P1-21

DATE
29 -03 -2024

JEE MAIN FULL SYLLABUS TEST(FST-9)

SET
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2024
0
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 Question paper has three (03) parts: Physics , Chemistry and Mathematics,

 Each part has a total 30 questions divided into Two (02) sections (Section-1 , Section-2).

 Total number of questions in Question paper are 90 and Maximum marks are Three Hundred Only (300).

Type of Questions and Marking Schemes

SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks : 80)

 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct

 Marking scheme :

 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened

 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).

 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

SECTION-2 (Maximum Marks : 20)

 This section contains TEN (10) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with two digit integer

and decimal upto two digit.

 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal placed.

There are 10 questions & you have attempt any FIVE (5) questions. If a student attempts more than 5 questions,

then only first 5 questions which he has attempted will be checked.

 Marking scheme :

 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.

 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the values are entered (i.e. the question is unanswered).

 Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ………………………………………………… ROLL NO. :………………..………………………..

I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number
and shall abide by them of the candidate.

------------------------- -------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
 PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Assertion (A) : Impulse J is given to sphere, initially
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 kept at rest on a smooth horizontal plane as shown
in figure. If line of action of impulse passes
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
through the point of contact P, sphere will not have
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, any velocity.
and
marks will be awarded as follows:
Reason (R) : If net angular impulse about any point
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. in an inertial frame is zero, than angular momentum
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. of the body about that point remains constant.

Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

1. A particle is dropped from a height of 80 m. How

long does it take to cover last 60 m ?
(A) 4s (A) (A) is True, (R) is True ; (R) is a correct
explanation for (A).
(B) 2s
(B) (A) is True, (R) is True ; (R) is not a correct
(C) 2√3s explanation for (R).
(D) 4 − 2√3s (C) (A) is True, (R) is False.
2. Vernier calipers has 20 divisions on its vernier (D) (A) is False, (R) is True.
scale which coincide with 19 divisions on the main 4. A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a
maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If the
scale. Least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The
frictional force on the elevator is 4000 N, the speed of
main scale division is :-
the elevator at full load is closest to :- (g = 10 ms – 2)
(A) 0.5 mm (A) 1.5 ms – 1
(B) 1 mm (B) 2.0 ms – 1
(C) 2 mm (C) 1.9 ms – 1
(D) 0.25 mm (D) 1.7 ms – 1
. .
Space for Rough Work
5. Three point particles of masses 1.0 kg, 1.5 kg and 7. A source of frequency 10 kHz when vibrated over
the mouth of a closed organ pipe is in unison at
2.5 kg are placed at three corners of a right angle
300 K. The beats produced when temperature rises
triangle of sides 4.0 cm, 3.0 cm and 5.0 cm as
by 1 K is :-
shown in the figure. The center of mass of the (A) 30 Hz
system is at a point :- (B) 13.33 Hz
(C) 16.67 Hz
(D) 40 Hz
8. In the set-up shown, there is a large thin
non-conducting vertical sheet with charge density σ .
(A) 0.9 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass. In the nearby region a charge q of mass m is
(B) 1.5 cm right and 1.2 cm above 1 kg mass. projected at an angle θ with initial velocity u. When
(C) 0.6 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass. this charge reaches its maximum height, find its
(D) 2.0 cm right and 0.9 cm above 1 kg mass. velocity :-
6. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length ℓ ,
ℓ
about an axis passing through a point on rod,
4
away from the centre of the rod, and perpendicular

to rod is :-
1
σ q tan θ
(A) ℓ
(A) u cos θ ( 1+ )

8 2m ε 0 g
1 σ q tan θ
(B) ℓ (B) u cos θ ( 1+ )
4 m ε 0g

(C) 7 σ q tan θ
√ ℓ (C) u sin θ ( 1+ )
48 2m ε 0 g
(D) 3 σ q tan θ
√ ℓ (D) u sin θ ( 1+ )
8 m ε 0g
. .
Space for Rough Work
9. In a Young's double slit experiment with light of 11. A block of mass m is hung from a spring of
wavelength λ , fringe pattern on the screen has constant K. The block is pulled down from its
fringe width β = 1000 λ . When two thin transparent equilibrium position by a distance mg/K and is
glass (refractive index µ) plates of thickness t1 and released from rest. Find the time that it takes for
spring to become relaxed.
t2 (t1 ≥ t2) are placed in front of upper and lower
slits respectively the fringe pattern shifts upwards (A) π m (B) 2 π m
√ √

k k
by a distance Δ y. Match the list – I with list – II. π√m 2π m
(C) (D) √
List-I List-II 2 k 3 k
t = 2 µm, t2 = 1 µm, 12. If the magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is
(A) 1 (P) Δ y = 0 given by B→ = 3 × 10−8 sin 1.6 × 103 x + 48 × 1010 t ^j T ,
µ = 1.5 ( )

then what will be expression for electric field ?

t1 = 4 µm, t2 = 4 µm,
(B) (Q) Δ y = 1.33 mm (A) → = 3 × 10 – 8sin(1.6 × 103x + 48 × 1010 t) ^j V /m
E
µ = 4/3
(B) → = 3 × 10 – 8sin(1.6 × 103x + 48 × 1010 t) ^i V /m
E
t = 4 µm, t2 = 2 µm,
(C) 1 (R) Δ y = 0.5mm
µ = 5/3 (C) → = 9 sin(1.6 × 103x + 48 × 1010 t) k^ V /m
E
t1 = 6 µm, t2 = 2 µm, (D) → = 60 sin(1.6 × 103x + 48 × 1010 t) k^ V /m
(D) (S) Δ y = 1mm E
µ = 5/4
13. Two massless charged particles of charge q and – q
(A) (A)-(S) ; (B)-(P) ; (C)-(Q) ; (D)-(R) are fixed on a horizontal diameter of a hollow
(B) (A)-(R) ; (B)-(P) ; (C)-(S) ; (D)-(Q) spherical shell of mass m and radius R, as shown.
The shell is pivoted so as to be free to rotate about
(C) (A)-(R) ; (B)-(P) ; (C)-(Q) ; (D)-(S)
Z-axis. There is a uniform electric field of
(D) (A)-(S) ; (B)-(Q) ; (C)-(R) ; (D)-(P) magnitude E along X-axis. Find the time period of
10. 5g ice at 0°C and 1 gm steam at 100 °C are mixed small oscillations of the shell.
together in a calorimeter of negligible heat
capacity. At equilibrium we have :- (Lf = 80 cal/g,
LV = 540 cal/g)
(A) 6 g water at 0 °C
(B) 6 g water at 100 °C mR 2mR
(A) 2 π √ (B) 2 π √

(C) 6 g water at 40 °C 5qE 5qE

(D) 5.8 g water and 0.2 g steam at 0 °C (C) 2 π √

mR (D) 2 π √
mR
2qE 3qE
. .
Space for Rough Work
14. A circular rigid conducting loop of radius R is 16. The current I1 (in A) flowing through 1 Ω resistor
placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 2sin π t Tesla in the following circuit is :-
as shown. Which of the following is INCORRECT ?
(Here, into the plane is +ve direction).

1 (A) 0.2
(A) Force on the loop is zero at t = sec
2 (B) 0.4
3
(B) Force on the loop is zero at t = sec (C) 0.5
2
(C) Force on the every element of the loop is (D) 0.25
5
radially inward at t = sec 17. A black body radiates heat at a rate H1 while the
4
(D) Force on the every element of the loop is wavelength corresponding to maximum radiation is
7 600 nm. If its rate of heat radiation at the
radially inward at t = sec
4
wavelength corresponding to maximum radiation
15. Statement-1 : A photodiodes operates in reverse
400 nm is H2, then H2/H1 is nearly :-
bias.
(A) 0.2
Statement-2 : The fractional change due to the
photo-effects on the minority carrier dominated (B) 0.67
reverse bias current is more easily measurable than (C) 1.5
the fractional change in the forward bias current. (D) 5
(A) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, 18. A hypothetical ideal gas of degree of freedom 2 at
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of 90 kPa, 300 K is compressed adiabatically to a new
Statement-1.
temperature 400 K. Find the new pressure (in kPa).
(B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true,
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of (A) 90 kPa
Statement-1. (B) 120 kPa
(C) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false. (C) 150 kPa
(D) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true. (D) 160 kPa
. .
Space for Rough Work
19. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes given cyclic SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
process. Find the efficiency of the cycle.
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
(A) 12.8 % Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
(B) 17.4 % the following marking scheme:
(C) 19.2 % Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
(D) 24 % Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
20. In the given figure, a fluid of relative density 2 is
1. A telescope has an objective of focal length 100 cm
contained upto a height 1m in a container of and an eyepiece of focal length 2.5 cm. If you look
into the objective (that is, into the wrong end) of
non-uniform area, as shown in figure. Find the this telescope, you will see distant objects reduced
force (in N) exerted by the fluid on the base of in size. By what factor will the angular size of
objects be reduced ?
container. Neglect atmospheric pressure.
2. The figure shows a long wire carrying a current
I = 2A and a square frame of side a located in the
same plane. The frame moves to the right with a
constant velocity v = 5 m/s. The electro motive
force induced (in µV) in the frame when x = a is :-

(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
. .
Space for Rough Work
3. A long straight metal rod has a very long hole of 6. Speed of a transverse wave on a straight wire of
radius 'a' drilled parallel to the rod. The rod carries mass 6.0 g, length 60 cm and area of cross-section
1
a current density J = A/m2. Find the magnetic 1.5 mm2 is 90 ms – 1. If the young's modulus of
π
field (in 10 – 7 T) on axis of hole. Given C is the wire is 16 × 1011 Nm – 2, the extension of wire
center of the hole and OC = c = 1m. (in µm) is :- (Round off to nearest integer).
7. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 4kg are separated
by a distance of 3m. The gravitational potential at a
point on the line joining them where gravitational
field is zero is ( – x)10 – 11 J/kg. Find x to the nearest
integer.
4. In a semiconductor ; mobility of electron, i.e. drift
CP 5
velocity per unit applied electric field is 1.6 (SI unit). 8. Two moles of an ideal gas with = are
Cv 3
Density of free electron is 1017/m3 (neglect holes mixed with 4 moles of another ideal gas with
concentration). If resistivity of semiconductor in SI
CP 4 CP
units is x, then find x. (Round off to nearest integer) = if the value of of the mixture is x,
Cv 3 Cv

5. A capacitor of capacity 3µF is first charged by then 5x is :-

connecting it across a 10 V battery by closing key K1, 270
9. Suppose that intensity of a laser is ( ) W/m2.
π
it is then allowed to get discharged through 2 Ω and The rms electric field (in V/m) associated with this
4 Ω resistors by closing the key K2 and opening K1. source is closest to the integer :-
The total energy dissipated (in µJ) in 4 Ω resistor is
10. The time period of revolution of electron in its ground
equal to :-
state orbit in a hydrogen atom is 1.6 × 10 – 16 s. The
frequency of revolution of the electron in its first
excited state (in 1014 Hz) is :- (Round off to nearest
integer)

. .
Space for Rough Work
 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. Assertion : Actinoid contraction is greater from

This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions Reason : The 5f electrons themselves provide poor
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, shielding from element to element in the series.
marks will be awarded as follows: (A) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
1. Select the CORRECT species in which pure orbital(s)
is/are also used in bonding by its central atom. (D) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(A) BrF5 (B) Al2Cl6
5. The heat required to sustain animals that hibernate
(C) XeF4 (D) PH3
comes from the biochemical oxidation of fatty acids,
2. [Co(NH3)2(en)2]+3 is cationic part of an addition salt, one of which is arachidonic acid whose combustion
then which of the following statement is INCORRECT (unbalanced) is shown below :
regarding given cationic part of salt.
(A) Primary valency and Secondary valency of
central metal ion is 3 & 6 respectively. + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O( ℓ )
Standard molar enthalpy of formation of arachidonic
(B) Hybridisation with respect to central metal ion
will be d2sp3. acid is – 636 kJ mol – 1.
Given : C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g),
(C) Number of possible Geometrical and Optical
Δ H° = – 393.5 kJ (mol CO2) – 1
isomers are 3 , 2 respectively.
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O( ℓ ),
(D) 'en' is bidentate, chelating and strong field ligand. Δ H° = – 571.6 (mol O2) – 1
3. When a hydrate of Na2CO3 is heated until all the Calculate the mass of arachidonic acid needed to warm
water is removed, it loses 54.3 percent of its mass. a 500 kg bear from 5°C to 25°C. Assume that the
The formula of the hydrate is : average heat capacity of bear flesh is 4.18 J g – 1 K – 1.
(A) Na2CO3.10H2O (A) 108 g
(B) Na2CO3.7H2O (B) 300 g
(C) Na2CO3.5H2O (C) 1076 g
(D) Na2CO3.3H2O (D) 540 g
. .
Space for Rough Work
6. One mole of ideal gas is subjected to a cyclic 8. Select CORRECT statement regarding given
process through the following transformations : properties of given elements.
(A) Fluorine has highest value of electron affinity
where as 'Helium' has highest value of
ionization energy in periodic table among all
elements.

Step I : Isochoric cooling to one-third of its initial (B) Magnitude of Δ HI.E2 is lower than Δ HI.E1 for
temperature. N(g) because of its half filled (p3) electronic
Step II : Adiabatic compression to its initial configuration.
pressure. (C) Addition of first electron in ground state of an
Step III : Isobaric expansion back to the initial isolated gaseous atom is always exothermic
state. process for each element of periodic table.
If the initial temperature and pressure are 600 K (D) Successive ionisation enthalpy is always
and 3.00 atm and if the ideal gas is monoatomic greater than previous ionisation enthalpy for
(CV = 3/2R), what is the work for the second step an isolated gaseous atom.
(going from state 3 to state 1) ? 9. When the surface of a piece of potassium is irradiated
(3)0.6 = 1.93, (3)0.4 = 1.55
with light of wavelength, λ 1 = 5000 Å, the value of
(A) – 23.8 L.atm the stopping potential (voltage) necessary to stop the
(B) – 9.11 L.atm emitted electrons is, V1 = 0.200 V. When the
(C) 92.7 L.atm wavelength is changed to, λ 2 = 4000 Å, the required
(D) 9.11 L.atm stopping potential is, V2 = 0.600 V. In this problem,
7. At what temperature will the following process not YOU DO NOT KNOW the value of Planck's constant
be spontaneous at 1 bar ? (in Joule-sec.). Using this information calculate the
A(g) → A(l) Δ H° = – 20 kJ Δ S° = – 50 J/K Planck's constant :
(A) > 200 K (A) 4.27 × 10 – 34
(B) > 300 K (B) 3.60 × 10 – 34
(C) > 350 K (C) 2.14 × 10 – 34
(D) > 400 K (D) 6.63 × 10 – 34
. .
Space for Rough Work
10. Which of the following expressions correctly 12. Select the CORRECT option regarding
describes the relationship between the rates at elements/compounds of d-block.

which NO2 and Cl2 are consumed in the reaction (A) Transition metals form a large number of
below ? complex compounds due to comparatively

2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NO2Cl(g) smaller size of metal ions, their higher ionic
charge and presence of vacant d-orbitals
− Δ [NO2 ] 1 Δ [Cl2 ]
(A) = − [ ]
Δt 2 Δt (B) V2O5 is used as a catalyst in Haber process
− Δ [NO2 ] Δ [Cl2 ]
(B) = 2[ ] (C) Interstitial compounds formed by d-block
Δt Δt
− Δ [NO2 ] 1 Δ [Cl2 ]
elements are chemically active
(C) = [ ]
Δt 2 Δt (D) Cu and Sn are available in brass alloy
− Δ [NO2 ] Δ [Cl2 ]
(D) = − 2[ ]
13. A particular form of tribromobenzene forms three
Δt Δt
11. Statement-1 : Elevation in boiling point will be possible mononitro Bromo-benzenes the structure
high if the molal elevation constant of the liquid is of compound is :

high.
Statement-2 : Elevation in boiling point is a (A)
colligative property.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is correct explanation for (B)
statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1. (C)
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. (D) Both (B) and (C)
. .
Space for Rough Work
 H+
16. Consider the following organometallic species :
14. −−→ catechol + A
H2 O

which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

dil.NaOH / Δ H2 Anhy.AlCl3
−−−−−−−−→ B −−−−→ C −−−−−−−→ D (A) All are isoelectronic carbonyl compounds.
P d−C DOU =8
(B) In compound-III, carbon-oxygen bond length
Product "D" is is maximum among the carbon-oxygen bond
length of compounds I, II and III.
(C) Effective atomic number all three complexes is 36.
(A)
(D) In compound-I , carbon-oxygen bond order is
minimum among the carbon-oxygen bond order
of compounds I, II and III.
(B) 17. Identify incorrect statement from the following :
(A) All monosaccharides are reducing sugar
(B) Glucose don't give schiff's test.
(C)
(C) In sucrose α , β -glycosidic linkage is present.
(D) Amylopectin is insoluble in water and having
long unbranched chain polymer.
(D) 18. Compound D gives lucas reagent test Identify
compound E.
SOCl2
H2 /P d/BaSO4 −−−−→ B
15. −−−−−−−−−→ B
cold dil.alk.KMnO4
−−−−−−−−−−−−→ C
Product "C" is
(A) An optically inactive racemic mixture
(B) An optically inactive meso compound (A) (B)

(C) An optically inactive compound

(C) (D)
(D) An optically active diastereomeric mixture
. .
Space for Rough Work
 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
A (major product) This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
19.
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
(A) questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
(B) of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
(C) the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
(D) Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
1. Number of species in which bond order is greater
20. Match the reaction List-I with name of reaction in than one.
List-II : C2 , B2 , O2 , He2 , , O2−
2 , NO , N2

List-I List-II 2. During qualitative analysis of NO−2 ion by Griess

SOCl2 Swarts I ℓ osvay test , a red coloured compound (X) is formed.
(P) CH3 − CH2 − OH −−−−→ (1)
reaction Find the number of aromatic rings in compound (X).
AgF
(Q) CH3 − CH2 − Br −−−→ (2) Lucas test 3. What weight of urea (in milligrams) should be
DMF
taken for Kjeldahl analysis, so that volume (in ml)
CH3 − CH2 − Br Darzen
(R) CH3 −CH2 ONa (3) of 0.50 N H2SO4 used will be equal to percentage
−−−−−−−−−→ process of nitrogen in the urea ?
P h − CH2 − OH Williamson 4. Consider the following reversible reaction :
(S) HCl (4) ether A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 2C(g)
−−−−−−−−→
anhyd.ZnCl2 synthesis If 1.0 mole of A(g) is mixed with 3.0 moles of
(A) P →1 ; Q → 2 ; R → 3 ; S → 4 B(g), then 'x' moles of C(g) are produced at
equilibrium. If 2.0 mol of A(g) is added further at
(B) P →3 ; Q → 1 ; R → 4 ; S → 2
equilibrium, 'x' mol of C(g) is further produced at
(C) P →3 ; Q → 4 ; R → 1 ; S → 2 new equilibrium. What is the value of equilibrium
(D) P →2 ; Q → 1 ; R → 4 ; S → 3 constant of the given reaction ?
. .
Space for Rough Work
5. What volume (in mL) of a 1.0 M HCl solution should 8. The total number of amines which can't be
be added to in aqueous solution of 1.0 L 0.001 M synthesized by Gabriel phthalimide is :
HCl in order to decrease its pH by one unit ?
(I) CH3 – NH – CH3 (II)
6. Find the value of "M" if "M" is the number of
completely filled orbitals having the value of
principal quantum number = 4 in ground state of
Pd (Z = 46) (III)
7. How many of the following compounds don't give
racemic mixture with CH3MgBr :
(IV) (V)
(A) (B)

electrolysis
(C) (D) 9. −−−−−−−→ 2CO2 + 2KOH + H2
H2 O + Product mixture

How many isomeric compounds would be there in

(E) (F) the above product mixture.
10. Number of p-block elements, having oxide of
amphoteric nature among below given elements-
Ga , Be , B , Sn , C , P , Sb , Cl , Pb , Al , V

. .
Space for Rough Work
 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Assertion : If |z| < √ 2– 1, then |z2 + 2z cos α | < 1
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 Reason : |z1 + z2| ≤ |z1| + |z2| also |cos α | ≤ 1.
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, (A) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a
marks will be awarded as follows: correct explanation for Assertion
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (B) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. NOT a correct explanation for Assertion
1. If →a and →b are two vectors such that |→a | = 1, →b∣ = 4,
∣
∣ ∣
(C) Assertion is True, Reason is False
→a ⋅ →b = 2, If →c = (2→a × →b) − 3→b then angle between →b (D) Assertion is False, Reason is True
and →c is 4. The mean and variance of n observations
(A) π x1, x2, x3, ......, xn are 5 and 0 respectively.
6
(B) π
n

3 If ∑ x2i = 400, then the value of n is equal to

i=1
(C) 2π
3 (A) 80
(D) 5π (B) 25
6
(C) 20
2. If maximum value of
(D) 16
1 1
3 (sin α − sin β ) + 4 (sin α + sin β ) + 5 cos β
√ 2 √ 2 5. The general solution of the equation
−π π
where ⩽α⩽ and β ∈ R, is equal to n
1
2 2 ∑ cos(r2 x) sin(r x) = is
2
a + √b then value of a + [b] is r=1
π
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function) (A) 2m π + ,m∈I
6
(4m + 1) π
(A) 0 (B) ⋅ ,m∈I
n(n + 1) 2
(B) 25 (4m − 1)
(C) ⋅ π,m ∈ I
(C) 32 n(n + 1) 2

(D) 10 (D) None of these

. .
Space for Rough Work
 1−x x2 x3 9.
6. If the function f(x) = −4e 2 +1+x+ + List-I List-II
2 3
7
and g(x) = f – 1(x), then the value of g ′ (− ) The maximum value of the
6
5 7
equals : (A) expression cos2 x − cos x + for (I)
4 2
1 1
π 3π
(A) (B) −
x∈ [ , ] is
2 2
5 5
6 6 If x ∈ [−1, 0] then the range of
(C) (D) −
7 7
13
∣ x2 + 4x + 5 2x2 + 2x + 1 3x2 + 4x + 2 ∣ (B) f(x) = – 2x2 + 2x + 20 is [a, b] then (II)
∣ ∣ 4
7. 7
If f(x) = ∣∣ 1 2 3 ∣
, the value of ( 1− (a − b)) is
∣
∣
∣
8
∣ x+2 2x + 1 3x + 2 ∣

The extremities of the diagonal of a

then ∫ x2 f(x) dx is equal to (where C is constant of
integration) rectangle are (0,0) and (4,4). If the

(A) x3 + C locus of the extremities of the other

9
(C) 2 2
(III)
(B) 2x + C 3 diagonal is x + y – ℓ x – my = 0 2

(C) x5 + C then the value of

(D) 4x6 + C 3 5
( ( ℓ + m) − ) is
16 4
8. Let H be the orthocenter of Δ ABC where A = (0, 0),
Let p, q, r ∈ R and satisfying
B = (8, 0) and C = (4, 4 3). If G1, G2, G3, G4, ...... are
√

(p + r)2 + 4q 2 − 4pq − 4qr = 0

centroids of Δ AHB, Δ AG1B, Δ AG2B, Δ AG3B, .....
1
n (D) then the variable line px + qy + r = 0 (IV)
lim ∑ Ar( Δ AGi B) equals
respectively then n→ 4
∞
i=1 passes through a fixed point (x0, y0)
[Note : Ar( Δ AGiB) denotes area of Δ AGiB] 3
then the value of ( x0 − y0 ) is
2
(A) 8√3 sq. units

(B) 16√3 sq. units

(A) (A) – III, (B) – II, (C) – I, (D) – IV
8 (B) (A) – III, (B) – II, (C) – IV, (D) – I
(C) sq. units
√ 3 (C) (A) – II, (B) – III, (C) – I, (D) – IV
16
(D) sq. units (D) (A) – II, (B) – III, (C) – IV, (D) – I
√ 3
. .
Space for Rough Work
10. If a > 2, roots of the equation (2 – a) x2 + 3ax – 1 = 0 14. Circles are drawn on the chords of rectangular
are
hyperbola xy = 4 parallel to line y = x as diameters.
(A) One positive and one negative
All such circles pass through two fixed points
(B) Both negative
whose coordinates are
(C) Both positive
(D) Both imaginary (A) (2, 2) & ( – 2, – 2)
11. Consider a function f : [ – 1, 3] → B where (B) ( 2√2, 2√2) & (−2√2, −2√2)
f(x) = [x]2 – [x2] ([.] denotes the greater integer (C) ( 2√2, −2√2) & (−2√2, 2√2)
function). If f(x) is onto, then number of elements
(D) ( – 2, 2) & (2, – 2)
in set B is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5 15. Let f(x) = |x – 7| + |x – 10| + |x – 12|
12. Let f(x) be a non constant thrice differentiable Statement 1 : f(x) has a minimum at x = 12
function defined on ( – ∞ , ∞ ) such that f(x) = f(6 – x) Statement 2 : f is not differentiable at x = 12
and f ′ (0) = 0 = f ′ (2) = f ′ (5). If n is the minimum
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True.
number of roots of (f ′ ′ (x))2 + f ′ (x)f ′ ′ ′ (x) = 0 in
the interval [0, 6] then value of n is (B) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False.
(A) 6 (C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(B) 7 (D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(C) 12 16. Complete set of values of x ∈ [0, π ] satisfying the
(D) 13 inequality.
13. The value of definite integral 1 + log2(sinx) + log2(sin3x) ≥ 0 is
1
207 7 2π 3π
∫ C7 x200 . (1 − x) dx is equal to (A) ( , ]
3 4
0

(A) 1 (B) π , π ∪
[ ] (
2π 3π
, ]
6 4 3 4
208
2π 3π
(B) 1 (C) π , π ∪
[ ) ( , ]
207 4 3 3 4
(C) 207 (D) π , π ∪
[ ] [
3π 5π
, ]
6 4 4 6
(D) 208
. .
Space for Rough Work
17. The tangent and normal to the parabola y2 = 8x 20. Suppose m and n are positive real numbers
drawn at (2,4) intersect the line ℓ x + y = 3 at the m−n
satisfying m2 + n2 = 5mn. If can be written
m+n
points A and B respectively. If AB subtend a right a
as √ where a and b are co-prime positive integers
angle at the vertex of the parabola then absolute b
value of the sum of all possible values of ℓ is and m > n, then which of the following is Incorrect ?

(A) 2 (A) a = 3
(B) – 2 (B) b – a, is even number
(C) 1 (C) a + b > 9
(D) – 1 (D) b – a < 4
⎧ 3 sin x + a2 − 10a + 30, x∉Q SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
18. Let f(x) = ⎨
⎩
. This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
4 cos x, x∈Q
Which one of the following statement is correct? attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
(A) f(x) is continuous for all x when a = 5 questions will be evaluated.
(B) f(x) is discontinuous for all x when a = 5 The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
3 For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
(C) f(x) is continuous for all x = 2n π – tan – 1 ( ),
4 of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
n ∈ I when a = 5 the nearest Integer).
4
(D) f(x) is continuous for all x = 2n π – tan – 1 ( ),
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
3
the following marking scheme:
n ∈ I when a = 5
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
x
t2 dt Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
19. If x→0
lim ∫ = 1, then the value of
(x − sin x)√a + t Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
0

a is
1. If x = cos 2θ – 2cos2 2θ + 3 cos3 2θ – 4cos4 2θ + ... ∞
(A) 4
and y = cos 2θ + 2cos2 2θ + 3cos3 2θ + 4cos4 2θ + ... ∞
(B) 2 π
where θ ∈ (0, ), then least integral value of
(C) 1 4
1 1
( + ) is
(D) 8 x y
. .
Space for Rough Work
2. Let N be the number of three digit natural numbers 7. Let Z be the set of integers. If,
having digits in non-decreasing order from left to 2
A = {x ∈ Z : 2(x+2)(x −5x+6)
= 1} and
N
right then the value of [ ] is (where [.] denotes B = {x ∈ Z : −3 < 2x − 1 < 9}, then, the number of
50
greatest integer function) subsets of the set A × B is 2a, then a is equal to
3. Let P be the 7th term from the beginning and Q be
the 7th term from the end in the expansion of 8. Number of pairs (x, y) satisfying |y| = cos x and
y = sin – 1 (sin x), when |x| ≤ 2 π is :
n
1
3
(√3 +
3
) where n ∈ N. If 12P = Q, then the
√4

value of 'n' is 9. Let CD bisects ∠ ACB and intersect AB at 'D' in

4. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of Δ ABC. If the perimeter of Δ ABC is 6015
playing cards. If the odds against that one card is a AC × BC
and AB = 2005 then value of is equal
heart and the other is an ace, are m : 1, then 'm' is AD × BD
to
5. If CF is perpendicular from the centre C of the
x2 y2 10. If the radius of the circumcircle of the triangle
ellipse + = 1 on the tangent at any point P,
49 25 TPQ, where PQ is chord of contact corresponding
and G is the point where the normal at P meets the
minor axis, then (CF . PG)2 is equal to to point T with respect to circle
6. The centres of two circles C1 and C2 each of unit x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y – 11 = 0, is 6 unit, and minimum
radius are at a distance of 6 units from each other. distance of T from the director circle of the given
Let P be the mid point of the line segment joining circle is d, then value of [d] is equal to (Where [.]
the centres of C1 and C2 and C be a circle touching represent greatest integer function)
C1 and C2 externally. If a common tangent to
C1 and C passing through P is also a common
tangent to C2 and C1, then the radius of the circle C
is

. .
Space for Rough Work