2
What are the normal values of blood pressure in a normal human adult ?
Answer
The normal values of blood pressure in a normal human adult is 100 - 140 mm (systolic) and 60 -
80 mm (diastolic).
Question 3
Which kind of cells are mostly found in lymph?
Answer
Leukocytes
Question 4
List the three functions of lymph.
Answer
1. Supplies nutrition and oxygen to those parts where blood cannot reach.
2. It drains away excess tissue fluid and metabolites and returns proteins to the blood from
tissue spaces.
3. Fats from the intestine are absorbed through lymphatics.
Question 5
Name the two main lymphatic organs in humans.
Answer
Spleen and tonsils (node) are the main lymphatic organs in humans.
Question 6
(i) The smallest W.B.C.
(ii) Part of lymphatic system concerned with absorption of fats from the intestine.
(iii) A special lymphatic node on the sides of the neck.
Answer
(i) Lymphocyte
(ii) Lacteals
(iii) Tonsils
Question 1
The corpuscles which transport the respiratory gas oxygen to the different parts of the body :
1. Leukocytes
2. Thrombocytes
3. Erythrocytes
4. Lymphocytes
Answer
Erythrocytes
Reason — Erythrocytes (RBC) contain haemoglobin which transports oxygen to different parts
of the body.
Question 2
Which of following acts like a blood reservoir ?
1. Tonsils
2. Lymph
3. Spleen
4. Tissue fluid
Answer
Spleen
Reason — Spleen releases stored blood during emergency like haemorrhage and emotional
stress.
Question 3
The process of engulfing bacteria by Neutrophils is called :
1. Diapedesis
2. Diuresis
3. Phagocytosis
4. Diastole
Answer
Phagocytosis
Reason — Phagocytosis is the mechanism by which neutrophils engulf particle (germs).
Question 4
The artery with the highest amount of nitrogenous wastes is :
1. Hepatic artery
2. Renal artery
3. Pulmonary artery
4. Coronary artery
Answer
Renal artery
Reason — Renal artery brings blood to kidney for purification (removal of nitrogenous waste).
Question 5
The compound formed by the combination of haemoglobin and carbon dioxide is :
1. Carbaminohaemoglobin
2. Carboxyhaemoglobin
3. Oxyhaemoglobin
4. Carbogen
Answer
Carboxyhaemoglobin
Reason — Haemoglobin combines with carbon dioxide to form Carboxyhaemoglobin. In lungs

it releases carbon dioxide to combine with oxygen and forms oxyhaemoglobin.
Question 6
Which of the following chemical substances is released from Eosinophils ?
1. Histones
2. Antitoxins
3. Antibodies
4. Histamine
Answer
Antitoxins
Reason — Antitoxins are released by Eosinophils. It neutralise the toxins.
Question 7
The doubled-layered membrane which covers and protects the heart is :
1. Pericardial fluid
2. Meninges
3. Pericardium
4. Pleura
Answer
Pericardium
Reason — Pericardium forms the double layered protective covering of heart.
Question 8
The blood vessel without a muscular layer in its wall:
1. Capillary
2. Vein
3. Artery
4. Portal vein
Answer
Capillary
Reason — Capillaries are very narrow tubes with no muscles and allow diffusion of substances
into and from the tissues.
Question 9
The blood vessel which carries blood from the stomach and intestine to the liver:
1. Hepatic artery
2. Carotid artery
3. Hepatic vein
4. Hepatic portal vein
Answer
Hepatic portal vein
Reason — Hepatic portal vein carry blood from the stomach and intestine to the liver.
Question 10
The kind of cells that initiate blood coagulation:
1. Monocytes
2. Lymphocytes
3. Leukocytes
4. Thrombocytes
Answer
Thrombocytes
Reason — Thrombocytes, also known as platelets form the plug at the site of injury and initiate
blood coagulation.
Question 1
Given below are certain structures, write their chief functional activity.
(a) Blood platelets ...............
(b) Neutrophils ...............
(c) Erythrocytes ...............
(d) Lymphocytes ...............
(e) Bone marrow ...............
Answer
(a) Blood platelets → blood coagulation.
(b) Neutrophils → phagocytosis.
(c) Erythrocytes → transportation of gases.
(d) Lymphocytes → Produce antibodies.
(e) Bone marrow → destruction of old and weak RBC's/production of RBCs and WBCs.
Question 2
Name these:
(a) Three components of circulatory system
(b) Three kinds of blood cells
(c) Three kinds of blood vessels
(d) Three circulating fluids in human body
(e) Three non-circulating fluids in human body
(f) Two lymphatic organs
(g) Two components of blood
(h) Two kinds of circulatory systems in different animals
(i) Two components of haemoglobin
(j) Two phases of circulation of blood in human body
Answer
(a) Heart, Blood and Blood Vessels
(b) Red blood cells, White blood cells and platelets
(c) Artery, Vein and capillary
(d) Blood, Tissue fluid and Lymph
(e) Synovial fluid, Vitreous humour and Aqueous humour
(f) Spleen and Tonsil
(g) Plasma and cellular elements
(h) Closed Blood Circulation and open blood circulation.
(i) Haemin (iron containing part) and globin protein
(j) Atrial systole and Ventricular systole
Question 3
Name the following:

(a) Any one vein which starts from an organ and ends in another organ besides the heart.
(b) The kind of blood vessels which have no muscular walls.
(c) The artery which carries deoxygenated blood.
(d) The kind of blood cells which can squeeze out through the walls of one category of blood
vessels.
(e) The smallest common blood vessels formed by the union of capillaries.
(f) The blood vessels which start from capillaries and end in capillaries.
(g) The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the auricles contract.
(h) The valve present in between the chambers on the right side of the human heart.
(i) The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles get filled with blood from the atrium.
(j) The fluid found between the membranes of the heart.
Answer
(a) Hepatic portal vein
(b) Blood Capillaries
(c) Pulmonary artery
(d) White blood cells
(e) Venules
(f) Portal vein
(g) Atrial systole
(h) Tricuspid valve
(i) Atrial systole
(j) Pericardial fluid
Question 4
Complete the following statements by filling in the blanks from the choices given in the brackets.
(a) The blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries is the ............... (hepatic artery/hepatic
portal vein/hepatic vein).
(b) A blood vessel which has small lumen and thick wall is ............... (capillary/lymphatic
duct/artery/venule)
(c) The valve which prevents the back flow of blood in the veins and lymph vessels ...............
(mitral valve/tricuspid valve/pocket-shaped valve).
(d) An anticoagulant present in the blood is ............... (heparin/hirudin/thromboplastin/calcium).
Answer
(a) The blood vessel that begins and ends in capillaries is the hepatic portal vein.
(b) A blood vessel which has small lumen and thick wall is artery.
(c) The valve which prevents the back flow of blood in the veins and lymph vessels is pocket-
shaped valve.
(d) An anticoagulant present in the blood is heparin.
Question 5
Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest the suitable word/words for the
fourth place:
(a) Lub : Atrio-ventricular valve :: Dup : ...............
(b) Coronary artery : Heart :: Hepatic artery : ...............
(c) RBCs : Polycethemia :: WBCs : ...............
(d) WBCs : ............... :: RBCs : Erythropenia
(e) Chest pain : Angina pectoris :: Heart attack: ...............
Answer
(a) Lub : Atrio-ventricular valve :: Dup : Semilunar valves
(b) Coronary artery : Heart :: Hepatic artery : Liver
(c) RBCs : Polycethemia :: WBCs : Leukemia
(d) WBCs : Leukopenia :: RBCs : Erythropenia
(e) Chest pain : Angina pectoris :: Heart attack: Myocardial infarction
Short Answer Type

Question 1
Enumerate the structural differences between white blood cells and red blood cells.
Answer
Structural Differences between White Blood Cells and Red Blood Cells:
White Blood Cells Red Blood Cells
White blood cells are irregularly shaped with lots of extensions. Red blood cells are minute biconcave disc-
White blood cells have a nucleus. Red blood cells do not contain a nucleus.
Haemoglobin is absent in white blood cells. Haemoglobin is present in red blood cells.
Question 2
When are the sounds "LUBB" and "DUP" produced respectively during heart beat?
Answer
The first sound "LUBB" is produced when the atrio-ventricular (tricuspid and bicuspid) valves
get closed sharply at the start of ventricular systole. The second sound "DUP" is produced when
at the beginning of ventricular diastole, the semilunar valves at the roots of aorta and
pulmonary artery get closed.
Question 3
Match the items in column A with those in column B. Rewrite the correct matching pairs.
Column A Colum
(a) SA node Plasma
(b) Defective haemoglobin in RBC Serum
(c) Muscle fibres located in the heart Pacemaker
(d) The liquid squeezed out of blood during clotting Sickle cell anemia
Column A Colum
(e) Never tires, keep on contracting and relaxing Purkinje fibres
(f) Cardiac cycle Cardiac muscles
(g) Liquid part of the blood without corpuscles 0.85 sec
Answer
Column A Colum
(a) SA node Pacemaker
(b) Defective hemoglobin in RBC Sickle cell anemia
(c) Muscle fibres located in the heart Purkinje fibres
(d) The liquid squeezed out of blood during clotting Serum
(e) Never tires, keep on contracting and relaxing Cardiac muscles
(f) Cardiac cycle 0.85 sec
(g) Liquid part of the blood without corpuscles Plasma
Question 4
The table below is designed to indicate the transport of certain substances in our body. Fill in the
blanks with suitable answers.
Substance From To
............... Lungs Whole body
Carbon dioxide ............... ...............

Substance From To
Urea ............... ...............
Digested carbohydrates Intestine ...............
............... ............... Target organs
Answer
Substance From T
Oxygen Lungs Whole body
Carbon dioxide Whole body Lungs
Urea Whole body Kidneys
Digested carbohydrates Intestine Whole body
Hormones Endocrine glands Target organs
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Circulatory system
(b) Blood
(c) Heart
(d) Diapedesis
(e) Phagocytosis
(f) Rh factor
Answer
(a) Circulatory system — The circulatory system is a network consisting of blood, blood
vessels and the heart. This network supplies tissues in the body with oxygen and other nutrients,
transports hormones and removes unnecessary waste products.
(b) Blood — Blood is the circulating fluid contained in the heart and in the blood vessels such as
arteries, veins and capillaries of the circulatory system. Blood from the heart is pumped
throughout the body using blood vessels.
(c) Heart — The heart is made of specialized cardiac muscle tissue that allows it to act as a
pump within the circulatory system. Heart pushes the blood around the body and has different
chambers such as right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle to prevent the mixing of
oxygenated blood and carbon dioxide rich blood.
(d) Diapedesis — Diapedesis is the squeezing of leucocytes through the wall of capillaries into
the tissues.
(e) Phagocytosis — Phagocytosis is the process in which most WBCs and particularly the
neutrophils engulf particle-like solid substances, especially bacteria.
(f) Rh factor — Rh factor is an inherited antigen often found on the blood cells. Some
individuals have these antigens and are thus Rh positive (Rh+) while others who do not have this
antigen are Rh negative (Rh-)
Question 2
Distinguish between the following pairs on the basis of words indicated in the brackets ( ):
(a) Erythrocytes and Leukocytes (Nucleus)
(b) Leukocytes and Thrombocytes (Life-span)
(c) Arteries and Veins (Wall and lumen)
(d) Pulmonary and Systemic circulation (Kind of blood)
(e) Mitral valve and Tricuspid valve (Location)
Answer
(a) Difference between Erythrocytes and Leukocytes (Nucleus):
Character Erythrocytes Leukocyt
Nucleus Absent Present
(b) Difference between Leukocytes and Thrombocytes (Life-span):

Character Leukocytes Thrombocytes
Life span Two weeks 3-5 days
(c) Difference between Arteries and Veins (Wall and lumen):
Character Arteries Veins
Wall Thick and muscular Thin and less muscular
Lumen Narrow Wider
(d) Difference between Pulmonary and Systemic circulation (Kind of blood):
Character Pulmonary circulation Systemic circulation
Pulmonary artery brings deoxygenated blood to lungs Oxygenated blood is transported to b

Kind of
and pulmonary vein takes oxygenated blood from lungs heart and deoxygenated blood is tran
blood
to heart. heart.
(e) Difference between Mitral valve and Tricuspid valve (Location):
Character Mitral valve Tricuspid valve
Location Present between left atrium and left ventricle. Present between right atrium and right
Question 3
Give reasons/explain:
(a) The left ventricle has thicker walls than the right ventricle.
(b) The walls of right ventricle are thicker than those of the right auricle.
(c) Vitamin K is essential for the process of blood clotting.
(d) A mature mammalian Erythrocyte lacks nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum.
(e) People have a common belief that the heart is located on the left side of the chest.
Answer
(a) The left ventricle pumps blood to the farthest points in the body such as the feet, the toes and
the brain against the gravity while the right ventricle pumps the blood only up to the lungs.
Therefore, the left ventricle has thicker walls than the right ventricle.
(b) The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation whereas the right auricle
receives the blood from venae cavae and passes it to the right ventricle. Therefore, walls of the
right ventricle are thicker than those of the right auricle.
(c) Vitamin K acts as a catalyst that transforms some anti-clotting proteins, which are always
present, into clotting proteins when there is a cut or wound to the body. The mechanism of blood
clotting involves the presence of calcium and other clotting factors. Thrombokinase activates an
enzyme called prothrombin activator. The enzyme prothrombin activator then converts plasma
protein prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin is the enzyme which in turn converts fibrinogen
into fibrin. Polymerized fibrin together with platelets forms a clot at the wound site. The
prothrombin is a plasma protein synthesized in the liver. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis
of prothrombin. Hence, Vitamin K is essential for the process of blood clotting.
(d) Lack of nucleus, mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum helps erythrocytes in the following
way:
1. Loss of nucleus makes the red cells biconcave, thus increasing their surface area to
absorb more oxygen.
2. Loss of mitochondria means that they cannot use the absorbed oxygen themselves.
3. Absence of endoplasmic reticulum makes it flexible so that they can move through fine
capillaries.
(e) The heart is right in the center between the two lungs and above the diaphragm. The narrow
end of the roughly triangular heart is pointed to the left side and during working, the contraction
of the heart is most powerful at this end giving a feeling that the heart is on the left side.
Question 4
Write important role/roles of the following:
(a) Tonsils
(b) Spleen
(c) Hepatic portal vein
(d) Basophils
(e) S.A.N.
Answer
(a) Tonsils — Tonsils are lymph glands located on the sides of the neck. They tend to localize
the infection and prevent it from spreading it in the body as a whole.
(b) Spleen — The spleen is a large lymphatic organ. The spleen acts as a blood reservoir in case
of emergency such as haemorrhage, stress or poisoning. It produces lymphocytes and destroys
worn out RBCs.
(c) Hepatic portal vein — The hepatic portal vein is a blood vessel that carries blood from the
gastrointestinal tract, gallbladder, pancreas and spleen to the liver. This blood contains nutrients
and toxins extracted from digested contents.
(d) Basophils — Basophils are a type of white blood cells. They are the least common type of
granulocyte which release chemicals called histamine for inflammation which dilate blood
vessels.
(e) S.A.N. — The sinoatrial node (SAN) is a region of cardiac fibres located in the right atrium.
The electrical wave of stimulation is initiated here and extends over the two atria, causing them
to contract. It is often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart.
Question 5
What is meant by the term 'Double circulation'? Distinguish between the two types of circulation
in our body.
Answer
Double circulation is a process during which blood passes twice through the heart during one
complete cycle. The flow of blood in the heart consists of two phases —
1. The short pulmonary (lung) circulation
2. The long systemic (general body) circulation
Difference between pulmonary and systemic circulation —
Pulmonary circulation Systemic circulation
It involves circulation of blood between the heart and It involves circulation of blood between the heart and t
the lungs. (except lungs).
It carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs to receive

It carries oxygenated blood to the body organs.
oxygen.
It returns oxygenated blood back to the heart. It returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
Question 6
Write the main steps in coagulation of blood in their correct sequence?
Answer
Coagulation of blood (or clotting) occurs in a series of steps as follows:
1. The injured tissue cells and the platelets which disintegrate at the site of the wound
release a substance thrombokinase (also called thromboplastin).
2. The thrombokinase acts as an enzyme and with the help of calcium ions present in the
plasma, it converts a substance prothombin (inactive) of the plasma, into thrombin
(active). Vitamin K, a fat-soluble vitamin is essential for the production of prothombin.
3. Thrombin in the presence of calcium ions reacts with the soluble fibrinogen of the plasma
to convert it into insoluble fibrin. Fibrin is a solid substance that forms threads. These
microscopic threads of fibrin are sticky and form a mesh or network at the site of wound.
4. Blood cells are trapped in the network of the fibrin; the network then shrinks and
squeezes out the rest of the plasma which is in the form of a clear liquid, the serum. The
solid mass which is left behind is called clot (or thrombus).
Question 7
Write the exact location of the following:
(a) Pulmonary semilunar valve
(b) Tonsils
(c) Heart
(d) Pacemaker
(e) Hepatic portal vein
Answer
(a) Pulmonary artery
(b) Sides of neck
(c) Centre of chest, between the lungs and above diaphragm
(d) Upper right corner of the walls of the right atrium
(e) Between liver and stomach, intestine

Question 1
Given below is a diagram of a smear of human blood. Study the same and answer the questions
that follow:
(a) Name the parts 1, 2, 3 and 4 indicated by guidelines.
(b) Mention two structural differences between the parts labelled 1 and 2.
(c) What is the main function of the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3 respectively?
(d) What is the life span of the part labeled "1"?
(e) Name a soluble protein found in "4" which helps in clotting of blood.
Answer
(a) The parts indicated are as follows —
• 1 → Red Blood Cell (RBC)

• 2 → White Blood Cell (WBC)
• 3 → Blood Platelet
• 4 → Blood Plasma
(b) Two structural differences between red blood cells and white blood cells are:
Red Blood Cells White Blood Cells
Red blood cells are minute biconcave White blood cells are amoeboid and can produce pseudopodia with whi
disc-like structures. squeeze through the walls of the capillaries into the tissues.
Red blood cells lack nucleus. White blood cells have a nucleus.
(c) The main functions of the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3 are as follows:
1. Part 1 (Red Blood Cell) — Transport of respiratory gases to the tissues and from the
tissues, transport of nutrients from the alimentary canal to the tissues.
2. Part 2 (White Blood Cell) — WBCs play major role in defense mechanism and
immunity of the body.
3. Part 3 (Blood Platelet) — Blood platelets are the initiators of blood clotting.
(d) The average life span of a red blood cell (RBC) is about 120 days.
(e) Fibrinogen.
Question 2
Given below is a highly schematic diagram of the human blood circulatory system.
(a) Which part (state the number) represents the heart? Give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Which numbers represent the following respectively?
Aorta
Hepatic portal vein
Pulmonary artery
Superior vena cava

Renal vein
Stomach
Answer
(a) The structure 3 represents the heart. It forms the centre of double circulation and is located
between the liver and the head. Also the blood circulation (indicated by 1) begins from heart to
lungs.
(b) The numbers of the structures are mentioned below:
• Aorta → 5
• Hepatic portal vein → 7
• Pulmonary artery → 1
• Superior vena cava → 9
• Renal vein → 8
• Stomach → 10
Question 3
The figures given below show diagrammatic cross-sections of three kinds of blood vessels.
(a) Identify the blood vessels A, B and C.
(b) Name the parts labeled 1-4.
(c) Mention two structural differences between A and B.
(d) Name the kinds of blood that flow through A and through B respectively.
(e) In which one of the vessels referred to in (a) above does the exchange of gases actually take
place?
Answer
(a) The blood vessels A, B and C are:
• A → Artery
• B → Vein
• C → Capillary
(b) The parts labeled 1-4 are:
• 1 → External layer made of connective tissue

• 2 → Lumen
• 3 → Middle layer of smooth muscles and elastic fibres
• 4 → Endothelium
(c) Two structural differences between Artery and Vein are:
Artery Vein
Have thick and more muscular walls. Have thin and less muscular walls.
Have narrower lumen. Have wider lumen.
(d) The kinds of blood that flow through A and through B are:
• A (Artery) → Oxygenated blood

• B (Vein) → Deoxygenated blood
(e) At the capillary level the actual exchange of gases takes place.
Question 4
The diagram given below represents the human heart in one phase of its activity. Study the same
and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the phase.
(b) Which part of the heart is contracting in this phase? Give a reason to support your answer.
(c) Name the parts numbered 1 to 6.
(d) What type of blood flows through the parts marked '1' and '2' respectively?
(e) How many valves are closed in this phase?
Answer
(a) The phase is Ventricular Systole and Atrial Diastole.
(b) Ventricular muscles are contracting during this phase because the valves between the two
ventricles and pulmonary artery and aorta are open while the atrio-ventricular valves are closed.
(c) The parts numbered 1 to 6 are:
• 1 → Pulmonary Artery
• 2 → Aorta
• 3 → Pulmonary Vein
• 4 → Left Atrium
• 5 → Bicuspid Valve
• 6 → Right Ventricle
(d) Types of blood flowing through parts '1' and '2' are mentioned below:
• Part 1 (Pulmonary artery) → Deoxygenated blood

• Part 2 (Aorta) → Oxygenated blood
(e) Two valves — Bicuspid and Tricuspid valves are closed in this phase.
Question 5
Study the following diagram carefully and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the cell labelled 1.
(b) Identify the phenomenon occurring in A.
(c) Mention two structural differences between 1 and 2.

(d) Name the process occurring in B and C and state the importance of this process in the human
body.
Answer
(a) The cell labelled 1 is a Red blood cell.
(b) Phenomenon occurring in A is Diapedesis.
(c) Two structural differences between red blood cells and white blood cells are:
Red Blood Cells White Blood Cells
Red blood cells are minute biconcave White blood cells are amoeboid and can produce pseudopodia with whi
disc-like structures. squeeze through the walls of the capillaries into the tissues.
Red blood cells lack nucleus. White blood cells have a nucleus.
(d) The process which occurs in B and C is phagocytosis. In this process, the WBCs engulf the
foreign particles and destroy them, thus preventing the occurrence of disease.
Question 6
Given diagram is a schematic representation of the circulatory system in humans. Study the same
and answer the questions that follow :
(a) Label the parts 1 and 4 indicated in the diagram.

(b) Which of the above mentioned number is the thickest artery? Also write its name.
(c) Mention the number and chamber of the heart which has the thickest muscular wall.
(d) Which of the above numbers/structures has the maximum number of blood capillaries?
(e) Draw neat and labelled diagrams of the transverse section of vena cava and the part numbered
as 3. Make sure to show the structural differences between these two in the diagram.
Answer
(a) Parts 1 and 4 are:
1 → Right Auricle
4 → body parts
(b) 3, Aorta
(c) 2, Left ventricle
(d) Lungs
(e) Labelled diagrams of the transverse section of vena cava and aorta showing their structural
differences are given below:
Question 7
Given alongside are diagrams of a certain category of blood vessels showing the role of a special
structure in their walls. Study the figure and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Name the kind of blood vessels shown in the figure. What are its branches termed as ?
(b) Name the structure shown inside the blood vessels. Write its important role.
(c) What kind of blood flows through these blood vessels normally? Name the blood vessel
which carries blood from the heart to the lungs.
(d) Name a similar kind of blood vessel which is related to the liver and kidney.
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the transverse section of the blood vessel shown above
showing the three layers of its wall and lumen.
Answer
(a) The kind of blood vessels shown in the figure is vein. Its branches are termed as venule.
(b) The structure shown inside the blood vessels are valve. Its role is to prevent the backflow of
blood.
(c) Deoxygenated blood flows through these blood vessels normally. The blood vessel which
carries blood from the heart to the lungs is the pulmonary artery.
(d) Hepatic vein and renal vein are related to Liver and Kidney respectively.
(e) Below diagram shows the transverse section of a vein with the three layers of its wall and
lumen labelled:
Question 8
Given below is a diagram of the external features of the human heart. Study the figure and
answer the questions that follows :
(a) Label the guidelines shown as 1 to 6 in the figure.
(b) Write the important role of parts 5 and 6.
(c) Name the chamber of the heart which collects blood from the lungs through a blood vessel.
Also write the name of the blood vessel.
(d) Write one structural and one functional difference between the blood vessels 4 and 5.
(e) What happens when there is a blockage in any coronary artery or any of their branches?
Answer
(a) Labelled guidelines are:
1 → Aortic Arch
2 → Left atrium
3 → Left ventricle
4 → Aorta
5 → Inferior vena cava
6 → Superior vena cava
(b) Inferior vena cava transports deoxygenated blood from the posterior or the lower region of
the body (including abdomen and legs) to heart and superior vena cava transports deoxygenated
blood from the anterior or upper regions of the body (including head, chest and arms) to the
heart.
(c) Left Atrium collects blood from Lungs. The blood vessel involved is Pulmonary vein.
(d) One structural and one functional difference between Inferior vena cava and Aorta is:
Inferior vena cava Aorta
Thin wall and wide lumen. Thick wall and narrow lumen.
Transports deoxygenated blood to heart. Transports oxygenated blood from heart to body parts.
(e) When there is a blockage in any coronary artery or in any one or more of their branches, there
is deadening of the corresponding area of heart muscles leading to myocardial infarction (i.e.,
heart attack).
Chapter 9
The Excretory System

Progress Check 1
Question 1
Given below is a list of substances — select the ones that need to be eliminated from the body.
Glucose, excess water, amino acids, urea, carbon dioxide, excess common salt, glycogen, uric
acid
Answer
excess water, urea, carbon dioxide, excess common salt, uric acid
Question 2
Give two examples of the following:
(i) Nitrogenous waste
(ii) Bile pigments
(iii) Main excretory organs
(iv) Accessory excretory organs
(v) Water-soluble vitamins
Answer
(i) Urea, Uric acid
(ii) Bilirubin, Biliverdin
(iii) Kidney, Urinary bladder
(iv) Skin, Lungs
(v) Vitamin B, Vitamin C

Progress Check 2
Question 1
(i) The tube arising from the notch of the kidney on the median side and connecting behind with
the urinary bladder.
(ii) The tube that passes the urine to the outside of the body.
(iii) The inner lighter coloured region of the kidney.
(iv) Knot-like mass of blood capillary inside Bowman's capsule.
(v) The structural and functional unit of the kidney.
(vi) The blood vessel which :
a. enters malpighian capsule

b. leaves malpighian capsule
Answer
(i) Ureter
(ii) Urethra
(iii) Medulla
(iv) Glomerulus
(v) Nephron
(vi) (a) Afferent arteriole (b) Efferent arteriole
Question 2
Given is a jumbled list of the parts of a certain body structure — Loop of Henle, Bowman's
capsule, distal convoluted tubule, glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule.
(i) Name the structure to which the listed parts belong.
(ii) Rearrange the parts in their proper sequence from the starting point to where they end.
Answer
(i) Kidney Tubule
(ii) Glomerulus → Bowman's capsule → Proximal convoluted tubule → Loop of Henle → Distal
convoluted tubule
Progress Check 3
Question 1
State if the following statements are true or false.
(i) The blood flows through glomerulus under great pressure.
(ii) Glomerular filtrate consists of many substances such as water, salts, glucose and white blood
corpuscles.
(iii) Sodium chloride contained in glomerular filtrate is fully reabsorbed in the renal tubule.
(iv) The blood flowing through the renal artery is oxygenated and contains a lot of nitrogenous
waste.
(v) The blood flowing through the renal vein is oxygenated and normally does not contain
nitrogenous waste.
(vi) Excessive uric acid may produce kidney stones.
Answer
(i) True
(ii) False
Corrected Statement — Glomerular filtrate consists of many substances such as water, salts,
glucose and plasma solutes.
(iii) False
Corrected Statement — Sodium chloride contained in glomerular filtrate is partially reabsorbed
in the renal tubule.
(iv) True
(v) False
Corrected Statement — The blood flowing through the renal vein is deoxygenated and
normally does not contain nitrogenous waste.
(vi) True

Question 1
The process of removal of unwanted metabolic wastes from the body is called :
1. Eradication
2. Emission
3. Excretion
4. Egestion
Answer
Excretion
Reason — Excretion refers to removal of all kind of wastes from the body.
Question 2
The organ that does not belong to the excretory system:
1. Urethra
2. Uterus
3. Ureter
4. Urinary bladder
Answer
Uterus
Reason — Uterus (womb) is an organ that belongs to reproductive system.
Question 3
The structural and functional unit of kidney is:
1. Neuron
2. Nerve
3. Glomerulus
4. Nephron
Answer
Nephron
Reason — Nephron is the basic structure which carries out the process of waste removal.
Question 4
Which of the following is not an example of secretion ?
1. Saliva
2. Gastric juice
3. Urine
4. Milk
Answer
Urine
Reason — Saliva, Gastric juice and Milk are secretions but urine is excretory product.
Question 5
The nephrons discharge the urine at :
1. Urinary bladder
2. Ureter
3. Renal pelvis
4. Renal pyramid
Answer
Renal pelvis
Reason — The collecting duct receives the content of nephron and pours it in renal pelvis.
Question 6
An organ that produces urea :
1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Ureter
4. Urethra
Answer
Liver
Reason — Liver detoxifies ammonia by converting it to urea.

Question 7
The main nitrogenous waste formed in the human body :
1. Uric acid
2. Ammonia
3. Urea
4. Creatinine
Answer
Urea
Reason — The primary nitrogenous waste of the body is urea.
Question 8
The condition in which excess glucose passes with urine is termed as :
1. Glycolysis
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Glycogenesis
4. Glycosuria
Answer
Glycosuria
Reason — Glycosuria is a condition when glucose passes in the urine.
Question 9
The accumulation of high quantities of urea in the human body is termed as :
1. Diuresis
2. Dialysis
3. Uremia
4. Micturition
Answer
Uremia
Reason — Uremia is the condition of raised urea in the human body.

Question 10
The process of tubular secretion occurs in :
1. PCT
2. DPT
3. DDT
4. DCT
Answer
DCT
Reason — Tubular secretion occurs due to activity of tubular wall in Distal convoluted tubules.
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) The outer region of kidney containing the Bowman's capsule.
(b) The tuft of capillaries inside the Bowman's capsule.
(c) The part of kidney tubules where the term urine is first used for the fluid in it.
(d) The organ which filters urea.
(e) The organ through which urea is released outside the body of a human being.
(f) The specific pigment found in urine.
Answer
(a) Cortex
(b) Glomerulus
(c) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
(d) Kidney
(e) Urethra
(f) Urochrome
Question 2
Given below are two sets (a and b) of five terms each. Rewrite the terms in their correct order so
as to be in logical sequence.
(a) Afferent arteriole, renal vein, secondary capillary network, glomerulus, efferent arteriole
(b) Renal artery, urethra, ureter, kidney, urinary bladder.
Answer
(a) Afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, secondary capillary network, renal vein.
(b) Renal artery, kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra.
Question 3
The statements given below are false. Rewrite the correct form of the statement by changing the
underlined words :
(a) The outer darker portion of the kidney is termed as medulla.
(b) The Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus together are called as renal tubule.
(c) A pair of renal arteries branch off from the vena cava and enter the kidney.
(d) The glomerular filtrate is collected in Bowman's capsule after the process of reabsorption.
(e) The pigment urochrome is the breakdown product of the haemoglobin of dead RBCs.
Answer
(a) The outer darker portion of the kidney is termed as cortex.
(b) The Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus together are called as malpighian capsule.
(c) A pair of renal arteries branch off from the aorta and enter the kidney.
(d) The glomerular filtrate is collected in Bowman's capsule after the process of ultrafiltration.
(e) The pigment bilirubin is the breakdown product of the haemoglobin of dead RBCs.
Question 4
Name the diseases caused due to the following abnormal constituents in urine:
S.
Abnormal constituents Dise
No.
(a) Blood ...............
(b) Glucose ...............
(c) Albumin ...............
(d) Bile pigments ...............
Answer
S.
Abnormal constituents Diseases
No.
(a) Blood Haematuria
(b) Glucose Glycosuria
(c) Albumin Albuminuria
(d) Bile pigments Anaemia, hepatitis (jaundice), liver cirrhosis
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Write down the functional activity of the following parts:
(a) Glomerulus
(b) Collecting duct
(c) Ureter
(d) Vasa recta
(e) Urethra
Answer
(a) Glomerulus — The main function of the glomerulus is to filter plasma to produce glomerular
filtrate, which passes down the length of the nephron tubule to form urine. It is concerned mainly
with the process of ultrafiltration. The liquid part of the blood which is plasma including urea,
salts, glucose filters out from the glomerulus into the renal tubule.
(b) Collecting duct — The collecting duct system is the final component of the kidney to
influence the body's electrolyte and fluid balance. It receives the contents of many kidney tubules
and pours it as urine in the pelvis of the kidney.
(c) Ureter — It carries urine to the urinary bladder by ureteral peristalsis.
(d) Vasa recta — The vasa recta is a secondary capillary network that branches out of the
efferent arteriole. It consists of long, hairpin-shaped blood vessels that run parallel to the loops of
Henle. The hairpin turns slow the rate of blood flow, which helps maintain the osmotic gradient
required for water reabsorption.
(e) Urethra — Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder through the urethra. This process is
called as micturition.
Question 2
Match the items in Column I with those in Column II and write down the matching pairs.
Column I Column II
(a) Bowman's Capsule (i) Renal artery
(b) Contains more CO2 and less urea (ii) Regulates amount of water excreted
(c) Anti-diuretic hormone (iii) Renal vein
(d) Contains more urea (iv) Glomerulus
Answer
Column I Column II
(a) Bowman's Capsule (iv) Glomerulus

Column I Column II
(b) Contains more CO2 and less urea (iii) Renal Vein
(c) Anti-diuretic hormone (ii) Regulates amount of water excreted
(d) Contains more urea (i) Renal artery
Question 3
Fill in the blanks in the following passage to make it a meaningful description.
In a nephron, the ............... flows through the ............... under great pressure. The reason for this
great pressure is that the ............... (outgoing) ............... is narrower than the ...............
(incoming). This high pressure causes the ............... part of the blood to filter out from the
............... into the ............... capsule.
Answer
In a nephron, the blood flows through the glomerulus under great pressure. The reason for this
great pressure is that the efferent (outgoing) arteriole is narrower than the afferent
arteriole (incoming). This high pressure causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from
the glomerulus into the renal capsule.
Question 4
Name the following:
(a) Three nitrogenous wastes of our body.
(b) Three organic wastes of our body.
(c) Three inorganic wastes of our body.
(d) Three main parts of our urinary system.
(e) Six main parts of nephron.
(f) Three stages of urine formation.
(g) Three types of fluids in different parts of a nephron.
Answer
(a) Three nitrogenous wastes of our body:
1. Urea
2. Uric acid
3. Ammonia
(b) Three organic wastes of our body:
1. Urea
2. Uric acid
3. Creatinine
(c) Three inorganic wastes of our body:
1. Common salt (NaCl)

2. Iron
3. Calcium
(d) Three main parts of our urinary system:
1. Kidney
2. Urinary bladder
3. Ureter
(e) Six main parts of nephron:
1. Bowman's capsule
2. Glomerulus
3. Renal capsule
4. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
5. Henle's Loop
6. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
(f) Three stages of urine formation:
1. Ultrafiltration
2. Reabsorption
3. Tubular secretion
(g) Three types of fluids in different parts of a nephron:
1. Glomerular filtrate
2. Glomerular filtrate with glucose and sodium
3. Urine
Question 5
Choose the odd one out in each of the following sets and write the category for the remaining
terms:
(a) Kidney, ureter, neuron, urethra, urinary bladder
(b) Ammonia, urea, excess sodium chloride, uric acid
(c) Cortex, medulla, loop of Henle, hilum
(d) Glomerulus, collecting duct, papilla, Bowman's capsule.
Answer
(a) Odd term: Neuron

Category: Others are parts of the human excretory system.
(b) Odd term: Excess sodium chloride

Category: Others are organic nitrogenous wastes.
(c) Odd term: Loop of Henle

Category: Others are parts of the internal structure of kidney.
(d) Odd term: Papilla

Category: Others are parts of the kidney tubule or nephron.
Question 6
Write full forms of the following abbreviations:
(a) PCT: ...............
(b) DCT: ...............
(c) ADH: ...............
(d) ORS: ...............
Answer
(a) PCT — Proximal Convoluted Tubule
(b) DCT — Distal Convoluted Tubule
(c) ADH — Antidiuretic hormone

(d) ORS — Oral Rehydration Solution
Question 7
Write the exact location of each of the following:
(a) Kidney
(b) Uriniferous tubule
(c) Malpighian capsule
(d) Loop of Henle
Answer
(a) Kidney — It is located on either side of the backbone and protected by the last two ribs.
(b) Uriniferous tubule — Uriniferous tubule begins in the cortex; the tubule dips down to the
medulla, then return to the cortex before draining into the collecting duct.
(c) Malpighian capsule — It comprises of Bowman's capsule and glomerulus and is located in
the kidney tubule.
(d) Loop of Henle — It runs in the medulla to turn back and to re-enter the cortex to continue
into the next convoluted region of the tubule.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Excretion
(b) Kidney
(c) Micturition
(d) Osmoregulation
Answer
(a) Excretion — Excretion is the passing out of substances that have no further use in the body
or are harmful.
(b) Kidney — The kidneys are a pair of organs that are found on either side of the spine, just
below the rib cage in the back. The Kidneys are powerful chemical factories that perform the
following function of removing waste products from the body, filter waste materials out of the
blood and pass them out of the body as urine. It also regulates blood pressure and the levels of
water, salts and minerals in the body.
(c) Micturition — Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder through the urethra by relaxation
of the sphincter muscles located at the opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra under
impulse from the nervous system. This process is called micturition.
(d) Osmoregulation — The regulation of osmotic pressure of the blood by regulating its
composition (water and electrolyte) is called osmoregulation.
Question 2
Differentiate between :
(a) Ureter and Urethra (function)
(b) Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus (hormones involved)
(c) Glycosuria and Albuminuria (abnormal constituents)
(d) Diuresis and Uremia (problem)
(e) Malpighian capsule and Loop of Henle (location)
Answer
(a) Difference between Ureter and Urethra (function):
Property Ureter Urethra
Ureter brings urine from kidneys to The urine is intermittently emptied from the urinary bladd
Function
urinary bladder. of the body through the urethra.
(b) Difference between Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus (hormones involved):
Property Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus
Hormones involved Deficiency of insulin Deficiency of vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (AD
(c) Difference between Glycosuria and Albuminuria (abnormal constituents):

Property Glycosuria Albuminuria
Abnormal constituents Presence of glucose in urine Presence of Albumin protein in uri
(d) Difference between Diuresis and Uremia (problem):
Property Diuresis Uremia
Diuresis results in increased production of Uremia is the accumulation of high quantities of

Problem
urine due to less secretion of ADH. due to inability of the kidneys to filter out wastes
(e) Difference between Malpighian capsule and Loop of Henle (location):
Properties Malpighian capsule Loop of Henle
Location Beginning of nephron Between first and second convoluted tubule.
Question 3
Give reason:
(a) Excretion is a necessary process of our body.
(b) Why does the cortex of kidneys shows a 'dotted' appearance?
(c) We urinate fewer times in summer than in winter and the urine passed is generally thicker.
(d) Why does the medulla of kidneys shows a 'striped' appearance ?
Answer
(a) Excretion is a necessary process of our body as it is necessary to eliminate certain waste and
toxic products, such as carbon dioxide, urea etc. When these toxic materials are not removed
from the body, they get mixed with blood and can cause poisoning that slows down critical
chemical reactions and damage the cells of the body. Hence it is necessary to remove such
poisonous waste materials from our body.
(b) The Bowman's capsule and the proximal convoluted part of all the nephrons lie in the cortex
of kidneys giving it a 'dotted' appearance.
(c) During summer when the surrounding temperature is high, we lose a considerable part of
water through perspiration (i.e., in the form of sweat, direct evaporation, etc.). This means that
the kidneys have to reabsorb more water from the urine. Due to this reason, we urinate fewer
times in summer than in winter and the urine passed is generally thicker.
(d) Henle's loops and collecting ducts lie in the medulla of kidneys giving it a 'striped'
appearance.
Question 1
Given below is a simple diagram of the longitudinal section of a human kidney. Study the same
and answer the following questions:
(a) Name the part of kidney which is found between medulla and pelvis.
(b) What is the basic structural and functional unit of kidney ?
(c) What is main function of kidney ?
(d) Mention the exact location of kidney.
(e) Write two differences in the composition of blood flowing through blood vessels A and B.
(f) Name the part of kidney which collects urine for the first time from the nephrons.
(g) Define 'Osmoregulation'.
(h) Name the technique which is normally suggested by the doctors to the patients in case of a
permanent damage to both the kidneys.
(i) Name the hormone which is associated with the 'reabsorption' step of urine production.
(j) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a malpighian capsule.
Answer
(a) Conical or Renal pyramids
(b) Nephron
(c) Purification of blood by extracting nitrogenous waste from the blood.
(d) Kidneys are located on either side of the backbone and protected by last two ribs.
(e) Two differences in the composition of blood flowing through blood vessels A and B:
S.
Blood vessel A Blood vessel B
No.
1. It is renal artery. It contains oxygen rich blood. It is renal vein. It contains deoxygenated b
2. Blood has wastes. Blood is purified.
(f) Collecting Duct
(g) The regulation of osmotic pressure of the blood by regulating its composition (water and
electrolyte) is called osmoregulation.
(h) Dialysis
(i) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
(j) The labelled diagram of a malpighian capsule is shown below:

Question 2
Given alongside is the figure of certain organs and associated parts in the human body. Study the
same and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name all the organ-systems shown completely or even partially.

(b) Name the parts numbered 1 to 5.
(c) Name the structural and functional unit of the part marked '1'.
(d) Name the two main organic constituents of the fluid that flows down the part labelled '3'.
(e) Name the two major steps involved in the formation of the fluid that passes down the part
labelled '3'.
Answer
(a) Excretory system and Circulatory system.
(b) The parts numbered 1-5 are:
• 1 → Kidney
• 2 → Renal Artery
• 3 → Ureter
• 4 → Urinary Bladder
• 5 → Urethera
(c) Nephron
(d) Urea and Ammonia
(e) Ultrafiltration and Selective Absorption
Question 3
The figure given below represents a kidney tubule in humans and its blood supply. Study the
figure and answer the questions that follow. Write specific name and numbers shown in the
diagram for each answer.
(a) Name the part which consists of a knot-like mass of blood capillaries.
(b) What is the specific name for the combination of parts shown as 5 and 3?
(c) Name the part which collects the glomerular filtrate.
(d) Where is the most water reabsorbed?
(e) Name the part which collects urine in the diagram shown.
(f) Which part lies in the medulla of the kidney?
(g) Which of the above parts is involved in the process of tubular secretion?
(h) How is hydrostatic pressure created?
(i) Where does ultrafiltration take place?
(j) Name two important constituents of urine.
Answer
(a) Glomerulus (Part 5)
(b) Malpighian Capsule
(c) Bowman's Capsule (Part 3)
(d) Proximal Convoluted Tubule (Part 2)
(e) Collecting Duct (Part 7)
(f) Loop of Henle (Part 1) & Collecting Duct (Part 7)
(g) Distal Convoluted Tubule (Part 6)
(h) The efferent arteriole is narrower than the afferent arteriole. This creates the hydrostatic
pressure.
(i) Glomerulus (Part 5)
(j) Urea, Sodium chloride
Question 4
Given below is a simplified diagram of the human kidney cut open longitudinally. Answer the
(a) Define excretion.
(b) Why does the cortex of the kidney show a dotted appearance?
(c) Why does the medulla of the kidney show a striped appearance?
(d) Write two differences in composition of the blood flowing through the blood vessels, 'A' and
'B'.
Answer
(a) Excretion is the removal of harmful and unwanted nitrogenous waste products from the body.
(b) The Bowman's capsule and the proximal convoluted part of all the nephrons lie in the cortex
of kidneys giving it a dotted appearance.
(c) Henle's loops and collecting ducts lie in the medulla of kidneys giving it a striped appearance.
(d) The blood vessel 'B' is renal artery and the blood vessel 'A' is renal vein. So the blood vessel
'B' contains oxygenated blood with high concentration of urea and glucose whereas the blood
vessel 'A' contains deoxygenated blood with low concentration of urea and glucose as compared
to renal artery.
Question 5
Study the diagram given alongside and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the region in the kidney where the above structure is present?
(b) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4.
(c) Name the stages involved in the formation of urine.
(d) What is the technical term given to the process occurring in 2 and 3? Briefly describe the
process.
Answer
(a) The structure is a Bowman's capsule, which is part of the nephron. The Bowman's capsule is
found in the cortex of the kidney.
(b) The parts labelled 1-4 are:

• 1 → Afferent arteriole
• 2 → Glomerulus
• 3 → Bowman's capsule
• 4 → Efferent arteriole
(c) Urine formation occurs in three major steps:
1. Ultrafiltration
2. Reabsorption
3. Tubular Secretion.
(d) The process occurring in 2 and 3 is known as Ultrafiltration.

The blood flows through the glomerulus under great pressure which is much greater than in the
capillaries elsewhere. The reason for this greater pressure is that the efferent arteriole is narrower
than the afferent arteriole. The high pressure causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from
the glomerulus into the renal tubule. This filtration under extraordinary force is called
Ultrafiltration.
Chapter 10
The Nervous System

Progress Check 1
Question 1
Write one word for each of the following:
(i) The structural and functional unit of nervous system.
(ii) Wave of electrical disturbance that sweeps over the nerve cell.
(iii) Long thread-like part of the nerve cell.
(iv) Point of contact between two nerve cells.
(v) A bundle of axons enclosed in a tubular sheath.
(vi) The kind of nerve carrying impulses from the brain to a gland or muscle.
Answer
(i) Neuron
(ii) Impulse
(iii) Axon
(iv) Synapse
(v) Nerve
(vi) Motor Nerve
Question 2
Categorise the following under stimulus and response.
(i) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot plate.

(ii) Seeing a green light turning into red at a road crossing before applying the brakes.
(iii) Pain in the eye if something falls into it.
Answer
(i) Stimulus — Touching a hot plate.

Response — Withdrawal of hand.
(ii) Stimulus — Seeing a green light turning into red at a road crossing.
Response — Applying the brakes.
(iii) Stimulus — Something falling into the eye.

Response — Pain in the eye.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative given for each.
(i) Brain and spinal cord are the parts of ............... nervous system.
(central/peripheral/autonomous)
(ii) ............... is the largest part of the brain. (Cerebellum/cerebrum/medulla oblongata)
(iii) White matter consists mainly of ............... . (axons/dendrites/cytons)
(iv) The part of the brain concerned with body balance is ............... .(cerebrum, cerebellum,
medulla oblongata)
Answer
(i) Brain and spinal cord are the parts of central nervous system.
(ii) Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain.
(iii) White matter consists mainly of axons.
(iv) The part of the brain concerned with body balance is cerebellum.
Question 2
Given below are a few common reflexes in humans. Classify them as a simple or conditioned
reflex.
(i) Knee-jerk.
(ii) Watering of mouth on seeing a favourite dish.
(iii) Tying of shoe laces while talking.
(iv) Closing of eyelids if a strong beam of light is flashed across.
Answer
(i) Simple reflex.
(ii) Conditioned reflex.
(iii) Conditioned reflex.
(iv) Simple reflex.
Question 3
Given alongside is a partial diagrammatic representation of a certain phenomenon pertaining to

the nervous system.
(i) Name the parts numbered 1-7
(ii) Name the phenomenon that the diagram depicts and define it.
(iii) Give the technical term for the point of contact between two nerve cells.
(iv) Name the parts not shown in the diagram that should be included to complete the pathway of
the phenomenon.
Answer
(i) The parts numbered 1-7 are:
1 → White matter
2 → Spinal cord
3 → Dorsal root
4 → Association Neuron
5 → Ventral root
6 → Gray matter
7 → Central canal
(ii) The diagram depicts spinal reflex action.

It is defined as an automatic/quick/immediate, involuntary action in the body brought about by a
stimulus.
(iii) Synapse
(iv) Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, spinal nerve, effector muscles
Question 1
The basic structural and functional unit of brain is:
1. Cyton
2. Nephron
3. Axon
4. Neuron
Answer
Neuron
Reason — Neurons are the basic structure capable of transmission of impulse.

Question 2
Which of the following structures is absent in nerve cells ?
1. Nucleus
2. Cytoplasm
3. Centrosome
4. Neurilemma
Answer
Centrosome
Reason — Centrosome is absent in nerve cells because they lose their ability to divide (after
differentiation).
Question 3
The number of cranial and spinal nerves in a human being are respectively :
1. 31, 12 pairs
2. 32, 21 pairs
3. 12, 31 pairs
4. 31, 21 pairs
Answer
12, 31 pairs
Reason — There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerve.
Question 4
Which part of the brain controls the posture of our body?
1. Cerebrum
2. Medulla oblongata
3. Cerebellum
4. Pons
Answer
Cerebellum
Reason — The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordinating and controlling voluntary
movements, including posture and balance.
Question 5
The central cavity of the brain is termed as :
1. Thalamus
2. Ventricle
3. Hypothalamus
4. Auricle
Answer
Ventricle
Reason — The central cavity of the brain is called the ventricle. These ventricles are filled with
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which helps protect and cushion the brain.
Question 6
Nissl's granules are found in the cytoplasm of :
1. Nerve cell
2. Dendrons
3. Axon
4. Dendrites
Answer
Nerve cell
Reason — Nerve cell have many free ribosomes and many ribosomes associated with
endoplasmic reticulum, giving the cell granular appearance.
Question 7
The thin delicate middle layer of meninges is termed as :
1. Choroid
2. Dura mater
3. Arachnoid
4. Pia mater
Answer
Arachnoid
Reason — Arachnoid is the middle layer of the meninges.
Question 8
Any factor that can bring a change in the body of an organism is called:
1. Response
2. Stimulus
3. Reflex
4. Impulse
Answer
Stimulus
Reason — A stimulus is any agent or an environmental change which initiates a response in the
body.
Question 9
Gyri and sulci are richly found in :
1. Renal cortex
2. Cerebral cortex
3. Spinal cortex
4. Adrenal cortex
Answer
Cerebral cortex
Reason — In the cerebral cortex, the folds of gray matter are called gyri and the grooves are
called sulci.
Question 10
The white matter of cerebrum mainly consists of :
1. Cytons
2. Dendrons
3. Axons
4. Dendrites
Answer
Axons
Reason — Axons are covered with myelin sheath which gives it white colour.
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) The fluid that is present inside and outside the brain.
(b) The junction between two nerve cells.
(c) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.
(d) The central space of the brain.
Answer
(a) Cerebrospinal fluid
(b) Synapse
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Ventricle
Question 2
fourth place.
(a) Stimulus : Receptor :: Impulse : ...............
(b) Cerebrum : Diencephalon :: Cerebellum : ...............
(c) Receptor : Sensory nerve :: Motor nerve : ...............
(d) Axons : Nerve :: Cytons : ...............
(e) Cerebrum : Corpus callosum :: Cerebellum : ............... .
Answer
(a) Stimulus : Receptor :: Impulse : Effector
(b) Cerebrum : Diencephalon :: Cerebellum : Medulla oblongata
(c) Receptor : Sensory nerve :: Motor nerve : Effector
(d) Axons : Nerve :: Cytons : Nerve cells
(e) Cerebrum : Corpus callosum :: Cerebellum : Pons
Question 3
Given below are sets of four terms each. Choose the odd one and write the category of the
remaining terms :
(a) Duramater, Gray matter, Piamater, Arachnoid
(b) Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Spinal cord, Medulla oblongata.
(c) Pons, Cyton, Axon, Dendrons
(d) Hypothalamus, Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla oblongata
(e) Sneezing, Blinking, Blushing, Knitting without looking
Answer
(a) Odd term: Gray matter

Category: Coverings of the brain and spinal cord (Meninges)
(b) Odd term: Spinal cord

Category: Parts of the brain
(c) Odd term: Pons

Category: Components of neurons
(d) Odd term: Hypothalamus

Category: Parts of the hind brain
(e) Odd term: Knitting without looking

Category: Natural reflexes
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Mention where in human body are the following located and state their main functions:
(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Central canal
Answer
(a) Corpus Callosum — Corpus callosum ("hard body") is a sheet of fibres connecting the two
cerebral hemispheres. It is located in the forebrain. It connects two cerebral hemispheres and
transfers information from one hemisphere to other.
(b) Central Canal — It is located in centre of the spinal cord. It is in continuation with the
cavities of the brain. It is filled with cerebrospinal fluid and acts as shock proof cushion. In
addition, it also helps in exchange of materials with neurons.
Question 2
State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
(a) The main component of the white matter of the brain is perikaryon.
(b) The arachnoid layer fits closely inside the pia mater.
(c) A double chain of ganglia, one on each side of the nerve cord belongs to the spinal cord.
(d) Dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges.
Answer
(a) False
Corrected Statement — The main component of the white matter of the brain is axon.
(b) False
Corrected Statement — The arachnoid layer forms web like cushion.
(c) True
(d) True
Question 3
State whether the following are simple reflexes, conditioned reflexes or neither of the two.
(i) Sneezing ...............
(ii) Blushing ...............
(iii) Contraction of eye pupil ...............

(iv) Lifting up a book ...............
(v) Knitting without looking ...............
(vi) Sudden application of brakes of the cycle on sighting an obstacle in front ...............
Answer
S.
Example T
No.
(i) Sneezing Simp
(ii) Blushing Simp
(iii) Contraction of eye pupil Simp
(iv) Lifting up a book Cond
(v) Knitting without looking Cond
(vi) Sudden application of brakes of the cycle on sighting an obstacle in front Cond
Question 4
State the functions of the following:
(a) Association neuron
(b) Myelin sheath
(c) Medullary sheath
(d) Cerebrospinal fluid
Answer
(a) Association neuron — Association neurons carry impulses from the motor neuron to the
Central Nervous System (CNS) or a nerve cell found entirely within the central nervous system.
It acts as a connecting neuron and interconnects the sensory and motor neurons.
(b) Myelin sheath — It acts like an insulation and prevents mixing of impulses in the adjacent
axons.
(c) Medullary sheath — It provides insulation and prevents mixing of impulses in the adjacent
axons.
(d) Cerebrospinal fluid — It acts like a cushion and protects the brain from shocks.
Question 5
Rearrange the following in correct sequence pertaining to what is given within brackets at the
end.
(a) Effector — Sensory neuron — Receptor — Motor neuron — Stimulus — Central nervous
system — Response (Reflex arc)
(b) Repolarization — Depolarization — Resting (polarsied) (during conduction of nerve

impulse through a nerve fibre)
(c) Axon endings — Dendrites — Axon — Perikaryon — Dendron (Neuron structure)
(d) Diencephalon — Cerebellum — Medulla oblongata — Pons — Cerebrum — mid brain

(sequence of parts of human brain).
Answer
(a) Stimulus — receptor — sensory neuron — central nervous system — motor neuron —
effector — response.
(b) Resting — depolarization — repolarization.
(c) Dendrites — Dendron — perikaryon — nucleus — axon — axon endings.
(d) Cerebrum — diencephalon — mid-brain — cerebellum — pons — medulla oblongata.
Question 6
Name the following:
(a) Three types of neurons
(b) Three types of nerves
(c) Three main parts of the neuron
(d) Two major divisions of the nervous system
(e) Three layers of the meninges
(f) Three main parts of the brain

(g) Two parts of the autonomic nervous system
(h) Two types of reflexes.
Answer
(a) Three types of neurons —
1. Sensory neurons
2. Motor neurons
3. Association neurons
(b) Three types of nerves —
1. Sensory nerves
2. Motor nerves
3. Mixed nerves
(c) Three main parts of the neuron —
1. Cyton
2. Dendrites
3. Axon
(d) Two major divisions of the nervous system —
1. Central nervous system

2. Peripheral nervous system
(e) Three layers of the meninges —
1. Dura mater
2. Arachnoid
3. Pia mater
(f) Three main parts of the brain —
1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla oblongata
(g) Two parts of the autonomic nervous system —
1. Sympathetic nervous system

2. Parasympathetic nervous system
(h) Two types of reflexes —
1. Natural (inborn) reflex

2. Conditioned (acquired) reflex.
Question 7
Write the full forms of the following abbreviations:
(a) CSF
(b) CNS
(c) PNS
(d) ANS
Answer
(a) CSF — Cerebrospinal fluid
(b) CNS — Central Nervous System
(c) PNS — Peripheral Nervous System
(d) ANS — Autonomic Nervous System
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Neuron
(b) Nerve
(c) Stimulus
(d) Synaptic cleft
(e) Reflex action
(f) Corpus callosum

Answer
(a) Neuron — Neuron (nerve cells) are the fundamental units of the nervous system specialized
to transmit information in the form of electrical impulses to different parts of the body.
(b) Nerve — Nerve is a bundle of nerve fibres (axons) of separate neurons, enclosed in a tubular
sheath.
(c) Stimulus — An agent or the sudden change of the external or internal environment that
results in a change in an organism or any of its body parts is called a stimulus.
(d) Synaptic cleft — The gaps between the axon terminals and the dendrites of another one or
more neurons are called synaptic clefts.
(e) Reflex action — Reflex action is an automatic or quick or immediate involuntary action in
the body brought about by a stimulus.
(f) Corpus callosum — Corpus callosum is a sheet of fibres connecting the two cerebral
hemispheres.
Question 2
(a) Cerebrum and cerebellum (function)
(b) Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system (location and role)
(c) Sensory nerve and motor nerve (direction of impulse carried)
(d) Cerebrum and spinal cord (arrangement of cytons and axons of neurons)
(e) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves (number in pairs)
(f) Nerve impulse and flow of electricity (transmission and speed)
(g) Medulla oblongata and cerebellum (function)
Answer
(a) Difference between cerebrum and cerebellum (function)
Cerebrum Cerebellum
The cerebrum is the seat of intelligence, consciousness and will-power. It The cerebellum maintains ba
controls all voluntary actions. It enables us to think, reason, plan and memorize. body and coordinate muscul
(b) Difference between sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system
(location and role)
Sympathetic Nervous System Parasympathetic Nervous System
Sympathetic nervous system is located between the neck Parasympathetic nervous system is located in the he
and the waist region. region and in sacral region.
It prepares the body for violent action against the It is concerned with re-establishing normal conditio
abnormal condition. violent act is over.
(c) Difference between sensory nerve and motor nerve (direction of impulse carried)
Sensory Nerve Motor Nerve
Sensory nerve brings impulses from the receptors i.e. sense Motor nerve carries impulse from the brain or sp
organs to the brain or spinal cord. effector organs such as muscles or glands.
(d) Difference between cerebrum and spinal cord (arrangement of cytons and axons of neurons)
Cerebrum Spinal Cord
The grey matter containing cytons lies in the cortex (outer The grey matter containing cytons lies in the m
region) while the white matter containing axons lies in the i.e. inner side while the white matter containing
medullary region (inner region). the cortex i.e. the outer region.
(e) Difference between cranial nerves and spinal nerves (number in pairs)
Cranial Nerves Spinal Nerves
There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
(f) Difference between nerve impulse and flow of electricity (transmission and speed)
Nerve impulse Flow of electricity
Here, neither any substance nor any electrons or ions move along
Here, electrons actually move along the w
the nerve fibre.
Nerve impulse Flow of electricity
Electricity is conducted at a speed of abo

Nerve impulses travel at a speed of about 100 metres per second.
per second.
(g) Difference between medulla oblongata and cerebellum (function)
Medulla Oblongata Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata controls the activities of internal organs, for example,

The cerebellum maintains
peristaltic movement of the alimentary canal, movement of breathing and many
body and coordinates mu
other involuntary actions.
Question 3
While watching a scary movie, mention its effects on the following organs by the autonomous
nervous system, in the table given below: (one has been done for you as an example).
Organ Sympathetic System Parasympathetic Sy
e.g. Lungs Dilates bronchi and bronchioles Constricts bronchi and bronchio
(1) Heart
(2) Pupil of the eye
(3) Salivary gland
Answer
Organ Sympathetic System Parasympatheti
e.g. Lungs Dilates bronchi and bronchioles Constricts bronchi and b
(1) Heart Accelerates heartbeat Retards heartbeat
(2) Pupil of the eye Dilation Constriction

Organ Sympathetic System Parasympatheti
(3) Salivary gland Inhibits secretion of saliva (dryness of the mouth) Stimulates secretion of s
Question 4
Give reason:
(a) The brain and the spinal cord are referred to as the central nervous system.
(b) Neurotransmitters are broken down by an enzyme just after passing an impulse from one
neuron to the other.
Answer
(a) Central nervous system includes the brain and the spinal cord contained within the vertebral
column. They have an important role to play because all bodily activities are controlled by them.
A stimulus from any part of the body is always carried to the brain or spinal cord for the correct
response. A response to a stimulus is also generated in the central nervous system. Therefore, the
brain and the spinal cord are called the central nervous system.
(b) Neurotransmitters are broken down by an enzyme just after passing an impulse from one
neuron to the other to make the synapse ready for the next transmission of impulse.
Question 5
Draw a labelled diagram of a myelinated neuron.
Answer
Labelled diagram of a myelinated neuron is shown below:

Question 6
What are the advantages of having a nervous system?
Answer
The advantages of having a nervous system are as follows:
1. Keeps us informed about the outside world through sense organs.

2. Enables us to remember, think and reason out.
3. Controls and harmonizes all voluntary muscular activities such as running, holding,
writing.
4. Regulates involuntary activities such as breathing, beating of the heart without our
thinking about them.
Question 7
What is the difference between reflex action and voluntary action?

Answer
Reflex Action Volun
Initiated by
Initiated by some stimulus (touch, pain, pressure, heat, light)
thought.
Fulfilment
Mainly self-protective due to environment.
goal.
Commands originate mostly in the spinal cord and autonomic nervous system and a few in the Commands
brain as well. brain.
Involve muscles and glands. Involve onl
Question 1
Two hungry boys (A and B) enter a restaurant and see the menu. Boy B starts salivating but not
A. Explain the reason for this difference.
Answer
Salivation can occur as a conditioned reflex simply at the sight or by the smell of a familiar tasty
food. This means that if we have not eaten that food earlier, the response will not occur. Boy B
starts salivating because he has tasted the foods in the menu earlier, so his brain remembers the
tastes of those foods and salivation occurs as a conditioned reflex for him. On the other hand,
boy A has not tasted those foods earlier, his brain does not know the taste of those foods hence
no conditioned reflex occurs for him.
Question 2
The diagram alongside shows a section of the human brain and its associated parts. Answer the
(a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(b) Name the protective membranous covering of the brain. Also mention its three layers.
(c) Name the basic unit of the brain.
(d) Write the important role of the part mentioned as 2.
Answer
(a) The parts labelled 1-4 are:
• 1 → Cerebrum
• 2 → Cerebellum
• 3 → Pons
• 4 → Medulla oblongata
(b) The brain is protected by 3 membranous coverings called Meninges. The three layers of
meninges are:
1. Dura mater
2. Arachnoid
3. Pia mater.
(c) Neuron/nerve cell.
(d) Cerebellum (part 2) is concerned with maintaining the balance of the body and the
coordination of muscular activities.
Question 3
The diagram given below shows the internal structure of spinal cord depicting a phenomenon.
Study the diagram and answer the following questions.
(a) Name the phenomenon shown in the figure and define the same.
(b) Identify the parts labelled as 1 and 2. Write one functional difference between these two.
(c) Name the bony protective covering and the membranous protective covering of the spinal
cord.
(d) Label the guidelines 3 and 4.
(e) How is the labelled part 3 different from part 4 with respect to its composition (part of
neuron)?
(f) Give the technical term for the point of contact between the two nerve cells.
(g) Name the fluid filled inside the central canal of spinal cord.
(h) Name the term used for a small gap between two neurons.
(i) Give one example of a neurotransmitter.
(j) Draw a neat diagram of a nerve cell and label the parts : Perikaryon, Node of Ranvier, Myelin
sheath and Axon terminals.
Answer
(a) The phenomenon shown in the figure is Spinal reflex.
Spinal reflex is an automatic/quick/immediate, involuntary action in the body brought about by a

stimulus.
(b) The parts labelled 1 & 2 are:
1 → Sensory nerve
2 → Motor nerve
One functional difference between Sensory & Motor nerve is:
Sensory nerve Motor nerve
Brings impulse from receptors to brain or spinal cord. Carry impulse from brain and spinal cord to effec
(c) Back bone or vertebral column is the bony protective covering. Meninges (dura mater,
arachnoid and pia mater) is the membranous protective covering.
(d) Guidelines 3 and 4 are:
3 → Gray matter
4 → White matter
(e) Gray matter is composed of cytons and white matter is composed of axons.
(f) Synapse
(g) Cerebrospinal fluid
(h) Synapse
(i) Acetylcholine
(j) Diagram of nerve cell with the parts labelled is shown below:
Question 4
The figure given below is the basic structural and functional unit of the human nervous system.
Study the diagram and answer the following questions:
(a) Write the technical term for the diagram.
(b) Name two organs of our nervous system where these cells are richly found.
(c) How are these cells significant for us ?
(d) Name the cell organelle that is absent in these cells and how does it affect our body
metabolism ?
(e) Redraw the same figure and label the following — Perikaryon, Axon, Dendrites, Myelin
sheath and Node of Ranvier.
Answer
(a) Neuron
(b) Brain and spinal cord
(c) Neurons are the fundamental building blocks of the nervous system. They help us to process
information, control our movements, allow us to perceive the world around us, and are involved
in learning and memory.
(d) Centrosome is the cell organelle absent in these cells. It is absent because the nerve cells have
lost the ability to divide.
(e) Below is the labelled diagram of neuron:

Question 5
Given below is the partially incomplete scheme of the components of peripheral nervous system.
Fill up the blanks numbered (1) - (12).
Answer
1 - Central Nervous System
2 - Autonomic
3 - 12
4 - spinal
5 - 31
6 - neck
7 - waist
8 - dilates
9 - constricts
10 - liver
11 - neck
12 - sacrum
Chapter 11
Sense Organs
Progress Check 1
Question 1
State the functions of the following:
(i) Eyelids
(ii) Eyelashes
(ili) Tears
(iv) Iris
(v) Ciliary muscles
Answer
(i) Eyelids — Protects the outer surface of the eyes and can shut out light.
(ii) Eyelashes — Prevent falling of large particles into the eye.
(ili) Tears — serve as lubricant, washes away dust particles.
(iv) Iris — regulates the amount of light that can enter the eye.
(v) Ciliary muscles — It changes the shape of the lens during accommodation reflex.
Question 2
Write in proper sequence the names of all the parts of the human eye through which the light
rays coming from an object pass before they form an image on the retina.
Answer
Conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humour → lens → vitreous humour → retina
Question 3
(i) Place of best vision in the retina of the eye
(ii) Place of no vision in the retina of the eye
(iii) Kind of retinal cells sensitive to dim light
(iv) The circular opening enclosed by iris
(v) The fibres which collectively hold the lens in position
(vi) Capacity of the eye to focus at different distances
(vii) The kind of lens required to correct near sightedness
(viii) The layer of the wall of the eye-ball that corresponds to the black lining of the box of a
camera
Answer
(i) Yellow spot
(ii) Blind spot
(iii) Rod cells
(iv) Pupil
(v) Suspensory ligaments
(vi) Accommodation
(vii) Concave
(viii) Choroid
Question 4
Give the reason for the following:
(i) Medicines dropped in the eye flow down into the nose.
(ii) A person from bright sunlight outside enters a poorly lit room and feels blinded for a short
while.
Answer
(i) Nasolacrimal duct connects the eyes with the nasal cavity. Medicines dropped in the eye,
sometimes flow down through this duct and come into the nose.
(ii) When a person enters a poorly lit room after being exposed to bright sunlight outside, they
may feel blinded for a short while due to dark adaptation. The following changes take place in
dark adaptation:
1. Visual purple or rhodopsin, the pigment of rods, is regenerated which was earlier broken
down due to bright light.
2. Pupil are dilated permitting more light to enter the eyes.
These adjustments take a little time during which the person feels blinded.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Categorise the following parts under
(i) external (ii) middle (iii) internal ear.
Ear drum, hammer, pinna, cochlea, anvil, stirrup, eustachian tube, tympanum, oval window,
semi-circular canals.
Answer
• External Ear — Ear drum, pinna, tympanum

• Middle Ear — Hammer, Anvil, stirrup, Eustachian tube, oval window
• Internal Ear — Cochlea, semi-circular canals
Question 2
State the functions of the following :-
(i) Semi-circular canals
(ii) Cochlea
(iii) Auditory nerve
Answer
(i) Semi-circular canals
1. Dynamic Equilibrium
2. Detects head rotation
(ii) Cochlea
1. Contains organ of corti which plays role in hearing.

2. Converts sound vibrations into electrical signals and transmits it to the brain via the
auditory nerve.
(iii) Auditory nerve
1. Transmits auditory signals from ear to brain.
Question 3
Mention if the following statements are true (T) or false (F) :
(i) Human ear is concerned with hearing only.
(iii) Pinna concentrates and directs sound waves towards tympanum.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected Statement — Human ear is concerned with hearing and balancing.
(ii) True
Question 4
Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a part of the human ear.
(i) Name the parts numbered 1-6.
(ii) Which parts of the ear shown here are complete.

Answer
(i) The parts numbered 1-6 are:
1 → Ear canal
2 → Ear ossicles
3 → Ear drum
4 → Oval wind
5 → Opening of Eustachian tube
6 → Round Window
(ii) Middle Ear

Question 1
The layer in the eye where sensory cells (rods and cones) are located:
1. Conjunctiva
2. Cornea
3. Choroid
4. Retina
Answer
Retina
Reason — Sensory cells are present in Retina. It acts as screen where image is formed.
Question 2
The vitamin required for the synthesis of rhodopsin is :
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D
Answer
Vitamin A
Reason — Vitamin A (Retinol) is necessary for the synthesis rhodopsin.
Question 3
An aperture that controls the passage of light into the eye is:
1. Blind spot
2. Pupil
3. Yellow spot
4. Iris
Answer
Pupil
Reason — The size of pupil increases or decreases to regulate the amount of light entering the
eyes.
Question 4
Tears have an antiseptic property due to the presence of:
1. Lysosome
2. Aqueous humour
3. Lysozyme
4. Vitreous humour
Answer
Lysozyme
Reason — Lysozyme helps to fight the infection or avoid infection due to its antiseptic property.
Question 5
Which of the following is responsible for the adjustment of the size of pupil ?
1. Iris
2. Sclera
3. Lens
4. Choroid
Answer
Iris
Reason — The iris contains radial muscles to widen and circular muscles to constrict the pupil.
Question 6
The median canal of cochlea is filled with :
1. Perilymph
2. Lymph
3. Endolymph
4. Tissue fluid
Answer
Endolymph
Reason — The median canal of cochlea is filled with fluid called endolymph.
Question 7
The thin, transparent extension of sclerotic layer found in front of the lens is:
1. Cornea
2. Cochlea
3. Conjunctiva
4. Choroid
Answer
Cornea
Reason — The thin, transparent extension of sclerotic layer found in front of the lens is
transparent and buldges out. This is known as cornea.
Question 8
The part of the inner ear which is responsible for hearing is :
1. Semicircular canal
2. Utriculus
3. Cochlea
4. Sacculus
Answer
Cochlea
Reason — Cochlea has organ of corti which is responsible for hearing.
Question 9
The spiral organ possessing sensory cells for hearing is:
1. Ampulla
2. Semicircular Canal
3. Vestibule
4. Organ of Corti
Answer
Organ of Corti
Reason — The middle canal of cochlea contains spiral organ called organ of Corti for hearing.
Question 10
Which of the following structures equalises the air pressure on either side of the tympanum ?
1. Auditory tube
2. Eustachian tube
3. Vestibular canal
4. Tympanic canal
Answer
Eustachian tube
Reason — Eustachian tube connects the cavity of middle ear with throat. It equalises the air
pressure on either side of the tympanum.
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) The photosensitive pigment present in the rods of the retina.
(b) The part which equalizes the air pressure in the middle and external ear.
(c) The ear ossicle attached to the tympanum.
(d) The tube which connects the cavity of the middle ear with the throat.
(e) The part of the eye responsible for its shape.
(f) The nerves which transmit impulse from ear to the brain.
(g) The photoreceptors found in the retina of the eye.
(h) The eye defect caused due to shortening of the eye ball from front to back.
Answer
(a) Rhodopsin
(b) Eustachian tube
(c) Hammer
(d) Eustachian tube

(e) Sclerotic layer or Sclera
(f) Auditory nerves
(g) Rods and cones
(h) Hypermetropia
Question 2
fourth place.
(a) Cones : Iodopsin :: Rods: ............... .
(b) Eyes : Photoreceptors :: Ears : ............... .
(c) Ears : Auditory nerve :: Eyes : ............... .
(d) Ear pinna : Auricle :: Inner ear : ............... .
(e) Semi-circular canal : Ampulla :: Cochlea : ............... .
Answer
(a) Cones : Iodopsin :: Rods: Rhodopsin.
(b) Eyes : Photoreceptors :: Ears : Phonoreceptors.
(c) Ears : Auditory nerve :: Eyes : Optical nerve.
(d) Ear pinna : Auricle :: Inner ear : Membranous labyrinth.
(e) Semi-circular canal : Ampulla :: Cochlea : Basilar membrane.
Question 3
Match the terms in column I with those in column II and write down the matching pairs.
Column I Column II
Conjunctiva Viral infection
Cornea Ciliary body

Column I Column II
Choroid Spiral-shaped
Cochlea Transparent epithelium
Conjunctivitis Suspensory ligament
Contains melanin
Transparent but appears black
Answer
Column I Column II
Conjunctiva Transparent epithelium
Cornea Transparent but appears black
Choroid Contains melanin, Ciliary body
Cochlea Spiral-shaped
Conjunctivitis Viral infection
Short Answer Type
Question 1
State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). If false, correct them by
changing any one single word in each.
(a) Deafness is caused due to rupturing of the pinna.
(b) Semicircular canals are concerned with static (positional) balance.
Answer
(a) False
Corrected statement — Deafness is caused due to rupturing of the eardrum.
(b) False
Corrected statement — Semicircular canals are concerned with dynamic balance.
Question 2
Where are the following located? State their main functions:
(a) Yellow spot
(b) Lacrimal gland
(c) Organ of Corti
(d) Eustachian canal
(e) Incus
Answer
(a) Yellow spot lies at the back of the eye almost at the centre on the horizontal axis of the
eyeball. It is the region of brightest vision and also of colour vision.
(b) Lacrimal glands are located at the upper sideward portion of the eye orbit. They pour the
secretion in the form of tears which serves as a lubricant, antiseptic and even washes away dust
particles from the eyes.
(c) Organ of Corti is present in the middle cochlear canal of the ear. It helps in hearing.
(d) Eustachian canal connects middle ear to throat. It balances air pressure on either sides of
tympanum.
(e) Incus is located in middle ear. It helps in transmission of sound from external to internal ear.
Question 3
Given below are two sets (a) and (b) of five parts in each. Rewrite them in correct sequence.
(a) Cochlea, tympanum, auditory canal, ear ossicles, oval window
(b) Conjunctiva, retina, cornea, optic nerve, lens.
Answer
(a) Auditory canal, tympanum, ear ossicles, oval window, cochlea

(b) Conjunctiva, cornea, lens, retina, optic nerve.
Question 4
Write the main functional activity of each of the following structures.
(a) Cochlea
(b) Semicircular canal
(c) Iris
(d) Choroid
(e) Ciliary body and suspensory ligament
Answer
(a) Cochlea — Hearing.
(b) Semicircular canal — Dynamic Equilibrium.
(c) Iris — Regulates the size of pupil controlling the amount of light entering the eyes.
(d) Choroid — Provides nourishment to the eye and prevents light rays from reflecting and
scattering inside the eye.
(e) Ciliary body and suspensory ligament — Accommodation of eye.
Question 5
Complete the following table by filling in the blank spaces.
Structure Function
(1) ............... (i) Transfers impulse from inner ear to brain
(2) ............... (ii) Helps to change the focal length of the eye lens
(3) ............... (iii) Dynamic equilibrium
Answer
Structure Function
Structure Function
Auditory nerve Transfers impulse from inner ear to brain
Ciliary muscle Helps to change the focal length of the eye lens
Semicircular canals Dynamic equilibrium
Question 6
Name the following:
(a) Two pigments of the sensory cells.
(b) Two types of adaptations.
(c) Two kinds of accommodations.
(d) Three layers of the eyeball.
Answer
(a) Rhodopsin or visual purple and iodopsin or visual violet.
(b) Dark adaptation and light adaptation.
(c) Distant vision accommodation and near vision accommodation.
(d) Sclera, choroid and retina.
Question 7
Name the eye defects caused due to each of the following:
Cause Eye
(a) Lens turns opaque ............... .
(b) Uneven curvature of the cornea ............... .
(c) Deficiency of vitamin A ............... .

Cause Eye
(d) Lens loses its flexibility ............... .
(e) Eye ball lengthens from front to back ............... .
(f) Lens becomes too flat ............... .
Answer
Cause Eye def
(a) Lens turns opaque Cataract
(b) Uneven curvature of the cornea Astigmatism
(c) Deficiency of vitamin A Night blindness
(d) Lens loses its flexibility Presbyopia
(e) Eye ball lengthens from front to back Myopia
(f) Lens becomes too flat Hyperopia
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Conjunctiva
(b) Lysozyme
(c) Adaptation
(d) Power of accommodation
(e) Ear ossicles

Answer
(a) Conjunctiva — A thin membrane covering the entire front part of the eye . It is continuous
with the inner lining of the eyelids.
(b) Lysozyme — Lysozyme is an enzyme present in tear which has antiseptic property.
(c) Adaptation — Adaptation of the eye is the process by which the eyes adjust to changes in
light levels, allowing us to see clearly in both bright and dim environments.
(d) Power of accommodation — Power of accommodation is the ability of the eye lens to focus
near and far object clearly on the retina by adjusting the thickness of lens (and hence focal
length).
(e) Ear ossicles — The three bones present in ear, i.e. malleus, incus and stapes; together are
called ear ossicles.
Question 2
Differentiate between members of each of the following pairs with reference to what is asked in
brackets.
(a) Myopia and hyperopia (type of lens used for correction)
(b) Rods and cones (sensitivity)
(c) Aqueous humour and vitreous humour (location)
(d) Near and distant accommodation (shape of lens)
(e) Dark and light adaptation (pigments which will be regenerated)
(f) Night blindness and colour blindness (sensory cells which cannot function properly)
Answer
(a) Difference between myopia and hyperopia (type of lens used for correction) —
Myopia Hyperopia
Myopia can be corrected by suitable concave (diverging) lens which causes the Hyperopia can be correcte
light rays to diverge before they strike the lens of the eye. convex (converging) lens.
(b) Difference between rods and cones (sensitivity) —

Rods Cones
Rods are sensitive to dim light but do not respond to Cones are sensitive to bright light and are responsib
colour. vision.
(c) Difference between aqueous humour and vitreous humour (location) —
Aqueous humour Vitreous humour
Aqueous humour is the front chamber between the lens and the Vitreous humour is larger cavity of the eye
cornea. lens.
(d) Difference between near and distant accommodation (shape of lens) —
Near accommodation Distant accommodation
For near accommodation, the lens becomes more convex or For distant accommodation, the lens is more
rounded. thinner.
(e) Difference between dark and light adaptation (pigments which will be regenerated) —
Dark adaptation Light adaptation
For dark adaptation, visual purple or rhodopsin pigment will For light adaptation, visual violet or iodopsin
be regenerated. regenerated.
(f) Difference between night blindness and colour blindness (sensory cells which cannot function
properly) —
Night blindness Colour blindness
In night blindness, the rod cells cannot function properly. In colour blindness, the cone cells cannot functi
Question 3
Give reason:
(a) Sometimes medicines dropped into the eyes come into the nose and even throat.
(b) Three small bones of ear ossicles are advantageous as compared to one single bone for
hearing.
(c) Blind spot is considered as 'area of no vision'.
Answer
(a) Nasolacrimal duct connects the eyes with the nasal cavity. Medicines dropped in the eye,
sometimes flow down through this duct and come into the nose and even throat.
(b) Three small bones of ear ossicles transmit the vibrations received by the tympanum and
amplify them. If these were replaced by a single bone, the vibrations received by the tympanum
would not be amplified. Hence, three small bones of ear ossicles are advantageous as compared
to one single bone for hearing.
(c) There are no sensory cells in the blind spot and therefore, this is considered as 'area of no
vision' and image striking it cannot be perceived.
Question 4
Mention the characteristics of the image that falls on the retina of the eye.
Answer
The image formed on the retina is inverted and real.
Question 5
Describe the mechanism of focusing the image of a distant object in your eye when you raise
your head after reading a book.
Answer
Light rays from the object enter the eyes through the transparent structures.
For distant vision, the lens is more flattened or thinner.
For near vision, the lens becomes more convex or rounded.
While reading a book, the lens is more convex or rounded due to contraction of ciliary muscles
because the book is usually read from a short distance. When we raise our head and look at a
distant object, the ciliary muscles relax to build the tension on the suspensory ligament so that
they can stretch the lens. This change in the curvature of the lens makes us focus on distant
object.
Question 6
By closing the eyes and gently pressing them with your palms, you may see some specs of
brilliant light. How do you get this sensation while there is no light entering your eyes?
Answer
The sensation of light persists for a period of time after we look at a bright object and then close
eyes. It lasts for one-tenth of a second. Due to this by closing the eyes and gently pressing them
with our palms, we see some specs of brilliant light.
Question 7
Name the three ear ossicles. How do they contribute in the mechanism of hearing?
Answer
The three ear ossicles are: Malleus (hammer), Incus (anvil) and Stapes (stirr up).
The last ear ossicle, stapes, vibrates and transmits the vibration to the oval window.
The role of other two ear ossicles is to magnify the vibration of stapes as a result of their lever
like action.
Question 1
The figures (A) and (B) given below are showing some kind of adjustment. Study the figures and
answer the questions that follow.
(a) Identify the kinds of adjustments done in the figure (A) and (B).
(b) Distinguish between the adjustments of figures (A) and (B) on the basis of :
(i) The size of pupil.
(ii) The pigment which gets regenerated.
(iii) Cells of the retina.
Answer
(a) Kinds of adjustments done in the figure:
(A) → dilated pupil due to dim light.
(B) → Constricted pupil due to bright light.
(b)
S.
Factor A B
No.
(i) The size of pupil bigger smaller
(ii) The pigment which gets Rhodopsin (visual purple) Iodopsin.

S.
Factor A B
No.
regenerated
Cones become active

Rods become active and cones become
(iii) Cells of the retina and rods become
inactive
inactive
Question 2
With reference to human eye and ear answer the questions that follow :
(a) Name the parts of the eye associated with:
(i) Regulation of the size of pupil.
(ii) Regulation of the shape of lens.
(iii) Keeping the lens moist and protecting it from physical shock.
(iv) The layer providing nourishment to the eye.
(b) Name the part of the ear associated with :
(i) Static balance.
(ii) Dynamic balance.
(iii) Hearing.
(iv) Amplification of vibrations.
Answer
(a)
(i) Regulation of the size of pupil — Iris.
(ii) Regulation of the shape of lens — Ciliary muscles.
(iii) Keeping the lens moist and protecting it from physical shock — Aqueous Humour.
(iv) The layer providing nourishment to the eye — Choroid layer.
(b)
(i) Static balance — Vestibule.
(ii) Dynamic balance — Ampulla.
(iii) Hearing — Organ of Corti.
(iv) Amplification of vibrations — Ear ossicles (Malleus, incus and stapes).
Question 3
The figure given below refers to the vertical section of the eye of a mammal. Study the figure
carefully and answer the following questions.
(a) Label the guidelines shown as 1 to 10.
(b) Write one important role of parts shown as 3 and 7.
(c) Write one structural difference between the parts shown as 9 and 10.
(d) Mention one functional difference between the parts shown as 6 and 8.
Answer
(a) The guidelines are labelled below:
• 1 → Aqueous chamber
• 2 → Lens
• 3 → Iris
• 4 → Cornea
• 5 → Conjunctiva
• 6 → Sclera
• 7 → Choroid
• 8 → Retina
• 9 → Yellow spot
• 10 → Optic nerve (Blind spot)
(b) Part 3 (Iris) — It contains radial muscles to dilate the pupil and circular muscles to constrict
the pupil.
Part 7 (Choroid) — It is the middle layer of the eyeball, richly supplied with blood vessels and
provides nourishment to the eye.
(c) Part 9 (yellow spot) contains sensory cells especially the cone cells while part 10 (blind sport)
contains no sensory cells.
(d) Part 6 (sclera) gives shape to the eyeball and part 8 (retina) acts as screen to form image of an
object.
Question 4
Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye? Study the same and answer the
(a) Name the defect shown in the diagram.
(b) Give two possible reasons for this defect.
(c) Name the parts labelled 1 to 4.
(d) Name the type of lens used to correct this eye defect.
(e) Draw a labelled diagram to show how the above mentioned defect is rectified using the lens
named above.
Answer
(a) Myopia
(b) The two possible reasons for myopia are either the eye ball is lengthened from front to back
or the lens is too curved.
(c) Parts labelled 1 to 4 are:
• 1 → vitreous humour
• 2 → blind spot
• 3 → lens
• 4 → pupil
(d) Concave lens
(e) The below diagrams show the condition of Myopia and how it is corrected using a Concave
Lens:
Question 5
(a) Draw a neat and well labelled diagram of the membranous labyrinth found in the inner ear.
(b) Based on the diagram drawn above in (a), give a suitable term for each of the following
descriptions:
(i) The structure responsible for hearing.
(ii) The sensory cells that help in hearing.

(iii) The membrane-covered opening that connects the middle ear to inner ear.
(iv) The nerves that carry impulses from the ear to the brain.
(v) The tube which equalises the air pressure on either side of the ear drum.
Answer
(a) Below labelled diagram shows the membranous labyrinth found in the inner ear:
(b)
(i) Cochlea
(ii) Organ of corti
(iii) Oval window
(iv) Auditory nerve
(v) Eustachian tube
Question 6
Given below is a diagram of a part of the human ear. Study the same and answer the questions
that follow:
(i) Give the collective biological term for Malleus, Incus and Stapes.
(ii) Name the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram.
(iii) State the functions of the parts labelled 'A' and 'B'.
(iv) Name the audio receptor region present in the part labelled 'A'.
Answer
(i) Ear ossicles
(ii) The labelled parts are:
• A → Cochlea
• B → Semicircular canals
• C → Ear ossicles
(iii) Cochlea helps in transmitting impulses to the brain via the auditory nerve. Semicircular
canals help in maintaining dynamic equilibrium of the body.
(iv) Organ of Corti
Question 7
Draw a labelled diagram of the inner ear. Name the part of the inner ear that is responsible for
static balance in human beings.
Answer
Below is the labelled diagram of the inner ear:
Utriculus and Sacculus collectively termed as vestibule are responsible for maintaining static
balance in human beings.
Question 8
Have a look at the posture of this girl who is reading a book and answer the questions which
follow:
(a) Name the problem she is facing.
(b) What are the two conditions shown in sections A and B of the eye as applicable to her?
(c) What kind of reading glasses does she need ?

Answer
(a) Myopia
(b) The condition shown in section A is Hyperopia as the image is formed behind the retina. The
condition shown in section B is Myopia as the image is formed in front of the retina.
(c) She needs reading glasses with concave lens.
Question 9
The figure given below shows the principal parts of a human ear. Study the diagram and answer
the following questions.
(a) Label the parts 1 to 8.
(b) State the role of parts 6, 7 and 8.
(c) Why is it harmful to use a sharp object to remove ear wax? Mention the number and name of
the part involved.
Answer
(a) The labelled parts are:
• 1 → External ear (pinna)

• 2 → Ear drum (tympanum)
• 3 → Auditory canal
• 4 → Malleus
• 5 → Semicircular canals
• 6 → Cochlea
• 7 → Auditory nerve
• 8 → Eustachian tube
(b) Part 6 (Cochlea) — It contains sensory cells for hearing.
Part 7 (Auditory nerve) — It transmits impulse of hearing to the brain.
Part 8 (Eustachian tube) — It equalizes air pressure on both the sides of the tympanum.
(c) It is harmful to use a sharp object to remove ear wax as it can rupture the ear drum.
The part involved is part 2 — Ear drum (tympanum).
Chapter 12
The Endocrine System

Progress Check 1
Question 1
Fill in the blanks by selecting the appropriate alternative from those given in brackets.
(i) Regulation of activities inside the body are brought about by ............... and ............... systems.
(nervous/digestive/endocrine)
(ii) Hormones are secreted directly into the ............... . (organs/lymph/blood)
(iii) Chemically, some hormones are ............... , some steroids, some ............... .
(proteins/amines/carbohydrates)
(iv) Both ............... or deficiency of hormones lead to serious consequences. (excess/absence)
(v) Hormones produced in one species usually show ............... influence in other species.
(similar/different)
Answer
(i) Regulation of activities inside the body are brought about by nervous and endocrine systems.
(ii) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood.
(iii) Chemically, some hormones are proteins, some steroids, some amines.
(iv) Both excess or deficiency of hormones lead to serious consequences.
(v) Hormones produced in one species usually show similar influence in other species.
Question 2
Give the characteristics of hormones pertaining to
(i) Site of action
(ii) Chemical nature

(iii) Manner of transportation.
Answer
(i) Site of action for hormones is their target organ or cells.
(ii) Hormones are either protein, amines or steroids.
(iii) Hormones are poured into blood by the glands and are transported through blood.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Mention the three types of cells of the islets of Langerhans and the name of the hormone they
secrete.
Answer
The three types of cells of islets of Langerhans and hormones secreted by them are:
1. Beta cells — insulin

2. Alpha cells — glucagon
3. Delta cells — somatostatin
Question 2
Mention the two principal ways in which insulin acts :
Answer
1. It promotes glucose utilisation by the body cells, thereby reducing the blood sugar level.
2. It stimulates deposition of extra glucose of the blood as glycogen in liver and muscles.
Question 3
Name the following conditions :
(i) Passage of much glucose in urine
(ii) Overdose of insulin makes the diabetic patient unconscious
Answer
(i) Diabetes mellitus

(ii) Insulin Shock
Question 4
List any three symptoms of diabetes mellitus.
Answer
Three symptoms of diabetes mellitus are:
1. High concentration of sugar in blood.

2. Excretion of more urine loaded with sugar.
3. Increased thirst due to loss of water through too much urination.
Question 5
Name the two categories of hormones secreted by adrenal cortex.
Answer
1. Glucocorticoids.
2. Sex corticoids.
Question 6
List any two effects of adrenaline.
Answer
Two effects of adrenaline are:
1. Thumping heart
2. Dry mouth
Progress Check 3
Question 1
Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative :
(i) Thyroid is located close to ............... (larynx/kidney).
(ii) Cretinism is caused due to ............... of thyroxin. (undersecretion/oversecretion)
(iii) Over-secretion of thyroxin causes ............... goitre. (simple/exophthalmic)

(iv) The condition showing swelling in face and hands and sluggishness due to hypothyroidism is
called ............... (cretinism/myxoedema).
(v) The hormone concerned with facing dangers is ............... (thyroxine/cortisone/adrenaline).
(vi) Cortex and medulla are the two regions of ............... (thyroid/adrenal).
(vii) One of the effects of increased secretion of adrenaline is ............... . (Dry mouth / slowing of
heart beat / arterioles of the digestive system dilate)
Answer
(i) Thyroid is located close to larynx.
(ii) Cretinism is caused due to undersecretion of thyroxin.
(iii) Over-secretion of thyroxin causes exophthalmic goitre.
(iv) The condition showing swelling in face and hands and sluggishness due to hypothyroidism is
called myxoedema.
(v) The hormone concerned with facing dangers is adrenaline.
(vi) Cortex and medulla are the two regions adrenal.
(vii) One of the effects of increased secretion of adrenaline is Dry mouth.
Progress Check 4
Question 1
Mention if the following statements are true (T) or false (F). If false, rewrite the correct word
(not words) striking out the single wrong one.
(i) Pituitary is of the size of a lemon.
(ii) Pituitary has three lobes — anterior, posterior and intermediate.
(iii) Oversecretion of growth hormone in adult causes gigantism.
(iv) Vasopressin secreted by anterior lobe controls reabsorption of water form kidney tubules.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected Statement — Pituitary is of the size of a pea.
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) False
Corrected Statement — Vasopressin secreted by posterior lobe controls reabsorption of water
form kidney tubules.
Question 2
Write the full forms of:
(i) TSH
(ii) LH
(iii) ACTH
(iv) ADH
Answer
(i) TSH — Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
(ii) LH — Luteinizing Hormone
(iii) ACTH — Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
(iv) ADH — Antidiuretic Hormone
Question 3
What causes the following?
(i) Acromegaly
(ii) Diabetes insipidus
Answer
(i) Oversecretion of growth hormone in adults causes acromegaly.
(ii) Deficiency of ADH causes diabetes insipidus.
Question 1
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

1. Adrenal gland
2. Pituitary gland
3. Thyroid gland
4. Sebaceous gland
Answer
Sebaceous gland
Reason — Sebaceous gland is present in skin and secretes oily sebum.
Question 2
Which of the following hormones stimulates milk secretion?
1. Prolactin
2. Oxytocin
3. Progesterone
4. Calcitonin
Answer
Prolactin
Reason — Prolactin is responsible for formation and secretion of milk.
Question 3
Oxytocin stimulates the contraction of:
1. Ovary
2. Ureter
3. Uterus
4. Breast
Answer
Uterus
Reason — Oxytocin stimulates the contraction of uterus during child birth.
Question 4
Hypersecretion of growth hormone causes :

1. Gigantism and Dwarfism
2. Acromegaly and Dwarfism
3. Gigantism and Acromegaly
4. Dwarfism and Virilism
Answer
Gigantism and Acromegaly
Reason — Hypersecretion of growth hormone in young age causes gigantism while in adults it
causes acromegaly.
Question 5
A gland which secretes enzymes and hormones both is :
1. Adrenal
2. Pancreas
3. Thyroid
4. Pituitary
Answer
Pancreas
Reason — Pancreas secretes digestive juices as well as hormones like insulin and glucagon.
Question 6
Insulin is secreted by :
1. β-cells of Pancreas
2. δ-cells of Pancreas
3. α-cells of Pancreas
4. γ-cells of Pancreas
Answer
β-cells of Pancreas
Reason — β-cells of islet of Langerhans in Pancreas secrete insulin.
Question 7
Islets of Langerhans are located in the :

1. Kidneys
2. Liver
3. Throat
4. Pancreas
Answer
Pancreas
Reason — Islets of Langerhans are small group of cells present in pancreas.
Question 8
Exophthalmic goitre is caused due to the over activity of
1. thymus
2. thyroid
3. parathyroid
4. adrenal cortex
Answer
thyroid
Reason — Over activity of thyroid leads to over secretion of thyroxine which further results in
exophthalmic goitre.
Question 9
The hormone which causes stimulation of sympathetic nervous system is:
1. Thyroxine
2. Insulin
3. Prolactin
4. Adrenaline
Answer
Adrenaline
Reason — Adrenaline causes stimulation of sympathetic nervous system and prepares body for
any emergency.
Question 10
The hormone which stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver to glucose is:
1. Glucagon
2. Somatostatin
3. Insulin
4. None of these
Answer
Glucagon
Reason — Glucagon is responsible for breakdown of glycogen in the liver to glucose. It

increases the level of glucose in blood.
Question 1
Name the following:
(a) The hormone produced by adrenal medulla.
(b) The condition caused by the over secretion of insulin.
(c) The hormone secreted by β (beta) cells of the islets of Langerhans.
(d) The interconnection between the two lobes of thyroid gland (technical term).
(e) The hormone whose under secretion causes more urine formation.
(f) The hormone which stimulates the entire sympathetic nervous system.
Answer
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Insulin
(d) Isthmus
(e) Anti-diuretic hormone (Vasopressin)
(f) Adrenaline
Question 2
What would a child suffer from, if there was hyposecretion from his thyroid?
Answer
If there was hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in a child, the child will suffer from cretinism.
The symptoms of cretinism are dwarfism, mental retardation, etc.
Question 3
Choose the odd one out from each series and write the category of the remaining terms:
(a) Simple goitre, Cretinism, Pellagra, Myxoedema
(b) Alpha cells, Beta cells, Gamma cells, Delta cells
(c) Somatotropin, Prolactin, Oxytocin, Luteinizing hormone
(d) Thyroid, Pituitary, Prostate, Parathyroid
(e) Thyroxine, Insulin, Thiamine, Glucagon
Answer
(a) Odd term: Pellagra

Category: Diseases caused due to hypothyroidism
(b) Odd term: Gamma cells

Category: Islet of Langerhans
(c) Odd term: Oxytocin

Category: Hormones secreted by anterior part of pituitary gland
(d) Odd term: Prostate

Category: Endocrine glands
(e) Odd term: Thiamine (It is a vitamin)

Category: Hormones
Question 4
Write full forms of the following abbreviations:
(a) ACTH
(b) TSH
(c) ADH
(d) LH
(e) FSH
Answer
(a) ACTH — Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
(b) TSH — Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
(c) ADH — Antidiuretic Hormone
(d) LH — Luteinizing Hormone
(e) FSH — Follicle Stimulating Hormone
Question 5
Identify the odd one in each of the following and mention what the rest are:
(a) Larynx; glucagon; testosterone; prolactin
(b) Adrenaline; penicillin; insulin; thyroxine
(c) Stomach; ileum; liver; adrenaline
(d) TSH; GH; ADH; insulin
(e) Iodine; cretinism; goitre; myxoedema
Answer
(a) Larynx is the odd one here because glucagon; testosterone and prolactin
are hormones whereas Larynx is the sound box.
(b) Penicillin is the odd one here because adrenaline; insulin; thyroxine
are hormones whereas Penicillin is an antibiotic.
(c) Adrenaline is the odd one here because stomach, ileum and liver are the organs of the
digestive system whereas Adrenaline is a hormone.
(d) Insulin is the odd one here because TSH, GH, ADH are the hormones secreted by the
pituitary gland whereas Insulin is secreted by the pancreas.
(e) Iodine is the odd one here because cretinism, goitre, myxoedema are the conditions which
occur due to undersecretion of thyroxine (Hypothyroidism) whereas Iodine is required for the
synthesis of thyroxine hormone.
Question 6
Match the terms given in column A with those in column B.
Column A Column B
(a) Adrenaline (i) Hypoglycemia
(b) Adrenal virilism (ii) Hyperglycemia
(c) Addison's disease (iii) Mental retardation
(d) Acromegaly (iv) Eyes are protruded
(e) Cushing's syndrome (v) Excessive growth of bones in face
(vi) Emergency hormone
(vii) Masculine characters
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Adrenaline (vi) Emergency hormone
(b) Adrenal virilism (vii) Masculine characters
(c) Addison's disease (i) Hypoglycemia
(d) Acromegaly (v) Excessive growth of bones in face
(e) Cushing's syndrome (ii) Hyperglycemia
Question 7
Given below are group of terms. In each group the first pair indicates the relationship between
the two terms. Suggest the suitable word(s) for the fourth place.
(a) Beta cells : Insulin :: Alpha cells : ............... .
(b) Children : Cretinism :: Adults : ............... .
(c) Undersecretion : Dwarfism :: Oversecretion : ............... .
(d) Diabetes mellitus : Insulin :: Diabetes insipidus : ............... .
Answer
(a) Beta cells : Insulin :: Alpha cells : Glucagon.
(b) Children : Cretinism :: Adults : Myxoedema.
(c) Undersecretion : Dwarfism :: Oversecretion : Gigantism.
(d) Diabetes mellitus : Insulin :: Diabetes insipidus : Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Mention the name of diseases based on the clues/ symptoms given below:
(a) Urine is loaded with sugar.
(b) Swelling in the neck.
(c) Dwarfism and mental retardation in children.
(d) Eyes are protruded.
(e) Excessive growth of bones in the face, hands and feet.
Answer
(a) Hyperglycemia
(b) Simple goitre
(c) Cretinism
(d) Exophthalmic goitre
(e) Acromegaly in adults and gigantism in children.
Question 2
Write the exact location of each of the following glands:
(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Pancreas
(d) Pituitary
Answer
(a) Thyroid — It is situated in the front part of the neck just below the larynx.
(b) Adrenal — It is present as a cap on the top of each kidney.
(c) Pancreas — It is located behind the stomach in the upper left abdomen.
(d) Pituitary — It hangs from the base of the mid-brain below the hypothalamus.
Question 3
Name the following:
(a) Three hormones secreted from Islets of Langerhans of pancreas.
(b) Two types of cortical hormones.
(c) Six hormones secreted from anterior pituitary.
(d) Two hormones secreted from posterior pituitary.
(e) The emergency hormone.
(f) Diseases caused due to hypothyroidism.
(g) Symptoms of cretinism.
(h) Abnormalities caused due to hypersecretion of growth hormone.
Answer
(a) Three hormones secreted from islets of Langerhans of pancreas are —
1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Somatostatin
(b) Two types of cortical hormones are —
1. Glucocorticoids
2. Mineralocorticoids
(c) Six hormones secreted from anterior pituitary are —
1. Growth hormone (somatostatin)

2. Prolactin
3. Adreno-corticotropic hormone (ACTH)
4. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
5. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
6. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(d) Two hormones secreted from posterior pituitary are —
1. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or Vasopressin

2. Oxytocin
(e) The emergency hormone is —
1. Adrenaline
(f) Diseases caused due to hypothyroidism —
1. Simple goitre
2. Cretinism
3. Myxoedema
(g) Symptoms of cretinism —
1. Mental retardation
2. Dwarfism
(h) Abnormalities caused due to hypersecretion of growth hormone
1. Gigantism
2. Acromegaly
Question 4
Write the main function of each of the following hormones.

Hormones Functions
(a) Thyroxine ...............
(b) Adrenaline ...............
(c) Insulin ...............
(d) Glucagon ...............
(e) Vasopressin ...............
Answer
Hormones Functions
(a) Thyroxine Promotes tissue metabolism, growth and differentiation.
(b) Adrenaline Causes stimulation of sympathetic nervous system. Prepares body for any emergency.
(c) Insulin Reduces the blood sugar level.
(d) Glucagon Increases the blood sugar level.
(e) Vasopressin Increases reabsorption of water from kidneys, contraction of blood vessels causing rise in blo
Question 5
Name the hormones responsible for the given functions.
Functions H
(a) Contraction of uterine muscles during child birth .............
(b) Maintenance of corpus luteum .............

Functions H
(c) Milk formation and secretion .............
(d) Development of external sex characters in males .............
(e) Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system .............
Answer
Functions Hormones
(a) Contraction of uterine muscles during child birth Oxytocin
(b) Maintenance of corpus luteum Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(c) Milk formation and secretion Prolactin
(d) Development of external sex characters in males Testosterone
(e) Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system Adrenaline
Question 6
If you stand to make your maiden speech before a large audience, your mouth dries up and heart
rate increases. What brings about these changes?
Answer
When we stand to make our maiden speech before a large audience, our mouth dries up and heart
rate increases and it is due to secretion of adrenaline hormone by adrenal glands. Adrenaline is
the hormone which prepares the body to meet any emergency situation. Adrenaline makes the
heart beat faster. At the same time, it stimulates the constriction of the arterioles of the digestive
system reducing the blood supply of the digestive system which makes the mouth dry.
Question 7
Given below is a table designed to give the names of the glands, the hormones produced, their
chief functions, the effects of over secretion and under secretion in respect of thyroid, pituitary
and pancreas. Fill up the blanks 1-13.
Hormone Effect of
S.No. Source Gland cells Chief function
produced oversecretion u
1. (1) ............... Thyroxine (2) ............... (3)............... (4).
Beta cells of Islets of Promotes glucose

2. (5) ............... (6) ............... (7)
Langerhans utilisation by the body cells
Growth
3. (8) ............... (9) ............... (10) ............... Dw
hormone
Increases reabsorption of
4. (11)............... Vasopressin (12) ............... (13
water from kidney tubules
Answer
Source Gland Hormone Eff

S.No. Chief function Effect of over secretion
cells produced
Simple
Regulates basal cretinis
1. Thyroid Thyroxine Exophthalmic goiter
metabolism and my
adults
Beta cells of Promotes glucose

2. Islets of Insulin utilization by the Hypoglycemia Diabet
Langerhans body cells
Anterior Growth Promotes growth of

3. Gigantism Dwarfi
pituitary hormone the whole body
Increases More concentrated and

Posterior reabsorption of less amount of urine,
4. Vasopressin Diabet
pituitary water from kidney Elevation of blood
tubule pressure
Question 8
Complete the following table by filling in the blanks numbered 1 to 7.

Gland Hormone secreted Effect on bo
(1) ............... (2) ............... Regulates basal metabolis
Pancreas ("beta" cells) (3) ............... Controls blood sugar
(4) ............... (5) ............... Increases heart beat
(6) ............... Thyroid stimulating hormone (7)...............
Answer
Gland Hormone secreted Effect on bod
Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates basal metabolism
Pancreas ("beta" cells) Insulin Controls blood sugar level
Adrenal gland Adrenaline Increases heart beat
Anterior pituitary Thyroid stimulating hormone Stimulates thyroxine secreti
Question 9
Complete the following table by filling in the blank spaces numbered 1 to 8.
Gland Secretions Effect
(1) ............... Oestrogen (2) ...............
Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans (3) ............... (4) ...............
(5) ............... (6) ............... Protruding eye
(7) ............... (8) ............... Gigantism
Answer
Gland Secretions Effect on body
Development of secondary sexua

Ovary Oestrogen
characteristics
Alpha cells of islets of

Glucagon Raises blood sugar level
Langerhans
Thyroid Hypersecretion of thyroxine Protruding eyes
Hypersecretion of Growth
Anterior pituitary Gigantism
hormone
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Endocrine system
(b) Hormones
(c) Myxoedema
Answer
(a) Endocrine system — Endocrine system consists of several endocrine glands/glandular cells
which activate each other and work as a system to bring about overall chemical coordination in
the body.
(b) Hormones — Hormone is a secretion from some glandular part of the body, which is poured
directly into blood and which acts on the target organs or cells of the same individual, bringing
about coordination between distant parts of the body.
(c) Myxoedema — Myxoedema is a condition which occurs in adults due to hypothyroidism in

which the person becomes sluggish with swelling of the face and hands.
Question 2
(a) Exocrine and endocrine glands (secretory substance and example)

(b) Enzymes and hormones (mode of transport and target organ)
(c) Nervous control and hormonal control (transmission and effect)
(d) Diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus (cause and symptoms)
(e) Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome (cause and sugar level)
Answer
(a) Difference between exocrine and endocrine glands (secretory substance and example):
Exocrine glands Endocrine glands
Exocrine glands secrete their products like sweat, enzyme, Endocrine glands secrete their products, kn
mucus, sebum, saliva, milk, etc. into ducts. hormones, directly into the bloodstream.
Examples of exocrine glands are Sweat glands, Salivary glands, Examples of endocrine glands are Thyroid,
Sebaceous glands, etc. Adrenal, Pancreas.
(b) Difference between enzymes and hormones (mode of transport and target organ):
Enzymes Hormones
Enzymes function intracellularly or within the confines of specific organs. Hormones are released into th
They are not released into the bloodstream. by endocrine glands.
Enzymes do not have target organs. Instead, they act on their substrates at the Hormones have specific targe
cellular level and are highly specific for the reactions they catalyze. tissues usually away from the
(c) Difference between nervous control and hormonal control (transmission and effect):
Nervous control Hormonal c
Effect is only short-lived. Effect is short term or l
Transmitted electro-chemically through nerve fibres and chemically across synapses. Transmitted chemically
(d) Difference between diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus (cause and symptoms):
Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus

Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus
Caused due to insufficient secretion of insulin. Caused due to insufficient secretion of anti-diuretic hormo
High concentration of sugar in blood. No sugar in urine
(e) Difference between Addison's disease and Cushing's syndrome (cause and sugar level):
Addison's disease Cushing's syndrome
Caused due to hyposecretion of cortisone Caused due to hypersecretion of cortisone
Low blood sugar level High blood sugar level
Question 3
Give reason:
(a) Adrenaline is often described as the emergency hormone.
(b) Pituitary is popularly called as the master gland.
(c) People living in the low Himalayan hilly regions often suffer from goitre.
(d) Simple goitre can be prevented by using iodised salt in food.
Answer
(a) Adrenaline is known as the Emergency hormone because it prepares the body to meet any
emergency situation, for "fight" i.e. to face danger or for "flight" i.e. to run away from it. Extra
energy and strength is provided to the body in that situation. It stimulates the sympathetic
nervous system. When excited or angry, the adrenal medulla produces a lot of Adrenaline
preparing the body for any emergency.
(b) Pituitary is popularly called as the master gland because it controls the functioning of all the
other endocrine glands.
(c) People living in the low Himalayan hilly regions often suffer from goitre because iodine is
deficient in the soil of those regions and hence, in the food grown there. Insufficient iodine
produces less thyroxine which results in goitre.
(d) Iodised salt contains iodine which is an active ingredient in the production of thyroxine.
Hence, it is recommended to use iodised salt in food to prevent simple goitre.
Question 4
Identify the gland with the help of following clues:
(a) The gland is like a cap on top of each kidney.
(b) The gland is both a duct gland as well as a ductless gland.
(c) A bilobed (butterfly-shaped) gland.
(d) The gland is located in mid-brain below the hypothalamus.
Answer
(a) Adrenal
(b) Pancreas
(c) Thyroid
(d) Pituitary
Question 1
Study the diagram given below and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the cells of the pancreas that produce (1) glucagon (2) insulin.
(b) State the main function of (1) glucagon and (2) insulin.
(c) Why is the pancreas referred to as an exo-endocrine gland?
(d) Why is insulin not given orally but is injected into the body?
(e) What is the technical term for the cells of the pancreas that produce endocrine hormones?
(f) Where in the body is the Pancreas located?
Answer
(a) Glucagon is produced by the Alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans.

Insulin is produced by the Beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
(b) The main function of Glucagon is to raise the blood glucose levels by stimulating the
breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
The main function of Insulin is to maintain the levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood.
(c) Exocrine glands are those glands which deliver their secretions to the target through ducts.
An endocrine gland is one which does not pour its secretions into a duct but directly into the
blood. As an exocrine gland the pancreas secrete pancreatic juices into the duodenum for
digestion. As an endocrine gland, it has special groups of hormone-secreting cells called Islets of
Langerhans which are scattered in the entire gland. The islet cells produce three hormones —
insulin, glucagon and somatostatin which are poured directly into the blood. Hence, the pancreas
is an exo-endocrine gland.
(d) Insulin is not administered orally because the digestive juices degrade insulin making it
ineffective. Hence, to avoid its degradation, Insulin is injected into the body.
(e) Islets of Langerhans
(f) The Pancreas is located in the abdomen behind the stomach.
Question 2
Given ahead is a portion from the human body showing some important structure in ventral
(front) view.
(a) Where is this portion located in the body?
(b) Name the structures numbered 1-3.
(c) State one main function of each of the structures named above.
(d) Is there any duct to carry the secretions from the structure numbered 2? If so, give its name.
Answer
(a) This portion is located in the neck region above the sternum.
(b) The structures numbered 1-3 are:
• 1 → Larynx
• 2 → Thyroid gland
• 3 → Trachea
(c) One main function of each of these structures is:
1. Larynx is the voice box containing vocal cords. It helps in producing sound.
2. Thyroid gland produces thyroxine and calcitonin which are essential hormones.
3. Trachea is the wind pipe that helps in passing air to and from the respiratory system
while breathing.
(d) Structure 2 is the thyroid gland. It is an endocrine gland, so it is ductless and pours its
secretions directly into the blood. Hence, there is no duct.
Question 3
Given below is an outline diagram of human body showing position of certain organs.
(a) Name the parts numbered 1 to 4.
(b) What is common to all these parts in regard to the nature of their functions?
(c) Name the nutrient element which is essential for the normal working of part 2.
Answer
(a) The parts numbered 1-4 are:
• 1 → Pituitary gland
• 2 → Thyroid gland
• 3 → Pancreas
• 4 → Adrenal Glands
(b) All the glands shown in the above diagram are endocrine glands. They secrete essential
hormones and pour their secretions directly into the blood.
(c) Iodine is essential for the normal working of Thyroid gland.
Question 4
The diagram given alongside shows an endocrine gland in the human body. Study the diagram
and answer the following questions :
(a) Identify the gland. Write its specific location in the human body.
(b) Label the guidelines 1, 2 and 3 shown in the figure.
(c) Name any two secretions from part 1 and two from part 2.
(d) The deficiency of which hormone causes Diabetes insipidus? How is this condition different
from Diabetes mellitus with respect to the abnormal substances present in the urine.
Answer
(a) The gland shown is Pituitary gland. It hangs from the base of the mid-brain below the
hypothalamus.
(b)
• 1 → Anterior lobe
• 2 → Posterior lobe
• 3 → Hypophysial stalk
(c) Two secretions from part 1 are Growth hormone and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone.
Two secretions from part 2 are ADH and Oxytocin
(d) The deficiency of ADH causes Diabetes insipidus. Urine does not contain any glucose in this
condition but in Diabetes mellitus there is glucose present in the urine
Chapter 13
The Reproductive System

Progress Check 1
Question 1
Tick-mark the correct meaning of reproduction
(i) increase in population
(ii) increase in the number of parents
(iii) production of new individuals of the same kind
(iv) production of identical individuals
Answer
production of new individuals of the same kind
Question 2
State very briefly the chief function of each of the following :
(i) Seminal vesicles
(ii) Prostate gland
(iii) Cowper's gland
(iv) Sperm duct (vas deferens)
Answer
(i) Seminal vesicles produce a secretion that serves as a medium for the transportation of the
sperms.
(ii) It pours an alkaline secretion into the semen as it passes through the urethra. It neutralises
acid in female's vagina.
(iii) The secretion of Cowper's gland serves as a lubricant.
(iv) Sperm duct (vas deferens) help in the transportation of the sperms from the testes upwards to
the abdomen.
Progress Check 2
Question 1
State whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F):
(i) One egg is released from each of the two ovaries every month.
(ii) The enlarged mature follicle bursts to release the egg.
(iii) The egg is passed down through the oviduct by muscular contractions.
(iv) Clitoris is equivalent to the male penis.
(v) The vagina is a muscular tube.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected Statement — One egg is released from one of the two ovaries every month.
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) True
(v) True
Progress Check 3
Question 1
Name the three main regions of the human sperm, and briefly mention the function of each.
Answer
The three main regions of human sperm and their function are:
1. Head (Acrosome) — It secretes an enzyme (hyaluronidase) which facilitates entry of

sperm into the egg by dissolving the wall of the ovum.
2. Middle Piece (Mitochondria) — It provides energy for the activity of the sperm to swim.
3. Tail (Axial filament) — Lashing movements of tail helps in propulsion.
Question 2
(i) Three accessory glands of human male reproductive system.
(ii) Two hormones secreted from placenta.
(iii) Two types of twins.
(iv) Two layers of the wall of uterus.
Answer
(i) Three accessory glands of human male reproductive system are:
1. Seminal vesicles
2. Prostate gland
3. Bulbo-urethral gland (or Cowper's gland)
(ii) Two hormones secreted from placenta are:
1. Oestrogens
2. Progesterone
(iii) Two types of twins are:
1. Fraternal Twins
2. Identical Twins
(iv) Two layers of the wall of uterus are:
1. Endometrium
2. Myometrium
Question 3
List the substances which the foetus receives from the mother through placenta.
Answer
The foetus receives following substances from the mother through placenta:
1. Oxygen
2. Glucose
3. Amino acids
4. Lipids, fatty acids and glycerol
5. Vitamins
6. Mineral ions such as Na, K, Ca, Cl, etc.
7. Certain drugs
8. Alcohol, nicotine
9. Antibodies
10. Viruses
Question 4
How are carbon dioxide and urea, excreted by the foetus, removed?
Answer
The placenta is formed of two sets of finger-like projections, the villi. One set is given out by
uterine wall and the other set by allantois from the embryo. These two set of villi are interlocked.
The impurities excreted by foetus are exchanged by their capillaries to the capillaries of uterine
wall (mother).
Question 5
Write one sentence each using the following terms pertaining to reproduction in humans.
(i) Gestation
(ii) 280 days
(iii) Head first
(iv) Placenta
(v) After-birth
(vi) Tied and cut
Answer
(i) The gestation period refers to the full term of the embryo in the uterus.
(ii) In humans, the gestation period is 280 days.
(iii) During parturition, the baby is pushed out by powerful contraction, head first.
(iv) Placenta is the disc like structure attached to the uterine wall.
(v) After about 15 minutes of birth of baby, the placenta breaks from the uterus and is expelled
out as "after-birth".
(vi) The umbilical cord is tied and cut after birth.
Question 6
Does the foetus inside the mother's uterus breathe? Yes/No
Answer
No
Reason — No, the foetus inside the mother's uterus does not breathe in the same way as a born
baby or an adult. The exchange of gases between the mother's blood and the foetal blood takes
place in the placenta, and the foetus obtains the necessary oxygen and eliminates carbon dioxide
through this process. The actual breathing, as in inhaling and exhaling air into the lungs, only
begins after birth when the baby takes its first breath.
Question 7
Mention if the following statements are True (T) or False (F):
(i) Placenta produces certain hormones.
(ii) Amniotic fluid serves to provide oxygen to the foetus.
(iii) Heart and blood vessels have been formed by the end of five weeks of pregnancy.
(iv) Mother's blood flows into the foetus through placenta.
Answer
(i) True
(ii) False
Corrected Statement — Amniotic fluid serves to provide protection to the foetus.
(iii) True
(iv) False
Corrected Statement — Mother's blood and the foetal blood do not directly mix in the placenta.
Instead, the placenta acts as a barrier between the maternal and foetal circulations to allow for
the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products without direct mixing of blood.
Question 8
Complete the following by filling in the blanks 1 to 5 with appropriate words:
The human female gonads are ovaries. A maturing egg in the ovary is present in a sac of cells
called ...............(1). As the egg grows larger, the follicle enlarges and gets filled with a fluid and
is now called the ............... (2) follicle. The process of releasing the egg from the ovary is called
............... (3). The ovum is picked up by the oviductal funnel and fertilization takes place in the
...............(4). In about a week the blastocyst gets fixed in the endometrium of the uterus and this
process is called ...............(5).
Answer
The human female gonads are ovaries. A maturing egg in the ovary is present in a sac of cells
called follicle(1). As the egg grows larger, the follicle enlarges and gets filled with a fluid and is
now called the Graafian (2) follicle. The process of releasing the egg from the ovary is
called ovulation (3). The ovum is picked up by the oviductal funnel and fertilization takes place
in the fallopian tube (4). In about a week the blastocyst gets fixed in the endometrium of the
uterus and this process is called implantation (5).
Question 1
The male accessory gland whose secretion neutralizes the acidity of the urethra and vagina is:
1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate gland
3. Seminiferous tubule
4. Bulbo-urethral gland
Answer
Prostate gland
Reason — The secretion of prostate gland is alkaline in nature and it neutralises the acidity of
the urethra and vagina.
Question 2
The onset of menstruation in women is called ;
1. Parturition
2. Menopause
3. Ovulation
4. Menarche
Answer
Menarche
Reason — The term used for onset of menstruation in young female is called Menarche.
Question 3
In the human menstrual cycle, the ovulation occurs around :
1. 7 days
2. 21 days
3. 28 days
4. 14 days
Answer
14 days
Reason — Ovulation occurs during mid-menstrual cycle.
Question 4
Fertilization takes place in :
1. Fallopian tube
2. Uterus
3. Vas deferens
4. Vagina
Answer
Fallopian tube
Reason — Fertilization takes place in oviduct or Fallopian tube.
Question 5
The packing tissues between the coils of the seminiferous tubules are called as :
1. Leydig cells
2. Hymen
3. Graafian follicle
4. Clitoris
Answer
Leydig cells
Reason — The packing tissues between the coils of the seminiferous tubules are called as
interstitial cells or Leydig cells.
Question 6
Which of the following cannot pass readily through the placenta to the foetus ?
1. Antibodies
2. Amino acids
3. Alcohol
4. Haemoglobin
Answer
Haemoglobin
Reason — There is exchange of substances between the capillaries of foetus and mother but
their blood never mixes. Therefore, there is no exchange of Haemoglobin.
Question 7
The thin-walled sac of skin in which testis descends is :
1. Seminal vesicle
2. Vas deferens
3. Scrotal sac
4. Epididymis
Answer
Scrotal sac
Reason — Testis descends into scrotal sac.
Question 8
The outermost layer of uterine wall around the foetus is :
1. Choroid
2. Allantois
3. Chorion
4. Amnion
Answer
Chorion
Reason — The outermost layer of uterine wall around the foetus is chorion.
Question 9
The period of pregnancy is called :
1. Parturition
2. Implantation
3. Copulation
4. Gestation
Answer
Gestation
Reason — The duration between fertilization and birth of baby is called gestation period. It is
280 days in case of humans.
Question 10
The canal through which each testis descends into the scrotum just before the birth of a male
baby is :
1. Acrosome
2. Epididymis
3. Efferent duct
4. Inguinal canal
Answer
Inguinal canal
Reason — The canal through which each testis descends into the scrotum just before the birth of
a male baby is inguinal canal.
Question 1
Name these:
(a) 3 male accessory glands in humans.
(b) 2 hormones secreted from the corpus luteum.
(c) 4 phases of the menstrual cycle.
(d) 2 types of twins.
(e) 3 membranous, protective layers around the foetus.
Answer
(a) 3 male accessory glands in humans are:
1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate gland
3. Cowper's gland
(b) 2 hormones secreted from the corpus luteum are:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
(c) 4 phases of the menstrual cycle are:
1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal phase
(d) 2 types of twins are:
1. Fraternal Twins
2. Identical Twins
(e) 3 membranous, protective layers around the foetus are:
1. Chorion
2. Amnion
3. Allantois
Question 2
Rewrite the terms in the correct order so as to be in a logical sequence.
(a) Implantation, ovulation, child birth, gestation, fertilisation.
(b) Sperm duct, coitus, sperm, vagina, urethra.
(c) Sperm duct, penis, testes, sperms, semen.
(d) Puberty, menopause, menstruals, menarche, reproductive age.
(e) Graafian follicle, ostium, uterus, fallopian tube, ovum.
Answer
(a) Ovulation → fertilization → implantation → gestation → child birth
(b) Sperm → sperm duct → urethra → coitus → vagina
(c) Testes → Sperms → Sperm duct → Semen → Penis
(d) Reproductive age → Puberty → Menarche → Menstruals → Menopause
(e) Ovum → Graafian follicle → Ostium → Fallopian tube → Uterus.
Question 3
Give appropriate terms for the following processes:
(a) The onset of reproductive phase in a female.
(b) Rupture of follicle and release of ovum from the ovary.
(c) Monthly discharge of blood and disintegrated tissues in human female.
(d) Process of fusion of ovum and sperm.
(e) Fixing of developing zygote (blastocyst) on the uterine wall.
Answer
(a) Menarche
(b) Ovulation
(c) Menstruation
(d) Fertilization
(e) Implantation
Question 4
Match the items in column I with those in column II and write down the matching pairs (some
may not match)
Column I Column II
(a) Acrosome (i) An embryo which looks like human baby
(b) Gestation (ii) Luteinizing hormone
(c) Menopause (iii) Ovum producing cells
(d) Foetus (iv) Semen
(e) Oogenesis (v) Spermatozoa
(f) Ovulation (vi) Complete stoppage of menstrual cycle
(vii) Time taken by a fertilized egg till the delivery of baby
Answer
Column I Column II
(a) Acrosome (v) Spermatozoa
(b) Gestation (vii) Time taken by a fertilized egg till the delivery of baby
(c) Menopause (vi) complete stoppage of menstrual cycle
(d) Foetus (i) An embryo which looks like human baby
(e) Oogenesis (iii) ovum producing cells
(f) Ovulation (ii) Luteinizing hormone

Question 5
Given below are some groups of terms. In each group, one pair indicates the relationship
between the two terms. Rewrite and complete the second pair on a similar basis.
(a) Sperm : Spermatogenesis : Ovum : ...............
(b) Female gonad : Ovaries :: Male gonad : ...............
(c) Follicle cells : Ova :: ............... : Sperms
(d) Leydig cells : Testosterone :: ............... : Oestrogen
(e) Follicular phase : 5-12 days :: Luteal phase : ............... days.
Answer
(a) Sperm : Spermatogenesis : Ovum : Oogenesis
(b) Female gonad : Ovaries :: Male gonad : testes
(c) Follicle cells : Ova :: Seminiferous tubules : Sperms
(d) Leydig cells : Testosterone :: Corpus Luteum : Oestrogen
(e) Follicular phase : 5-12 days :: Luteal phase : 15-28 days.
Question 6
Choose the odd one out from the group of terms given below and write the category for the
remaining terms:
(a) Testis, Epididymis, Uterine tube, Sperm duct.
(b) Seminal vesicle, Seminiferous tubule, Prostate gland, Cowper’s gland.
(c) Uterus, Ureter, Oviduct, Ovaries.
(d) Choroid, Chorion, Amnion, Allantois.
(e) Zona pellucida, Acrosome, Axial filament, Middle piece.
Answer
(a) Odd term: Uterine tube

Category: Male reproductive system organs
(b) Odd term: Seminiferous tubule

Category: Male accessory glands
(c) Odd term: Ureter
Category: Female reproductive system organs
(d) Odd term: Choroid

Category: Protective membranes around foetus.
(e) Odd term: Zona pellucida

Category: Parts of sperm
Short Answer Type
Question 1
(a) State whether the following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F).
1. Fertilisation occurs in vagina.

2. Uterus is also known as birth canal.
3. Nutrition and oxygen diffuse from the mother's blood into the foetus's blood through
amnion.
(b) Rewrite any two of the wrong statements by correcting only one word either at the beginning
or at the end of the sentence.
Answer
(a)
1. False
2. False
3. False
(b)
1. Corrected Sentence — Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube.

2. Corrected Sentence — Vagina is also known as the birth canal.
3. Corrected Sentence — Nutrition and oxygen diffuse from the mother's blood into the
foetus's blood through placenta.
Question 2
Complete the following table by writing the name of the structure or the function of the given
structure:
Structure Function
(1) Corpus luteum 1. ...............
(2)............... 2. Produces male gametes in mass
(3)Leydig cells 3. ...............
(4)............... 4. Stores the sperms until they mature and become mobile
(5)Umbilical cord 5. ...............
(6)Fallopian tube 6. ...............
Answer
Structure Function
(1) Corpus luteum 1. Secretes progesterone & other hormones to prepare the uterine wall for the receival o
(2) Testes 2. Produces male gametes in mass
(3) Leydig cells 3. Produce the male hormone testosterone
(4) Epididymis 4. Stores the sperms until they mature and become mobile
(5) Umbilical cord 5. Connects placenta with foetus
(6) Fallopian tube 6. The site of fertilization for the sperm and ovum.
Question 3
Given below are the names of certain stages/substances related to reproduction and found in
human body. Answer the questions related to them.
(a) Foetus
• Where is it contained?
• How does it differ from embryo?
(b) Hyaluronidase
• Is it an enzyme or simply a protein?

• What is its function?
(c) Morula
• What is this stage?

• Name the stage which comes next to it.
(d) Amniotic fluid
• Where is it found?
• What are its functions?
(e) Placenta
• What are the two sources that form placenta?

• Name any two main substances which pass from foetus to mother through placenta.
• Name any two hormones it produces.
(f) Implantation
• The development stage that undergoes this process.

• The approximate time after fertilisation, when it occurs.
Answer
(a) Foetus —
• It is contained in the uterus.

• In foetus, limbs have appeared and resembles the humans unlike the embryo which is a
growing or dividing zygote.
(b) Hyaluronidase —
• Enzyme
• It is an enzyme secreted by the sperm that allows the sperm to penetrate the egg.
(c) Morula —
• It is the stage in the development of human embryo which consists of a spherical mass of
cells.
• Blastocyst
(d) Amniotic fluid —
• Between amnion and embryo

• The functions of Amniotic fluid are:
i. It protects the embryo from physical damage by jerks or mechanical shocks.
ii. Keeps an even pressure all around the embryo.
iii. Allows the foetus some restricted movement.
iv. Prevents sticking of the foetus to the amnion.
(e) Placenta —
• Placenta is formed by two sets of minute finger like processes called the villi. One set of
villi is from the uterine wall and the other set is from the allantois.
• Carbon dioxide and Urea pass from foetus to mother through placenta.
• Two hormones produced by Placenta are Progesterone and Oestrogens.
(f) Implantation —
• Blastocyst
• It occurs in about 5-7 days after fertilisation.
Question 4
Write important functions of the following :
(a) Inguinal canal
(b) Testis
(c) Ovary
(d) Oviduct
(e) Uterus
Answer
(a) Inguinal canal allows the descent of testes into scrotal sac.
(b) Testis produce and store sperms and also secrete testosterone hormone.
(c) Ovaries produce the egg cells, called the ova. The corpus luteum in the ovary secretes two
hormones — Oestrogen and Progesterone.
(d) Oviducts (Fallopian tubes) carry the released ovum from the ovary to the uterus. Fertilisation
also occurs in the Oviduct.
(e) The uterus is responsible for nurturing and housing a developing fetus during pregnancy.
Question 5
Write the specific location of each of the following :
(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Uterus
(c) Placenta
(d) Acrosome
(e) Vagina
Answer
(a) Seminal vesicles are located between the posterior surface of the urinary bladder and the
rectum in males.
(b) Uterus is situated in the pelvic cavity between the urinary bladder and the rectum in females.
(c) Placenta is attached to the uterine wall.
(d) Head of sperm.
(e) Vagina starts from lower end of uterus to outside.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Reproduction
(b) Hernia
(c) Ovulation
(d) Puberty
(e) Fertilization
(f) Hymen
Answer
(a) Reproduction — Reproduction is the process of formation of new individuals by sexual or

asexual means, which can repeat the process in their own turn.
(b) Hernia — Hernia is an abnormal condition which is caused when the intestine due to the
pressure in abdomen bulges into the scrotum through the inguinal canal.
(c) Ovulation — Ovulation is the rupture of the follicle releasing the egg .
(d) Puberty — Puberty is the period during which immature reproductive system in boys and
girls matures and becomes capable of reproduction.
(e) Fertilization — The fusion of the male gamete (sperm) and the female gamete (ovum) to
form a zygote is called fertilisation.
(f) Hymen — Hymen is a thin membrane which partially covers the opening of the vagina in
young females.
Question 2
(a) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis
(b) Implantation and gestation
(c) Pregnancy and parturition
(d) Placenta and umbilical cord
(e) Identical and fraternal twins
(f) Menarche and menopause
Answer
(a) Difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis —
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
It is the process of production of sperms in seminiferous Oogenesis is the process in which the ova - produc
Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
tubules of testes. rise to the mature ovum.
(b) Difference between implantation and gestation —
Implantation Gestation
The process of fixing of the blastocyst to the wall of the The full term of the development of th
uterus/endometrium is termed implantation. uterus is called gestation.
(c) Difference between pregnancy and parturition —
Pregnancy Parturition
It is the state of carrying a developing embryo or a foetus It is the act of expelling the full term foetus from
within the female body. uterus at the end of gestation.
(d) Difference between placenta and umbilical cord —
Placenta Umbilic
Placenta is the intimate connection established between the foetal membranes and uterine It is a cord conta
wall permitting diffusion of nourishment from the mother's blood to that of the growing vessels which co
foetus and disposal of wastes from the blood of the foetus to that of the mother. placenta with the
(e) Difference between identical and fraternal twins —
Identical twins Fraternal twins
Identical twins are produced by a single fertilised egg Fraternal twins are produced by two different eg
getting split into two parts during its early stages of cell released from the ovaries at a time and both got f
division. together.
Fraternal twins may be either both boys or both g

Identical twins are either both boys or both girls.
and one girl.
(f) Difference between Menarche and Menopause —

Menarche Menopause
It is the onset of menstruation in a young female at about It is the permanent stoppage of menstruation in f
the age of 13 years. the age of 45 years.
Question 3
What is the significance of the testes being located in the scrotal sacs outside the abdomen? Can
there be any abnormal situation regarding their location? If so, what is that and what is the harm
caused due to it?
Answer
Testes are responsible for the production of male gametes i.e. sperms. The normal body
temperature does not allow the maturation of the sperms. Being suspended outside the body
cavity, the temperature in the scrotal sac is 2 to 3°C lower than that of the body which is the
suitable temperature for the maturation of the sperms.
When it is too hot, the skin of the scrotum loosens so that the testes hang down away from the
body. When it is too cold, the skin contracts in a folded manner and draws the testes closer to the
body for warmth.
In an abnormal condition, in the embryonic stage, the testes do not descend into the scrotum. It
can lead to sterility or incapability to produce sperms.
Question 4
What are the secondary sexual characteristics in the human male and female respectively?
Answer
Secondary sexual characteristics in males:
1. Deeper voice
2. Hair growth on the face in the form of beard and moustache
3. Stronger muscular built
Secondary sexual characteristics in females:
1. High pitched voice

2. Broad hips
3. Development of breasts
Question 5
What are the accessory reproductive organs?
Answer
The accessory reproductive organs include all those structures, ducts and glands which help in
the transfer and meeting of two kinds of sex cells leading to fertilization and in the growth and
development of the egg up to the birth of the baby.
For example: Uterus in females, Penis in males.
Question 6
Differentiate between the primary and accessory reproductive organs.
Answer
Primary Reproductive Organs Accessory Reproductive Organs
The primary reproductive organs do not help in The accessory organs help in the growth and development
the development of baby. the birth of baby.
The primary reproductive organs produce sex The accessory reproductive organs help in the transfer and
cells — the sperms and eggs. kinds of sex cells leading to fertilization.
Example: Testes in males and Ovaries in females. Example: Penis in males, Uterus, Vagina in female.
Question 7
Name and describe very briefly, the stages in the development of human embryo.
Answer
The different stages in the development of human embryo are described below:
Question 8
Is it correct to say that the testes produce testosterone? Discuss.
Answer
Testosterone is the male reproductive hormone produced by the interstitial cells or the Leydig
cells. These cells are located in the testes. They serve as a packing tissue between the coils of the
seminiferous tubules. Therefore, it can be said that the testes produce the male hormone
testosterone.
Question 1
Given below is a diagram of two systems together in the human body.
(a) Name the systems.
(b) Name the parts numbered 1-10.
(c) Describe the functions of the parts 3, 4, 5 and 6.
(d) What will happen if the part 3 on both sides gets blocked?
Answer
(a) Excretory system and Female Reproductive system.
(b) The parts numbered 1-10 are:
• 1 → Kidney
• 2 → Ureter
• 3 → Fallopian Tube
• 4 → Oviducal Funnel
• 5 → Ovary
• 6 → Uterus
• 7 → Urinary Bladder
• 8 → Cervix
• 9 → Vagina
• 10 → Vulva
(c) Functions of the parts are:
• Fallopian Tube (part 3) — The fallopian tubes carry the ovum released from the ovary
to the uterus.
• Oviducal Funnel (part 4) — It is the funnel shaped distal end of the ovary which picks
up the released ovum and pushes it further on its passage into the fallopian tube.
• Ovary (part 5) — Ovary produces female gametes i.e. ova.
• Uterus (part 6) — Uterus allows the growth and development of the embryo.
(d) If fallopian tube (part 3) on both sides gets blocked, the ovum released by the ovary will not
be pushed into the oviduct and hence, there will be no possibility of fertilisation.
Question 2
The figure given ahead is an organ system of humans. Study the same and answer the following
questions.
(a) Identify the organ system.
(b) Label the guidelines 1 to 7.
(c) Write one important role of parts 3 and 6.
(d) Name the cells of part 1 that produce testosterone.
(e) What is the significance of the part 1 being located in a separate sac suspended outside the
body ?
Answer
(a) Male Reproductive Organ System
(b)
• 1 → Testes
• 2 → Scrotal sac
• 3 → Epididymis
• 4 → Sperm duct
• 5 → Seminal vesicle
• 6 → Bulbo-Urethral Gland
• 7 → Urethra
(c) Part 3 (Epididymis) — It stores the sperms for some days during which they mature and
become motile.
Part 6 (Bulbo-Urethral Gland) — Their secretion serves as a lubricant.
(d) Leydig cells
(e) The normal body temperature does not allow the maturation of the sperms. Being suspended
outside the body cavity, the temperature in the scrotal sac is 2 to 3°C lower than that of the body
which is the suitable temperature for the maturation of the sperms.
Question 3
The figure given below is an important gonad of humans. Study the figure and answer the
following questions.
(a) Identify the organ. Write its specific location in the body.
(b) Label the parts shown in the figure as 1 to 4.

(c) Write important functions of parts 2 and 4.
(d) Name one cellular structure and one hormone which are produced in part 3.
(e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the cellular structure mentioned by you in (d).
Answer
(a) Testis.
They are located in scrotal sac.
(b)
• 2 → Efferent ducts
• 3 → Seminiferous tubules
• 4 → Sperm duct
(c) Efferent ducts (Part 2) conduct sperm to epididymis.

Sperm duct (Part 4) transmit sperms from testes to urethra.
(d) Sperms and testosterone.
(e) Labelled diagram of the cellular structure of the sperm is given below:
Question 4
Given below is the outline of the male reproductive system. Name the parts labelled 1 to 8. Also
name the corresponding structure of part (4) in the female reproductive system.
Answer
• 1 → Urinary bladder
• 2 → Ureter
• 3 → Bulbo-urethral glands
• 4 → Sperm duct/Vas deferens
• 5 → Urethra
• 6 → Testis
• 7 → Scrotum
Fallopian tubes (oviducts) in females are analogous to sperm ducts in males. Sperm ducts carry
sperms to the urethra, while fallopian tubes carry ova to the uterus.
Question 5
The diagram below is that of a developing human foetus in the womb. Study the same and
answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the parts '1' to '5' indicated by guidelines.
(b) What term is given to the period of development of the foetus in the womb?
(c) How many days does the foetus take to be fully developed?
(d) Mention two functions of the parts labelled '2' other than its endocrine functions.
(e) Name any one hormone produced by the part labelled '2'.
Answer
(a) The parts 1 to 5 are:
• 1 → Umbilical cord
• 2 → Placenta
• 3 → Amnion
• 4 → Mouth of uterus
• 5 → Muscular wall of uterus
(b) Gestation
(c) 280 days

(d) Placenta provides the foetus with oxygen and nutrients. In addition, the placenta also removes
carbon dioxide and waste products of the foetus.
(e) Progesterone
Question 6
The figure given below is the human female reproductive system. Study the same and answer the
following questions.
(a) Label the guidelines 1 to 6 shown in the figure.
(b) What is the normal gestation period in human ?
(c) Where are the sperms released during coitus ?
(d) Write two important functions of part 2.
(e) Mention the technical term for the fixing of developing zygote to the uterine wall.
Answer
(a) The labelled guidelines are:
• 1 → Vagina
• 2 → Ovary
• 3 → Funnel of Oviduct
• 4 → Fallopian tube
• 5 → Uterus
• 6 → Uterus lining
(b) 280 days
(c) Vagina
(d) Ovary releases egg and produces hormones (oestrogen, progesterone)
(e) Implantation
Question 7
The diagram below represents two reproductive cells A and B. Study the same and then answer
the questions that follow:
(a) Identify the reproductive cells A and B
(b) Name the specific part of the reproductive system where the above cells are produced.
(c) Where in the female reproductive system do these cells unite?
(d) Name the main hormone secreted by the (1) ovary (2) testes.
(e) Name an accessory gland found in the male reproductive system and state the function of its
secretion.
Answer
(a) The reproductive cells A and B are:
• A → Ovum
• B → Sperm
(b) Parts of the reproductive system where the above cells are produced are:
• Sperms are produced in the testis.

• The ovum is produced in the ovary.
(c) The reproductive cells unite in the fallopian tubes of the female reproductive system.
(d) The main hormone secreted are:
• Ovary → Oestrogen and progesterone

• Testis →Testosterone
(e) Accessory glands found in the male reproductive system along with their functions are
mentioned below:
• Seminal vesicle — They produce a secretion which serves as a medium for the
transportation of the sperms.
• Prostate gland — It produces an alkaline secretion which mixes with the semen and helps
neutralise acid in female's vagina.
• Bulbo-urethral gland — They produce a secretion which serves as a lubricant.
Chapter 14
Human Evolution
Multiple choice type
Question 1
Which of the following is not a vestigial organ ?
1. Vermiform appendix
2. Caecum
3. Wisdom teeth
4. Ear pinna
Answer
Caecum
Reason — Caecum is not a vestigial organ as it absorbs fluid and salt from the digested food.
Question 2
The selective agent that was responsible for causing the change in peppered moth was :
1. Lichens
2. Humans
3. Birds
4. Smoke
Answer
Smoke
Reason — Earlier the light colour winged moths outnumbered dark winged moths as they could
escape the predators but after industrialisation the dark winged moths were able to escape the
predators while light colour winged moths were preyed upon. Therefore, the smoke acted as
selective agent.
Question 3
The first scientist who proposed his theory for evolution was ;
1. Darwin
2. Lamarck
3. Mendel
4. Wallace
Answer
Lamarck
Reason — Lamarck was the first scientist to propose his theory of evolution.
Question 4
The theory proposed by Lamarck is :
1. Autogenesis theory
2. Germplasm theory
3. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
4. Theory of abiogenesis
Answer
Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
Reason — According to the theory of inheritance of acquired characters organisms can pass on
traits acquired during their lifetime to their offspring.
Question 5
Charles Darwin explained the origin of species through:
1. Mutation
2. Natural selection
3. Acquired characters
4. Hybridization
Answer
Natural selection
Reason — Charles Darwin explained the origin of species using the idea of natural selection.
Question 6
Which one of the following was not explained by Darwinism?
1. Natural selection
2. Struggle for existence
3. Use and disuse
4. Survival of the fittest
Answer
Use and disuse
Reason — Use and disuse was discussed by Lamarck.
Question 7
Which of the following human ancestral stages came just before the modern man ?
1. Cro-magnon
2. Ramapithecus
3. Homo habilis
4. Neanderthal man
Answer
Cro-magnon
Reason — Cro-magnon came just before the modern man.
Question 8
The scientist who is regarded as the "Father of Evolution" is :
1. Mendel
2. Walther Flemming
3. Darwin
4. Lamarck
Answer
Darwin
Reason — Darwin is known as father of evolution because his theory of evolution by natural
selection became the foundation of modern evolution studies.
Question 9
Industrial melanism was highlighted by :
1. Polar bear
2. Butterfly
3. Peppered moth
4. Bear
Answer
Peppered moth
Reason — Peppered moth showed natural selection of dark winged moths after industrial
revolution.
Question 10
The famous book “The Origin of Species” was written by :
1. Carl Linnaeus
2. Darwin
3. Lamarck
4. Mendel
Answer
Darwin
Reason — "The Origin of Species" was written by Charles Darwin.
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Mention four postulates of Darwin's theory.
Answer
Four postulates of Darwin's theory were:
1. Overproduction : more offsprings are produced than can survive

2. Struggle for existence
3. Variation : Individuals within a species show variation
4. Survival of the fittest
Question 2
The range of cranial capacities in the following ancestral forms were
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Homo erectus
(d) Cro-magnon
(e) Homo sapiens sapiens
Answer
(a) Australopithecus → 450 to 600 cm3
(b) Homo habilis → 680 to 735 cm3
(c) Homo erectus → 800 to 1125 cm3
(d) Cro-magnon → 1450 to 1600 cm3
(e) Homo sapiens sapiens → 1450 to 1600 cm3
Question 3
Mention the two principles through which Lamarck explained his ideas.
Answer
Lamarck was the first scientist to propose his theory of use and disuse and inheritance of
acquired characters to explain evolutionary process.
1. Use and disuse — Parts of the body which are used extensively become larger and
stronger, while those which are not used deteriorate.
2. Inheritance of acquired characters — An organism could pass its modifications to its
offspring.
Question 4
Name any three vestigial organs found in humans.
Answer
Three vestigial organs found in humans are:
1. Wisdom teeth
2. Vermiform appendix
3. Pinna
Question 5
Give the scientific name of the organism which is cited as the classical example of 'natural
selection'.
Answer
Biston betularia is a classical example of 'natural selection'.
Question 6
Tick mark (√) the correct option in the following statements.
(a) The fossil history of humans is complete/fragmentary.
(b) The first remarkable human fossil was that of H. habilis/H.africanus.
(c) Evolution is an ever continuing/promptly ending process.
Answer
(a) The fossil history of humans is fragmentary.
(b) The first remarkable human fossil was that of Homo habilis.
(c) Evolution is an ever continuing process.
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Evolution
(b) Vestigial organs
(c) Speciation
(d) Bipedalism
(e) Natural selection
Answer
(a) Evolution — Evolution is a slow and continuous process whereby complex forms of life
have emerged from simpler forms through millions of years.
(b) Vestigial organs — Vestigial organs are remnants of once-functional structures in the
organism's ancestors that have lost their original purpose through evolution in the present-day
species.
(c) Speciation — Origin of new species by gradual modification is called 'speciation'.
(d) Bipedalism — Walking straight on hind limbs and freeing of forelimbs from ground is called
bipedalism.
(e) Natural selection — Natural selection is the process by which certain heritable traits become
more or less common in a population over generations based on their impact on an organism's
survival and reproduction in a specific environment.
Question 2
Distinguish between:
(a) Australopithecus and Cro-magnon (Chin)
(b) Australopithecus and Modern man (Body hair)
(c) Homo habilis and Homo sapiens sapiens (Posture)
Answer
(a) Difference between Australopithecus and Cro-magnon (Chin) —
Australopithecus Cro-magnon
Lack of chin Well-developed chin
(b) Difference between Australopithecus and Modern man (Body hair) —
Australopithecus Modern man
Body covered with hair Highly reduced body hair
(c) Difference between Homo habilis and Homo sapiens (Posture) —

Homo habilis Homo sapiens
Bent kneed posture Fully erect posture
Question 3
Differentiate between Lamarck's Theory and Darwin's Theory.
Answer
Main differences between the theories of Lamarck and Darwin —
Lamarck's Theory Darwin's Theory
Known as the theory of inheritance of acquired characters Known as the theory of natural selection
Believes in the use and disuse of an organ. Parts used or changes Believes that since variations exist in indivi
acquired get transmitted to the next generation. fittest survive in the struggle for existence.
New species evolve after a long period of time after many New species evolve due to accumulation of
generations by acquiring new characters. variations over a long period of time.
Question 1
Given below are two figures (A and B) representing the two stages of evolution of human
beings.
Answer the following:
(a) Mention any two contrasting characters between the two stages.
(b) Write all the stages of human evolution in their correct sequence.
(c) State any two characteristic features of stage B.
Answer
Stage A → Australopithecus
Stage B → Homo sapiens sapiens (modern man)
(a) Contrasting characters between Australopithecus and Homo sapiens sapiens :
Characters Australopithecus Homo sapiens sap
Cranial capacity 450 to 600 cm3 1450 to 1600 cm3

Characters Australopithecus Homo sapiens sap
Development of chin Lack of chin, prognathous face Prominent chin, snout disappea
(b) Stages of human evolution in their correct sequence:
Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man

→ Homo sapiens sapiens (modern man)
(c) Characteristic features of stage B (Homo sapiens sapiens):
1. Bipedal locomotion with four reversed curves in the spine.

2. Thoracic region flattened into a broad chest by flattening of sternum.
Question 2
Given below are two figures (A and B) showing a phenomenon that was first observed in
Manchester before and after the year 1850.
Answer the following.
(a) What name has been given to this phenomenon?
(b) Give the common name and the scientific name of the insect involved in this phenomenon.
(c) Briefly mention why the changes shown in the two figures appeared.
(d) The following phenomenon provides a classical explanation of a scientific theory given by a
certain scientist.
(i) Name and explain the said theory.
(ii) Give the name of the scientist who gave this theory.
Answer
(a) Industrial Melanism
(b) Common name — Peppered moth
Scientific name — Biston betularia
(c) Biston betularia, this moth with its light coloured wings dotted with spots blended well with
the lichens growing on the houses and tree trunks on which it rested. After the Industrial
Revolution, pollution resulted in a decline in the growth of lichens. The tree bark got exposed
due to the absence of lichens. As a result, dark-coloured moths now got an advantage of a dark
background, were camouflaged and survived, while the light-coloured moths were easily picked
by predators. This showed that in a mixed population, those moths which could adapt to the
changing environment after the Industrial Revolution survived and increased in number, while
the ones which could not adapt were slowly wiped out from the population.
(d) The theory explaining Industrial Melanism and the name of the scientist who gave it is given
below:
1. Natural selection — During the struggle for existence, only those individuals which
have advantageous variations survive while the ones which lack these variations are
wiped out. Nature selects only those variations which are suitable for existence. This
process is called natural selection.
2. Charles Darwin
Question 3
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) What is the figure depicting ?
(b) What was the reason that the giraffe stretched their neck and forelimbs ?
(c) What is the name of the theory that is being depicted in the figure ?
(d) Who explained the theory ?
(e) What is the conclusion of this theory ?
Answer
(a) The figure depicts evolution in Giraffe due to extensive use of neck and forelimbs.
(b) The area where giraffe fed on grasses, fell short of its ground level vegetation and therefore
they had to stretch their neck and forelimbs to reach leaves of trees.
(c) Lamarck's theory of inheritance of acquired characters
(d) Lamarck
(e) According to this theory, variations are seen in organisms due to less or overuse of organs.
These variations are passed on to the offsprings. After many generation these variations become
permanent feature of the organism.
Chapter 15
Population — The Increasing

Numbers and Rising Problems
Progress Check 1
Question 1
Name the three great cultural revolutions that favoured a steep rise in population.
Answer
1. Tool making revolution

2. Agricultural revolution
3. Scientific industrial revolution
Question 2
Mention two areas of medical sciences which have indirectly contributed to high growth in
human population.
Answer
1. Discovery of Antibiotics
2. Discovery of Vaccination
Question 3
Is the present day human population growth following a J-shaped curve or S-shaped curve?
Answer
S-shaped curve
Progress Check 2
Question 1
Write any six factors which have contributed to a rapid rise of human population in recent times
in the world.
Answer
Factors which have contributed to a rapid rise of human population in recent times in the world
are:
1. Better health care

2. Fewer deaths due to better medical aids.
3. Green revolution minimised food shortages.
4. Improved nutrition.
5. Large scale immunisation.
6. Fewer infant deaths.
Question 2
Give the approximate figures for the population in India in million at (a) the beginning and (b)
the end of twentieth century.
Answer
(a) 238 millions
(b) 1027 millions
Progress Check 3
Question 1
Mention whether the following statements are True or False.
(i) Urbanisation is the enlargement of towns covering a very large area together with modern
facilities.
(ii) Rising population is leading to an increased coverage of land for raising forests.
(iii) Coal and iron are inexhaustible resources.
Answer
(i) True
(ii) False
Corrected Statement — Rising population is leading to decreased coverage of land for raising
forests.
(iii) False
Corrected Statement — Coal and iron are exhaustible resources.
Question 2
Fill up the blanks by choosing the right option.
(i) Public conveyances like buses and railways are ............... (necessities/luxuries).
(ii) Many sets of garments per member in a family is ............... (a necessity/fashion).
(iii) Petroleum is a resource of the same category as that of ............... (copper/ground water).
Answer
(i) Public conveyances like buses and railways are necessities.
(ii) Many sets of garments per member in a family is fashion.
(iii) Petroleum is a resource of the same category as that of copper.
Progress Check 4
Question 1
Give the technical terms for the following :
(i) Statistical study of human population.
(ii) Number of deaths per 1000 people per year.
(iii) Number of individuals per sq. km. at any given time.
(iv) Difference between birth rate and death rate.
Answer
(i) Demography
(ii) Death rate or Mortality
(iii) Birth rate or Natality
(iv) Growth rate of population
Question 2
List any three consequences of high population density.
Answer
Three consequences of high population density are:
1. per capita income comes down

2. natural resources like land, minerals, wood, fuel, etc decrease.
3. general health goes down.
Progress Check 5
Question 1
List any five major disadvantages of having large families.
Answer
Five major disadvantages of having large families are:
1. Economic pressure
2. Ill health of mother
3. Less attention to children
4. Poor housing
5. Malnutrition
Question 2
What are the age restrictions for marriage for boys and girls respectively in India ?
Answer
The age restrictions for marriage for boys is 21 years and for girls is 18 years.
Question 3
What are the three aspects covered under family welfare ?
Answer
The three aspects covered under family welfare are:
1. Family planning in terms of having a small family.

2. Total welfare of the small family, including the diet and nutrition of the child and
pregnant mother.
3. Subsequent care of the children, like immunisation and oral rehydration therapy, to
ensure survival of the young ones
Progress Check 6
Question 1
State whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). If false, write the correct word
for the one which is wrong.
(i) Some vitamin preparations prevent the release of the egg from the ovary.
(ii) Use of a condom for contraception is a barrier method.
(iii) IUDs prevent implantation of embryo in vagina.
(iv) Tubectomy is performed on females.
Answer
(i) False
Corrected Statement — Some hormones prevent the release of the egg from the ovary.
(ii) True
(iii) False
Corrected Statement — IUDs prevent implantation of embryo in uterus.
(iv) True
Question 2
Write the full form of MTP. In what circumstances is it recommended?
Answer
MTP stands for Medical Termination of Pregnancy.
It is recommended in case of serious genetic disease or if the couple does not want to have the
child. It is only permitted within 5 months of pregnancy.
Question 1
The statistical study of human population is :

1. Population density
2. Population growth
3. Demography
4. Population explosion
Answer
Demography
Reason — Demography is the statistical study of human population with reference to size and
density, distribution etc.
Question 2
Surgical method of sterilization in women involves cutting and tying of :
1. Ureter
2. Fallopian tube
3. Uterus
4. Urethra
Answer
Fallopian tube
Reason — Surgical method of sterilization in women involves cutting and tying of fallopian tube
which does not allow eggs to pass to uterus.
Question 3
When the number of individuals added to the population exceeds the number of individuals lost,
there is :
1. Decrease in carrying capacity

2. Exponential population growth
3. Zero population growth
4. Decrease in biotic potential
Answer
Exponential population growth
Reason — When the number of individuals added to the population exceeds the number of
individuals lost, there is exponential population growth.
Question 4
The symbol of family welfare is :
1. Red circle
2. Green triangle
3. Red square
4. Red inverted triangle
Answer
Red inverted triangle
Reason — The symbol of family welfare is a red inverted triangle as shown below:
Question 5
Death rate is the number of deaths:
1. per 1000 people per year

2. per 100 people per decade
3. per 1000 people per decade
4. per 100 people per year
Answer
per 1000 people per year
Reason — Death rate is the number of deaths per 1000 of population per year.
Question 6
What was directly responsible for the rapid rise of world population in the twentieth century ?
1. Better education and jobs

2. Religious and social customs
3. Better healthcare
4. Increased food production
Answer
Better healthcare
Reason — Better healthcare facilities lead to decreased death rate and hence increase in
population.
Question 7
Which of the following is not a non-conventional source of energy ?
1. Nuclear energy
2. Tidal energy
3. Petroleum energy
4. Wind energy
Answer
Petroleum energy
Reason — Petroleum energy is a conventional source of energy.
Question 8
Birth rate is technically termed as :
1. Population density
2. Natality
3. Carrying capacity
4. Mortality
Answer
Natality
Reason — Birth rate is technically termed as natality.
Question 9
Which of the following is an exhaustible source of energy ?
1. Fossil fuels
2. Nuclear energy
3. Solar energy
4. Wind energy
Answer
Fossil fuels
Reason — Fossil fuels are exhaustible source of energy.
Question 10
What are the age restrictions for marriage by law for boys and girls in India?
1. 18 years, 21 years
Answer
21 years, 18 years
Reason — The age restrictions for marriage by law for boys and girls in India is 21 years and 18
years respectively.
Question 1
Give the technical term for statistical study of human population of a region.
Answer
Demography
Question 2
Name two surgical techniques (one for the human male and another for the human female) that
can be used to prevent pregnancy.
Answer
1. Vasectomy (For Male)

2. Tubectomy (For Female)
Short Answer Type
Question 1
Mention whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
(a) Vasectomy is the surgical method of sterilisation in human males.
(b) Tubectomy is the placing of a diaphragm on the cervix.
(c) Cow was the first domesticated animal.
(d) Rapidly growing industries favoured population rise.
(e) Present human population growth is following arithmetic progression.
(f) Birth rate (natality) is the number of live births per hundred people of population per decade.
(g) Tubectomy is a popular surgical method of contraception in human males.
Answer
(a) True
(b) False
Corrected statement — In tubectomy, fallopian tubes are cut or ligated i.e. tied with nylon thread
to close the passage of the egg.
(c) False
Corrected statement — Dog was the first domesticated animal.
(d) True
(e) False
Corrected statement — Present human population growth is following geometrical progression.
(f) False
Corrected statement — Birth rate (natality) is the number of live births per 1000 people of
population per year.
(g) False
Corrected statement — Vasectomy is a popular surgical method of contraception in human
males.
Question 2
Give two advantages of a small family.
Answer
Two advantages of small family are:
1. With fewer children, the parents could save enough for the children's education. They can
provide the best possible education for their children.
2. With fewer family members and less to spend, a small family has better savings for the
future. It would help them in building a house, buy a car.
Question 3
List three major landmarks in human history which contributed to the sudden rise in population
of the world.
Answer
The three major landmarks in human history which contributed to the sudden rise in population
of the world were:
1. Tool making revolution.

2. Agricultural revolution.
3. Scientific industrial revolution.
Question 4
What is meant by family welfare centres? What is the symbol of family welfare in our country?
Answer
The department which plays a significant role in controlling population and is committed to
provide advice and help about family planning is known as Family Welfare Centre Department.
These places could be any hospitals, dispensaries, etc. The inverted red triangle as shown below
is the symbol of family welfare in India.
Question 5
Sterilisation in men means preventing the flow of sperms into the seminal vesicles by cutting and
ligating the vas deferens. Can there be a corresponding operation made in women? If
yes, where?
Answer
Yes, there could be a corresponding operation made in women. The name of the surgical
procedure in females is 'tubectomy'. In tubectomy, the abdomen is opened and the fallopian tubes
(oviducts) are cut or ligated i.e. tied with nylon thread to close the passage of the egg. Diagram
showing the procedure of tubectomy is shown below:
Question 6
Write the full forms of the following abbreviations:
(a) IUDs
(b) MTP
Answer
(a) IUDs — Intra-Uterine Devices
(b) MTP — Medical Termination of Pregnancy
Question 7
Explain briefly the relationship between poverty and population and how one affects the other.
Answer
Poverty and the lack of access to education leads to higher birthrates and overpopulation.
Rapid population growth is likely to reduce per capita income growth and well being, which
tends to increase poverty. Poverty is believed to be the leading cause of overpopulation. Poverty
and population have been closely linked ever since the world faced changes due to the major
revolutions. Poverty has its own effects on the population and vice versa. Poverty prevails
because of illiteracy and traditional beliefs in the economically weaker strata. Since illiteracy and
traditional beliefs prevail in the people from this stratum, they regard children as gift of God and
a sign of prosperity. They consider children to be helping hands in increasing the family income,
hence they keep producing more children forgetting that their current situation would do no good
for the children and they would add more to this already overburdened poverty strata. Hence, the
population keeps on rising and so does poverty. As the population increases the quality of life
goes down.
Question 8
Mention two reasons for the rapid increase of population in India.
Answer
Two reasons for the rapid increase of population in India are:
1. Illiteracy — Most of the rural population which forms the bulk of our society is still
illiterate, ignorant and superstitious. They also do not know the functioning of the human
reproductive system.
2. Traditional Beliefs — Among the people from lower strata of the society, children are
regarded as a gift of God and a sign of prosperity. Therefore, they make no effort to avoid
pregnancy.
Question 9
Match the terms given in column A with those in column B.
Column A Column B
(a) Forest (i) Arithmetic progression
(b) Food (ii) Geometric progression
(c) Population (iii) Deforestation
(d) Coal (iv) Afforestation
(e) Flash floods (v) Renewable source of energy
(vi) Non-renewable source of energy
Answer
Column A Column B
(a) Forest (v) Renewable source of energy
(b) Food (i) Arithmetic progression
(c) Population (ii) Geometric progression
(d) Coal (vi) Non-renewable source of energy
(e) Flash floods (iii) Deforestation
Question 10
Given below are some sets of paired terms. The first pair indicates the relationship between the
two terms. Rewrite and complete the second pair on a similar basis.
(a) Death rate : Mortality :: Birth rate : ...............
(b) Tubectomy : Oviduct :: Vasectomy : ...............
(c) Intrauterine device : Copper-T :: Oral pills: ...............
(d) Barrier method : Diaphragms :: Surgical method : ...............
(e) Cutting down of forests : Deforestation :: Planting more trees: ...............
Answer
(a) Death rate : Mortality :: Birth rate : Natality
(b) Tubectomy : Oviduct :: Vasectomy : Vas deferens
(c) Intrauterine device : Copper-T :: Oral pills: Mala-D
(d) Barrier method : Diaphragms :: Surgical method : Tubectomy
(e) Cutting down of forests : Deforestation :: Planting more trees: Afforestation
Descriptive Type
Question 1
(a) Population
(b) Population density
(c) Demography
(d) Resources
(e) Growth rate of population
Answer
(a) Population — A population is defined as a group of individuals of the same species living
and interbreeding within a given area.
(b) Population density — It is the number of individuals per square kilometre (km2) at any
given time.
(c) Demography — It is the statistical study of human population specifically with reference to
size and density, distribution and other vital statistics.
(d) Resources — Resource is any substance (natural or artificial), energy or organism which is
used by humans for their welfare.
(e) Growth rate of population — It is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.
As long as the birth rate exceeds the death rate, the population grows. If the birth rate is lower
than the death rate, the population declines.
Question 2
(a) Exhaustible and Inexhaustible resources
(b) Conventional and Non-conventional sources of energy
(c) Natality and Mortality
(d) Tubectomy and Vasectomy
(e) Deforestation and Afforestation
Answer
(a) Difference between exhaustible and inexhaustible resources —

Exhaustible resources Inexhaustible resources
Resources which cannot be renewed readily by natural means Resources which are abundantly available in
and are available in finite quantities in nature which can be be used for unlimited time and cannot be exh
easily consumed are called exhaustible resources. humans are called inexhaustible resources.
Examples: Coal, petroleum. Examples: Wind, sun
(b) Difference between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy —
Conventional sources of energy Non-conventional sources of ener
Conventional sources of energy are the natural energy Non-conventional sources of energy are the ene
resources which are present in a limited quantity and are which cannot be exhausted easily and are contin
being used for a long time. replenished by natural processes.
Examples: Coal, petroleum. Examples: Solar energy, wind energy.
(c) Difference between natality and mortality:
Natality Mortality
The total number of live births per 1000 people of population The total number of deaths per 1000 people o
per year is called birth rate or natality. year is called death rate or mortality.
(d) Difference between tubectomy and vasectomy —
Tubectomy Vasectomy
It is the process which involves cutting or ligating of It is the process in which vas deferens from each
fallopian tubes by nylon thread to close the passage of egg. and a small piece between the two ligatures is re
It is contraceptive practice in females. It is contraceptive practice in males.
(e) Difference between deforestation and afforestation —
Deforestation Afforestation
It is the destruction of trees and forests for human habitation and It is the planting of trees in a previously ba
Deforestation Afforestation
use. environment.
It has a detrimental effect on the environment. It has a beneficial effect on the environme
Question 3
What do you mean by the 3Rs in the context of sustainable development?
Answer
The 3Rs in the context of sustainable development are Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
Reduction of excessive use of natural resources.
Recycling and reuse of resources wherever possible.
More use of renewable resources such as solar energy, wind power,etc.
Question 4
Our resources cannot keep pace with the rising population. Give three examples in support of
this statement.
Answer
Three examples which show that our resources cannot keep pace with the rising population are
explained below:
1. Food — Food is among the most important need for humans. Although humans have
been discovering better improved methods of food production still the rate of food
production doesn't match the rate of population growth. Production of food rises by
arithmetic progression whereas population grows by geometric progression. This
indicates that food would be running short for the unchecked rising population.
2. Water — Availability of clean and germ-free water for drinking purposes would be more
and more scarce with increase in population; the reason would be mainly, the pollution of
rivers, ponds, lakes etc.
3. Land — Man is bringing more and more land under cultivation and also using up land
for building more residential colonies, factories and industries. Usable land would thus
become less and less available.
Question 5
How can the knowledge of the processes of reproduction help people in limiting the size of their
families? Give two concrete examples.
Answer
It is necessary that the people should be educated about the need to limit the population and
about the steps which can be taken in this direction —
1. Married couples should be educated to delay the birth of their first child, to space the
second with a sufficient interval for proper upbringing and to stop the third. They should
also be educated to adopt family planning methods by which they can prevent pregnancy
after two children. These include devices for both men and women, for example —
Condoms, intrauterine devices (IUD) and oral pills.
2. The orthodox view, to have at least one son especially in Indian society, should be
modified with education. People should be educated that their greed for a son can lead to
numerous children in the household which would worsen both their family's health and
wealth. They should focus on proper upbringing of the child, be it a son or a daughter.
Question 6
What is the idea behind the phrase "population explosion"?
Answer
Population explosion refers to the rapid and massive rise in the world population that has
occurred over the last few hundred years. It began in the middle of the nineteenth century. Two-
thirds of the present world population belongs to the developing nations where more than half
the people live below the poverty line. The effects of this population increase are evident in
increasing poverty, unemployment, air and water pollution, and shortage of food, health
resources, and educational resources. Some of the reasons for this population explosion are
poverty, lack of family planning knowledge, certain superstitions, better medical facilities, and
immigration from the neighbouring countries. For developing countries like India, population
explosion is a curse and is damaging the development of the country and its society.
Question 1
Given below are hypothetical figures in regard to population (in crores) of two countries A and B
during the last three decades.
Country 1971 1981
A 6.4 9.6 10.6

Country 1971 1981
B 15.7 15.7 15.3
Fill in the blanks:
(a) Rate of growth of population of country ............... has declined between years ............... and
............... .
(b) The country ............... shows negative population growth between years ............... and
............... .
(c) The country ............... shows zero population growth between years ............... and ............... .
Answer
(a) Rate of growth of population of country B has declined between years 1981 and 1991
(b) The country B shows negative population growth between years 1981 and 1991
(c) The country B shows zero population growth between years 1971 and 1981.
Question 2
Observe the diagrams (A) and (B) given below and answer the following questions.
(a) Label the parts 1 to 5.
(b) What does figure A depict?
(c) What does figure B depict?
(d) Comment on P and Q.
(e) Mention one function each of part 2 and 4.

Answer
(a) The parts 1 to 5 are labelled below:
• 1 → Sperm duct / Vas deferens

• 2 → Testis / Seminiferous tubule
• 3 → Oviduct / Fallopian tube
• 4 → Uterus
• 5 → Ovary
(b) Figure A depicts Vasectomy
(c) Figure B depicts Tubectomy
(d) P is the cut part of vas deferens while Q is the cut part of the oviduct. A small piece of
oviduct in females and vas deferens in males is cut and then the remaining portions are ligated as
a part of the contraceptive process of tubectomy and vasectomy respectively.
(e) One function each of part 2 and 4 is mentioned below:
• Part 2 (Testes) — They produce the sperm cells or sperms by the process of
spermatogenesis.
• Part 4 (Uterus) — It's function is to nourish and house a fertilized egg until the fetus, or
offspring, is ready to be delivered.

Biology

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Biology

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Biology

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Cell — The Structural and Functional

Very Short Answer Type

(a) It synthesizes the respiratory enzymes.

(b) It is made up of lipoprotein.

(c) A non-living rigid layer surrounding the plasma membrane.

(d) Supportive framework for the cell.

(e) It consists of cisternae, vesicles and vacuoles.

(f) It destroys foreign substances.

(g) It gives turgidity to the plant cells.

(h) It is made up of DNA threads.

(i) It contains chromatin fibres.

(j) It initiates and regulates cell division.

(b) Cell membrane/plasma membrane

(c) Cell wall

(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

(e) Golgi apparatus

(h) Chromatin fibres

Give two examples of each:

(a) Unicellular animals

(b) Unicellular plants

(c) Cell organelles

(d) Cell inclusions

(e) Stains which make the nucleus distinct.

(a) Unicellular animals — Amoeba, Paramecium

(b) Unicellular plants — Chlamydomonas, Diatoms

(c) Cell organelles — Mitochondria, Nucleus

(d) Cell inclusions — Pigments, Granules

(e) Stains which make the nucleus distinct — Iodine, Eosin.

Name the following:

(a) A plastid without pigment.

(b) A pigment which is not found in plastids.

(c) The orange-red pigment found in the chromoplast.

(d) Scattered Golgi complex, found in plant cells.

(e) Amoeboid blood cells of human body.

(f) The smallest cell of human body.

(h) The part of cytoplasm which is devoid of the organelles.

(j) The tubules of Golgi complex.

(e) White blood cells (WBCs)

(f) Red blood cells (RBCs)

(g) Guard cells

Define the following terms:

Distinguish between the following pairs:

(a) Plant cell and animal cell

(b) Cell wall and cell membrane

(c) Centrosome and chromosome

(d) Chloroplast and chromoplast

Features Plant cell Animal cell

Size It is usually larger in size. It is usually smaller in size.

(a) Plant Cell and Animal Cell

Cell Wall Cell Membrane

It is non-living and rigid layer. It is thin, flexible and living membrane.

It is freely permeable. It is semi-permeable.

It is made up of cellulose. It is made up of lipoproteins.

(c) Centrosome and Chromosome

(d) Chloroplast and Chromoplast

It is green in colour. It is variously coloured.

Structure of Chromosomes, Cell

Fill in the blanks:

1. Chromatin fibre is made up of DNA and ............... .

1. Chromatin fibre is made up of DNA and Histones .