(PHYSICS)

SECTION-A 6. The displacement y of a particle moving in one

1. The slope of straight line 3x = 3y + 5 is; dimension under the action of a constant force is

3 related to the time t by the equation t = y1/3 + 5 ,

(1) 3 (2)
where y is in meter and t is in seconds. The work
1 1
(3) (4) done by the force in the first 10 seconds is;
3 3
(1) 95 J (2) 65 J
(3) 0 J (4) 35 J
2. Which of the following combinations of three
dimensionally different physical quantities X, Y, Z 7. Two masses of 9 gm and 25 gm are moving with
can never be a meaningful quantity? equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes
(1) XZ – Y of their linear momenta is;
XZ 2 (1) 5 : 3
(2)
Y (2) 5 :3
X −Y
2 2
(3) 3 : 5
(3)
Z (4) 1 : 9
XY − Z 2
(4) 8. A ball of mass 0.36 kg attached to the end of a
XZ
string of length 2.25 m is moving in a horizontal
circle. The string will break if the tension is more than
3. The displacement-time graph of a particle moving
36 N. What is the maximum speed with which the
in straight line is given below. Find out the velocity
ball can be moved?
of the particle.
(1) 15 m/s
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) 14 m/s

9. A particle P is moving in a circle of radius ‘r’ with

a uniform speed of 4 m/s as shown in figure. When
passing through F the angular velocity of P about
E and C are in the ratio;
1
(1) m/s (2) 3 m/s
3
1
(3) 3 m/s (4) m/s
3

4. A projectile has a time-of-flight T and range R. If

the time of flight is tripled, what will be the new
range while keeping the angle of projection
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
constant?
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
R R
(1) (2)
6 3
10. The velocities of three particles of masses 40 gm,
(3) 3R (4) 9R
60 gm and 100 gm are 15iˆ, 15 ˆj and 15kˆ (in m/s)
5. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is respectively. The velocity (in m/s) of the centre of
elongated initially by 15 cm from the unstretched mass of the three particles is;
position. Then the work required to elongate (1) 3iˆ + 4.5 ˆj + 7.5kˆ
further by another 15 cm is;
(2) 15(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ)
(1) 62.5 J
(2) 125 J (3) 20iˆ + 30 ˆj + 5kˆ
(3) 168.75 J (4) 40iˆ + 60 ˆj + 100kˆ
(4) 250 J

[2]
18. Two masses of 20 kg and 40 kg respectively are 23. A 2.0 kg block collides with a horizontal weightless
connected by a massless spring as shown in figure. spring of force constant 4.5 Nm–1 as shown in
A force of 300 N acts on the 40 kg mass at the figure. The block compresses the spring 8.0 m
instant when the 20 kg mass has an acceleration of before coming to rest. If the coefficient of kinetic
14 ms–2 towards left, the acceleration of the 40 kg friction between the block and horizontal surface is
mass is; 0.5, the speed of the block at the instant of collision
with the spring is approximately;

1 1
(1) ms–2 (2) ms–2
4 2
(3) 5 ms–2 (4) 2 ms–2

19. Two wires of same materials and radius have their

lengths in the ratio 5 : 7. If these wires are stretched (1) 1.5 ms–1 (2) 14 ms–1
by same force, then strain produced in the two (3) 150 ms–1 (4) 15 ms–1
wires will be in the ratio;
(1) 1 : 1 24. The potential energy for a force field F is given by
(2) 5 : 7 U(x, y) = sin (x – y). The force acting on the particle
(3) 4 : 3  
of mass m at  0,  is;
(4) 2 : 3  2
(1) 0 (2) 2
20. A road is banked at an angle of 60° to the horizontal
1
40 (3) (4) 1
for negotiating a curve of radius = m. At what 2
3
velocity will a car experience no friction while
25. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of
negotiating the curve?
constant radius r such that its centripetal
(1) 54 km/hr
acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac = p3 r t2,
(2) 36 km/hr
where p is a constant, the power delivered to the
(3) 72 km/hr
particle by the forces acting on it is;
(4) 18 km/hr
(1) 2  m p3r2t (2) m p3r2t
(3) (m p6r2t5)/3 (4) 0
21. Find the work done in pushing a block of mass 15
kg from bottom to the top of a frictionless inclined
26. A stone of mass 8 kg is attached to a string 72 m
plane 12 m long and 5 m high. (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
long and is whirled in a horizontal smooth surface.
(1) 692 J (2) 735 J
The maximum speed of revolution of the stone
(3) 198 J (4) 3.98 J
without breaking the string is 24 m/s. The
maximum tension that the string can withstand is;
22. A body of mass M is dropped from a height h on a
(1) 16 N (2) 32 N
sand floor. If the body penetrates x cm into the sand
(3) 128 N (4) 64 N
and the average resistance offered by the sand to
the body is F, then the expression for x is;
27. The position vectors of three particles of mass m1 = 2 kg,
h
(1)
F m2 = 3 kg and m3 = 4 kg are r1 = (iˆ + 5 ˆj + kˆ) ,
+1
Mg r2 = (iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ) and r3 = (2iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ)
h respectively. Find the position vector of their centre
(2)
F of mass.
−1
Mg 13iˆ + 20 ˆj − 3kˆ 13iˆ + 20 ˆj + 3kˆ
(1) (2)
h 9 9
(3)
F 13iˆ − 20 ˆj + 3kˆ 13iˆ − 20 ˆj − 3kˆ
Mg (3) (4)
9 9
(4) 2h

[4]
38. Match the statement given in List-I with statement 41. Consider the following statement(s).
given in List-II. (A) CM of a uniform semicircular disc of radius
List-I List-II R is 2R/3 from the centre on the bisector.
(B) CM of a uniform semicircular ring of radius
(I) If A =2 B and (A) 90°
R is 4R/3 from the centre on the bisector
A + B = B then angle (C) CM of a solid hemisphere of radius R is 3R/8
between A and B is from the centre on the bisector.
(II) Magnitude of resultant (B) 180° (D) CM of a hemisphere shell of radius R is R/2
of two forces F1 = 10N from the centre on the bisector.
Which statements is/are correct?
and F2 = 16N may be (1) D only (2) A, B, C, D
(III) Angle between (C) 26N (3) C, D (4) A, B
A = iˆ + ˆj & B = 5kˆ is
(IV) Magnitude of resultant (D) 42. A force of − k̂ acts on O, the origin of the
21
coordinate system. The torque about the point (2, –
of vectors A = iˆ + 2 ˆj &
3) is;
B = 4kˆ is

(1) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D

(2) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
(3) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
(4) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

39. Mark the incorrect statement(s) for a particle

(1) (3iˆ) + (2 ˆj) (2) (–3iˆ) + (2 ˆj)
going on a straight line
(A) If the velocity is zero at any instant, the (3) (3iˆ) − (2 ˆj) (4) (–3iˆ) − (2 ˆj)
acceleration should also be zero at the instant.
(B) If the velocity and acceleration have opposite 43. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.040%, when
sign, the object is speeding up. subjected to a normal uniform pressure of 200
(C) If the position and velocity have opposite sign, atmosphere. The Bulk modulus of its material is;
the particle is moving away from the origin. (1) 1 × 1011 N/m2
(1) A and B (2) 2.5 × 1010 N/m2
(2) Only A (3) 5.05 × 1010 N/m2
(3) All of these (4) 1.05 × 1013 N/m2
(4) Only C
44. A particle moves in xy plane. The position vector at
40. Adjoining figure shows a force of 50 N acting at any time t is r = {(3t )iˆ + (4t 2 ) ˆj}m . The rate of
30° to the horizontal on a body of mass 6 kg. change of  at time t = 3 second (where  is the
Assuming that the acceleration of free-fall is 10 ms–2, angle which its velocity vector makes with positive
which of the following statement(s) is/are correct x-axis) is;
(Contact surfaces are frictionless)? 8 1
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s
195 195
195 6
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
8 195
I. The horizontal force acting on the body is 25N
II. The weight of the 6 kg mass acts vertically 45. A metal wire of length 3L, area of cross-section 4A
downwards and young modulus Y behaves as a spring of spring
III. The net vertical force acting on the body is constant k. The expression of k is;
35N AY AY
(1) I, II, III (1) (2)
L 4L
(2) I, II
3 AY 4 AY
(3) I only (3) (4)
4L 3L
(4) II only

[6]
56. Which of the following pairs of compounds are 62. Assertion (A): Alkyl halides can exhibit
not positional isomers? functional isomerism.
Reason (R): Functional isomers are structural
(1) isomers that have the same molecular formula but
have different functional groups.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(2) and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(3) of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(4) All of these false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true
57. 2.24 ml of a gas is produced at S.T.P. by the action
of 5.6mg of alcohol with Methylmagnesium 63. Which of the following levels of H and Li+2 have
bromide. The molecular mass of alcohol is; same energy respectively?
(1) 16.0 (A) 1, 3
(2) 41.2 (B) 2, 6
(3) 56.0 (C) 1, 4
(4) 156.0 (D) 2, 4
(1) A and B (2) A and D
58. Which of the following is isomer of benzene? (3) C and D (4) B and D

64. How many spectral lines are produced in the

spectrum of hydrogen atom from 6th energy level?
(1) (1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 10 (4) 4

(2) 65. The number of chain isomers for C4H10 and C5H12
are, respectively;
(3) (1) 2, 3 (2) 2, 5
(3) 2, 4 (4) 3, 5
(4) All of these
66. A gas emits light at two wavelengths after
absorbing a photon of 300 nm. If one of the
59. The fluoride content in a 600g toothpaste sample
emissions is at 500 nm, then the other is at;
is 0.5g. Concentration of fluoride ions in parts per
(1) 1035 nm (2) 325 nm
million is;
(3) 750 nm (4) 298 nm
(1) 833.33 (2) 250
(3) 456.15 (4) 654
67. From an excited state to the ground state of certain
transition in H spectrum in one or more steps gives
60. The volume of CO2 released at S.T.P. on heating
rise to a total of 6 lines. How many of these belong
10 g of CaCO3, assuming that it is fully
to the UV spectrum?
decomposed, will be (Atomic mass of Ca=40);
(1) 5 (2) 4
(1) 1.12L (2) 2.24 L
(3) 6 (4) 3
(3) 4.06 L (4) 0.84 L
68. Which atom has maximum magnetic moment if
61. The uncertainty in the position of an electron
Hund’s rule is not obeyed by some of elements
(mass = 9.1 × 10-28 g) moving with a velocity of
given below?
4.0 × 105 cm s–1 accurate upto 0.014% will be;
(1) Ti (2) Mn
(1) 1.92 cm (2) 2.68 cm
(3) Fe (4) Zn
(3) 0.175 cm (4) 0.010 cm

[8]
82. Which of the following IUPAC name is 87. A reaction between 3g of PbO and 5g of HCl
incorrect? yields how many moles of lead(II) chloride?
(1) 0.085 (2) 0.013
(3) 0.022 (4) 0.029
(1)
88. If the oxidation number of A is +1, B is +4 and
that of C is –1, then the possible formula of the
compound containing atoms of these elements;
(2) (1) A(B4C)2 (2) ABC5
(3) A(BC2) (4) A2(BC3)2

89. Product formed when trans-3-Hexene reacts with

(3) Br2 is meso-3,4-dibromohexane its configuration
will be;
(1) 3R, 4R (2) 3R, 4S
(4) (3) 3S, 4S (4) None of these

90. What will be the number of revolutions made by

83. Which of the following reactions is associated an electron when it is in state n = 3 before it suffers
with negative change in entropy? a transition to state n = 1. Given that the average
(1) 2C (graphite) + O2 (g) → 2CO (g) life of an excited state of hydrogen atom is of
4×10–7 s?
(2) 3C2H2 (g) → C6H6 (1)
(1) 9.7 × 107 (2) 9.7 × 106
(3) 2SO3 (g) →2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)
(3) 4.6 × 106 (4) 4.6 × 107
(4) C2H6 (g) → C2H4 (g) + H2 (g)
91. Assertion (A): The least stable conformer of n-
84. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is; butane is fully eclipsed.
Reason (R): The repulsion between both the
methyl groups increases the steric strain in fully
eclipsed conformer of n-butane.
(1) 6-Ethyl-1-methyl-4-oxohept-6-ene-1-
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
sulphonic acid
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(2) 7-Ethyl-5-oxohept-7-ene-2-sulphonic acid
Assertion (A).
(3) 6-Methyl-4-oxohept-6-ene-1-sulphonic acid
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(4) 6-Methylene-4-oxononane-1-sulphonic acid
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
85. The correct structure of 6-Aminocyclohex-2-en-1-
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
ol;
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true
(1) (2)
92. Statement-I: The radius of the second orbit of
He+ is twice that of the first orbit of hydrogen.
Statement-II: The radius of an orbit in H-like
(3) (4)
species is directly proportional to Z and inversely
proportional to n2.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
SECTION-B
incorrect.
86. A metal is 60% by mass in its oxide & molecular (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
weight of MClx is 95. Then find atomic mass of correct.
metal. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(1) 11 (2) 24 incorrect.
(3) 18 (4) 27

[10]
 (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 105. How many of the following characteristics are not
true for bryophytes?
101. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
A. commonly grow in moist shaded areas.
option.
B. called reptiles of the plant kingdom.
List-I List-II C. play an important role in plant succession on
I. Chemotaxonomy A. used in plant bare rocks/soil.
taxonomy to D. true roots, stem or leaves are present.
resolve confusions (1) Four (2) One
II. Numerical B. based on (3) Two (4) Three
taxonomy chromosome
number 106. Pick the mismatched pair as far as the economic
III. Cytotaxonomy C. each character is importance of the given organism is concerned.
given equal (1) Sphagnum: provides material suitable for
importance packaging of living material for trans-
shipment.
(1) I-A; II-B; III-C (2) Gelidium: provides a substance suitable to
(2) I-A; II-C; III-B grow microbes.
(3) I-B; II-C; III-A (3) Marchantia: used as soil binder.
(4) I-C; II-A; III-B (4) Chlorella: used as food supplement.

102. Choose the correct statement from the following 107. The major pigments in the class of algae that store
w.r.t Golgi apparatus. their food in the form of floridean starch are;
(1) Materials to be packaged in the form of (1) Chlorophyll a, c
vesicles from the ER fuse with the trans face (2) Chlorophyll a, c, phycoerythrin
of the golgi apparatus. (3) Chlorophyll a, b, fucoxanthin
(2) Materials to be packaged in the form of (4) Chlorophyll a, d, phycoerythrin
vesicles are released from the cis face of the
golgi apparatus. 108. Which of the following plants has an irregular
(3) An important site for the synthesis of flower?
steroidal hormones. (1) Canna (2) Bean
(4) Proteins are modified in the cisternae. (3) Pea (4) Mustard

103. Flagellated pyriform (pear-shaped) gametes are 109. The type of placentation where ovary is one-
characteristic of; chambered but it becomes two-chambered due to
(1) Chlorophyceae the formation of the false septum is found in;
(2) Rhodophyceae (1) Primrose (2) Dianthus
(3) Cyanobacteria (3) Argemone (4) China rose
(4) Phaeophyceae
110. How many of the following features are present in
104. Statement I: The form of food stored in red algae china rose?
is structurally similar to glycogen and Opposite phyllotaxy, inferior ovary, twisted
amylopectin. aestivation, monoadelphous stamens, free central
Statement II: Majority of the red algae are placentation
marine, even present at great depths in oceans (1) Five (2) Two
where relatively little light penetrates. (3) Four (4) Three
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 111. Pick the incorrectly matched pair.
incorrect. (1) Stilt roots: provide support
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (2) Tap roots of sweet potato: store food
correct. (3) Underground stem of ginger: act as organs of
perennation
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) Thorns of Citrus: modified axillary buds for
incorrect.
protection

[12]
122. The innermost layer of the cortex in dicot root is 129. Consider the following statements.
called; A. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
(1) Endodermis. chromosomes.
(2) Pericycle. B. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
(3) Epiblema. and get aligned along metaphase plate
(4) Conjunctive tissue. through spindle fibres from both poles.
Identify the correct stage of mitosis.
123. The floral formula given below represents the (1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
family
(3) Anaphase
(1) Fabaceae
(4) Telophase
(2) Cruciferae
(3) Papilionoideae 130. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
(4) Leguminosae option.
List-I List-II
124. Formation of synaptonemal complex takes place
(Common name) (Scientific name)
during _______ and dissolves during _______.
I. Lion A. Panthera tigris
(1) leptotene, zygotene
II. Leopard B. Panthera leo
(2) zygotene, diakinesis
III. Tiger C. Solanum tuberosum
(3) pachytene, diplotene
(4) zygotene, diplotene IV. Potato D. Panthera pardus
(1) I-B; II-D; III-A; IV-C
125. Identify the correct statement from the following (2) I-B; II-C; III-D; IV-A
w.r.t ribosomes. (3) I-B; II-C; III-A; IV-D
(1) They are composed of ribonucleic acid and (4) I-C; II-B; III-D; IV-A
proteins.
(2) They are surrounded by a single membrane. 131. Which of the following is/are the significance of
(3) The two subunits of 80S ribosomes are 50S meiosis?
and 30S. (1) Conservation of specific chromosome
(4) The two subunits of 70S ribosomes are 50S number of each species across generations in
and 40S. sexually reproducing organisms.
(2) It reduces chromosome numbers by half.
126. Photosynthetic protists are; (3) Causes genetic variability.
(1) Euglenoids and Slime moulds. (4) All of these
(2) Euglenoids, Diatoms and Dinoflagellates.
(3) Diatoms and Sporozoans. 132. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the
(4) Desmids and Ciliated protozoans. number of common characteristics;
(1) first increases and then decreases.
127. Statement I: Vascular bundles are not a part of (2) goes on increasing.
stele. (3) remains constant.
Statement II: All tissues inside the endodermis (4) goes on decreasing.
constitute the stele.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. 133. All the following are correct w.r.t dorsiventral
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is leaf, except
incorrect. (1) Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is carry out photosynthesis, is made up of
correct. sclerenchyma.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (2) The abaxial epidermis generally bears more
incorrect. stomata than the adaxial epidermis.
(3) Mesophyll has two types of cells – the
128. Sac-fungi includes all the following, except; palisade parenchyma and the spongy
(1) Penicillium (2) Saccharomyces parenchyma.
(3) Agaricus (4) Truffles (4) Both adaxial and abaxial epidermis of the leaf
has a conspicuous cuticle.

[14]
142. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false 146. The infectious material of viruses is;
(F) and choose the correct option. (1) protein coat.
A. Like bryophytes and pteridophytes, in (2) genetic material.
gymnosperms the male and the female (3) nucleoprotein.
gametophytes have an independent free- (4) tail fibre.
living existence.
B. In the predominant gametophytic stage of the 147. Choose the incorrect statement from the
life cycle of a moss, the first stage is the
following.
protonema stage, which develops directly
(1) The cells in G0 stage of the cell cycle are
from a spore.
C. In the predominant gametophytic stage of the metabolically inactive.
life cycle of a moss, the second stage is the (2) Heart cells do not appear to exhibit division.
leafy stage, which develops from the (3) Occasionally, dividing cells exit G1 phase to
secondary protonema as a lateral bud. enter an inactive stage called G0 stage of the
A B C cell cycle.
(1) F T T (4) Cells in G0 stage can proliferate further if
(2) T F T called on to do so.
(3) F F F
(4) F T F 148. Statement I: Biological names are generally in
italics and written in Latin.
143. Assertion (A): The parenchymatous cells which
lie between the xylem and the phloem are called Statement II: Biological names are Latinised or
pericycle. derived from Latin irrespective of their origin.
Reason (R): Initiation of lateral roots and vascular (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
cambium during secondary growth takes place in (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
pericycle. incorrect.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of correct.
Assertion (A). (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, incorrect.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A). 149. Assertion (A): The interphase of a typical human
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is cell lasts for approximately 20 hours per cell
false. cycle.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
Reason (R): The M-phase lasts less than 5% of
true.
the duration of cell cycle.
144. Choose the incorrect statement from the (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
following w.r.t casparian strips in dicotyledonous and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
roots. Assertion (A).
(1) Waxy in nature and made up of suberin. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(2) Obstruct the flow of water in the roots. but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(3) Present in the innermost layer of cortex. of Assertion (A).
(4) It is a water-impermeable deposition in (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
pericycle. false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
145. Statement I: In a sub-metacentric chromosome,
the centromere is present close to its one end. true.
Statement II: In an acrocentric chromosome, the
centromere is present slightly away from the 150. Fusion between one large static female gamete
middle of the chromosome. and smaller motile male gamete is termed as ___
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. as seen in ____.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (1) Oogamous, Volvox
incorrect. (2) Isogamous, Spirogyra
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (3) Anisogamous, Fucus
correct. (4) Oogamous, Ulothrix
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.

[16]
160. The efferent arteriole emerging from the ___A___ 164. Statement I: Nephridia or flame cells are the
forms a fine capillary network around the renal excretory structures in Platyhelminthes
tubule called the __B___. A minute vessel of this (Flatworms, e.g., Planaria), rotifers, some annelids
network runs parallel to the ____C___ forming a and the cephalochordate – Amphioxus.
‘U’ shaped vasa recta.
Statement II: Nephridia help to remove
A B C
nitrogenous wastes and maintain a fluid and ionic
(1) Bowman’s glomerulus proximal
balance.
capsule convoluted
tubule (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(2) Juxtaglomerular capillaries distal
incorrect.
apparatus convoluted
tubule (3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
correct.
(3) Bowman’s glomerular Henle’s
(4) Statement I and statement II both are
capsule capillaries loop
incorrect.
(4) glomerulus peritubular Henle’s
capillaries loop
165. Which of the following options is/are an example
of respiratory disorders?
161. Read the following from A-D and select the A. Cystic fibrosis
correct ones regarding muscles.
B. Asbestosis
A. Amount of myoglobin is high in white fibrous
muscles. C. Silicosis
B. Red fibres contain plenty of mitochondria D. Emphysema
which can utilise the large amount of oxygen (1) A, B and D only
stored in them for ATP production. (2) B, C and D only
C. White fibrous muscles are also called aerobic (3) B and C only
muscles. (4) B only
D. The amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high
in white fibrous muscles. 166. During muscle contraction, which of the following
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D retains its length?
(3) B and D (4) A and C
(1) I band (2) Sarcomere
(3) A band (4) H zone
162. During the process of inspiration, an increase in
pulmonary volume and thoracic volume results in;
(1) increase in intra-pulmonary pressure. 167. Match List-I with List-II regarding ionic activities
(2) decrease in intra-pulmonary pressure. associated with various phases of an action
(3) no change in intra-pulmonary pressure. potential.
(4) lifting up the ribs and sternum. List-I List-II
A Depolarization I opening and then
163. How many of the following statements are phase in the closing of Na+
incorrect regarding the generation and conduction generation of an channels
of nerve impulses?
action potential
A. The electrical potential difference across
resting plasma membrane is called action B Repolarization II All voltage-gated
potential. phase in the sodium and
B. When a stimulus is applied at a site on the generation of an potassium channels
polarized membrane, the membrane at that action potential are closed
specific site becomes impermeable to Na+. C Absolute III The sodium channel
C. The rise in the stimulus-induced permeability refracting phase remained open
to Na+ is extremely short-lived. D Resting phase IV opening of
D. A nerve impulse is transmitted from one potassium gates and
neuron to another through junctions called
rushing of potassium
synapses.
A B C D
E. Chemicals called neurotransmitters are
involved in the transmission of impulses at (1) I II III IV
these synapses. (2) II I IV III
(1) Four (2) Five (3) III IV I II
(3) Three (4) Two (4) I IV III II

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177. Corpora quadrigemina is a part of; 182. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
(1) Forebrain option.
(2) Midbrain
List-I List-II
(3) Hindbrain
A. Total lung I. 2500 mL to 3000
(4) Peripheral nervous system
capacity mL
178. Which of the following statements regarding dense B. Inspiratory reserve II. 1000 mL to 1100
connective tissue is incorrect? volume mL
(1) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed C. Expiratory reserve III. 4000 mL to 4500
(2) The orientation of fibres shows a regular or volume mL
irregular pattern and are called dense regular D. Vital capacity IV. 5500 to 6000 mL
and dense irregular tissue respectively. A B C D
(3) Tendons, which attach skeletal muscles to (1) IV I II III
bones and ligaments which attach one bone to (2) I IV III II
another are examples of this tissue. (3) III II I IV
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue has (4) I IV II III
fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly elastin)
that are oriented differently. 183. Adipose tissue is an example of;
(1) dense regular connective tissue.
179. Malfunctioning of kidney leading to accumulation of (2) dense irregular connective tissue.
urea in blood is referred to as; (3) loose connective tissue.
(1) glycosuria. (4) specialized connective tissue.
(2) anuria.
(3) uremia. 184. During the process of haemodialysis, the blood
(4) glomerulonephritis. drained from ___A___ is pumped into a dialysing
unit called ____B____.
180. Assertion (A): Myasthenia gravis is an Choose the correct option representing A and B.
autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular
junction leading to fatigue, weakening and A B
paralysis of skeletal muscle. (1) vein hemoanalyzer
Reason (R): Muscular dystrophy is a progressive (2) kidney hemodialyzer
degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to a (3) artery artificial kidney
genetic disorder. (4) renal vein hemodialyzer
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of 185. Which of the following statements is not true
Assertion (A). regarding synovial joints?
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (1) Synovial joints are characterised by the
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of presence of cartilage between articulating
Assertion (A). surfaces of the two bones.
(3) Assertion(A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (2) The arrangement in the synovial joint allows
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. considerable movement.
(3) These joints help in locomotion and many
181. Which of the following statements is incorrect? other movements.
(1) The cerebrum forms the major part of the (4) Ball and socket joint (between the humerus
human brain. and pectoral girdle), hinge joint (knee joint),
(2) A deep cleft divides the cerebrum and pivot joint (between atlas and axis) etc. are
longitudinally into two halves, which are some examples.
termed the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
(3) The hemispheres are connected by a tract of
nerve fibres called cerebral aqueducts.
(4) The layer of cells which covers the cerebral
hemisphere is called the cerebral cortex and is
thrown into prominent folds.

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195. _____ type of joint is present between the atlas and 198. A fall in glomerular blood flow/glomerular blood
axis. pressure/GFR can activate the ___X___ to release
(1) Pivot joint renin which converts ___Y___ in blood to
(2) Hinge joint angiotensin I.
(3) Cartilaginous joint X Y
(4) Fibrous joint (1) Podocyte Angiotensin II
(2) Juxtaglomerular cells Angiotensinogen
196. Statement I: Heart failure means the state of the (3) Afferent arteriole Angiotensinogen
heart when it is not pumping blood effectively (4) Juxtaglomerular cells Angiotensin II
enough to meet the needs of the body.
Statement II: In a heart attack symptom of acute 199. Assertion (A): Expiratory capacity includes tidal
chest pain appears when not enough oxygen is volume and expiratory reserve volume (TV+ERV).
reaching the heart muscle. Reason (R): It is the total volume of air a person
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. can expire after a normal inspiration.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
incorrect. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is Assertion (A).
correct. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
incorrect. Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
197. Which of the following options correctly (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
represents the function of node of Ranvier in a
neuron? 200. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
(1) Providing electrical insulation to nerve human skull.
(2) Speeds up the transmission of nerve impulse (1) It is dicondylic.
(3) Conduction of nerve impulse (2) It includes 6 ear ossicles.
(4) Secretion of myelin sheath (3) It includes 14 facial bones.
(4) Hyoid is not included in skull bones.
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