Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION I
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE DAGUPAN CITY
FIRST QUARTER EXAMINATION in
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
School Year 2023-2024
LRN: Score:

Name: Date:
Yvonne Zarah D.
Grade & Section: Subject Teacher:
Malicdem

Instruction: Read the statement carefully. Encircle the letter of your choice.

1. What is the primary process responsible for the formation of heavier elements during star formation and
evolution?
A. Gravitational collapse B. Supernova explosions
C. Stellar winds D. Nuclear fusion

2. The formation of a star starts with the dense regions of molecular clouds. What force pulls matter together to form
these regions?
A. magnetic force B. electromagnetic force
C. nuclear force D. gravitational force

3. Arrange the following stages of stellar evolution of a low-mass star.

A. Protostar> main sequence star> red giant> white dwarf
B. Protostar> main sequence star> white dwarf >red giant
C. Main sequence star> red giant> white dwarf> protostar
D. Main sequence star> protostar> red giant> white dwarf

4. Which of the following statements provides evidence for the formation of heavier elements during star formation
and evolution?
A. The observation of star clusters in the Milky Way
B. The detection of cosmic rays in the Earth's atmosphere
C. The presence of heavy elements in the spectra of stars
D. The detection of gamma ray bursts from distant galaxies

5. Based on the evidence for the formation of heavier elements during star formation and evolution, which of the
following statements is TRUE?
A. Heavy elements can only be formed in the early Universe.
B. All stars will eventually produce heavy elements during their lifetime.
C. The abundance of heavy elements in a star is determined by its mass.
D. The formation of heavy elements is unrelated to the process of star formation.

6. How did the concept of atomic number contribute to the synthesis of new elements in the laboratory?
A.. It provided a way to determine the stability of new elements.
B. It provided a way to identify the number of protons in an atom.
C. It provided a way to predict the chemical properties of new elements.
D. It provided a way to distinguish between different isotopes of the same element.

7. How did scientists use the concept of atomic number to synthesize new elements in the laboratory?
A. By combining different elements randomly until a new element was formed.
B. By using particle accelerators to bombard atoms with high-energy particles.
C. By heating up elements until they melted and combined to form new elements.
D. By using magnetic fields to separate isotopes of an element and create new elements.

8. What happens when most of the Hydrogen in the core is fused into Helium in the stellar core?
A. Hydrogen fusion stops, and the pressure in the core decreases.
B. Hydrogen fusion continues, and the pressure in the core increases.
C. Gravity squeezes the star until helium and hydrogen burning occur.
D. Nuclear energy increases until carbon and helium burning occur.
9. A chemist is given the molecular structure of a compound. How can the chemist determine whether the molecule
is polar or nonpolar?
A. Measure the mass of the molecule.
B. Determine the number of electrons in the molecule.
C. Calculate the bond angles between atoms in the molecule.
D. Assess the electronegativity difference between atoms in the molecule.
.
10. Why do H2, Ne, O2 and Cl2 have different boiling points although they have the same intermolecular force?.
A. They have different boiling points. B. These substances are present everywhere in nature.
C. These substances have different time of boiling. D. These substances have different electronegativities

11. Which substance has the lowest boiling point?

A. H2 B. O C. Cl2 D. H2O
12. At room temperature, F2 and Cl2 are gases, Br2 is a liquid, and I2 is a solid. Which of the following explains this?
A. They have different intermolecular forces present. B. They may contain hydrogen bonding.
C. They all have London dispersion forces. D. They have dipole-dipole forces.

13. Which phase of matter has the strongest intermolecular forces of attraction?
A. Solid B. Gas
C. Liquid D. Plasma

14. What is the primary intermolecular force that exists in nonpolar molecules, such as noble gases and
hydrocarbons?
A. Ion-dipole forces, which arise from the interaction between ions and polar molecules
B. Dipole-dipole forces, which arise from the interaction between permanent dipoles in polar molecules.
C. London dispersion forces, which result from the temporary formation of instantaneous dipoles due to electron
movement.
D. Hydrogen bonding, which occurs between molecules containing hydrogen bonded to a highly electronegative
atom such as nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine.

15. Which of the following statements best describes the effect of intermolecular forces on the boiling point of a
substance?
A. A.The boiling point of a substance is not affected by intermolecular forces
B. A substance with weak intermolecular forces will have a higher boiling point.
C. A substance with strong intermolecular forces will have a lower boiling point.
D. Intermolecular forces only affect the melting point of a substance, not the boiling point.

16. Please refer to the table below.

Experiment:
 Choose two substances with different intermolecular forces, such as sodium chloride and
methane.
 Place small samples of each substance in separate test tubes.
 Heat the test tubes at a slow, controlled rate and observe the melting points of each
substance.
 Record the melting points of each substance and compare the result.

Based on the above experiment, which of the following is true about the effect of intermolecular forces on the
melting point of a substance?
A. The melting point of a substance is only affected by pressure.
B. Substances with stronger intermolecular forces have higher melting points.
C. Substances with weaker intermolecular forces have higher melting points.
D. Intermolecular forces have no effect on the melting point of a substance.

17. What is the term used to describe the forces that hold molecules together in a substance?
A. Ionic forces B. Intramolecular forces
C. Intermolecular forces D. Electromagnetic forces

18. Which of the following macromolecules is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information?
 A. Carbohydrates B. Nucleic acids
C. Lipids D. Proteins

19. Which macromolecule is responsible for storing the energy needed for emergencies such as lifting heavy objects?
A. Carbohydrates B. Nucleic acids
C. Lipids D. Proteins

20. How does the structure of a protein determine its function?

A. The type of lipid molecule in the protein determines its function.
B. The type of sugar molecules in the protein determines its function.
C. The amount of water present in the protein determines its function.
D. The sequence of amino acids determines the protein's three-dimensional shape and therefore its function

21. Which of the following is true about the structure of lipids?

A. They are made up of amino acids.
B. They consist of long chains of nucleotides.
C. They contain a glycerol molecule and three fatty acid chains.
D. They contain a single-stranded chain of nucleic acids.

22. How might changes in the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule affect the resulting protein?
A. It may cause the protein to be produced at a different rate
B. It may change the amino acid sequence of the protein, altering its structure and function.
C. It may have no effect on the protein if the changes occur in non-coding regions of the DNA.
D. It may cause the protein to be produced incorrectly or not at all, depending on the location and type of
nucleotide changes.

23. When examining the structure of a protein, it is important to understand the chemical bonds that hold together the
individual amino acid monomers. Which of the following types of bonds is responsible for linking amino acids
together to form a protein?
A. Phosphodiester bond, which is found between nucleotides in a nucleic acid.
B. Glycosidic bond, which is formed between two monosaccharides in a carbohydrate
C. Peptide bond, which is formed between the amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids in a protein.
D. Hydrogen bond, which is a weak electrostatic attraction between a hydrogen atom and an electronegative atom
in another molecule.

24. A group of scientists synthesized a new type of lipid molecule that has a modified fatty acid chain. How might this
change in the structure of the lipid affect its function in the cell?
A. It may have no effect on the lipid's function.
B. It may completely disrupt the lipid's ability to form cell membranes.
C. It may alter the fluidity of the membrane, affecting the cell's ability to transport molecules.
D. It may change the lipid's function from a membrane component to an enzyme.

25. How do the properties of lipids differ from those of carbohydrates?

A. Lipids are hydrophobic, while carbohydrates are hydrophilic.
B. Lipids are highly water-soluble, while carbohydrates are not.
C. Lipids are made up of amino acids, while carbohydrates are made up of fatty acids.
D. Lipids are involved in energy storage, while carbohydrates are involved in cell structure.

26. According to collision theory, what should happen to the molecules of the reactants for a certain chemical reaction
to occur?
A. Colliding with one another B. Clustering with one another
C. Reacting with one another D. Rearranging with one another

27. What do you call the amount of substance per unit volume?
A. Surface area B. Concentration
C. Density D. Temperature

28. How does temperature increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

A. By increasing the collisions of molecules. B. By increasing the kinetic energy of molecules.

C. By increasing the point of contact of molecules D. By increasing the activation energy of molecules.

29. A chemical reaction involves reactants colliding with each other to form products. The rate at which the reaction
occurs depends on several factors, including the concentration of the reactants. If the concentration of the
reactants is increased, what is likely to happen to the rate of the reaction?

A. The rate of the reaction will remain constant because the concentration of the reactants does not have any
effect on the rate of the reaction.
 B. The rate of the reaction will increase because there are more reactant molecules available to collide with each
other, leading to more successful collisions and a higher rate of product formation.
C. The rate of the reaction will decrease because an increase in concentration will decrease the space between
the reactant molecules, making it more difficult for them to collide with each other.
D. The rate of the reaction will decrease because an increase in concentration will decrease the energy of the
reactant molecules, making it less likely for them to collide with enough energy to form products.

30. Which of the following statements is TRUE about exothermic reaction?

A. Energy absorbed is less than the energy released. Hence, heat of reaction is negative.
B. Energy absorbed is more than the energy released. Hence, heat of reaction is positive.
C. Energy absorbed is less than the energy released. Hence, heat of reaction is positive.
D. Energy absorbed is more than the energy released. Hence, heat of reaction is negative.

31. Which of the following statements BEST describes a catalyst?

A. A substance that slows down a chemical reaction.
B. A substance that consumes reactants in a chemical reaction.
C. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction.
D. A substance that changes the direction of a chemical reaction.

32. A certain chemical reaction requires a high activation energy before it can proceed. Which of the following
statements BEST describes how a catalyst can help in this situation?
A. A catalyst changes the direction of the reaction, allowing it to proceed more quickly and efficiently
B. A catalyst decreases the activation energy needed for the reaction to occur, thereby increasing the rate of the
reaction.
C. A catalyst increases the concentration of reactants in the reaction, which in turn increases the rate of the
reaction.
D. A catalyst decreases the temperature of the reaction, making it more favorable for the reactants to come
together and react.

33. How can the use of a catalyst affect the yield of a chemical reaction?
A. It can have no effect on the yield of the desired product.
B. It can decrease the yield of the desired product by consuming reactants.
C. It can increase the yield of the desired product by speeding up the reaction rate.
D. It can decrease the yield of the desired product by changing the direction of the reaction.

34. A reaction was conducted with and without the use of a catalyst. The rate of the reaction was faster when the
catalyst was used. Which of the following best describes the effect of the catalyst on the reaction?
A. The catalyst increased the temperature of the reaction
B. The catalyst increased the activation energy of the reaction.
C. The catalyst decreased the activation energy of the reaction.
D. The catalyst decreased the concentration of reactants in the reaction.

35. A chemical company is looking to increase the production of a certain chemical. Which of the following statements
best describes how a catalyst can help achieve this goal?
A. By decreasing the temperature of the reaction
B. By increasing the concentration of the reactants in the reaction.
C. By changing the stoichiometry of the reaction, leading to the formation of different products
D. By providing an alternative pathway for the reaction to occur, lowering the activation energy required.

36. Which of the following is a Fossil Fuel?

A. Biomass B. Coal
C. Geothermal Power D. Hydrothermal Power

37. An energy from falling or fast-running water which may be harnessed for useful purposes such as for electricity.
A. Hydropower B. Windmill
C. Biogas D. Fossil Fuels

38. You are evaluating the feasibility of alternative energy sources for a local farm in your community. Which energy
source would be most suitable for the local farm that utilizes the breakdown of organic matter, such as plant and
animal waste?
A. Hydropower B. Windmill
C. Biogas D. Fossil Fuels
39. How do fossil fuels compare to renewable sources of energy in terms of environmental impact?
A. Fossil fuels have a lower environmental impact than renewable sources of energy.
B. Fossil fuels have a higher environmental impact than renewable sources of energy.
C. Fossil fuels and renewable sources of energy have similar environmental impacts.
D. The environmental impact of energy sources is not related to whether they are fossil fuels or renewable
sources of energy.
 40. How are solar cells used to harness energy?
A. By directly using the heat from the sun to produce electricity.
B. By converting the mechanical energy of the sun into electrical energy.
C. By converting the thermal energy of the sun into electrical energy.
D. By directly converting the light energy of the sun into electrical energy.

41. What is the active ingredient in most glass cleaners?

A. Ammonia B. Baking soda
C. Vinegar D. Hydrogen peroxide

42. How does alcohol kill microorganisms?

A. By creating bubbles that trap microorganisms. B. By denaturing the proteins of microorganisms.
C. By emitting scent that kills the microorganisms. D. By trapping the microorganisms in dense foams.

43. What is the best explanation why most products often contain additives?
A. The additives speed up production. B. The additives enhance the product.
C. The additives lower the price of the product. D. The additives increase the volume of the product.

44. Ana is cleaning the kitchen until she accidentally spills oil on the tiles. Which of the following is the best cleaning
agent that Ana should use?
A. Bleach B. Disinfectant
C. Detergent D. Purifier

45. Which of the following is not true for cleaning agents?

A. All cleaning agents are classified based on their pH level.
B. Cleaning agents can be harmful to one’s health if not handled properly.
C. Cleaning agent with a pH of 9.5 is considered acidic in nature.
D. Cleaning agents contain active ingredients or compounds that disinfect surfaces and kill microorganisms.

46. What is the function of citric acid in cleaning agents?

A. To remove grease and oil. B. To act as a disinfectant.
C. To provide a pleasant scent. D. To neutralize alkaline substance.

47. Which of the following is the function of enzymes in cleaning agents?

A. To remove grease and oil B. To act as a disinfectant
C. To provide a glossy finish D. To break down organic matter

48. What is the primary use of bleach?

A. Antiseptic B. Disinfectant
C. Cleaning agent D. Whitening agent

49. What is the primary use of baking soda in cleaning agents?

A. To provide a pleasant scent. B. To remove stains and odors.
C. To act as a disinfectant. D. To provide a glossy finish.

50. What is the function of surfactants in cleaning agents?

A. To remove dirt and oil. B. To act as a disinfectant.
C. To provide a pleasant scent. D. To provide a glossy finish.

Prepared by:

YVONNE ZARAH D. MALICDEM

Special Teacher I

Checked by:

PHILIP G. MENDOZA PhD

Master Teacher II

Approved by:

BERNADETTE B. CASTRO
School Principal