AIIMS - 2007

Full Paper
Physics
1. The graph showing the dependence of intensity of transmitted light on the angle between
polariser and analyser, is
1)
2)
3)
4)
2. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its
coordinates at a later time are (3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an
angle of
1) 15 2) 45 3) 60 4) 75
3. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If
the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is L
A
when it is at A and L
B
when it is at B, then

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1) L
A
> L
B
2) L
A
= L
B
3) the relationship between L
A
and L
B
depends upon the slope of the line AB
4) L
A
< L
B
4. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill of height 100 m. It rolls down
a smooth surface to the ground, then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally rolls
down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the ground. The velocity attained by
the ball is
1) 40 m/s
2) 30 m/s
3) 15 m/s
4) 20(30) m/s
5. The energy spectrum of -particles [number N[E] as a function of -energy E] emitted
from a radioactive source is
1)
2)
3)
4)
6. We have seen that a gamma-ray dose of 3 Gy is lethal to half the people exposed to it. If
the equivalent energy were absorbed as heat, what rise in body temperature would result?
1) 350 K
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2) 700 K
3) 1050 K
4) 1200 K
7. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected
alternatively. If the capacitance between any two adjacent plates is C, then the resultant
capacitance is
1) (n - 1)C
2) (n + 1)C
3) 2C
4) nC
8. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate of thickness t . If the angle of
incidence is small, the emerging ray would be displaced side ways by an amount
[Take n = refractive index of glass)
1)
tn/(n + 1)
2
2) t(n - 1)/n
3)
tn/(n - 1)
2
4)
t(n + 1)/n
2

9. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted -particles are
1) the electrons present inside the nucleus
2) the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
3) the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
4) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
10. The figure shows the path of a positively charged particle 1 through a rectangular region
of uniform electric field as shown in the figure. What is the direction of electric field and
the direction of deflection of particles 2, 3 and 4?
1) Top; down, top, down
2) Top; down, down, top
3) Down; top, top, down
4) Down; top, down, down
11. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and
an output impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is
1) 400
2) 800
3) 1250
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4) 1200
12. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 A.
After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to
measure currents upto 750 A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is
1) 40
2) 2
3) 0.4
4) 4 k
13. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of
oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from
the equilibrium position is
1) T/16
2) T/12
3) T/9
4) T/3
14. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The
associated magnetic moment is given by
1) qvR/2
2)
qvR
2
/3
3)
qvR
2
/2
4) qvR/3
15. A beam of 35.0 keV electrons strikes a molybdenum target, generating the X-rays. What is
the cutoff wavelength?
1) 35.5 pm
2) 17.0 pm
3) 14.95 pm
4) 19.2 pm
16. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion is
1) 0.5
2) 2
3) 0.732
4) zero
17. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length
L, of time T and of current I, would be
1)
[ML
1
T
-3
I
-1
]
2)
[ML
1
T
-2
]
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[ML
1
T
-2
]
3)
[ML
2
T
-1
I
-1
]
4)
[ML
2
T
-3
I
-2
]
18. A beam of parallel rays is brought to focus by a plano-convex lens. A thin concave lens of
the same focal length is joined to the first lens. The effect of this is
1) the focus shifts to infinity
2) the focal point shifts towards the lens by a small distance
3) the focal point shifts away from the lens by a small distance
4) the focus remains undisturbed
19. When a body falls in air, the resistance of air depends to a great extent on the shape of
the body. Three different shapes are given. Identify the combination of air resistances
which truly represents the physical situation?
(The cross-sectional areas are the same).
1) 1 < 2 < 3
2) 2 < 3 < 1
3) 3 < 2 < 1
4) 3 < 1 < 2
20.
Energy from the sun is received on earth at the rate of 2 cal per cm
2
per min. If average
wavelength of solar light be taken at 5500 then how many photons are received on the
earth per cm
2
per min?
(h = 6.6 x 10
-34
J-s 1 cal = 4.2 J).
1)
2.5 x 10
13
2)
3.9 x 10
13
3)
2.3 x 10
19
4)
2.75 x 10
19
21. The speed (v) of ripples on the surface of water depends on surface tension ( ), density
() and wavelength (). The square of speed (v) is proportional to
1) /
2) /
3) /
4)
22. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and
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magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
1) in an elliptical orbit
2) in a circular orbit
3) along a parabolic path
4) along a straight line
23. Identify the wrong description of the below figures
1.
2.
3.
4.
1) 1 represents far-sightedness
2) 2 correction for short-sightedness
3) 3 represents far-sightedness
4) 4 correction for far-sightedness
24.
Specific rotation of sugar solution is 0.01 SI units. 200 kg-m
-3
of impure sugar solution is
taken in a polarimeter tube of length 0.25 m and an optical rotation of 0.4 rad is observed.
The percentage of purity of sugar in the sample is
1) 10% 2) 30% 3) 80% 4) 99%
25. The figure below shows the plot of pV/nT versus p for oxygen gas at two different
temperatures.
Read the following statements concerning the above curves
(i) The dotted line corresponds to the 'ideal' gas behaviour
(ii) T
1
> T
2
(iii) The value of pV/nT at the point where the curves meet on the y-axis is the same for all
gases.
Which of the above statements is true?
1) (i) only
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2) (i) and (ii) only.
3) All of the above
4) None of the above
26. In the-figure, a proton moves a distance d in a uniform electric as shown in the figure.
Does the electric field do a positive or negative work on the proton? Does the electric
potential energy of the proton increase or decrease?

1) Negative, increase
2) Positive, decrease
3) Negative, decrease
4) Positive, increase
27. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5. and respectively. At t = 0
they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will
be (1/e)
2
after a time interval
1) 1/5
2) 5
3) 3
4) 1/2
28. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as
shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed
slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is
200, N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion, so that the mass gets
detached from the pan?
(Take g = 10 m/s
2
)

1) 4.0 cm
2) 10.0 cm
3) Any value less than 15.0 cm
4) 12.0 cm
29. The figure shows three circuits with identical batteries, inductors and resistance. Rank the
circuits according to the currents through the battery just after the switch is closed,
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greatest first.
1) i
2
> i
3
> i
1
2) i
2
> i
1
> i
3
3) i
1
> i
2
> i
3
4) i
1
> i
3
> i
2
30. A six pole generator with fixed field excitation developes an emf of 100 V, when operating
at 1500 rpm. At what speed must it rotate to develop 120 V?
1) 600 rpm
2) 1200 rpm
3) 1500 rpm
4) 1800 rpm
31. An X-ray pulse of wavelength 4.9 is sent through a section of Wilson cloud chamber
containing a super saturated gas, and tracks of photoelectron ejected from the gaseous
atoms are observed. Two groups of tracks of lengths 1.40 cm and 2.02 cm are noted. If
the range-energy relation for cloud chamber is given by R = E with = 1 cm/keV, obtain
the binding energies of the two levels from which electrons are emitted. Given
h = 6.63 x 10
-34
J-s, e = 1.6 x 10
-19
J.
1) 0.52 keV
2) 0.65 eV
3) 0.65 KeV
4) 0.85 keV
32. In a detector, output circuit consists of R = 10 k and C = 100 F. The frequency of carrier
signal it can detect is
1) > > 1 MHz
2) 0.01 kHz
3) > > 1GHz
4)
10
4
Hz
33. An asteroid of mass m is approaching earth, initially at a distance of 10 R
e
with speed v
i
. It
hits the earth with a speed v
f
(R
e
and M
e
are radius and mass of earth), then
1)
v
2
f
= v
2
i
+ (Gm/M
e
R) (1 - (1/10))
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2)
v
2
f
= v
2
i
+ (4GM
e
/R
e
) (1 + (1/10))
3)
v
2
f
= v
2
i
+ (2GM
e
/R
e
) (1 - (1/10))
4)
v
2
f
= v
2
i
+ (2Gm/R
e
) (1 - (1/10))
34. The figure shows three situations when an electron with velocity travels through a
uniform magnetic field . In each case, what is the direction of magnetic force on the
electron?
1) +ve z-axis, -ve x-axis, +ve y-axis
2) -ve z-axis, -ve x-axis and zero
3) +ve z-axis, +ve y-axis and zero
4) -ve z-axis, +ve x-axis and zero
35. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0C and the hot junction is kept at TC,
then the relation between neutral temperature (T
n
) and temperature of inversion (T
i
) is
1) T
n
= T
i
/2
2) T
n
= 3T
i
3) T
n
= T
i
- 2T
4) T
n
= T
i
+ 2T
36. A particle is thrown above, then correct v-t graph will be
1)
2)
3)
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4)
37. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If
the magnetic flux linked with the primary coil is given by =
0
+ 4t , where is in
weber, t is time in second and
0
is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary
coil is
1) 60 V
2) 120 V
3) 180 V
4) 210 V
38. Mass spectrometric analysis of potassium and argon atoms in a Moon rock sample shows
that the ratio of the number of (stable)
40
Ar atoms present to the number of (radioactive)
40
K atoms is 10.3. Assume that all the argon atoms were produced by the decay of
potassium atoms, with a half-life of 1.25 x 10
9
yr. How old is the rock?
1)
1.95 x 10
11
yr
2)
1.95 x 10
9
yr
3)
4.37 x 10
9
yr
4)
2.37 x 10
11
yr
39. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a
factor of
1) 10
2) 100
3) 1000
4) 10000
40. In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles
denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is a/an

1) p-type semiconductor
2) insulator
3) metal
4) n-type semiconductor
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Directions for question 41 to 60 :
In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a
corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the
correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
41. Assertion : A ladder is more apt to slip, when you are high up on it than when you just
begin to climb.
Reason : At the high up on a ladder, the torque is large and on climbing up the torque is
small.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
42. Assertion : Water in a U-tube executes SHM, the time period for mercury filled up to the
same height in the U-tube be greater than that in case of water.
Reason : The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum goes on increasing.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
43. Assertion : In taking into account the fact that any object which floats must have an
average density less than that of water, during world war I, a number of cargo vessels are
made of concrete.
Reason : Concrete cargo vessels were filled with air.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
44. Assertion : A portable AM radio set must be kept horizontal to receive the signals
properly.
Reason : Radio waves are polarised electromagnetic waves
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
45. Assertion : If earth did not have atmosphere, its average surface temperature would be
lower than what is now.
Reason : Green house effect of the atmosphere would be absent if earth did not have
atmosphere.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
46. Assertion : Light emitting diode (LED) emits spontaneous radiation.
Reason : LED are forward biased p-n junctions.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
47. Assertion : Optical fibre communication has immunity to cross-talk.
Reason : Optical interference between fibres is zero.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
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48. Assertion : The knowledge of Albedo helps us to estimate the atmosphere of a planet.
Reason : The clouds are not good reflectors of light.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
49. Assertion : The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is greater in
silicon than in germanium.
Reason : Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in germanium.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
50. Assertion : The pattern and position of fringes always remain same even after the
introduction of transparent medium in a path of one of the slits.
Reason : The central fringe is bright or dark does not depend upon the initial phase
difference between the two coherence sources.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
51. Assertion : A biconvex lens of focal length 10 cm is split into two equal parts by a plane
parallel to its principal axis. The focal length of the each part will be 20 cm.
Reason : Focal length does not depend on the radii of curvature of two surfaces.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
52. Assertion : The acceleration of a body down a rough inclined plane is greater than the
acceleration due to gravity.
Reason : The body is able to slide on a inclined plane only when its acceleration is greater
than acceleration due to gravity.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
53. Assertion : Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) provides two dimensional images.
Reason : Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) provides three dimensional images.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
54. Assertion : While measuring the thermal conductivity of liquid experimentally, the upper
layer is kept hot and the lower layer is kept cold.
Reason : This avoids heating of liquid by convection.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
55. Assertion : The temperature of the surface of the sun is approximately 6000 K. If we take
a big lens and focus the sun rays, we can produce a temperature of 8000 K.
Reason : This highest temperature can be produced according to second law of
thermodynamics.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
56. Assertion : Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.
Reason : Absolute zero temperature is not zero energy temperature.
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1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
57. Assertion : Ocean waves hitting a beach are always found to be nearly normal to the
shore.
Reason : Ocean waves hitting a beach are assumed as plane waves.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
58. Assertion : The lightning conductor at the top of high building has sharp pointed ends.
Reason : The surface density of charge at sharp points is very high resulting in setting up
of electric wind.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
59. Assertion : Two short magnets are placed on a cork which floats on water. The magnets
are placed such that the axis of one produced bisects the axis of other at right angles.
Then the cork has neither translational nor rotational motion.
Reason : Net force on the cork is zero.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
60. Assertion : The speed of whirlwind in a tornado is alarmingly high.
Reason : If no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity remains conserved.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
Chemistry
61. The correct order of basic strength is
1)
H
2
O < OH
-
< CH
3
OH < CH
3
O
-
2)
CH
3
OH < H
2
O < CH
3
O
-
< OH
-
3)
H
2
O < CH
3
OH < OH
-
< CH
3
O
-
4)
OH
-
< H
2
O < CH
3
O
-
< CH
3
OH
62. The major product of the following reaction is

1) (CH
3
)
2
C = CH
2
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2) butan-2-one
3)
4) isobutyraldehyde
63.
The solubility product of As
2
O
3
is 10.8 x 10
-9
. It is 50% dissociated in saturated solution.
The solubility of salt is
1)
10
-3
2)
2 x 10
-2
3)
3 x 10
-3
4)
6.2 x 10
-9
64. An aliphatic amine on treatment with alcoholic carbon disulphide and mercuric chloride
forms ethyl isothiocyanate, the reaction is known as
1) Hofmann's reaction
2) Hofmann's rearrangement
3) Hofmann's mustard oil reaction
4) Hofmann's bromamide degradation reaction
65.
A solution containing 10g per dm
3
of urea (molecular mass = 60g mol
-1
) is isotonic with a
5% solution of a non volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non volatile solute is
1)
225 g mol
-1

2)
250 g mol
-1
3)
275 g mol
-1
4)
300 g mol
-1
66. Supercritical CO
2
is used as
1) dry ice
2) fire fighting
3) a solvent for extraction of organic compounds from natural sources
4) a highly inert medium for carrying out various reactions
67.
One mole of methanol when burnt in O
2
, gives out 723 kJ mo1
-1
heat. If one mole of O
2
is
used, what will be the amount of heat evolved?
1) 823 kJ
2) 1024 kJ
3) 482 kJ
4) 541 kJ
68. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms
of Arrhenius equation k = Ae
-E
a
/RT
. Activation energy (E
a
) of the reaction can be
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of Arrhenius equation k = Ae
-E
a
/RT
. Activation energy (E
a
) of the reaction can be
calculated by ploting
1) log k vs log T
2) log k vs (1/T)
3) k vs 1/T
4) k vs (1/log T)
69. Rayon is
1) natural silk
2) artificial silk
3) natural plastic or rubber
4) synthetic plastic
70. The density of air is 0.001293 g/cc at STP. Its vapour density is
1) 0.0014
2) 7.2862
3) 14.49
4) 8.2706
71. The type of isomerism observed in urea molecule is
1) chain
2) position
3) geometrical
4) tautomerism
72. The half-life for the reaction N
2
O
5
2NO
2
+ (1/2)O
2
is 2.4 h at STP. Starting with 10.8 g
of N
2
O
5
how much oxygen will be obtained after a period of 9.6 h?
1) 2.5 L
2) 2.36 L
3) 1.05 L
4) 2.07 L
73. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases
because
1) adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction
2) adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction
3) the concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes
high due to adsorption
4) in the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules become large
74. Litharge is chemically
1) PbO
2) PbO
2
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3) Pb
3
O
4
4) Pb(CH
3
COO)
2
75. When H
2
S gas is passed through the HCl containing aqueous solution of CuCl
2
, HgCl
2
,
BiCl
3
and CoCl
2
, it does not precipitate out
1) CuS
2) HgS
3) Bi
2
S
3
4) CoS
76. When electric discharge is passed through neon at low pressure, the colour of the glow is
1) red
2) blue
3) yellow
4) orange
77. Which one of the following is the true covalent oxide of iodine?
1) I
2
O
4
2) I
2
O
5
3) I
2
O
7
4) I
2
O
9
78. The "saponification value" of an oil or fat is measured in term of
1) NH
4
OH
2) NaOH
3) KOH
4) C
2
H
5
OH
79. Methyl acetate and ethyl acetate can be distinguished by
1) hot alkaline KMnO
4
2) neutral FeCl
3
3) iodoform test
4) none of the above
80. The species having tetrahedral shape is
1)
[PdCl
4
]
2-
2)
[Ni(CN)
4
]
2-
3)
[Pd(CN)
4
]
3-
4)
[NiCl
4
]
2-
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81. At the high pressure, Langmuir adsorption isotherm takes the form
1) x/m = aP/(1+ bP)
2) x/m = a/b
3) x/m = aP
4) m/x = (b/a) + (1/aP)
82. Hydrogen can be prepared by the action of dil H
2
SO
4
on
1) copper
2) iron
3) lead
4) mercury
83. Plexiglass is a commercial name of
1) glyptal
2) polyacrylo nitrile
3) polymethyl methacrylate
4) polyethyl acrylate
84. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 found to be 0.295 V at
25C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be
1)
3 x 10
11
2)
5 x 10
12
3)
7 x 10
2
4)
1 x 10
10
85. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of
NaOH?
1) CH
3
CH
2
Cl
2) C
2
H
4
Cl
2
3) CCl
3
.CHO
4) CHCl
3
86.
The compound is used as:
1) antiseptic
2) antibiotic
3) analgesic
4) pesticides
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87. The compound X in the reaction,

1)

2)

3)
4)

88. Planar structure is shown by
1)
CO
3
2-
2) BCl
3
3) N(SiH
3
)
3
4) all of these
89.
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is -119.5 kJ mol
-1
. If resonance energy of
benzene is -150.4 kJ mol
-1
, its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be
1)
-208.1 kJ mol
-1
2)
-369.9 kJ mol
-1
3)
-378.5 kJ mol
-1
4)
-578.9 kJ mol
-1

90. The decreasing order of the stability of the ions
I.
II.
III.
1) I > II > III
2) III > II > I
3) II > III > I
4) II > I > III
91.
With K
4
[Fe(CN)
6
], Cu
2+
ions gives
1) a blue ppt
2) a bluish green ppt
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3) a blood red ppt
4) a reddish brown ppt
92. The basic character of the transition metal monoxide follows the order
1) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
2) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
4) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
93. A current of 96.5 A is passed for 18 min between nickel electrodes in 500 mL solution of
2M Ni(NO
3
)
2
. The molarity of solution after electrolysis would be
1) 0.56 M
2) 0.92 M
3) 0.725 M
4) 2.25 M
94.
If AgI crystallises in zinc blende structure with I
-
ions at lattice points. What fraction of
tetrahedral voids is occupied by Ag
+
ions?
1) 12.5% 2) 25% 3) 50% 4) 62.5%
95. Which of the following does not exist as a Zwitter ion?
1) Glycine
2) Glutamic acid
3) Sulphanilic acid
4) p-aminobenzoic acid
96. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yield
1) secondary alcohol
2) tertiary alcohol
3) cyclopropyl alcohol
4) primary alcohol
97.
The IUPAC name of is
1) 1-hydroxy-4-methyl pentan-3-one
2) 2-methyl-5-hydroxy pentan-3-one
3) 4-methyl-3-oxopentan-1-ol
4) Hexan-1-ol-3-one
98. The hydrocarbon which does decolourise alkaline KMnO
4
solution and also does not give
any precipitate with ammoniacal silver nitrate is
1) benzene
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1) benzene
2) acetylene
3) propyne
4) butyne-1
99. The correct order of ease of dehydration of following is
1) I > II > III
2) III > II > I
3) I > III > II
4) III > I > II
100. Protein can be denatured by
1) carbon dioxide
2) carbon monoxide
3) heat
4) oxygen
Directions for question 101 to 120 :
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given followed by a
corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the
correct answer as :
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
101. Assertion : HSH bond angle in H
2
S is closer to 90 but HOH bond angle in H
2
O
is 104.5.
Reason : lp-lp repulsion is stronger in H
2
S than in H
2
O.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
102. Assertion : Average life of a radioactive element is that period in which 63% of it is
decayed. .
Reason : Average life = 1.44t
1/2
.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
103. Assertion : At high pressure, the compression factor Z is (1 + (Pb/RT)).
Reason : At high pressure van der Waals' equation is modified as P(V - b) = RT.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
104. Assertion : Viscocity of a liquid decreases on increasing the temperature.
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Reason : Evaporation of liquid increases with rise in temperature.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
105.
Assertion : On mixing 500 mL of 10
-6
MCa
2+
ion and 500 mL of 10
-6
M F
-1
ion, the
precipitate of CaF
2
will be obtained.
K
sp
(CaF
2
= 10
-18
)
Reason : If K
sp
is greater than ionic product, a precipitate will develop.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
106. Assertion : The conversion of fresh precipitate to colloidal state is called peptization.
Reason : It is caused by addition of common ions.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
107. Assertion : For the combustion of methane,
E > H
Reason : H is related by E by the expression.
H = E + nRT
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
108. Assertion : According to Kohlrausch law the molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte at
infinite dilution is sum of molar conductivities of its ions.
Reason : The current carried by cation and anion is always equal.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
109. Assertion : CH bond in ethyne is shorter than CH bonds in ethene.
Reason : Carbon atom in ethene is sp hybridised while it is sp
2
in ethyne.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
110. Assertion : Mercury vapour is shining silvery in appearance.
Reason : Mercury is a metal with shining silvery appearance.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
111. Assertion : H
3
PO
3
is a dibasic acid.
Reason : There are two H atoms directly attached to P.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
112. Assertion : FF bond in F
2
molecule is strong.
Reason : F atom is small in size.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
113. Assertion : In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, Na is preferentially discharged at
mercury cathode forming sodium amalgam.
Reason : It is due to the fact that hydrogen has a high over voltage at mercury cathode.
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Reason : It is due to the fact that hydrogen has a high over voltage at mercury cathode.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
114.
Assertion : Cu
2+
and Cd
2+
are separated by first adding KCN solution and then passing
H
2
S gas.
Reason : KCN reduces Cu
2+
to Cu
+
and form a complex with it.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
115. Assertion : Amines are more basic than esters and ethers.
Reason : Nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen. It is in better position to
accommodate the positive charge on the proton.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
116. Assertion : Alcohols have higher boiling points than ethers of comparable molecular
masses.
Reason : Alcohols and ethers are isomeric in nature.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
117. Assertion : During test for nitrogen with Lassaigne extract on adding FeCl
3
solution
sometimes a red precipitate is obtained.
Reason : Sulphur is also present.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
118. Assertion : NaCl is precipitated when HCl gas is passed in a saturated solution of NaCl.
Reason : HCl is strong acid.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
119. Assertion : Chlorine has higher electron affinity than fluorine.
Reason : Chlorine is a poor oxidising agent than fluorine.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
120. Assertion : The hydrolysis of methyl acetate by dil. HCl is a pseudo first order reaction.
Reason : HCl acts as a catalyst for the hydrolysis.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
Biology
121. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying
description?
1) Thyroid Hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism
2) Thymus Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty.
3) Parathyroid Secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions
from blood into bones during calcification
4) Pancreas Delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimu
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lates glycolysis in liver
122. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
1) a reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
2) a reduction in stem cell production
3) loss of antibody mediated immunity
4) loss of cell mediated immunity
123. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tobacum flowers only during
short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced
to flower at the same time and can be cross fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring.
What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tobacum to be separate
species?
1) They are physiologically distinct
2) They are morphologically distinct
3) They cannot interbreed in nature
4) They are reproductively distinct
124. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacetria
1) lag, log, stationary, decline phase
2) lag, log, stationary phase
3) stationary, lag, log, decline phase
4) decline, lag, log phase
125. Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What
percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be
affected by this disorder?
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
126. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygene. Following the cross
AABBCC (dark colour) x aabbcc (light colour), in F
2
generation what proportion of the
progeny is likely to resemble either parent?
1) Half
2) Less than 5 percent
3) One third
4) None of the above
127. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
1) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
2) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
3) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
4) increased population of aquatic food web organisms
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128. E.coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radioactive thynidine for five
minutes. Then it was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following
observation will be correct?
1) Both the strands of DNA will be radioactive
2) One strand radioactive
3) Each strand half radioactive
4) None is radioactive
129. A sewage treatment process in which a portion of the decomposer bacteria present in the
waste is recycled into the beginning of the process, is called
1) cyclic treatment
2) primary treatment
3) activated sludge treatment
4) tertiary treatment
130. An artificial pace-maker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in
patients
1) having 80% blockage of the three main coronary arteries
2) having a very high blood pressure
3) with irregularity in the heart rhythm
4) suffering from arteriosclerosis
131. What is common among silver fish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?
1) Compound eyes
2) Poison glands
3) Jointed appendages
4) Metamorphosis
132. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consists of short sequences of
1) thymine rich repeats
2) cytosine rich repeats
3) adenine rich repeats
4) guanine rich repeats
133. Match the following ovular structure with post fertilization structure and select the correct
alternative
A Ovule 1 Endosperm
B Funiculus 2 Aril
C Nucellus 3 Seed
D Polar nuclei 4 Perisperm
Codes
1) A=>2 B=>3 C=>4 D=>1
2) A=>2 B=>3 C=>1 D=>4
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3) A=>3 B=>2 C=>4 D=>1
4) A=>3 B=>2 C=>1 D=>4
134. Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume
(1) Tidal volume
(2) Residual volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Vital capacity
1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4
2) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4
3) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3
135. What is a keystone species?
1) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community,
yet has a huge impact on the community's organization and survival
2) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the
community's organization
3) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the
community
4) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affect
many other species
136. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
1) bombarding the seeds with DNA
2) crossing of two inbred parental lines
3) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
4) inducing mutations
137. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a
pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to
obtain maximum seed yield?
1) Frequent irrigation of the crop
2) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins alongwith a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
3) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5-
trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
4) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
138. Match the following
A tRNA 1 Linking of amino acids
B mRNA 2 Transfer of genetic information
C rRNA 3 Nucleolar organising region
D
Peptidyl
transferase
4
Transfer of amino acid
from cytoplasm of ribosome
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Codes:
1) A=>4 B=>2 C=>3 D=>1
2) A=>1 B=>4 C=>3 D=>2
3) A=>1 B=>2 C=>3 D=>4
4) A=>1 B=>3 C=>2 D=>4
139. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other
methods involving radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which
were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary period for different groups
of organisms, includes
1) study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils
2) study of the conditions of fossilization
3) Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA
4) study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
140. Auxospores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by
1) several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria
2) several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
3) some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
4) some cyanobacteria and many diatoms
141. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in
1) association of 30S, mRNA with formyl-met-t RNA
2) association of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
3) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
4) binding of 30 subunit of ribosome with mRNA
142. An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on
the outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed, because
1) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
2) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
3) all potassium ions leave the axon
4) all sodium ions enter the axon
143. Formation of non-functional methaemoglobin causes blue-baby syndrome. This is due to
1) excess of arsenic concentration in drinking water
2) excess of nitrates in drinking water
3) deficiency of iron in food
4) increased methane content in the atmosphere
144. Hybridomas are the fusion product of
1) normal antibody producing cell with myeloma
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2) abnormal antibody producing cell with myeloma
3) sex cells with myeloma
4) bone cells with myeloma
145. Patients suffering from cholera are given a saline drip because
1)
Na
+
ions help in stopping nerve impulses and hence, sensation of pain
2)
Na
+
ions help in the retention of water in the body tissues
3) NaCl is an important component of energy supply
4) NaCl furnishes mot of the fuel required for cellular activity
146. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids will be (UAC) is
mutated to UAA?
1) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
2) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
3) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
4) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
147. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during early months
of pregnancy gave birth to children with
1) no spleen
2) hare- lip
3) extra fingers and toes
4) under developed limbs
148. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females, but human beings with such genotype
are abnormal males. It shows that
1) Y-chromosome is essential for sex determination in Drosophila
2) Y-chromosome in female determinating in Drosophila
3) Y-chromosome is male determining in human beings
4) Y-chromosome has no role in sex determination either in Drosophila or in human
beings
149. On the basis of symptoms of chlorosis in leaves a student inferred that this was due to
deficiency of nitrogen. The inference could be correct only if we assume that yellowing of
leaves appeared first in
1) old leaves
2) young leaves
3) young leaves followed by mature leaves
4) mature leaves followed by young leaves
150. Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths
1) 400 - 700 nm
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2) 400 - 900 nm
3) 300 - 450 nm
4) 500 - 600 nm
151. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a
two-chambered fish-like heart, three chambered frog-like heart and finally four-
chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement by approximated?
1) Biogenetic law
2) Hardy-Weinberg law
3) Lamarck's principle
4) Mendelian principles
152. Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding an Institute and its location
1) National Institute of VirologyPune
2) National Institute of Communicable DiseaseLucknow
3) Central Drug Research InstituteKasauli
4) National Institute of NutritionMumbai
153. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because
1) these are small circular DNA molecules which can integrate with host chromosomal
DNA
2) these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site
3) these can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
4) these often carry antibiotic resistance genes
154. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1) RhizobiumParasite in the roots of leguminous plants
2) MycorrhizaeMineral uptake from soil
3) YeastProduction of biogas
4) MyxomycetesThe disease ringworm
155. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may
lead to
1) vitamin A toxicity
2) kidney stones
3) hypercholesterolemia
4) urine laden with ketone bodies
156. Which of the following statement is true?
1) Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen
2) Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow lumen
3) Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen
4) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen
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4) Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen
157. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of
1) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of
branching
2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1, 4, glycosidic bond
3) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain
and , 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
4) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1, 4 glycosidic bond
158. Diphtheria is caused by
1) poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue
2) poisons released from dead bacterial cells into the host tissue
3) poisons released by virus into the host tissues
4) excessive immune response by the host's body
159. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its value/count
in a normal human adult?
1) Urea 5-10 mg/100 mL of blood
2) Blood sugar (fasting) 70-100 mg/100 mL
3) Total blood volume 5-6
4) ESR in Wintrobe method 9 -15 mm in males and 20-34 mm in females
160. In a given plant, red colour (R) of fruits is dominant over white fruit (r) : and tallness (T) is
dominant over dwarfness (t). If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant of
genotype rrtt, what will be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the next
generation?
1) 20% 2) 40% 3) 50% 4) 60%
Directions for question 161 to 180 :
In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a
corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statement, mark the
correct answer as :
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
161. Assertion : Euglena is a plant due to presence of chlorophyll.
Reason : Euglena can not be classified on the basis of two kingdom system.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
162. Assertion : In fungi sexual apparatus decrease in complexity from lower to higher forms.
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Reason : In algae sexual apparatus increases in complexity from simple to the higher
forms.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
163. Assertion : The true nucleus is generally absent in E.coli and other prokaryotes.
Reason : An undifferentiated, unorganised fibrillar nucleus without any limiting
membrane is observed in prokaryotic cells.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
164.
Assertion : The imbalance in concentration of Na
+
, K
+
and proteins generates resting
potential.
Reason : To maintain the unequal distribution of Na
+
and K
+
, the neurons use electrical
energy.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
165. Assertion : Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.
Reason : There are present one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in
unsaturated fatty acids.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
166. Assertion : A coenzymes or metal ions that is very tightly bound to enzyme protein is
called prosthetic group.
Reason : A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group
is called apoenzyme.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
167. Assertion : Amber codon is a termination codon.
Reason : If in a mRNA, a termination codon is present, the protein synthesis stops
abruptly whether the protein synthesis is complete or not.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
168. Assertion : In cymose tap root system, oldest branch lies very near to the growing point
of the root while the youngest branch is farthest away from it.
Reason : In cymose tap root system, the primary root itself stops growing after some
time; but secondary roots carry on further growth of the root system.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
169. Assertion : 7-celled, 8 nucleate and monosporic embryosac is called Polygonum type of
embryo sac.
Reason : It was discovered by HofMeister for the first time in Polygonum.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
170. Assertion : The quiescent centre acts as a reservoir of relatively resistant cells which
constitute a permanent source of active initials.
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Reason : The cells of the inactive region of quiescent centre become active when the
previous active initials get damaged.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
171. Assertion : Phase of cell division is also known as formative phase.
Reason : In formative phase new cells are produced from pre-existing cells through
meiosis division.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
172. Assertion : Nitrogen fixing enzyme in legume root nodules functions at low oxygen
concentration.
Reason : Low oxygen concentration is provided by leghaemoglobin.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
173. Assertion : When dried seeds of pea are placed in a tin and water added up to their
upper level and then a lid is putted lightly over it. Within an hour, the lid will be blown off.
Reason : Due to rapid cell division in pea seeds.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
174. Assertion : Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some eubacterial species.
Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non cyclic pathway of
photosynthesis evolved.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
175. Assertion : Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been
chlorinated.
Reason : Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
176. Assertion : Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as
India.
Reason : No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
177. Assertion : Gene flow increase genetic variations.
Reason : The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their
removal from the donor population affects allele frequency.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
178. Assertion : Mast cells in the human body release excessive amount of inflammatory
chemicals which cause allergic reactions.
Reason : Allergens in the environment on reacting human body stimulate mast cells in
certain individuals.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
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179. Assertion : Thick layers of muscles are present in the wall of alimentary canal.
Reason : These muscles help in the mixing of food materials with the enzymes coming
from different glands in the alimentary canal.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
180. Assertion : Phenylketonuria is a recessive hereditary disease caused by body's failure to
oxidise an amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine, because of defective enzyme.
Reason : It results the presence of phenylalanine acid in urine.
1) (a) 2) (b) 3) (c) 4) (d)
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Answer Key
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 5) 3 6) 2 7) 1 8) 2 9) 2 10) 1
11) 3 12) 2 13) 2 14) 1 15) 1 16) 1 17) 4 18) 1 19) 3 20) 3
21) 1 22) 2 23) 1 24) 3 25) 3 26) 1 27) 4 28) 2 29) 1 30) 4
31) 1 32) 1 33) 3 34) 2 35) 1 36) 1 37) 2 38) 3 39) 2 40) 1
41) 1 42) 4 43) 1 44) 2 45) 1 46) 1 47) 1 48) 3 49) 2 50) 4
51) 4 52) 4 53) 2 54) 1 55) 4 56) 2 57) 1 58) 1 59) 1 60) 3
61) 3 62) 4 63) 2 64) 3 65) 4 66) 3 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 3
71) 4 72) 3 73) 2 74) 1 75) 4 76) 1 77) 1 78) 3 79) 3 80) 4
81) 2 82) 2 83) 3 84) 4 85) 4 86) 3 87) 2 88) 4 89) 1 90) 4
91) 4 92) 4 93) 2 94) 3 95) 4 96) 4 97) 1 98) 1 99) 2 100) 3
101) 2 102) 2 103) 1 104) 2 105) 4 106) 2 107) 1 108) 3 109) 3 110) 4
111) 3 112) 4 113) 1 114) 2 115) 1 116) 2 117) 1 118) 2 119) 3 120) 2
121) 2 122) 4 123) 3 124) 1 125) 2 126) 2 127) 3 128) 2 129) 3 130) 3
131) 3 132) 4 133) 3 134) 2 135) 1 136) 2 137) 4 138) 1 139) 3 140) 1
141) 1 142) 2 143) 2 144) 1 145) 2 146) 3 147) 4 148) 3 149) 1 150) 1
151) 1 152) 1 153) 2 154) 2 155) 3 156) 1 157) 4 158) 1 159) 2 160) 3
161) 2 162) 2 163) 1 164) 3 165) 4 166) 3 167) 1 168) 1 169) 3 170) 1
171) 3 172) 1 173) 3 174) 2 175) 3 176) 3 177) 2 178) 1 179) 1 180) 1
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