AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REVIEWER SHEET

19. A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power pack’

system will
Aircraft Landing Gear System
Have all hydraulic power components located in one
1. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire cucuit.
is an indication of
20. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the
Underinflation cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
2. How long should you wait after a flight before
Maintain correct wheel alignment.
checking tire pressure?
21. Debooster valves are used in brake system primarily to
At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather)
Reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly.
3. Aside from an external leak in the line, what will
22. In brakes service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’ is the
cause parking brakes to continually bleed off
process of:
pressure?
Withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose
An internal leak in the master cylinder
of removing air that has entered the system.
4. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to
Restrict flow in one direction and allow free 23. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to
flow in the other determine the:
5. Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to Proper operating position of the strut.
operate the brakes generally 24. Many brake types can be adapted to operate
Use power brake control valves mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not
6. Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing adaptable to mechanical operation?
valves that Expander-tube type.
Allow full debooster piston travel without fluid 25. Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems
from the high pressure side entering the low primarily to:
pressure chamber Reduce the pressure to the brake and
7. What would be the effect if the piston return spring increase the volume of fluid flow.
broke in a brake master cylinder? 26. What condition would most likely cause excessive
The brakes would drag fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic
8. What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line pump is operating?
to isolate the emergency brake system from the Inadequate supply of fluid
normal power brake control valve system? 27. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and
A shuttle valve single-disk brake pedal travel, but the brakes are
9. Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount hard and effective, the probable cause is
of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found Worn brake linings
In the aircraft manufacturer’s service 28. A flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788
manual will have a stripe running the length of the hose. The
10. The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to stripe
Retard the flow of oil as the struts are Is used to ensure that the hose is installed
composed. without excessive twisting
29. An automatic damping action at the steering damper
11. On an air valve core stem, what indicates high-
if for any reason the flow of high-pressure fluid is
pressure type?
removed from the
An embossed letter ‘H’
Inlet of the steering damper
12. The purpose of a relief system valve in a brake
30. A brake debooster valve is installed in systems where
assembly system is to
the high pressure of the hydraulic system (300 psi) is
Compensate for the thermal expansion
used to operate brakes
13. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
That are designed to work with lower
Prevent oil from escaping
pressure
14. The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane
31. The repair of an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of
on which no recent brake service work has been
main landing gear wheels determined not to be the
performed. The most probable cause is.
result of bent or twisted components consists of
Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder
Inserting, removing, or changing the location of
compensating port.
washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of
15. A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and
the scissors torque links
extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a
Slippage mark. 32. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing
16. Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tire to gear wheel assemblies in intersects aft of the
help aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having
Toe-out
Deflecting water away from the fuselage.
33. An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic
17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing
system using MIL-H5606 (mineral base) fluid
gear would most likely be a
will be marked with
Split field series-wound motor.
A blue striper or dot
18. What device in a hydraulic system with a constant-
34. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid,
delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid no
care should be ta to extend and compress the strut
demands are on the system?
completely at least two times to
Pressure regulator
Ensure proper packing ring sealing and
removal of air bubbles.
35. When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft Straightens the nose wheel
hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal 50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often
should face recommended that the tires on split rim wheels be
The direction of fluid pressure. deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
36. Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit As a safety precaution in case the bolts that
can cause hold the wheel halves together have been
The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal damaged or weakened.
pressure is applied. 51. Nose gear centering cams are used in many
37. Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers retractable landing gear systems. The primary
recommend that the tubes in newly installed tire purpose of the centering device is to:
must be first inflated, fully deflated and the re- Center the nosewheel before it enters the
inflated to the correct pressure? wheel well.
To allow the tube to position itself correctly 52. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a
inside the tire. landing gear oleo shock strut to:
38. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the Limit the extension stroke.
following is considered harmful to the aircraft 53. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is
tires? spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a
1. Humidity 5. Helium normal manner. The probable cause is:
2. Fuel 6. Electrical equipment Air in the brake hydraulic system.
3. Oil 7. Hydraulic fluid 54. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a
4. Ozone 8. Solvents torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-
pounds are required?
2,3,4,6,7,8 36.6
39. What action of any, should be taken when there is 55. If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake
a difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure system, its position in the system will be:
in tires mounted as duals? Between the brake control valve and the
Correct the discrepancy and enter in the brake actuating cylinder.
aircraft records 56. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft
40. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk
an aircraft tire is an indication of type brake assemblies?
Over inflation Do not set parking brake when brakes are
41. How can it be determined that all air has hot.
been purged from a master cylinder brake 57. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a
system? master cylinder will have on a brake system?
By noting whether the brake is firm or The restriction will cause slow release of the
spongy brakes.
42. After performing maintenance of an aircraft’s 58. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing
landing gear system which may have affected the gear, some means must be provided to:
system’s operation, it usually necessary to Extend the landing gear if the normal
Make an operational check with the aircraft on operating mechanism fails.
jacks 59. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the:
Wheel flange
43. What is the purpose of compensating port or valve
60. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606
in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake
the strut should be:
system?
Collapsed and fluid added at the filler
Permits the fluid flow toward or away from the
opening.
reservoir as temperature changes.
61. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked:
44. A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose
At least once a week or more often.
paper is identified as a
62. A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive
Micronic filter travel. A probable cause is:
45. A landing gear positon and warning system will
Lack of fluid in the brake system.
provide a warning in the cockpit when throttle is 63. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms
Retarded and gear is not down and locked.
during a landing?
46. The hydraulic packing seal used in a landing
gear shock strut are Fluid level.
Used only with a specific type of fluid. 64. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel
47. The best safeguards against heat buildup in assemblies is to:
aircraft tires are Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
Short ground rolls, sloe taxi speeds, minimum 65. A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides:
A source for additional hydraulic power when
braking and proper tire inflation
heavy demands are place on the system.
48. The removal, installation, and repair of landing
gear tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate 66. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can
on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be be obtained from:
Preventive maintenance The aircraft service manual.
67. When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed
a tire to deflate, the tire should be:
Replaced.
49. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a
nose landing gear shock strut?
68. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not Sheetmetal & Non-Sheetmetalic Structure
caused by air in the brake system, what is the next 1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on
most likely cause? composite structure, a change in sound may be due to
Deteriorated flexible hoses. damage or to transition to a different internal structure
69. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon (2) The extent of separation damage in composite
initial landing contact, but functions correctly during structures is most accurately measured by a ring (coin
taxi, the most probable cause is: tap) test
Low fluid. Regarding the above statements,
70. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock Only No.1 is true
strut is check by: 2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because
Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is the l evel they
of the filler plug. Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated
71. The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is aluminum alloys
accomplished by compressing a rotating brake 3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to
disk between two opposite brake linings. How is Shear loads
equal pressure on both sides of the rotating disk 4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using
assured? a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should
By allowing the caliper to float to first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and
automatically equalize as pressure is applied to securely fastened in place. The bumping operation
the rotor. should be
72. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been Started by tapping the aluminum lightly around
properly serviced, the the edges and gradually working down into the
Strut should be removed, disassembled, and center
inspected. 5. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance
73. Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft problem and bend allowance tables are not available,
that have: the neutral axis of the bend can be
High landing speeds. Found by adding approximately one-half of the
74. The pressure source for power brakes is: thickness to the bend radius
The main hydraulic system. 6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in
75. A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord a cornice or box brake is measured and marked
body and bead may be recapped One radius from the bend tangent line that is
An indefinite number of times. placed under the brake
76. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is 7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend,
used, the initial shock of landing shock of landing allow for stretching by
is cushioned by: Subtracting the setback from both legs
The fluid being forced through a metered 8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually
opening. acceptable for machining composite laminates?
77. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock Water only
strut after initial compression resulting from 9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue streaming
landing impact, back from some of the rivets on an aircraft?
Various types of valves or orifices are used Fretting corrosion is occurring between the rivets
which restrict the reverse fluid flow. and the skin
78. The purpose of a sequence valve in a 10. What type of bit should be used to drill holes in
hydraulic retractable landing gear system is Plexiglas?
to: A specially modified twist drill
Ensure the operation of the landing gear and 11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent
gear doors in the proper order. corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb structure?
79. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal
indications that the air has been purged from the from the atmosphere
system is: 12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
Firm brake pedals. Steel parts
78. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft 13. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension
wheels will: and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the
Melt at a specified elevated temperature Number of locking collar grooves
14. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of
aircraft rivets?
Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic
enclosure materials is 35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain
Greater than both steel and aluminum erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be
16. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for repaired by applying
soft metals? One or more coats of suitable resin (room-
90° temperature catalyzed) to the surface
17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation 36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely
indicates the primary alloying agent used in its through one facing and into the core
manufacture? Requires the replacement of the damaged core
2 and facing
18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance 37. When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you
between the should
Centers of rivets in adjacent rows Straighten cold and reinforce
19. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing? 38. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass
No external bracing is needed used in aircraft structure is
20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a S-glass
laminated sandwich structure 39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the lower
May be repaired surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually
21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to
Permitted but are normally more critical in
Attach parts or components with screws to
reference to strength in tension than similar
sheet metal
repairs to the upper surface
22. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for
40. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
hard metal?
Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only,
118°
except when filing very soft metals such as lead or
23. When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin,
aluminum
the major consideration in the design of the patch
41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud,
should be
grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is
The shear strength of the riveted joint
24. A factor which determines the minimum space measured in
between rivets is the Sixteenths of an inch
42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not
Diameter of the rivets being used
driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment
25. What is the material layer used within the vacuum
or removal from refrigeration
bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during
Must be reheat treated before use
curing called?
43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet
Bleeder
stock must have all
26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft,
Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be
the belt must conform to the strength requirements in
held to a minimum
which documents?
44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite
TSO C22 structures
27. What is one of the determining factors which permit Must be constructed of material such as
machine countersinking when flush riveting? titanium or corrosion resistant steel
Thickness of the material is greater than the
45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must
thickness of the rivet head
line up with the adjacent original is the
28. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged
Ribbon direction
honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a
The grain is perpendicular to the skin
semi-monocoque fuselage are called
29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are not used
because of their Longerons and stringers
Low strength characteristics 47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should
have an included angle of
30. Which rivet may be used as received without
further treatment? 140° and turn at a low speed
48. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft
2117-T3
rivets?
31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current
Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
standard category airplanes must
49. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum
Be at least flame resistant alloy rivets indicate the
32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets
Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet 50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The
head curvature of the bend is referred to as the
33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet dimeter
Bend radius
is
Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet
which has
An overall length of 5/16 inch
 69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine
supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet
51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic- metal, are normally
lok rivets is accomplished by utilizing Repairable, using approved methods
70. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets)
A pulling tool
should not be used in composite structures primarily
52. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic
because of the
plastics?
Possibility of causing delamination
Zinc chloride will have no effect
53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of 71. When comparing the machining techniques for
metal without critically weakening the part is called stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum
the alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to
drill the stainless steel at a
Minimum radius of bend
Lower speed with more pressure applied to the
54. What is the most common method of cementing
drill
transparent plastics?
72. How does acoustic emission testing detect defects in
Soak method
composite materials?
55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?
By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration that
Monel
may be present
56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit
73. One of the best ways to assure that a properly
fine cracks which may extend in a network over or
prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is
under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic
to
is said to be
Have mixed enough for a test sample
Crazing 74. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic
57. Which of the following drill bit types work best enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces
when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©) composite should be
laminate?
Covered with a thin coat of wax
Carbide W-point 75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain
58. The purpose of a joggle is to in a workable state is called the
Allow clearance for a sheet an extrusion Pot life
59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024
76. Which is considered good practice concerning the
aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
installation of acrylic plastics?
To retard age hardening When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other
60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for advanced satisfactory means to prevent excessive tightening
composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the of the frame to the plastic should be provided
best for strength? 77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated
60:40 by the number
61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb 2
construction ae used on modern aircraft because 78. How many of the following are benefits of using
this type of construction microballoons when making repairs to laminated
Has a high strength to weight ratio honeycomb panels?
62. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a 1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and
stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have corners
been critically loaded? 2. Improved strength to weight ratio
If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of 3. Less density
consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the same 4. Lower stress concentrations
direction
63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, 2,3, and 4
grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is 79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
measured in By the manufacturer and do not require heat
Hundredths of an inch treatment before being driven
64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed
angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of 80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type
165° fasteners over earlier generations is that
65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used They can be installed with ordinary hand tools
in the construction and repair of aircraft structures? 81. The most important Factors needed to make a flat
To join and reinforce intersecting structural pattern layout are
members
Radius, thickness, and degree of bend
66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces
82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can
of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet
usually be made on damages less than
holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the
1 inch in diameter
rivets to be used will be
83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by
5/16 inch
Burnishing
67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the
84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the
area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The
strength of
final cleaning should be made using
Skin or covering
MEK (methyl ethyl ketone)
68. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?
Shear
85. You can distinguish between aluminum and
aluminum alloy by 100.When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins,
Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of
86. When bending metal, the material on the outside of reducing the amount of warpage is to
the curve stretches while the material on the inside of Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair
the curve compresses. That part of the material 101.Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial
which is not affected by either stress is the Shear failure
Neutral line 102.The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long
to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of 103.When inspecting a composite panel using the ring
rivets, minimum edge distance and 4D spacing? test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate
56 Separation of the laminates
88. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which 104.Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide
are retained by bolts extending through the plastic strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in
material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be composite panels?
Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full 1. Microballoons
turn 2. Flox
89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal 3. Chapped fibers
faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the 2 and 3
doubler should be tapered to 105.Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to
finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
100 times the thickness of the metal
90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding the first Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
106.Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage prevents (s)
layer or play can be repaired by
tension and compression from bending the fuselage?
filling with a putty consisting of a compatible
Longerons and stringers
resin and clean, short glass fibers.
107.What is generally the best procedure to use when
91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
removing a solid shank rivet?
Dimples
Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a
92. Composite fabric material is considered to be
drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove
the strongest in what direction?
the rivet with a punch
Warp 108.What is the minimum edge distance allowed for aluminum
93. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener alloy single lap sheet splices containing a single row of
identify the rivets as compared to a joint with multiple rows, all rivets
Body diameter, type of head, and length of the being equal I diameter?
fastener The minimum edge distance for the single row is
94. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed equal to that for the multiple row
composite buildup depends primarily on 109.When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear
The orientation of the plies to the load strength is obtained
direction Only after a period of age hardening
95. When riveting dissimilar metals together, what 110.A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section
precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8-inch
action? rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be
Place a protective separator between areas of 13/16 inch
potential electrical difference 111.The length of rivet to be chosen when making a structural
96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to repair that involves the joining of 0.032- sheet, drilled
Soften to facilitate riveting with a No. 30 drill, is
97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using 5/16 inch
minimum radius for the type and thickness of 112.A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of
material 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are
The layout should be made so that the bend will drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be
be 90° to the grain of the sheet used will be
98. Which of the following are generally ¼ inch
characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber composites? 113.Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
1. Flexibility Inside radius of the metal being formed
2. Stiffness 114.Which of the following need not be considered when
3. High compressive strength determining minimum rivet spacing?
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum Rivet length
5. Ability to conduct electricity 115.The preferred way to make permanent repairs on
2,3 and 4 composites is by
99. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement Laminating on new repair plies
material that has high resistivity and is the most
common is
E-glass
 129.The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are
usually hardened by which method?
116.Which of these methods may be used to inspect Heat treatment
fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for entrapped 130.The shop head of a rivet should be
One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet
water? shank
1. Acoustic emission monitoring
2. X-ray
3. Backlighting
2 and 3 Aircraft Fuel System
117.Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of
1. To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude,
.032-inch aluminum?
some aircraft are equipped with:
MS20470AD-4-4
118.Select the alternative which best describes the Booster pumps
function of the flute section of a twist drill 2. (1) Gas-turbine engine fuel systems are very
susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel filters.
Forms the cutting edges of the drill point (2)A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to
119.Which of the following are generally characteristic of warm the fuel.
aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites? Regarding the above statements,
1. High tensile strength
Both no.1 and no.2 are true
2. Flexibility 3. What minimum required markings must be placed on
3. Stiffness or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum category aircraft?
5. Ability to conduct electricity The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
1 and 2 4. A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor
120.One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass ignition caused by:
structure that has been subjected to damage is to
lightning
Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a
5. What are the four general types of fuel quantity
strong light through the structure
gauges?
121.The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032-
1. Sight glass
inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to
2. Mechanical
One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus 3. Electrical
.096 inch 4. Electronic
122.Rivet pitch is the distance between the 5. Bourdon tube
Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row 6. Vane-type transmitter
123.A category of plastic material that is capable of 7. Litmus indicator
softening or flowing when reheated is described as a 8. Direct-reading static pressure type
Thermoplastic 1,2,3,4
124.Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy 6. Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral
structures? stability when jettisoning fuel?
5056 aluminum Two separate independent systems
125.Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally 7. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to:
accomplished by act as check valves
1. Applying external heat 8. A drip gauge may be used to measure:
2. Room temperature exposure the amount of fuel in the tank
3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin 9. The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some
4. Applying pressure problems not normally associated with aviation gasolines.
1 and 4 One of these problem is
126.The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal microbial contaminants.
from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 10. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard
inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes
desired bend. The bracket which will require the through the filters. What are common methods of
greatest amount of material is one which has a bend preventing this hazard?
radius of
anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater.
1/8 inch
11. Aircraft defueling should be accomplished
127.What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber
In the open air for good ventilation.
is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?
12. A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks on
Warp clock (or compass) some turbine-powered airplanes to tell when the fuel may
128.Repairing advanced composites using materials and be:
techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is
In danger of forming ice crystals.
likely to result in
13. (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an
An unairworthy repair aircraft positive-displacement fuel pump.
(2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft
centrifugal fuel boost pump.
Regarding the above statements,
Only no.1 is true
14. The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system
consists of a bridge circuit,
An amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit.
15. What precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed 32. A capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system
fuel system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine measures fuel in:
form more than one tank at a time? Pounds
The tank airspaces must be interconnected.
33. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an
16. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel
extended period of time, the inside of the tank should
tank before welding?
be coated with a film of:
Steam clean the tank interior. Engine oil
17. When installing a rigid fuel line, ½ inch in diameter, at 34. How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to
what intervals should the line supported? become plugged at the same time, must be used in
16 inches multiengine fuel systems?
18. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be Two
improved? 35. A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and
By adding a knock inhibitor. warning light is turned on when:
The fuel pressure drops below specified limits.
19. What type of remote-reading fuel quantity 36. Which of the following is necessary to effectively
indicating system has several probes installed in troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system?
each fuel tank? The manufacturer’s maintenance manuals.
Electronic 37. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted
20. When moving the mixture control on a normally fittings the line should:
operating engine into the idle cutoff position, Have at least one bend between such fittings.
engine RPM should 38. When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all
Slightly increase before the engine starts to die. valves located downstream of boost pumps with the
21. Which of the following would be most useful to pumps:
locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an Operating
aircraft fuel system? 39. An electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system
A fuel system schematic. consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a:
22. What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves Float-operated transmitter installed in the tank.
in integral fuel tanks? 40. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is:
To prevent fuel from flowing away from the Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive
boost pumps. gasoline.
23. What flight safety-related advantage does a 41. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the
pressure fueling system provide? microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
Reduces the chances for fuel contamination. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
24. What type of fuel-booster pump requires a 42. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
pressure relief valve? To allow the feeding of engine from any tank.
Sliding vane 43. Fuel-boost pumps are operated:
25. A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the: To provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
Amount of fuel in all tanks. 44. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity
26. As a general rule, which statement is true indicating systems is that:
regarding fuel leaks? Several fuel tank levels can be read on one
Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps (in addition to indicator.
running leaks) are considered flight hazards 45. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of
when located in unvented areas of the aircraft. fuel quantity indicating system?
27. The location of leaks and defects within the internal Capacitor
portions of the fuel system can usually be 46. A fuel jettison system is required under certain
determined by: conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the
Observing the pressure gauge and operating the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the
selector valves. requirements of fuel jettisoning?
28. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are: Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25, and
Formed by the aircraft structure. CAM 4b..
29. What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in 47. In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system,
a capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating the tank sensing unit is a:
system? Capacitor
Fuel and air in the tank. 48. What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum
30. A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what tank after welded repairs?
function? 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
Converts fluid pressure directly through a 49. What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter
transmitter to the indicator. installed in a fuel tank?
31. Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity
aircraft? indicator.
To reduce weight. 50. Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal
Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by:
Dump limit valves or a low-level circuit.
 are required for engines requiring fuel pump?
One fuel pump for each engine.
68. According to Part 23, what minimum required
51. The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air
markings must be placed at or near each appropriate
and vapor from the fuel before it enters the line
fuel filler cove for reciprocating engine-powered
to the carburetor is the:
airplanes?
Centrifugal-type pump The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
52. (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines 69. The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to:
may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel Resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.
flow. 70. The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is
(2) A measure of a gasoline’s tendency to vapor lock is essentially a:
obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.
Regarding the above statements,
71. What method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to
Only no. 2 is true
determine when the condition of the fuel is
53. (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a
approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?
pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will
Fuel temperature indicator.
permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks
72. What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel
of an aircraft.
pressure warning limits?
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more
advantages to a pressure fueling system in light Pressure-sensitive mechanism.
aircraft. 73. (1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow
Regarding the above statements, flight personnel to close the valve during any part of
Only no.1 is true the jettisoning operation.
54. The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would (2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must
indicate: discharge clear of any part of the airplane.
Clogged fuel nozzle. Regarding the above statements,
55. (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
heat. 74. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest
(2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a point in the fuel system?
source of heat. It traps any small amount of water that may be
Regarding the above statements, present in the fuel system.
Both no.1 and no.2 are true. 75. Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?
56. How does temperature affect fuel weight? To limit pressure differential between the tank
Cold fuel is heavier per gallon. and atmosphere.
57. Which of the following may be used for the repair of 76. Which of the following precautions is most important
fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks? during refueling operations?
Riveting and resealing. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
58. Why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel 77. A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves
systems of aircraft operating at high altitude? what function?
To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.
pumps. 78. What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank
before attempting repairs?
59. An aircraft’s integral fuel tank is:
Carbon dioxide
A part of the aircraft structure.
79. A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system
60. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel
allows how many of the following?
quantity indicating systems is that the indicator:
1. All tanks can be serviced through a single
Can be located an distance from the tank/s.
connection.
61. When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of
2. Any engine can be fed from any tank
gallons, the measurement will be more accurate
3. All engines can be fed from all tanks
because fuel volume:
simultaneously.
Varies with temperature change.
4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the
62. Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank? fuel system.
Carbon dioxide.
1, 2, 3, and 4.
63. What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated
80. Which statement concerning an electronic capacitance-
to read during level flight when the quantity of fuel
type fuel quantity indicating system is true?
remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?
It has no moving parts in the tank.
Zero. 81. The primary purpose of an aircraft’s fuel jettison
64. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for system is to quickly achieve a:
an aircraft fuel? Lower landing weight.
7 PSI 82. How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a
65. When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for submerged, single-speed, centrifugal-type fuel pump?
leaks what procedure should be followed?
By the pump’s design and internal clearances.
Pressurize the tank with air and brush with
83. Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional
soapy water.
procedures are normally placarded on the:
66. Pressure fueling or aircraft is usually
Fuel control panel access door.
accomplished through:
84. What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation
At least one single point connection.
67. How many engine drive fuel pumps per engine fuels?
Deteriorates rubber parts.
85. Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating 100.What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure
system incorporates a signal amplifier? warning system?
Electronic Pressure-sensitive mechanism.
86. Why are jet fuels more susceptible to 101.Fuel heaters are used with fuel systems for turbine
water contamination than aviation engines to prevent
gasoline? In the fuel from clogging system filters.
Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline. Ice crystals.
87. What is the minimum distance allowed between a 102.If it is necessary to enter an aircraft’s fuel tank, which
fuel tank and the fire wall separating the engine? procedure should be avoided?
One-half inch Conduct the defueling and tank purging
88. Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent caused by operation in an air-conditioned
changes in the attitude of the aircraft. building.
Surging. 103.What is used in may aircraft to prevent bubbles in the
89. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure
multiengine aircraft is lower than fuel vapor pressure?
Provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel Boost pumps.
load condition. 104.Which procedure must be followed when defueling
90. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to aircraft with sweptback wings?
provide a:
Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
Place where water and dirt accumulations in the
105.If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank
tank can collect and be drained.
which is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or
91. What method would be used to check for internal
water, periodic checks of the aircraft’s fuel tank sumps
leakage of a fuel valve without removing the
and system strainers:
valve from the aircraft?
Are still necessary due to the possibility of
Place the valve in OFF position, drain the strainer
contamination from other sources.
bowl and with the boost pump on, watch to see if
106.A digital fuel totalizer automatically indicates the
fuel flows to the strainer bowl.
amount of fuel used, fuel remaining, current rate of
92. Fuel system components must be bonded and
consumption, and fuel
grounded in order to:
Weight, aboard at takeoff.
Drain off static charges.
107.(1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure
93. Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison
indicator.
systems by:
(2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the
Boost pumps. fuel entering the carburetor.
94. In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible Regarding the statements above,
danger of allowing the fuel supply in one tank to Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
become exhausted before the selector valve is switched 108. The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel
to another tank is prevented by the installation of: pump is to:
A fuel pressure warning signal system.
Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
95. Which of the following would give the first positive
109. Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling
indication that a change-over from one fuel tank to
method, what precaution should be observed?
another is needed?
The truck pump pressure must be correct for
Fuel pressure warning.
that refueling system.
96. Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished:
110. Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on
Through a common manifold and outlet in each
turbine-powered aircraft.
wing.
Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger.
97. Where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning
111. Many fuel tanks incorporate valves to
signal on most aircraft engines?
prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pump
Fuel pressure line of the carburetor. or tank outlet when the aircraft is in a high ‘G’
98. (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine maneuver.
fuel system from ice formation.
Flapper
(2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in
112. Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system
the fuel screen.
more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanical
Regarding the statements above,
type?
Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
99. Microbial growth is produced by various forms of It measures by weight instead of volume.
microorganisms that live and multiply in the water 113. What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?
interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could To maintain atmospheric pressure.
result if microbial growth exists in a jet fuel tank and is
not corrected?
1. Interference with fuel flow.
2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.
3. Engine seizure.
4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.
5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.
6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.
a. 1, 2, 4
 15. Which of the following defects are not acceptable for
Materials and Processes
metal lines?
1. Cracked flare
2. Seams
1. What two types of indicating mediums are available
3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20% of the
for magnetic particle inspection?
diameter
Wet and dry process materials
4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less than
2. What precision measuring tool is used for measuring
10% of wall thickness
crankpin and main bearing journals for out-of-round
5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube
wear?
diameter
Micrometer caliper
1,2,3 and 5
3. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?
16. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not
In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the
sharp and clear, the most cause is that part
material thickness
4. How many of these factors are considered essential Was not thoroughly washed before the
knowledge for x-ray exposure? developer was applied
1. Processing of the film 17. Which heat-treating operation would be
2. Material thickness and density performed when the surface of the metal is
3. Exposure distance and angle changed chemically by introducing a high carbide
4. Film characteristics or nitride content?
Three Case hardening
5. On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement 18. (1) In nondestructive testing a discontinuity may
includes what percentage(s) of the base metal be defined as an interruption in the normal
thickness? physical structure or configuration of a part
25 – 50 percent (2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the
6. What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel usefulness of a part
during after it has been annealed? Regarding the above statements,
Slow cooling; low strength Both No.1 and No.2 are true
7. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a 19. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for
Class 3 fit for the threads tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to
8. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out- Clean, dry threads
of-round wear? 20. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type
locknut obtained?
Micrometer caliper
By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking
9. In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a
insert
mechanic should be familiar with
21. When the specific torque value for nuts is not
Likely ambient exposure conditions and
given, where can the recommended torque value
intended use of the part, along with type of
be found?
weld and original part material composition
AC 43. 13-1B
10. What nondestructive testing method requires little
22. Which of the following occurs when a
or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or
mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most
near-surface defects in most metals, and may also
metals at room temperature, such as rolling,
be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-
hammering, or bending?
treat conditions?
1. The metals become artificially aged.
Eddy current inspection
2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked
11. Which of the following is a main determinant of the
3. The metals become cold worked, strain or
dwell time to use when conducting a dye r
work hardened
fluorescent penetrant inspection?
3.
The size and shape of the discontinuities being
23. In performing a dye penetrant inspection,
looked for
the developer
12. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to
Acts as a blotter to produce a visible
detect which defects?
indication
Defects parallel to the long axis of the part
24. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head
13. If it is necessary to accurately measure the
is classified as an
diameter of a hole approximately ¼ inch in
NAS close tolerance bolt
diameter, the mechanic should use a
25. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a
Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole
hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough
by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the
core?
gauge
Case hardening
14. Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing
inspection method is true?
It may be used with steels which have been heat
treated for stressed applications
26. Alclad is a metal consisting of 42. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is
Pure aluminum surface layers on an correct?
aluminum alloy core In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the
27. Unless otherwise specified or required, material thickness
aircraft bolts should be installed so that the 43. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb
bolthead is repair using the potted compound repair
Upward, or in a forward direction technique. What nondestructive testing method
28. The society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) is used to determine the soundness of the
and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a repair after the repair has cured?
numerical index system to identify the
Metallic ring test
composition of various steels. In the number
44. Which of the following materials may be
‘4130’ designating chromium molybdenum
inspected using the magnetic particle inspection
steel, the first digit indicates the
method?
Basic alloying element
1. Magnesium alloys
29. Which of the following describe the effects
2. Aluminum alloys
of annealing steel and aluminum alloys?
3. Iron alloys
1. Decrease in internal stress
4. Copper alloys
2. Softening of the metal
5. Zinc alloys
3. Improved corrosion resistance
3
1,2
45. Why is it considered good practice to normalize
30. What method of magnetic particle inspection is
a part after welding?
used most often to inspect aircraft parts for
To relieve internal stresses developed
invisible cracks and other defects?
within the base metal
Continuous
46. What is generally used in the construction of
31. (1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by aircraft engine firewalls?
subjecting it to a magnetizing force from Stainless steel
alternating current that is gradually reduced in 47. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies
strength what type of aluminum
(2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by
99 percent commercially pure aluminum
subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct
48. What tool is generally used to set a divider to an
current that is alternately reversed in direction
exact dimension?
and gradually reduced in strength
Machinist scale
Regarding the above statements,
49. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is
Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface
32. What aluminum alloy designations indicate
material is commercially pure aluminum
that the metal has received no hardening or
50. The clearance between the piston rings and the
tempering treatment
ring lands is measured with a
3003-F
Thickness gauge
33. What is steel tempered after being hardened
51. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant
To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its
inspection usually requires
brittleness
A longer-than-normal penetrating time
34. Identify the correct statement
52. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to
Dividers do not provide a reading when
detect
used as measuring device
35. Which condition indicates a part has cooled too Flaws on or near the surface
quickly after being welded? 53. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on
Cracking adjacent to the weld the bolthead are
36. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type Standard steel bolts
locknut obtained? 54. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld
By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking The weld should taper off smoothly into the
insert base metal
37. Which number represents the Vernier scale 55. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a
graduation of a micrometer? part using continuous longitudinal magnetization
.0001 with a cable?
38. One characteristics of a good weld is that no Defects perpendicular to the axis of the part
oxide should be formed on the base metal at a 56. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane
distance from the weld of more than Only for shear load applications
½ inch 57. When checking an item with the magnetic
39. Which material cannot be heat treated particle inspection method, circular and
repeatedly without harmful effects? longitudinal magnetization should be used to
Clad aluminum alloy Reveal all possible defects
40. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a 58. One way a part may be demagnetized after
Class 3 fit for the threads magnetic particle inspection is by
41. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be Slowly moving the part out of an ac
Equal to the thickness of the material which magnetic field of sufficient strength
is fastened together
59. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable
terminal secured?
73. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by
With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but
installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported
with no strain imposed on the fork and safe
by parallel steel bars on a surface plate.
tied with a cotter pin
Measurements are taken between the arbor and
60. A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be
the parallel bar with a
used on an aircraft if the bolt is
Thickness gauge
Subject to rotation
74. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic
61. Why should an aircraft maintenance technician
particle build up forming
be familiar with weld nomenclature?
Parallel lines
In order to gain familiarity with the welding
75. Which tool can be used to measure the alignment
technique, filler material and temperature
of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk?
range used
Dial indicator
62. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic 76. What type of corrosion may attack the grain
particle inspection using either circular or boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat
longitudinal magnetization treatment process has been improperly
45* accomplished
63. A particular component is attached to the
Intergranular
aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt
77. Which tool is used to measure the clearance
and a castle tension nut combination. If the
between a surface plate and a relatively narrow
cotter pin hole does not align within the
surface being checked for flatness?
recommended torque range, the acceptable
Thickness gauge
practice is to
78. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be
Change washers and try again
identified as having a fatigue crack under which
64. In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is
condition?
perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines
The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed
generally causes
area of the part
A large disruption in the magnetic field
79. What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-
65. Which of the following methods may be
type valve for stretch?
suitable to use to detect cracks open to the
surface in aluminum forgings and castings? Micrometer
1. Dye penetrant inspection 80. Which of these nondestructive testing methods is
2. Magnetic particle inspection suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics
3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
4. Eddy current inspection Ultrasonic inspection
5. Ultrasonic inspection 81. What metal has special short-time heat
6. Visual inspection properties and is used in the
1,4,5,6 construction of aircraft firewalls?
66. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft Titanium alloy
or other cylindrical work 82. How can the dimensional
Combination set inspection of a bearing in a rocker
67. A part which is being prepared for dye arm be accomplished?
penetrant inspection should be clean with Telescopic gauge and micrometer
A volatile petroleum-based solvent 83. The reheating of het treated metal, such
68. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is as with a welding torch
classified as an Cansignificantly alter a metal’s
AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt properties in the reheated area
69. Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be 84. Holes and a few projecting globules are
used on which of the following? found in a weld. What action should be
1. Porous plastics taken?
2. Ferrous metals Remove all the old weld, and Reweld
3. Nonferrous metals the joint
4. Smooth primer-sealed wood 85. Normalizing is a process of heat treating
5. Nonporous plastics Iron-base metal only
2,3,5 86. The testing medium that is generally
70. What tool is generally used to calibrate used in magnetic particle inspection
a micrometer or check its accuracy? utilizes a ferromagnetic material that
Gauge block has
71. In the four-digit aluminum index system High permeability and low retentivity
number 2024, the first digit indicates
The major alloying element
72. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld
The weld should taper off smoothly into the
base metal
 FAA Form 337
12. When a 100-hour inspection is completed, if separate
maintenance records for the airframe, powerplant(s),
MAINTENANCE FORMS AND RECORDS
and propeller(s) are maintained, where is the entry
1. For aircraft operated under part 91, which for the inspection recorded?
of the following records must be retained In each record
for at least one year, or until the work is 13. When work is performed on an aircraft that
repeated or superseded? necessitates the use of FAA Form 337, who should
Records of maintenance, alterations, prepare the form?
preventive maintenance, 100-hour, The person who performs or supervises the
annual and progressive inspections work
2. Which of the following may a certificated
14. A certificated mechanic without an inspection
airframe and powerplant mechanic
authorization who signs the appropriate block on
perform on aircraft and approve for return
FAA Form 337 is doing what?
to service?
Certifying that he work was done in accordance
1. A 100-hour inspection
with the requirements of 14CFR Part 43
2. An annual inspection, under specified
15. For the aircraft operated under part 91, what
circumstances
difference is there, if any, between the record entry
3. A progressive inspection, under
requirements for maintenance (e.g., repair or
specified circumstances
alteration) and the record entry requirements for
1,3 inspections (beyond the description of the work
3. If work performed on an aircraft has been performed and the type and extent of inspection?
done satisfactorily, the signature of an Aircraft total time is required to be included only
authorized person on the maintenance in the inspection entry
records for maintenance or alterations 16. What is the status of data used as a basis of
performed constitutes approving major repairs or alternations for returning
Approval for return to service only for to service?
the work performed Data must be FAA-approved prior to its use for
4. Which aircraft record entry is the best description of that purpose.
the replacement of several damaged heli-coils in a 17. Where is the record of compliance with
casting? Airworthiness Directives or manufacturer’s service
Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were bulletins normally indicated?
replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted , Aircraft maintenance record
the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts installed, 18. If more spaces is needed for a work description
and tangs removed entered o FAA Form 337, what information should be
5. What is the means by which the FAA notifies included on the attached sheet (s), in addition to the
aircraft owners and other interested persons of rest of the work description?
unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under
Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and the
which the product may continue to be operated?
date the work was accomplished
Airworthiness Directives
19. After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine that
6. Which maintenance record entry best describes the
is to be returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is
action taken for a .125-inch deep dent in a straight
prepared. How many copies are required and what is
section of 1/2 –inch aluminum alloy tubing?
the disposition of the completed forms?
Dented section removed and replaced with
Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy
identical new tubing flared to 37°
for the FAA
7. Which is an appliance major repair?
20. An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies
Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump
8. When approving for return to service after a on an aircraft that was not approved for return to
maintenance or alteration, the approving person must service after an annual inspection. Which of the
enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft following statements is/are true concerning who may
A description (or reference of acceptable data) of correct the discrepancies?
work performed, date of completion, the name of 1. Only a mechanic with an inspection
the person performing the work (if someone authorization
else) , signature, certificate number and kind of 2. An appropriately rated mechanic
certificate held 3. Any certified repair station
9. Who is responsible for upkeep of the work required 2
maintenance record of an aircraft?
21. Which aircraft record entry best describes repair of a
The aircraft owner
dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster?
10. Which is statement is true regarding the
requirements for maintenance record format? Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area
22. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found
Any format that provides record continuity and which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person
includes the required information may be used disapproving must
11. Where should you find this entry?
Provide a written notice of the defect to the owner
‘Removed right wing from aircraft and remove skin
from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches
and in figure 8 in the manufacturer’s structural
repair manual No. 28-1.’
23. When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft Total time-in-service of the airframe.
owner or operator after an inspection, it says in
effect that
36. Each person performing an annual or 100-hour
Except for these discrepancies, the item inspected
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least
is airworthy
those items in the appendix of
24. For aircraft operated under part 91, when is aircraft
14CFR Part 43.
total time is required to be recorded in aircraft
maintenance records? TURBINE ENGINES
After satisfactorily completing inspections 1. Turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures
25. For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the generally may NOT be marked with
following records must be retained and transferred
1. layout dye.
with the aircraft when it is sold?
2. commercial felt tip marker.
Records of the current status of applicable AD’s,
and date and time when recurring AD’s are 3. wax or grease pencil.
next due 4. chalk.
26. Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA 5. graphite lead pencil.
Form 337? 3 and 5.
FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with 2. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection
other U.S. registered aircraft must be reinstalled in
27. An FAA form 337 is used to record and document the same slot.
Major repairs and major alterations.
3. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine
28. What is /are the appropriate action (s)
concerning minor repairs performed on a should be performed parallel to the length of the blade using
certificated aircraft? smooth contours to minimize stress points.
1. FAA form 337’s must be completed 4. One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is
2. Entries must be made in the to
aircraft maintenance record. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades at
3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record the desired angle.
of all minor repairs to the FAA at least 5. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are
annualy. equipped with two-spool or split compressors. When these
2. engines are operated at high altitudes, the
29. A person installing a product , part, or appliance on low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the
a type certificated product must make certain that compressor load decreases in the lower density air.
the item’s records document what type of 6. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?
statement?
Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
The product, part, or materials meets FAA
7. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine
airworthiness standards.
will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to
30. After a mechanic holding an airframe an
powerplant rating completes a 100-hour inspection, increase and the velocity to decrease.
what action is required before the aircraft is 8. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a
returned to service? function of the
Make the proper entries in the aircraft’s number of compressor stages.
maintenance record. 9. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a
31. Which maintenance action is an airframe major function of the
repair? number of compressor stages.
The repair of portions of skin sheets by making 10. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before
additional seams. its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication that the
32. Which maintenance record entry best describes the
Compressor may be contaminated or damaged.
action taken for a control cable
11. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest
showing
advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high-
approximately 20 percent wear on several of the altitude performance?
individual outer wires at a fairlead?
Split-spool, axial-flow.
Wear within acceptable limits, repair not
necessary 12. Who establishes the recommended operating time
33. Who is responsible for making the entry in the between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in general
maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or aviation?
progressive inspection? The engine manufacturer.
The person approving or disapproving for return 13. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine
so service. propulsion?
34. An aircraft was not approved for return to service 1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small
after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to amount of
fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which acceleration to a large mass of air.
statement is correct? 2. Tu.rbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large
The owner must obtain a special flight amount of
permit. acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
35. In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft 3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the
maintenance records, what is it necessary to exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the
establish?
propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust
thrust.
1,2.
 33. (1) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, each
14. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a
turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause pressure stage.
Creep. (2) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, the number of
rows of stages is determined by the amount of air and total
15. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt
pressure rise required.
deposits on compressor blades is called
Regarding the thove statements,
field cleaning.
both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
16. The stators in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine
34. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main
increase the velocity of the gas flow.
sections: the cold section and the hot section.
17. What is the first engine instrument indication of a
(1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor,
successful start of a turbine engine?
and turbine sections.
A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. (2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and
18. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle exhaust sections.
located? Regarding the above statements,
Exhaust. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
19. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne 35. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains constant,
particulates into a turbine engine can result in the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by
erosion damage to the compressor and turbine changing the velocity of the airflow.
sections. 36. Which of the following factors affect the thermal
20. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of efficiency of a turbine engine?
the fuel and air? 1. Turbine inlet temperature.
Combustion section. 2. Compression ratio.
21. Which two elements make up the axial-tlow compressor 3. Ambient temperature.
assembly?
4. Speed of the aircraft.
Rotor and stator.
5. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
22. Three types of turbine blades are
6. Altitude of the aircraft.
impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.
1,2,5.
23. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning
37. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a
stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is
divergent nozzle
to
increases.
vent some of the air overboard to prevent a
38. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine
compressor stall.
blades?
24. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its
Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle
high peak efficiency.
to the edge length.
25. Who establishes mandatory replacement times for
39. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant
critical components of turbine engines?
pressure.
The engine manufacturer.
40. What is meant by a double entry centrifugal compressor?
26. What type igniter plug is used in the low tension ignition A compressor with vanes on both sides of the
system of an aircraft turbofan engine? impeller.
Self-ionizing or shunted-gap type plug. 41. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a
27. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through divergent nozzle
a convergent nozzle decreases.
increases 42. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine?
28. When starting a turbine engine,
Starter, ignition, fuel.
hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas
43. Which of the following types of combustion sections are
temperature exceeds specified limits.
used in aircraft turbine engines?
29. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine
engines are required Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.
on a time or cycle basis. 44. Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter
should be disengaged
30. What are the two functional elements in a
centrifugal compressor? a. after the engine has reached self-accelerating
speed.
Impeller and diffuser.
45. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is
31. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine
the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during
are possible indicators of.
routine maintenance?
malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
Can.
32. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the
46. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the
efficiency of a turbojet engine?
discharge end of a typical axial-flow compressor?
Higher compression ratios can be obtained. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.
47. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine
engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their
maintenance manuals as
Pt7.
48. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is 65. In a dual axial-flow compressor, the first stage turbine
performed primarily in order to drives
prevent engine performance degradation, increased N(2) compressor.
fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path 66. Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine
surfaces. compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to
49. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called
level temperature is stators.
59°F 67. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an
50. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are aircraft gas turbine engine, are called
usually what type(s)? stator vanes.
Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing. 68. Standard sea level pressure is
51. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are 29.92” Hg.
possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or 69. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will
a faulty combustion chamber. usually cause
52. What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches galling.
fire when starting? 70. What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly on
Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation an axial-flow compressor?
with the starter. Directs the air into the first stage rotor blades at the
53. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates proper angle.
no change in power setting parameters, but oil temperature is 71. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
high? characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
Engine main bearing distress. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
54. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor 72. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly
convert velocity energy into pressure energy. accomplished by
55. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.
of each turbine wheel are used in the gas turbine engine to 73. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the
increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but
this point. which of the following?
56. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is Turbine blades.
accomplished in order to 74. A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal airflow
allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case through a turbine engine may result in
contracts around it.
a lean die-out.
57. What is meant by a shrouded turbine? 75. Newton’s Law of Motion, generally termed the “Law of
The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form Momentum,” states:
a band or shroud. Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a mass.
58. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of The greater the mass, the greater the amount of force
compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation? needed.
Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed 76. In an axial-flow compressor, one purpose of the stator
valves. vanes at the discharge end of the compressor is to
59. In a turbine engine with a dual-spool compressor, the low straighten the airflow and eliminate turbulence.
speed compressor 77. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure
ratio of an axial-flow compressor?
seeks its own best operating speed.
Number of stages in compressor.
60. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?
78. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine
In the entrance of the burner section.
engine is to
61. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial-
straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid
flow engine is to
exhaust jet.
reduce vibration.
79. What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade?
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a
A reduced blade tip thickness.
turbofan engine?
80. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air
1. Engine overspeed.
density of a turbine engine?
2. Engine overtemperature.
1. Speed of the aircraft.
3. Large, rapid throttle movements.
2. Compression ratio.
4. FOD.
3. Turbine inlet temperature.
1,4.
4. Altitude of the aircraft.
63. What term is used to describe a permanent and
5. Ambient temperature.
cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet
engine? 6. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
1,4,5.
Creep.
81. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to
64. What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow
which kind of damage?
compressor over a centrifugal compressor?
Cracking.
Greater pressure ratio.
 101. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a
82. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in turbojet engine?
aircraft jet engines? Supplies the power to turn the compressor.
Impulse-reaction. 102. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to
83. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are operating damage than compressor blades because of
single entry and double entry. exposure to high temperatures.
84. Newton’s First Law of Motion, generally termed the 103. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller
Law of Inertia, states: bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no
Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of motion defects, they
in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside must be degaussed before use.
force. 104. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-flow
85. The turbine section of a jet engine turbine engine
drives the compressor section. decrease the air velocity and prevent swirling.
86. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor 105. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been
forward fan engine is the same as the replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine?
low-pressure compressor.
Retrim the engine.
87. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant
106. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a
pressure cycle. turbine engine is
88. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft used to support combustion and to cool the
gas turbine engines? engine.
The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzles and the
107. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed
manifolds are drained preventing fuel boiling off as a
to high temperatures may only be marked with such materials
result of residual engine heat.
as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally
89. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated include
if the engine
1. layout dye.
fails to reach idle RPM. 2. commercial felt tip marker.
90. The abbreviation Pt7 used in turbine engine terminology 3. wax or grease pencil.
means
4. chalk.
the total pressure at station No. 7. 5. graphite lead pencil.
91. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine blade is 1, 2, and 4.
found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following
108. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the
should be suspected?
compressor section of a turbine engine?
Overtemperature condition.
Control the direction of the airflow.
92. What are the two basic elements of the turbine section
109. Why do some turbine engines have more than one
in a turbine engine?
turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
Stator and rotor. To extract more power from the exhaust gases
93. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the than a single wheel can absorb.
turbine inlet guide vanes. 110. Which of the following influences the operation of an
94. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine?
heat stress, what type of failures would you expect? Burner pressure.
Stress rupture. 111. (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a
95. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades.
convergent nozzle (2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from
decreases. turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid wash and an
96. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine abrasive grit blast.
engine? Regarding the above statements
To increase pressure and reduce velocity. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
97. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of 112. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between
turbine engine operation? the compressor section and the burner section.
Turbine inlet temperature. 113. The compressor stators in a gas turbine engine act as
98. In the dual axial-flow or twin spoil compressor system, the diffusers to
first stage turbine drives the decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
N(2) compressor. 114. Which statement is true regarding jet engines?
At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases
99. Which of the following engine variables is the most
rapidly with small increases in RPM.
critical during turbine engine operation?
115. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to
Turbine inlet temperature.
impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.
100. (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating
116. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on
airfoils does not require special equipment.
both sides of the impeller is a
(2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating
double entry centrifugal compressor.
airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer.
Regarding the above statements,
neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
117. condition known as ‘hot streaking’ in turbine engines is
caused by 15. The most important condition to be monitored
a partially clogged fuel nozzle. during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine
118. An advantage of the centrifugal-flow compressor is its engine is the
high EGT, TIT or ITT
pressure rise per stage. 16. During starting of a turbine powerplant using a
119. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the compressed air starter, a hung start occurred.
greatest? Select the proper procedure
Shut the engine down
Compressor outlet.
17. Characteristics of detonation are
120. At what point in an axial-flow turbojet engine will the Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive
highest gas pressures occur? cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in
At the compressor outlet. engine power
18. Both gasoline and kerosene have certain
GROUND OPERATIONS &SERVICING advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which
statement is true in reference to the advantages of
1. If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine
each?
powerplant, what is the likely cause?
Kerosene has a higher heat energy/ value per
The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich
unit volume than gasoline
2. Which of the following is the most satisfactory
19. When taxiing an airplane with a quartering
extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake
tailwind, the elevators and
fire?
Upwind aileron should be held in the down
Carbon dioxide
position
3. Jet fuel number identifiers are
20. Why is ethylene dibromide added to
Type numbers and have no relation to the fuel’s
aviation gasoline?
performance in the aircraft engine
To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder
combustion chambers
4. When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after 21. When approaching the front of an idling jet
taxiing (or towing), the nosewheel should be left engine, the hazard area extends forward of the
Pointed straight ahead engine approximately
5. Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing 25 feet
A tailwheel-type airplane in a direct
22. Which statement below reflects a
crosswind
typical requirement when towing some
6. A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by
aircraft?
a. Malfunctions in the ignition system
If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the
b. The starter cutting off too soon
torque-link lock should be set to full swivel
c. An excessively rich fuel/air mixture
23. What must accompany fuel vaporization?
7. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can
An absorption of heat
cause
24. When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet
Hard starting
or turbofan engine, the hazard area extends aft of
the engine approximately
8. When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing, it
100 feet
is important to
Test the brakes 25. How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-
9. Generally, when an induction fire occurs during starting type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel?
of a reciprocating engine, the first course of action Crank the engine with the starter o by hand,
should be to with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition
Continue cranking and start the engine if possible switch off, and the throttle fully open, until
the fuel charge has been cleared
10. The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed
26. How are aviation fuels, which possess greater
engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever
antiknock qualities than 100 octanes, classified?
in the
By performance numbers
FULL-RICH position
27. What effect, if any, will aviation gasoline
11. A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the
mixed with jet fuel have on a turbine engine?
pilot’s field of vision whenever the engine is running in
order to avoid The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms
The tail rotor deposits on the turbine blades
12. When taxiing (or Towing) an aircraft, a flashing red 28. When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a
light from the control tower means flashing white light from the control tower
Move clear of the runway/taxiway means
immediately Return to starting point
13. The color of 100LL fuel is 29. The main differences between grades 100 and
Blue 100 LL fuel are
14. Characteristics of aviation gasoline ae Lead content and color
High heat value, high volatility
 30. When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating 6. What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when
red and green light from the control tower means oil or grease comes in contact with a tire?
OK to proceed but use extreme caution Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a wash
31. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause down and rinse with soap and water
Vapor lock 7. One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress
32. When starting and ground operating an aircraft’s corrosion cracking is by
engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head Creating compressive stresses (via shot
into the wind primarily peening) on the metal surface
For engine cooling purposes 8. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of
33. Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to Contact between two unlike metals
Improve the gasoline’s performance in the 9. How many magnesium engine parts be cleaned?
engine Wash with a commercial solvent,
34. When towing a large aircraft decarbonize, and scrape or grip blast
A person should be in the cockpit to operate the 10. Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after the
brakes corrosion preventive mixture has been put into the
35. (1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation cylinders on engines prepared for storage?
gasoline and therefore holds contaminations better, The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be
(2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel broken
Regarding the above statement, 11. For which of the following reasons would a water break
Only no. 1 is true test be conducted?
36. Which of the following conditions has the most To make certain that a bare metal surface is
potential for causing engine damage when starting os thoroughly clean
attempting to start a turbine engine? 12. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to
Hot start delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure
37. Which statement (s) is/are true regarding tiedown of of corrosion residual product buildup is called
small aircraft? Exfoliation
1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch 13. Which of the following are acceptable to use when
when it gets wet utilizing chemical cleaning agents on aircraft?
2. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope a. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a
3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in flammable agent
order to eliminate or minimize wing lift b. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using
4. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked flammable agent
2 c. Atomizing spray equipment
38. If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 2 and 3
30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through 14. Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur
at least two revolutions to a. When two surfaces fit tightly together but can
Check for hydraulic lock move relative to one another
15. Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces
CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL which have been affected by electrolyte should be
1. (1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or neutralized with a solution
dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes Boric acid
(2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for 16. Which of these materials is the most anodic?
metals, the most anodic metals are those that will Magnesium
give up electrons most easily 17. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is
Regarding the above statements Improper heat treatment
Only No.2 is true 18. Which of the following is an acceptable first step
2. A non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum procedure to help prevent scratching when cleaning a
alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint- transparent plastic surface?
bonding qualities is called Flush the surface with clean water
Alodizing 19. Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber
3. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in Aliphatic naphtha
service, it can be partially restored by 20. Which of the following are the desired effects of
using Alodine on aluminum alloy?
Chemical surface treatment
1. A slightly rough surface
4. Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum
2. Relived surface stresses
structures have the effect of producing
3. A smooth painting surface
Corrosion
4. Increased corrosion resistance
5. The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing
1 and 4
would be best protected against corrosion by which
21. Spilled mercury on aluminum
of the following? Causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very
A coating of linseed oil difficult to control

22. Of the following, when and/or where is galvanic

corrosion is most likely to occur?
At the interface of a steel fastener and aluminum
alloy inspection plate in the presence of an
 electrolyte Near the top of the cylinder.
23. Which of the following may not be detectable even 6. During the inspection of an engine control system in
by careful visual inspection of the surface of which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded
aluminum alloy parts or structures? rod ends should
Intergranular corrosion Be checked for the amount of thread engagement
24. Select the solvent recommended for wipe down of by means of the inspection holes.
cleaned surfaces just before painting 7. Some aircraft engine manufactures equip their product
Aliphatic naphtha with choked or taper-ground cylinders in order to
25. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals Provide a straight cylinder bore at operating
is the result of temperatures.
A tendency for them to return to their 8. An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine,
natural state operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000 feet,
26. A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise non- provided the RPM is unchanged, will
approved cleaning compounds should not be used Lose power due to the reduce density of the air
when washing aircraft is because their use can drawn into the cyclinders.
result in 9. As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating engine
Hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures compression check using a differential pressure tester,
27. Which of the listed conditions in NOT one of the what would a movement of the propeller in the direction
requirements for corrosion to occur? of engine rotation indicate?
The presence of a passive oxide film The piston was positioned past top dead center.
28. Flayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning 10. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters,
because of the danger of when the lifters are completely flatl, or empty, should
Entrapping corrosive materials not exceed
29. Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts a specified amount above zero.
Cannot always be detected by surface indications 11. What does valve overlap promote?
30. What may be used to remove corrosion from highly Better scavenging and cooling
stressed steel surfaces? characteristics.
Fine-grit aluminum oxide 12. During ground check an engine is found to be rough-
31. Which of these materials is the most cathodic? running, the magneto drop is normal, and the manifold
Stainless steel pressure is higher than normal for any given RPM. The
32. Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid trouble may be caused by
and severe when a dead cylinder.
The surface area of the anodic metal is smaller 13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine , a
than the surface area of the cathodic metal deposit of small , bright , metallic particles which do not
33. Which of the following ae acceptable to use in cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in the oil
cleaning anodized surfaces? sump and on the surface of the oil filter.
1. Steel wool This condition
2. Brass wire brush may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing
3. Aluminum wool wear and is cause for further investigation.
4. Stainless steel wire brush
5. Fiber bristle brush
14. Master rod bearings are generally what type?
3&5
Plain
34. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts 15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the
with a propeller is being pulled through manually indicates
Stiff, nonmetallic brush
exhaust valve blow-by

RECIPROCATING ENGINES 16. If the exhaust valve of a four – stroke cycle engine is
1. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a closed and the intake valve is just closed , the
conventional reciprocating engine? piston is on the
Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the compression stroke
compression stroke. 17. When will small induction system air leaks have the
most noticeable effect on engine operation?
2. Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat control
At low RPM.
linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop
18. What special procedure must be followed when
located on the diverter valve will be contacted
adjusting the values of an engine equipped with a
before the stop at the control lever is reached in floating cam ring?
both HOT and COLD positions. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when making
3. At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder valve adjustment.
of a four-stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times
a minute? 19. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of
400 RPM. crankshaft travel
during which both valves are off their seats.
4. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
20. Which of the following engine servicing operations
decreases valve overlap. generally requires engine pre-oiling prior to starting
5. On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally the engine?
operating engine will the greatest amount of wear Engine installation.
occur?
21. What is the best indication of worn valve guides? 37. Excessive valve clearance results in the valves
High oil consumption. opening
22. How may it be determined that a reciprocating late and closing early.
engine with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently? 38. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps
Oil will flow from engine return line or happen to be aligned when performing a differential-
indicator port. pressure compression check on a cylinder?
23. If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or
A worn or defective ring(s) indication.
oil filler during a differential compression check,
What is this an indication of? 39. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the
engine to
Piston ring leakage.
run smoothly and give the desired
24. Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of
performance at all speeds.
valve opening to
40. An engine misses in both the right and left positions
decrease for both intake and exhaust
of the magneto switch. The quickest method for
valves.
locating the trouble is to
25. Which statement is correct regarding a four- stroke
cycle aircraft engine? check for one oi more cold cylinders.
The intake valve closes on the 41. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been
compassion stroke. serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled?
26. A characteristic of dyna- focal engine mounts as Next in firing order to the one from which they
applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the were removed and swapped bottom to top.
shock mount point toward the engine’s 42. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a
center of gravity. feather edge is likely to result in
27. Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? preignition and burned valves.
The mixture ratio which gives the best
43. Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an
power is richer than the mixture ratio
increased tendency to detonate?
which gives maximum economy.
1. High manifold pressure.
28. One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is
an excessively rich mixture. 2. High intake air temperature.
29. The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a 3. Engine overheated.
reciprocating engine is known as the 4. Late ignition timing.
indicated horsepower 1,2,3.
30. An increase in manifold pressure with a 44. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from
constant RPM will cause the bearing load in an 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine
engine to cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch.
increase This is because aircraft engine cylinders
31. Which of the following will decrease volumetric have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided.
efficiency in a reciprocating engine? 45. The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft
1. Full throttle operation. engines is to
2. Low cylinder head temperatures.
eliminate valve spring surge.
3. Improper valve timing.
4. Sharp bends in the induction system. 46. What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the
5. High carburetor air temperatures. crankcase of a reciprocating engine?
3,4, and 5 Plugged crankcase breather.
32. A nine –cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches 47. By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is
and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston determined that the
displacement of No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will not hold
1,283 cubic inches pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 2600 from top
33. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing dead center compression stroke
and overlap is to No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be
obtain the best volumetric efficiency and interpreted?
lower cylinder operating temperatures. A normal indication.
34. Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked 48. One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine
1. during engine overhaul. combustion chamber
2. during annual inspection.
problems is
3. after a “prop strike” or sudden engine stoppage.
spark plug condition.
4. during 100 – hour inspection.
49. If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either
1 and 3
LEFT or RIGHT during a magneto check, a normal operation
35. A condition that can occur in radial engines but is
is usually indicated by
unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is
hydraulic lock. slight drop in RPM.
36. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in 50. The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an
high-powered reciprocating aircraft engines? opposed engine is
There is less rolling friction when ball to
bearings are used than when roller bearings provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the
are employed. greatest extent possible.
 Critical altitude.
51. Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the 68. Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been
incoming air to a shut down for more
reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the than 30 minutes,
following? turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in
Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid
manifold pressure. lock.
52. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the 69. If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator are
engine is cold, what plus .002 inch
will occur during operation of the engine? and minus .003 inch, the runout is
The valves will open late and close early. .005 inch.
70. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow motion
53. Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine
between the pin and
temperature (all
other factors remaining constant)? both the piston and the small end of the
connecting rod.
A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of
71. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are
.060.
usually degreased
54. What is the principal advantage of using propeller
with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water-
reduction gears?
mixed degreasers
To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an
primarily because
accompanying increase in power and allow the
propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil
contamination in the overhauled engine.
55. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing?
Master rod bearing (radial engine). 72. When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an
56. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle aircraft reciprocating engine?
reciprocating At the end of the exhaust stroke and the
aircraft engine open? beginning of the intake stroke.
Exhaust and intake. 73. Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts?
57. To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the torsional
constant-speed vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine.
propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the 74. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the
manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control piston îs at bottom
before the RPM is reduced with the propeller control. center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the volume
58. Which of the following would indicate a general weak- equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression ratio?
engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller 7:1
or test club? 75. Which of the following is most likely to occur if an
Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation. overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve
59. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by clearances?
nitriding. The valves will not seat positively during start and
60. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine engine warmup.
increase with a greater number of cylinders? 76. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an
The power impulses are spaced closer together. inspection,
61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust the cause should be identified and corrected
bearing used in most radial engines? before the aircraft is released for flight.
Deep-groove ball. 77. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order
62. Which condition would be the least likely to be caused of their occurrence are
by failed or failing engine bearings? intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.
Low oil temperatures. 78. Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke
63. Valve clearance changes on opposed-type engines cycle engine, and the
using hydraulic lifters are accomplished by intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees of
crankshaft travel after
push rod replacement.
ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder
64. The floating control thermostat, used on some
only.)
reciprocating engine
installations, helps regulate oil temperature by 373°.
controlling air flow through the oil cooler. 79. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when
performing an annual/100-
65. Which of the following would most likely cause a
reciprocating engine to hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft?
backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation? Cylinder compression check.
Lean mixture. 80. Backfiring through the carburetor generally results from
the use of
66. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating
engine? an excessively lean mixture.
81. Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect
To determine satisfactory performance.
on carburetion,
67. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain
resulting in a reduction of engine power by
sea level pressure?
 excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture.

82. Which of the following conditions would most likely 96. What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is
lead to detonation? operated at high power
Use of fuel with too low an octane rating. settings before it is properly warmed up?
83. How many of the following are factors in establishing Oil starvation of bearings and other parts.
the maximum compression 97. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the
ratio limitations of an aircraft engine? power output of an
1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used. engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
2. Design limitations of the engine. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM.
3. Degree of supercharging. 98. Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve
4. Spark plug reach. clearance of a
THREE cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine?
84. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some aircraft Reduced valve overlap period.
engines to 99. If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of
provide a better fit at operating temperatures. operation of a four
85. What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled stroke cycle engine, it may result in
exhaust valves in backfiring into the induction system.
aircraft reciprocating engines? 100. (1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing.
Reduced valve operating temperatures. (2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion
86. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial chamber becomes
engine as compared to incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in advance of
cold valve clearance is normal timed
a. greater. ignition.
87. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it Regarding the above statements,
is inadvisable to soak neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
them in solutions containing soap because 101. If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position
some of the soap will become impregnated in the in the cylinder
surface of the material and subsequently cause engine should the piston be?
oil contamination and foaming. Top dead center.
89. Using the following information, determine how many 102. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are
degrees the crankshaft checked for stretch
will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves seated. with a contour or radius gauge.
Intake opens 15°: BTDC. 103. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft
Exhaust opens 700: BBDC. engine is called
Intake closes 45°: ABDC. brake horsepower.
Exhaust closes 10°: ATDC. 104. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000
RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be
245°.
90. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft at maximum velocity 90° after TDC.
rotation in degrees? 105. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range
from zero to normal
Timing disk.
operating pressure, the most likely cause is
91. How îs proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings
low oi supply.
assured during the
106. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on
overhaul of an engine? some valve stems?
By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring To prevent valves from falling into the
the end-gap with a feeler gauge. combustion chamber.
92. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve 107. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at
lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating normal operating
mechanism after the minimum inlet temperatures, the
oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have been engines lubrication system is probably operating
reached. When can normally.
this condition be expected? 108. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated
During normal operation. cylinders.
93. Compression ratio is the ratio between the (2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.
cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead
Regarding the above statements,
center and at top dead center.
both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
94. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timîng is correct, the
combustion process should be completed
just after top center at the beginning of the power stroke.
95. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high
oil temperature, the
problem may be caused by a
leaking oil dilution valve.
 rate of speed.
16. The internal resistance of fluid which tend to prevent it
HYDRAULIC &PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEM
from flowing is called
1. A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an
Viscosity
accumulator usually indicates
17. When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units
To low or no preload in the accumulator. fail to function properly. How are most systems protected
2. (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic system as against over pressure
damage-preventing units. A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive
(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and shaft
pneumatic systems. Regarding the above statements 18. One of the distinguishing characteristic of an open-center
both no.1 and no.2 are true. selector valve use in a hydraulic system is that.
3. The main system pressure relief valve in a simple Fluid flow through the valve in the OFF
hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve position
should be adjusted. 19. Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some
With the power control valve held in the aircraft hydraulic system because of
Closed position. High pressure and high rates of fluid flow
4. Hydraulic accumulator is charge with an air preload of 20. Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 psi has been built up
1000 PSI. when a hydraulic system pressure of 3000 in a hydraulic system . the hand pump piston is 1 inch in
PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the diameter . A ½-inch line connects the hand pump to an
accumulator will be actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the
3000psi pressure in the line between the hand pump and the
5. Which seals are with petroleum base hydraulic fluids? actuator?
Buna-N 100 psi.
6. What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic 21. The air that is expended and no longer needed when an
motors over electric motors? actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is
There is no fire hazard if the motor s is Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard.
stalled. 22. Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area.
7. An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the Pressure is usually expressed in
main hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a Pounds per square inch..
standpipe. The supply line is connected to the 23. What function does the absolute pressure regulator
Inlet the main hydraulic system. perform in the pneumatic power system?
8. In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a
with turbine-engine compressor bleed air, which unit stabilized source of air for the compressor.
reduces the air pressure between the engine and 24. Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from
reservoir. being exposed to high pressure or temperature should
Air pressure regulator. Not be straightened or bent further.
9. Quick – disconnect couplings in hydraulic 25. An aircraft pneumatic system which incorporates an
systems provide a means of engine-driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also
Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic requires
lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into A moisture separator.
the system. 26. Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs
10. Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and
fluid may be cleaned with simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from
Stoddard solvent. the other end.
11. Characteristic of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are Selector.
.Red color, petroleum base will burn uses 27. Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic
synthetic rubber seals reservoir , in order to service the system, you must
12. Some hydraulic system incorporate a device which is
Relieve the air pressure.
designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in
28. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of
the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an
the accumulator is depressed , it is evidence
established rate. This device is generally referred to as a
A ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
Hydraulic fuse
29. What is the purpose of using backup rings with o-rings in
13. A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be
hydraulic systems above 1500 psi?
detected by
Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal
Hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain
between the moving and stationary part.
line
30. Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible,
14. (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic system, use the they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube
type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer’s providing they are less than what percent of the tube
maintenance manual or on the instructions plate affixed damenter
to the reservoir or unit. 20
(2)Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed as specific 31. What types of selector valve is one f he most commonly
color for each type of fluid regarding the statement used in hydraulic system to providing for simultaneous
both No.1 and 2 are true flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
15. If two actuating cylinder which have the same cross- Four-port, closed-center valve
sectional area but different lengths of stroke connected to 32. What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a
the same source of hydraulic pressure they will exert hydraulic system?
Equal amounts of force and will move at the same Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation
33. A unit which transform hydraulic pressure which linear 51. Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
motions is called Red
An actuating cylinder 52. What safety device is usually located between the diving
34. (1) materials which are skydrol compatible or resistant unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft?
include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane Pump drive coupling shear section.
and epoxy paints. 53. A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from
(2) skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and one side of an actuating cylinder to the side, under certain
natural fivers regarding the above statements conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the.
Both No.1 and No.2 are true Landing gear system.
35. Characteristic of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are 54. If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing
Blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural
materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the
rubber seals
system is
36. After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump. It is
found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping Mineral base oil.
directions (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an 55. The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to
incorrectly installed transform
Fluid pressure into useful work.
Hand pump outport check valve
56. Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a
37. Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in
standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure
civil aircraft are
emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the
Mineral base, and phosphate ester base
standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the.
38. Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base
hydraulic fluids? Normal system power pump.
57. Unloading valves are used with many engine-driven
Butyl rubber
hydraulic pumps to
39. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented
from entering the fluid system? Relieve the pump pressure.
By physically separating the air chamber from 58. Where can information be obtained about the compatibility
the oil chamber with a flexible movable of fire resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft materials?
separation Fluid manufactures technical bulletins.
40. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to 59. Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to
Rotary motion contamination from
41. One of the main advance of skydrol is its Water in the atmosphere.
Wide operation temptation 60. A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic
42. If an aircraft’s constant-pressure hydraulic system and no components is
more frequently than detected the most probable cause is Internal leakage in the actuating unit.
Low accumulator airpreload 61. Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid
43. Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of pours flow in the other direction?
paper are normally. Check valve.
62. What type of packings should be used in hydraulic
Discarded at regular intervals and replaced
components to be installed in a system containing skydrol?
with new filtering elements
Packing materials made for ester base fluids.
44. Characteristic of MIL-H-8446 (skydrol 500 A & B
63. Hydraulic system accumulating serve which of the
hydraulic fluids are
following functions?1. dampen pressure surges. 2.
Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire
Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the
resistant, butyl rubber seals
pump’s capacity.3. store power for limited operation of
45. A hydraulic system operational check during ground
components if the pump is not operating. 4. Ensure a
runup the wing flaps cannot be allowed using the main
continuous supply of fluid to the pump .
hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the
emergency likely cause 1,2,3
The fluid level in the reservoir is low 64. If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating
46. A pilot reports that when the hydraulic ump is running, valves in a hydraulic system , what particular sequence , if
the pressure is normal. However when pump is stopped any, should be followed ?
no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication Units with the highest pressure settings and
of a adjusted first.
Leaking accumulator air valve 65. Most variable displacement aircraft hydraulic pumps in
47. If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat use.
before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening Contain a built- in means of system pressure
regulation.
May distort the flare.
66. Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a
48. Which of the following is adversely affected by
main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure
atmospheric humidity if left unprotected? 1. MILH-H-
regulator?
5606 hydraulic fluid. 2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid. 3. None
Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.
of the above. 67. In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety
2 device incorporated to protect the pump from overload is
49. How many of these seals are used with petroleum the
base hydraulic fluids? Shear pin.
Neoprene, Buna-N. 68. To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft
50. Excluding lines, which components are required to hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is
make up a simple hydraulic system? the
Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.
 O-ring seal. Packing

69. Generally the first step in removing an accumulator

from an aircraft is to 87. Which of the following list only desirable properties of a
Relieve system pressure. good hydraulic fluid that has chemical stability?
70. Pneumatic systems utilize Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point
Relief valves. 88. How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be
71. The primary function of the flap over load valve is to determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system
Prevent the flaps from being lowered at still has hydraulic pressure?
airspeeds which would impose excessive Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the
structural loads. pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as
72. The hydraulic component that automatically directs it goes toward zero
fluid from either the normal source or an emergency 89. What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
source to an actuating cylinder is called a The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to
Shuttle valve. prevent it from flowing
73. Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an 90. Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in a high-
indication pressure system by the use of a
That air is entering the pump. Backup ring on the side of the O-ring away
74. Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have from the pressure
the highest pressure setting?. 91. Many hydraulic reservoir contain a small quantity of
Thermal relief valve. fluid which is not available to the main system pump.
75. The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be This fluid is retained to
made with Supply fluid the auxiliary pump.
Enough bends to allow the tube to expand and 92. The component in the hydraulic system that is used to
contract with temperature changes and to absorb direct the flow of fluid is the
vibration. Selector valve.
76. The purpose of the pressure regular in a hydraulic system 93. The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is
Maintain system operating pressure within a generally accomplished
pressure a predetermined range and to unload By operating the various hydraulic
the pump components through several cycles.
77. Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap 94. After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air
operating mechanism which has just been installed? chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure
If the time required tp operate the mechanism gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until
decrease with successive operations, itindicates The fluid side of the accumulator has been
the air is being worked out of the system charged.
78. Relief valves are used in pneumatic system 95. If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base
As damage-preventing units. hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is
79. What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system used, what will be the effect on the system?
permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend,
the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other and the seals will fail.
direction? 96. Which statement about fluids is correct?
Orifice check valve All fluids readily transmit pressure.
80. If an engine-drive hydraulic pump of the correct capacity 97. To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,
fails to maintain normal system pressure during the Reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the
operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable reading on the accumulator air gauge.
cause is 98. Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at
Restriction in the pimp outlet. a.
81. What happens to the output of a constant-displacement Shuttle valve.
hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure 103. The purpose of restrictors in the hydraulic system is to
regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the a. Control the rate of movement of
reservoir? hydraulically operated mechanism.
The output pressure reduces, but the volume 104. In a typical high-pressure pneumatic system, if the
remains the same moisture separator does not vent accumulated water
82. What is used to flush a system normally serviced with when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a
MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid? a. Saturated chemical dryer,
Naphtha or varsol b. Malfunctioning pressure transmitter.
83. If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the c. Malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.
engine driven pump is running, but there is no pressure 105. Which is a characteristics of synthetic base hydraulic
after the engine has been shut off, it indicates fluid?
No air pressure in the accumulator a. Low moisture retention.
84. The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to b. High flash point.
Relieve the pump of its load when no c. Low flash point.
actuating units are being operated 106. Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump
85. Which is a characteristics of petroleum base handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate
hydraulic fluid? which of the following?
Flammable under normal conditions a. The hand pump inlet check valve is sticking
86. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a open.
b. The main system relief valve is set too high.
 c. The hand pump outlet check valve is
sticking open.
107. A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it

Delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.

108. How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an
airplane be determined?
 Higher pressure than the system relief valve.
99. Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are FUEL METERING SYSTEMS
identified by which color code?
1. If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes
Blue dot or stripe. clogged, the engine will run
100.Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
rich at rated power.
Air in the system.
2. One of the best ways to increase engine power and control
101.If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure
detonation and preignition is to
hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what
will result? use water injection.
The fluid level will increase when system 3. One purpose of an air bleed in a float-type carburetor is to
pressure is reduced. decrease fuel density and destroy surface
102.What is commonly used to connect an emergency source tension.
of power, and at the same time disconnect the normal 4. An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause
hydraulic source from critical parts of a landing gear or an increase in cylinder head temperature.
wheel braking system for operation (usually when the 5. When checking the idle mixture on a carburetor, the engine
normal source system fails)? should be idling normally, then pull the mixture control
Consult the aircraft manufacture’s service manual. toward the IDLE CUTOFF position. A correct idling mixture
will be indicated by
an increase of 10 to 50 RPM before decreasing.
6. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture
burns too fast.
7. What component is used to ensure fuel delivery during
periods of rapid engine acceleration?
Acceleration pump.
8. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the
fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend that all final
turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the
increase direction.
9. If the idling jet becomes clogged in a float-type carburetor,
the
engine will not idle.
10. A carburetor is prevented from leaning out during quick
acceleration by the
accelerating system.
11. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control
unit trimmed?
To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
12. What is the relationship between the pressure existing
within the throat of a venturi and the velocity of the air passing
through the venturi?
The pressure is inversely proportional to the velocity.
13. The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type
carburetor in its normal operating range is the difference
between the pressure acting on the discharge nozzle located
within the venturi and the pressure
acting on the fuel in the float chamber.
14. A major difference between the Teledyne-Continental and
RSA (Precision Airmotive or Bendix) continuous flow fuel
injection systems in fuel metering is that the
Continental system uses fuel pressure only as a
metering force.
15.(1) The mixture used at rated power in air cooled
reciprocating engines is richer than the mixture used through
the normal cruising range.
(2) The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating
engines is richer than the mixture used at rated power.
Regarding the above statements,
both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
16. Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to
turn all accessory bleed air off.

17. The device that controls the volume of the fuel/air mixture
to the cylinders is called a not compensated for altitude and temperature variations, the
throttle valve. fuel/air mixture will become
18. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it richer as either the altitude or temperature
will increases.
decrease the air density to the carburetor. 35. An aircraft engine continuous cylinder fuel injection
system normally discharges fuel during which stroke(s)?
19. Anine-cylinder radial engine, using a multiple-point
priming system with a central spider, will prime which All (continuously).
cylinders? 36. What carburetor component actually limits the desired
One, two, three, eight, and nine. maximum airflow to the engine at full throttle?
20. What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the Venturi.
operation of a jet engine? 37. The desired engine idle speed and mixture setting
Has little or no effect. is adjusted with engine warmed up and
21. The throttle valve of float-type aircraft carburetors is operating.
located 38. An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been
between the venturi and the engine. obtained occurs when the mixture control is moved to IDLE
22. On a float-type carburetor, the purpose of the CUTOFF and manifold pressure
economizer valve is to decreases and RPM increases momentarily
provide a richer mixture and cooling at maximum before the engine ceases to fire.
power output.
23. In turbine engines that utilize a pressurization and dump 39. Which method is commonly used to adjust the level of a
valve, the dump portion of the valve float in a float-type carburetor?
drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel Add or remove shims under the needle-valve seat.
boiling and subsequent deposits in the lines as a 40. Under which of the following conditions will the
result of residual engine heat (at engine shutdown). trimming of a turbine engine be most accurate?
24. If a float-type carburetor becomes flooded, the condition No wind and low moisture.
is most likely caused by 41. What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft gas
a leaking needle valve and seat assembly. turbine engine fuel control unit?
25. Which of the following is NOT an input parameter for a Mixture control position.
turbine engine fuel control unit? 42. Which statement is correct regarding a continuous-flow
Ambient humidity. fuel injection system used on many reciprocating engines?
26. An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trimming Fuel is injected at each cylinder intake port.
an engine. However, if the velocity of the wind blowing into 43. At what engine speed does the main metering jet actually
the intake is excessive, it is likely to cause a function as a metering jet in a float-type carburetor?
false high compression and turbine discharge All RPM’s above idle range.
pressure, and a subsequent low trim. 44. When a new carburetor is installed on an engine,
27. When troubleshooting an engine for too rich a mixture to the engine is warmed up to normal temperatures,
allow the engine to idle, what would be a possible cause? adjust the idle mixture, then the idle speed.
Economizer valve not operating correctly. 45. What carburetor component measures the amount of air
28. An aircraft engine equipped with a pressure-type delivered to the engine?
carburetor is started with the
Venturi.
primer while the mixture control is positioned at
46. What is the relationship between the accelerating pump
IDLE CUTOFF.
and the enrichment valve in a pressure injection carburetor?
29. The back-suction mixture control system operates by
No relationship since they operate independently.
varying the pressure acting on the fuel in the float 47. Which of the following is NOT a function of the
chamber. carburetor venturi?
30. On an engine equipped with a pressure-type carburetor, Regulates the idle system.
fuel supply in the idling range is ensured by the inclusion in
48. A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a system
the carburetor of
that receives all the necessary data for engine operation and
a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to
develops the commands to various actuators to
supplement the action of normal metering forces.
control engine parameters.
31. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of
49. One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed
a turbine engine performance check if an alternate fuel is to
helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor is
be used?
pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow
Fuel specific gravity setting.
through the carburetor increases.
32. The device that controls the ratio of the fuel/air mixture to
50. During the operation of an aircraft engine, the pressure
the cylinders is called a
drop in the carburetor venturi depends primarily upon the
mixture control.
air velocity.
33. Select the statement which is correct relating to a fuel
51. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today’s
level check of a float-type carburetor.
turbine engines?
Do not measure the level at the edge of the float
Hydromechanical or electronic.
chamber.

53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is

34. If an aircraft engine is equipped with a carburetor that is
adjusted to
 set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR. rise, and enrich the mixture.
54. On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control as 71. Which of the following causes a single diaphragm
you ascend to altitude, the mixture will accelerator pump to discharge fuel?
be enriched.
An increase in manifold pressure that occurs when
55. What corrective action should be taken when a carburetor the throttle valve is opened.
is found to be leaking fuel from the discharge nozzle?
72. During idle mixture adjustments, which of the following is
Replace the needle valve and seat.
normally observed to determine when the correct mixture has
56. In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that
been achieved?
adversely affects engine operation
causes an immediate reversion to control by the Changes in RPM or manifold pressure.
hydromechanical fuel control unit. 73. Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped with a
57. Which of the following is least likely to occur during back-suction mixture control by
operation of an engine equipped with a direct cylinder fuel turning the fuel selector valve to OFF.
injection system? 74. The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate on-site
Backfiring. temperature prior to performing engine trimming is to
58. If the volume of air passing through a carburetor venturi hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-
is reduced, the pressure at the venturi throat will well until the temperature reading stabilizes.
increase. 75. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the
59. The purpose of the back-suction mixture control in a dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is
float- type carburetor is to adjust the mixture by shut down?
regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
chamber.
76. What is a function of the idling air bleed in a float-type
60. The function of the altitude compensating, or aneroid carburetor?
valve used with the Teledyne-Continental fuel injection
system on many turbocharged engines is to It aids in emulsifying/vaporizing the fuel at idle
prevent an overly rich mixture during sudden speeds.
acceleration 77. If an engine is equipped with a float-type carburetor and
61. How will the mixture of an engine be affected if the the engine runs excessively rich at full throttle, a possible
bellows of the automatic mixture control (AMC) in a cause of the trouble is a clogged
pressure carburetor ruptures while the engine is operating at main air bleed.
altitude? 78. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to
It will become richer. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
62. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a
79. What will occur if the vapor vent float in a pressure
system that receives engine operating information and
carburetor loses its buoyancy?
adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control
The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank
unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.
from the carburetor will be increased.
63. Where is the throttle valve located on a float-
80. The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an injection-
type carburetor?
type carburetor
After the main discharge nozzle and venturi.
is held constant throughout the entire engine
64. The economizer system in a float-type carburetor operating range.
increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings. 81. Why must a float-type carburetor supply a rich mixture
65. Under which of the following conditions would an during idle?
engine run lean even though there is a normal amount of Because at idling speeds the engine may not have
fuel present? enough airflow around the cylinders to provide
Incomplete fuel vaporization proper cooling.
66. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC 82. If a float-type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is
system aids turbine engine efficiency by stopped, a likely cause is that the
ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are float needle valve is worn or otherwise not seated
kept to a minimum by controlling case temperatures. properly.
67. What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed 83. A reciprocating engine automatic mixture control
adjustments on a float-type carburetor? responds to changes in air density caused by changes in
An adjustable throttle stop or linkage. altitude or temperature.
68. Which of the following best describes the function of an 84. When air passes through the venturi of a carburetor, what
altitude mixture control? three changes occur?
Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge Velocity increases, temperature decreases, and
entering the engine. pressure decreases.
69. What could cause a lean mixture and high cylinder head
temperature at sea level or low altitudes?
Automatic mixture control stuck in the extended
position.
70. A punctured float in a float-type carburetor will cause the
85. Float-type carburetors which are equipped with
fuel level to
economizers are normally set for
 their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising weakened/damaged?
speeds and enriched by means of the economizer At the sleeve and flare junction
system at higher power settings. 5. The maximum distance between end fittings to which
86. What is the possible cause of an engine running rich at a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50
full throttle if it is equipped with a float-type carburetor? inches. The minimum hose length to make such a
connection should be
Clogged main air bleed.
52-1/2 inches
87. The use of less than normal throttle opening during 6. Which statement (s) about Military Standard (MS)
starting will cause flareless fittings is/are correct?
a rich mixture. 1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
88. The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used with normally tightened by turning the nut a specified
continuous flow fuel injector nozzles is to amount, rather than being torqued
2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be
aid in proper fuel vaporization.
assembled clean and dry without lubrication
89. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and 3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
air to obtain a correct fuel-to-air ratio. Which of the following normally tightened by applying a specified torque
weighs the most? to the nut
100 parts of dry air. 1
90. Reciprocating engine power will be decreased at all 7. Which statement is true regarding flattening of
altitudes if the tubing in bends?
Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the
humidity is increased.
original diameter is permissible
91. Select the correct statement concerning the idle system of 8. From the following sequences of steps, indicate the
a conventional float-type carburetor. proper order you would use to make a single flare on a
The low pressure between the edges of the throttle piece of tubing
valve and the throttle body pulls the fuel from the idle 1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the
passage. flaring block
93. An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture control 2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top of
in order to prevent the mixture from becoming too the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime
3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube
rich at high altitudes. 4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a
94. To determine the float level in a float-type carburetor, a lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the
measurement is usually made from the top of the fuel in the plunger one-half turn after each blow
float chamber to the 5. Tightened the clamp bar securely to prevent
parting surface of the carburetor. slippage
6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube
95. The economizer system of a float-type carburetor
3,1,6,2,5,4
performs which c following functions?
9. A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is
It supplies and regulates the additional fuel Used to carry a hazardous substance
required for all engine speeds abovecruising. 10. Which coupling nut should be selected for use with
96. Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float-type ½ -inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled
carburetor using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves,
from the idle discharge nozzle. and fittings?
AN-818-8
97. The fuel level within the float chamber of a
11. Which statement concerning Bernoulli’s principle is
properly adjusted float-type carburetor will be
true?
slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points
98. What is the purpose of the carburetor accelerating system? where the velocity of the fluid increases
Temporarily enrich the mixture when the 12. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube
throttle is suddenly opened. connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used
when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type
connector eliminates
FLUID LINES & FITTINGS
The possibility of reducing the flare thickness by
1. Flexible lines must be installed with wiping or ironing during the tightening process
A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length 13. Which of the following hose materials are
2. Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic
area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may fluids?
be repaired 1. Butyl
By cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a 2. Teflon
swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends 3. Buna-N
3. Rolling-type flaring Tools are used to flare X, X, 4. Neoprene
and X tubing 1 and 2
Soft copper, aluminum, brass

4. If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, 14. The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in
where is the tube most likely to be fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to
 Prevent excessing stress on the tubing 1
15. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting 29. The term ‘cold flow’ is generally associated with
Black Impressions left in natural or synthetic
16. The material specifications for a certain aircraft rubber hose material
require that a replacement oil line be fabricated
from 3/4 –inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy
tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?
0.606 inch
17. Which tubings have the characteristics (high
strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a
high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for
operation of landing gear and flaps? 30. When a Teflon hose has been in service for a
Corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4H time, what condition may have occurred and/or
18. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness what precautions should be taken when it is
and temporarily removed from the aircraft?
Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments The hose may have developed a set, or have
19. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when been manufactured with a pre-set shape, and
installing metal tubing must be supported to maintain its shape
(2) Unbonded clamps are used for support 31. A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be
when installing wiring repaired provided it does not
Regarding the above statements, Appear in the heel of a bend
32. A certain amount of slack must be left in a
Both No.1 and No.2 are true
flexible hose during installation because, when
20. What is an advantage of a double flare on
under pressure, it
aluminum tubing?
Contracts in length and expands in diameter
More resistant to damage when the joint is
33. In a metal tubing installation,
tightened
Tension is undesirable because pressurization
21. A 3/8 aircraft high pressure flexible hose as
will cause it to expand and shift
compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same
34. The best tool to use when cutting aluminum
system will
tubing, or any tubing of moderately soft metal is
Have equivalent flow characteristics a
22. When flaring aluminum tubing for use AN fittings, Hand operated wheel-type cutter
the flare angle must be 35. Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is
37° classified in size according to the
23. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of Inside diameter
aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are
no deeper than
10 percent of the wall thickness INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEM
24. When installing bonded clamps to support metal
tubing 1. The action of a carburetor air scoop is to
supply air to the carburetor, but it may also
Remove paint or anodizing from tube at
a. cool the engine.
clamp location b. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock.
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding c. increase the pressure of the incoming air by
minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or ram effect.
less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same 2. What are the three basic regulating components of a
size? sea- level boosted turbocharger system?
The minimum radius for steel is greater than for 1. Exhaust bypass assembly.
2. Compressor assembly.
aluminum
3. Pump and bearing casing.
26. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing
4. Density controller.
caused by expansion and contraction due to 5. Differential pressure controller.
temperature changes can best be avoided by 1,4,5.
Providing bends in the tubing 3. If carburetor or induction system icing is not present when
27. Which statement is true regarding the variety of carburetor heat is applied with no change in the throttle setting,
symbols utilized on the identifying color-code bands the
that are currently used on aircraft plumbing lines mixture will become richer.
symbols are always black against a white 4. Carburetor icing on an engine equipped with a constant-
speed propeller can be detected by
background regardless of line content
a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant RPM.
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct in 5. The application of carburetor heat will have which of the
reference to flare fittings? following effects?
1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder The mixture will become richer.
between the end of the threads and the flare
cone
2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical
except for material composition and identifying
colors 6.Which of the following statements regarding volumetric
3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable efficiency of an engine is true?
with AC fittings of compatible material It is possible to exceed 100 percent volumetric
efficiency of some engines by the use of
composition
superchargers of the proper type.
 7. When starting an engine equipped with a carburetor air 29. When operating an engine, the application of carburetor
heater, in what position should the heater be placed? heat will have what effect on the fuel air mixture?
Cold. Enriching the mixture until the AMC can make a
8. What is used to drive a supercharger? compensation.
Gear train from the crankshaft. 30. The purpose of an engine/inlet anti-ice system is primarily
9. Where would a carburetor air heater be located in a fuel to
injection system? prevent ice formation in engine and/or inlet areas.
None is required. 31.Boost manifold pressure is generally considered to be any
10. Into what part of a reciprocating engine induction system manifold pressure above
is deicing alcohol normally injected? 30 inches Hg.
The airstream ahead of the carburetor. 32. A carburetor air pre-heater is not generally used on
11. As manifold pressure increases in a reciprocating engine, takeoff unless absolutely necessary because of the
the loss of power and possible detonation.
density of air in the cylinder increases. 33.During full power output of an unsupercharged engine
12. When an engine with a subsonic divergent type inlet duct equipped with a float-type carburetor, in which of the
is running in place at high speed on the ground, the air following areas will the highest pressure exist?
pressure within the inlet is Carburetor air scoop.
positive. 34.What is the purpose of the density controller in a
13. What is the purpose of a turbocharger system for a small turbocharger system?
reciprocating aircraft engine? Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
Compresses air to maintain manifold pressure produced by the
constant from sea level to the critical altitude of the turbocharger at full throttle.
engine. 35. What is the purpose of the rate-of-change controller in a
14. On small aircraft engines, fuel vaporization may turbocharger system?
be increased by Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
circulating the fuel and air mixture through produced by the turbocharger at full throttle
passages in the oil sump. conditions.
15. If the turbocharger waste gate is completelyclosed. 36. What directly regulates the speed of a turbocharger?
all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine. Waste gate.
16. Bootstrapping of a turbocharged engine is indicated by 37. The absolute pressure controller on some small engines is
a transient increase in engine power. designed to sense oil pressure which flows through the waste
17. If a fire starts in the induction system during the gate actuator and then
engine starting procedure. what should the operator do? through the controllers on the turbocharger system the pressure
Continue cranking the engine. between the turbocharger and the throttle valve is called
18. What method(s) is/are used to provide clean air to upper deck pressure.
the engines of helicopters and turboprop airplanes that 38. In an airplane equipped with an alternate air system, if
have particle (sand and ice) separators installed? the main air duct air filter becomes blocked or clogged
Sharp airflow directional change to take advantage the system will automatically allow warm,
of inertia and/or centrifugal force, and filters or unfiltered air to be drawn into the engine.
engine inlet screens. 39. What indications nay shift when a turbofan engine anti-
19. Which of the following would be a factor in the failure icing (bleed air) system is turned on?
of an engine to develop full power at takeoff? 1. Tachometer.
Improper adjustment o carburetor heat valve 2. EGT.
control Linkage. 3. EPR.
20. What part of an aircraft in flight will begin to 1, 2 and 3,
accumulate ice before any other? 40.The application of carburetor heat during engine
Carburetor. operation will
21. In addition to causing accelerated wear, dust or decrease the weight of the fuel/air charge.
sand ingested by a reciprocating engine may also 41.A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing is to
cause preheat the intake air.
silicon fouling of spark plugs. 42.The purpose of a sonic venturi on a turbocharged engine is
22. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of to
the following methods? limit the amount of air that can flow from the
Alcohol spray and heated induction air. turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.
23. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of 43.Vortex dissipator systems are generally activated by
the following methods? a landing gear switch.
Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
24. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-
powered aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize
a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the
ground ahead of the
engine.
25. The purpose of a bemouth compressor inlet is to
maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.
26. An increase in manifold pressure when carburetor heat
is applied indicates
ice was forming in the carburetor.
27. The differential pressure controller in a
turbocharger system
reduces bootstrapping during part-throttle
operation.
28. Carburetor icing is most severe at
air temperatures between 30 and 40°F.