PRAYAS JEE

All Phase
JEE MAIN-2 SCORE BOOSTER TEST-1
[ADVANCED PATTERN, PAPER-1]
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 18/02/2024 M.MARKS: 180

Topic Covered
Physics : Motion in straight line, Motion in plane, NLM, WPE, Centre of Mass, System of particles,
Rotational Motion.
Chemistry : IOC: Chemical Bonding, Periodic Table
OC: IUPAC, Isomerism, GOC, Hydrocarbon
PC: Mole Concept, Redox reaction, Solution, Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry, Equilibrium,
Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Structure of Atom.
Maths : Quadratic Equaiton, Sequence and series, Trigonometry ratio and Identity, Determinant, Matrices,
Relation, Function & ITF.

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
THREE PART:
Part-I – Physics
Part-II – Chemistry
Part-III – Mathematics
1. In each part of the paper, Section-I contains 8 questions (NUMERICAL VALUES), Section-II contains 6
questions (ONE OR MORE THAN ONE), Section-III contains 4 questions (MATCHING LIST SET). Please
ensure that the Questions paper you have received contains ALL THE QUESTIONS in each section.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for marking responses on Answer Sheet (OMR sheet).
3. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and Electronic Gadgets
in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
 PART-I : PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer and fill / mark the correct option in the OMR. If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. A stone is dropped from the top of building and at the same time a second stone is thrown vertically upward
from the bottom of the building with a speed of 20 ms–1. They pass each other 3 seconds later. Find the height
(in meter) of the building.

2. ABCD is a Rhombus. Velocity of A is 6 m/s as shown in figure. Find the velocity of point B in m/s.

3. An old record player of 10 cm radius turns at 10 rad/s while mounted on a 30° incline as shown in the figure.
A particle of mass m can be placed anywhere on the rotating record. If the least possible coefficient of friction
that must exist for no slipping to occur is , find 2 3 .

30°

4. Potential energy (sinusoidal curve) is shown graphically for a particle. The potential energy does not depend
on y and z. For range 0 < x < 2 maximum value of conservative force (in magnitude) is () Find the value of
. Here this force is corresponding to above potential energy and all units are in S.I.

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5. Two particles P1 and P2 of equal mass situated at (0, 0) and (10, 0) respectively at t = 0 and moving with
constant velocities collide head on at point (4, 0) after time t0. If the coefficient of restitution is 1 then what is
the x-coordinate of centre of mass of the two particles at t = 2t0.

6. A uniform disc of radius 4 m is moving in x-y plane with its centre on x-axis having constant positive velocity
5 m/s along x-axis and constant angular velocity 10 rad/sec. Taking the centre of disc as origin, find out the
magnitude of velocity (in m/s) of point A (–3, 0) with respect to point B (1, 3), both lying on the disc.

7. Six rods each of mass 1.5 kg and length 2m are joined to form a tetrahedral structure. Find the moment of
inertia of whole structure about an axis passing through one of the vertex and centre of the structure in S.I
units.

8. A person is holding a uniform triangular wedge of mass 0.5 kg to avoid its motion under gravity as shown in
figure. The static friction coefficient between person’s both fingers and the wedge is S = 0.5. The minimum
13x
normal force that person must apply with each finger in order to hold up the wedge is N. Find x.
2
(Consider no rotation)

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
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9. A train is moving on a straight railway track with a uniform velocity. A car is moving on the road, parallel to
the railway track with a uniform speed. After some time, the car takes 90º turn and now it is moving
perpendicular to the railway track with the same speed. The initial speed of car as seen from the train driver
was 7 m/sec. and after some time, it becomes 13 m/sec., the actual speed of the car can be:
(A) 5 m/sec. (B) 10 m/sec. (C) 12 m/sec. (D) 20 m/sec.

10. A small object moves counter clockwise along the circular path whose centre is at origin as shown in figure.
As it moves along the path, its acceleration vector continuously points towards point S. Then the object

(A) Speed up as it moves from A to C via B.

(B) Slows down as it moves from A to C via B.
(C) Slows down as it moves from C to A via D.
(D) Speed up as it moves from C to A via D.

11. A force F (power of F is p = constant) is applied on block A of mass m as shown in figure, F is parallel to the
inclined plane. Then:

P
(A) The maximum speed of block A is
mgsin
P
(B) The maximum speed of block A is
mg cos
(C) The speed of block A first increases and then becomes constant
(D) Speed of block A continuously increases

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12. A thin rod AB is sliding between two fixed right-angled surfaces. At some instant its angular velocity is . If
Ix represent moment of inertia of the rod about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing through the
point X (A, B, C or D), the kinetic energy of the rod is:

1
(A)  A 2
2
1
(B)  B 2
2
1
(C)  C 2
2
1
(D)  D 2
2

13. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m, radius R is at rest on an extremely rough horizontal surface. Now a force
F = kt where k = constant and t = time, is applied at the highest point on the cylinder. Assume that the cylinder
is not sliding at all.

(A) The friction force acting on the cylinder varies with time as

2kt 2
(B) Velocity of the highest point after time t will be
3m
4kt 2
(C) Velocity of the highest point after time t will be
3m
(D) If the coefficient of friction between the ground and the cylinder is , the cylinder will start
3mg
sliding at t = .
k

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14. An insect of mass m, starts moving on a rough inclined surface from point A. As the surface is very sticky, the
coefficient of friction between the insect and the incline is  = 1. Assume that it can move in any direction; up
the incline or down the incline then

(A) The maximum possible acceleration of the insect can be 14 m/sec2

(B) The maximum possible acceleration of the insect can be 2 m/sec2
(C) The insect can move with a constant velocity
(D) The insect cannot move with a constant velocity

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
15. In the diagram shown in figure, match the following: (g = 10 m/s2)
N
= 60
F 2

k g
kg 2
g 3
N 5k Smooth
60
F 1= =30°
List–I List–II
(I) Acceleration of 2 kg block (in m/s2) (P) 5
(II) Acceleration of 3 kg block (in m/s2) (Q) 50
(III) Normal reaction between 2 kg and 3 kg (in N) (R) 45
(IV) Normal reaction between 3 kg and 5 kg (in N) (S) 60
(T) zero
(A) (I) → P, (II) → P, (III) → S, (IV) → S (B) (I) → Q, (II) → R, (III) → P, (IV) → S
(C) (I) → R, (II) → Q, (III) → S, (IV) → S (D) (I) → P, (II) → P, (III) → R, (IV) → Q

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16. Match the List:
In all cases in List–I, the blocks are placed on the smooth horizontal surface.
List–I List–II
(I) The initial velocities given to the blocks (P) Centre of mass of the
when spring is relaxed are as shown complete system shown will
(friction is absent) not move horizontally
2m/s 1m/s
1kg 2kg

(II) A constant force is applied on 2 kg block. (Q) Centre of mass of the

Springs are initially relaxed & friction is complete system shown will
absent move horizontally
u=0 u=0 u=0
F(horizontal)
1kg 1kg 2kg

(III) There is no friction between plank and (R) Mechanical energy of the
ground and initially system is at rest. Man system will be conserved
starts moving on a large plank with
constant velocity.

(IV) Two trolleys are resting on a smooth (S) Mechanical energy of the
horizontal surface and a man standing on system will increase
one of the trolleys jumps to the other with
relative velocity of 4 m/s

(T) Linear momentum of the

complete system will
always remain constant
(A) (I) → P, R, S; (II) → P, S; (III) → S, T; (IV) → P, S, T
(B) (I) → P, R, T; (II) → Q, S; (III) → P, S, T; (IV) → P, S, T
(C) (I) → P, R T; (II) → Q, S; (III) → Q, S, T; (IV) → P, T
(D) (I) → P, Q, T; (II) → R, S; (III) → P, R, T; (IV) → P, S

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17. Match the Lists: (All the rigid bodies lie on a smooth horizontal plane. No object is hinged. J is impulse of an
impulsive force. Initially system is at rest.)
List-I List-II
(I) M (P) Translation occurs

M rod is
J massless
(impulse)
(II) (Q) Rotation occurs

J
(uniform mass distribution)
(III) M (R) Angular momentum (about centre of
mass) increases
rod is
massless
M

J
(IV) (S) Linear momentum increases

J
(uniform mass distribution)
(T) Angular momentum will be conserved
about more than one points in space.
(A) (I) → P, Q, R, S, T; (II) → P, Q, R, S; (III) → P, S, T; (IV) → P, Q, R, S
(B) (I) → P, Q, S, T; (II) → Q, R, S, T; (III) → P, R, T; (IV) → P, Q, R, S, T
(C) (I) → P, Q, R, S, T; (II) → P, Q, R, S, T; (III) → P, S, T; (IV) → P, Q, R, S, T
(D) (I) → P, Q, S; (II) → P, Q, R, S, T; (III) → P, Q, R; (IV) → P, Q, R, T

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18. The displacement-time graph of a body acted upon by some forces is shown in the figure. For this situation
match the entries of List-I with the entries of List-II.
s
B

C
A

O t
List-I List-II
(I) For OA, the total work done by all forces together (P) always positive
(II) For OA, the work done by few of the acting forces (Q) always negative
(III) For AB, the work done by few of the acting forces (R) can be positive
(IV) For BC, the work done by few of the acting forces. (S) can be zero
(T) can be negative
(A) (I) → P; (II) → R, S, T; (III) → R, S, T; (IV) → R, S, T
(B) (I) → Q; (II) → P, S, T; (III) → P, R, T; (IV) → Q, S, T
(C) (I) → P; (II) → R, S, T; (III) → R, S, T; (IV) → P, Q, R, T
(D) (I) → S; (II) → R, Q, T; (III) → R, S, T; (IV) → P, R, T

Space for rough work

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 PART-II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer and fill / mark the correct option in the OMR. If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
19. Total number of species in which H.O.M.O has gerade nature and also they are paramagnetic in nature is:

N+2 , O22– , C2 , B2 , O2 , C22– , N22–

20. Total number of unpaired electron(s) in both cationic and anionic part of compound O2[PtF6] is:

21. The number of compound(s) in which carbon atom of functional group can be counted in main chain is/are :

(a) NC CN
CN
COOH
COOH
(b)
COOH
COOH
(c)
HOOC COOH
COOH
COOH
(d) HOOC
COOH

(e)

CH2 COOH

(f)

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22. How many of the following is/are chiral molecules?
(i) Ph–CH=C=C=CH–Cl (ii) CH3 – CH = C = C = C = CH – CH3
H Br Cl Cl
(iii) (iv)
Br H Br Br
Me Br
Cl Cl
(v) C (vi)
Br Br Cl Cl

23. For the given compound

CH3 − CH − CH = CH − CH3
|
OH
(I) Total number of stereoisomers = X
(II) Number of optically active stereoisomers = Y
(III) Total number of fractions on fractional distillation of all stereoisomers = Z
Find out the value of X + Y + Z.

24. An aqueous solution of specific gravity 1.5 is 80% (w/w) by weight. If this solution is diluted to specific
kg
gravity 1.2, then calculate % w/w of final solution. d(H2O) = 1000 3
m

25. An acidified solution of 0.1M M+2(aq) is saturated with 0.1M H2S. Calculate the pH of solution required to
prevent the precipitation of MS(solid).
−19
Given: Ksp (MS) = 10 ,

Ka1  Ka2 of H2S = 10−21

26. 1.22 gm of C6H5COOH is added in two Solvents and data of Tb and Kb are given as:
(i) In 100 gm CH3COCH3
Tb = 0.17 K
Kb = 1.7K kg mol–1
(ii) In 100 gm C6H6
Tb = 0.13 Kb = 2.6 K kg mol−1 .
Calculate the value of Z. Where
Observed molecular mass of C6H5COOH in C6H6
Z= .
Observed molecular mass of C6H5COOH in CH3COCH3

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 SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
27. Which of the following is/are correct order(s) of properties mentioned in bracket?
(A) Si < P < Cl < S (2nd I.E. order) (B) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2– (Ionic radii order)
(C) Cl < Mg < Ca < Ba (Atomic radii order) (D) B > Al < Ga < In < T (E.N. order)

28. Which of the following properties is/are associated with element having Z = 80 (Z = atomic number)?
(A) It has higher ionization energy than its upper elements of its respective group.
(B) It belongs to 12th group and 6th period.
(C) It is liquid in nature.
(D) It is considered as transition metal.

29. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(A) is antiaromatic (B) is aromatic

(C) is aromatic (D) is aromatic

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 H CH3 CH3 H H CH3
C C C

30.

Cl Br Br Cl Cl Br
I II III
(A) Mixture of I, II and III give two fraction on fractional distillation.
(B) I, II and III all are optically active
(C) I and II are pair of enantiomers
(D) I and III are optical diastereomer.

31. Which is/are correct statements about ideal gas?

(A) Change in entropy of surrounding is zero in isothermal expansion in vacuum.
(B) Change in entropy of gas is zero in adiabatic expansion in vacuum.
(C) Final temperature attained in reversible adiabatic compression is less than irreversible adiabatic compression.
Assume initial temperature are equal.
(D) Pressure is extensive property.

32. Given
Pt, H2 (g) 0.1M NH4OH(aq) 0.1M CH3COOH(aq) H 2 (g), Pt
1 atm 100 ml 100 ml 1 atm

2.303RT
= 0.06
F
Ka(CH3COOH) = 10–5, Kb(NH4OH) = 10–5,
log 0.05 = –1.3
Which is/ are correct statements?
(A) The emf of given cell is 0.48V.
(B) The emf of cell is 0.36V when 50 ml, 0.1M HCl is added to anode compartments.
(C) The emf of cell is 0.36V when 50 ml, 0.1M NaOH is added to cathode compartment.
(D) The emf of cell is 0.129V when 100 ml, 0.1M NaOH is added to cathode compartment.

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 SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases
33. Match the list:
List-I List-II
(I) Hypophosphoric acid (P) All hydrogen are ionizable in water
(II) Pyrophosphorous acid (Q) Lewis acid in water
(III) Boric acid (R) Tetraprotic
(IV) Hypophosphorous acid (S) sp3 - hybridized central atom
(A) I → Q; II → P, R, S; III → R, S; IV → S
(B) I → P, R, S; II → S; III → S; IV → Q
(C) I → P, R, S; II → S; III → Q; IV → S
(D) I → S; II → Q; III → P, R, S; IV → P

34. Match the list:

List-I List-II
(I) IO2F2– (P) See-saw shape

(II) XeO2 F2 (Q) 2(d-p) bond

(III) ClO4– (R) 1(d-p) bond

(IV) PO3– (S) All identical bond length

4

(T) All adjacent bond angle are same

(A) I → P, R; II → P, Q; III → S, T; IV → S, T
(B) I → P, Q; II → P, R; III → S, T; IV → Q, S, T
(C) I → S, R; II → S, T; III → P, Q; IV → Q, S, T
(D) I → S, T; II → Q, S, T; III → P, Q; IV → S, R

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35. Match the lists:
List-I List-II
(Compound) (No. of monochloro structural product)
(I) Cl2 /h (P) =1
⎯⎯⎯⎯
→

Me
(II) Me
(Q) =2
Cl2 /h
⎯⎯⎯⎯ →

(III) Me (R) =3
Cl2 /h
⎯⎯⎯⎯
→

Me
(IV) Me (S) =4

Cl2 /h
⎯⎯⎯⎯ →

Et
(A) I → P; II → Q; III → R; IV → S
(B) I → Q; II → S; III → P; IV → R
(C) I → S; II → P; III → R; IV → Q
(D) I → P; II → R; III → S; IV → Q

36. Match the following lists:

List-I List-II
(Salt Hydrolysis) (pH)
(I) CH3COONa(aq) (P) pKa1 + pKa 2
pH =
2
(II) NH4Cl(aq) (Q) 1
pH = ( pK w + pK a − pK b )
2
(III) CH3COONH4(aq) (R) 1
pH = (pK w )
2
(IV) NaHCO3(aq) (S) 1
pH = ( pK w − pK b − log c )
2
(T) 1
pH = ( pK w + pK a + logc )
2
(A) I → T; II → S; III → Q; IV → P
(B) I → P; II → P, S; III → R; IV → T
(C) I → Q; II → T; III → P, Q; IV → R
(D) I → P, T; II → P, S; III → Q; IV → R

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 PART-III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer and fill / mark the correct option in the OMR. If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
2
 1 + tan  + tan 2    cos  − sin  − cos3 + sin3 
+  . Then find the number of values of
2
37. Let f () = cot  
 1 + cot  + cot 2
 
  2 (
sin 2 + 2cos 2
 − 1 
 )
1   
'' in [0,2] for which f () − 1 = f  −   − 1 , is
9 2  

38. Let common ratio of a G.P. be cot and sum of its infinite number of terms is '10'. A new G.P. is formed by
1000
taking cube of each of the terms of given series. If sum of infinite term's of new series is . Then number
7
of possible value of ∈[0,5] is

39. If , ,  are the roots of x 3 + x 2 − 2x + 1 = 0 , then the value of  is equal to.

2 2 2
  2 − 
Where  = 2 − 2  2
2
2 2 −  2 2

40. Let f (x) = ax2 + bx + c , where a  0,a,b,c are integers and f (1) = 1,6  f (3)  8 and 18  f (5)  22. Then the

number of solutions of equation f (x) = ex is

k
41. If the number of onto functions from {1,2,3,4} → {2,3,4} such that f(i) ≠ i for i = 1, 2, 3, 4 is k, then is equal
4
to

n
42.
 1 −3 then A − 1 A2 + 1 A3 .. +  − 1  An +1 + = 3 1 a  Find a .
If A is the matrix   3 13 b 1
−1 1  3 9   b

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 1 2
43. If Ai (i = 1,2,,n) represents all possible matrices satisfying Ai2 =  , and let x i denote the absolute
0 4
n
value of determinant of A then the value of ( x −1) is equal to
i =1
i

p 1 1 2 3 5 8 13 21 34
44. If denotes the sum of the infinite series + + + + + + + + +. .,
q 2 4 8 16 32 64 128 256 512

p+q
where p, q are relatively prime positive integers, then   is equal to
 p−q 

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)

• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

a 2 + b2 + c2 bc + ca + ab bc + ca + ab
45. If a, b, c are real numbers then the determinant  = bc + ca + ab a 2 + b2 + c2 bc + ca + ab vanishes if
bc + ca + ab bc + ca + ab a 2 + b2 + c2

(A) a + b + c = 0
(B) a = b = c
(C) (a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2 = 0
(D) a + b + c = abc

Space for rough work

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46. Given both roots of equation mx2 + (2 m −1)x + m − 2 = 0 are rational, then m can be (m  N)
(A) 4k(4k + 1)(k  N) (B) 1640

(C) 42 −10 + 6( N &   2) (D) 72

1 2x  1 2 
−1  1 − x 
47. The value of f (x) = tan  sin −1  2 
+ cos  2 
is
 2  1+ x  2  1 + x 
2x 2x
(A) f (x) = , If x [0,1) (B) f (x) = , If x  (−,1)
1 − x2 1 − x2
2x
(C) Not finite, if x  1 (D) f (x) = , If x  1
1 − x2

48. Let f:[–1, 1] onto [3, 5] be linear polynomial. Which is the following can be true?
 −1  7  15  1
(A) f  = (B) f −1  =
 2 2 4 4
1  −1 
(C) f (0)  4 (D) f   + f   =8
 2  2

2 2bcos−1 x
49. Let f (x) = 2a + (b  0) . If domain and range of f (x) are the same set, then

 2
(A) sin −1 a = − (B) cos−1 a =
6 3
 3
(C) sin −1 b = (D) cos−1 b =
4 4

50. Let A is a non singular matrix such that 3ABA−1 + A = 2 A−1BA , then
(A) A + B is singular matrix
(B) A + B is non singular matrix
(C) ABA−1 − A−1BA is non singular matrix
(D) ABA−1 − A−1BA is singular matrix

Space for rough work

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 SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using code given below the list

List −𝐈( function) List -II (nature)

 11  
(I) f : 2, → −1, 2  ,f ( x ) = sinx + cosx is (P) one-one but not onto
 4  

f : R → R + ,f ( x ) = e2log 4 (64 ) is
x
(II) (Q) onto but not one-one

  
(III) f : − ,  → 0,1,f ( x ) = cos x 2 is (R) one-one and onto
 2 2

(IV) f : R + → R,f ( x ) = ln ( x + 1) is (S) neither one-one nor onto

(A) (I) → S, (II) → R, (III) → P, (IV) → Q

(B) (I) → P, (II) → Q, (III) → R, (IV) → S
(C) (I) → S, (II) → R, (III) → Q, (IV) → P
(D) (I) → R, (II) → P, (III) → S, (IV) → Q

Space for rough work

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52. Match the series in List-I with their sum in List-II
List – I List-II
54
1 1
(I) 
n =1
1+
n 2
+
(n + 1)2
(P) 1

25
4n
(II)  4n
n =1
4
+1
(Q) 2


 1  1300
(III) 1 + 2
n =0
2n 

(R)
1301


1
(IV) a n −1a n +1
, where{an} is defined by a1 = a 2 = 1, a n +1 = a n + a n −1 , n  2
(S)
3024
n =2 55

(A) (I) → Q, (II) → P, (III) → S, (IV) → R (B) (I) → S, (II) → R, (III) → Q, (IV) → P
(C) (I) → S, (II) → P, (III) → Q, (IV) → R (D) (I) → P, (II) → Q, (III) → S, (IV) → R

53. Consider the system of equations 3x + y − z = 0,4x − py + 4z = 8 and 2x − y + 2z = q where

p,q {1,2,3,,10}

List- I List- II
Number of ordered pairs (𝑝, 𝑞) for which the system
(I) (P) 1
has unique solution is
Number of ordered pairs (𝑝, 𝑞) for which the system
(II) (Q) 9
has no solution is
Number of ordered pairs (𝑝, 𝑞) for which the system
(III) (R) 10
has infinite solutions is
Number of ordered pairs (p, q) for which the system
(IV) (S) 90
has atleast one solution is
(T) 91
(A) (I) → S, (II) → Q, (III) → R, (IV) → P (B) (I) → T, (II) → Q, (III) → R, (IV) → P
(C) (I) → S, (II) → P, (III) → Q, (IV) → R (D) (I) → S, (II) → Q, (III) → P, (IV) → T

Space for rough work

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54. Match the function given in List-I with the point on X-Y plane about which it is symmetrical, given in List-II
List-I List-II

𝑒𝑥 − 1 3
(I) 𝑦= (P) (0, )
𝑒𝑥 + 1 2

𝑒𝑥 + 2
(II) 𝑦= (Q) (2,0)
𝑒𝑥 + 1

2𝑥 + 1
(III) 𝑦= 𝑥 (R) (0,0)
4 +1

y = ( x − 2)
3
(IV) (S) Not symmetrical about any of the points.

(A) (I) → Q, (II) → P, (III) → S, (IV) → R

(B) (I) → P, (II) → Q, (III) → R, (IV) → S
(C) (I) → R, (II) → P, (III) → S, (IV) → Q
(D) (I) → P, (II) → Q, (III) → S, (IV) → R

Space for rough work

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