6 To 10 DYK Book Back Social EM

6th To 10th DYK - Book Back Social Science - EM
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6th Social Science Lesson 1
1] What is History?
Do You Know?
History is the study of past events in chronological order.
The term history has been derived from the Greek word “Istoria” which means ‘learning by
enquiry’.
Numismatics – The study of Coins, Epigraphy – The study of inscription
A Mighty Emperor Ashoka: The most famous ruler of ancient India was Emperor Ashoka. It
was during his period that Buddhism spread to different parts of Asia. Ashoka gave up war
after seeing many people grieving death after the Kalinga war. He embraced Buddhism and
then devoted his life to spread the message of peace and dharma. his service for the cause of
public good was exemplary. He was the first ruler to give up war after victory. He was the first
to build hospitals for animals. He was the first to lay roads. Ashoka Chakra with 24 spokes in
our national flag was taken from the Sarnath Pillar of Ashoka.
Even though Emperor Ashoka was great, his greatness had been unknown until 19th century.
The material evidence provided by William Jones, James Prinsep and Alexander
Cunningham revealed the greatness of Emperor Ashoka.
Based on these accounts, Charles Allen wrote a book titled The Search for the India’s Lost
Emperor, which provided a comprehensive account of Ashoka. Many researches made
thereafter brought Asoka’s glorious rule to light. These inscriptions were observed on the
rocks, Sanchi Stupa and Sarnath Pillar and helped to understand the greatness of Ashoka to
the world.
Choose the correct answer:
1. What was the step taken by the early man to collect his food?
(a) Trade
(b) Hunting
(c) Painting
(d) Rearing of animals
Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:
1. Statement: Pre historic man went along with the dog for hunting.
Reason: Dogs with its sniffing power would find out other animals.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct
(c) Statement is wrong, and reason is correct
Winmeen E Learning 1
(d) Both Statement and reasons are wrong.
2. Statement: The objects used by the early man are excavated. They are preserved to know
the lifestyle of the people.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement:
(a) Museum
(b) Burial materials
(c) Stone tools
(d) Bones
3. Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Old Stone age - Stone tools
(b) Rock paintings - Walls of the caves
(c) Copper plates - A source of history
(d) Cats - First domesticated
4. Find the odd one:
(a) Paintings were drawn on rocks and caves.
(b) There were paintings depicting hunting scenes.
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Old Stone Age man lived mostly in _______________.
2. ____________ is the father of history.
3. _____________ was the first animal tamed by Old Stone Age man.
4. Inscriptions are ___________ sources.
5. Ashoka Chakra has ____________ spokes.
State true or false:
1. Stone tools belonging to Old Stone Age have been excavated at Athirampakkam near
Chennai.
2. The materials used by the ancient people are preserved in the museums by the
Archaeological Department.
3. During the period of Ashoka, Buddhism spread across the country.
Match the following:
1. Rock paintings - Copper plates
2. Written records - The most famous king
3. Ashoka - Devaram
4. Religious Literature - To understand the lifestyle
Answers:
1.Hunting
1. Statement and reason are correct.
2. Museum
3. Cats- First domesticated
4. It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.
Fill in the blanks:
1. Caves 2. Herodotus 3. Dog 4. Archaeological 5. 24
State True or False:
1. True 2. True 3. True
1. To understand the lifestyle 2. Copper plates 3. The most famous King 4. Devaram
2] Human Evolution
Do You Know?
The story of human evolution can be scientifically studied with the help of archaeology and
anthropology.
Archaeology is the study of pre historic humans remained materials used by pre historic
humans. Excavated material remains are the main source for archaeological studies.
Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history. The word anthropology is
derived from two Greek words: anthropos meaning “man” or “human”; and logos, meaning
“thought” or “reason.” Anthropologist attempt by the investigating the whole range of human
development and behaviour, to achieve a total description of cultural and social phenomena.
People and their Habitat: Australopithecus – East Africa; Homohabilies – South Africa;
Homoerectus – Africa and Asia; Neanderthal – Eurasia (Europe and Asia) ; Cro-Magnons –
France; Peking – China; Homo sapiens – Africa; Heidelbergs – London.
Cromagnons learned to live in caves. Lascaus caves in France are the evidence for cave living
of Cromagnons. They habitude to bury the dead.
Every today in the villages of Nilgiris district in Tamil Nadu, people have the habit of making
fire without use of match box.
1. The process of evolution is _____________.
(a) Direct
(b) indirect
(c) gradual
(d) fast
2. Tanzania is situated in the continent of ______________.
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Europe
1. Statement: Migration of man of different parts of the world resulted in changes of physic
and colour.
Reason: Climate changes.
(a) Statement is correct
(b) Reason is wrong
(c) Statement and Reason is correct
(d) Statement and Reason is wrong
Find out the Right pair:
1. Australopithecus - Walked on both legs
2. Homo habilis - Upright man
3. Homo erectus - Wise man
4. Homo sapiens - Less protruding face
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ unearthed the footprints of early humans in Tanzania.
2. Millions Of years ago, our ancestors led a ______________ life.
3. The main occupations of the ancient humans were ______________ and ______________.
4. The invention of _______________ made farming easier.
5. Rock paintings are found at ______________ in Nilgiris.
1. Anthropology is the study of coins.
2. Homo erectus (Java man) had the knowledge of fire.
3. The first scientific invention of humans was wheel.
4. Goat was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.
Answers:
1. Gradual 2. Africa
1. Statement and Reason are correct.
Find out the Right pair:
Australopithecus - Walked on both legs
Fill in the blanks:
1. Anthropologies 2. Nomadic 3. Hunting and gathering 4. Wheel 5. Karikaiyur
1. False
Correct Statement: Anthropology is the study of humans and evolutionary history.
2. True
3. True
4. False
Correct Statement: Dog was the first animal to be domesticated by humans.
3] Indus Civilisations
Do You Know?
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) was started in 1861 with Alexander Cunningham as
Surveyor. Its headquarters is located in New Delhi.
Mehergarh – the Precursor to Indus Civilisation: Mehergarh is a Neolithic site. It is located

near the Bolan Basin of Baluchistan in Pakistan. It is one of the earliest sites known. It shows
evidence of farming and herding done by man in very early times. Archaeological evidence
suggests that Neolithic culture existed in Mehergarh as early as 7000 BC (BCE) .
Bronze Age: It is a historical period characterised by the use of articles made of bronze.
Why burnt bricks are used in construction? They are strong, hard, durable, and resistant to
fire and will not dissolve in water or rain.
A granary with walls made of mud bricks, which are still in a good condition, has been
discovered in Rakhigarhi, a village in Haryana, belonging to Mature Harappan Phase.
The word ‘civilisation’ comes from the ancient Latin word civis, which means ‘city’.
This little statue was found at Mohenjo-Daro. When Sir John Marshall saw the statuette
known as the dancing girl, he said, “When I first saw them I found it difficult to believe that
they were pre-historic modelling. Such as this was unknown in the ancient worlds up to the
age of Greece. I thought that these figures had found their way into levels some 3000 years old
to which they properly belonged”.
KVT Complex (Korkai-Vanji-Thondi) spread over Afghanistan and Pakistan has many places,
names of those were mentioned in Sangam literature. Korkai, Vanji, Thondi, Matrai, Urai and
Kudalgarh are the names of places in Pakistan. Gurkay and Poompuhar in Afghanistan are
related to the cities and ports mentioned in the Sangam Age. The names of the rivers Kawri
and Pruns in Afghanistan and the rivers Kaweri Wala and Phonai in Pakistan also occur in
the Sangam literature.
Indus people used the red quartz stone called Carnelian to design jewellery.
Copper was the first metal discovered and used by humans.
The earliest form of writing was developed by Sumerians.
Radiocarbon Dating Method: A Standard Tool for Archaeologists: Also known as C14 method,
the radiocarbon method uses the radioactive isotope of carbon called carbon 14 to determine
the age of an object.
Archaeological site at Mohenjo-Daro has been declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
1. What metals were known to the people of Indus Civilisation?
(a) Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron
(b) Copper, silver, iron, but not bronze
(c) Copper, gold, iron, but not gold
(d) Copper, silver, iron, but not gold
2. Indus Civilisation belonged to
(a) Old stone age
(b) Medieval stone age
(c) New stone age
(d) Metal age
3. River valleys are said to be the cradle of civilisation because
(a) Soil is very fertile
(b) They experienced good climate
(c) They are useful for transportation
(d) Many civilisations flourished on river valleys
Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:
1. Statement: Harappan civilisation is said to be an urban civilisation.
Reason: It has well planned cities with advanced drainage system.
(a) Statement and reason are correct
(b) Statement is wrong
(c) Statement is true, but the reason is wrong
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong
2. Statement: Harappan civilisation belongs to Bronze Age.
Reason: Harappans did not know the use of iron.
(b) Statement wrong
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong
3. Statement: The engineering skill of Harappans was remarkable.
Reason: Building of docks after a careful study of tides, waves and currents.
(c) Statement is correct, but the reason is wrong
4. Which of the following statements about Mohenjo-Daro is correct?
(a) Gold ornaments were unknown.
(b) Houses were made of burnt bricks
(c) Implements were made of iron
(d) Great Bath was made water tight with the layers of natural bitumen
5. Consider the following statements:
(1) Uniformity in layout of town, streets and brick sizes
(2) An elaborate and well laid out drainage system
(3) Granaries constituted an important part of Harappan Cities
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 3
(d) All the three
6. Circle the odd one:
Oxen, sheep, buffaloes, pigs, horses
(a) ASI - John Marshall
(b) Citadel - Granaries
(c) Lothal - Dockyard
(d) Harappan civilisation - River Cauvery
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ is the oldest civilisation.
2. Archaeological Survey of India was founded by ______________.
3. ______________ were used to store grains.
4. Group of people form ___________.
State true of false:
1. Mehergarh is a Neolithic site.
2. Archaeological survey of India is responsible for preservation of cultural monuments in the

country.
3. Granaries were used to store grains.
4. The earliest form of writings was developed by Chinese.
1. Mohenjo-Daro - raised platform
2. Bronze - red quartz stone
3. Citadel - alloy
4. Carnelian - mound of dead
Answers:
1. Copper, bronze, silver, gold, but not iron. 2. Metal Age 3. Many civilisations flourished on
river valleys.
Match the Statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:
1. Statement and reason are correct.
2. Statement and reason are correct
3. Statement and reason are correct
4. Houses were made of burnt bricks and Great Bath was made water tight with the layers of
natural bitumen.
5. All the three
6. Pigs
7. Harappan civilisation - River Cauvery
Fill in the blanks:
1. Mesopotamian Civilisation 2. Alexander Cunningham 3. Granaries 4. Community
Say True or False:
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
Correct Statement: The earliest form of writing was developed by Sumerians.
1. Mound of dead 2. Alloy 3. Raised platform 4. Red quartz zone
4] Ancient Cities of Tamilagam
Do You Know?
Mesopotamian civilisation is the earliest civilisation in the world. It is 6500 years old.
Thoonga Nagaram: Madurai had Naalangadi and Allangadi. Naalangadi – Day Market;
Allangadi – Evening Market. Madurai is known as Thoonga Nagaram (the city that never
sleeps) . Madurai was a safe place where women purchased things from Allangadi without
any fear.
Poompuhar was a port. Madurai was a trading town. Kanchi was an educational centre.
1. Which of the following region has a city more than 6500 years old?
(a) Iraq
(b) Indus Valley
(c) Tamilagam
(d) Thondaimandalam
2. Which one of the following is a Tamil city?
(a) Iraq
(b) Harappan
(c) Mohenjo-Daro
(d) Kancheepuram
3. Which city is not related to the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Poompuhar
(b) Thondi
(c) Korkai
(d) Kancheepuram
4. Water management system of Tamils is known from
(i) Kallanai
(ii) Tanks in Kancheepuram
(iii) Prakirama Pandyan Tank
(iv) River Cauvery
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) i and ii are correct
5. Which is not the oldest city among the following ones?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Chennai
6. Which city is related to Keezhadi excavation?
(a) Madurai
(b) Kancheepuram
(c) Poompuhar
(d) Harappa
Tick the appropriate answer. Match the statement with the reason:
1. Statement: Goods were imported and exported from the city Poompuhar.
Reason: Bay of Bengal was suitable for trading with neighbouring countries.
(a) Statement is correct, but reason is wrong
(b) Statement and its reason is correct
(c) Statement is wrong, but reason is correct
(d) Both are wrong
2. i. Thirunavukkarasar said “kalviyil karaiillatha”. This statement refers to the city

Kancheepuram.
ii. Hiuen Tsang said, “Kancheepuram is one among the seven-sacred places of India”.
iii. Kalidasa said, “Kancheepuram is the best city among the cities”.
(a) Only i is correct
(b) Only ii is correct
(c) Only iii is correct
(d) All are correct
3. Find out the correct statement:
(a) Naalangadi - Night shop
(b) Allangadi - Day-time shop
(c) Ancient Roman coin factory was found at Poompuhar.
(d) Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai.
4. Find out the wrong statement:
(a) Megasthanes had mentioned Madurai in his account.
(b) Hiuen Tsang came to the Tamil city of Kancheepuram.
(c) Kovalan and Kannagi lived in Kancheepuram.
(d) Iraq is mentioned in Pattinapalai.
5. Find out the correct pair:
(a) Koodal Nagar - Poompuhar
(b) Thoonga Nagaram - Harappa
(c) City of Education - Madurai
(d) City of Temples - Kancheepuram
(a) Vadamalai - Gold
(b) Western Ghats - Sandal
(c) Southern Ghats - Pearls
(d) Eastern Sea - Ahil
Fill in the blanks:
1. Kanchi Kailasanathar temple was built by ___________.
2. ____________ is known as the city of temples.
3. Masathuvan means _______________.
1. Cultural relationship with the outside world developed in Poompuhar because of its trade
relationship with it.
2. Women also purchased from Allangadi of Madurai without fear.
3. Many rock cut temples were made during the Pallava period.
4. Bodhi Dharmar belonged to Kancheepuram.
Answers:
Choose the correct answers:
1. Indus Valley 2. Kancheepuram 3. Kancheepuram 4. Kallanai and Tanks in Kancheepuram
5. Chennai 6. Madurai
Tick the appropriate answer. Match the statement with the reason:
1. Statement and its reason are correct 2. All are correct
3. Pearls were exported from Uvari near Korkai 4. Kovalan and Kannagi lived in
Kancheepuram.
5. City of Temples – Kancheepuram 6. Eastern Sea - Ahil
Fill in the blanks:
1. Pallava King Raja Simha 2. Kanchi 3. A big trader
1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True
5] The Universe and Solar System
Do You Know?
The study of the Universe is called Cosmology. The term Cosmos is derived from the Greek
word ‘Kosmos’.
A light-year is the distance travelled by light in a year. Light travels at a velocity of 300,000
km per second. Sound travels at a speed of 330 m per second.
1.3 million Earths can fit inside the Sun. imagine how big the Sun is.
The distance between the Sun and the Earth is about 150 million kilometre. A flight flying at
a speed of 800 km per hour from the Earth would take 21 years to reach the Sun.
On 24th September, 2014 Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission – MOM) , launched by the Indian
Space Research Organization (ISRO) , reached the orbit of Mars to analyze its atmosphere and
topography. ISRO has now become the fourth space agency to reach Mars after the Soviet
Space programme, NASA and the European Space Agency.
ISRO launched India’s first ever Moon mission, Chandrayaan – 1 in 2008.
The Midnight Sun is a natural phenomenon that occurs in the summer months in places
north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic Circle, when the Sun remains overhead 24
hours a day.
The velocity of the Earth’s rotation varies from 1,670 km per hour at the equator to 845 km per
hour at 60o N and S latitudes and zero at the poles.
Perihelion is the Earth’s closet position to the Sun. aphelion is the farthest position of the
Earth from the Sun.
The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in the Indian Ocean covers an area on 10,500 sq.km in
the ocean.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Universe was formed after _______________ explosion.
2. ______________ is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. _______________ is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means ___________.
5. _____________ planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is _______________.
7. Earth is inclined by _____________ degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly on ___________ and ___________.
9. At the time of Perihelion, the Earth is _______________ to the Sun.
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is ____________.
Choose the best answer:
1. The movement of the Earth on its axis is called
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
2. The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
3. The galaxy in which our solar system is found is
(a) Andromeda
(b) Megallanic clouds
(c) Milky Way
(d) Starburst
4. The only celestial body where man has successfully landed
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
5. Which of the following planets can float on water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Circle the odd one out:
1. Venus, Jupiter, Neptune, Saturn
2. Sirius, Andromeda, Milky Way, Megallanic clouds
3. Pluto, Eris, Ceres, Io
4. Comet, Asteroids, Meteorites, Dwarf planets
5. Rover, Orbiter, Aeroplane, Space shuttle
1. Hottest Planet - Mars
2. Ringed Planet - Neptune
3. Red Planet - Venus
4. Somersaulting Planet - Saturn
5. Coldest Planet - Uranus
i) Consider the following statements:
1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
ii) Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
Statement I: Earth is called a watery planet.
Statement II: The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong
Name the following:
1. Cluster of stars.
2. The nearest galaxy to the solar system.
3. The brightest planet.
4. The living sphere.
5. The year which has 366 days.
Answers:
Fill in the blanks:
1. Big Bang 2. Light Year 3. Sun 4. Wanderer 5. Jupiter 6. hanrayaan I 7. 23 1/2
8. 21st March and 23rd September 9. closest 10. Terminator Line
1. Rotation 2. December 22 3. Milky Way 4. Moon 5. Saturn
1. Venus 2. Sirius 3. Io 4. Dwarf planets 5. Aeroplane
1. Venus 2. Saturn 3. Mars 4. Uranus 5. Neptune
Statement 1 and 2 is True
ii) Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
Statement I is true, II is wrong
Name the following:
1. Galaxy 2. Megallanic clouds / Andromeda 3. Venus 4. Earth 5. Leap year
6] Land and Oceans
Do You Know?
Land classification-Sangam period: Kurinji – Mountain and its environs; Mullai – Forest and
its surroundings; Marutham – Agricultural land and its adjoining areas; Neithal – Sea and its
environs; Palai – Desert region.
Isthumus: A narrow strip of land which connects two large landmasses or separate two large
water bodies.
Dharmapuri Plateau, Coimbatore Plateau and Madurai Plateau and Madurai are found in
Tamil Nadu.
The plains have been the cradle of civilisations from the earliest times. For example: the Indus
in India, the Nile valley in Egypt are some of the early civilisation which developed and
flourished.
Erosion is the process of removal of surface material from the Earth’s crust. The eroded
materials are transported and deposited on the low lying areas. This process is called as
Deposition.
If Mount Everest, which is the highest peak (8,848 metres) , was placed into the Mariana
Trench, still there would be 2,146 metres of water left. The depth in metres from the Mean Sea
Level denoted as m-.
The Spanish navigator Ferdinand Magellan named the ocean Pacific, meaning calm or
tranquil.
Palk Strait connects the Bay of Bengal and Palk Bay.
6o Channel separated Indira Point and Indonesia. 8o Channel separates Maldives and Minicoy
islands. 9o Channel separates Lakshadweep Islands and Minicoy islands. 10o Channel
separates Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
1. Which of the following is the smallest ocean on Earth?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
2. The Malacca Strait connects
(a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(d) The Pacific and Arctic Ocean
3. Which of the following oceans is the busiest ocean?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Indian Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
4. The frozen continent is
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c) Antarctica
(d) Asia
5. A narrow strip of water that connects two large water bodies
(a) A Strait
(b) An Isthmus
(c) An Island
(d) A Trench
Fill in the blanks:
1. The world’s largest continent is ______________.
2. ___________ is the mineral rich plateau in India.
3. The largest ocean is _____________.
4. Deltas are ______________ order landforms.
5. The Island continent is ___________.
1. Africa, Europe, Australia, Sri Lanka.
2. The Arctic Ocean, the Mediterranean Sea, the Indian Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean.
3. Plateau, Valley, Plain, Mountain.
4. The Bay of Bengal, the Bering Sea, the China Sea, the Tasman Sea.
5. The Andes, the Rockies, the Everest, the Himalayas.
1. The South Sandwich Trench - The Atlantic Ocean
2. The Milwaukee Trench - The Southern Ocean
3. The Mariana Trench - The Indian Ocean
4. The Eurasian basin - The Pacific Ocean
5. The Java Trench - The Arctic Ocean
1. Plains are formed by rivers.
2. The ‘South Sandwich Trench’ is founded in the Indian Ocean.
3. Plateaus have steep slopes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
ii) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
Statement I: Mountains are second order landforms.
Statement II: The Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world.
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong
Answers:
1. The Arctic Ocean 2. The Pacific and Indian Oceans 3. The Atlantic Ocean 4. Antarctica
5. A Strait
Fill in the blanks:
1. Asia 2. Chhotanagpur Plateau 3. The Pacific Ocean 4. Third 5. Australia
1. Sri Lanka 2. The Mediterranean Sea 3. Valley 4. The Bay of Bengal 5. The Everest
1. The Southern Ocean 2. The Atlantic Ocean 3. The Pacific Ocean 4. The Arctic Ocean
5. The Indian Ocean
Statement 1 and 3 is correct
ii) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
Both the statements are true
7] Understanding Diversity
Do You Know?
Mawsynram located in Meghalaya, is the land of highest rainfall. Jaisalmer located in

Rajasthan, is the land of lowest rainfall.
The Constitution of India recognises twenty-two languages. The Government of India has
declared Tamil as the first classical language in 2004. Apart from Tamil, five other Indian
languages have been declared as the classical languages, by the Government of India.
Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Oriya were announced as classical language in 2005,
2008, 2008, 2013, and 2016 respectively.
About 60 percent of the total epigraphically inscriptions found by the Archaeological Survey
of India (ASI) are from Tamil Nadu, and most of these are in the Tamil script.
Folk dances of India

State Popular dance
Tamil Nadu Karagattam, Oyillattam, Kummi, Therukoothu, Bommalattam, Puliattam,
Kolattam, Thappattam
Kerala Theyyam and Mohiniattam
Punjab Bhangra
Gujarat Garba and Dandia
Rajasthan Kalbelia and Ghoomer
Uttar Ras Lila
Pradesh
Uttarkhand Chholiya
Assam Bihu
V.A. Smith called India as an ‘Ethnological museum’, as a great variety of racial types exist.
India is known for ‘unity in diversity’. This phrase was coined by Jawaharlal Nehru, the first
Prime Minister of independent India, in his book Discovery of India.
1. India consists of _____________ States and ______________ Union territories.
(a) 27, 9
(b) 29, 7
(c) 28, 7
(d) 28, 9
2. India is known as a
(a) Continent
(b) Sub continent
(c) Island
(d) None of these
3. Mawsynram, the land of highest rainfall is located in
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland
(d) Meghalaya
4. Which one of the following religion is not practised in India?
(a) Sikhism
(b) Islam
(c) Zoroastrianism
(d) Confucianism
5. Recognised official languages of India, as per VIIth Schedule of Indian Constitution
(a) 25
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 26
6. Onam festival celebrated in
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
7. Mohiniyattam is a classical dance of
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Manipur
(d) Karnataka
8. ‘Discovery of India’ – a book was written by
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O.C
(c) Nethaji
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
9. The phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ was coined by
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rajaji
10. V.A. Smith called India as ______________
(a) Great Democracy
(b) Unique land of diversities
(c) Ethnological museum
(d) Secular nation
Fill in the blanks:
1. Geographical features and climatic conditions determine the _______________ activities

of a region.
2. Jaisalmer, the land of lowest rainfall is located in _______________.
3. Tamil was declared as classical language in the year _______________.
4. Bihu festival is celebrated in ______________.
1. Negroids - Religion
2. Coastal areas - India
3. Zoroastrianism - Fishery
4. Unity in diversity - Indian race
Answers:
Choose the correct statements:
1. 29, 7 2. Sub continent 3. Meghalaya 4. Confucianism 5. 22 6. Kerala
7. Kerala 8. Jawaharlal Nehru 9. Jawaharlal Nehru 10. Ethnological museum
Fill in the blanks:
1. Economic 2. Rajasthan 3. 2004 4. Assam
1. Indian race 2. Fishery 3. Religion 4. India
8] Achieving Equality
Do You Know?
End of Apartheid: After 27 years in prison, former South African President, Nelson Mandela,
was freed in 1990 and successfully achieved the end of apartheid in South Africa, bringing
peace to a racially divided country and leading the fight for human rights around the world.
Dr.B.R. Ambedkar: He is popularly known as Baba Saheb. He was an Indian jurist, economist,
politician and social reformer. He earned his M.A. in 1915 and then obtained a D. Sc at the
London School of Economics before being awarded Ph.D by Columbia University in 1927. He
served as the chairman of drafting committee of the constituent assembly and hence
regarded as the father of Indian Constitution. He was independent India’s first Law Minister.
He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1990.
Literacy rate – 2011 Census

High Low
S. No District Name Percentage S.No. District Name Percentage
1 Kanyakumari 92.14% 1 Dharmapuri 64.71%
2 Chennai 90.33% 2 Ariyalur 71.99%
3 Thoothukudi 86.52% 3 Vilupuram 72.08%
4 The Nilgiris 85.65% 4 Krishnagiri 725.41%
Sex Ratio – 2011 Census (Number of females per 1,000 males)

High Low
S. No District Name Sex Ratio S. No District Name Sex Ratio
1 The Nilgiris 1041 1 Dharmapuri 946
2 Thanjavur 1031 2 Salem 954
3 Nagapattinam 1025 3 Krishnagiri 956
4 Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli 1024 4 Ramanathapuram 977
1. Which one of the following is not the reason for Prejudice?
(a) Socialization
(b) Economic Benefits
(c) Authoritarian personality
(d) Geography
2. Discrimination done on the basis of gender is referred to as
(a) Gender discrimination
(b) caste discrimination
(c) Religious discrimination
(d) inequality
3. Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in
(a) Films
(b) Advertisements
(c) TV Serials
(d) All of these
4. Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(a) India 2020
(b) Wings of Fire
(c) Ignited Minds
(d) All of these
5. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
6. Viswanathan Anand became India’s first grandmaster in the year
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
7. In which sport Ilavazhagi excels
(a) Chess
(b) Wrestling
(c) Carom
(d) Tennis
8. Which article of the Constitution says discrimination against any citizen on grounds only
of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them is not permitted?
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
(d) 17(1)
9. B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
10. As per the 2011 Census the highest literate district in Tamil Nadu
(a) Namakkal
(b) Salem
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Sivagangai
Fill in the blanks:
1. People have false belief and an idea on others is called ____________.
2. A.P.J Abdul Kalam was born in _____________.
3. _____________ was the first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, India’s highest
Sport honour.
4. _____________ was the independent India’s first Law Minister.
5. As per the 2011 Census the lowest Sex ratio was in _____________.
1. Prejudice - abolition of untouchability
2. Stereotype - treating someone less fairly than others
3. Discrimination - equality before law
4. Article 14 - false view or idea about something
5. Article 17 - judge other people negatively
Answers:
1. Geography 2. Gender discrimination 3. All of these 4. All of these 5. 1997
6. 1988 7. Carom 8. 15(1) 9. 1990 10. Kanyakumari
Fill in the blanks:
1. Prejudice 2. Rameswaram 3. Viswanathan Anand 4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Dharmapuri district
1.Judge other people negatively 2. False view or idea about something 3. Treating someone
less fairly than others 4. Equality before law 5. Abolition of untouchability
9] Vedic Culture in North India and Megalithic Culture in South India
Do You Know?
Vedic Age: It is a period in the History of India between 1500 BC (BCE) – 600 BC (BCE) . It gets
its name from four ‘Vedas’.
Slash and burn agriculture: It is a farming method that involves clearing the land by cutting
and burning all the trees and plants on it. Cultivation is done there for a short time and then
abandoned. People then move to a new piece of land for cultivation.
Four Vedas: Rig, Yajur, Sama, Atharva.
National Motto: “Satyameva Jayate” “(Truth alone triumphs) ” is taken from Mundaka
Upanishad.
Classification of Vedic Age: Two phases of Vedic Age: Early Vedic Period (1500 – 1000 BC
(BCE) ) ; Later Vedic Period (1000 – c.600 BC (BCE) ) .
Bali: A tax consisting of 1/6 of the agricultural produce or cattle for a person.
Sabha: A council of elders; Samiti: Assembly of people.
Metals Known to Rig Vedic People: Gold (Hiranya) ; Iron (Shyama) ; Copper/Bronze (Ayas) .
The term ‘Megalith’ is derived from Greek. ‘Megas’, means great and ‘lithos’ means stone.
Using big stone slabs built upon the places of burial is known as Megalith.
Periplus mentions the steel imported to Rome from Peninsular India was subjected to duty in
the port of Alexandria.
Megalithic Monuments in Tamil Nadu: The people who lived during the last stages of the
New Stone Age began to follow the Megalithic system of burial. According to this system, the
dead body was placed in a big pot along with burial goods. The Megalithic monuments bear
witness to a highly advanced state of civilisation with the knowledge of iron and community
living. Dolmens are Megalithic tombs made of two or more upright stones with a single stone
lying across the burial site. Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraraghavapuram
village, Kanchipuram district, Kummalamaruthupatti, Dindigul district, and in
Narasingampatti, Madurai district.
Menhir: In Breton Language ‘Men’ means “stone” and ‘hir’, “long”. They are monolithic pillars
planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead. Menhir at Singaripalayam in
Tirupur District and at Vembur in Theni District points to the existence of an ancient
settlement along the banks of River Uppar. Menhirs are found at Narasingampatti, Madurai
district, Kumarikalpalayam and Kodumanal in Erode district.
Hero Stones: A Hero Stone is a memorial stone raised in remembrance of the honourable
death of a hero in a battle or those who lost their lives while defending their village from
animals or enemies. Hero stones are found at Maanur village near Palani, Dindigul district,
Vellalankottai, Tuticorin district, and Pulimankombai, Dindigul district.
Choose the best answers:
1. Aryans first settled in ______________ region.
(a) Punjab
(b) Middle Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) North east
2. Aryans first settled in ___________ region.
(a) China
(b) North Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) Europe
3. Our National Motto “Sathyameva Jayate” is taken from ___________
(a) Brahmana
(b) Veda
(c) Aranyaka
(d) Upanishad
4. What was the ratio of land revenue collected during Vedic Age
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/9
Consider the following the statements and tick the appropriate answer:
1. Assertion: The Vedic Age is evidenced by good number of texts and adequate amount of
material evidence.
Reason: Shrutis comprise the Vedas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas and the Upanishads.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
2. Statement I: Periplus mentions the steel imported into Rome from peninsular India was
subjected to duty in the port of Alexandria.
Statement II: Evidences for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalli.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
3. Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic society?
(a) A widow could re-marry
(b) Child marriage was in practice
(c) Father’s property was inherited by his son
(d) Sati was unknown
4. Which is the correct ascending order of the Rig Vedic society?
(a) Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra < Jana
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra
(c) Rashtra < Jana < Grama < Kulu < Vis
(d) Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra
Fill in the blanks:
1. Vedic culture was ______________ in nature.
2. ____________ was a tax collected from the people in Vedic period.
3. _____________ system is an ancient learning method.
4. Adhichanallur is in _____________ district.
State true or false. If false, correct the statement:
1. The Roman artefacts found at various sites provide the evidence of Indo-Roman trade
relations.
2. A Hero Stone is a memorial stone raised in remembrance of the honourable death of a hero.
3. The army chief was called Gramani.
4. The Black and Red ware pottery became the characteristic of the Megalithic period.
5. Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at paiyampalli.
Site - Finds
(a) Keezhadi - (1) Ivory dice
(b) Porunthal - (2) Tip of ploughs
(c) Kodumanal - (3) Spindles
(d) Adichanallur - (4) Gold ornaments
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Answers:
1. Punjab 2. Central Asia 3. Upanishad 4. 1/6
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both the statements are correct
3. Child marriage was in practice
4. Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra
Fill in the blanks:
1.Blood relation 2. Bali 3. Gurukulam Method 4. Thoothukudi
1. True
2. True
3. False - Correct statement: Gramani was the leader of the village.
4. True
5. True
1. Ivory dice 2. Tip of ploughs 3. Spindles 4. Gold ornaments
10] Great Thinkers and New Faiths
Do You Know?
Original name – Vardhamana; Place of Birth – Kundhagrama near Vaishali, Bihar; Parents –
Siddharth, Trishala; Place of Death – Pavapuri, Bihar.
The word Jain derives from the Sanskrit word Jina, which means conquering self and the
external world.
What is Karma? The belief that a person’s actions in this life determine the quality of his or
her later part of the current life and the next incarnation.
Omniscience: It is the ability to know everything or be infinitely wise.
Moksha: Liberation from the cycle of birth and death.
Gautama Swami, a chief disciple of Mahavira, compiled the teaching of Mahavira, called
Agama sidhantha.
Original name – Siddhartha; Place of Birth – Lumbini Garden, Nepal; Parents – Suddhodana,
Maya devi; Place of Death – Kushi Nagar, UP.
Chaitya: A Buddhist shrine or a meditation hall; Viharas: Monastries/living quarters for

monks; Stupas: Built over the remains of Buddha’s body, they are monuments of great artistic
value.
Frescoes (paintings): Frescoes on the ceilings and walls of the Ajanta caves in Aurangabad,
Maharashtra – depict the Jataka Tales.
Middle path: It refers to neither indulging in extreme attachment to worldly pleasure nor
committing severe penance.
Buddhist Councils: First – Rajagriha; Second – Vaishali; Third – Pataliputra; Fourth –

Kashmir.
Jataka Story: The Jatakas are popular stories about the previous birth and life of Buddha, as
human and as an animal. They teach morals.
The Woodpecker and the Lion (A Jataka Story): Once upon a time, there lived a woodpecker
and a lion. One day, the lion hunted a big bison and sat down to eat it. It so happened that
while having his meal, a big bone got stuck in the lion’s throat. He was not able to remove it
and was in great pain. A kind hearted woodpecker offered to help the lion. The woodpecker,
however, told the lion that he would only take out the bone if the lion promised not to eat him
while removing the bond.
The lion gladly agreed and opened his mouth in front of the woodpecker. The woodpecker
hopped inside the lion’s mouth, and easily pulled out the bone. The lion kept his promise and
let the woodpecker fly away. Soon the lion recovered completely and killed another bison.
The woodpecker also thought of joining the lion and asked a small share of meat. To her utter
disappointment the lion blatantly refused to share his meal with her. The Lion said, “How
dare you ask me for more favours? I have already done so much for you!” The woodpecker did
not understand what the lion was talking about. The lion then clarified, “You should be
thankful to me that I did not devour you when you were taking out the bone from my throat.
Now do not expect anything else from me and go away.” The woodpecker said to himself, “It
was indeed a mistake to help such an ungrateful creature!” Nevertheless, it is not worth being
angry or holding grudge against someone as unworthy as him.
1. What is the name of the Buddhist scripture?
(a) Angas
(b) Tripitakas
(c) Tirukkural
(d) Naladiyar
2. Who was the first Tirthankara of Jainism?
(a) Rishabha
(b) Parsava
(c) Vardhamana
(d) Buddha
3. How many Tiruthankaras were there in Jainism?
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 26
4. Where was the third Buddhist Council convened?
(a) Rajagriha
(b) Vaishali
(c) Pataliputra
(d) Kashmir
5. Where did Buddha deliver his first sermon?
(a) Lumbini
(b) Saranath
(c) Taxila
(d) Bodh Gaya
1. Statement: A common man could not understand Upanishads.
Reason: Upanishads were highly philosophical.
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct
(c) Statement is true, but the Reason for that is wrong
(d) Both Statement and Reason are wrong
2. Statement: The Jatakas are popular tales.
Reason: Frescoes on the ceiling and walls of Ajanta caves depict the Jataka Tales.
(a) Statement and its Reason are correct
(c) Statement is true, but the Reason for that is wrong
(d) Both Statement and Reason are wrong
3. Find out the correct answer: Buddha Viharas are used for
(1) Education (2) Stay of Buddhist monks (3) Pilgrims’ stay (4) Prayer hall
(a) 2 is correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2, 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
4. Consider the following statements regarding the causes of the origin of Jainism and
Buddhism.
I. Sacrificial ceremonies were expensive.
II. Superstitious beliefs and practices confused the common man.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
5. Which of the following about Jainism is correct?
(a) Jainism denies God as the creator of universe
(b) Jainism accepts God as the creator of universe
(c) The basic philosophy of Jainism is idol worship
(d) Jains accept the belief in Last Judgement
6. All the following statements are true if Siddhartha Gautama except:
(a) He is the founder of Hinduism
(b) He was born in Nepal
(c) He attained Nirvana
(d) He was known as Sakyamuni
Circle the odd one:
Parsava, Mahavira, Buddha, Rishabha
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Ahimsa - not to injure
(b) Satya - to speak truth
(c) Asteya - not to steal
(d) Brahmacharya - married status
Fill in the blanks:
1. The doctrine of Mahavira is called ______________
2. ______________ is a state of freedom from suffering and rebirth.
3. ____________ was the founder of Buddhism.
4. Thiruparthikundram, a village in Kanchipuram was once called ____________
5. ______________ were built over the remains of Buddha’s body.
1. Buddha believed in Karma.
2. Buddha had faith in caste system.
3. Gautama Swami compiled the teachings of Mahavira.
4. Viharas are temples.
5. Emperor Asoka followed Buddhism.
1. Angas - Vardhamana
2. Mahavira - Monks
3. Buddha - Buddhist shrine
4. Chaitya - Sakya muni
5. Bhikshus - Jain text
Answers:
1.Tripitakas 2. Rishabha 3. 24 4. Pataliputra 5. Saranath
1. Statement and its Reason are correct
2. Statement and its Reason are correct
3. Stay of Buddhist monks
4. Both I & II Statements are correct.
5. Jainism accepts God as the creator of universe.
6. He is the founder of Hinduism.
Circle the odd one: Buddha
Find out the wrong pair: Brahmacharya - married status
Fill in the blanks:
1. Tri Ratna 2. Nirvana 3. Gautama Buddha 4. Jaina Kaanchi 5. Stupas
1. True
2. False
Correct Statement: Buddha opposed the caste system.
3. True
4. False
Correct Statement: Viharas are monasteries/living quarters for monks
5. True
1. Jain text 2. Vardhamana 3. Sakya muni 4. Buddhist shrine 5. Monks
11] From Chiefdoms to Empires
Do You Know?
The term ‘gana’ means ‘people of equal status.’ ‘Sangha’ means ‘assembly.’ The gana-sanghas
covered a small geographical area ruled by an elite group. The gana sanghas practiced
egalitarian traditions.
A ‘kingdom’ means a territory ruled by a king or queen. In a kingdom (monarchy) , a family,

which rules for a long period becomes a dynasty. Usually these kingdoms adhered to orthodox
Vedic traditions.
16 Mahajanapadas: Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Kasi, Kuru, Kosala, Avanti, Chedi, Vatsa,
Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Gandhara and Kamboja.
Nalanda – UNESCO World Heritage Site: Nalanda was a large Buddhist monastery in ancient
kingdom of Magadha. It became the most renowned seat of learning during the reign of
Guptas. The word Nalanda is a Sanskrit combination of three words Na + alam + daa meaning
“no stopping of the gift of knowledge.”
Megasthenese: He was the ambassador of the Greek ruler, Seleucus, in the court of Chandra
gupta. He stayed in India for 14 years. His book Indica is one of the main sources for the study
of Mauryan Empire.
Grandeur of Pataliputra: The great capital city in the Mauryan Empire, which had 64 gates to
the city with 570 watch towers.
“Ashoka shines and shines brightly like a bright star, even unto this day.” – H.G. Wells,
Historian.
Lion Capital of Ashoka: The Emblem of the Indian Republic has been adopted from the Lion
Capital of one of the Ashokas pillars located at Sarnath. The wheel from the circular base, the
Ashoka Chakra is a part of the National Flag.
An Edict is an office proclamation issued by authority or a king.
The script of the inscriptions: At Sanchi – Brahmi; At Kandahar – Greek and Aramaic; At
North Western part – Kharoshthi.
The Junagarh/Girnar Inscription of Rudradaman records that the construction of a water

reservoir known as Sudarshana Lake was begun during the time of Chandragupta Maurya
and completed during Ashoka’s reign.
Yakshas were deities connected with water, fertility, trees, the forest and wilderness. Yakshis
were their female counterpart.
Main Exports: Spices, Pearls, Diamonds, Cotton textiles, Ivory Works, Conch Shells.
Main Imports: Horses, Gold, Glassware, Linen.
Ancient name and its modern name: Rajagriha – Rajgir; Pataliputra – Patna; Kalinga – Odisha.
Elsewhere in the world – The Great Wall of China: It is an ancient series of fortification.
During third century BC (BCE) emperor Qin-Shi Huang linked these walls on Northern border
to protect his empire.
Temple of Zeus at Olympia: An ancient temple in Olympia, Greece, dedicated to the god Zeus,
constructed during fifth century BC (BCE) , it is one of the seven wonders of the ancient world.
1. The Kingdom which was most powerful among the four Mahajanapadas
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Kosala
(d) Vajji
2. Among the following who was the contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bindusara
(c) Padmanabha Nanda
(d) Brihadratha
3. Which of the following are the sources of Mauryan period?
(a) Artha Sastra
(b) Indica
(c) Mudrarkshasa
(d) All
4. Chandra Gupta Maurya abdicated the thrown and went to Saravanbelagola along with
Jaina Saint ____________
(a) Badrabahu
(b) Stulabahu
(c) Parswanatha
(d) Rushabhanatha
5. ______________ was the ambassador of Seleucus Nicator.
(a) Ptolemy
(b) Kautilya
(c) Xerxes
(d) Megasthenese
6. Who was the last emperor of Mauryan Dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Brihadratha
(d) Bindusara
1. Statement (A): Ashoka is considered as one of India’s greatest rulers.
Reason (R): He ruled according to the principle of Dhamma.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true
2. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Statement 1: Chandragupta Maurya was the first ruler who unified entire India under one
political unit.
Statement 2: The Arthashastra provides information about the Mauryan administration.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both a and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct.
(1) Chandragupta Maurya was the first king of Magadha.
(2) Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Arrange the following dynasties in chronological order.
(a) Nanda – Sishunaga – Haryanka – Maurya
(b) Nanda – Sishunaga – Maurya – Haryanka
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya
(d) Sishunaga – Maurya – Nanda - Haryanka
5. Which of the following factors contributed to the rise of Magadha Empire?
(1) Strategic location
(2) Thick forest supplied timer and elephant
(3) Control over sea
(4) Availability of rich deposits of iron ores
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of these
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ was the earliest capital of Magadha.
2. Mudrarkshasa was written by ______________
3. ___________ was the son of Bindusara.
4. The founder of the Maurya Empire was ______________
5. ______________ were appointed to spread Dhamma all over the empire.
1. The title Devanam Piya was given to Chandragupta Maurya.
2. Ashoka gave up war after his defeat in Kalinga.
3. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the principle of Buddhism.
4. The lions on the currency notes is taken from the Rampurwa bull capital.
5. Buddha’s relics were placed in the centre of the Stupas.
1. Gana - (a) Arthashastra
2. Megasthenese - (b) Religious tours
3. Chanakya - (c) People
4. Dharmayatras - (d) Indica
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 4 3
Answers:
1.Magadha, 2. Ajatasatru, 3. Artha Sastra, Indica and Mudrarkshasa, 4. Badrabahu
5. Megasthenese, 6. Brihadratha

2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Only statement 2 is correct.
4. Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya
5. Statement 1, 2 and 4 only correct.
Fill in the blanks:
1.Rajgriha, 2. Vishakadatta, 3. Ashoka, 4. Chandragupta Maurya, 5. Dhamma Mahamattas
1. False
Correct statement: The title Devanam Piya was given to Ashoka.
2. False
Correct statement: Ashoka gave up war after he won the Kalinga war.
3. True
4. False
Correct statement: The lions on the currency notes is taken from the Ashoka pillars from
Sarnath.
5. True
1. People, 2. Indica, 3. Arthashastra, 4. Religious tours
12] Resources
Do you Know?
Anything becomes a resource only when its use is discovered. The needs of human beings
are ever changing. According to the ever changing needs, resources keep changing. Time and
Technology are two important factors that determine whether a substance is a resource or
not. For example: Sun’s energy to generate electricity was made possible after the invention
of solar panels (technology) ; and the receding of coal and petrol was in need of an
inexhaustible resource (time) .
Marine yeast has greater potential than the terrestrial yeast. They can be used in baking,
brewing, wine, bio-ethanol and pharmaceutical protein production.
Tropical rain forests are called the ‘World’s largest Pharmacy’ as 25% of the natural vegetation
are medicinal plants (e.g.) Cinchona.
Ambergris is an extract from the sperm whale. A pound (0.454 kg) of sweet – smelling
ambergris is worth US $63,000 and used in perfume industries.
1. Natural resource - Minerals
2. International resources - Sustainable development
3. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle - Air
4. Non-renewable - Manufacturing
5. Universal resource - Ambergris
6. Secondary activities - Forest
Fill in the blanks:
1. Sugarcane is processed to make _______________
2. Conservation of resources is ___________ use of resources.
3. Resources which are confined to certain regions are called ____________
4. _____________ resources are being used in the present.
5. ____________ resources are the most valuable resources.
6. Collection of resources directly from nature is called ______________
1. Statement: Solar energy is the best substitute for thermal energy in tropical regions.
Inference 1: Coal and petroleum resources are receding.
Inference 2: Solar energy will never deplete.
Now choose the right answer:
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow
2. Statement: If you don’t conserve resources, human race may become extinct.
Inference 1: You need not conserve resources.
Inference 2: You need to conserve resources.
3. Statement: Man switched over to agriculture.
Inference 1: Food gatherers experienced scarcity of food.
Inference 2: Food gathered was not nutritious.
Answers:
1. Air 2. Ambergris 3. Sustainable development 4. Minerals 5. Forest 6. Manufacturing
Fill in the blanks:
1. Sugar 2. Careful 3. Localized resources 4. Actual resources 5. Natural
1. Both 1 and 2 follow

2. Only conclusion 2 follows
3. Only conclusion 1 follows
13] National Symbols
Do You Know?
There is a Peacock Sanctuary at Viralimalai in the district of Pudukottai (Tamil Nadu) .
Tamil Nadu’s Natural Symbols: Animal – Nilgiri Tahr, Bird – Emerald dove, Flower – Gloriosa
Superba, Tree – Palmyrah tree.
Kodi Kaatha Kumaran: Tirupur Kumaran was born in Chennimalai of Erode district. As a
youth, he actively participated in the freedom struggle for India. In 1932, when Gandhiji was
arrested, protests were held against the arrest all over the country. When protests were held
for Gandhiji’s release, Tirupur Kumaran took active part in it. He lost his life when the police
attacked violently. He held on to the tricolour flag even when he died. He was honoured with
the title, ‘Kodi Kaatha Kumaran.’ The Government of India has released a postal stamp on his
centenary year to remember Tirupur Kumaran’s sacrifice and dedication to the nation.
The four lions, chosen from the Sarnath pillar of Ashoka as our embem, is now placed in the
Sarnath Museum.
The National flag was designed by Pingali Venkayya from Andhra Pradesh. The first Indian
Flag was woven at Gudiyatham in Vellore district of Tamil Nadu. This flag was hoisted by
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 15th August 1947 at Red Fort (Delhi) . This flag is now an exhibit
at the St. George’s Fort Museum, Chennai.
National Song: On 27th December 1911 this National anthem was sung for the first time during
the Congress committee meet held at Kolkata.
On January 29, the third day of the Republic day, the celebrations are brought to an end with
the “Beating Reteat” ceremony. This is performed by the bands of Indian Army, Navy and
Airforce. The President of India is the chief guest of this day. Rashtrapati Bhavan will be
illuminated at 6pm as a part of the celebration.
1. The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by _______________
(a) Pingali Venkayya
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Gandhiji
2. Which is the National Anthem of India?
(a) Jana Gana Mana
(b) Vande Mataram
(c) Amar Sonar Bangla
(d) Neerarum kaduluduththa
3. Who wrote the most famous novel Anand Math?
(a) Akbar
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
4. ___________ birthday is celebrated as the International Day of non violence?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
5. The colour of the Asoka chakra found in our flag is ____________
(a) Sky blue
(b) Navy blue
(c) Blue
(d) Green
6. The first flag ever flown after the Independence is stores in ___________
(a) Chennai fort Museum
(b) Delhi Museum
(c) Saranath Museum
(d) Kolkata Museum
7. The National Anthem was written by _____________
(a) Devandranath Tagore
(b) Bharathiyar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Balagangadhar Tilak
8. The time taken to play the National Anthem is ______________
(a) 50 seconds
(b) 52 minutes
(c) 52 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
9. “Vande Mataram” was first sung by ____________ at the 1896 session of the National
Congress.
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sarojini Naidu
10. _______________ hoists the flag on Independence Day in Delhi.
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) Vice President
(d) Any Political leader
Fill in the blanks:
1. The National emblem was adopted from the Ashoka pillar of _____________
2. The National fruit of India is ______________
3. The National Bird of India is ______________
4. Our National tree is the ______________
5. The Flag which was flown in 1947 Independence Day was weaved in ___________
6. The Indian National Flag was designed by ____________
7. _______________ started the Saka Era.
8. The longest river in India is ____________
9. The Indian Rupee symbol was designed by _____________
10. The Chakra of the National Flag has _____________ spokes.
1. The Lion Capital is now the ____________ museum. (Kolkata/Sarnath)
2. The National Anthem was adopted in ____________ (1950/1947)
3. _____________ is declared as our National Micro organism. (Lacto bacillus/Rhizobium)
Fill in the blanks:
1. Saffron – Courage; White - ____________
2. Horse – Energy; Bull - ____________
3. 1947 – Independence Day; 1950 - ___________
1. Rabindranath Tagore - (a) National Song
2. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee - (b) National Flag
3. Pingali Venkayya - (c) Astro Physicist
4. Meghnad Saha - (d) National Anthem
1234
(a) a d b c
(b) d a c b
(c) d a c b
(d) d a b c
Match and choose the wrong pair:
1. National Reptile - Tiger
2. National Aquatic Animal - Lacto bacillus
3. National Heritage Animal - King Cobra
4. National Micro organism - Dolphin
Choose the wrong sentence:
1. The ratio of our National Flag’s length and breadth is 3:2
(a) The Chakra has 24 spokes
(b) The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour
2. The National Flag was designed by Pingali Venkayya
(a) The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum
(b) The First National Flag was weaved in Gudiyattam
Choose the correct sentence:
1. August 15 is celebrated as the Independence Day.
2. November 26 is celebrated as the Republic Day.
3. October 12 is celebrated as Gandhi Jayanti.
Answers:
1. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 2. Jana Gana Mana 3. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
4. Mahatma Gandhi 5. Navy blue 6. Chennai fort Museum 7. Rabindranath Tagore
8. 52 seconds 9. Sarojini Naidu 10. The Prime Minister
Fill in the blanks:
1. Sarnath Pillars 2. Mango 3. Peacock 4. Banyan 5. Gudiyatham 6. Pingali Venkayya
7. Kanishka 8. Ganges 9. D. Udhaya Kumar 10. 24
1. Sarnath 2. 1950 3. Lacto bacillus
Fill in the blanks:
1. Peace 2. Hard work 3. Republic day
1. National Anthem 2. National Song 3. National Flag 4. Astro Physicist
Match and choose the wrong pair:
1. National Reptile - King Cobra
2. National Aquatic Animal - Dolphin
3. National Heritage Animal - Elephant
4. National Micro-organism - Lacto bacillus
National Heritage Animal is Elephant. Tiger is the National Animal.
Choose the wrong sentence:
1. The Chakra is Sky Blue in colour

2. The First ever flown Flag after the Independence is stored in Kolkata Museum
Choose the correct sentences:
August 15 is celebrated as the Independence Day.
14] The Constitution of India
Do You Know?
‘The Father of the Constitution of India’ is Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, N. Gopalasamy, K.M. Mundhi, Syed Ahmed Sadullah, P.L. Mitter, N.
Madhava Rao, T.T.K., T.P. Khaitan were the legal experts of the Drafting Committee. The
Chairman of the Drafting Committee Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was considered the Chief architect.
When the Constitution was drafted, there were 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. At
present our Indian Constitution contains 448 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules. 101
amendments were made till 16.09.2016.
The original copies of the Constitution of India (Hindi, English) are preserved in special
Helium filled cases in the Library of the Parliament of India.
1. The Constitution Day is celebrated on
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
2. The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
3. There are ______________ amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016.
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
4. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
5. An Indian citizen has the right to vote at
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
2. The farther of the Constitution of India is __________
3. ______________ protects our fundamental rights.
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on _______________
1. Independence Day - (a) November 26
2. Republic Day - (b) April 1
3. Constitutional Day of India - (c) August 15
4. Right to Education - (d) January 26
1234
(a) c a d b
(b) c d a b
(c) d b a c
Answers:
1. November 26 2. 1949 3. 101 4. Right to vote 5. 18 years
Fill in the blanks:
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 3. The Supreme Court 4. January 26, 1950
1. August 15 2. January 26 3. November 26 4. April 1
15] Economics – An Introduction
Do You Know?
In villages, once in a week or month, all things are sold in a particular place at a specific time
to meet the needs of the people. That is called ‘Sandhai.’
Consumer Goods: The finished goods which are bought from the market to fulfil the daily
needs of the consumers is called consumer goods. Example: rice, clothes, bicycles, etc.
The amount from the income which is left for future needs after consumption is called
savings.
Primary Activities: They are concerned with the production of raw materials for food stuff
and industrial use. Primary activities include: Agriculture, Cattle rearing, Fishing, Mining,
Collection of fruits, nuts, honey, rubber, resin and medicinal herbs, lumbering.
Secondary Activities: The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted
into finished products through machinery on a large scale. These activities are called
secondary activities. Industries are classified on the basis of the availability of raw materials,
capital and ownership. On the basis of raw materials, industries are classified as: Agro based
industries – Cotton textiles, Sugar mills and Food processing; Forest based industries – Paper
mills, Furniture making, Building Materials; Mineral based industries – Cement, Iron,
Aluminium Industries; Marine based industries – Sea food processing.
Tertiary Activities: “I already told you that industries produce goods and distribute them to
the people.” For this purpose, some services are required. The service sector serves the people
to fulfil their daily needs like: Transport – roadways, railways, waterways, airways;
Communication – Post, Telephone, Information Technology etc.; Trade – Procurement of
goods, selling; Banking – Money transactions, banking services.
Leaning Outcomes: Children understand the meaning of Sandhai; Get clear idea about the
barter system; Gain knowledge of the various kinds of occupation.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The producers of food grains are _______________
2. Collection of honey is a ______________ occupation.
3. The conversion of raw materials into finished goods is called ____________
4. According to Gandhiji the villages are ___________ of the nation.
5. The percentage of population in the cities of Tamil Nadu is ___________
1. Cattle rearing - Secondary occupation
2. Food processing - Services
3. Iron & Steel Industry - Primary occupation
4. Telephone - Agro based industry
5. Cotton Industry - Tertiary occupation
Match and find the odd pair:
1. Small scale Industry - Transaction of Money
2. Forest based Industries - Information Technology
3. Services - Paper Industries
4. Banking - Cattle rearing
1. Agriculture is a (Primary/Secondary) occupation.
2. Economic activities are divided on the basis of (Ownership/use) .
3. Sugar Industries are (Primary/Secondary) activity.
4. Agro based industry (Cotton/Furniture) .
5. Dairy farming is a (Public sector/co-operative sector) .
Answers:
Fill in the blanks:
1.Primary Sectors 2. Primary Occupation 3. Secondary sectors 4. Backbone 5. 47%
1. Primary Occupation 2. Agro based industry 3. Secondary occupation 4. Services
5. Tertiary Occupation
Match and find the odd pair:
1. Small scale industry - Cattle rearing

2. Forest based Industries - Paper Industries
3. Services - Information Technology
4. Banking - Transaction or Money
1. Primary 2. Use 3. Secondary 4. Cotton 5. Co-operative sector
16] Society and Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam: The Sangam Age
Do You Know?
Arumuga Navalar (Jaffna), U.V. Swaminatha Iyer and Damodharam Pillai (Jaffna) strove hard
and spent many years in retrieving and publishing the Tamil classics and the ancient Tamil
texts, which were originally present as palm leaf manuscripts.
Tholkappiyam is a work on Tamil grammar. It represents the quality of Tamil language and
the culture of Tamil people of the Sangam Age.
George L. Hart, Professor of Tamil language at the University of California, has said that Tamil
is as old as Latin. The language arose as an entirely independent tradition with no influence
of other languages.
Prominent Chera Rulers: Udayan Cheralatha, Imayavaramban Netun Cheralathan, Cheran

Senguttuvan, Cheral Irumporai.
Kallanai: It was a dyke, built with stones. It was constructed across the Kaveri to divert water
throughout the delta region for irrigation. When it was built, Kallanai irrigated an area of
about 69,000 acres.
Prominent Chola Ruler: Ilanchetsenni, Karikal Valavan, Kocengannan, Killi Valavan,

Perunarkilli.
Prominent Pandya Rulers: Nediyon, Nanmaran, Mudukudumi Peruvazuthi, Nedunchezhiyan.
Veerakkal/Natukkal: The ancient Tamils had a great respect for the heroes who died in the
battle field. The hero stones were erected to commemorate heroes who sacrificed their lives
in war.
Women Poets of Sangam Age: Avvaiyar, Velli Veethiyar, Kakkaipadiniyar, Aathi Manthiyar,
Pon Mudiyar.
Malabar Black Pepper: When the Mummy of Ramses II of the Egypt was uncovered,
archaeologists found black pepper corns stuffed into his nostrils and in his abdomen (as a
part of embalming process practised in olden days) .
Silk supplied by Indian merchants to the Roman Empire was considered so important that
the Roman emperor Aurelian declared it to be worth its weight in gold.
Muziris – First Emporium: The Roman writer Pliny the Elder writes of Muziris in his Natural
History as the ‘first emporium (shopping complex) of India’. A temple of Augustus was built
at Muziris, which had a Roman colony.
A papyrus document (now in Vienna museum) of 2nd century BC (BCE) records the agreement
between two merchants’ shippers of Alexandria and Muziris.
1. Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by ______________
(a) Pandya Neduncheliyan
(b) Cheran Senguttuvan
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Mudathirumaran
2. Which dynasty was not in power during the Sangam Age?
(a) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cheras
3. The rule of Pandyas was followed by ____________
(a) Satavahanas
(b) Cholas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Pallavas
4. The lowest unit of administration during the Sangam Age was ______________
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Ur
(d) Pattinam
5. What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the Kurinji region?
(a) Plundering
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Agriculture
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option:
1. Assertion (A): The assembly of the poets was known as Sangam.
Reason (R): Tamil was the language of Sangam literature.
(a) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R is not true.
2. Which of the following statements are not true?
1. Karikala won the battle of Talayalanganam.
2. The Pathitrupathu provides information about Chera Kings.
3. The earliest literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of prose.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
3. The ascending order of the administrative division in the ancient Tamizhagam was
(a) Ur < Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam
(b) Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
(c) Ur < Mandalam < Kurram < Nadu
(d) Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam < Ur
4. Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia
A) Chera - 1. Two Fish
B) Chola - 2. Tiger
C) Pandya - 3. Bow and arrow
(a) 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3
Fill in the blanks:
1. The battle of Venni was won by _______________
2. The earliest Tamil grammar work of the Sangam period was ______________
3. ______________ built Kallanai across the river Kaveri.
4. The chief of the army was known as ____________
5. Land revenue was called _______________
1. The singing bards of the Sangam age were called Irular.
2. Caste system developed during the Sangam period.
3. Kizhar was the village chief.
4. Puhar was the general term for city.
5. Coastal region was called Marudham.
1. Thennar - Cheras
2. Vanavar - Cholas
3. Senni - Velir
4. Adiyaman - Pandyas
Answers:
1. Cheran Senguttuvan 2. Pallavas 3. Kalabhras 4. Ur 5. Hunting and Gathering
1. Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A

2. Statement 1 and 3 are true.
3. Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia
1. Bow and arrow 2. Tiger 3. Two Fish
Fill in the blanks:
1. Karikalan 2. Tholkappiyam 3. Karikalan 4. Thanaithalaivan 5. Irai
1. False - Correct Statement: The singing bards of the Sangam age were called panar and
viraliyar.
2. False - Correct Statement: Caste system was not developed during the Sangam period.
3. True
4. False - Correct Statement: Puhar was the leading city of the Sangam age.
5. False - Correct Statement: Coastal region was called Neithal.
1. Pandyas 2. Cheras 3. Cholas 4. Velir
17] The Post-Mauryan India
Do You Know?
During the Sunga period, stone was replaced by wood in the railings and the gateways of the
Buddhist stupas as seen in Bharhut and Sanchi.
Patanjali, the second grammarian in Sanskrit, was patronized by Pushyamitra.
King Kharavela of Kalinga was a contemporary of the Sungas. We get information about
Kharavela from the Hathigumba Inscription.
The world-famous life-size statues of Buddha at Bamyan valley on the mountains of the
erstwhile north-western frontiers of ancient India (currently in central Afghanistan and
recently destroyed by the Taliban’s) , were carved out of the solid rocks by the dedicated artists
of the Gandhara School of Art during the post-Mauryan period.
Rulers of Indo Greeks Demetrius I – He was the son of Greco-Bactrian ruler Euthydemus. He
was king of Macedonia from 294 to 288 BC (BCE) . Numismatic evidence proves that
Demetrius issued bilingual square coins with Greek on the observe and Kharosthi on the
reverse. Scholars are not able to decide which of the three, named Demetrius, was the initiator
of the Yavana era, commencing from second century BC (BCE) in India.
Menander – He was one of the best known Indo-Greek kings. He is said to have ruled a large
kingdom in the north-west of the country. His coins were found over an extensive area
ranging from Kabul valley and Indus river to western Uttar Pradesh. MilindaPanha, a
Buddhist text, is a discourse between Bactrian kind Milinda and the learned Buddhist scholar
Nagasena. This Milinda is identified with Menander. Menander is believed to have become a
Buddhist and promoted Buddhism.
Rulers of Indo-Parthians (Pahlavas): Indo-Parthians came after the Indo-Greeks and the
Indo-Scythians who were, in turn, defeated by the Kushanas in the second half of the first
century AD (CE) . Indo-Parthian kingdom or Gondopharid dynasty was founded by
Gondophernes. The domain of Indo-Parthians comprised Kabul and Gandhara. The name of
Gondophernes is associated with the Christian apostle St. Thomas. He came to India and
according to Christian tradition, visited the court of Gondophernes and embraced Christianity.
Asvaghosha was the celebrated author of the first Sanskrit play, Buddhacharita.
Kushana Empire corresponded with the last days of the Roman Republic, when Julius Caesar
was alive. It is said that Kushana Emperor sent a great embassy to Augustus Caesar.
1. The last Mauryan emperor was killed by _______________
(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Agnimitra
(c) Vasudeva
(d) Narayana
2. _______________ was the founder of Satavahana dynasty.
(a) Simuka
(b) Satakarani
(c) Kanha
(d) Sivasvati
3. _______________ was the greatest of all the Kushana emperors.
(a) Kanishka
(b) Kadphises I
(c) Kadphises II
(d) Pan-Chiang
4. The Kantara School of Sanskrit flourished in the _______________ during 2nd century BC.
(a) Deccan
(b) North-west India
(c) Punjab
(d) Gangetic valley
5. Sakas ruled over Gandhara region _____________ as their capital.
(a) Sirkap
(b) Taxila
(c) Mathura
(d) Purushpura
1. Assertion (A): Colonies of Indo-Greeks and Indo-Parthians were established along the north-
western part of India.
Reason (R): The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually intermarried and intermixed with
the indigenous population.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
2. Statement I: Indo-Greek rulers introduced die system and produced coins with inscription
and symbols, engraving figures on them.
Statement II: Indo-Greek rule was ended by the Kushanas.
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct
(b) Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct
3. Circle the odd one:
Pushyamitra, Vasudeva, Simuka, Kanishka
4. Answer the following in a word:
(a) Who was the last Sunga ruler?
(b) Who was the most important and famous king of Sakas?
(c) Who established Kanva dynasty in Magadha?
(d) Who converted Gondophernes into Christianity?
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ was the founder of Indo-Parthian Kingdom.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after ___________ death.
3. Hala is famous as the author of _______________
4. _______________ was the last ruler of Kanva dynasty.
5. Kushana’s later capital was _____________
1. Magadha continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture even after the fall of the
Mauryan Empire.
2. We get much information about Kharavela from Hathigumba inscription.
3. Simuka waged a successful war against Magadha.
4. Buddhacharita was written by Asvaghosha.
1. Patanjali - 1. Kalinga
2. Agnimitra - 2. Indo-Greek
3. King Kharavela - 3. Indo-Parthians
4. Demetrius - 4. Second grammarian
5. Gondophernes - 5. Malavikagnimitra
(a) 4 3 2 1 5
(b) 3 4 5 1 2
(c) 1 5 3 4 2
(d) 2 5 3 1 4
Find out the wrong statement from the following:
1. The Kushanas formed a section of the yueh-chi tribes who inhabited north-western China.
2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.
3. The Great Stupa of Sanchi and the railings which enclose it belong to the Sunga period.
4. Pan-Chiang was the Chinese general defeated by Kanishka.
Answers:
1. Pushyamitra 2. Simuka 3. Kanishka 4. Deccan 5. Sirkap
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct
3. Circle the odd one: Kanishka
4. (a) Devabhuti
(b) Rudradaman
(c) Vasudeva
(d) St. Thomas
Fill in the blanks:
1. Gondophares 2. Ashoka’s 3. Sattasai 4. Susarman 5. Peshawar or Purushpura
1. True
2.True
3.False
Correct Statement: Kanishka waged a successful war against Magadha
4. True
1. Second grammarian 2. Malavikagnimitra 3. Kalinga 4. Indo-Greek 5. Indo-Parthians
Find out the wrong statement from the following:
Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.
18] The Age of Empires: Guptas And Vardhanas
Do You Know?
Lichchhavi was an old gana-sanga and its territory lay between the Ganges and the Nepal
Terai.
Prashasti: Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning commendation or ‘in praise of’. Court poets
flattered their kings listing out their achievements. These accounts were later engraved on
pillars so that the people could read them.
Samudragupta was a devotee of Vishnu. He revived the Vedic practice of performing horse
sacrifice. Performed by kings to prove their imperial sovereignty. He issued gold coins and in
one of them, he is portrayed playing harp (veenai) . Samudragupta was not only a great
conqueror but a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title ‘Kaviraja’.
Sri Meghavarman, the Buddhist king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
The surnames of Chandragupta II were Vikramaditya, Narendrachandra, Simhachandra,

Narendrasimha, Vikrama Devaraja, Devagupta and Devasri.
Fahien: During the reign of Chandragupta II, the Buddhist monk Fahein visited India. His
travel accounts provided us information about the socio-economic, religious and moral
conditions of the people of the Gupta age. According to Fahien, the people of Magadha were
happy and prosperous, that justice was mildly administered and there was no death penalty.
Gaya was desolated. Kapilavasthu had become a jungle, but at Pataliputra people were rich
and prosperous.
Nalanda University: Nalanda University flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire
in the 5th and 6th centuries and later under emperor Harsha of Kanauj. At Nalanda, Buddhism
was the main subject of study. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature and Medicine were
also taught. Hiuen Tsang spent many years studying Buddhism in the University. Eight
Mahapatashalas and three large libraries were situated on the campus. Nalanda was ravaged
and destroyed by Mamluks (Turkish Muslims) under Bhaktiyar Khalji. Today, it is a UNESCO
World Heritage Site.
Who were the Huns? Huns were the nomadic tribes, who, under their great Attila, were
terrorising Rome and Constantinople. Associated with these tribes were the White Huns who
came to India through Central Asia. They undertook regular invasions and were giving
trouble to all Indian frontier states. After defeating Skandagupta, they spread across Central
India. Their chief, Toromana, crowned himself as king. After him, his son Mihirakula ruled
the captured territories. Finally, Yasodharman, ruler of Malwa in Central India, defeated them
and ended their rule.
Samudragupta introduced the Gupta monetary system. Kushana coins provided inspiration
to Samudragupta. The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinara. Guptas issued many gold
coins but comparatively fewer silver and copper coins. However, the post-Gupta period saw a
fall in the circulation of gold coins, indicating the decline in the prosperity of the empire.
The metals used by them were: iron, gold, copper, tin, lead, brass, bronze, bell-metal, mica,
manganese and red chalk.
Harsha met the Chinese traveller, Hiuen Tsang, at Kajangala near Rajmahal (Jharkhand) for
the first time.
Hiuen Tsang, the ‘prince of pilgrims’, visited India during Harsha’s reign. His Si-Yu-Ki
provides detailed information about the social, economic, religious and cultural conditions of
India during Harsha’s time. Hiuen Tsang tells us how Harsha, though a Buddhist, went to
participate in the great kumbhamela held at Prayag.
The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings. A large number of Buddhist, Jain and
Vedic scholars attended the assembly. A golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in a
monastery and a small statue of Buddha (three feet) was carried in a procession.
In the assembly at Prayag, Harsha distributed his wealth among the Buddhists, Vedic scholars
and poor people. Harsha offered fabulous gifts to the Buddhist monks on all the four days of
the assembly.
Chandragupta I was the contemporary of Constantine the Great, the Roman Emperor, who
founded Constantinople.
Harsha’s time coincided with an early days of Tang Dynasty of China. Their capital (Xi’an)
was a great centre of art and learning.
1. _____________ was the founder of Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopal
(d) Vishnugupta
2. Prayog Prashasti was composed by _____________
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarashi
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
3. The monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at _____________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
4. ___________ was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
5. ______________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin II
1. Assertion (A): Chandragupta I crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after

eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R): Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
2. Statement I: Chandragupta II did not have cordial relationship with the rulers of South India.
Statement II: The divine theory of kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct
(b) Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct
3. Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
(a) Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
(b) Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
(c) Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
(d) Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
4. Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statements(s) is/are
correct
1. Lending money at high rate of interest was practised
2. Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries
(a) 1 is correct
(b) 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Circle the odd one:
1. Kalidasa, Harisena, Samudragupta, Charaka.
2. Ratnavali, Harshacharita, Nagananda, Priyadharshika.
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________, the king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
2. Buddhist monk from China _______________, visited India during the reign of
Chandragupta II.
3. ___________ invasion led to the downfall of Gupta Empire.
4. ______________ was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was _______________
6. ____________, the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. ___________ was the popular king of Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his capital from ___________ to Kanauj.
1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble the Indo-Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to Hinayana school of thought.
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.
A.
(a) Mihirakula - 1. Astronomy
(b) Aryabhatta - 2. Kumaragupta
(c) Painting - 3. Skandagupta
(d) Nalanda University - 4. Caravan trader
(e) Sartavaga - 5. Bagh
(a) 1 2 4 3 5
(b) 2 4 1 3 5
(c) 3 1 5 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4 5
B.
(a) Bana - 1. 10,000 students
(b) Harsha - 2. Prayag
(c) Nalanda University - 3. Harshacharita
(d) Hiuen – Tsang - 4. Ratnabali
(e) Buddhist Assembly - 5. Si-Yu-Ki
(a) 4 3 2 1 5
(b) 5 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 5 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4 5
Answers:
1. Sri Gupta 2. Harisena 3. Mehrauli 4. Sushruta 5. Sasanka
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct
3. Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
4. Statement 1 is correct.
Circle the odd one:
1. Samudragupta 2. Harshacharita
Fill in the blanks:
1. Sri Meghavarman 2. Fahien 3. Hun 4. Land Tax 5. Sanskrit 6. Vishnugopa
7. Harsha 8. Thaneswar
1. True
2. False - Correct Statement: The structural temples built during the Gupta period resemble
the Dravidian style.
3. False - Correct Statement: Sati was practiced in the Gupta Empire
4. False - Correct Statement: Harsha belonged to Mahayana school of thought.
5. False - Correct Statement: Harsha was noted for his religious tolerance.
A: (a) Skandagupta
(b) Astronomy
(c) Bagh
(d) Kumaragupta
(e) Caravan trader
B: (a) Harshacharita (b) Ratnabali (c) 10,000 students (d) Si-Yu-Ki (e) Prayag
19] South Indian Kingdoms
Do You Know?
Narasimhavarman I’s army general was Paranjothi. Popularly known as Siruthondar (one of
the 63 Nayanmars) , Paranjothi led the Pallava army during the invasion of Vatapi. After the
victory he had a change of heart and devoted himself to Lord Siva.
Aihole Inscription: It is found at Meguti Temple in Aihole (Bagalkot district, Karnataka) . It is

written in Sanskrit by Ravikirti, a court poet of Chalukya king Pulakesin II. It makes a
mention of the defeat of Harsha Vardhana by Pulakesin II.
Pattadakal: (UNESCO World Heritage Site) is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
It has ten temples. Out of them, four were built in northern style (Nagara) , while the rest six
are in the southern (Dravida) style. Virupaksha Temple and Sangameshwara Temple are in
Dravida Style and Papanatha Temple is in Nagara style. The Virupaksha temple is built on
the model of Kandhi Kailasanatha temple. Sculptors brought from Kanchi were employed in
its construction.
1. Who among the following built the Vaikunda Perumal temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
2. Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) All the three
3. Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
1. Statement I: Pallava art shows transition from rock-cut monolithic structure to stone built
temple.
Statement II: Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and

architecture.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
2. Consider the following statement(s) about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I: Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of
Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II: Pallava King Mahendravarman was the author of the play Mattavilasa
Prahasana
(a) II only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
3. Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of
the following statements are correct.
1. It was founded by Dantidurga
2. Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga.
3. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All the three
4. Which of the following is not a correct pair?
(a) Ellora caves - Rashtrakutas
(b) Mamallapuram - Narasimhavarma I
(c) Elephanta caves - Ashoka
(d) Pattadakal - Chalukyas
(a) Dandin - Dasakumara Charitam
(b) Vatsyaya - Bharathavenba
(c) Bharavi - Kiratarjuneeyam
(d) Amogavarsha - Kavirajmarga
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. _____________ destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title VatapiKondan.
3. _______________ was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. ___________ was the army general of Narasimhavarma I.
5. The music inscriptions in ___________ and ______________ show Pallavas’ interest in

music.
1. Pallavas - Kalyani
2. Eastern Chalukyas - Manyakheta
3. Western Chalukyas - Kanchi
4. Rashtrakutas - Vengi
1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.
Answers:
1. Nandivarma II 2. Mattavilasa, Vichitra Chitta and Gunabara 3. Aihole
1. Both the statements are correct.

2. Statement II only correct.
3. All the three statements are correct.
4. Elephanta caves – Ashoka
5.Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
Fill in the blanks:
1. Pulikesin II 2. Narasimhavarma II 3. Ravikirti 4. Paranjothi
5. Kudimianmalai, Thirumayam temples
1. Kanchi 2. Vengi 3. Kalyani 4. Manyakheta
1. True
2. False
Correct Statement: The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Amogavarsha.
3.True
4.False
Correct Statement: Thevaram was composed by Nayanmars.
5.True
20] Asia and Europe
Do You Know?
‘Knot’ refers to the convergence of mountain ranges.
Tibet is called the ‘Roof of the world’ and it is also known as the third pole because of its cold
weather, largest reserve of freshwater and inhospitable environment.
A group of islands is called an archipelago. The largest archipelago is Indonesia.
The Three Gorges dam has been constructed across the river Yangtze. It is the largest power
station dam in the world. It fulfils ten percent of power needs of China.
Desert: A Desert is a large area that gets very low rainfall and very few plants and animals.
There are two types of deserts found in Asia, Hot and cold deserts.
Rub-Al Khali desert is the largest, continuous sandy desert in the world. It is found in the
south-eastern part of Saudi Arabia.
Banaue rice terrace: The Banaue rice terraces were built 2000 year ago by the Ifugaos people
in the Philippines. It is located approximately about 1524 m above sea level.
ANKORWAT: It is a world heritage site. It was built by king Suriya Varma II in 1100 AD (CE) at
Cambodia. ‘Ankorwat’ means ‘the city of temples’ in Khmer language. It is the largest Hindu
Temple in the world.
European Union: The European Union (EU) is an economic and political union of 28 member
countries for their welfare. It has own flag and the common currency, the Euro (€) .
The Netherlands: About 25 percent of the Netherlands lies below sea level. So they have built
dikes. They have reclaimed new land from the sea with the help of dikes. These reclaimed
lands are called polders.
Fiord: A fiord is a narrow and deep sea inlet between steep cliffs. It helps in the following
ways: 1. It reduces the speed of wind, irrespective of its direction. 2. The force of sea waves are
also controlled. Hence, areas with fiords are best suited for natural harbours.
Black forest: The lush and dark coloured fig and pine trees give black colour to this region.
The Matterhorn: The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn mountain is located in the Swiss Alps a
height of 4478 m. It is popular for its shape.
Climate Divider: The Alps mountain separates the Mediterranean climate from the cold
climate of the north.
North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to the Western Europe.
The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.
1. Which is not the western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
2. The Intermontane ______________ plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
3. Equatorial climate:
(i) Uniform throughout the year.
(ii) The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
(iii) The average temperature is 10o C.
(iv) Of the statements give above
(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
4. Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below:
List I - List II
A. Malaysia - 1. Figs
B. Thailand - 2. Rubber
C. Korea - 3. Teak
D. Israel - 4. Cherry
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
5. India is the leading producer of ______________
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
6. The natural boundary between Spain and France is _________
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
7. The western and north-western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate. Choose the correct
option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature
9. Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) The Mesta - Spain
(b) The Jura - France
(c) The Pennines - Italy
(d) The Black Forest - Germany
10. Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the _____________ knot.
2. The wettest place in the world is ___________
3. Iran is the largest producer of _____________ in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and south east Asia by ______________ sea route.
5. The national dance of Philippines is ___________
6. The second highest peak in Europe is ____________
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is
_____________
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is ____________
9. The density of population in Europe is ___________
10. The river ____________ passes through nine countries of Europe.
1. Mesopotamian Plain - Highest Rainfall
2. Mawsynram - Norway
3. Rice Bowl of Asia - Spain southeast
4. Fjord Coast - Euphrates & Tigris
5. Bull Fighting - Thailand
1. Assertion (A): Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R): It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
2. Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains:
ASIA
(a) Indo – Gangetic Plain
(b) Manchurian plain
(c) Mesopotamian
(d) Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
3. In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of
ASIA
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answers:
1. Arabian Sea 2. Iran 3. Mica 4. (a) Rubber (b) Teak (c) Cherry (d) Figs
5. Mica 6. The Pyrenees 7. It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
8. The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature 9. The Pennines - Italy 10. Iceland
Fill in the blanks:
1.Armenian 2. Mawsynram 3. Dates 4. Suez 5. Tinikling 6. The Mont Blac
7. Continental type 8. Dogger Bank 9. 34 Persons/km2 10. Danube
1. Euphrates & Tigris 2. Highest Rainfall 3. Thailand 4. Norway 5. Spain southeast
1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
2. (a) Manchurian plain (b) Great plains of China (c) Indo – Gangetic Plain (d) Mesopotamian
3. Dates
21] Globe
Do You Know?
The surface area of the Earth is 510.1 million square kilometres.
Ptolemy, a Greco – Roman mathematician, astronomer and geographer, was the first person
to draw the lines of latitude and longitude on a map.
In this book, ‘Geographia’ is a detailed description about the Earth’s surface, its size and
circumference and many locations based on the lines of latitude and longitude are given.
The first globe was created by the Greeks in the year 150 AD (CE) . The Indian astronomer
Aryabhatta – I has mentioned in his book. ‘Aryabhatta Sidhantha’. ‘The stars in the sky seem
to move towards the West because of the Earth’s rotation on its axis’.
The Equator is the longest of all lines of latitude. Hence, it is also known as ‘The Great Circle’.
0oN and S – 23½oN and S lines of latitudes are called – Low latitudes. 23½oN and S - 66½oN and
S lines of latitudes are called – Middle Latitudes. 66½oN and S – 90oN and S lines of latitudes
are called – High Latitudes.
Some lines of latitude are also called by the following names in Tamil.
Latitude - ahalangu
Longitude - nettangu
Equator - nilanaduvarai
Tropic of Cancer - kadagavarai
Tropic of Capricorn - magaravarai
The lines of longitude are found as semi circles covering 111 km at the Equator, 79 km at 45 o
latitude and no space between the lines at the poles.
The International Date Line is not straight. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same
country would have different dates. So the International Date Line is found zigzag in certain
places to avoid confusion.
The Earth takes one day to rotate on its axis. 1 day = 24 hours. 1 hour = 60 minutes. 24 hours =
24 x 60 = 1440 minutes. The angle of the earth = 360o. 360o = 360 Longitudes. 360o = 1440
minutes. So 1o = 1440/360 = 4 minutes. In 4 minutes = 1o rotation. In 60 minutes = 60/4 = 15o
rotation. So, in an hour (60 minutes) the earth rotates 15o.
1. The word meridian is derived from the Latin word ‘Meridianus’. It means mid-day. (Medius
– Middle, dies – day) . So, meridian means the position of the Sun found overhead at a place
at noon.
2. a.m. means ‘anti Meridiem’ (anti – before) – Before Noon.
3. p.m. means ‘post Meridiem’ (Post – after/later) – After noon.
The 82½o E line of longitude passes through Mirzapur near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh. This
is located at an equal distance from Ghuar Mota in Gujarat and Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
1. The shape of the Earth is ___________
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Geoid
(d) Circle
2. The North Pole is
(a) 90oN Latitude
(b) 90oS latitude
(c) 90oW longitude
(d) 90oE longitude
3. The area found between 0o and 180o E lines of longitude is called
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
(c) Northern Hemisphere
(d) Eastern Hemisphere
4. The 23½o N line of latitude is called _______________
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
5. 180o line of longitude is
(a) Equator
(b) International Date Line
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) North Pole
6. The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich Meridian at
(a) 12 midnight
(b) 12 noon
(c) 1 p.m.
(d) 11 a.m.
7. A day has ________
(a) 1240 minutes
(b) 1340 minutes
(c) 1440 minutes
(d) 1140 minutes
8. Which of the following lines of longitude is considered for the Indian Standard Time?
(a) 82½o E
(b) 82½o W
(c) 81½o E
(d) 81½o W
9. The total number of lines of latitude are
(a) 171
(b) 161
(c) 181
(d) 191
10. The total number of lines of longitude are
(a) 370
(b) 380
(c) 360
(d) 390
Fill in the blanks:
1. The line of latitude which is known as the Great Circle is _____________
2. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth from the West to East are called
_____________
3. The 90o lines of latitude on the Earth are called _____________
4. The Prime Meridian is also called _______________
5. The world is divided into _______________ time zones.
Circle the odd one:
1. North Pole, South Pole, Equator, International Date Line.
2. Tropic of Capricorn, Tropic of Cancer, Equator, Prime Meridian.
3. Torrid Zone, Time Zone, Temperate Zone, Frigid Zone.
4. Royal Astronomical observatory, Prime Meridian, Greenwich Meridian, International Date

Line.
5. 10o North, 20o South, 30o North, 40o West.
AB
1. 0o line of latitude - Pole
2. 0o line of longitude - International Date Line
3. 180o line of longitude - Greenwich
4. 90o line of latitude - Equator
A. 1. The Earth is spherical in shape.
2. The shape of the Earth is called a geoid.
3. The Earth is flat.
Look at the options given below and choose the correct answer:
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. Statement I: The lines of latitude on Earth are used to find the location of a place and define
the heat zones on Earth.
Statement II: The lines of longitudes on Earth are used to find the location of a place and to
calculate times.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong (b) Statement I is wrong; II correct
(c) Both the statements are correct (d) Both the statements are wrong
Name the following:
1. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth.
2. The imaginary line drawn vertically on Earth.
3. The three dimensional model of the Earth.
4. India is located in this hemisphere based on lines of longitude.
5. The network of lines of latitude and longitude.
Answers:
1. Geoid 2. 90oN Latitude 3. Eastern Hemisphere 4. Tropic of Cancer
5. International Date line 6. 12 noon 7. 1440 minutes 8. 82½o E 9. 181 10. 360
Fill in the blanks:
1. Equator 2. Parallels of latitude 3. North Pole and South Pole 4. Greenwich Meridian 5. 24
Circle the odd one:
1.International Date Line 2. Prime Meridian 3. Time Zone 4. International Date Line 5. 40o West
1. Equator 2. Greenwich 3. International date Line 4. Pole
1. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
2. Both the statements are correct.
Name the following:
1. Latitude 2. Longitude 3. Globe 4. Eastern hemisphere 5. Earth Grid
22] Understanding Disaster
Do You Know?
Chennai flood – 2015: Chennai is one of the largest metropolitan cities in India, which lies on
the south eastern coast. The north east monsoon along with tropical cyclone hits Chennai
every year and gives heavy cyclonic rainfall. In 2015, November and December due to heavy
rain, the devastating floods that hit Chennai and other parts of Tamil Nadu claimed more than
400 lives and caused enormous economic damage. The Government of India and Tamil Nadu
have taken a lot of action to reduce loss of life and minimize human sufferings.
23] Democracy
Do You Know?
Democracy is ‘Government of the people, by the people, for the people’. – Abraham Lincoln.
The birth place of democracy is Greece. Democracy is a term derived from the Greek words
“Demos” and “cratia”. ‘Demos’ means the people and ‘Cratia’ means the power or rule.
In a Direct Democracy, only the citizens can make laws. All changes have to be approved by
the citizen. The politicians only rule over parliamentary procedure. Switzerland has had a
long history of a successful direct democracy.
In 2007, the UNO General Assembly resolved to observe 15th September as the International
Day of Democracy.
The world statistical data on democracy declares that 79% of the Indian citizens have faith in
the democratic system. Hence, India ranks first among the democratic countries of the world.
1. Early man settles near _____________ and practiced agriculture.
(a) Plains
(b) Bank of rivers
(c) Mountains
(d) Hills
2. The birth place of democracy is ___________
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Greece
(d) Rome
3. ______________ is celebrated as the International Democracy Day.
(a) September
(b) October 15
(c) November 15
(d) December 15
4. Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Representatives
(d) All eligible voters
Fill in the blanks:
1. Direct Democracy is practised in _____________
2. The definition of democracy is defined by ____________
3. People choose their representatives by giving their ______________
4. In our country ___________ democracy is in practice.
Answers:
1. Bank of rivers 2. Greece 3. September 15 4. All eligible voters
Fill in the blanks:
1. Switzerland 2. Abraham Lincoln 3. Votes 4. Representative
24] Local Bodies – Rural and Urban
Do You Know?
The Chennai Corporation which was founded in 1688 is the oldest local body in India.
Walajahpet Municipality is the first Municipality in Tamil Nadu.
The Nilgiris and Perambalur Districts have the lowest number of Panchayat Unions (4) .
April 24 is National Panchayat Raj Day.
Local Bodies of Tamil Nadu (At present):
Village Panchayats - 12,524
Panchayat Unions - 388
District Panchayats - 31
Town Panchayats - 528
Municipalities - 121
Municipal Corporations - 15
1. _______________ is set up with several village panchayats.
(a) Panchayat Union
(b) District Panchayat
(c) Taluk
(d) Revenue village
2. ______________ is National Panchayat Raj Day.
(a) January 24
(b) July 24
(c) November 24
(d) April 24
3. The oldest urban local body in India is ____________
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai
4. The head of a corporation is called a _____________
(a) Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c) Chairperson
(d) President
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ is the first state in India to introduce town Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year ______________
3. The tenure of the local body representative is ____________ year
4. ___________ is the first municipality in Tamil Nadu.
1. Grama Sabha - Executive Officer
2. Panchayat Union - State Election Commission
3. Town Panchayat - Block Development Officer
4. Local body election - Permanent Unit
Answers:
1. Panchayat union 2. April 24 3. Chennai 4. Mayor
Fill in the blanks:
1. Tamil Nadu 2. April 24, 1992 3. Five 4. Walajahpet, Vellore District
1. Permanent Unit 2. Block Development Officer 3. Executive Officer 4. State Election

Commission
25] Road Safety
Do You Know?
Pedestrian Crossing: The pedestrian crossing was instituted in Britain in 1934. The roads
were marked by dotted lines. On the pavement there were striped Belisha beacon light poles
named after Britain’s Minister of transport L. Horre-Belisha. The Zebra crossing with black
and white stripes was developed after the Second World War.

1] Sources of Medieval India
Do You Know?
Do you know the famous words of Khafi Khan, a courtier of Emperor Aurangazeb? He says,
‘It is the duty of an historian to be faithful, to have no hope of profit, no fear of injury, to show
no partiality on one side, or animosity on the other, to know no difference between friend and
stranger and to write nothing but with sincerity.’
Classification of Sources: Primary Sources, Secondary Sources.
A jital contained 3.6 grains of silver. Forty-eight jitals were equal to 1 silver tanka.
Tabakat is an Arabic word meaning generations or centuries. Tuzk is a Persian word
meaning autobiography. Tarikh or Tahquiq are Arabic words meaning history.
1. _______________ are the writings engraved on solid surfaces such as rocks, stones, temple
walls and metals.
(a) Chronicles
(b) Travelogues
(c) Coins
(d) Inscriptions
2. ______________ was the land gifted to temples.
(a) Vellanvagai
(b) Shalabhoga
(c) Brahmadeya
(d) Devadana
3. ___________ period was known as the period of devotional literature.
(a) Chola
(b) Pandya
(c) Rajput
(d) Vijayanagara
4. _____________ provides information about the first Sultan of Delhi.
(a) Ain-i-Akbari
(b) Taj-ul-Ma’asir
(c) Tuzk-i-Jahangiri
(d) Tarikh-i-Frishta
5. ______________, an Arab-born Morocco scholar, travelled from Morocco to India.
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Al Beruni
(c) Domingo Paes
(d) Ibn Battuta
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ inscriptions provide details about administration in a Brahmadeya village.
2. _____________ had stamped the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his gold coins and had his
name inscribed on it.
3. 3.6 grains of silver amounted to a ___________
4. __________ was patronised by Sultan Nazir-ud-din Mahmud of Slave Dynasty.
5. An Italian traveller ___________ visited Vijayanagara Empire in 1420.
AB
1. Khajuraho - Odisha
2. Konark - Hampi
3. Dilwara - Madhya Pradesh
4. Virupaksha - Rajasthan
1. Pallichchandam was the land donated to Jaina institution.
2. The composition of metal coins gives us information on the political condition of the empire.
3. The high cost of copper made palm leaf and paper cheaper alternatives for recording royal
orders and events in royal courts.
4. Domingo Paes, a Portuguese traveller, visited the Chola Empire in 1522.
1. Assertion (A): Muhammad Ghori’s gold coins carried the figure of Goddess Lakshmi.
Reason (R): The Turkish invader was liberal in his religious outlook.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) A and R are wrong
1. Madura Vijayam - Gangadevi
2. Abul Fazal - Ain-i-Akbari
3. Ibn Battuta - Tahquiq-i-Hind
4. Amuktamalyatha - Krishnadevaraya
Find out the odd one:
Inscriptions, Travelogues, Monuments, Coins.
Answers:
1. Inscriptions 2. Devadana 3. Chola 4. Taj-ul-Ma’asir 5. Ibn Battuta
Fill in the blanks:
1. Uttiramerur Inscriptions 2. Muhammad Ghori 3. 1Jital 4. Minhaj-us-siraj 5. Nicolo Conti
1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Odisha 3. Rajasthan 4. Hampi
1.True
2.True
3.False
Correct Statement: The high cost of copper made palm leaf and paper cheaper alternatives for
recording legal documents.
4.True
R is the correct explanation of A.
Ibn Battuta - Tahquiq-i-Hind
Find out the odd one:
Travelogues

2] Emergence of New Kingdom in North India
Do You Know?
There was a prolonged tripartite struggle between the Gurjara Pratiharas of Malwa, the
Rashtrakutas of Deccan and the Palas of Bengal, as each one of them wanted to establish their
supremacy over the fertile region of Kanauj. In the process, all the three powers were
weakened.
There is a long epic poem Prithvirajraso, composed by the bard Chand Bardai, a few centuries
later. The story goes like this: The daughter of the King of Kanauj was to marry. A suyamwara
(the bride choosing the bridegroom of her choice) was held to enable her to choose her
husband. But she was in love with Prithiviraj and desired to marry him. Prithiviraj was the
enemy of her father. In order to insult him, the King of Kanauj had not only denied him an
invitation but had placed a statue of Prithiviraj as door keeper at the entrance to his court. To
the shock of everyone assembled, the princess rejected the princess present and garlanded
the statue of Prithiviraj, indicating her choice. Prithiviraj, who had been hiding in the vicinity,
jumped in a rode away with the princess in a horse. Later both of them were married.
The Raksha Bandan (Rakhi) tradition is attributed to Rajput’s. Raksha (protection) Bandhan
(to tie) is a festival that celebrated brotherhood and love. It is believed that if a woman ties a
rakhi around the wrists of male members, it means they are treating them like brothers. Such
men are placed under an obligation to protect them. Rabindranath Tagore started a mass
Raksha Bandhan festival during the Partition of Bengal (1905) , in which he encouraged Hindu
and Muslim women to tie a rakhi on men from the other community and make them their
brother. The exercise was designed to counter British efforts to create a divide between
Hindus and Muslims.
Arab Conquest of Sind and its Impact: In A.D. (CE) 712, Muhammad bin Qasim who was the
commander of the Umayyad kingdom invaded Sind. Qasim defeated Dahir, the ruler of Sind,
and killed him in the battle. The capital of Sind, Aror, was captured. Qasim extended his
conquest further into Multan. He organised the administration of Sind. The people of Sind
were given the status of ‘protected subjects.’ There was no interference in the lives and
religions of the people. But soon Qasim was recalled by the Caliph. The Arab scholars visited
Sind and studied many Indian literary works. They translated many Sanskrit books on
astronomy, philosophy, mathematics and medicine into Arabic. They learnt the numerals 0
to 9 from India. Until then, the people in the West did not know the use of zero. Through the
Arabs, Europe gained more knowledge in mathematics. The importance of zero was learnt by
them from India. It is believed that the people in the west and the Arabs learnt the game of
chess only from the Indians.
1. Who wrote Prithvirajraso?

(a) Kalhana
(b) Vishakadatta
(c) Rajasekara
(d) Chand Bardai
2. Who was the first prominent ruler of Pratiharas?
(a) Bhoja I
(b) Naga Bhatta I
(c) Jayapala
(d) Chandradeva
3. Ghazni was a small principality in ______________
(a) Mangolia
(b) Turkey
(c) Persia
(d) Afghanistan
4. What was the most important cause of the invasion of Mahmud of Ghazni?
(a) To destroy idolatry
(b) To plunder the wealth of India
(c) To spread Islam in India
(d) To establish a Muslim state in India
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ was the founder of Vikramashila University.

2. Arabs conquered Sind in ______________
3. The city of Ajmeer was founded by _____________
4. The Khandarya temple is in ______________
AB
1. Khajuraho - Mount Abu
2. Sun temple - Bundelkhand
3. Dilwara Temple - Konark
1. Rajputra is a Latin word.

2. King Gopala was elected by the people.
3. The temple at Mount Abu is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
4. Raksha Bandan is a festival of brotherhood.
5. Indians learnt the numerals 0-9 from Arabs.
1. Assertion: The tripartite struggle was to have control over Kanauj.

Reason: Kanauj was a big city.
2. Statement I: Mahipala could not extend his domain beyond Benaras.
Statement II: Mahipala and Rajendra Chola were contemporaries.
(a) I is correct
(b) II is correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) I and II are false
3. Assertion: India’s Islamic period did not begin after Arab conquest of Sind in AD (CE) 712.
Reason: Gurjara Pratiharas gave a stiff resistance to Arabs.
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
4. Assertion: The second battle of Tarain was lost by Prithiviraj.
Reason: There was disunity among the Rajputs.
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
5. Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct:
1. Raksha Bandan tradition is attributed to Rajputs.
2. Tagore started mass Raksha Bandan festival during Partition of Bengal.
3. Raksha Bandan was to counter the British attempt to create a divide between Hindus and
Muslims.
(a) 1 is correct
(b) 2 is correct
(c) 3 is correct
(d) All the above are correct
Answers:
1. Chand Bardai 2. Naga Bhatta I 3. Afghanistan 4. To plunder the wealth of India

Fill in the blanks:
1. Dharma Palar 2. 712 3. Shima Raj 4. Madhya Pradesh

1. Bundelkhand 2. Konark 3. Mount Abu

1.False
Correct Statement: Rajputra is a Sanskrit word.
2.True
3.False
Correct Statement: The temple at Mount Abu is a Jain temple.
4.True
5.False
Correct Statement: Arab’s learnt the numerals 0-9 from the Indians.
1. R is not the correct explanation of A

2. Statement I and II are correct.
3. A is correct and R is wrong.
4. A is correct and R is wrong.
5. All the above are correct.

3] Emergence of New Kingdoms in South India: Later Cholas and Pandya’s
Do You Know?
Matrimonial alliances between the Cholas and the Eastern Chalukyas began during the reign
of Rajaraja I. His daughter Kundavai was married to Chalukya prince Vimaladitya. Their son
was Rajaraja Narendra who married the daughter of Rajendra Chola named Ammangadevi.
Their son was Kulothunga I.
Saivite saint Thirugnanasambandar converted Arikesari from Jainism to Saivism. On his
conversion, Arikesari is alleged to have impaled around 8000 Jains on stakes. Though the
number is an exaggerated one, the anti-Jain attitude of Arikesari after his conversion to
Saivism cannot be doubted.
Marco Polo hailed the Pandyan Kingdom as “the richest and the most splendid province in
the world”. Together with Ceylon, he added, it “Produced most of the gems and pearls that are
found in the world”. In his travel account he recorded the incidents of sati and the polygamy
practiced by the kings.
The vast trade in horses of that time has been recorded by Wassaff. He writes:” As many as
10,000 horses were imported into Kayal and other ports of India of which 1,400 were to be of
Jamal-ud-din’s own breed. The average cost of each horse was 220 dinars of “red gold”.
1. Who revived the later Chola dynasty?

(a) Vijayalaya
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendra I
(d) Athirajendra
2. Who among the following Pandya rulers is known for ending the Kalabhra rule?
(a) Kadunkon
(b) ViraPandyan
(c) Kun Pandyan
(d) Varaguna
3. Which of the following was the lowest unit of Chola administration?
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Kurram
(d) Ur
4. Who was the last ruler Vijayalaya line of Chola dynasty?
(a) Veera Rajendra
(b) Rajadhiraja
(c) Athi Rajendra
(d) Rajaraja II
5. An example of Chola architecture can be seen at _____________
(a) Kannayiram
(b) Uraiyur
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Thanjavur
6. To which of the following, Marco Polo went in the last decade of 13th century in India?
(a) Chola Mandalam
(b) Pandya country
(c) Kongu region
(d) Malainadu
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ built the famous Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur.

2. _______________ established a Vedic college at Ennayiram.
3. ______________ was the donor of Velvikudi copper plates.
4. The royal secretariat of Pandya Kingdom was known as _____________
AB
1. Madurai - Inland traders
2. Gangaikonda Cholapuram - Maritime traders
3. Anju-Vannattar - Capital of Cholas
4. Mani-Gramattar - Capital of Pandyas
1. A Muslim state subordinate to Delhi Sultan was in Madurai.
2. Koodal-Nagar Kavalan was the title of a Pandya King.
3. Chola kingdom was situated in Vaigai delta.
4. Kulothunga I belonged to Chalukya – Chola dynasty.
5. The elder son of the Chola king was called Yuvaraja.
1. Which of the following statements about Later Cholas are correct?
1. They had a system of Local self-government.
2. They maintained a strong navy.
3. They were the followers of Buddhism.
4. They built big temples.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
2. Which of the following statements are true with regard to Rajendra Chola?
1. He assumed the title Gangaikonda Chola.
2. He conquered southern Sumatra.
3. He is credited with consolidating the Chola power.
4. His naval power enabled him to conquer Srivijaya.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) All the above
3. Assertion: The Yuvarajas were appointed Governors in the provinces.
Reason: This was done for their training in administration.
4. Arrange the following administration divisions in descending order
(1) Nadu (2) Mandalam (3) Ur (4) Kurram
5. Arrange the events in chronological order:
1. Maravarman appointed Virapandyan as co-regent.
2. Civil war broke out.
3. A Muslim State was established in Madurai.
4. Maravarman Kulasekaran had two sons – Virapandyan and Sundrapandyan.
5. Sundra Pandyan sought help from Ala-ud-din Khalji.
6. Malik Kafur invaded Madurai.
Answers:
1. Vijayalaya 2. Kadunkon 3. Ur 4. Athi Rajendra 5. Thanjavur 6. Pandya country

Fill in the blanks:
1. Raja Raja I 2. Rajendra I 3. Nedunczhelian 4. Mandalam

1. Capital of Pandyas 2. Capital of Cholas 3. Maritime traders 4. Inland Traders
1. True
2. True
3. False
Correct Statement: Chola kingdom was situated in Cauvery delta.
4. True
5. True
1.Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

2.All the above
3.R is the correct explanation of A
4.Mandalam, Nadu, Kurram, Ur
5.Arrange the events in chronological order:
1. Maravarman Kulasekaran had two sons – Virapandyan and Sundrapandyan.
2. Maravarman appointed Virapandyan as co-regent.
3. Civil war broke out.
4. Sundra Pandyan sought help from Ala-ud-din Khalji.
5. Malik Kafur invaded Madurai.
6. A Muslim State was established in Madurai.
4] The Delhi Sultanate
Do You Know?
Sack of Chittor (1303): When Ala-ud-Din’s army overwhelmed the Rajput army in Chittor and
in the context of threat of defeat, the men and women of the fortress, in accordance with their
old custom, performed the rite of jauhar. According to this custom, left with no other way to
survive, the men would go out and die in the field of battle and women would burn themselves
on a pyre.
It was a 40-days march to Daulatabad from Delhi. Many people left. Some hid themselves.
When they were found, they were punished cruelly, even though one was a blind man and
another a paralytic. Describing the city as spreading over eight or ten miles, a historian
observed: “All was destroyed. So complete was the ruin that not a cat or a dog was left among
the buildings of the city in its palaces or in its suburbs.”
Islamic art and architecture: The mansions of high-ranking Muslim nobles, soldiers and
officials were built first in cities and the neighbourhoods. Around them, the mosques in the
imperial style were constructed by successive Muslim regimes in Delhi. Mosques and
Madrasas looked architecturally different. The graceful decorations of doorways and walls
with lines from the Koran made a distinct appearance in these buildings. The shape of all
these buildings was Persian, while the decoration was Indian. So, it is called Indo-Saracenic
architecture. Qutb Minar, Alai-Darwaza, Quwwat-ul Islam Masjid, Moth-ki-Masjid, the tombs
of Iltutmish, Balban and the forts of Daulatabad and Firozabad were all constructed in this
style.
1. ____________ laid the foundation of “Mamluk” dynasty.
(a) Mohammad Ghori
(b) Jalal-ud-din
(c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(d) Iltutmish
2. Qutb-ud-din shifted his capital to Delhi from ____________
(a) Lahore
(b) Poona
(c) Daulatabad
(d) Agra
3. ______________ completed the construction of the Qutb-Minar.
(a) Razia
(b) Qutb-ud-din-Aibak
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Balban
4. _____________ laid the foundation of the city Tughluqabad near Delhi.
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
(b) Firoz shah Tughluq
(c) Jalal-ud-din
(d) Ghyiyas-ud-din
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ was the founder of Tughluq dynasty.
2. Muhammad-bin-Tughluq shifted his capital from Delhi to _____________
3. _____________ patronized the famous Persian poet Amir Khusru.
4. Quwwat-ul-Islam Masjid in Delhi was built by ______________
5. The threat of Mongols under Chengizkhan to India was during the reign of
_______________
A-B
1. Tughril Khan - Governor of Kara
2. Ala-ud-din - Jalal-ud-din Yakut
3. Bahlol Lodi - Governor of Bengal
4. Razia - Governor of Sirhind
1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak died of mysterious fever.
2. Razia was an able and brave fighter.
3. The Turkish nobles chose Iltutmish, son of Aibak, as Sultan after the death of Aibak.
4. FirozShah Tughluq refused to accept an invitation from a Bahmani Prince to intervene in

the affairs of the Deccan.
Assertion (A): Balban maintained cordial relationship with Mongols.
Reason (R): The Mongol ruler, a grandson of Chengiz Khan, assured that Mongols would not
advance beyond Sutlej.
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong and R is the correct
1. Hoysala - Devagiri
2. Yadavas - Dwarasamudra
3. Kakatias - Warrangal
4. Pallavas - Madurai
Find out the Incorrect statement:
1. After Ghori’s death in 1206, his slave Qutb-ud-din Aibak proclaimed himself the ruler of the
Turkish territories in India.
2. Razia established the department of spies to gather intelligence about the conspirators and
the trouble makers against her rule.
3. Balban built forts to guard his empire against the Mongol attack.
4. Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur in 1526
A-B
1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak - Rukn-ud-din-Firuz
2. Iltutmish - Kaiqubad
3. Balban - Ala-ud-din
4. Ghiyas-ud-din - Sikandar Lodi
5. Bahlol Lodi - Aram Shah
Answers:
1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak 2. Lahore 3. Iltutmish 4. Ghyiyas-ud-din
Fill in the blanks:
1. Ghyiyas-ud-din 2. Devagiri 3. Balban 4. Qutub-din-Aibak 5. Iltutmish
1. Governor of Bengal 2. Governor of Kara 3. Governor of Sirhind 4. Jalal-ud-din Yakut
1.False
Correct statement: Qutb-ud-din Aibak died of several injuries during an accidental fall from
horse while playing polo.
2. True
3. False
Correct statement: The Turkish nobles chose Iltutmish, son- in-law of Aibak, as Sultan after
the death of Aibak
4.True
R is the correct explanation of A
Kakatias - Warrangal
Find out the Incorrect statement:
Razia established the department of spies to gather intelligence about the conspirators and
the trouble makers against her rule.
1. Ala-ud-din 2. Aram Shah 3. Rukn-ud-din-Firuz 4. Kaiqubad 5. Sikandar Lodi
5] Interior of the Earth
Do You Know?
Earth is called as blue Planet. 71% of the earth is covered by water.
The crust forms only 1 per cent of the volume of the earth, 84% consists of the mantle and 15%
makes the core. The radius of the earth is 6371 km.
Asthenosphere: The asthenosphere is the part of the mantle that flows and moves the plates
of the earth.
An earthquake of 2.0 o Richter scale or less can be felt only a little. An earthquake over 5.0 on
Richter scale can cause damage from things falling. A 6.0 on Richter scale or higher
magnitude is considered very strong and 7.0 on Richter scale is classified as a major
earthquake.
On 26th Dec. 2004 Tsunami in the Indian Ocean swept coastal area of Indonesia, India, Sri
Lanka, Thailand etc., they caused immense damage to life and property in the coastal area.
There are three types of earthquake waves: (1) P waves or longitudinal waves; (2) S waves or
transverse waves; (3) L waves or surface waves.
Fact: The scientific study of volcanoes is called volcanology. People who study volcanoes are
called volcanologists.
Barren Island is situated in the Andaman Sea, and lies about 138 km northeast of the
territory’s capital. It is only in active volcano along the chain from Sumatra to Myanmar. Last
eruption occurred in 2017.
Stramboli is known as the “light house of Mediterranean Sea”.
1. Nife is made up of _______________
(a) Nickle and ferrous
(b) Silica and aluminium
(c) Silica and Magnesium
(d) Iron and magnesium
2 Earthquake and volcanic eruption occur near the edges of _______________
(a) Mountain
(b) Plains
(c) Plates
(d) Plateaus
3. The magnitude of an earthquake is measured by _____________
(a) Seismograph
(b) Richter scale
(c) Ammeter
(d) Rotameter
4. The narrow pipe through which magma flow out is called a _____________
(a) Vent
(b) Crater
(c) Focus
(d) Caldera
5. Lava cones are _______________
(a) Mountains of accumulation
(b) Mountains of deformation
(c) Relicit Mountains
(d) Fold Mountains
6. The top of the cone of a volcanic mountain has a depression known as the ______________
(a) Crater
(b) Lopith
(c) Caldera
(d) Sill
7. _____________ belt is known as the “Ring of Fire”.
(a) Pacific
(b) Atlantic
(c) Arctic
(d) Antarctic
Fill in the blanks:
1. The core is separated from the mantle by a boundary called ___________
2. The earthquake waves are recorded by an instrument known as _______________
3. Magma rises to the surface and spread over a vast area is known as ______________
4. An example for active volcano ______________
5. Seismology is the study of _______________
Find the odd one out:
1. Crust, magma, core, mantle.
2. Focus, epicentre, vent, seismic waves.
3. Uttar Kasha, Chamoli, Koyna, Krakatoa.
4. Lava, caldera, silica, crater.
5. Stromboli, Helens, Hawaii, Fujiyama.
1. Earth Quake - Japanese term
2. Sima - Africa
3. Pacific Ring of Fire - Sudden movement
4. Tsunami - Silica and magnesium
5. Mt. Kenya - World volcanoes
1. Assertion (A): There structure of the earth may be compared to that of an Apple.
Reason (R): The interior of the earth consists of crust, mantle and core.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
2. Assertion (A): The Pacific Oceans includes two thirds of the world’s volcanoes.
Reason (R): The boundary along the Eastern and Western coast areas of the Pacific Ocean is
known as the Pacific Ring of Fire.
Answers:
1. Nickel and Ferrous 2. Plates 3. Richter scale 4. Vent 5. Mountains of accumulation 6. Crater
7. Pacific
Fill in the blanks:
1. Guttenberg 2. Seismograph 3. Magma 4. St. Andes 5. Volcanos
Find the odd one out:
1. Magma 2. Vent 3. Krakatoa 4. Silica 5. Fujiyama
1. Sudden movement 2. Silica and magnesium 3. World Volcanoes 4. Japanese Term 5. Africa
1. A and R are correct and A explains R

2. A and R are correct and A explains R
6] Landforms
Do You Know?
The highest waterfall is Angel Falls of Venezuela in South America. The other waterfalls are
Niagara Falls located on the border between Canada and USA in North America and Victoria
Falls on the borders of Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa.
Tributary: A stream or river that flows into and joins a main river.
Distributary: A stream that branches off and flows away from a main stream.
The term “Meander” has been named on the basis of Meander River of Asia Minor (Turkey) ,
it flows through numerous curves and turns.
Northern China loess deposits are brought from the Gobi Desert.
The first longest beach in the world is the Miami Beach in South Florida in U.S.A. The second
longest beach in the world is the Marian Beach in Chennai.
1. ______________ is a deposition of river sediments along the foot-hills.
(a) Plunge pool
(b) Alluvial fan
(c) Flood plain
(d) Delta
2. Courtallam falls is located across the __________ river
(a) Cauvery
(b) Pennar
(c) Chittar
(d) Vaigai
3. The landform created glacial deposition is
(a) Cirque
(b) Arete
(c) Moraine
(d) Tarn lake
4. Large deposits of loess are founded in
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Brazil
5. ____________ are not associated with wave erosion.
(a) Cliff
(b) Sea arch
(c) Stack
(d) Beaches
Fill in the blanks:
1. The process of breaking and crumbling of rocks is _____________
2. The place where the river joins a lake or a sea is known as _______________
3. Inselbergs are found in the _____________ desert in South Africa.
4. A cirque is known as ______________ in Germany.
5. The first longest beach in the world is ___________
1. Breaking and crumbling of rocks - Glacier
2. Abandoned meander loops - Barchans
3. Large body of moving ice - Lagoon
4. Crescent shaped sand dunes - Weathering
5. Vembanad Lake - Oxbow Lake
1. Assertion (A): The deltas are formed near the mouth of the river.
Reason (R): The velocity of the river becomes slow when it approaches the sea
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
2. Assertion (A): Sea arches in turn become Sea Stacks.
Reason (R): Sea Stacks are the results of wave deposition.
Answers:
1. Alluvial fan 2. Chittar 3. Moraine 4. China 5. Stack
Fill in the blanks:
1. Weathering 2. Estuaries 3. Kalahari 4. Kahr cirque 5. Miami Beach
1. Weathering 2. Oxbow lake 3. Glaciers 4. Barchans 5. Lagoon
1.Both A and R are correct

2.A is correct and R is wrong
7] Population and Settlement
Do You Know?
Human geography is the study of Man and his surrounding to the natural environment.
Date & Event: 11th July - World Population Day; 21st February - International Mother Language
Day; Third Sunday in January every year - World Religious Day; 21st May - The World Cultural
Diversity Day.
Pilgrim Settlement: Pilgrim settlement may come up around a place of worship (or) any spot
with a religious significance. E.g.: Thiruverkadu in Tamil Nadu.
World Health Organization (WHO) suggests that among other things a healthy city must have:
A “Clean” and “Safe” environment; Meets the basic needs of “All” its inhabitants; Involves the
“Community” in local government; Provides easily accessible “Health service.”
1. Caucasoid race is also known as ____________ race.
(a) European
(b) Negroid
(c) Mangoloid
(d) Australoid
2. ____________ Race is known as Asian-American Race.
(a) Caucasoid
(b) Negroid
(c) Mongoloid
(d) Australoid
3. The official language of India is ______________
(a) Marathi
(b) Tamil
(c) English
(d) Hindi
4. Rural settlements are located near ___________
(a) Water bodies
(b) Hilly areas
(c) Coastal areas
(d) Desert areas
5. Arrange the following in terms of size: (1) City (2) Megalopolis (3) Metropolis (4) Conurbation
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Bushmen is found mainly in ___________ desert in South Africa.
2. Linguistic stock is a group of ____________ family sharing features and its origin.
3. In _____________ settlements, where most of the people are engaged in secondary and
tertiary activities.
4. ______________ towns are generally located outside the rural Urban Fringe.
5. _______________ settlement come up around a place of worship.
A.
1. Caucasoid - Asian – American
2. Negroid - Australia
3. Mongoloid - European
4. Australoid - African
B.
1. Sutlej-Ganga pain - Dispersed settlement
2. Nilgris - Star like pattern
3. South India - Rectangular pattern
4. Seacoast - Compact settlement
5. Haryana - Circular settlement
1. Assertion (A): There are numerous languages spoken in the world.
Reason (R): The linguistic diversity in the world is vast.
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explains R
2. Assertion (A): Thiruverkadu in Tamil Nadu is an example for pilgrim settlement.
Reason (R): Iron and steel industry is located there.
1. Fishing, lumbering, agriculture, banking.
2. Himalayas, Alps, Rocky, Ganga.
3. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Kanchipuram.
Answers:

1. European 2. Mongoloid 3. Hindi 4. Water bodies
5. City, Metropolis, Conurbation, Megalopolis
Fill in the blanks:
1. Kalahari 2. Language 3. Town 4. Satellite 5. Pilgrim
1. European 2. African 3. Asian-American 4. Australia
1. Rectangular pattern 2. Dispersed settlement 3. Compact settlement 4. Circular settlement 5.

Star like pattern
1.A and R are correct and A explains R

1. Banking 2. Ganga 3. Kanchipuram
8] Equality
Do You Know?
Rule of law was advocated by A.V. Dicey, the British legal luminary.
Efforts were made by many social activists from the 19th century onwards. The noted
champions of this cause were Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Dayanand
Saraswati, Mahadev Govind Ranade, Tarabai Shinde, Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hussain.
They worked hard to get equal status to the women.
Article 14 – guarantees to all the people equality before law; Article 15 – deals with the
prohibition of discrimination; Article 16 – provides equality of opportunity in matters relating
to employment; Article 17 – abolishes the practice of untouchability; Article 18 – abolishes the
titles conferred to citizens.
1. Which one of the following does not come under Equality?
(a) Non-discrimination on the basis of birth, caste, religion, race, colour, gender
(b) Right to contest in the election
(c) All are treated equal in the eyes of law

(d) Showing inequality between rich and poor
2. Which one of the following is comes under political equality?
(a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy
(b) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex and caste
(c) All are equal before the law
(d) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the hands of law
3. In India, right to vote is given to all the citizens at the age of __________
(a) 21
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 31
4. Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, money, religion etc. is called as
______________
(a) Natural inequality
(b) Manmade inequality
(c) Economic inequality
(d) Gender inequality
5. In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women in the year.
(a) 1981
(b) 1971
(c) 1991
(d) 1961
Fill in the blanks:
1. Civil equality implies equality of all before ____________
2. The Indian constitution deals about the Right to equality from Article ________ to
__________
3. Right to contest in the election is a __________ Right.
4. Equality means, absent of _________ privileges.
Answers:
1. Showing inequality between rich and poor 2. Right to petition the government and criticize
public policy 3. 18 4. Manmade inequality 5. 1971

Fill in the blanks:
1. Law 2. 14, 18 3. Political 4. Social importance
9] Political Parties
Do You Know?
Party “manifesto”: During the campaign before election, the candidates announce the
programmes and policies that their party will undertake if voted to power.
Election Commission: Statutory body the election commission of India is an autonomous,

constitutional authority responsible for administering elections. Its head quarter is located in
New Delhi.
Free symbols “Poll panel”: As per the Election Symbols order 1968, symbols are either reserved
or free. A reserved symbol is meant for a recognized political party. A free symbol is reserved
for unrecognized party.
1. What is meant by B1-party system?
(a) Two parties run the government
(b) Two members run a party
(c) Two major political parties contest election
(d) None of these
2. Which system of government does India have?
(a) Single-party system
(b) B1-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
3. Recognitions of a political party is accorded by ___________
(a) The Election Commission
(b) The President
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) A Committee
4. Political parties are generally formed on the basic of ______________
(a) Religious principles

(b) Common interest
(c) Economic principles
(d) Caste
5. Single-party system is found in __________
(a) India
(b) U.S. A
(c) France
(d) China
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ form the back bone of democracy.
2. Every party in our country has to register with ______________
3. Political parties serve as intermediaries between the ____________ and ____________
4. A registered but ____________ political party cannot contest election on its own symbol.
5. The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of ____________
AB
1. Democracy - Criticize the government policies
2. Election commission - Forms the government
3. Majority party - Rule of the people
4. Opposition party - Free and fair election
1. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(a) Every party in the country has to register with the election commission
(b) The commission treats all the parties equally
(c) Election commission allots a separate symbol for recognized parties
(d) All the above
2. Assertion: Majority party plays a decisive role in making laws for the country.
Reason: The number of candidates elected is more than the others in the election
(c) R is wrong A is correct

Answers:
1. Two major political parties contest election 2. Multi-party system 3. The Election
Commission 4. Common interests 5. China
Fill in the blanks:
1. Political parties 2. Election Commission 3. Citizens and Executives 4. Unrecognised 5.

Cabinet Minister
1. Rule of the people 2. Free and Fair election 3. Forms the government 4. Criticize the
government policies
1.All the above
2. R is the correct explanation of A
10] Production
Do You Know?
Types of Utility: Form utility – If the physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility may
increase. Eg. Cotton increases, if it is converted into clothes; Place utility – If a commodity is
transported from one place to another, its utility may increase. Eg. If rice transported to Tamil
Nadu to Kerala, its utility will be more; Time utility – If the commodity is stored for future
usage, its utility may increase. Eg. Agricultural commodities like Paddy, Wheat, etc. are stored
for the regular uses of consumers throughout the year.
Indian Economy is a Mixed Economy. Private and Public Sector are existing together.
The most to the Gross Domestic Product of our country is contributed by the tertiary sector.
Example: Primary sector and secondary sector production: Cotton (Primary sector) – Cotton
Industry (Secondary Sector) = Cloth Production. Iron Ore (Primary Sector) – Iron Industry
(Secondary Sector) = Material Production. Wheat flour (Primary sector) – Bread Factory
(Secondary Factory) = Food Production.
Land: Land can take on various forms, from agricultural land to commercial real estate to the
resources available from a particular piece of Land.
Adam Smith is known as Father of Economics and his Economics is wealth Economics. He
wrote two classic works, “The Theory of Moral sentiments (1759) ”, and “An inquiry into the
nature and causes of the wealth of Nations (1776) ”.

1. Production refers to
(a) Destruction of utility
(b) Creation of utilities
(c) Exchange value
(d) None of these
2. Utilities are in the nature of
(a) Form utility
(b) Time utility
(c) Place utility
(d) All of these
3. ____________ is carried out by extractive industries.
(a) Secondary production
(b) Primary production
(c) Tertiary production
(d) Service Production
4. Primary factors are
(a) Land, Capital
(b) Capital, Labour
(c) Land, Labour
(d) None of these
5. The entrepreneur is also called
(a) Exchanger
(b) Agent
(c) Organizer
(d) Communicator
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ means want satisfying power of a product.
2. Derived factors are ______________ and ___________.
3. ___________ is a fixed in supply.
4. ____________ is the human input into the production process.

5. ___________ is the man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services.
1. Primary production - Adam Smith
2. Time utility - Fishing, mining
3. Wealth of nation - Entrepreneur
4. Human capital - Stored for future
5. Innovator - Education, Health
Answers:
1. Creation of utilities 2. All of these 3. Primary production 4. Land, labour 5. Organizer
Fill in the blanks:
1. Utility 2. Investment, Party 3. Land 4. Efficiency 5. Investment
1. Fishing, mining 2. Stored for future 3. Adam Smith 4. Education, Health 5. Entrepreneur
11] Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms
Do You Know?
Bukka I’s son Kumara Kampana ended the sultanate in Madurai and succeeded in
establishing Nayak kingdom there. The conquest of the Madurai Sultanate by the
Vijayanagara Empire is described in detail in the poem Madura Vijayam composed by
Kamapana’s wife Gangadevi.
The site of the city of Vijayanagar on the bank of the river Tungabhadra in eastern Karnataka
is now called Hampi. Hampi is in ruins and the UNESCO has declared it a heritage site.
Amutkamalyada is considered a masterpiece in Telugu literature. It relates the story of the

daughter of Periazhvar, Goda Devi (Andal) , who used to wear the garlands intended for Lord
Ranganatha before they were offered to the deity, and hence the name Amutkamalyada who
wears and gives away garlands.
The Golconda Fort is located about 11 kilometres from Hyderabad on a hill 120 metres height.
The fort is popular for its acoustic architecture. The highest point of the fort is Bala Hissar. It
is believed that there is a secret underground tunnel, which leads from the Durbar Hall to one
of the palaces at the foot of the hills.
Turquoise is a semi-precious stone sky blue in colour. Turquoise throne is one of the
bejewelled royal seats of Persian kings described in Firdausi’s Shah Nama.

Eight ministers of the Bahmani state: (1) Vakil-us-saltana or lieutenant of the kingdom, who
was the immediate subordinate authority of the sovereign; (2) Peshwa who was associated
with the lieutenant of the kingdom; (3) Waziri-kull who supervised the work of all other
ministers; (4) Amir-i-jumla, minister of finance; (5) Nazir, assistant minister for finance; (6)
Wasir-i-ashraf, minister of foreign affairs; (7) Kotwal or chief of police and city magistrate in
the capital; and (8) Sadr-i-jahan or chief justice and minister of religious affairs and
endowments.
1. Who was the greatest ruler of Sangama Dynasty?
(a) Bukka
(b) Deavaraya II
(c) Harihara II
(d) Krishna Devaraya
2. Which was the most common animal depicted on the pillars of Vijayanagar style?
(a) Elephant
(b) Horse
(c) Cow
(d) Deer
3. Who was the last ruler of the Sangama Dynasty?
(a) Rama Raya
(b) Tirumaladeva Raya
(c) Devaraya II
(d) Virupaksha Raya II
4. Who ended the Sultanate in Madurai?
(a) Saluva Narasimha
(b) Devaraya II
(c) Kumara Kampana
(d) Tirumaladeva Raya
5. Name the Bahmani King who was a linguist and a poet
(a) Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah
(b) Muhammad I
(c) Sultan Firoz
(d) Mujahid

Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ was the capital of Aravidu dynasty.
2. Vijayanagar emperors issued a large number of gold coins called ______________
3. Mahmud Gawan used _____________ chemists to teach the preparation and use of
gunpowder.
4. In Vijayanagara administration ____________ looked after the affairs of villages.
1. Vijayanagara - Ruler of Odisha
2. Prataparudra - Astadiggajas
3. Krishna Devaraya - Pandurangamahatyam
4. Abdur Razzaq - City of victory
5. Tenali Ramakrishna - Persian emissary
1. Assertion (A): The Vijayanagar army was considered one of the feared armies in India.
Reason (R): Vijayanagar armies used both firearm and cavalry.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is correct explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct
(a) Sild - China
(b) Spices - Arabia
(c) Precious stone - Burma
(d) Madurai Vijayam - Gangadevi
3. Find the odd one out:
Harihara II, Muhammad I, Krishnadeva Raya, Devaraya I.
4. Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct:
I. Turquoise throne is one of the bejewelled royal seats of Persian kings described in Firdausi’s
Shah Nama.
II. The fertile regions between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra and Krishna – Godavari
delta were the zones of conflict among the rulers of Vijayanagar, and Bahmani.
III. Muhammad I was educated at Multan.

IV. Mahmud Gawan served with great distinction as the Prime Minister under Muhammad
III.
(a) i, ii are correct
(b) i, ii, iii are correct
(c) i, ii, iv is correct
(d) iii, iv is correct
1. Harihara and Bukka were the founder of Bahmani kingdom.
2. Krishnadeva Raya, who reigned for 20 years, was the most illustrious rulers of Sangama
dynasty.
3. Alasani Peddana was the greatest of all Astadiggajas.
4. Kingship of Vijayanagar administration was hereditary, based on the principle of primo

geniture.
5. There were 18 monarchs of the Bahmani dynasty.
Answers:
1. Deavaraya II 2. Horse 3. Virupaksha Raya II 4. Kumara Kampana 5. Sultan Firoz
Fill in the blanks:
1. Penukonda 2. Varahas 3. Persian 4. Gauda
1. City of victory 2. Ruler of Odisha 3. Astadiggajas 4. Persian emissary 5.

Pandurangamahatyam
1. R is correct explanation of A
2. Find out the wrong pair: Spices - Arabia
3. Find the odd one out: Muhammad I
4. i, ii, iv is correct
1.False
Correct Statement: Harihara and Bukka were the founder of the Vijayanagara kingdom.
2.False

Correct Statement: Krishnadeva Raya, who reigned for 20 years, was the most illustrious
rulers of Tuluva dynasty.
3.True
4.True
5.True
12] The Mughal Empire
Do You Know?
Red Fort: Red Fort, also called Lal Qila, in Delhi was the residence of the Mughal emperors.
Constructed in 1639 by Emperor Shah Jahan as the palace of his fortified capital
Shajahanabad. The Red Fort is named for its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone.
1. Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in India?
(a) Humayun
(b) Babur
(c) Jahangir
(d) Akbar
2. In which battle did Akbar defeat Rana Pratap?
(a) Panipat
(b) Chausa
(c) Haldighati
(d) Kanauj
3. Whose palace in Delhi was destroyed by Sher Shah?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Alam Khan
4. Who introduced Mansabdari system?
(a) Sher Sha
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan

5. Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?
(a) Birbal
(b) Raja Bhagwan Das
(c) Raja Todarmal
(d) Raja Man Singh
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ was the name of the horse of Rana Pratap.
2. ___________ was a hall at Fatehpur Sikri where scholars of all religions met for a discourse.
3. The Sufi saint who received Akbar’s utmost respect was _____________
4. During the reign of ___________ the Zabti system was extended to the Deccan provinces.
5. __________ were tax-free lands given to scholars and religious institutions.
1. Babur - Ahmednagar
2. Durgavati - Jaipur
3. Rani Chand Bibi - Akbar
4. Din Ilahi - Chanderi
5. Raja Man Singh - Central Province
1. Babur inherited Farghana, a small kingdom in Central Asia.
2. Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1565.
3. Aurangzeb married a girl of a notable Rajput family.
4. Jahangir ordered execution of Sikh leader Guru Arjun for helping his son Khusrau.
5. During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture received much patronage.
1. Assertion (A): The British established their first factory at Surat.
Reason (R): Jahangir granted trading rights to the English.
2. Assertion (A): Aurangzeb’s intolerance towards other religions made him unpopular among
people.

Reason (R): Aurangzeb re-imposed the jizya and pilgrim tax on the Hindus.
3. Find out the correct statements:
(i) Kamran was the son of Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.
(ii) Akbar abolished the jizya poll tax on non-Muslims and the tax on Hindu pilgrims.
(iii) Aurangzeb acceded the throne after killing his three brothers.
(iv) Prince Akbar entered into a pact with Shivaji’s son Shambuji in the Deccan.
(a) ii and iii are correct
(b) ii, iii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) iii, iv and i are correct
4. Arrange the battles in chronological order:
(i) Battle of Khanwa (ii) Battle of Chausa (iii) Battle of Kanauj (iv) Battle of Chanderi
5. Arrange the following administrative divisions in descending order:
(i) Sarkars (ii) Parganas (iii) Subhas
Father Son
1. Akbar - Dilawar Khan
2. Daulat Khan Lodi - Rana Pratap
3. Hasan Suri - Humayun
4. Babur - Sher Shah
5. Uday Singh - Jahangir
Answers:
1.Babur 2. Haldighati 3. Humayun 4. Akbar 5. Raja Todarmal
Fill in the blanks:
1. Chetak 2. Ibadatkhana 3. Salim Chishti 4. Shah Jahan 5. Suyurghal

1. Chanderi 2. Central Province 3. Ahmednagar 4. Akbar 5. Jaipur
Say True or False:
1.True
2.False
Correct Statement: Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1555.
3.False
Correct Statement: Akbar married a girl of a notable Rajput family.
4.True
5.False
Correct Statement: Aurangzeb’s was not a lover of art and architecture.

3.Statement ii, iii and iv are correct.
4.Battle of Khanwa (1527) , Battle of Chanderi (1528) , Battle of Causa (1539) , Battle of Kanauj
(1540)
5.Subhas, Sarkars, Parganas
Father - Son
1. Akbar - Jahangir
2. Daulat Khan Lodi - Dilawar Khan
3. Hasan Suri - Sher Shah
4. Babur - Humayun
5. Uday Singh - Rana Pratap
13] Rise of Marathas and Peshwas
Do You Know?
Chhatra (parasol) pati (master or lord) , is the Sanskrit equivalent of king or emperor, and was
used by the Marathas, especially Shivaji.
Shambuji was under the wicked influence of his family priest Kavi Kalash. Kavi Kalash was
the caretaker of Shambuji in Varanasi during Shivaji’s flight from Agra. He later brought
Shambhuji safely to Raigarh. His dominance in the Court became absolute in course of time,
as Shambhuji looked to his advice for everything. Kavi Kalash was a distinguished scholar
and poet. But he was a practitioner of witchcraft. So the orthodox Hindus in the court had
developed a deep hatred for him. When Shambhuji was captured by the Mughal army, he was

found to be in the company of Kavi Kalash. So both of them were subjected to all forms of
torture and then executed by the orders of Aurangzeb.
1. Who was the teacher and guardian of Shivaji?
(a) Dadaji Kondadev
(b) Kavi Kalash
(c) Jijabai
(d) Ramdas
2. How was the Prime Minister of Maratha Kings known?
(a) Deshmukh
(b) Peshwa
(c) Pandit Rao
(d) Patil
3. Name the family priest of Shambhuji who influenced him in his day-to-day administration.
(a) Shahu
(b) Anaji Datta
(c) Dadaji Kondadev
(d) Kavi Kalash
4. What was the backbone of Shivaji’s army in the beginning?
(a) Artillery
(b) Cavalry
(c) Infantry
(d) Elephantry
5. Who proclaimed wars and freed Malwa and Gujarat from Mughal domination?
(a) Balaji Viswanathan
(b) Bajirao
(c) Balaji Bajirao
(d) Shahu
Fill in the blanks:
1. The spread of the _______________ movement in Maharashtra helped the Maratha people
develop consciousness and oneness.
2. ___________ was the key official of revenue administration of Peshwa.

3. The imperial moment of the Marathas sadly ended at _________ in 1761.
4. ______________ was the foreign minister in the Ashtapradhan.
5. Shambhuji succeeded Shivaji after a succession tussle with ____________
1. Shaji Bhonsle - Mother of Shivaji
2. Shambhuji - General of Bijapur
3. Shahu - Shivaji’s father
4. Jijabai - Son of Shivaji
5. Afzal khan - Shivaji’s grandson
1. The rocky and mountainous terrain gave protection to the Marathas from invaders.
2. Hymns composed in Sanskrit by the Bhakti saints were sung by people of all castes and
classes.
3. Shivaji captured Puranthar from the Mughals.
4. Deshmukhs held sway over rural regions and their control was over between twenty and
hundred villages.
5. Abdali invaded ten times before finally marching on Delhi.
1. Assertion (A): Soldiers were to live in forts and towns far away from home.
Reason (R): Maratha soldiers were not permitted to retire from battle fields each year for the
purpose of cultivating their land.
(a) R is correct explanation of A
2. Statement I: Judging from the ledgers of correspondence and account books, Peshwas were
keen on accurate record-keeping.
Statement II: Artillery decided the battle at Panipat in 1761.
(a) I is correct
(b) II is correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) I and II are false

Shahji, Shivaji, Shambhuji, Shahu, Rahuji, Bhonsle.
1. Gaikwad - Baroda
2. Peshwa - Nagpur
3. Holkar - Indore
4. Shinde - Gwalior
5. Arrange the events in chronological order:
I) Shivaji became totally independent after the death of his guardian Kondadev.
II) Emperor Shahu died when Balaji Bajirao was Peshwa.
III) Shivaji resumed his military raids after his father’s death and conquered Javali.
IV) Balaji Vishwanath became Peshwa.
Answers:
1. Dadaji Kondadev 2. Peshwa 3. Kavi Kalash 4. Infantry 5. Bajirao
Fill in the blanks:
1. Bhakti 2. Kamavisdar 3. Panipat 4. Sumant/ Dubeer 5. Anaji datto
1. Shivaji’s father 2. Son of Shivaji 3. Shivaji’s Grandson 4. Mother of Shivaji
5. General of Bijapur
Say True or False:
1.True
2.False
Correct Statement: Hymns composed in Marathi language by the Bhakti saints were sung by
people of all castes and classes.
3.True
4.True
5.False
Correct Statement: Abdali invaded eight times before finally marching on Delhi.
1.R is not the correct explanation of A

2.Statement I and II are correct.
3.Rahuji

4.Peshwa- Nagpur
5.Arrange the events in chronological order:
I) Shivaji became totally independent after the death of his guardian Kondadev.
II) Shivaji resumed his military raids after his father’s death and conquered Javali.
III) Balaji Vishwanath became Peshwa.
IV) Emperor Shahu died when Balaji Bajirao was Peshwa.
14] Resources
Do You Know?
Kamuthi solar power project is one of the largest solar power projects in the world. It is
situated in Ramanathapuram District in Tamil Nadu. The Kamuthi solar power project was
completed on 21st September 2016. Investment of this project is around 4,550 Crores. The
installed capacity of this project is 648 MW.
Three Gorges Dam in China is the largest hydroelectricity project in the world. Its construction
started in 1994 and ended in 2012. The installed capacity of the dam is 22,000MW.
Most of the coal deposited that we use now, where formed about 300 million years ago. Much
of the earth was covered with steamy swamps. As the plants and trees are dead, their remains
were buried underneath the swamps. Eventually, they were transformed into coal beneath
the ground due to excessive heat and pressure.
1. Which one of the following is renewable resource?
(a) Gold
(b) Iron
(c) Petrol
(d) Solar Energy
2. Where is the largest solar power project situated in India?
(a) Kamuthi
(b) Aralvaimozhi
(c) Muppandal
(d) Neyveli
3. Which is one of the first metals known and used by man?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper

(c) Gold
(d) Silver
4. _______________ is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics

Industry.
(a) Limestone
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Silver
5. Electricity produced from coal is called _____________
(a) Thermal Power
(b) Nuclear power
(c) Solar power
(d) Hydel power
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ is the largest producer of hydro-electricity.
2. Iron ores found at _____________ in Tamil Nadu.
3. _____________ is produced from bauxite ore.
4. ____________ is used in making electrical batteries.
5. Petroleum and its derivatives are called ____________
1. Renewable resource - Iron
2. Metallic resource - Mica
3. Non-metallic resource - Wind energy
4. Fossil fuel - Sedimentary rock
5. Limestone - Petroleum
1. Assertion (A): Wind power is Clean Energy.
Reason (R): Wind turbines do not produce any emissions.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A

2. Assertion (A): Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.
Reason (R): It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
(b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A
Answers:
1. Solar Energy 2. Kamuthi 3. Copper 4. Mica 5. Thermal power
Fill in the blanks:
1. China 2. Kanjamalai 3. Aluminium 4. Manganese 5. Black Gold
1.Wind Energy 2. Iron 3. Mica 4. Petroleum 5. Sedimentary Rock
1.A and R are correct and R explains A

2.A and R are correct and R explains A
15] Tourism
Do You Know?
Gastronomy refers to an aspect of cultural tourism.
VISA: A document issued to a person (or) a stamp marked on the passport of a person who
wants to visit other country.
Tourist VISA: Recreation sightseeing.
Student VISA: Higher education.
Employment VISA: Work in a country.
Medical VISA: Medical treatment in a reputed hospital of a country.
Inbound Tourism: Touring within the native country.
Outbound Tourism: Touring in foreign countries.
Game Reserve: An area of land set aside for the protection of wild animals.
ITC - Inclusive tour charter
IATA - International Air Transport Association

IATO - Indian Association of Tour Operators
TAAI - Travel Agents Association of India
TTTHA - Tamil Nadu Tour Travel and Hospitality Association
TTDC - Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation
Push factors in Tourism are Prestige Pull factors in Tourism are Amenities.
1. The oldest type of tourism is ___________
(a) Religious
(b) Historical
(c) Adventure
(d) Recreational
2. In which state is the Kaziranga national park located.
(a) Rajasthan
(b) West Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Gujarat
3. Which one of the following is not a beach of India?
(a) Goa
(b) Cochin
(c) Kovalam
(d) Miami
4. Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary in India?
(a) Nal sarovor in Gujarat
(b) Koonthakulam in Tamil Nadu
(c) Bharatpur in Rajasthan
(d) Kanha in Madhya Pradesh
5. In which district Courtallam waterfalls is located?
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Tirunelveli
(c) Namakkal
(d) Theni

Fill in the blanks:
1. The three main components of tourism together known as _____________
2. Gastronomy refers to an aspect of ______________ tourism.
3. Suruli falls is also called as ____________
4. The second largest urban beach is ____________
5. Expansion of TAAI _____________
Circle the odd one:
1. Transport, Attraction, Accommodation, Amenities.
2. Nainital, Shillong, Munnar, Digha.
3. Corbett, Sundarbans, periyar, Mayani.
4. Hogenakal, Kumbakkari, Suruli, Kalakad.
5. Rishikesh, Ladakh, Gulmarg, Kotagiri.
1. Transport 2. Digha 3. Mayani 4. Kalakad 5. Kotagiri
1. Anamalai hills - West Bengal
2. Monkey falls - Goa
3. Darjeeling - Coimbatore
4. Nature’s Haven - Top slip
5. Aguda Beach - Javadi
1. Assertion (A): Tourism is an essential activity for the life of the society.
Reason (R): Its direct impact on social cultural, education and economic sector of the nation.
2. Assertion (A): One of the most popular beaches in Goa Calangute is a treat for the adventure
sports activities.
Reason (R): Foreigners throng the beaches.

Answers:
1.Religious 2. Assam 3. Miami 4. Kanha in Madhya Pradesh 5. Tirunelveli
Fill in the blanks:
1.A3 Concept 2. Cultural 3. Cloud land falls/ Meghamalai falls 4. Marina Beach 5. Travel Agents
Association of India
Circle the odd one:
1. Transport 2. Digha 3. Mayani 4. Kalakad 5. Kotagiri
1. Coimbatore 2. Top slip 3. West Bengal 4. Javadi 5. Goa

16] State government
1. What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the State Legislative Council?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
2. How many states does India have?
(a) 26
(b) 27
(c) 28
(d) 29
3. The word State Government refers to
(a) Government departments in the states
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above
4. The overall head of the government in the state is the _____________
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Minister
5. Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Election commissioner
6. Who becomes the Chief Minster?
(a) Leader of the Majority party
(b) Leader of the opposition party
(c) Both
(d) None
7. What are the three branches of the state government?
(a) Mayor governor, MLA
(b) Panchayat, municipality, Corporation
(c) Village, city, State
(d) Legislative, executive and judiciary
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Governor is appointed by the ____________
2. The leader of the majority party is appointed as ____________ in the state assembly.
3. ______________ is the highest judicial organ of the state.
4. MLA stands for ____________
5. _____________ is a particular area form where all the voters living there choose their
representatives.
6. The elected representatives who are not the member of ruling party are called __________
1. MLAs - Secretariat
2. Governor - 7

3. Chief Minister - Head of the state
4. Union territories - Legislative Assembly
5. Fort St. George - Leader of the majority party
1. Which of the following statement is/are not correct?
To become a governor, one
(a) Should be the citizen of India
(b) Should have completed 25 years of age
(c) Should have sound mind
(d) Should not hold any office of profit
(a) a & b
(b) c & d
(c) a
(d) b
2. Consider the following statements and state true or false:
(a) MLAs are together responsible for the working of the government.
(b) All the MLAs of other political party who do not belong to the ruling party are called
opposition.
(c) MLAs are not the representatives of people.
3. Find out the correct meaning of bicameral legislature:
(a) It means that there are cameras in the legislature.
(b) It means that the legislature has men and women members.
(c) It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.
(d) It means that the governor is the leader over the members of the legislature.
4. Assertion: India has a federal system of government.
Reason: According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state
governments.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(d) Both are wrong
Answers:

1. 30 years 2. 29 3. Government departments in the states and Legislative Assembly 4. Prime

Minister 5. Governor
6. Leader of the majority party 7. Legislative, Executive and judiciary
Fill in the blanks:
1. The President 2. The Chief Minister 3. The High Court 4. Member of legislative Assembly 5.
Electoral Constituencies
6. Opposition Party
1. Legislative Assembly 2. Head of the State 3. Leader of the majority party 4. 7 5. Secretariat
1.Should have completed 25 years of age

2.(a) True
(b) True
(c) False
Correct Statement: MLAs are the elected representatives of people.
3.It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house.
4.A is correct and R explains A
17] Media and Democracy
Do You Know?
Classification of Media: Narrowcast Media - Cable Television, Direct Mail, Seminar; Broadcast
Media - Films, Television, Radio; Print Media - Newspapers, Magazine, Journals, Books,
Posters, Reports; Web Media - Google Website and Blogs; Social Media - Twitter, Facebook,
WhatsApp and Instagram.
Printing press was invented by Johannes Gutenberg in 1453.
All India Radio (AIR): Officially known as Akashvani since 1956 (voice from the sky) is the
radio broadcaster of the Government of India launched in 1936.
Theory of Democracy: Democracy means rule by the people. It combines two Greek words.
Demos refers to citizen. Kratos means either power or rule.
1. Which one of the following comes under print media?
(a) Radio

(b) Television
(c) Newspaper
(d) Internet
2. Which one of the following is the broadcast media?
(a) Magazines
(b) Journals
(c) Newspaper
(d) Radio
3. Which invention has brought the world closure?
(a) Typewriter
(b) Television
(c) Telex
(d) None of these
4. Which is mass media?
(a) Radio
(b) Television
(c) both a & b
(d) None of these
5. Why is it necessary for media to be independent?
(a) To earn money
(b) To encourage company
(c) To write balanced report
(d) None of these
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ have made the world smaller and closer.
2. Every individual person is a medium of _____________
3. Printing press was invented by ____________
4. _____________ is a code of values which govern our lives.
5. ____________ is the radio broadcast of the Government of India.
1. Narrowcast media - Films

2. Social media - Posters
3. Print media - Seminar
4. Web media - Google web site
5. Broadcast media - Facebook
1. Assertion: Print media has been referred to as Peoples University.
Reason: They perform the role of public informer, educate, custodian of public interest.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) Both are wrong
a. Newspapers b. Magazine c. Journals d. Twitter e. Posters
3. Consider the following the statements and tick the appropriate answer:
(a) Media is generally the agency for interpersonal communication.
(b) Media is very powerful entity on the earth.
(c) Media plays a prominent role in the formation of public opinion.
(d) Media does not have any responsibility
(a) a, b and c are correct
(b) a, c and d are correct
(c) b, c and d are correct
(d) a, b and d are correct
Answers:
1. Newspaper 2. Radio 3. Television 4. Radio and Television 5. To write balanced report
Fill in the blanks:
1.Mass Media 2. Expression 3. Johannes Gutenberg 4. Ethics 5. Akashvani
1. Seminar 2. Facebook 3. Posters 4. Google website 5. Films
1.A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2.Twitter

3.Statements a, b and c are correct.
18] New Religious Ideas and Movements
Do You Know?
Vaishnavite Saints (12 Azhwars): Three Muthal Azhwars: Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu
Azhwar and Pei Azhwar; Other Azhwars: Thirumalisai Azhwar, Periyazhwar,
Thondaradippodi Azhwar, Thirumangai Azhwar, Thiruppanazhwar, Kulasekara Azhwar,
Nammazhwar, Mathurakavi Azhwar and Andal.
Saivite Saints (63 Nayanmmars): There are 63 legendary Nayanmars. Among them,
Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar (often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints
through their images in South Indian temples. Nambi Andar Nambi (1000 A.D.) is said to have
compiled the songs of all of the Nayanmars that form the basis of Tirumurai, the basic Tamil
Saivite sacred canon. It consists of 12 books, and 11 of them were assembled by Nambi. The
12th book is Seikkizhar’s Periyapuranam.
Tukaram, a 17th century saint poet of Maharashtra, is known for his spiritual songs (abangas
or kirtanas) , devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of Krishna. There is a Vitthoba/Panduranga
temple at Pantharpur or Pandaripuram in Sholapur district, Maharashtra. What is
Chaitanyadeva to Bengal is Tukaram to Maharashtra.
Sufism: The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool. The Sufis wore course
garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis. Sufism was basically Islamic but
was influenced by Hindu and Buddhist (Mahayana) ideas. It rejected the stringent conduct
code of the ulemas. Sufis lived in hermitages akin to monasteries and functioned outside
society.
1. Who of the following composed songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother
Yashoda?
(a) Poigai Azhwar
(b) Periyazhwar
(c) Nammazhwar
(d) Andal
2. Who preached the Advaita philosophy?
(a) Ramanujar
(b) Ramananda
(c) Nammazhwar

(d) Adi Shankara
3. Who spread the Bhakthi ideology in northern India and made it a mass movement?
(a) Vallabhacharya
(b) Ramanujar
(c) Ramananda
(d) Surdas
4. Who made Chishti order popular in India?
(a) Moinuddin Chishti
(b) Suhrawardi
(c) Amir Khusru
(d) Nizamuddin Auliya
5. Who is considered their first guru by the Sikhs?
(a) Lehna
(b) Guru Amir Singh
(c) Guru Nanak
(d) Guru Gobind Singh
Fill in the blanks:
1. Periyazhwar was earlier known as ______________
2. _____________ is the holy book of the Sikhs.
3. Meerabai was the disciple of ____________
4. ______________ philosophy is known as vishistadvaita.
5. Gurudwara Darbar Sahib is situated at ___________ in Pakistan.
1. Pahul - Kabir
2. Ramcharitmanas - Sikhs
3. Srivaishnavism - Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib
4. Granthavali - Guru Gobind Singh
5. Suhrawardi - Tulsida
Consider the following statements:
1. Find out the right pair/pairs:
1. Andal - Srivilliputhur

2. Tukaram - Bengal
3. Chaitanyadeva - Maharashtra
4. Brahma-Sutra - Vallabhacharya
5. Gurudwaras - Sikhs
2. Assertion (A): After Guru Gobind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib came to be
considered the guru.
Reason (R): Guru Gobind Singh was the compiler of Guru Granth Sahib.
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
3. Find the odd person out:
Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar, Periazhwar, Andal, Nammazhwar.
1. Sufism was responsible for the spread of Islamic culture.
2. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the
Chishti order.
3. Guru Nanak is considered the first guru of Sikhs.
4. Sufis believed that realization of God can be achieved only through passionate devotion to
God and intense meditation.
5. The basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon consists of 12 books.
Answers:
1. Periyazhwar 2. Adi Shankara 3. Ramananda 4. Moinuddin Chishti 5. Guru Nanak
Fill in the blanks:
1.Vishnu Chittar 2. Guru Granth Sahib 3. Ravidas 4. Ramanuja 5. Kartarpur
1.Guru Gobind Singh 2. Tulsida 3. Sikhs 4. Kabir 5. Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib
Consider the following statements:
1. Andal - Srivilliputhur and Gurudwaras - Sikhs
2. A is correct but R is wrong
3.Andal

Say True or False:
1.False
Correct Statement: Sufism was basically Islam but was influenced by Hindu and Buddhist
and native Indian concepts.
2. True
3. True
4.True
5.True
19] Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
The Mamallapuram monuments and temples, including the Shore Temple Complex, were
notified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.
1. Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
(a) Shore Temple
(b) Mandagapattu
(c) Kailasanatha temple
(d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
2. In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temple notified as a UNESCO world
heritage site?
(a) 1964
(b) 1994
(c) 1974
(d) 1984
3. What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
(a) Bas-reliefs
(b) vimanas
(c) Corridors
(d) Gopurams
4. Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?

(a) Tirukkurungudi
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli
(d) Srivilliputhur
5. Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
(a) Mahendravarman
(b) Narasimhavarman
(c) Rajasimha
(d) Nandhivarman II
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ was the first rock-cut cave temple built by the Pallava king
Mahendravarman.
2. The early Chola architecture followed the style of ___________
3. The most celebrated mandapam in Madurai Meenakshiamman temple is the

______________
4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful ______________
5. Vijayanagar period’s unique feature is the ______________
1. Seven Pagodas - Madurai
2. Rathi mandapam - Darasuram
3. Iravatheswara temple - Tirukkurungudi
4. Adinatha temple - Shore temple
5. Pudumandapam - Azhwar Tirunagari
1. Find out the right pair/pairs:
1. Krishnapuram Temple - Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple - Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis - Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple - Vellore
2. Assertion (A): The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking.
Reason (R): The temple has the largest set of corridors in the world.

(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
3. Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram, Tiruvannamalai.
4. Name the epoch of the following:
(a) A.D. 600 to 850 -
(b) A.D. 850 to 1100 -
(c) A.D. 1100 to 1350 -
(d) A.D. 1350 to 1600 -
5. Find out the correct statement/s:
1. The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
2. Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai represents Pallava’s architectural style.
3. The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of later Pandyas.
4. The Sethupathis as feudatories of Madurai Nayaks contributed to Madurai

Meenakshiamman Temple.
1. Rajasimha built the Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.
2. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Later Cholas.
3. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant parts of the Pandya architecture.
4. Brihadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola.
5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at temple at Dadapuram.
Answers:
1. Shore Temple 2. 1984 3. Vimanas 4. Tirukkurungudi 5. Nandhivarman II
Fill in the blanks:
1.Mandagapattu 2. Sembian mahadevi 3. Pudumandapam 4. Gopurams 5. Mandapam
1.Shore Temple 2. Tirukkurungudi 3. Darasuram 4. Azhwar Tirunagari 5. Madurai
1.Kudalazhagar Temple - Azhwar Tirunagari

2.R is not the correct explanation of A

3.Kanchipuram
4. (a) A.D. 600 to 850 – The Pallava Epoch
(b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – Early Chola Epoch
(c) A.D. 1100 to 1350 – Later Chola Epoch
(d) A.D. 1350 to 1600 – Vijayanagara / Nayak Epoch
5. The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder and The cave temple at Pillayarpatti
is a contribution of later Pandyas.
1.True
2.False
Correct Statement: Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Pallavas.
3.True
4.False
Correct Statement: Brihadeeshwara temple was built by Raja Raja Chola.
5.False
Correct Statement: Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at the kalyana mandapam at
Kanchipuram (Varadaraja Perumal temple) and at Vellore (Jalagandeshwara temple)
20] Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
Five great vows Jainism: (1) Non-violence – Ahimsa; (2) Truth – Satya; (3) Non-stealing –
Acharya; (4) Celibacy/Chastity – Brahmacharya; (5) Non-Possession – Aparigraha.
The Jainacharitha of Kalpa Sutra is a Jain text containing the biographies of the Jain
Tirthankaras, notably Parshvanatha, founder of Jainism as well as the first Tirthankara, and
Mahavira, the last and the 24th Tirthankara. This work is ascribed to Bhadrabahu, who along
with Chandragupta Maurya migrated to Mysore (about 296 B.C) and settled there.
Tirthankaras are those who have attained nirvana and made a passage from this world to the
next.
The total population of Jains in Tamil Nadu is 83,359 or 0.12 per cent of the population as per
the 2011 census.
A Vihara in Sanskrit means “dwelling” or “house.” Originally, viharas were dwelling places
used by wandering monks during the rainy season. Later they transformed into centres of
learning through the donations of wealthy lay Buddhists. Royal patronage allowed pre-
Muslim India to become a land of many viharas that imparted university education and were
treasure troves of sacred texts. Many viharas, such as Nalanda were world famous.

1. Where was the first Jain Council held to codify the Jaina canon?
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Vallabhai
(c) Mathura
(d) Kanchipuram
2. In which language was Agama sutras written?
(a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit
(b) Hindi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Pali
3. Which of the following was patronised by the Kalabhras?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Ajivikas
(d) Hinduism
4. Where are the Rock beds found with no head-rests?
(a) Vellore
(b) Kanchipuram
(c) Sittanavasal
(d) Madurai
5. Who is believed to have built the Kazhugumalai Rock-Cut Temple?
(a) Mahendra Varman
(b) Parantaka Nedunchadayan
(c) Parantaka Veera Narayana Pandyan
(d) Harihara II
Fill in the blanks:
1. The image of ____________ is considered to be the tallest Jain image in Tamil Nadu.
2. Buddhacharita was written by _______________
3. Chinese traveller Huein Tsang visited Pallava country in ___________ century.
4. ____________ describes Buddhism as a religion in decay.
5. The Mauryan emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasarata patronised _______________

1. Kalpa sutra - Tiruthakkathevar
2. Jivaka Chintamani - Madurai
3. Neminatha - Nagasena
4. Milinda Panha - Bhadrabahu
5. Kizha Kuyil Kudi - 22nd Tiruthankara
1. Find out the odd one:
Tiruparuttikunram, Kizha Kuyil Kudi, Kazhugumalai, Nagapattinam, Sittanavasal.
2. Assertion (A): Gautama found that he had nothing to learn from the teachers of the old
religions.
Reason (R): The religions proclaimed that the only way to salvation was through living the
life of an ascetic.
(a) A is correct R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
3. Find out the correct statement/s:
i) During the 6th century B.C. as many as 62 religious schools flourished in India.
ii) ‘Palli’ is an educational centre of Buddhists.
iii) Royal patronage allowed pre-Muslim India to become a land of vihars.
iv) The Ajivikas continued to exist till 15th century.
(a) i and iii are correct
(b) i, ii and iv are correct
(c) i and ii are correct
(d) ii, iii and iv are correct
4. Find out the wrong pair/s:
1. Parshvanatha - 22nd Tiruthankara
2. Mahabashya - The Ceylonese Chronicle
3. Visuddhimagga - Buddhagosha
4. Buddha - Eight-fold Path

1. The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
2. Throughout history, Ajivikas had to face persecution everywhere.
3. Education was imparted in institutions of Jains irrespective of caste and creed.
4. Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramashila gained reputation as pilgrim centres.
5. Buddhism faced challenges from Saiva and Vaishnava sects from the Chola period onwards.
Answers:
1.Pataliputra 2. Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit 3. Jainism 4. Vellore 5. Parantaka Nedunchadayan
Fill in the blanks:
1. Neminatha 2. Asvaghosha 3. 7th 4. Mattavilasa Prahasana 5. Ajivikas
1.Bhadrabahu 2. Tiruthakkathevar 3. 22nd Tiruthankara 4. Nagasena 5. Madurai
1. Nagapattinam
2. A is correct R is the correct explanation of A
3. Statement i and iii are correct.
4. Parshvanatha - 22nd Tiruthankara
Mahabashya - The Ceylonese Chronicle
1.True
2.True
3.True
4.False
Correct Statement: Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramashila gained reputation as great educational
centres.
5.False
Correct Statement: Buddhism co-existed peacefully with Jainism and Ajivika and also with
Saiva and Vaishnava sects in Tamizhagam.
21] Exploring Continents – North America and South America
Do You Know?
Isthumus: A narrow stretch of land joining two large land masses.

Strait: A narrow stretch of water joining two large water bodies.
The Cordilleras are also part of the Fire Ring of the Pacific because there are a number of active
volcanoes and this area is also subject to earthquakes.
Highest peaks in different continents: Asia – Mount Everest (8848 meters) ; South America –
Mount Aconcagua (6961 meters) ; North America – Mount McKinley (6194 meters) ; Africa –
Mount Kilimanjaro ( 5895 meters) ; Europe – Mount Elbrus (5642 meters) ; Antarctica – Mount
Vinson Massif (4892 meters) ; Australia – Mount Kosciuszko (2228 meters) .
The Mississippi river has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy” because it erodes a lot
of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains. Some of the States of the United States are
named after the tributaries of two mighty rivers the Mississippi and Missouri.
Grand Canyon is a steep-sided Canyon carved by the Colorado River in Arizona State of USA.
The Westerlies or Anti-trades are prevailing winds from the west towards the east in the
middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees’ latitude.
Grand Banks: The Grand Banks is among the world’s largest and richest resource areas,
renowned for both their valuable fish stocks and petroleum reserves.
Eskimos live in the very cold and inhospitable region where plenty of fish varieties are
available. They were able to dress themselves in thick warm clothes made of fur, they live in
igloos. Their lives were very simple and they could not alter the environment to any extent.
They specially designed a house by ice and is known as igloos.
Panama Canal: In 1914 a Canal was cut across the Isthmus of Panama for 80 kms long which
connects the Atlantic with Pacific Ocean. It greatly reduced the distance between Europe and
the West Coast of North and South America.
Together with the Central America, South America is also known as Latin America, having
been discovered and colonized mostly by the Latin’s, i.e., The Spanish and the Portuguese.
In equatorial regions convectional rain occurs almost daily in the afternoons. It generally
occurs at 4 pm that’s why it is known as 4’0 Clock Rain.
Amazon is the greatest river of South America and the largest drainage system in the world
in terms of the volume of its flow and the area of its basin.
Estancias: The Breeds raised on large pasture lands is known as Estancias. These are divided
into several paddocks. Besides this, there are small yards known as corrals where animals
are sorted and branded. The owner is the Estanciera who has a number of gauchos.
South American nations have variety of music. Some of the most famous genres include
Samba from Brazil, Tango from Argentina and Uruguay and Cumbia from Colombia.
1. The ___________ separates North America from Asia.
(a) Bering Strait

(b) Palk Strait
(c) Malacca Strait
(d) Gibraltar Straits
2. _____________ is known as the “sugar bowl of the world.”
(a) Mexico
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Cuba
3. ___________ are the longest rivers in North America.
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
(b) The Mackenzieriver
(c) The St. Lawrence River
(d) The Colorado River
4. ____________ is the longest mountain chain in the world.
(a) The Andes
(b) The Rockies
(c) The Himalayas
(d) The Alps
5. ______________ basin gets rainfall every day because of its equatorial location.
(a) The Mackenzie
(b) The Orinoco
(c) The Amazon
(d) The Parana
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ 86 m below the sea level is the lowest part of the continent of North
America.
2. _____________ is one of the world’s best fishing grounds.
3. The highest peak in the Andes is _______________ on the Chile – Argentina border.
4. ______________ of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world.”
5. _______________ is also known as the “coffee pot” of the world.
1. Mount McKinley - Tropical forests

2. Grand Canyon - The flightless bird
3. Ebony - The Colorado River
4. 4’0 Clock Rains - 6194 m
5. Rhea - The equatorial regions
1. Assertion (A): Cotton grows well in southern and western states of North America.
Reason (R): Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil which provide favourable
condition.
(a) Both A and R is correct
(d) Both A and R is wrong
2. Assertion (A): Industries in the South America has developed rapidly.
Reason (R): The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) need for
industrialization.
(a) Both A and R is correct
Answers:
1.Bering Strait 2. Cuba 3. The Mississippi and Missouri rivers 4. The Andes 5. The Amazon
Fill in the blanks:
1. Death Valley 2. Grand Bank 3. Mount Aconcagua 4. The Selvas 5. Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo
1. 6194m 2. The Colorado River 3. Tropical forests 4. The Equatorial regions 5. The flightless
bird
1.Both A and R is correct.

2. A is wrong and R is correct.

22] Map Reading
Do You Know?
In the early times, various materials such as animal skin, cloth, parchment, papyrus, wet
earth and clay tablets were used to make maps.
The science of map-making is called cartography (carte means ‘map’ and graphic means
‘drawing’) . One who draws maps is called a Cartographer.
Digital maps are a web-based service that provides detailed information about geographical
regions and sites around the world.
1. The science of map making is called _______________
(a) Geography
(b) Cartography
(c) Physiography
(d) Physical Geography
2. North, South, East and West are four directions are called as
(a) Cardinal
(b) Geographical
(c) Latitudinal
(d) Angels
3. Cultural maps are those which shows the ___________ features.
(a) Natural
(b) Man-made
(c) Artificial
(d) Environmental
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ is an essential tool of a geographer.
2. The directions in between the cardinal directions are the inter mediate ____________
3. _______________ in a map which explains the different colours and symbols used in it.
4. Cadastral maps are known as _______________
5. Small scale maps are helpful to us to show large areas like _______________ and
___________

Circle the odd one:
1. North East, Scale, North West and East.
2. White, Snow, Highland, and Plains.
3. Relief map, Soil map, Physical map and Atlas.
4. Weather Forecasting, Climate, Rainfall and Temperature.
1. Upper right corner - Density and growth
2. Key (or) legend - District (or) town
3. Large Scale map - Natural relief features
4. Physical map - Colours and Symbols
5. Population map - ‘N’ letter
1. i) An Atlas is a bound volume of different types of maps.
ii) Atlas maps are drawn on smaller scale.
iii) Insignificant details are omitted.
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
2. Statement I: Globe is a three dimensional model of the Earth.
Statement II: It is easy to handle and to carry as it can be rolled up or folded.
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct
Answers:
1. Cartography 2. Cardinal 3. Man-made
Fill in the blanks:
1. Map 2. Direction 3. legend 4. Village and Town maps 5. Continent and Countries
Circle the odd one:

1. Scale 2. White 3. Atlas 4. Weather Forecasting
1. N letter 2. Colours and Symbols 3. District (or) Town 4. Natural relief features 5. Density and
growth
1. Statement i, ii, and iii are correct.
2. Statement I is correct and II is wrong.
23] Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice
Do You Know?
The word “Tsunami” is derived from the Japanese word. “Tsu” means harbour and “name”
means waves.
1. ______________ is an event which causes enormous physical damage to property, loss of

life and change in the environment.
(a) Hazard
(b) Disaster
(c) Recovery
(d) Mitigation
2. Activities that reduce the effects of disaster
(a) Preparation
(b) Response
(c) Mitigation
(d) Recovery
3. A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an _____________
(a) Tsunami
(b) Earthquake
(c) Fire
(d) Cyclone
4. A sudden overflow of water in a large amount caused due to heavy rainfall is called
_____________

(a) Flood
(b) Cyclone
(c) Drought
(d) Seasons
5. Road accidents can be avoided by permitting the persons who have ____________ is
allowed to drive vehicle.
(a) Ration card
(b) License
(c) Permission
(d) Documents
Fill in the blanks:
1. A hazard is a _____________ event that can cause harm or damage to human and his
property.
2. Activities taken during a disaster is called _____________
3. Displacement of water can produce one or more huge destructive waves known as
__________
4. In case of fire accidents call the nearby police station or the no ____________ for the fire
service.
5. Disaster management refers to _______________ of lives and property during a natural or

man-made disaster.
1. Earthquake - Gigantic waves
2. Cyclone - Creak/Fault
3. Tsunami - Uneven rainfall
4. Industrial accident - Eye of the storm
5. Drought - Carelessness
1. Assertion (A): In the modern world we can’t live happing every day.
Reason (R): Due to pollution and environmental degradation we are undergoing natural and
disaster.
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain A
(c) A is not correct but R is correct

2. Assertion (A): Sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an Earthquake.
Reason (R): Movement of the tectonic plates, mass wasting, surface fault all leads to
earthquake.
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain A
(c) A is not correct but R is correct
Answers:
1. Disaster 2. Mitigation 3. Earthquake 4. Flood 5. License
Fill in the blanks:
1. Disaster 2. Response 3. Tsunami 4. 101 5. Conservation
1. Creak/Fault 2. Eye of the storm 3. Gigantic waves 4. Carelessness 5. Uneven Rainfall

24] Women Empowerment
Do You Know?
The essential factors for empowerment are: (1) Education – Education gives one the ability to
think wisely and take thoughtful decisions; (2) Gender Discrimination – A society which
discriminates between the two genders can never be empowered; (3) Discrimination based on
caste, creed, religions etc.
The sustainability and progress of all regions depend on the success of women across the
globe. As the former President Barrack Obama said while addressing the United Nations
General Assembly in 2012, “the future must not belong to those who bully women. It must be
shaped by girls who go to school and those who stand for a world where our daughters can
live their dreams just like our sons.”
Savitribai Phule as a tradition breaker, the first female teacher at the first girls’ school when
we talk about the girls’ education only Jyotirao Phule is remembered as the champion of

women’s education in India. He, along with his wife Savitribai Phule, opened the first school
for girls in 1848.
1. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of gender inequality?
(a) Poor maternal health
(b) Greater insecurity for men
(c) The spread of HIV/AIDS
(d) Lower literacy rates for women
2. Gender equality is an issue that is relevant to
(a) Girls and women; it’s a women’s issue
(b) All societies, women and men alike
(c) Third world countries only
(d) Developed countries only
3. Which of the following strategies will help women become more socially and economically
empowered?
(a) Women working together to challenge discrimination
(b) More income sources for women
(c) Improved access to education
4. Why are girls more likely than boys to miss out on secondary education in the developing
world?
(a) Because of high school fees, only boys are sent to school
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home
(c) Child Marriage restricts girl’s mobility and freedom
Fill in the blanks:
1. Jyotirao Phule is remembered as the champion of women’s education in India. He, along
with his wife ______________ opened the first school for girls in 1848.
2. ____________ is the first Woman to hold a Union Foreign Minister’s post.
3. ____________ is the first Woman Director General of Police (DGP) .
4. _____________ is the first Indian Woman to win Booker.

1. Sirimavo Bandaranaike - England
2. Valentina Tereshkova - Japan
3. Junko Tabei - Sri Lanka
4. Charlotte Cooper - USSR
1. Assertion: Now women are being integrated at all steps of humanitarian operations.
Reason: Women and girls suffer the most from any kind of conflict in the society.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
2. Assertion: Violence against women cuts across caste, class, religion, age and even
education.
Reason: Domestic violence is manifested in the form of foeticide, infanticide, dowry murder,
marital cruelty, battering, child abuse etc.
(d) If A is false but R is true
Answers:
1. The spread of HIV/AIDS 2. All societies, women and men alike 3. All of the above
4. All of the above
Fill in the blanks:
1. Savitribai Pule 2. Sushma Swaraj 3. Kanchan Chaudhry Bhattacharya 4. Arundhati Roy
1. Sri Lanka 2. USSR 3. Japan 4. England
1.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

25] Market and Consumer Protection
Do You Know?
“Goods once sold will not be taken back” or “No exchange”, or “No refund under any
circumstances”. It amounts to Unfair Trade Practice and does not carry any legal weight.
The Eight Basic Consumer Rights: (i) The Right to Basic Needs, (ii) The Right to Safety, (iii)
The Right to Information, (iv) The Right to Choose, (v) The Right to Representation, (vi) The
Right to Redress, (vii) The Right to Consumer Education, (viii) The Right to a Healthy
Environment.
Important Acts: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986; The Legal Metrology Act, 2009; The
Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986; The Essential Commodities Act, 1955; The prevention of
Black Marketing and maintenance of supplies of essential; Commodities Act, 1980.
1. In which case a consumer cannot complain against the manufacturer for a defective
product?
(a) Date of expiry unspecified
(b) Price of the commodity
(c) Batch number of the commodity
(d) Address of the manufacturer
2. Consumer’s face various problems from the producer’s end due to
(a) Unfair trade practices
(b) Wide range of goods
(c) Standard quality goods
(d) Volume of production
3. Consumers must be provided with adequate information about a product to make
(a) Investment in production
(b) Decision in sale of goods
(c) Credit purchase of goods
(d) Decision in purchase of goods
4. The system of consumer courts at the national, state and district levels, looking into
consumers’ grievances against unfair trade practices of businessmen and providing
necessary compensation, is called
(a) Three tier system

(b) One tier system
(c) Two tier system
(d) Four tier system
5. Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality with a superior quality material is
called
(a) Purification
(b) Adulteration
(c) Refinement
(d) Alteration
Fill in the blanks:
1. A set up where two or more parties engage in _____________ of goods, services and
information is called a market.
2. In regulated Markets, there is some oversight by appropriate ______________ authorities.
3. _______________ refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller

that has a control on the entire market.
4. _______________ statue is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ in the field of consumer

protection for checking unfair trade practices.
1. The Consumer Protection Act - 1955
2. The Legal Metrology Act - 1986
3. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act - 2009
4. The Essential Commodities Act - 1986
1. Assertion: In local Markets the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or area.
Reason: A market is not restricted to one physical or geographical location.
(d) If A is false but R is false
Answers:

1. Batch number of the commodity 2. Unfair trade practices 3. Decision in purchase of goods
4. Three tier system 5. Adulteration
Fill in the blanks:
1. Buying and selling 2. Government 3. Monopoly 4. COPRA
1. 1986 2. 2009 3. 1986 4. 1955
1.Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
26] Road Safety
Do You Know?
Carpooling is the sharing of car journeys so that more than one person travels in car, and
prevents the need for more cars to the same location.
Raksha Safe Drive: It is a device capable of automatic crash detection, two – way call
connectivity, GPS tracking, engine health monitoring and smart panic button.
1. Road safety is meant for
(a) Passengers
(b) Drivers
(c) Public
(d) All who use roads
2. Road accidents affect a country’s
(a) Improvement
(b) Life
(c) Finance
(d) All the above
3. Permit refers to
(a) Permission for driving
(b) Permission for carrying goods
(c) Certificate for drivers
(d) Registration of vehicles

4. Raksha safe drive is a device useful for
(a) Pedestrians
(b) Motorists
(c) Car drivers
(d) Passengers
5. Road safety week celebration was first imitated in India in the year
(a) 1947
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 2019
Fill in the blanks:
1. The most useful invention of man for transport is ___________
2. Using ______________ is inevitable in our journey of life.
3. Too many vehicles on the road cause ___________ and __________ pollution.
4. ____________ is the monetary supporter of a family.
5. In case of emergency for medical assistance call ______________ for help.
1. Informatory sign - Traffic lights
2. Zebra crossing - Narrow bend sign
3. Mandatory sign - Petrol pump sign
4. Cautionary sign - License
5. Right to drive a vehicle - Walkers
1. Assertion: Car-pooling is the use of vehicles by turns.
Reason: It saves fuel, time and money and also.
(a) A is correct and R is not correct
(b) A is correct and R is also correct
(d) Both are wrong
(a) Car

(b) Trucks
(c) Tempos
(d) Aero planes
1. Road safety education in the school curriculum is an additional burden for the students.
2. An ounce of practice is worth more than tons of preaching.
3. Hoarding on roads has to be banned.
4. Following road safety rules from childhood will become a habit in future.
Answers:
1. All who use roads 2. All the above 3. Permission for driving 4. Car drivers 5. 1989
Fill in the blanks:
1. Wheel 2. Helmet 3. Air and Noise 4. Breadwinner 5. 108
1. Petrol pump sign 2. Walkers 3. Traffic lights 4. Narrow bend sign 5. License
1.A is wrong and R is correct

2.Aeroplanes
1.False
Correct Statement: Road safety education in the school curriculum is an awareness for the
students.
2.True
3. True
4. True
27] Tax and Its Importance
Do You Know?
Central Board of Revenue bifurcated and a separate Board for Direct Taxes known as Central
Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.

Introduction to GST: Previous Indirect Tax Structure and its difficulties: The history of India
taxation goes back to ancient period. According to Arthashastra, the book written by Kautilya,
in ancient time taxes were levied and collected in both cash and kind. The modern history of
Indirect taxes starts from the early 20th century when Central Excise Duty was imposed on
Salt, Sugar, Motor Spirit, etc. Gradually the base of Excise duties was widened. At the time of
independence, the system of Central Excise Duty at the national level and the Sales Tax at the
State level was prevailing. After prolonged efforts and amendments, VAT was introduced first
in Indian State of Haryana in 2003and thereafter in 24 States/UTs including Punjab,
Chandigarh, HP, J&K and Delhi in 2005. If the VAT was a major improvement over the pre-
existing Sales Tax regime, then the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is indeed a remarkable
improvement and the next logical step towards realising perfection in taxation system in the
country. Initially, it was proposed that there would be a single and national level GST.
However, the GST tax regime has been finally implemented from 1st July, 2017 across India.
With thus there is a economic union of the country with ONE TAX, ONE MARKET AND ONE
NATION.
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a tax on all the goods and services that we buy. It has two
parts, the Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and State Goods and Services Tax (SGST) . It
is a transparent tax. If you get a bill for the products you buy, you will find the following
information:
Value of the Product = Rs. 100 SGST 9% = Rs. 9 CGST 9% = Rs. 9 Total = Rs. 118
In the bill, the GST is 18%, and it is divided equally as 9% for the Central and State Governments.
Therefore, Rs 9 will go to Tamil Nadu Government. If a seller in Tamil Nadu sells a commodity
to a buyer in other state (for example Karnataka) , it is called inter-state trade. In the case of
inter-state trade, the bill will be as given below:
Value of the Product = Rs. 100 IGST 18% = Rs. 18 Total = Rs. 118
Rs 18 will go to Central government. Central government will take Rs 9 and send another Rs
9 to Karnataka government. The tax is divided into five slabs – 0 per cent, 5 per cent, 12 per
cent, 18 per cent, and 28 per cent. Although GST is collected by the central government, taxes
on petroleum products, alcoholic drinks, electricity are separately collected by the state
government and almost all the necessities of life like vegetables and food grains are exempted
from this tax.
Toll Tax & Road Tax: Toll tax is a tax you often pay to use any form of infrastructure developed
by the government, example roads and bridges. The tax amount levied is rather negligible
which is used for maintenance and basic upkeep of a particular project.
Swachh Bharat Cess: This is a cess imposed by the government of India and was started from
15 November 2015. This tax is applicable on all taxable services and the cess currently stands
at 0.5%. Swachh Bharat cess is levied over and above the 14% service tax that is prevalent in
the present times.

1. Taxes are _____________ payment.
(a) Voluntary
(b) Compulsory
(c) a & b
2. Minimum possible amount should be spent in the collection of taxes is
(a) Canon of equality
(b) Canon of certainty
(c) Canon of economy
(d) Canon of convenience
3. This taxation is a very opposite of progressive taxation.
(a) Degressive
(b) Proportional
(c) Regressive
(d) None
4. Income tax is a
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) a & b
(d) Degressive tax
5. Which tax is raised on provision of service?
(a) Wealth
(b) Corporate
(c) Wealth
(d) Service
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ is a term for when a taxing authority usually a government levies or

imposes a tax.
2. _______________ is the method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the income.
3. ___________ is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.
4. ____________ tax burden cannot be sifted by tax payers.
5. Indirect tax is _____________ elastic.

1. Principle of taxation - Direct tax
2. Estate tax - Goods and Service tax
3. Excise tax - Adam Smith
4. 01.07.2017 - Less elastic
5. Direct tax - Indirect tax
Odd one out:
1. Which one of the following is not an indirect tax?
(a) Service tax
(b) Value Added tax (VAT)
(c) Estate duty
(d) Excise duty
Correct one out:
1. Which one of the following tax is a direct tax?
(a) Service tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Sales tax
(d) Progressive tax
Answers:
1. Compulsory 2. Canon of equality 3. Regressive 4. Direct tax 5. Service
Fill in the blanks:
1. Taxation 2. Proportional taxation 3. Gift tax 4. Indirect 5. More
1. Adam Smith 2. Direct Tax 3. Indirect tax 4. Goods and Service tax 5. Less elastic
Odd one out: Estate Duty
Correct one out: Progressive tax

1] Advent of the Europeans
Do You Know?
George William Forrest can rightly be called as the “Father of National Archives of India”.
Audio-visual means possessing both a sound and a visual component, such as slide-tape
presentations. Audio-visual services providers frequently offer web streaming, video
conferencing and live broadcast services. Television, films, internet are called ‘Audio-visual
media’.
In 1690, Fort St. David was built by the British in Cuddalore.
Danish called Tranquebar as Danesborg. The king of Denmark sent Ziegenbalg set up a
printing press at Tranquebar (Tarangambadi) .
The Swedish: The Swedish East India Company was founded in Gothenburg, Sweden, in 1731
for the purpose of conducting trade with the Far East. The venue was inspired by the success
of the Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company.
1. Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in India?
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Bartholomew Diaz
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
(d) Almeida
2. Which of the following European Nation was the foremost attempt to discover a sea route
of India?
(a) Dutch
(b) Portugal
(c) France
(d) Britain
3. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by _______________
(a) The French
(b) The Turks
(c) The Dutch
(d) The British
4. Sir William Hawkins belonged to ___________
(a) Portugal

(b) Spain
(c) England
(d) France
5. The first fort constructed by the British in India was _____________
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Fort St. David
6. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come India as traders?
(a) The British
(b) The French
(c) The Danish
(d) The Portuguese
7. Tranquebar on the Tamil Nadu coast was a trade centre of the ___________
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The British
(c) The French
(d) The Danish
Fill in the blanks:
1. National Archives of India (NAI) is located in ___________
2. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese sailor was patronized by ______________
3. The printing press in India was set up by _______________ at Goa in 1556.
4. The Mughal Emperor _____________ permitted the English to trade in India.
5. The French East India Company was formed by ____________
6. ______________ the King of Denmark issued a charter to create Danish East India company.
1. The Dutch - 1664
2. The British - 1602
3. The Danish - 1600
4. The French - 1616

1. Auto biography is one of the written sources.
2. Coins are one of the material sources.
3. Ananda Rangam was a translator served under British.
4. The place where historical documents are preserved is called archives.
1. (i) Governor Nino de Cunha moved Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.
(ii) Portuguese were the last to leave from in India.
(iii) The Dutch founded their first factory at Surat.
(iv) Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England.
(a) i & ii are correct
(b) ii & iv are correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) i, ii & iv are correct
(a) Francis Day - Denmark
(b) Pedro Cabral - Portugal
(c) Captain Hawkins - Britain
(d) Colbert – France
Answers:
1. Alfonso de Albuquerque 2. Portugal 3. The Turks 4. England 5. Fort St. George 6. The French
7. The Danish
Fill in the blanks:
1. New Delhi 2. King John II 3. Portuguese 4. Jahangir 5. Colbert 6. Christian IV
1.The Dutch- 1616

2.The British- 1600
3.The Danish - 1602
4.The French- 1664
1.True
2.True
3.False

Correct answer: Ananda Rangam was a translator served under French
4.True
Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option:(Answers)
1. i, ii & iv are correct.
Find out the wrong pair
1.Francis Day - Denmark
Correct answer: Francis day is related to Dutch East India company
2] From Trade to Territory
Do You Know?
The Black Hole tragedy (1756): There was a small dungeon room in the Fort William in
Calcutta, where troops of the Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daula, held 146 British Prisoners of
war for one night. Next day morning, when the door was opened 123 of the prisoners found
dead because of suffocation.
Satyendranath Tagore, the elder brother of poet Rabindranath Tagore, was the first Indian to
pass the I.C.S. Examination in 1863.
Strength of British Army: Plassey war (1757): 1950 European infantry, 100 European artillery,
50 English sailors, and 2,100 Indian sepoys, an English army of 6000 troops was maintained
in Bengal. In 1857, the strength of the army in India was 3,11,400 of whom 2,65,900 were
Indians. Its officers were British.
Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal.
Sir Thiruvarur Muthusamy was the first Indian Chief Justice of the Madras High Court.
The first Indian state to accept the Subsidiary Alliance was Hyderabad (1798) . It was followed
by Tanjore (1799) , Awadh (1801) , Peshwa (1802) , Bhonsle (1803) , Gwalior (1804) , Indore (1817) ,
Jaipur, Udaipur and Jodhpur (1818) .
By applying the Doctrine of Lapse policy, Dalhousie annexed Satara in 1848, Jaipur and
Sambalpur in 1849, Baghat in 1850, Udaipur in 1852, Jhansi in 1853 and Nagpur in 1854.
1. The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was ________
(a) Shuja-ud-daulah
(b) Siraj-ud-daulah
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) Tipu Sultan

2. The Battle of Plassey was fought in ________
(a) 1757
(b) 1764
(c) 1765
(d) 1775
3. Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar?
(a) Treaty of Allahabad
(b) Treaty of Carnatic
(c) Treaty of Alinagar
(d) Treaty of Paris
4. The Treaty of Pondichery brought the _______________ Carnatic war to an end.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) None
5. When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of Mysore?
(a) 1756
(b) 1761
(c) 1763
(d) 1764
6. Treaty of Mangalore was signed between _________
(a) The French and Tipu Sultan
(b) Hyder Ali and Zamorin of Calicut
(c) The British and Tipu Sultan
(d) Tipu Sultan and Marathas
7. Who was the British Governor General during Third Anglo-Mysore War?
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Wellesley
8. Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British?

(a) Bajirao II
(b) Daulat Rao Scindia
(c) Sambhaji Bhonsle
(d) Sayyaji Rao Gaekwad
9. Who was the last Peshwa of Maratha Empire?
(a) Balaji Vishwanath
(b) Baji Rao II
(c) Balaji Baji Rao
(d) Baji Rao
10. Who was the first Indian state to join the subsidiary Alliance?
(a) Awadh
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Udaipur
(d) Gwalior
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in ____________
2. The commander in Chief of Sirajuddaulah was ___________
3. The main cause for the Second Carnatic War was __________
4. _____________ adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire in India.
5. Tipu Sultan was finally defeated at the hands of __________
6. After the death of Tipu Sultan Mysore was handed over to _________
7. In 1800, ______________ established a college at Fort William in Calcutta.
1. Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle - The First Anglo Mysore War
2. Treaty of Salbai - The First Carnatic War
3. Treaty of Paris - The Third Carnatic War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam - The First Maratha War
5. Treaty of Madras - The Third Anglo Mysore War
1. After the death of Alivardi Khan, Siraj-ud-daulah ascended the throne of Bengal.
2. Hector Munro, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.

3. The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second Carnatic War
in India.
4. Sir Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal.
5. The Police system was created by Lord Cornwallis.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) Battle of Adayar - 1748
b) Battle of Ambur - 1754
c) Battle of Wandiwash - 1760
d) Battle of Arcot – 1749
Answers:
1. Siraj – ud – daulah 2. 1757 3. 1757 4. Second 5. 1761 6. The British and Tipu Sultan 7. Lord
Cornwallis 8. Bajirao II 9. Baji Rao 10. Hyderabad
Fill in the blanks:
1. 1757 2. Mir Jafar 3. The Issue of Succession 4. Lord Dalhousie 5. Arthur Wellesley 6. Krishna
Raja Odayar 7. Lord Wellesley
1. Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle- The First Carnatic War

2. Treaty of Salbai- The First Maratha War
3. Treaty of Paris- The Third Carnatic War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam- The Third Anglo Mysore War
5. Treaty of Madras- The First Anglo Mysore War
1. True
2. False
Correct answer: Robert Clive led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.
3. False
Correct answer: The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second
Carnatic
War in India
4. True
5. True
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
1. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760

3] Rural Life and Society
1. Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.?
(a) Mahalwari
(b) Ryotwari
(c) Zamindari
(d) None of these
2. Under which Governor General did the permanent settlement implemented in Bengal.
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Minto
3. What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari System?
(a) House
(b) Land
(c) Village
(d) Palace
4. In which region was the Mahalwari system imposed?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madras
(c) Bengal
(d) Punjab
5. Who among the following Governors introduced Mahalwari system?
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord William Bentinck
6. In which region was the Ryotwari system not introduce by the British?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras

(c) Bengal
(d) None of these
7. The Indigo revolt was led by whom?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Keshab Chandra Roy
(c) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
8. The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Digambar Biswas
(d) Keshab Chandra Roy
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ is the modified version of the Zamindari system.
2. The Mahalwari system was a Brain child of ___________
3. Indigo Revolt took place in ______________
4. Moplah Rebellion was held in _____________
5. The Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in ______________
1. Permanent Settlement - Madras
2. Mahalwari Settlement - Misery of the Indigo cultivators
3. Ryotwari system - North West province
4. Nil Darban - Bengal
5. Santhal Rebellion - First Peasant revolt
1. Warren Hastings introduced quinquennial land settlement.
2. Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro.
3. Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Gujarat.
4. The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1918.
1. Which of the following statement is not true about Zamindari system?

(a) This settlement was introduced in 1793.
(b) The Zamindars became the owner of the land.
(c) This system secured a fixed a stable income for the cultivators.
(d) This practice was applicable to the area of 19% of India.
2. Which of the following statement is correct about Peasants revolt in India?
(a) The Santhal rebellion was held in Bengal.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.
(c) The Deccan riots started from a village at Pune in 1873.
(d) The Moplah peasant’s rebellion was held in Tamil Nadu.
Answers:
1. None of these 2. Lord Cornwallis 3. Village 4. Punjab 5. Lord William Bentinck 6. Bengal 7.
Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas 8. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Fill in the blanks:
1. Mahalwari system 2. Holt Mackenzie 3. Bengal 4. Malabar (Kerala) 5. May 1918
1.Permanent Settlement- Bengal

2.Mahalwari Settlement- North west province
3.Ryotwari System- Madras
4.Nil Darban- Misery of Indigo cultivators
5.Santhal Rebellion- First peasant revolt
1.True
2.True
3.False
Correct answer: Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Bengal
4.False
Correct answer: The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1900
1.This system secured a fixed a stable income for the cultivators.

2. Dina bandhu Mitra wrote a drama called Nil Darban.

4] People’s Revolt
Do You Know?
In Central India the revolt was guided by Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi. She was one of the
greatest patriots of India. Sir Hugh Rose occupied Jhansi. Rani Lakshmi Bai fled from Jhansi
and joined hands with Tantia Tope who had assumed the leadership of the rebel army at
Gwalior. But the British captured Gwalior in June 1858. Rani was killed in the battle. Tantia
Tope fled away but was captured and later executed. According to the British historians,
present at the time of revolt, Rani Lakshmi Bai was the best and the bravest among the leaders
of the Revolt of 1857.
Choose the best answers
1. The Palayakkarar system was instituted in
(a) 1519
(b) 1520
(c) 1529
(d) 1530
2. Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu was the pioneer against the English
rule?
(a) Puli Thevar
(b) Yusuf Khan
(c) Kattabomman
(d) Marudu Brothers
3. Colin Jackson was the collector of
(a) Madurai
(b) Tirunelveli
(c) Ramanathapuram
(d) Tuticorin
4. Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at
(a) Panchalamkurichi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Tiruppathur
(d) Kayathar
5. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of

(a) Nagalapuram
(b) Sivagiri
(c) Sivagangai
(d) Virupachi
6. Tiruchirpalli proclamation was issued by
(a) Marudu Pandiyars
(b) Krishnappa Nayak
(c) Velu Nachiyar
(d) Dheeran Chinnamalai
7. Which of the following place was associated with Dheeran Chinnamalai
(a) Dindigul
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Odanilai
8. Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at
(a) Central India
(b) Kanpur
(c) Delhi
(d) Bareilly
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Eastern Palayms were ruled under the control of ______________
2. Vishwanatha Nayakar instituted the Palayakarar system with the consultation of his
minister ______________
3. The ancestors of Kattabomman belonged to ____________
4. _____________ was known by Tamils as Veera mangai and Jhansi Rani of South India.
5. ___________ was called as “lion” of Sivagangai.
6. __________ was described the revolt of 1857 as First War of India Independence.
1. Delhi - Kunwar Singh
2. Kanpur - Khan Bahudar khan
3. Jhansi - Nana Saheb
4. Bareilly - Lakshmi Bai

5. Bihar - Bahadur Shah II
1. The Vijayanagar rulers appointed Nayaks in their provinces.
2. Sivasubramania was the minister of Marudu pandiyas.
3. Kattabomman was hanged on 17th October 1799.
4. Fettah Hyder was the elder son of Tipu Sultan.
i) The Vellore revolt was held in 1801.
ii) The family members of Tipu were imprisoned at Vellore fort after the fourth Mysore war.
iii) At the time of Vellore revolt, the Governor of Madras was Lord William Bentinck.
iv) The victory of revolt of Vellore against British was one of the significant events in the
history of India.
(a) i & ii is correct
(b) ii & iv are correct
(c) ii & iii are correct
(d) i, ii & iv are correct
a) Marudu Pandiyar - Ettayapuram
b) Gopala Nayak - Dindigul
c) Kerala Varma - Malabar
d) Dhoondaji - Mysore
Find out the odd one
a) Kattabomman b) Oomaithurai c) Sevathaiah d) Tipu Sultan
Answers:
1. 1529 2. Puli Thevar 3. Ramanathapuram 4. Kayathar 5. Sivagangai 6. Marudu Pandiyars 7.

Odanilai 8. Central India
Fill in the blanks:
1. Kattabomman 2. Ariyanatha Mudakiyar 3. Andhra 4. Velu Nachiyar 5. Chinna Marudu 6.

V.D. Savarkar
1.Delhi- Bahadur Shah II

2.Kanpur- Nana Saheb
3.Jhansi- Lakshmi Bai
4.Bareilly- Khan Bahudar Khan
5. Bihar- Kunwar Singh
1.True
2.False
Correct answer: Siva Subramania was the minister of Kattabomman
3.True
4. True
a) ii &iii are correct

b) Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram
c) Tipu Sultan
5] Educational Development in India
Do You Know?
Taxila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north western Pakistan. It is an important
archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1980. Its fame rested
on the university where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra. Archaeologist
Alexander Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid-19th century.
The ancient Nalanda University was a centre of learning from the 5 th century AD (CE) to 12th
century AD (CE) , located in present-day Rajgir, Bihar. Nalanda was one of the oldest
universities of the world and UNESCO declared the ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara a world
heritage site. The new Nalanda University is envisaged as a centre of inter-civilisational
dialogue.
The medieval period saw the founding of many religious mutt or monasteries which also took
up the cause of education. The Ahobila mutt in Srirangam was one among them where is Sri
Ramanuja has made distinctive contribution to the cause of education. Besides mutts, Jain
pallis and Buddhist vihars played a vital role in educating people where ever the existed. They
had large libraries of books in all branches of learning.
In 1813, the East India Company was compelled to assert the responsibility for the education
of the Indians. Charter of Act of 1813 made a provision for an annual grant of a sum of 1 lakh
rupees for the promotion of education in India.
The Wood’s Despatch (1854) is called the “Magna Carta” of English education in India because
it was the first declaration of British education policy for educating the masses at all levels.

But it resulted in the complete control on state education, divorcing it from Indian ideals and
culture.
Wardha Scheme of Education (1937): In 1937, Gandhiji evolved a scheme popularly known as
the Wardha Scheme of Basic National Education. The principle of non-violence was the basis
of Gandhiji scheme of Basic Education. Through this scheme he wanted to develop those
qualities in future citizens of India which he considered necessary for building a non-violent
society. His system of Education wanted to root out exploitation and centralization in society
and create a non-violent social order.
Education remained a state subject till December 1976. But now the education is in the
concurrent list.
1. The word “Veda” is derived from _________
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Latin
(c) Prakrit
(d) Pali
2. Which of the following was an important centre for the learning in the ancient period?
(a) Gurukula
(b) Viharas
(c) Palli
(d) All of these
3. Nalanda, the oldest university in India was located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Punjab
4. When did the UNESCO declare Takshashila as world heritage site?
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
5. Which European country were the first to start Modern System of Education in India?
(a) British

(b) Danish
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
6. Which of the following Charter Act made a provision for an annual grant one lakh Rupees
for the promotion of Education in India?
(a) Charter Act of 1813
(b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Charter Act of 1858
7. Which of the following Commission recommended to constitute the University Grants

Commission?
(a) Sergeant Report, 1944
(b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
(c) Kothari Commission, 1964
(d) National Education Policy, 1968
8. In which year the New Education policy was introduced in India?
(a) 1992
(b) 2009
(c) 1986
(d) 1968
Fill in the blanks:
1. The word “Veda” means ______________
2. Taxila ruins were discovered by ____________
3. __________ was the first ruler to establish a madrasa at Delhi.
4. The New Education Policy was revised in ___________
5. ___________ is the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right to
Education Act of (RTE) 2009.
6. Mid-day meal program was introduced in schools in _____________
1. I-Tsing - Saraswathi mahal
2. Francis Xavier - Magnacarta of Indian Education
3. Wood’s Despatch - Western Education in Madras

4. Sarafoji II - University at Kochin
5. Sir Thomas Munro - Chinese Scholar
1. The writings of Charaka and Sushrutha were the sources of learning of medicine.
2. Temples were the centres of learning and played an active role in the promotion of
knowledge.
3. The Jataka tales tell us that the kings and society took an active interest in promoting
education.
4. Women education in India was not prevalent during the medieval period.
5. The RMSA scheme was implemented during tenth Five Year Plan.
1. i) The Nalanda University was founded in fifth century C.E.
ii) In ancient India teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students
to designing their syllabi.
iii) In ancient times the teacher was called Kanakkayar.
iv) The famous college during the Chola period was Kandhalur salai.
(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
2. Find out the correct pair:
1. Maktabs - Secondary school
2. Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 - English education
3. Operation Blackboard - Secondary Education commission
4. Salabhogam - Lands were given to temples
Answers:
1. Sanskrit 2. Gurukula 3. Bihar 4. 1980 5. Portuguese 6. Charter Act of 1813 7. Radhakrishnan

Commission, 1948 8. 1986
Fill in the blanks:
1. Knowledge 2. Alexander Cunningham 3. Iltutmish 4. 1992 5. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyanj 6. 1956

1.I – Tsing - Chinese scholar
2.Francis Xavier- University at Kochin
3.Wood’s Despatch- Magna carta of Indian Education
4.Sarafoji II - Saraswathi mahal
5.Sir Thomas Munro- Western Education in Madras
1.True
2.True
3.True
4.True
5.False
Correct answer: The RMSA scheme was implemented during Eleventh Five Year Plan
1. i, ii and iii are correct
2. Find out the correct pair: Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 - English education
6] Development of Industries in India
Do You Know?
The muslin of Dacca: Mummies in Egyptian tombs dating from 2000 BC (BCE) were found
wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality. A 50-metres of this thin fabric could be
squeezed into a match box.
The Drain Theory of Dadabai Naoroji: Dadabai Naoroji was the first to acknowledge that the
poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the
drain of India’s wealth to Britain.
Classification of Industries: On the basis of raw materials used, industries can be classified
into agro-based and mineral-based. According to their role it can be classified into basic and
key industries. On the basis of owner-ship it can be classified into public sector, private sector,
joint sector and co-operative sector.
1. Which of the following activities of the people will not come under handicraft?
(a) Carving statues out of stone
(b) Making bangles with glass
(c) Weaving silk sarees
(d) Smelting of iron

2. The oldest industry in India was ______________ industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Steel
(c) Electrical
(d) Fertilizers
3. The woollen and leather factories became prominent in _______________
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmadabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Dacca
4. What was the aim of First Three Five Year Plans of India?
(a) To control population growth
(b) To reduce illiteracy rate
(c) To built a strong industrial base
(d) To empower the women
5. What was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
(a) Loss of royal patronage
(b) Competition of machine made goods
(c) Industrial policy of India
(d) Trading policy of British
Fill in the blanks:
1. __________ was the integral part in the life of the people.
2. Industrial revolution took place in ___________
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in _________
4. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly Valley at _________ near Calcutta.
5. __________ shortened the distance between Europe and India.
1. Tavernier - Drain Theory
2. Dacca - Paper mill
3. Dadabai Naoroji - Artisan
4. Ballygunj - Muslin

5. Smiths - French Traveller
1. India was famous for cotton and silk cloths.
2. The railway was introduced in India by the British.
3. Steel was first manufactured by modern methods at Jamshedpur.
4. The industrial policy of 1948 brought mixed economy in industrial sector.
5. The tenth and eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of agricultural
Production.
1. Which of the following statement are correct?
i) According to Edward Baines, “The birth place of cotton manufacture is in England”
ii) Before mechanised industry handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in
rural India.
iii) Saurashtra was known for tin industry.
iv) Construction of Suez Canal made the British goods cheaper in India.
(b) ii and iv are correct
2. Assertion (A): Indian handicrafts collapsed under the colonial rule.
Reason (R): British made India as the producer of raw materials and markets for their finished
products.
(a) A is correct R is correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R is correct
3. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Bernier - Shajahan
(b) Cotton mill - Ahmadabad
(c) TISCO - Jamshdpur
(d) Economic Liberalisation - 1980
Answers:

1. Smelting of iron 2. Textile 3. Kanpur 4. To built a strong industrial base 5. Industrial policy
of India
Fill in the blanks:
1. Craft 2. 19th century 3. 1839 4. Rishra 5. Suez Canal
1.Tavernier- French traveller

2.Dacca- Muslin
3.Dadabai Naoroji- Drain theory
4.Ballygunj- Paper mill
5.Smiths- Artisan
1.True
2.True
3.False
Correct answer: Steel was first manufactured by modern methods at Kulti in 1874
4.True
5.False
Correct answer: Eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of Agricultural
production
1. ii and iv are correct
2. Both A and R is correct
3. Economic Liberalisation – 1980
7] Urban changes during the British period
Do You Know?
An urban area is one that has a high population density engaged in occupations other than
food production, living in a highly built environment.
Presently Fort St. George is the power centre of Tamil Nadu State Government, extending
across 172 sq.KM (66 sq.miles)
The first building to be seen on entering the fort through the Sea Gate is the seat of the
Government of Tamil Nadu. These impressive buildings built between 1694 and 1732 are said
to be among the oldest surviving British Construction in India.

Dalhousie Square in Calcutta and Fort St. George in Madras were close to the central
commercial area and had massive buildings which were British variants of Roman Styles.
1. Ancient towns are
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro
(b) Delhi and Hyderabad
(c) Bombay and Calcutta
2. Coastal towns developed by the British were
(a) Surat
(b) Goa
(c) Bombay
(d) All of these
3. A new trend of urbanisation began in the latter half of 19th century as a result of
(a) Opening of Suez Canal
(b) Introduction of steam navigation
(c) Construction of Railways
(d) All the above
4. The British arrived India
(a) For trading
(b) for preaching their religion
(c) For working
(d) for ruling
5. Fort St. George was constructed by the British in
(a) Bombay
(b) Cuddalore
(c) Madras
(d) Calcutta
6. Which of the following port was the East India Company’s principal settlement until 1774?
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort St. David
(c) Fort St. George

(d) None of these
Fill in the blanks:
1. The network of railroads in India was introduced in ______________
2. __________ rightly regarded as the Father of Local Self-Government in India.
3. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced __________ in the provinces.
4. ___________ was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
5. Francis Day and Andrew Cogan got permission to establish a factory-cum trading post at
madrasapatnam in _____________
1. Bombay - Religious centres
2. Cantonment towns - Hill stations
3. Kedarnath - Ancient town
4. Darjeeling - Seven island
5. Madurai - Kanpur
1. Towns flourished since pre-historic times in India.
2. British acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey.
3. Fort William is in Madras.
4. Army people began to live in cantonments.
5. Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in 1998.
1. Assertion: India became the agricultural colony of Britain.
Reason: The one-way free trade policy followed by British and the Industrial revolution
destroyed Indian indigenous industries.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
i) Srirangarayalu gave the English the grant of Madrasapatnam.
ii) Day and Cogan were jointly responsible for the construction of Fort St. George.
iii) In 1969 the state of Madras was rechristened as Tamil Nadu.

(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) iii only
3. Assertion (A): British built up their alternative capitals in hilly areas.
Reason (R): They found the Indian summer inhospitable.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
Answers:
1. Harappa and Mohenjodaro 2. All of these 3. All the above 4. for trading 5. Madras 6. Fort St.
George
Fill in the blanks:
1. 1853 2. Lord Ripon 3. Dyarchy 4. Sir Josiah Child 5. 1639
1.Bombay - seven island

2.Cantonment towns- Kanpur
3.Kedarnath- Religious centres
4.Darjeeling- hill stations
5.Madurai- Ancient town
1.True
2.True
3.False
Correct answer: Fort William is in Calcutta
4.True
5.False
Correct answer: Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in 1996
1. A is correct and R explains A
2. i only

8] Status of Women in India through the ages
Do You Know?
Jauhar refers to the practice of collective voluntary immolation by wives and daughters of
defeated Rajput warriors, in order to avoid capture and dishonour.
Akbar prohibited child marriage and made it obligatory for the parents to obtain the approval
of both the bride and the bridegroom before the marriage. He prescribed 14 years as the age of
constant for girls and 16 years for boys.
The Madras Devadasi Act was a law that was enacted on 9th October 1947. The law was passed
in the Madras presidency and gave Devadasis the legal right to marry and made it illegal to
dedicated girls to Indian temples.
1. _________ society is constantly changing with additions, assimilations and omissions

from within and outside.
(a) Human
(b) Animal
(c) Forest
(d) Nature
2. The first women doctor in India was
(a) Dharmambal
(b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
(c) Moovalur Ramamirdham
(d) Panditha Ramabai
3. The practice of sati was abolished in _________
(a) 1827
(b) 1828
(c) 1829
(d) 1830
4. B.M. Malabari was a
(a) Teacher
(b) Doctor
(c) Lawyer
(d) Journalist

5. Which of the following was/were the reform movement(s) ?
(a) Brahma Samaj
(b) Prarthana Samaj
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) All the above
6. The Bethune school was founded in _____________ by J.E.D. Bethune.
(a) 1848
(b) 1849
(c) 1850
(d) 1851
7. Which commission recommended to start primary schools for girls in 1882?
(a) Wood’s
(b) Welby
(c) Hunter
(d) Muddiman
8. Sarada’s child marriage bill fixing the minimum marriageable age for girls at ________
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
Fill in the blanks:
1. __________ society was setup by the Christian missionaries in 1819.
2. _________ of Sivaganga fought bravely against the British.
3. Servants of India society was started by ___________
4. ________ was the one of the greatest social reformer of Tamil Nadu.
5. Kandukuri Veeresalingam published a journal called _________
1. Theosophical society - Italian traveller
2. Sarada Sadan - Social evil
3. Wood’s despatch - Annie Besant
4. Niccolo Conti - Pandita Ramabhai

5. Dowry - 1854
1. Women were honoured in Rig Vedic period.
2. Devadasi system was a social evil.
3. Raja Rammohan Roy was the pioneer of Indian social reform movement.
4. Reservation of 23% to women envisaged an improvement in the socio-political status of

women.
5. The age of marriage was raised for boys and girls by the Sharda Act of 1930.
1. Find out the correct Pair:
a) Women’s university - Prof. D.K. Karve
b) Justice Ranade - Arya Samaj
c) Widow Remarriage Act - 1855
d) Rani Lakshmi Bhai - Delhi
2. Find the Odd one out:
(a) Child marriage
(b) Sati
(c) Devadasi System
(d) Widow remarriage
3. Consider the following the statements:
i) Begum Hazarat Mahal, Rani Lakshmi Bhai led an armed revolt against the British.
ii) Velunachiyar of Sivaganga, Tamil Nadu fought bravely against the British.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/or correct?
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i and ii
(d) neither i nor ii
4. Assertion (A): Raja Rammohan Roy is most remembered by all Indians.
Reason (R): He wiped out the evil practice of Sati form the Indian Society.
(a) A and R are Wrong
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong

Answers:
1. Human 2. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar 3. 1829 4. Journalist 5. all the above 6. 1849 7. Hunter 8.
14
Fill in the blanks:
1. Calcutta female Juvenile 2. Velu Nachiyar 3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 4. Periyar 5. Kandukuri
Veeresalingam
1.Theosophical society - Annie Besant

2.Sarada Sadan- Pandita RamaBhai
3.Wood’s Despatch- 1854
4.Niccolo Conti- Italian traveler
5.Dowry- Social evil
1.True
2.True
3.True
4.False
Correct answer: Reservation of 33 percent to women envisaged an improvement in the socio-
political status of women
5.True
1. Women’s university - Prof. D.K. Karve
2. widow remarriage
3. i and ii
9] Rocks and soils
Do You Know?
Petrology is a branch of geology which deals with the study of rocks. “Petrology” is derived
from the Greek word “Petrus” refers to rock and “Logos” refers to study.
The word Igneous is derived from the Latin word “Ignis” means “fire”.

Some major Active Volcanoes: Mount Vesuvius, Mt. Stromboli and Mt. Etna in Italy and
Mauna Loa and Mauna Kea in Hawaii Islands.
Oldest sedimentary rocks of the world have been indentified in Greenland and estimated as
3.9 billion years old.
Sedimentary rocks are the important source of natural resources like coal, oil and natural gas.
One of the world wonders Taj Mahal in India was built with White Marbles a metamorphic
rock.
Quartzite and Marble are the rocks commonly used for construction and sculpture works.
Marbles are widely used for making beautiful statues and decorative items such as vase, tiny
gift articles and grinded marble is used to produce plastics, paper etc.,
World Soil Day is observed on 5th December, every year.
How long does it take to form soil? The time needed to form a soil depends on the Climate.
The environments which are characterized by mild climate, takes 200-400 years to form one
cm of soil and in wet tropical area, soil formation is faster and takes upto 200 years. To become
a well matured soil, it takes about 3000 years.
1. Which of the following is known as sphere of rocks?
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Hydrosphere
2. World soil day is observed on
(a) 15th August
(b) 12th January
(c) 15th October
(d) 5th December
3. Fossils are found in
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) Plutonic rocks
4. The top layer of soil is called as
(a) Organic layer or humas

(b) Topsoil
(c) Subsoil
(d) Bedrock
5. Ideal soil for growing cotton is
(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Mountain soil
6. The major components of soil is
(a) Rocks
(b) Minerals
(c) Water
(d) All the above
7. Which one of the following is the most widespread most and productive category of soil.
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Red Soil
(d) Mountain soil
Fill in the blanks:
1. Scientific study of rocks is called ____________
2. _________ soil is highly suitable for millets cultivation.
3. The “skin of earth” is ___________
4. ____________ is the kind of metamorphic rock using which Taj Mahal was built.
5. ___________ is known as the primary rocks.
1. Igneous rocks are called primary rocks.
2. Slate is formed from shale.
3. Red soil is formed by the process of leaching.
4. M-sand is used as alternative for natural sand in construction.
5. Volcanic mountains are covered with sedimentary rocks.

(a)
1. Granite - (a) Bed rock
2. Soil layer - (b) Plutonic rock
3. Barren island - (c) Strip farming
4. Soil conservation - (d) Active Volcano
abcd
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
(b)
a. Basalt - 1. Anthracite
b. Limestone - 2. Extrusive igneous
c. Coal - 3. Metamorphic rock
d. Gneiss - 4. Sedimentary rock
abcd
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
1. a) Igneous rocks are called the primary rocks.

b) Soil is the product of weathering of rocks.
c) Sedimentary rocks are the hardest ones.
d) Deccan plateau is the region of Igneous rocks.
2. a) Soil erosion decreases its fertility.
b) Dynamic metamorphism is caused by high temperature.
c) Soil is a renewable source.
d) Humus is a part of the top layer of soil.
1. Statement (1): Sedimentary rocks consist of many layers.

Statement (2): Sedimentary rocks are formed by the sediments deposited at different points
of time.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1

(b) 1 and 2 are correct but, 2 does not explain 1
(c) 1 is correct but, 2 is incorrect
(d) 2 is correct but, 1 is incorrect
Answers:
1. Lithosphere 2. 5th December 3. Sedimentary rocks 4. Organic layer or humas 5. Black soil 6.
Minerals 7. Alluvial soil
Fill in the blanks:
1. Petrology 2. Black 3. Soil 4. White Marble 5. Igneous rocks
1.True
2.True
3.False
Correct answer: Laterite soil is formed by the process of Leeching
4.True
5.False
Correct answer: Volcanic mountains are covered with Igneous rocks
1. 2 1 4 3
2. 2 4 3 1
Choose the incorrect statement from the following
1.Sedimentary rocks are the hardest ones
2.Soil is a renewable source
1.1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1

10] Weather and climate
Do You Know?
Earth’s atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet earth and retained by the earth’s
gravity. It contains about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.97% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide and
0.04% trace amounts of other gases and water vapour.
Scientific study of weather is called Meteorology and the scientific study of climate is called
climatology.
The word Climate is derived from the ancient Greek word “Klimo” which means “Inclination”.
Distribution of weather elements are shown by means of Isolines on maps. Isolines are those
which join the places of equal values. Isolines are given different names based on the weather
element they represent.

Isotherm - Equal temperature.
Isocryme - Equal lowest mean temperature for a specified period
Isohel - Equal sunshine
Isollobar - Equal pressure tendency showing similar changes over a given time
Isobar - Equal atmospheric pressure
Isohyet - Equal amount of rainfall
Temperature varies both horizontally and vertically. Temperature decreases with increasing
height is known as Lapse rate which is 6.5 degree Celsius per 1000 meters in troposphere.
Highest Temperature ever recorded: The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is
56.7oC (134o F) . It was recorded on 10th July 1913 at Greenland Ranch of Death Valley, California,
USA.
Lowest Temperature ever recorded: The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth is -
89.2oC (-128.6oF; 184.0 K) . It was recorded on 21st July, 1983 at Soviet Vostok Station in
Antarctica.
Highest pressure ever recorded: The highest ever air pressure at sea level was recorded at
Agata, Russia on 31st December, 1968. The pressure was 1083.8mb
Lowest pressure ever recorded: The lowest pressure of 870mb was recorded at Typhoon Tip,
near Guam, Mariana Island in Pacific Ocean on 12th October, 1979.
Why do your ears pop in Ariplanes? As you go up in an airplane, the atmospheric pressure
becomes lower than the pressure of the air inside your ears. Your ears pop because they are
trying to equalize or match the pressure. The same thing happens when the plane is on the
way down and your ears have to adjust to a higher atmospheric pressure.
With decreasing air pressure, the availability of oxygen to breath also decreases. At very high
altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low that people can become sick
and even die. Mountain climbers use bottled oxygen when they ascend very high peaks. They
also take time to get used to the altitude as the quick move from high pressure to low pressure
can cause decompression sickness. Aircraft create artificial pressure in the cabin which
makes the passengers remain comfortable while flying.
Brazil has a large area where the average wind speed is low. Gabon, Congo and DR Congo in
Africa, Sumatra, Indonesia and Malaysia are the least windy places on earth.
Al-Balakhi, an Arab Geographer collected climatic data from the Arab travellers and prepared
the First climatic Atlas of the world.
1. Earth’s atmosphere contains about __________ percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.

(a) 78% and 21%
(b) 22% and 1%
(c) 21% and 0.97%
(d) 10% and 20%

2. ____________ is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a
region.
(a) Earth
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Climate
(d) Sun
3. The earth receives energy from ___________
(a) Current
(b) Electro Magnetic Radiation
(c) Waves
(d) Heat
4. Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall?
(a) Isotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohytes
5. ____________ is used to measure the humidity.
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Thermometer
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.

2. The scientific study of weather is called ______________
3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is ___________
4. ____________ is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum
amount of water vapour the air can hold.
5. _______________ and _____________ are measured by anemometer and wind vane
respectively.
6. _______________ are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different
places.
1. Climate - Locating and Tracing storms

2. Isonif - Cyclone
3. Hygrometer - Equal snowfall

4. Radar - Long term changes
5. Low pressure - Humidity
1. The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet.

2. The scientific study of weather is called Climatology.
3. Isohel refers equal sunshine.
4. Humidity is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.
Answers:
1. 78% and 21% 2. Climate 3. Electro-magnetic radiation 4. Iso-hytes 5. Hygrometer
Fill in the blanks:
1. Weather 2. Meteorology 3. 56.70C 4. Relative Humidity 5. Wind speed and Wind direction 6.
Isotherms
1.Climate- Long Term Changes
2.Isonif- - Equal Snowfall
3.Hygrometer- Humidity
4.Radar- Locating and Tracking Storms
5.Low Pressure- Cyclone
1.True
2.False
Correct answer: The Scientific study of weather is called Meteorology
3.True
4.False
Correct answer: Air Pressure is calculated by Aneroid Barometer

11] Hydrologic cycle
Do You Know?
The rate of evaporation increases with: Increase in wind speed. Increase in temperature.
Decrease in humidity and increase in areal extent of surface water bodies.
Condensation occurs when the air gets saturated. Warm air can hold more water vapour than
the cool air. Saturation occurs when the temperature drops down.
Units of the Measurement pertaining to Hydrology: Evaporation/interception-inches (or) cm.
Infiltration –inches (or) cm/hour. Precipitation-inches (or) mm (or) cm. Run off – inches (or)
mm (or) cm. Run off rate – cubic feet per second. Run off volume – acre feet (or) cubic feet.
Storage – cubic feet (or) acre feet.

1. The process in which the water moves between the oceans, atmosphere and land is called.
(a) River Cycle
(b) Hydrologic Cycle
(c) Rock Cycle
(d) Life Cycle
2. The percentage of fresh water on the earth is
(a) 71
(b) 97
(c) 2.8
(d) 0.6
3. The process of changing of water from gaseous to liquid form is known as
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Rainfall
4. Water that flows in the sub-soil or through the ground into the streams, rivers, lakes and
oceans is termed as
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Transpiration
(d) Runoff
5. The evaporation of water from the leaves of plants is called
(a) Transpiration
(b) Condensation
(c) Water vapour
(d) Precipitation
6. Water that is good enough to drink is called
(a) Ground water
(b) Surface Water
(c) Potable water
(d) Artesian water
Fill in the blanks:
1. The degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as ______________

2. There are ___________ phases in the water cycle.

3. The falling of water towards the earth surface from atmosphere in any form is known as
___________
4. The precipitation with the rain drop size of <0.5 mm in diameter is known as ___________
5. Mist is denser than _______________
1. Vegetation - Clouds
2. Condensation - Sleet
3. Snow and rain drops - At the surface
4. Infiltration - Transpiration
1. Evaporation refers to
I. The process in which the gaseous form of water changes in to liquid form.
II. It refers to the process in which the liquid form of water changes into gaseous form.
III. Water boils at 100oC temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0oC.
IV. It is responsible for the formation of clouds.
(a) I and IV are correct
(b) II only correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) All are correct
1. Water boils at 212oF temperature but, it begins to evaporate at 32oF.
2. Mist is not the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
3. The sub-surface runoff is usually referred as interflow.
Answers:
1. Hydrologic Cycle 2. 2.8 3. Condensation 4. Runoff 5. Transpiration 6. Potable water
Fill in the blanks:
1. Humidity 2. Three 3. Precipitation 4. Drizzle 5. Fog
1.Vegetation- Transpiration
2.Condensation- Clouds
3.Snow and rain drops- Sleet
4.Infiltration- At the surface

Choose the correct statement
1. II and III are correct
1.True
2.False
Correct answer: Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air
3.True
12] Migration and Urbanisation
Do You Know?
Female migrants outnumber male migrants in Europe, Northern America, Oceania and Latin
America and the Caribbean, while in Africa and Asia, particularly Western Asia, migrants are
predominantly men. (International Migration Report, 2017)
In 2017, India was the largest country of origin of international migrants (17 million) , followed
by Mexico (13 million) . (International Migration Report, 2017)
The number of international migrants worldwide has continued to grown rapidly in recent
years, reaching 258 million in 2017, up from 220 million in 2010 and 173 million in 2000
(International Migration Report, 2017) .
India, China and Nigeria – together are expected to account for 35% of the growth in the
world’s urban population between 2018 and 2050. India is projected to add 416 million urban
dwellers, China 255 million and Nigeria 189 million (World Urbanisation Prospects, 2018, Kew
facts) .
In 2007, for the first time in history, the global urban population exceeded the global rural
population and the world population has remained predominantly urban thereafter. (World
Urbanisation Prospects, 2014 Revision, Highlights) .
In 1950, 30% of the world’s population was urban, and by 2050, 68% of the world’s population
is projected to be urban (World Urbanisation Prospects, 2018, Key facts) .
1. People move from ____________ to _______________ mainly in search of better jobs.
(a) Rural to Urban
(b) Urban to rural
(c) Hills to plain
(d) Plains to hills
2. A person moves from his own country to another country is known as _____________

(a) Immigrant
(b) Refugee
(c) Emigrant
(d) Asylum seeker
3. The migration in search of fertile agriculture land is ___________ migration.
(a) Rural to Rural
(b) Rural to Urban
(c) Urban to Rural
(d) Urban to Urban
4. War is one of the ___________ causes of human migration.
(a) Demographic
(b) Socio-Cultural
(c) Political
(d) Economic
5. The main reason for the development of urbanisation in pre-historic period was
____________
(a) Excess Production of food grains
(b) Domestication of cattle
(c) Fishing
(d) Hunting
Fill in the blanks:
1. Urbanisation is determined by _____________ number of factors.
2. ____________ is the major push factor operating in rural areas.
3. _____________ metropolitan city in India has the second highest urban population in the
world.
4. The movement of a person based on his free will and desire to live in a better place is called
_______________ migration.
5. In modern time urban growth was accelerated by the development of _____________
1. Emigration - In migration
2. Immigration - Out migration
3. Pull factor - Unemployment

4. Push factor - Socio-Cultural migration
5. Marriage - Employment opportunity
1. Slums are generally found in cities.
2. Mass migration is absent in the modern period.
3. The process of Urbanisation has a short history.
4. Cities and towns are the major polluters of environment.
5. Transhumance is also referred as seasonal migration.
1. Statement (A): Urbanisation is mainly due to the movement of people from rural to cities.
Reason (R): Rural to Urban migration is not a predominant one.
(a) A is correct but R is incorrect
(b) Both A and R are incorrect
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answers:
1. Rural to Urban 2. Emigrant 3. Rural to Rural 4. Political 5. Domestication of cattle
Fill in the blanks:
1. Three 2. Poverty 3. Delhi 4. Voluntary 5. Towns and cities
1.Emigration - Out migration

2.Immigration - In migration
3.Pull factor - Employment opportunity
4.Push factor - Unemployment
5.Marriage - Socio- Cultural migration
1.True
2.True
3.False
Correct answer: The process of Urbanisation has a long history
4.True
5.True

1. A is correct but R is incorrect
13] Hazards
Do You Know?
A natural hazard is a natural process and event that is a potential threat to human life and
property. The process and events themselves are not a hazard but become so because of
human use of the land. A disaster is a hazardous event that occurs over a limited time span
in a defined area and causes great damage to property/loss of life, also needs assistance from
others. A catastrophe is a massive disaster that requires significant expenditure of money
and a long time for recovery.
About one third area of the country is affected by drought. It severely affects 16% of the land
area and 12% of the total population of India. The areas that receive an annual rainfall of less
than 60 cm are the drought prone regions of India.
The word “Tsunami” is derived from Japanese word ‘tsu’ meaning harbour and ‘nami’
meaning wave (Harbour wave) .
Indian Ocean Tsunami of 2004: On December 26, 2004, at 7:59 a.m. local time, an undersea
earthquake with a magnitude of 9.1 struck off the coast of the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
The tsunami killed at least 2,25,000 people across a dozen countries, with Indonesia, Sri Lanka,
India, Thailand, Somalia and Maldives, sustaining massive damage.
Chernobyl nuclear disaster site (near Pripyat) to become an official tourist spot:
Before: Chernobyl (then Soviet Union) nuclear accident was happened on 26th April, 1986. The
radiation emitted was more than 400 times than that released by the atomic bomb dropped
on Hiroshima (Japan) in 1945. This accident remains the largest nuclear accident in history.
More than 3,50,000 people were evacuated from the area and severe restrictions on permanent
human settlement are still in that place.
Now: 33 years after the accident, the Exclusion Zone, which covers an area now in Ukraine
and Belarus is inhabited by numerous animals and more than 200 birds species. In 2016, the
Ukraine part of this zone was declared as a radiological and environmental biosphere reserve
by the government.
Nature is emerging as a new weapon of mass destruction, do you agree? Around 22,000
people have died in India in 10 years until 2017 due to major environmental disasters – Indian
Meterology Department. In the past two decades (1998 – 2017) over 5,00,000 people have died
due to extreme weather events around the world – stated by Global Climate Risk Index Report
Published by Greenwatch (German – based non-profit organisation) .

1. ___________ percentage of nitrogen is present in the air.
(a) 78.09%
(b) 74.08%
(c) 80.07%
(d) 76.63%
2. Tsunami in Indian Ocean took place in the year _________
(a) 1990
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2008
3. The word Tsunami is derived from _____________ language.
(a) Hindi
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) German
4. The example of surface water is
(a) Artesian well
(b) Groundwater
(c) Subsurface water
(d) Lake
5. Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.
(a) Condensation
(b) Drought
(c) Evaporation
(d) Precipitation
Fill in the blanks:
1. Hazards may lead to _____________
2. Landslide is an example of ____________ hazard.
3. On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into _____________ categories.
4. Terrorism is an example of ______________ hazard.
5. Oxides of Nitrogen are ____________ pollutants which affects the human beings.

6. Chernobyl nuclear accident took place in _____________ year.
List I List II
1. Primary pollutant - Terrorism
2. Hazardous waste - Tsunami
3. Earthquake - Outdated drugs
4. Meteorologial drought - Oxides of sulphur
5. Human induced hazard - Reduction in rainfall
Answers:
Choose the best answers
1. 78.09% 2. 2004 3. Japanese 4. Lake 5. Drought
Fill in the blanks:
1. Disaster 2. Seismic 3. 8 4. Human – induced 5. Primary 6. 26th April 1986
1.Primary pollutant – Oxides of Sulphur

2.Hazardous waste - Outdated drugs
3.Earthquake - Tsunami
4.Meteorological drought - Reduction in rainfall
5.Human induced hazard – Terrorism
14] Industries
Do You Know?
Services sector is the one of the largest sectors of India. Currently this sector is the backbone
of the Indian economy and contributing around 53% of the Indian Gross Domestic Product.
Detroit of India: Detroit city in Michigan State, USA is known as the world’s traditional
automotive centre. In India Chennai is known as ‘Detroit of India’. It has the world famous
automobile industries such as GM, Ford, Hyundai and Mahindra. The city accounts for 60% of
the country’s automotive exports.
1. Silk weaving and house hold industries come under the category of ____________
(a) Small scale industry
(b) Large scale industry

(c) Marine based industry
(d) Capital intensive industry
2. On the basis of ownership the industry can be divided into __________ types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
3. Amul dairy industry is best example of ____________ sector.
(a) Private sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Co-operative sector
(d) Joint sector
4. Iron and Steel and Cement Industries are the examples of ____________ industries.
(a) Agro based
(b) Mineral based
(c) Forest based
(d) Marine based
5. Tertiary activity is divided into ____________ types.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5
Fill in the blanks:
1. Banking is a __________ economic activity.
2. Tertiary activity is divided into ___________ and ____________
3. Government decision making process comes under the ___________ category of tertiary
economic activity.
4. Raw material based perspective Cotton Textile industry is a ___________ industry.
5. Capital required for establishing a large scale industry is more than __________
1. Judicial sector - Private sector
2. TV telecasts - Non Geographical factor

3. Geographical factor - Quaternary activity
4. Capital - Raw materials
5. Bajaji Auto - Quinary activity
Answers:
1. Small scale industry 2. 4 3. Co-operative sector 4. Mineral based 5. 2
Fill in the blanks:
1. Tertiary 2. Quaternary, Quinary 3. Quinary 4. Agro- based 5. One crore
1.Judicial sector - Quinary activity

2.TV telecasts - Quaternary activity
3.Geographical factor – Raw materials
4.Capital – Non - Geographical factor
5.Bajaji Auto - Private Sector
15] Exploring Continents: Africa, Australia and Antarctica
Do You Know?
Africa is called a Dark Continent. In the beginning the interior of Africa was largely unknown
to them. The European explorer Henry M. Stanley was the first to use the term the “Dark
Continent” (1878) .
The north-western African countries of Morocco, Algeria, Libya, Mauritania and Tunisia are
collectively called “Maghreb” which means west in Arabic language.
The glaciers on the top of Kilimanjaro have been disappearing since 20th centuries. If this
trend continues, Kilimanjaro summit will be ice-free by 2025.
Sheep rearing in semi-arid region of South Africa is called “Karoos”.
The country Egypt is called the “Gift of the Nile” as it is the lifeline of the Egypt. Without Nile
the Egypt would have been a desert.
Tropical deserts are located between 20o and 30o north and south of the equator on the western
margin of the continents. The deserts lie in the belt of the trade winds which blow from
northeast in the northern hemisphere and southeast in the southern hemisphere. Therefore,
the general direction of the trade winds is from east to west. These winds shed their moisture
on the eastern margins of the continents and by the time they reach the west, they lose their
moisture.

A hot and dry dusty local wind blowing from the Sahara Desert to Guinea coast is called
“Harmattan”. A hot local wind blowing from Sahara to Mediterranean Sea is called “Sirocco”.
Tropical rain forest is called the “Jewel of the earth” and the world’s largest pharmacy.
The major tribes of the world are called the first indigenous people. These people have a
strong sense of their own identity as unique with their own lands, languages and cultures.
Afar, Fatwa, Bushmen, Dinka, Masai, Pygmies, Zulu, Tswan, and Efe are the major tribes of
Africa.
Australia was discovered by Captain James Cook, an English Seaman in 1770.
Bourke is the place in Australia where the highest temperature is recorded (53oC) . It is located
in the central low lands. The lowest temperature of the country is recorded in Canberra, the
capital of Australia (-22oC) .
The people who work in the sheep stations in Australia are known as Jackaroos. Aborigines
are the indigenous people of the Australia.
The sheep industry is well developed in Australia. The wool is described as the “Cash Crop”
of Australia.
The temperate grass land of Australia is known as “Downs”.
Scientists of any country are free to conduct experiments and collect data from Antarctica.
Hence it is called “Continent of Science”.
Antarctica is the largest piece of ice on the surface of Earth. About 70% of Earth’s fresh water
is in the Antarctic ice cap.
Vinson Massif (5140m) is the highest peak in Antarctica. It is located in the southern part of
Sentinel Range. Lambert glacier of this continent is the largest glacier in the world.
Mcmurdo is the largest research station in Antarctica. It was set up by the United States of
America. Dakshin Gangotri was the first Indian Scientific research base station in Antarctica.
1. The southernmost tip of Africa is ___________
(a) Cape Blanca
(b) Cape Agulhas
(c) Cape of Good Hope
(d) Cape Town
2. The manmade canal through an isthmus between Egypt and Sinai Peninsula is
(a) Panama Canal
(b) Aswan Canal
(c) Suez Canal

(d) Albert Canal
3. In respect of the Mediterranean climate, consider the following statements and choose the
correct answer.
1. The average rainfall is 15 cm.
2. The summers are hot and dry; winters are rainy.
3. Winters are cool and dry; summers are hot and wet.
4. Citrus fruits are grown.
(a) 1 is correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
4. The range which separates the west and east flowing rivers in Australia is
(a) Great Dividing Range
(b) Himalayan range
(c) Flinders range
(d) Mac Donnell range
5. Kalgoorile is famous for _________ mining.
(a) Diamond
(b) Platinum
(c) Silver
(d) Gold
Fill in the blanks:
1. Atlas Mountain is located in _____________ continent.
2. ____________ is the highest peak of Africa.
3. ___________ is the most common tree in Australia.
4. A temperate grass land of Australia is called _______________
5. __________ is the first Indian research station in Antarctica.
1. Pinnacle - Equatorial forest
2. Krill - Salt Lake
3. Ostrich - Small red fish
4. Lake Eyre - Flightless bird

5. Jewel of the earth - Pointed limestone pillars
1. Assertion (A): Aurora is a curtain of colour lights appear in the sky.
Reason (R): They are caused by magnetic storms in the upper atmosphere.
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R is individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(d) R is true but A is false
2. Assertion (A): A geological feature of Africa is the Great Rift Valley.
Reason (R): A Rift valley is a large crack in the earth’s surface formed by tectonic activity.
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R is individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(d) R is true but A is false
Answers:
1. Cape Agulhas 2. Suez Canal 3. 2 and 4 are correct 4. Great Dividing Range 5. Gold
Fill in the blanks:
1. North – west Africa 2. Mt. Kilimanjaro 3. Eucalyptus 4. Downs 5. Dakshin Gangotri
1.Pinnacle - pointed limestone pillars

2.Krill - small red fish
3.Ostrich - flightless bird
4.Lake Eyre - Salt Lake
5.Jewel of the earth- Equatorial forest
1.Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.
2.Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A.

16] Map Reading
Do You Know?
The study and practice of many facts of maps and map making is called Cartography. It can
be described as the art and science of map making.
The term “Cadastral’ is derived from the French word “Cadastre” meaning, “Register of
Territorial property”
1. The subject which deals with map making process is ___________
(a) Demography
(b) Cartography
(c) Physiography
(d) Topography
2. A map that shows the physical features of an area is called _______________
(a) Cadastral map
(b) Relief map
(c) Climatic map
(d) Resource map
3. Shallow water bodies are represented by ______________ colour.
(a) Yellow
(b) Brown
(c) Light Blue
(d) Dark blue
4. The maps which are known as plans are.
(a) Cadastral maps
(b) Topographical maps
(c) Isoline maps
(d) Transport maps
5. Actual distribution of population can be represented by ______________
(a) Lines
(b) Shades
(c) Dots

(d) Contours
Fill in the blanks:
1. The globe is the true representation of the ___________
2. A way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface is ______________
3. A line that joins the points of equal elevation is _______________
4. Cadastral maps are usually maintained by ____________
5. _____________ map is focused on a specific theme.
1. Legend - (a) 45o
2. North East - (b) Brown colour
3. Contour Line - (c) Thematic map
4. Cadastral map - (d) Key of a map
5. Choropleth - (e) Taxation
(a) 3,5,1,4,2
(b) 4,1,2,5,3
(c) 2,5,1,3,4
(d) 5,2,4,1,3
1. Statement: Small scale maps can show only major features.
Reason: Due to lack of space, it shows large areas like continents and countries.
(a) Statement is true but reason is wrong
(b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct
(c) Both the statement and reason are correct
(d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong
2. Statement: The conventional signs and symbols are the keys of map reading.
Reason: These symbols give a lot of information in a limited area.
(a) Both the statement and reasons are correct
(b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct
(c) Statement is true but reason is wrong
(d) both the statement and reasons are wrong
Answers:

1. Cartography 2. Relief map 3. Light blue 4. Cadastral maps 5. Shades
Fill in the blanks:
1. Earth 2. Map projection 3. Isoline 4. Government 5. Thematic
1. b) 4,1,2,5,3
1. Both the statement and reasons are correct
2. Both the statement and reasons are correct
17] How the State Government works
Do You Know?
While appointing the Governor, the President acts as per the advice of the Union Cabinet. The
State Government is also consulted when the appointment is to be made. Generally, a person
is not appointed Governor in his own state.
At present, only six states in India have Legislative Council in their legislature. They are Bihar,
Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
The State legislature follows the same procedure for passing an ordinary or a money bill like
that of the Parliament. In State legislatures also, the Legislative Assembly which is the lower
house is more powerful than the Legislative Council which is the upper house.
1. The Governor of a state is appointed by
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Minister
2. The State Council Ministers is headed by
(a) The Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister

3. Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
(a) Home Minister
(b) President
(c) Speaker
(d) The Governor
4. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President of India
5. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 58
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ States are there in India at present.
2. The tenure of the Governor is normally _______________ years.
3. The District Judges are appointed by ____________
4. The Governor is the _______________ Head of the State.
5. Minimum age to become and MLA is _________ years.
1. Governor - Lower house
2. Chief Minister - Nominal Head
3. Legislative Assembly - Upper house
4. Legislative Council - Real Head
1. Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.
2. The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to Legislative

Assembly.
3. The number of judges in the High Court is not uniform and fixed.

1. The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
i) President
ii) Vice – President
iii) Rajya Sabha members
iv) Members of the Legislative Council of the State
(a) i, ii & iii are correct
(b) i & iii are correct
(c) i, iii & iv are correct
(d) i, ii, iii & iv are correct
Answers:
1. President 2. Chief Minister 3. The Governor 4. Chief Justice of the High Court 5. 62
Fill in the blanks:
1. 28 2. Five 3. The Governor 4. Constitutional 5. 25
1. Governor - Nominal Head
2. Chief Minister - Real Head

3. Legislative Assembly - Lower House
4. Legislative Council - Upper House
1.True
2.False
Correct answer: The Governor nominates one member of the Anglo- Indian Community to
Legislative Assembly
3.True
1.i, iii & iv are correct
18] Citizens and citizenship
Do You Know?
Indian Citizenship Act, 1955: This act is to provide for the acquisition and termination of
Indian citizenship.

Nationality and citizenship: Nationality is the status of belonging to a particular nation by
origin, birth basically, it’s an ethnic and racial concept. Nationality of a person cannot be
changed. Citizenship is granted to an individual by the government of the country when
he/she complies with the legal formalities. Citizenship can be changed.
Alien and immigrant are two terms that are used to refer to non-nationals of a country. Alien
refers to all non-citizens or non-nationals residing in a country. Ex: Tourists, foreign students.
Immigrant refers to alien who has been granted the right to reside and work permanently
without restriction in a particular country.
As per the order precedence President is the first citizen of our country.
Overseas Indian’s Day: Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Sponsored by Ministry of External
Affairs of Government of India is celebrated once in every two years, to “mark the
contributions of Overseas Indian Community in the development of India”. The day (January
9) commemorates the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi in India from South Africa.
1. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming the citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent
(d) Naturalization
2. ____________ of the Constitution of India deals with the Citizenship.
(a) Part II
(b) Part II Article 5-11
(c) Part II Article 5-6
(d) Part I Article 5-11
3. Who is called the first citizen of India?
(a) The Prime Minster
(b) The President
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ of a state enjoy full civil and political rights.
2. Our Indian Constitution provides for only _____________ citizenship.
3. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India and holds an Indian passport are called
___________

4. All have right and _______________ responsibility citizens.
5. _____________ is an idea enabling young people to access and participate in shaping

modern society.
1. USA has single citizenship.
2. OCI card holder has voting rights in India.
3. Citizen of India can enjoy Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our constitution.
4. Nationality can be change and citizenship cannot be changed.
1. Indian Citizen of a person can be terminated if
I. A person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
II. A person who has become a citizen through registration.
III. The Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
IV. A citizen who is by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) I, III, IV are correct
(d) I, II, III are correct
2. Assertion (A): When Pondicherry becomes the part of India in 1962, the people lived there
became Indian citizens.
Reason (R): It was done by one of the provisions of the Act of 1955 – by incorporation of
Territory.
(c) A is wrong but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
1. acquiring property 2. Part II Article 5-11 3. The President
Fill in the blanks:
1. Citizen 2. Single 3. Non- Resident Indian 4. Civic 5. Global citizenship
1.False

Correct answer: USA has double citizenship
2.False
Correct answer: OCI card holder has no voting rights in India
3.True
4.False
Correct answer: Nationality cannot be change and citizenship can be changed.
1. I and II are correct.
2. R is the correct explanation of A
19] Understanding Secularism
Do You Know?
The term secularism is derived from the Latin word “Saeculum” meaning “an age” or “the
spirit of an age.” George Jacob Holyoake a British newspaper editor coined the term
secularism.
Atheism: Is a lack of belief in god and gods. Secularism: Is non-interference of the state in
religious affairs and vice-versa.
The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. His propagation of Din-
i-Illahi (Divine Faith) and Sulh-e-kul (Peace and harmony among religions) were advocated
for religious toleration.
Emperor Ashoka was the first great emperor to announce as early as 3rd century BC (BCE) that
the state would not prosecute any religious sect. In his 12th Rock Edict, Ashoka made an appeal
not only for the tolerance of all religious sects but also to develop a spirit of great respect
towards them.
The secular Indian state declares public holidays to mark the festivals of all religions.
A 19th century Hindu temple in Khajuraho, India incorporates a Hind spire, a Jain cupola, a
Buddhist stupa and Muslim style dome in place of usual shikara.
Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara near Agra, India: Akbar’s instruction for his mausoleum was that
it would incorporate elements from different religions including Islam and Hinduism.
1. Secularism means
(a) State is against to all religions
(b) State accepts only one religion

(c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any
religion
(d) None of these
2. India is a land of ______________
(a) Multi-religious faith
(b) Multi-Cultural beliefs
(c) Both (1) & (2)
(d) None of these
3. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in _______________
(a) 1951
(b) 1976
(c) 1974
(d) 1967
4. Which one of the following describes India as a secular state?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duty
(c) Directive principles of State Policy
(d) Preamble of the Constitution
5. Right to freedom of religion is related to
(a) Judiciary
(b) Parliament
(c) Directive principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental rights
6. According to Article 28, which type of education is restricted in state aided educational
institutions?
(a) Religious instruction
(b) Moral education
(c) Physical education
(d) None above these
7. The country will be considered as a secular country, if it _______________
(a) Gives importance to a particular religion
(b) Bans religious instructions in the state-aided educational institutions

(c) Does not give importance to a particular religion
(d) Bands the propagation of any religious belief
Fill in the blanks:
1. Religions does not teach us ____________
2. Secularism is a part of democracy which grants ______________
3. _____________ is a lack of belief in god and gods.
4. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote _____________ and _____________
5. Article 15 prohibits ______________ on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth.
1. Atheism - Coined the word secularism
2. Children - Social reformer
3. Din-i-Illahi - Lack of belief in god
4. Constitution - Future citizen
5. Holyoake - Divine faith
6. Rajaram Mohan Roy - 1950
1. There is state religion in India.
2. The term secularism has been derived from the Greek word.
3. The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration.
4. Jainism originated in China.
5. Government of India declares holidays for all religious festivals.
1. i) Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterized by religious

diversity.
ii) The word secularism was not mentioned in the Constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
iii) Article 26 deals with payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
iv) Akbar’s tomb situated at Sikandara near Agra.
(a) i, ii only
(b) ii, iii only
(c) iv only
(d) i, ii and iv only
2. Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.

Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but
also for the aliens also.
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A
3. Assertion (A): Secularism is invaluable in India.
Reason (R): India is a multi-religious and multi-cultural country.
(b) A is correct and R is not a correct explanation of A
(d) Both are wrong
4. Find out the wrong Pair:
(a) Din-i-Illahi - A book
(b) Khajuraho - Hindu temple
(c) Ashoka - Rock Edict
(d) Iqbal – Poet
Answers:
1. An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any
religion
2. Both (1) & (2) 3. 1976 4. Preamble of the Constitution 5. Fundamental rights
6. Religious instruction 7. bans religious instructions in the state – aided educational

institutions.
Fill in the blanks:
1. Animosity 2. Equal rights to people 3. Atheism 4. Unity and Integrity of the nation 5.
Discrimination
1.Atheism - lack of belief in god
2.Children - social reformer

3.Din-i-Illahi - Divine faith
4.Constitution - 1950
5.Holyoake - coined the word secularism

6Rajaram Mohan Roy - social reformer
1.False
Correct answer: There is no state religion in India

2.False
Correct answer: The term secularism has been derived from the Latin word
3.True
4.False
Correct answer: Jainism originated in India.
5.True
1.i, ii and iv only

2.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
3.A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
4.Din-i-Illahi - A book
20] Human Rights and UNO
Do You Know?
The Cyrus Cylinder 539 BC (BCE): Cyrus the Great, the first king of ancient Persia, Freed the
slaves and declared that all people had the right to choose their own religion and established
racial equality. These and other decrees were recorded on a baked-clay cylinder in the
Akkadian language in cuneiform script. It is translated into all six official languages of the
United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration
of Human Rights.
Preamble of UDHR: All men are born free and all are equal in status and rights. They are
endowed with intelligence and conscience and obliged to promote the spirit of common
brotherhood amongst all men.
Human Rights Day is celebrated annually on 10th December every year. It is to honour the
United Nations General Assembly for declaring the human rights universally.
UNO has declared: 1978 as International year of women; 1979 as the International year of
children.
Indian Constitution Article: 24 – Prohibits child labour. 39 (f) – Provides for children to
develop in healthy manner. 45 – Provides that the state shall endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

1098 Child Line: This is India’s first 24 hour’s free emergency phone service for children in
need of assistance. Special care is given for vulnerable children those affected by child labour,
child marriage and children affected by any abuse.
Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizen Act 2007: This Act makes it legal
obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents.
Protection and support during old age are envisaged as human rights.
1. After the Second World War _______________ has taken several measures to protect the
human rights.
(a) UNO
(b) Supreme Court
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) None
2. In 1995 women from all over the world gathered at ______________
(a) Beijing
(b) New York
(c) Delhi
(d) None
3. The National Human Rights Commission was constituted in ____________
(a) 1990
(b) 1993
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
4. The UNO declared 1979 as the International Year of ______________
(a) Girl Child
(b) Children
(c) Women
(d) None
5 When is Human Rights Day observed?
(a) 9th December
(b) 10th December
(c) 11th December

(d) 12th December
6. Which one is known as modern International Magna Carta of Human rights?
(a) UDHRC
(b) NHRC
(c) SHRC
(d) International year for women
7. Who can be appointed as the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Retired judge of high court
(b) Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Any person appointed by the president
(d) Retired Chief Judge of any court
8. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50
9. What is the tenure of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) 5 Years or upto 62 years of age
(b) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
(c) 6 years or upto 65 years of age
(d) 5 years or upto 70 years of age
10. Where is the headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Kolkata
Fill in the blanks:
1. Each individual has ______________ to lead a dignified life.
2. Human Rights are ____________ rights.
3. The State Human Rights Commission was formed on _____________
4. Article 24 of Indian Constitution prohibits ______________

5. United Nations Organisation was established in the year ______________
1. Eleanor Roosevelt - World’s first charter of human rights
2. The Cyrus Cylinder - 1997
3. Eve Teasing Act - Freedom from slavery
4. Child help line - Human rights commission
5. Civil right - Right to vote
6. Political right - 1098
1. Human rights and civil rights are the same.
2. Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was proclaimed in India.
3. The Human Rights Act of 1993 provides the creation of National Human Rights Commission.
4. National Human Rights Commission has empowered to give punishment to the victims.
5. Human Rights Commission was empowered to setup commission for the promotion of
Human Rights at National and State Level.
1. Find the wrong statement.
(a) National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.
(b) National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
(c) National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
(d) National Human Rights Commission is a multilateral institution.
2. Which of the following statement is not correct about the National Human Rights
Commission?
(a) It was established in 1993.
(b) In the cases of human rights violation, the Commission has no rights to punish the culprit.
(c) The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court
of India.
(d) The Commission sends its annual report to the Central Government and State Government.
3. Assertion: Human Rights Day is observed on 10th December.
Reason: It commemorates Eleanor Roosevel’s birthday.
(a) A is correct but R does not explain A
(b) A is correct but R explains A

(c) A and R are correct
4. Consider the following statements.
1. The State Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body.
2. The State Human Rights Commission consists of a chairperson and three members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Answers:
1. UNO 2. Beijing 3. 1993 4. Women 5. 10th December 6. UDHRC
7. Any person appointed by the president. 8. 30 9. 5 years or up to 70 years of age 10. Delhi
Fill in the blanks:
1. Right 2. Fundamental 3. 17th April 1997 4. Child Labour 5. 24th October 1945
1.Eleanor Roosevelt - Human Rights Commission
2.The Cyrus Cylinder - world’s first charter of human rights

3.Eve Teasing Act – 1997
4.Child help line - 1098
5.Civil right – Freedom from Slavery
6.Political right – Right to vote
1.True
2.True
3.True
4.True
5.True
1. National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body
2. The Chairperson and members are of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court
of India

3. A is correct but R does not explain A
4. 1 only
21] Road safety rules and regulations
Do You Know?
The 108 Emergency Response Service: It is a free emergency service providing integrated
medical (ambulance) , police and fire services. If you find any victims on road don’t panic. Call
108 for help and 103 for traffic accidents.
Lights at Night: At night, when traffic has dwindled, the traffic police might switch off the
signals in many intersections which means proceed with caution but no need to stop.
304 A of the Indian Penal Code: The police will file a criminal case under this section, which
deals with offences relating to death due to rashness and negligence of the driver.
Setu Bharatam: A program was launched in 2016 for building bridges for safe and seamless
travel on National Highways. It aims to make all National Highways free of railway level
crossing by 2019.
Save Life foundation is an independent, non-profit, non-governmental and public charitable

trust that is working to improve road safety and emergency medical care across India.
1. At a red light
(a) You can keep going if the path looks clear
(b) You must stop and wait for it turn green
(c) Quickly you can reply your friend’s text message
(d) You can attend call
2. Pedestrians can cross the road only ___________
(a) At anywhere
(b) Near the signals
(c) At Zebra Crossing
(d) None
3. Road Safety Week is celebrated in the month of ___________ every year.
(a) December
(b) January
(c) March

(d) May
4. For emergency, call ______________ for ambulance service.
(a) 108
(b) 100
(c) 106
(d) 101
5. What are the causes for the road accidents?
(a) Over speeding
(b) Drunken Driving
(c) Distraction to Drivers
(d) All of these
6. The first category of traffic signs is ___________
(a) Mandatory signs
(b) Cautionary signs
(c) Informatory signs
(d) None of these
7. “Setu Bharatam”, a program was launched in ______________
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
8. Expand ABS:
(a) Anti Brake start
(b) Annual Base System
(c) Anti-locking Brake System
(d) None of these
9. Overtaking when approaching a bend is
(a) Persmissible
(b) Not permissible
(c) Permissible with care
(d) Our wish

10. When the ambulance is approaching
(a) Allow passage if there are no vehicles from front side
(b) No preference need be given
(c) Allow free passage by drawing to the side of the road
(d) Drive behind the ambulance with great speed
Fill in the blanks:
1. Always keep ___________ while driving.
2. Mandatory signs are exhibited in ____________ shape.
3. ____________ controls the speed of the vehicle.
4. Higher the speed; ______________ the risk.
5. Use of _____________ in four wheelers and __________ for two wheelers has been brought
under law.
1. Pollution under control certificate - Zebra crossing
2. One-time tax for new car - Comic book on road safety
3. Pedestrian - 6 Months
4. Brasilia declaration - 15 years
5. Swachha safer - Global conference
1. The problem of accidents lies with roads only.
2. Check mirrors before changing lanes.
3. Flashing yellow signal indicates to slow down and proceed with caution.
4. On a two wheeler only one pillion rider is allowed.
5. The roads are one of the worst invention of man.
1. Which of the following statement is/are not correct?
i) Maintain the right distance to the vehicle in the front.
ii) Maintain speed limit, never exceed the speed limit.
iii) Wearing seat belt is not necessary while driving.
iv) Don’t slow down on bend and turn in the road.
(a) i, iii only
(b) ii, iv only

(c) i, ii only
(d) iii, iv only
2. Assertion (A): Drunken driving causes accidents.
Reason (R): It hampers vision due to dizziness.
(d) Both are wrong
3. Assertion (A): Road signs are easy to comprehend.
Reason (R): They are mostly pictorial.
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A
4. Find out the odd one out (road safety rules)
(a) Slow down on the bends
(b) Maintain speed limit
(c) Use cell phone while driving
(d) Avoid walking on roads
Answers:
1. You must stop and wait for it turn green. 2. at Zebra crossing 3. January 4. 108 5. All of these
6. Mandatory Signs 7. 2016 8. Anti – locking Brake System 9. not permissible 10. allow free
passage by drawing to the side of the road
Fill in the blanks:
1. to the left 2. Circular 3. Automatic speed 4. Higher 5. Seat belt and helmet
1.Pollution under control certificate - 6 months

2.One-time tax for new car - 15 years
3.Pedestrian - Zebra crossing
4.Brasilia Declaration - Global conference
5.Swachha safer - Comic book on road safety

1.False
Correct answer: Accident can prevail at any place

2.True
3.True
4.True
5. False
Correct answer: The roads are one of the best invention of man.
1. iii, iv only
2. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
4. Use cell phone while driving
22] Defence & foreign policy
Do You Know?
The National War Memorial is a monument built by the Government of India to honour the
Indian Armed Forces. The memorial is spread over 40 acres of land and is built around the
existing chhatri (canopy) near India Gate, New Delhi. The names of armed forces personnel
martyred during the conflicts are inscribed on the memorial walls.
Field Marshal: Is a Five Star General officer rank and the highest attainable rank in the Indian
Army. Sam Manekshaw was the first Field Marshal of India and the second Field Marshal
was K.M. Cariappa. Arjan Singh was the first and the only office of the Indian Air Force to be
promoted to Five Star Rank as Marshal.
The Madras Regiment is one of the oldest infantry regiment of the Indian Army, originating
in the year 1758. The Regimental Centre is at wellington, Udhagamandalam, Tamil Nadu. In
1962, after the Sino-Indian War, the need to expand the number of officers was felt. Two
Officers Training Schools (OTS) were established in Pune and Chennai to train officers for
Emergency Commission into the Army. On 1st January 1988, the school was renamed as the
Officers Training Academy (OTA) .
In 1025 AD (CE) , Rajendra Chola I, the Chola king from Tamil Nadu launched naval on the
city-state of expedition Srivijaya in maritime Southeast Asia, and conquered Kadaram
(modern Kedah) . Rajendra’s overseas expedition against Srivijaya was a unique event in
India’s history.
National Cadet Corps (NCC): National Cadet Corps is a Tri-Services Organization, comprising
the Army, Navy and Air Force, engaged in grooming the youth of the country into disciplined

and patriotic citizens. The National Cadet Corps in India is a voluntary organization which
recruits cadets from high schools, colleges and universities all over India. The Cadets are
given basic military training in small arms and parades.
15th January - Army Day. 1st February - Coast Guard Day. 10th March - Central Industrial
Security Force Day. 7th October - Rapid Action Force Day. 8th October - Air Force Day. 4th
December - Navya Day. 7th December - Armed Forces Flag Day.
Nelson Mandela: Leader of the African National Council of South Africa. A determined fighter
against apartheid. Apartheid is the worst form of racial discrimination. It is against
humanism and democracy. India fought against apartheid and opposed all types of racial
discrimination. The end of racialism in South Africa in 1990 was a great success for India’s
policy.
India shares a common land border with Pakistan, Afghanistan, Nepal, China, Bhutan,
Bangladesh and Burma. It also shares a common sea border with Sri Lanka.
1. The Supreme Commander of the Armed forces is our
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Minister
2. The primary mission of Indian Army is to ensure
(a) National Security
(b) National Unity
(c) Defending the nation from external aggression
(d) All the above
3. The Army Day is
(a) 15th January
(b) 1st February
(c) 10th March
(d) 7th October
4. Assam Rifles is under the control of
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) National Security Advisor
(c) PMO

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
5. Indian Coast Guard was established in
(a) 1976
(b) 1977
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
6. India’s foreign policy is based on several principles. One of which is
(a) Satyameva Jayate
(b) Panchasheel
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
7. Which of the following islands belong to India?
(a) Andaman and Maldives
(b) Andaman and Lakshadweep Island
(c) Sri Lanka and Maldives
(d) Maldives and Lakshadweep Island
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Madras Regimental Army centre is at ___________
2. The Indian Navy Chief is _______________
3. _______________ is first and only officer of Indian Air Force to be promoted to Five Star
Rank Marshal of Indian Air Force.
4. The chief architect of India’s foreign policy was _______________
5. The World Non-Alignment was coined by ____________
1. Nelson Mandela - 8 members
2. National War Memorial - Field Marshal
3. Manekshaw - Energy development
4. SAARC - Apartheid
5. BCIM - New Delhi
1. Central Armed Police Force serve under the Ministry of Defence.
2. The Madras Regiment is one of the oldest infantry regiment.

3. The Rapid Action Force is a specialised wing of the CRPF.
4. NCC Cadets are given basic military training.
5. Bangladesh is a part of India.
6. Myanmar is land bridge to ASEAN nations.
1. Consider the following statement related to Armed Forces.
i) The Indian Army is the land based branch of Armed forces.
ii) The mission of Indian Army is not only ensuring the national security but also conducts
humanisation rescue operations.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) both i and ii
(d) Neither i nor ii
2. Assertion (A): The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India.
Reason (R): The President is the head of the state and occupies the highest position.
3. Assertions (A): India has favoured international co-operation.
Reason (R): She believes that all disputes among nations can be solved through friendly co-
operation.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
4. Which of the following statements is not true about “Apartheid”?
i) Apartheid is a policy of racial discrimination.
ii) It is against humanism.
iii) The policy of racialism is practiced in India
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii

(c) ii only
(d) iii only
(a) Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
(d) Lakshadweep
Answers:
1. President 2. All the above 3. 15th January 4. Ministry of Home Affairs 5. 1978 6. Panchasheel
7. Andaman and Lakshadweep Island
Fill in the blanks:
1. Wellington, Udahagamandalam, Tamil Nadu 2. Admiral 3. Arjan Singh 4. Jawaharlal Nehru

5. V.K. Krishna Menon
1.Nelson Mandela – Apartheid
2.National war Memorial - New Delhi
3.Manekshaw - Field Marshal
4.SAARC - 8 members
5.BCIM – Energy development
1.False
Correct answer: Central Armed Police Force serve under the Ministry of Home Affairs
2.True
3.True
4.True
5.False
Correct answer: Bangladesh was once a part of India
6.True
1. Both i and ii

4. iii only
5. Myanmar
23] The Judiciary
Do You Know?
Smiritis: In ancient India Smiritis defined the social duties for the individual. There are
Manusmiriti, Naradasmiriti, Yajnavalkya smiriti etc.
The Calcutta High Court is the oldest high court in the country, established in 1862, whereas
the Allahabad High Court is the largest Court.
The first political philosopher, who propounded the idea of an independent judiciary, was
Montesquieu, the famous French philosopher. He believed in the theory of separation of
powers of the three branches of the Government-Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
NALSA: The National Legal Service Authority has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and
to organise Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL): PIL is a litigation filed in a court of law for the protection of
“public interest”. The Supreme Court introduced this system which allows a person to
approach the court with his case. PIL can be filed for the following reasons such as violation
of basic human rights, religious rights, pollution, and road safety. This could be done by a
written letter stating the case. This concept is unique to the Indian Judiciary.
1. The highest and final judicial tribunal of India is
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Prime Minister
2. Judicial system provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between
(a) Citizen
(b) Citizen and the government
(c) Two State Governments
(d) All the above
3. Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under.
(a) Original jurisdiction

(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) None of these
4. Which of the following state/Union territories have a common High Court?
(a) Punjab and Jammu Kashmir
(b) Assam and Bengal
(c) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
5. The System of Public Interest Litigation has been introduced in India by
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Political parties
(d) Constitutional amendments
6. How many courts are there in apex level in India?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
7. Supreme Court is located at
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) New Delhi
8. F.I.R. means
(a) First Information Report
(b) First Information Result
(c) First Incident Report
(d) None of these
9. The court that hear criminal cases are called
(a) District court
(b) Sessions court

(c) Family court
(d) Revenue court
Fill in the blanks:
1. The ____________ High Court is the oldest High Court in India.
2. The framers of the Constitution established ____________ and ______________ judiciary

in India.
3. ______________, a famous French philosopher propounded the idea of an independent

judiciary.
4. ____________ deals with disputes over money, property and social matters.
5. During ancient times, most of the Kings’ courts dispensed justice according to ___________
1. Supreme Court - Social duties
2. High Court - Speedy justice
3. Lok Adalat - Highest court of appeal
4. Sir Elijah Impey - Highest court in the States
5. Smiritis - Chief justice
1. The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th January 1951.
2. During the Tughlaq period, the code of procedure was written in Arabic.
3. The Regulating Act of 1773 made provision for the formation of Supreme Court.
4. Sadar Diwani Adalat was a Criminal Court of appeal.
5. The Allahabad High Court is the largest court in India.
6. The Constitution of India secures justice to all its citizen.
1. Consider the following statement.
i) A law commission was setup by Macaulay.
ii) It codified the Indian Laws.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) Both i and ii
(d) Neither i nor ii

2. Consider the following statements.
i) An Indian Penal Code was prepared in 1860.
ii) The Calcutta High Court was established in 1862.
iii) The Government of India Act, 1935 created Federal Court.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) i only
(b) ii, iii only
(c) i, iii only
(d) All the above
3. Which of the following statement is not true about India’s Supreme Court?
i) The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the land.
ii) It was established by part V under Chapter IV of Indian Constitution.
iii) Supreme Court cannot transfer cases from one high court to another.
iv) Its decisions are binding on all courts.
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
4. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a Court of Record.
Reason (R): It maintains records of the court proceedings and its decisions are finding upon
the lower courts.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
5. Agree or disagree:
a) Every citizen of India can approach the Supreme Court.
b) Rich and powerful people control the judiciary system.
c) Every citizen has a right to get justice through the courts.
d) Politicians cannot control over judges.
Answers:

1. Supreme Court 2. all the above 3. Original jurisdiction 4. Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh 5.
Supreme Court 6. One 7. New Delhi 8. First Information Report 9. Sessions court
Fill in the blanks:
1. Calcutta 2. Independent, Impartial 3. Montesquieu 4. Civil law 5. Dharma
1.Supreme Court - highest court of appeal

2.High Court - highest court in the States
3.Lok Adalat - speedy justice
4.Sir Elijah Impey - chief justice
5.Smiritis – Social Justice
1.False
Correct answer: The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th January 1950.
2.True
3.True
4.False
Correct answer: Sadar Diwani Adalat was a civil court of appeal.
5.True
6.True
1.Both i and ii
2.All the above
3.iii
4.A is correct and R explains A
5.We agree with a, c, d but disagree with b
24] Money, Savings and Investments
Do You Know?
History of Metallic Money: The precious metals especially gold, silver, bronze was used for
metallic money. The standard weight and fineness of metal particularly gold and silver with
a seal on it became medium of exchange. They were of different denomination easily divisible,
portable and were convenient in making payment. King Midas of Lydia innovated metal coin
in the 8th century BC (BCE) by the ancient historian Herodotus. But gold coins were in use in
India many centuries than in Lydia. The earliest issuers of coins in the world are the ancient
Indians along with Chinese and lydians from the Middle East. The first time Indian coins
were minted in the 6th Century BC (BCE) by the Mahajanpadas known as Puranas,

Karshapanas or Panas. The Mauryas came up with the Punch Marked Coins minting of silver,
gold copper or lead and Indo-Greek Kushan kings introduced the Greek custom of engraving
portraits on the coins. Turkish sultans of Delhi have replaced the royal designs of Indian
Kings with Islamic Calligraphy by the 12th Century AD (CE) . The currency was made up of
gold, silver and copper known as Tanka and lower valued coin known as Jittals.
The Mugual Empire from 1526 AD (CE) consolidate the monetary system for the entire empire.
In this era evolution of rupee occurred with Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun and issued a
silver coin of 178 gms known as rupiya and was divided into 40 copper pieces or paisa and
during the whole Mugual period silver coin remained in use. During the British East India
company i.e.1600, the mughal currency remained popular but in 1717 AD (CE) , Farrukhsiyar
the Mughal Emperor gave permission to the Britishes to coin Mughal Money at the Bombay
mint. The British gold coins were termed as Carolina, the silver coins as Angelina, the copper
coins as cupperoon and the tin coins as tinny.
Symbol of Rupee: The Indian Rupee symbol designed by Mr. Udayakumar, Villupuram Dist
Tamil Nadu. It was approved by the Government of India on 15 July 2010.
Inflation and Deflation: Inflation refers to the prices are rising, the value of money will fall.
Deflation refers to the prices are falling, the value of money will rise.
Demonetization: In India, on 8-November-2016, the Government of India announced

demonetization of all ₹500 and ₹1000 bank notes against Black Money.
1. Which metals were used for metallic money?

(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) All the above
2. Who designed the symbol (₹) of Indian rupee?
(a) Udayakumar
(b) Amartya sen
(c) Abijith Banerjee
(d) None of these
3. The value of money is
(a) Internal value of money
(b) External value of money
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
4. Which is the Bank Money?

(a) Cheque
(b) Draft
(c) Credit and Debit cards
(d) All the above
5. Pick out the incorrect one: Investment can be made in different vehicle.
(a) Stock
(b) Bonds
(c) Mutual fund
(d) Pay tax
6. Among the following who are responsible for Black Money?
(a) Tax evaders
(b) Hoaders
(c) Smugglers
Fill in the blanks:
1. Online banking is also known as _____________

2. ______________ is what money does.
3. Electronic banking is also known as ____________
4. Credit cards and Debit cards are __________ Money.
5. In the ______________ year Reserve Bank of India was established.
1. Barter system - Tax evaders

2. Reserve Bank Act - Electronic Money
3. E-Money - Consumer’s disposable income
4. Savings - Exchanged goods for goods
5. Black Money - 1935
1. Recent forms of money transactions are

(a) Credit Card
(b) Barter system
(c) Debit card
(d) Online banking
2. Effects of black money on economy is
(a) Dual economy

(b) Undermining equity
(c) No effects on production
(d) Lavish consumption spending
Choose the correct statement:
1. Barter system had many deficiency like
I. Lack of double coincidence of wants
II. No difficulties of storing wealth
III. Common measure of value
IV. Indivisibility of commodities
(a) I and II is correct
(b) I and IV is correct
(c) I, III and IV is correct
(d) All are correct
Answers:
1. All the above 2. Udayakumar 3. Both a & b 4. Cheque 5. Pay tax 6. All of the above
Fill in the blanks:
1. Net banking 2. Money 3. German 4. The purchasing power 5. 1949

1.Barter system - exchanged goods for goods

2.Reserve Bank act - 1935
3.E- Money - Electronic Money
4.Savings - Consumer’s disposable income
5.Black money - tax evaders
1.Barter system
2.Dual economy
1.I, III and IV is correct

25] Public and Private Sectors
Do You Know?
Mixed economy is the mixture of merits of both capitalism and socialism.

Public Sector Organizations: There are two types of public sector organizations, i.e. either the
Government fully finances them through the revenues they raise by collection taxes, duties,

fees, etc. of the government holds more than 51% of the total share capital of the company
which comes under various ministries. The enterprises are established with service motive.
It is the largest sector, which works for the upliftment of the people by providing the following
services to the people: Postal services, Railway services, Providing security, education and
health facilities at low cost, and generation of employment opportunities, etc…
Organs of public sector:
1. Administration by a Government Department: It is very common almost in all countries.
Example - Post and Telegraph, Railways, Port Trust, Irrigation Projects on India etc…
2. The Joint sector companies: It is governed by a company law and controlled by the
Government as principal major share holders. Example - Indian Oil Petronas Pvt. Ltd., Indian
Oil Sky Tanking Ltd., Ratnagiri Gas and Power Private Ltd., Indian Synthetic Rubber Limited.
3. Public Corporation: This type of organization is the establishment of public corporation by
the state of the parliament of legislature. Example - LIC, Air India, The Reserve Bank of India,
Electricity Board.
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India): NITI Aayog replaced 65 years old
planning commission. Planning commission has power to allocate funds to ministries and
states, this function will be now at finance ministry. NITI Aayog was formed on January 1 st,
2015.
The largest public sector employer in India is Indian Railways.
1. The public sector in India owes its origin in the ________ Industrial policy resolution of the
Government of India.
(a) 1957
(b) 1958
(c) 1966
(d) 1956
2. Mixed economy is the mixture of merits of both _____________
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) a & b are correct
(d) a & b are incorrect
3. _________ is governed by a company law and controlled by the Government as principal
major share holders.
(a) Private sector
(b) Joint sector
(c) Public sector
(d) None of these
4. Public sector is on ______________ motive.

(a) Profit Motive
(b) Service Motive
(c) Speculative Motive
(d) None of these
Fill in the blanks:
1. The _______________ and _____________ are allotted their respective roles in promoting
the economic welfare of all sections of the community.
2. The private sector is on ______________ motive.
3. __________ is the process of social and economic development in a society.
4. The main function of private sector is to create ______________ and _______________
5. The government is committed to strengthening _____________ and co-operation among
the citizens.
1. Think Tank - Primary Sector

2. Agriculture - Gross Domestic Product
3. Industries - NITI Aayog
4. GDP - Secondary Sector
1. Which one of the following is not the indicator of the Socio Economic Development?
(a) Black money
(b) Life Expectancy
(c) Gross Domestic product(GDP)
(d) Employment
1. i) The Industries which would be exclusively owned by the state are referred to as schedule-
A.
ii) The industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state sector,
with the state taking the sole responsibility for starting new units which are specific in
Schedule-B.
iii) The remaining industries which were in the private sector are not mentioned in Schedule.
(a) All are correct
(b) i and iii are correct
(d) None of these
Answers:

1. 1956 2. a & b are correct 3. Joint Sector 4. Service

Fill in the blanks:
1. Public and private sector 2. Profit 3. Socio Economic development 4. Innovation and
modernisation 5. Understanding
1.Think Tank - NITI Aayog

2.Agriculture - Primary Sector
3.Industries - Secondary Sector
4.GDP - Gross Domestic Product
Which is the Odd one
1. Black money
1. i and ii are correct

1] Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period
Do You Know?
The DNA of a chimpanzee is 98% identical to that of a human being.
The chimpanzee and the pygmy chimpanzee (also known as bonobo) are our closest living
relatives.
Wheat, barley and peas were cultivated around 10,000 years ago. Fruit and nut trees were
cultivated around 4,000 BC (BCE) . They comprised olives, figs, dates, pomegranates and
grapes.
Neolithic people perhaps devised the first pottery. They made pottery, using a slow wheel
called turn-table or made pottery out of hand. Before firing, the pottery was polished with
pebbles. This process is known as burnishing.
Lemuria and the Tamils: Some researchers relate the origin of the Tamils to the submerged
continent of Lemuria. This theory of Lemuria continent was proposed in the 19 th century. In
the wake of advancements in plate tectonics theory, differing views are put forth by scholars.
The available literary references point to the submergence of areas around Kanyakumari.
Some parts of Sri Lanka and Tamil Nadu were connected by land about 5000 years BC (BCE) .
It is possible that some land might have submerged near Kanyakumari and around the coast
of India, because of the rising sea levels. Underwater surveys are necessary in this area.
Archaeological research reveals that at least a section of people may have been living
continuously in South India, including Tamil Nadu, from the Mesolithic and Neolithic times.
1. ______________ is genetically closest to humans.

(a) Gorilla

(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Orang-utan
(d) Great Apes
2. The period called _____________ marks the beginning of agriculture and animal
domestication.
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Megalithic
3. Direct ancestor of modern man was ___________
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Neanderthal man
4. ____________ refers to the area covering Egypt, Israel-Palestine and Iraq.
(a) Great Rift Valley
(b) Fertile Crescent
(c) Solo river
(d) Neander Valley
5. Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the ______________ tools
at Pallavaram near Chennai.
(a) Microlithic
(b) Palaeolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Neolithic
6. (i) The period before the introduction of writing is called pre-history.
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, made beautiful paintings and artefacts.
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate.
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient.
(a) i is correct
(b) i and ii are correct
(c) i and iv are correct
(d) ii and iii are correct
7. (i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called Celts.
(ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampulli in Chennai district.

(iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic is called the Bronze Age.
(iv) The period that witnessed domestication of animals and cultivation of crops is called
Mesolithic.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) ii and ii are correct
(d) iv is correct
8. Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are founds nearby rivers and tanks.
Reason (R): Irrigation management developed during Mesolithic period.
(b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A and R both is incorrect
Fill in the blanks:
1. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the ____________ culture.
2. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called
___________ technology.
3. _______________ is known as the Middle Stone Age, as it is placed between the
Palaeolithic and Neolithic.
1. a) The concept “survival of the fittest” contributed to the scientific understanding of human
origins.
b) The book “On the Origin of Species” was published by Herbert Spencer.
c) Darwin’s theory of biological evolution connects with the process of natural selection.
d) Geology is the study of lithic technology.
2. a) Among the great Apes Orang utan is genetically the closest to humans.
b) The ancestors to human were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
c) Flake cannot be used for tool making.
d) Acheulian is the main block of stone from which small chips are flaked by using a hammer
stone.
1. Palaeo anthropology - Teris

2. Hand axe tools - Venus
3. Images on stone and bone - Acheulian
4. Red sand dunes - Microliths
5. Stone artefacts of small size - The study of the human ancestors

Answers:
1. Chimpanzee 2. Neolithic 3. Homo sapiens 4. Fertile Crescent 5. Palaeolithic 6. i and iv only
7. Statement i and ii is correct 8. A and R both is incorrect
Fill in the blanks:
1. Lower Palaeolithic 2. Lithic 3. Mesolithic
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
1. The concept “survival of the fittest” contributed to the scientific understanding of human
origins.
2. The ancestors to human were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
1. The study of the human ancestors 2. Acheulian 3. Venus 4. Teris
5. Microliths

2] Ancient Civilisations
Do You Know?
Mummies of Egypt: The preserved dead body is called the mummy. The Egyptians had the
tradition of preserving the dead bodies using Natron salt, a combination of sodium carbonate
and sodium bicarbonate and sodium bicarbonate. The preservation process is called
mummification. After 40 days, when the salt absorbed all the moisture, the body was filled
with sawdust and wrapped with strips of linen cloth and covered with a fabric. The body was
stored in a stone coffin called sarcophagus.
The world “paper” comes from “papyrus”. The Egyptians wrote on the leaves of a plant called
papyrus, a kind of reed, which grew on the banks of Nile.
The city of Akkad later became the city of Babylon, a commercial and cultural centre of West
Asia.
The Assyrian Empire was the first military State in history. They emerged militarily powerful
because they were the earliest to use iron technology effectively.
Development of Script: Development of script is an important milestone in human history.
Writing system began to emerge in Sumeria in the later part of fourth millennium BC (BCE) .
Hieroglyphic, the Egyptian system of writing, developed in early third millennium BC (BCE) .
The Harappans also had a system of writing around the same time, but it has not yet been
deciphered. The Chinese civilisation too developed a writing system from a very early period.
The Terracotta Army: The Terracotta Army refers to the large collection of terracotta warrior
images found in China. They depict the armies of the king Qin Shi Huang, the first emperor of
China. They were buried with the king in 210-209 BC (BCE) . They are found at the northern
foot of the Lishan Mountain, thirty five kilometres northeast of Xi’an Shaanxi Province, as
part of the mausoleum of the king.

The Indus civilisation is also known as the Harappan civilisation, since Harappa was the first
site to be discovered. This civilisation is known as Harappan civilisation rather than Indus
Valley civilisation, since it extended beyond the Indus river valley.
Cracking the Indus Script: Harappans knew the art of writing. The script is found on seals, in
moulded terracotta and on pottery. It has not been deciphered till now. Because the Indus
texts are very short, the average length of the inscription is less than five signs. It has no
bilingual text (like a Rosetta stone written in Egyptian and Greek) . Hence deciphering the
script is difficult. It was written generally from right to left. Based on computer analysis, the
Russian scholar Yuri Knorozov suggested that the Indus inscriptions have a Dravidian-like
world order. Scholar and researcher Iravatham Mahadevan, who has done extensive research
on Indus civilisation, says, “We may hopefully find that the proto Dravidian roots of Harappa
language and South Indian Dravidian languages are similar”. According to Mahadevan, a
stone Celt discovered in Mayiladuthurai (Tamil Nadu) has same marking as that of the
symbol of the Indus script. In May 2007, the Tamil Nadu Archaeology Department found pots
with arrow head symbols at Melaperumpallam near Poompuhar, which resembled the seals
in Mohenjo-Daro. According to Parpola, the sign of the Indus script is likely to represent
Dravidian mono-syllabic roots.
1. The earliest signs to denote words through pictures.

(a) Calligraphy
(b) Pictographic
(c) Ideographic
(d) Stratigraphic
2. The preservation process of dead body in ancient Egypt
(a) Sarcophagus
(b) Hyksos
(c) Mummification
(d) Polytheism
3. The Sumerian system of writing.
(a) Pictographic
(b) Hieroglyphic
(c) Sonogram
(d) Cuneiform
4. The Harappans did not have the knowledge of
(a) Gold and Elephant
(b) Horse and Iron
(c) Sheep and Silver
(d) Ox and Platinum
5. The Bronze image suggestive of the use of lost-wax process known to the Indus people.

(a) Jar
(b) Priest king
(c) Dancing girl
(d) Bird
6. (i) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged to the Akkadians.
(ii) The Chinese developed the Hieroglyphic system.
(iii) The Euphrates and Tigris drain into the Mannar Gulf.
(iv) Hammurabi, the king of Babylon was a great law maker.
(a) i is correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) iv is correct
7. (i) Yangtze River is known as Sorrow of China.
(ii) Wu-Ti constructed the Great Wall of China.
(iii) Chinese invented gun powder.
(iv) According to traditions Mencius was the founder of Taoism.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) iii and iv are correct
8. What is the correct chronological order of four civilisations of Mesopotamia?
(a) Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Babylonians.
(b) Babylonians – Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians.
(c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians – Assyrians.
(d) Babylonians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Sumerians.
9. Assertion (A): Assyrians of Mesopotamian civilisation was contemporaries of Indus
civilisation.
Reason (R): The Documents of an Assyrian ruler refer to the ships from Meluha.
(a) A and R is correct and A explains R
(b) A and R is correct but A doesn’t explain R
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ is a massive lime stone image of a lion with a human head.

2. The early form of writing of the Egyptians is known as ___________

3. ______________ specifies the Laws related to various crimes in ancient Babylonia.
4. _______________ was the master archive keeper of Chou state, according to traditions.
5. The ____________ figurines and paintings on the pottery from the sites suggest the artistic
skills of the Harappans.
1. a. The Great Bath at Harappa is well-built with several adjacent rooms.

b. The cuneiform inscriptions relate to the epic of Gilgamesh.
c. The terracotta figurines and dancing girl made of copper suggest the artistic skills of
Egyptians.
d. The Mesopotamians devised a solar calendar system.
2. a. Amon was an “Egyptian God”.
b. The fortified Harappan city had the temples.
c. The great sphinx is a pyramid-shaped monument found in ancient Mesopotamia.
d. The invention of the potter’s wheel is credited to the Egyptians.
1. Pharaoh - A kind of grass

2. Papyrus - The oldest written story on Earth
3. Great Law maker - Mohenjo-Daro
4. Gilgamesh - Hammurabi
5. The Great bath - The Egyptian king
Answers:
1. Pictographic 2. Mummification 3. Cuneiform 4. Horse and Iron 5. Dancing Girl 6. Hammurabi,
the king of Babylon was a great law maker. 7. Chinese invented gun powder 8. Sumerians –
Akkadians – Babylonians – Assyrians 9. A and R is correct but A doesn’t explain R
Fill in the blanks:

1. Sphinx of Giza 2. Hieroglyphic 3. Hmmurabi’s code of law 4. Lao Tze 5. Terracotta
Consider the following and choose the correct answer:
1. The cuneiform inscriptions relate to the epic of Gilgamesh.
2. Amon was an “Egyptian God”.
1. The Egyptian King 2. A kind of grass 3. Hammurabi 4. The oldest story written on Earth 5.
Mohenjo-Daro

3] Early Tamil Society and Culture
Do You Know?
Pulimankombai Hero stone: Pulimankombai is a village in the Vaigai river valley in Theni
district. In 2006, rare hero stone inscriptions in Tamil-Brahmi script were discovered in this
village. One of the inscriptions from Pulimankombai reads “Kudalur Akol pedu tiyan antavan
kal”. It means “The stone of Tiyan Antavan who was killed in a cattle raid at the village of
Kudalur”
What is an urban centre? A planned town with brick architecture and a proper layout. Urban
centres have a larger population involved in non-agrarian, commercial and political
occupations. Various industrial activities are seen in these towns.
Pattanam, Kerala: Pattanam is located near North Paravur in Vadakkekara village of
Ernakulam district of Kerala. It was an ancient port town that had overseas connections with
the western and eastern worlds.
Kodumanal, Tamil Nadu: Kodumanal is located near Erode in Tamil Nadu and is identified
with the Kodumanam of Pathitrupattu. Evidence of iron, stone bead and shell work, as well
as megalithic burials has been discovered at this site. More than 300 pottery inscriptions in
Tamil-Brahmi have also been found.
Keezhadi near Madurai, Tamil Nadu: Keezhadi is located near Silaimaan east of Madurai, on
the highway to Rameswaram. In a large coconut garden, called Pallichandai Tidal, the
Archaeological Survey of India and Tamil Nadu state Archaeological Department excavated
an ancient town dating to the Sangam Age. Archaeological excavations have produced
evidence for brick buildings, drainage, and Tamil-Brahmi inscription on pottery, beads of
glass, carnelian and quartz, pearl, iron objects, games pieces, and antimony rods. Further
excavation may shed light on the nature of the craft production and the cultural activities
undertaken at this settlement.
1. The name of the script used in the Sangam Age.

(a) English
(b) Devanagari
(c) Tamil-Brahmi
(d) Granta
2 The Sri Lankan chronicle composed in the Pali language mentioning about merchants and
horse traders from Tamil Nadu.
(a) Deepa vamsa
(b) Arthasastra
(c) Mahavamsa
(d) Indica
3. The notable Chola king credited with bringing forest lands under the plough and developing
irrigational facilities.

(a) Karikalan
(b) Rajarajan I
(c) Kulothungan
(d) Rajendran I
4. Inscription that mentions the Cheras
(a) Pugalur
(b) Girnar
(c) Pulimankombai
(d) Madurai
5. (i) Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Mesolithic Age.
(ii) Prakrit was the language used by the common people in Northern India during the
Mauryan period.
(iii) Vienna Papyrus, a Roman document, mentions trade related to Muziri.
(iv) The concept of Thinai is presented in the Tamil grammar work of Pathupaatu.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) ii and iii are correct
6. (i) Pathitrupathu speaks about the Pandya kings and their territory.
(ii) The Akanaanuru describes the trading activities at Kaveripoompattinam.
(iii) The Chola Emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a
tiger.
(iv) Neythal is a sandy desert region.
(a) i is correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) iv is correct
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ are documents scripted on stones, copper plates, coins and rings.
2. ____________ refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for
exploring societies of the past.
3. ____________ the classic work on economy and statecraft authored by Kautilya during the
Mauryan period.
4. _______________ is a poetic theme which means a class or category and refers to a habitat
or eco-zone with specific physiographical characteristics.

5. ____________ referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Roman and West Asian
people.
1. a) Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur.
b) Periplus of Erythren Sea mentions about the pepper trade with India.
c) Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of gold.
d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age.
2. a) The Cheras ruled over Kaveri delta and their capital was Uraiyur.
b) The Maangulam Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions mention the King Karikalan.
c) The terms Vanikan and Nigama appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions were different types
of Merchants.
d) Salt merchants were called Vanikars and they travelled in bullock carts along with their
family.
1. Epigraphy - A narrative text presenting the important historical events.

2. Chronicle - A Sangam Age port.
3. Pastoralism - An ornament made in precious stone.
4. Cameo - The study of inscriptions.
5. Arikkamedu - Nomadic people earning livelihood by rearing cattle.
Answers:
1. Tamil-Brahmi 2. Mahavamsa 3. Karikalan 4. Pugalur 5. Prakrit was the language used by
the common people in Northern India during the Mauryan period 6. The Chola Emblem was
the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a tiger.
Fill in the blanks:
1. Inscriptions 2. Archaeological Excavation 3. Arthashastra 4. Thinai 5. Yavanar
1. Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur
2. The terms Vanikan and Nigama appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions were different types
of Merchants
1. The study of inscriptions 2. A narrative text presenting the important historical events
3. Nomadic people earning livelihood by rearing cattle 4. An ornament made in precious stone
5. A Sangam Age port

4] Intellectual Awakening and Socio-Political Changes
Do You Know?
The statue of Bahubali (known as Gomateswara, 57 feet) at Shravanabelgola in Karnataka is

the tallest Jaina statue ever carved out in India.
Jaina Kanchi: Jainism was one of the major faiths in the Tamil region during the 7th century
AD (CE) . The Pallava King; Mahendra Varman was a Jain. Under the influence of Appar he
got converted to Saivism. Close to the present town of Kanchi there is a place called Jaina
Kanchi where you find many Jain temples. One of the important temples is the
Thiruparuthikundram temple, where the ceiling is painted with the life story of Mahavira.
When Buddha’s closest disciple Ananda asked Buddha whether women can become whether
women can become monks. Buddha said, yes, if women can follow the path of renunciation,
they can become monks and completely enlightened just as men.
Northern India extended from the Kabul Valley in the north to the Godavari in the South. It
witnessed the rise of sixteen states known as Mahajanapadas or sixteen great states: Kasi,
Kosla, Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya, Surasena, Assaka,
Avanti, Gandhara and Kamboja.
Iron plough agriculture led to the rise of empires Assiriyan in Iran and Magadha in India.
There are 33 edicts, including 14 major rock edicts, 7 pillar edicts and 2 Kalinga edicts, apart
from Minor Rock edicts and Minor Pillar inscriptions. They form the reliable sources to know
about the Mauryan Empire, in particular the dharmic rule of Ashoka.
Our national emblem with four lions is a replica of the Ashoka pillar of Saranath.
Chandragupta’s minister Chanakya is credited with a book titled Arthasastra, which gives a
detailed account of the Mauryan administration.
1. Identify the founder of the new sect who exemplified simplicity and self-denial.
(a) Buddha
(b) Lao-Tze
(c) Confucius
(d) Zoroaster
2. The Magadha king influenced by the teachings of Mahavira.
(a) Dhananandha
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Bimbisara
(d) Shishunaga
3. The northern India extended from the Kabul Valley in the north to the Godavari in the south
witnessed the rise of Sixteen States.
(a) Mahajanapadas

(b) Gana-sanghas
(c) Dravida
(d) Dakshinapatha
4. Tri-ratnas are the three principles taught by
(a) Buddha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Lao-Tze
(d) Confucius
5. The account which throws light on Mauryan polity and society.
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Fahien
(c) Megasthanes
(d) Seleucus
6. (i) Under the Magadha king the mahamatriyas functioned as secretaries to the ministers.
(ii) Accounts of Megasthanes titled Indica is a useful record about Mauryan polity and society.
(iii) Nanda’s attempt to build and imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka who founded
the Mauryan kingdom.
(iv) According to tradition, towards the end of his life Chandragupta become an ardent
follower of Buddhism.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii s correct
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ is a collection of sacred literature of different epochs, containing prayers,

confessions and myths.
2. In the Gangetic plain _____________ agriculture required the use of bullocks.
3. Jains believe that ____________ came in a long line of Tirthankaras and he was the
twenty-fourth and the last.
4. The place where Buddha attained enlightenment has been built into the Mahabodhi temple
that still exists in _______________
5. The rock edicts form the reliable source to know about the Mauryan Empire in particular
the Dharmic rule of _____________
1. a) The introduction of Bronze tools made easy the removal of dense forest cover from the
banks of the Ganges.

b) Ajivikas had a small presence in western India.
c) The clusters where particular clansmen were dominant came to be known were Pre-
Mauryan states.
d) Of the kingdoms mentioned in the literature of the period Kashi, Kosala and Magadha are
considered to be powerful.
2. a) Ajatashatru was the first important king of Magadha.
b) Bimbisara succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.
c) The Mauryas were the first of non-Kshatriya dynasties to rule in northern India.
d) Nanda’s attempt to build an imperial structure was cut short by Ashoka.
1. Eight-fold path - Tallest Jaina statue.

2. Bahubali - A code of political morality
3. The Spring and Autumn Annals - Sacred literature of laws and myths.
4. Zend Avesta - First Tirthankara
5. Rishabha - Path to attain the purest state of mind
Answers:
1. Buddha 2. Bimbisara 3. Mahajanapadas 4. Mahavira
5. Megasthanes 6. Accounts of Megasthanes titled Indica is a useful record about Mauryan
polity and society
Fill in the blanks:
1. Zenda Avesta 2. Iron plough 3. Mahavira 4. Both Gaya 5. Ashoka
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer:
1.Of the kingdoms mentioned in the literature of the period Kashi, Kosala and Magadha are
considered to be powerful.
2.Bimbisara succeeded in establishing a comprehensive structure of administration.
1. Path to attain the purest state of mind 2. Tallest Jaina statue 3. A code of political morality
4. Sacred literature of laws and myths 5. First Tirthankara

5] The Classical World
Do You Know?
Classical World comprises ancient Greece and Rome. Classical age refers to the inter-locking
civilisation of ancient Greece and ancient Rome, known as Graeco-Roman World.

The ruling class in Greece controlled the land. Slaves cultivated the land. Greek writers and
philosophers saw the ownership of slaves as essential to a civilized life. Aristotle compared
the master and slave relationship to that of husband and wife, and father and children.
The word “Democracy” literally means “rule of the people”. In reality it excluded slaves,
women, and non-residents known as metics (traders and craftsmen) .
The Athenian government, after Pericles, did not like Socrates’ way of finding truth. In a trial,
Socrates was accused of refusing to accept the gods recognized by the State and corrupting
the youth. The jury found Socrates guilty and sentenced him to die by drinking hemlock (a
poison) .
A major source of revenue to the Roman state was slave trade. The island of Delos became a
great slave market.
Cultural development that took place rapidly after Alexander’s death 323 BC (BCE) is called
Hellenistic civilisation.
Slave Revolts: There were more slave revolts in Rome than in Greece. The revolt of Spartacus
was the most famous. It began in 73 BC (BCE) involving about 70,000 slaves. The revolt
threatened the power in Rome. Ultimately Spartacus was killed and the revolt crushed. 6,000
of the followers of Spartacus were executed.
Punic Wars and the Emergence of Imperial Roman Empire: As Rome was growing in Italy,
Carthage was growing in power in North Africa. The Carthaginians were the descendants of
the Phoenicians who excelled in seafaring and trade. Rome and Carthage united to drive out
the Greeks. Thereafter Carthage took Sicily and threatened the very existence of the Roman
state. The three wars fought between them are called Punic Wars. Carthage sent a general
named Hannibal. He defeated the Roman army and made a great part of Italy a desert. Fabius,
who led the Romans, did not give up. In the second Punic war, Fabius confronted Hannibal
and defeated him in the Battle of Zama. Pursued by the Roman army, Hannibal ended his life
by poisoning himself. The third Punic War was declared on the Carthaginians by Rome. After
the defeat and destruction of the Carthage in this War, Rome emerged as an unrivalled power
in the Western World.
The trade route from China to Asia Minor and India, known as the Silk Road or Silk Route,
linked China with the West. Goods and ideas between the two great civilisation of Rome and
China were exchanged through this route. Silk went westward, and wools, gold, and silver
went east. China received Buddhism from India via the Silk Road.
St. Sophia Cathedral: St. Sophia Cathedral was built in mid-sixth century AD (CE) . The most
magnificent building in Europe at that time, it was known for its innovative architectural
techniques. This Cathedral was turned into a mosque by the Ottoman Turks when they
captured Constantinople.
India during the Classical Period: The Kushan period corresponded with the last days of the
Roman Republic, when Julius Caesar was alive. The Kushan Empire is said to have sent an
embassy to Augustus Caesar who succeeded Julius. Eighteen major works of Sangam age Viz
eight Anthologies (Ettuthogai) and Ten Idylls (Pathupaatu) compiled during the first three
centuries of Common Era were composed during this period. Sangam Literature hailed as first
secular literature of India. The corresponding period 4th and 5th A.D. (C.E) in south India,
characterized as Kalabhra period. Teakwood, pepper, pearls, ivory, brocades and precious

stones and the like were exported from the Malabar Coast to Babylonia, Egypt, Greece and
Rome. Trade with Rome further flourished.
1. ___________ is the Greek city-state which resisted the Persians to the end.
(a) Acropolis
(b) Sparta
(c) Athens
(d) Rome
2. The other name for Greeks was ____________
(a) Hellenists
(b) Hellenes
(c) Phoenicians
(d) Spartans
3. The founder of Han dynasty was _____________
(a) Wu Ti
(b) Hung Chao
(c) Liu Pang
(d) Mangu Khan
4. _____________ was the Roman Governor responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
(a) Innocent I
(b) Hildebrand
(c) Leo I
(d) Pontius Pilate
5. The Peloponnesian War was fought between _________ and ____________
(a) Greeks and Persians
(b) Plebeians and Patricians
(c) Spartans and Athenians
(d) Greeks and Romans
Fill in the blanks:
1. Greeks defeated the Persians at _____________

2. ___________ stood in favour of poor peasants in Roman republic.
3. Buddhism came to China from India during the reign of ____________ dynasty.
4. The most magnificent building in Europe was ______________
5. ____________ and _______________ were Magistrates in Rome.

1. i) First Persian attack on Greece failed.
ii) The downfall of Roman Empire is attributed to Julius Caesar.
iii) The Barbarians who invaded Rome were considered to be culturally advanced.
iv) Buddhism weakened the Roman Empire.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(d) iv is correct
2. i) Euclid developed a model for the motion of planets and stars.
ii) Romans established a republic after overthrowing Etruscans.
iii) Acropolis became a famous slave market.
iv) Rome and Carthage united to drive out the Greeks.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) ii and iv are correct
(d) iv is correct
3. i) Silk road was closed during the Han dynasty.
ii) Peasant uprisings posed threats to Athenian democracy.
iii) Virgil’s Aeneid glorified Roman imperialism.
iv) Spartacus killed Julius Caesar.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(d) iii is correct
4. i) Roman Emperor Marcus Aurelius was a tyrant.
ii) Romulus Aurelius was the most admired ruler in Roman History.
iii) Abius was a famous Carthaginian General.
iv) Tacitus is respected more than Livy as a historian.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(d) iv is correct
5. i) Buddhism went to China from Japan
ii) After crucifixion of Jesus, St. Thomas spread the Christian doctrine.
iii) St. Sophia Cathedral was the most magnificent building in Europe.

iv) Trajan was one of the worst dictators that Rome had.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) iii are correct
(d) iv is correct
1. Acropolis - Consul
2. Plato - Athens
3. Marius - Philosopher
4. Zeus - Materialist
5. Epicurus - A fortified city
Answers:
1. Athens 2. Hellenes 3. Liu Pang 4. Pontius Pilate 5. Spartans and Athenians
Fill in the blanks:
1. Marathon 2. Tiberius Gracchus and Garius do Gracchus 3. Han 4.St. Sophia Cathedral 5. Pliny
the younger and Plutarch
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answers:
1. Statement i is correct 2. Statement ii and iv are correct 3. Statement iii is correct
4. Statement iv is correct 5. Statement iii is correct
1. A fortified city 2. Philosopher 3. Consul 4.Athens 5.Materialist

6] The Middle Ages
Do You Know?
The quantity of iron China produced in 1078 A.D. (C.E) exceeded 114,000 tons (England
produced only 68,000 tons even in 1788) . China excelled in ceramics and porcelain-making.
This technique was not known to Europe for another 700 years. Gun powder was in use by
1044. China possessed printed books half a millennium before Europe. (Chris Harman, A
People’s History of the World, P.111)
Great Wall of China: Between 8th and 7th centuries B.C. (BCE) , the warring states in China built
defensive walls to protect themselves from enemies from the north. During Chin (Qin)
Dynasty, the separate walls were connected and consequently the wall stretched from east to
west for about 5000 kilometres. This wall, considered to be one of the wonders of the world,
served to keep nomadic tribes out. The Wall was further extended and strengthened by the
succeeding dynasties. Now it is 6,700 kilometres in length.

Birth of Sunni and Shia Sects: The quarrel for the leadership of Arabia led to a division in
Islam. The two sects formed out of the division were the Sunnis and Shias. The Sunnites,
Sunni Muslims, maintained that the head of the Islamic state and successor to the Prophet
should be elected by representatives of the whole body of believers. The Shiites, the followers
of Shia sect, opposed elevation to any highest political and religious office other than those
related to the Prophet by blood or by marriage.
Baghbad: A city, known as the city of Arabian Nights, ‘was a vast city of palaces and public
offices and schools and colleges, and great shops and parks and gardens. The merchants
carried on a vast trade with the East and Wet… Visitors came to Baghdad from all over the
world, especially learned men and students and artists Nehru, Glimpses of World History.
Mongols and Chengiz Khan: Mongols were nomads. They were herdsmen. The Mongols were
experts in warfare and produced a remarkable chief, Chengiz Khan. He was a great military
genius. Mongols’ hold over Russia for about 300 years made Russia technologically backward
from the rest of Europe until the end of Middle Ages”.
Excommunication meant depriving a person of all the privileges of a Christian. He was denied
the right to sacraments in Church. His or her body could not be buried in the consecrated
ground. Interdict was to deny benefits of religion to a ruler’s subject, intended to kindle their
resentment against him.
India in the Corresponding Period: The Huns: Around the time when fragmented into
multiple small Germanic kingdoms after the collapse of Roman Empire, the Huns (white) , a
fierce and warlike people from Central Asia, invaded Northeast India. Though they were
repulsed by Skandagupta, they entered India after his death and settled all over central India.
Toramana and Mihirakula were the two well-known Hun rulers in India. They persecuted
Buddhists and burnt all the monasteries. Yasodharman of Malwa is credited to have ended
the rule of Huns in India around 528 A.D. (CE) .
Chaulkyas’ (of Badami or Vadabi) relationship with Persia: The Chalukya kingdom existed
contemporaneously with the rule of Sassanid dynasty in Persia. Khusrau II, the last great king
of Sassanid dynasty, who had a close relationship with the tang dynasty in China, and the
Chalukya ruler Pulakesin II exchanged ambassadors. The Chalukya kingdom comprised the
Maharashtra country with Badami as capital. Hiuen Tsang speaks highly of their courage.
According to him, “they are warlike and proud-spirited, grateful for favours and revengeful
for wrongs”.
1. _____________ was the original religion of Japan.

(a) Shinto
(b) Confucianism
(c) Taoism
(d) Animism
2. ______________ means great name – lord.
(a) Daimyo
(b) Shogun
(c) Fujiwara

(d) Tokugawa
3. The Arab General who conquered Spain was ______________
(a) Tariq
(b) Alaric
(c) Saladin
(d) Mohammad the conqueror
4. Harun-al-Rashid was the able emperor of ___________
(a) Abbasid dynasty
(b) Umayyad dynasty
(c) Sassanid dynasty
(d) Mongol dynasty
5. Feudalism centred on _____________
(a) Vassalage
(b) Slavery
(c) Serfdom
(d) Land
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ were the original inhabitants of Japan.

2. ____________ was the original name of Japan.
3. _____________ was the original name of Medina.
4. ___________ were the barbarians posing a threat to the Chinese in the north.
5. _____________ established Ottoman supremacy in the Balkans.
1. (i) Chengiz Khan was an intolerant person in religion.

(ii) Mongols destroyed the city of Jerusalem.
(iii) Crusades weakened the Ottoman Empire.
(iv) Pope Gregory succeeded in making King Henry IV to abdicate the throne by means of
Interdict.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(d) iv is correct
2. (i) Mangu Khan was the Governor of China.
(ii) Mongol court in China impressed Marco Polo.
(iii) The leader of Red Turbans was Hung Chao.

(iv) Mongols established their rule in China in the name of Yuan Dynasty.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(d) iv is correct
3. (i) Boyang and Changon were built during sung dynasty.
(ii) Peasant uprising led to the collapse of Tang dynasty.
(iii) Seljuq Turks were a tribe of Tartars.
(iv) Mongols established their rule in China in the name of Yuan Dynasty.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) iv is correct
4. Assertion (A): Buddhism went to China from India.
Reason (R): The earliest Indian inhabitants in China were the followers of Buddhism.
(a) A is correct; R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) Both A & R are correct
(d) A is wrong R is irrelevant to A
5. Assertion (A): The fall of Jerusalem into the hands of Seljuk Turks led to the Crusades.
Reason (R): European Christian pilgrims were denied access to Jerusalem.
(a) A is correct; R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are correct.
(c) A and R are wrong.
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
1. Red Turbans - Kamakura

2. Seljuk Turks - Mohammad II
3. First Shogunate - City of Arabian nights
4. Baghdad - Chu Yuan Chang
5. Capture of Constantinople - Central Asia
Answers:
1. Shinto 2. Daimyo 3. Tariq 4. Abbasid dynasty 5. Vassalage

Fill in the blanks:
1. Ainus 2. Yamato 3. Yethrib 4. Mongols 5. Mohammad II
1. Statement iv is correct 2. Statement ii and iv is correct 3. ii, iii and iv statement is correct
4. A is correct; R is wrong 5. A and R is correct
1. Chu Yuan Chang 2. Central Asia 3. Kamakura 4. City of Arabian nights 5. Mohammad II

7] State and Society in Medieval India from the Cholas to the Mughals
Do You Know?
Kingdom: A country ruled by a king or queen. Empire: A group of countries controlled by one
ruler (an emperor).
Events happening in Europe during this Period: Holy Roman Empire & Emperor
Charlemagne: In the beginning of the 9th century A.D. (C.E) , a new institution called Holy
Roman Empire came into existence in continental Europe. This had nothing to do with the
old Roman Empire which had ceased to exist after 476 A.D. (C.E) . The newly established Holy
Roman Empire represented Christianity and Christendom and hence, it was designated holy.
The emperor was supposed to be a Representative of God on earth like the Pope. The emperor
dealt with political matters, while the Pope dealt with spiritual. The Emperor was superior to
everybody else in the world, except the Pope. Charlemagne, the king of Franks, was the first
Holy Roman Emperor to assume the title (800 A.D. (C.E) ) . Charlemagne was a contemporary
of Pallava king Nandivarman II and Pratihara ruler Nagabatta I.
King John and the Great Magna Carta: The nobles in England forced King John II to sign a
Charter of Liberty in 1215 A.D. (C.E) . It is Magna Carta or the Great Charter. This Charter
contained a promise that the king would respect certain liberties of the nobles and the people
of England. The theory of the supremacy of the ruler which prevailed in the Holy Roman
Empire was not accepted in England. King John of England was a contemporary of Sultan
Iltutmish in India. Thus in England, we find that the king’s power was checked early.
1. _______________ was the second stronghold of Ala-ud-din Khalji’s expanding Kingdom.

(a) Dauladabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
(d) Bidar
2. The Deccan Sultanates were conquered by _______________
(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) Ala-ud-din Bahman-shah
(c) Aurangzeb

(d) Malik Kafur
3. The establishment of ______________ empire changed the administrative and
institutional structures of South India.
(a) Bahmani
(b) Vijayanagar
(c) Mughal
(d) Nayak
4. Krishna deva Raya was a contemporary of _______________
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Shershah
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ were Europeans who arrived on the west coast of India.

2. The combined forces of the five Deccan Sultanates defeated Vijayanagar army in 1565 A.D.
(C.E) . at the battle of _____________
3. Vijayanagara evolved as a ______________
4. The tempo of urbanization increased during _______________ period.
5. ___________ was the enterprising period in the history of Tamil Nadu.
1. i) The establishment of the Vijayanagar Kingdom witnessed the most momentous

development in the history of South India.
ii) The Saluva dynasty ruled for a longer period.
iii) The rulers of Vijayanagara had smooth relations with the Bahmani Sultanate.
iv) Rajput kingdoms attracted migrants from Persia and Arabia.
2. i) The Nayak Kingdom came up in Senji.
ii) The appointment of Telugu Nayaks resulted in the migration of Telugu speaking people
from Madurai.
iii) Mughal Empire started declining from the time of Jahangir.
iv) The Europeans came to India in search of slaves.
3. i) Mythical genealogies were collected by Col. Mackenzie.
ii) Indigo was the most important beverage crop in India.
iii) Mahmud Gawan was the minister in Alauddin Khalji’s kingdom.
iv) The Portuguese built their first fort in Goa.
4. Assertion (A): India was an integral part of maritime trade, extending from China in the
east to Africa in the west.

Reason (R): Geographical location of India in the middle of Indian Ocean.
i) A is correct; R explains about A
ii) A is wrong; R is correct
iii) A and R are wrong
iv) A is correct; R does not explain about A
5. i) Gold images of great beauty and artistry were made by Cholas.
ii) The best example for Chola architecture is Siva as Nataraja performing the cosmic dance.
(a) i is correct ii is wrong
(b) Both i and ii are correct
(c) Both i and ii are wrong
(d) i is wrong, ii is correct
1. Portuguese - Bengal
2. Tansen - Kottam
3. Sericulture - Court of Akbar
4. Angkorwat - Goa
5. District - Cambodia
Answers:
1. Dauladabad 2. Aurangzeb 3. Vijayanagar 4. Babur
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Portuguese 2. Talikota 3. Military State 4. Vijayanagara 5. The Chola period
1. Statement i is correct 2. Statement i and ii is correct 3. Statement i is correct
4. A is correct; R explains about A 5. Statement i is wrong, ii is correct
1. Goa 2. Court of Akbar 3. Bengal 4. Cambodia 5. Kottam

8] The Beginning of the Modern Age
Do You Know?
Humanism: The idea of humanism was a central feature of renaissance. It laid emphasis on
human dignity and nature. In the medieval period, man was considered a mere agent of the
God on earth to do his will. Renaissance humanism promoted the view that humans are
endowed with attributes that are to be used to achieve greatness. It turned the gaze of the

people from the other world to this world, from spiritual world to material world. The focus
shifted from life after death to life in this world.
Inquisition: Inquisition was an institution of the Catholic Church to deal with heresies beliefs
in opposition to the Catholic faith. Those found guilty and who recanted were awarded milder
punishments and imprisonment, and those who refused to recant were burnt at the stake.
The most infamous inquisition was the Spanish Inquisition.
St. Ignatius Loyola and Society of Jesus: St. Ignatius Loyola founded the Society of Jesus to
propagate Christianity. Its main work was through education and service to the destitute. It
started a number of educational institutions, orphanages and homes for the destitute. Soon
their missionaries were present in all parts of the world to spread the Catholic religion.
One of the most important outcomes of the conquest of Americas by the European colonial
powers was the movement of plants, animals, technology, culture and strange diseases
between the Americas and Europe or between the New World and the Old World. This is
known as Columbian Exchange.
India at the dawn of Modern Age in Europe: The Mughal rule had started, since 1526 A.D.
(C.E.) . Vijayanagar state, founded in 1336, was a great power under Krishna deva Raya (1509-
29 A.D. (C.E) ) . Portuguese established their empire in the East (India, Malacca, Ceylon) and
controlled the sea with Goa as headquarters. In Tamil Nadu Madurai Nayak rule began
dividing the Pandya kingdom into seventy-two Palayams. The arrival of Jesuit Missions and
the work of St. Francis Xavier, as a member of Society of Jesus, led to conversion of fishing
community to Christianity (Catholicism) in Thoothukudi region.
1. Who among the following is known as the Father of Humanism?

(a) Leonardo da Vinci
(b) Fransico Petrarch
(c) Erasmus
(d) Thomas More
2. The School of Athens was painted by
(a) Raphael Sanzio
(b) Michelangelo
(c) Albrecht Durer
(d) Leonardo da Vinci
3. William Harvey discovered ______________
(a) Heliocentric theory
(b) Geocentric theory
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Circulation of blood
4. Who wrote the 95 theses?
(a) Martin Luther

(b) Zwingli
(c) John Calvin
(d) Thomas More
5. Who wrote the book Institutes of Christian Religion?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Zwingli
(c) John Calvin
(d) Cervantes
6. Which sailor was the first to cross the Equator?
(a) Henry, the Navigator
(b) Lopo Gonzalves
(c) Bartholomew Diaz
(d) Christopher Columbus
7. ____________ named the sea as Pacific Ocean as it was very calm.
(a) Columbus
(b) Amerigo Vespucci
(c) Ferdinand Magellan
(d) Vasco-da-Gama
8. The continent of America was named after _______________
(a) Amerigo Vespucci
(b) Christopher Columbus
(c) Vasco da Gama
(d) Hernando Cortez
9. ______________ was the headquarters of the Portuguese possession in the East.
(a) Manila
(b) Bombay
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Goa
10. Which among the following plants were introduced from America to Europe?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Sweet Potato
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by _______________
2. ______________ was known as Prince among Humanists.
3. _____________ is famous for his paintings in the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel.
4. The reformation of the Catholic Church is known as ______________
5. The chief features of Commercial Revolution were ___________, ___________ and
_____________
1. a. Martin Luther broke away from the Catholic Church because he was discriminated.
b. John Calvin’s government in Geneva was liberal and fun-filled.
c. King Henry VIII had deep theological differences with the Catholic Church.
d. Council of Trent reemphasized the importance of ceremonies and significance of the mass.
2. a. Discovery of new lands and sea routes shifted the economic centre from Italian city states
to Spain and Portugal.
b. Horses were native to America.
c. During the beginning of the Modern Age, State did not interfere in economic activities.
d. The Portuguese collaborated with the Arabs in its trading activities in India.
1. Feudalism - Monopoly Trade

2. Humanism - Trial of Heretics
3. Inquisition - Movement of goods between America and Europe
4. Mercantilism - Hierarchical socio-economic structure
5. Columbian Exchange - Human dignity
Answers:
1. Francisco Petrarch 2. Raphael Sanzio 3. Circulation of blood 4. Martin Luther 5. John Calvin
6. Lopo Gonzalves 7. Ferdinand Magellan 8. Amerigo Vespucci 9. Goa 10. Sweet Potato
Fill in the blanks:
1. Ohoman Turks 2. Erasmus 3. Michelangelo 4. Counter Reformation
5. Emergence of banking, Joint stock companies and Growth of trade.
1. Statement d is correct. 2. Statement a is correct
1. Hierarchical socio-economic structure 2. Human dignity 3. Trial of Heretics

4. Monopoly Trade 5. Movement of goods between America and Europe

9] The Age of Revolutions
Do You Know?
Reformers who led a religious movement to reform the Church of England dispensing with
the teachings and practices of Roman Catholic Church were known as Puritans. The Stuart
kings, James I and Charles I, did not tolerate their attempts to reform the Church of England.
The persecution of Puritans prompted many to leave England and settle. In the colonies they
founded they organized a Puritan way of life.
Quakers were members of a Christian group called the Society of Friends who, while laying
emphasis on the Holy Spirit, rejected outward rites and an ordained ministry. George Fox was
the founder of the society in England. Quakers have the reputation of actively working for
peace and opposing war.
Even before the arrival of Europeans in America, there was an indigenous population, called
Native Americans (they used to be referred to as “Red Indians”; it is now considered
demeaning, and historians do not use this term any more) , spread over the vast American
continent. They belonged to various tribes and many of them were at war with each other.
Besides they refused to work under conditions of slavery. Through a combination of violence
and diplomacy Europeans conquered and defeated many of these tribes. Greatly reduced in
numbers today they live in various reserves.
Cornwallis: Born into an aristocratic family and educated at Eton and Cambridge, Cornwallis
joined the army in 1757. Upon his father’s death in 1762 he became Earl Cornwallis and
entered the House of Lords, the upper house of Britain. His military action in the American
War of Independence was praiseworthy, inflicting defeats on the American army in a few
battles though finally he had to surrender his army at Yorktown. Despite this defeat,
Cornwallis retained the confidence of successive British governments and continued to enjoy
an active career. Knighted in 1786, he was appointed Governor General by the East India
Company government in British India.
Declaration of the Rights of the Man and the Citizen: This declaration was drafted by
Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau. Based on Natural Law, that asserts that certain
rights are inherent by virtue of human nature, the rights of humans were declared universal…
and valid at all times and in every place. Inspired by the Enlightenment philosophers, the
Declaration was a core statement of the values of the French Revolution and had a major
impact on the development of freedom and democracy worldwide.
1. The first British colony in America was _______________

(a) New York
(b) Philadelphia
(c) Jamestown
(d) Amsterdam
2. The pioneer of French Revolution who fought on the side of Washington against the British
was _____________
(a) Mirabeau

(b) Lafayette
(c) Napoleon
(d) Danton
3. Lafayette, Thomas Jefferson and Mirabeau wrote the _____________
(a) Declaration of Independence
(b) Declaration of Pilnitz
(c) Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen
(d) Human Rights Charter
4. The defeat of British at _______________ paved the way for the friendship between France
and America.
(a) Trenton
(b) Saratoga
(c) Pennsylvania
(d) New York
5. ____________ was the symbol of “Royal Despotism” in France.
(a) Versailles Palace
(b) Prison of Bastille
(c) Paris Commune
(d) Estates General
6. The forces of Austria and Prussia were defeated by the French Revolutionary forces at
______________
(a) Verna
(b) Versailles
(c) Pilnitz
(d) Valmy
7. Candide was written by _____________
(a) Voltaire
(b) Rousseau
(c) Montesquieu
(d) Danton
8. The moderate liberals who wanted to retain Louis XVI as a limited monarchy were called
_______________
(a) Girondins
(b) Jacobins
(c) Emigres

(d) Royalists
9. American War of Independence was ended with the Peace of Paris in the year ___________
(a) 1776
(b) 1779
(c) 1781
(d) 1783
10. Thomas Paine’s famous pamphlet was ____________
(a) Common Sense
(b) Rights of Man
(c) Bill of rights
(d) Abolition of Slavery
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Postmaster General of the Postal Department of the government of second Continental
Congress was ___________
2. The battle of Bunker Hill was fought on ___________
3. The ____________ Act insisted on repaying the debt in gold or silver.
4. The leader of National Assembly of France was ___________
5. _______________ was guillotined for organizing a Festival of Liberty and Reason.
6. Louis XVI was arrested at _____________ with his family when he tried to escape from
France.
1. i) The Portuguese were the pioneers of naval expeditions.

ii) New Plymouth was named after the Quaker Penn.
iii) Quakers have the reputation of encouraging wars.
iv) The English changed the name of New Amsterdam to New York.
(b) iii is correct
(c) iv are correct
(d) i and iv are correct
2. i) The American war of Independence was as much a civil war as a war against the British.
ii) The British forces emerged victorious in York Town.
iii) The nobles in France were supportive of the rising middle class.
iv) The British Parliament repealed the Townshend Act except the tax on paper.

(b) iii is correct
(c) iv is correct
3. Assertion (A): Merchants of Boston boycotted the British goods.
Reason (R): The British Finance Minister introduced new duties on imports into American
colonies.
(a) A is correct and R is not the explanation of A
(b) A is incorrect and R is not the explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is the explanation of A
(d) Both A and R is incorrect
4. Assertion (A): There was a massive peasant revolt in the Vendee against conscriptions.
Reason (R): The peasants as supporters of the king did not like to fight against him.
(a) Both A and R is incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
1. John Winthrop - France Finance minister
2. Turgot - July 4
3. The Spirit of Laws - Britain and France
4. Marie Antoinette - Massachusetts bay
5. Seven-year war - Louis XVI
6. American Independence Day - Montesquieu
Answers:
1. Jamestown 2. Lafayette 3. Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen 4. Saratoga 5. Versailles

Palace 6. Valmy 7. Voltaire 8. Girondins 9. 1783 10. Common Sense
Fill in the blanks:
1. Benjamin Franklin 2. 17th June 1775 3. Currency 4. Mirabeau 5. Herbert 6.Varennes
1. Statement i and iv are correct 2. Statement i and iv are correct 3. A and R is correct and R is
the correct explanation of R. 4. A is correct and R is incorrect.

1. Massachusetts bay 2. France Finance Minister 3. Montesquieu 4. LouisXVI 5. Britain and

France 6. July 4
10] Industrial Revolution
Do You Know?
The coal production in England increased from 4.7 million tonnes in 1750 to 250 million
tonnes in 1900.
With the use of steam engines, the number of factories in Prussia grew from 419 in 1837 to
1,444 in 1849. The production of coal increased from one million ton in 1820 to over 6 million
in thirty years. From 46,000 tons of iron produced in 1810, iron production rose to 529,000 tons
by 1850. Railroads increased from 3,638 miles in 1850 to a distance of 11,600 miles in 1870.
In 1806, agriculture employed about 65.1% in France, It decreased to 42.5% in 1896. During the
same period industries had grown in its share of employment from 20.4% in 1806 to 31.4% by
1896.
Cartel is an association of manufacturers or suppliers with the purpose of maintaining prices

at a higher level and of restricting competition.
In 1846, an American, Elias Howe invented the ‘sewing machine’ to stitch clothes. With the
invention of new methods of bleaching, dyeing and printing, cloth with different colours
could be produced during the early half of 19th century.
1. Who established the first steam boat service?
(a) Arkwright
(b) Samuel Crompton
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) James watt
2. Why Manchester was considered ideal for textile production?
(a) Availability of land
(b) Rich human resources
(c) Better living condition
(d) Cool climate
3. Who invented the sewing machine?
(a) Elias Howe

(b) Eli-Whitney
(c) Samuel Crompton
(d) Humphrey Davy
4. Which family introduced steam engine in France?
(a) de Wendel
(b) De Hindal
(c) De Arman
(d) De Renault
5. Who called Slater, the father of American Industrial revolution?
(a) F.D. Roosevelt
(b) Andrew Jackson
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Woodrow Wilson
6. Which of the following is observed to commemorate the Hay Market Massacre?
(a) Independence Day
(b) Farmers Day
(c) Labour Day
(d) Martyrs Day
7. Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed?
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) America
8. Who produced the first batch of automobiles in France?
(a) Louis Renault
(b) Armand Peugeot
(c) Thomas Alva Edison
(d) Mc Adam
9. What was the invention that removed seeds from cotton?
(a) Rolling mill
(b) Cotton Gin

(c) Spinning Mule
(d) Spinning Jenny
10. Which of the following was used as fuel in olden days to smelt iron?
(a) Coke
(b) Charcoal
(c) Firewood
(d) Paper
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ called for voting rights to men in England.
2. _____________ changed the way roads were built around the world.
3. _______________ discovered a faster and cheaper method of production of steel.
4. ___________ advocated scientific socialism.
5. The first rail road line started in Germany was in the year _______________
1. i) British mine-owners were faced with the problem of water seeping into their mines.
ii) Employing human labour was cheap for this work.
iii) Newton invented a steam engine to pump water out of mines.
iv) Water had to be removed to get coal in mines.
(a) i is correct
(d) iii is correct
2. i) Trade Unions were formed by labourers to get their rights.
ii) Germany’s political setup was the most significant challenge for the industrial revolution.
iii) To protect capitalists Karl Marx advocated socialism.
iv) There were no natural resources in Germany.
(a) i is correct
(d) iii is correct
3. Assertion (A): Workers had rights to get holidays.

Reason (R): There were laws to protect the workers.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is not correct explanation of A
4. Assertion (A): Slater was called the Father of the American Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R): His spinning textile mill was duplicated and his techniques became popular.
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R is correct
1. Benz - U.S.A
2. Safety Lamp - Louis Renault
3. Quadricycle - Humphrey Davy
4. Great Railroad Strike - Lancashire
5. Coalfield - Germany
Answers:
1. Robert Fulton 2. Cool climate 3. Elias Howe 4.de Wendel 5. Andrew Jackson 6. Labour day 7.
Germany 8. Armand Peugeot 9. Cotton Gin 10. Charcoal
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Chartists 2. John Loudon McAdam 3. Henry Bessemer 4. Karl Marx 5.1835
Consider the following statements and choose the correct statements:
1. Statement i and iv is correct 2. Statement i and ii is correct
3. Both A and R are wrong statements 4. Statement A is correct and R is the correct
explanation of A.
1. Germany 2. Humphrey Davy 3. Louis Renault 4. USA 5. Lancashire

11] Colonialism in Asia and Africa
Do You Know?
The Berlin Conference of 1884-85, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa
Conference, met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin in Central Africa.
The conference proposed by Portugal to discuss its claim to control the Congo River basin was
rejected. The general act of the Conference of Berlin declared the Congo River basin to be
neutral and guaranteed freedom for trade and shipping for all states in the basin.
Portuguese 1505-1961
Dutch East India Company 1605-1825
(Netherlands)
Danish East India Company 1620-1869
(Denmark)
French East India Company 1668-1954
British East India Company 1612-1757
British Company Rule 1757-1857
British Imperial Rule 1858-1947
Colonel Pennycuick was an army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member
of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar River
draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land
dependent on the Vaigai River. Though Pennycuick and other British engineers went ahead
with the construction, braving nature’s fury and the dangers of poisonous insects and wild
animals, the construction was disrupted by relentless rain. Since he could not get adequate
funds from the British government, Pennycuick went to England and sold his family property
to mobilise money to fund the project, which was completed in 1895. The Mullai Periyar Dam
continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga and
Ramanathapuram districts.
The Indenture system was a penal contract system. The contract made punishable the refusal
of an indentured labourer to work or his abstention from work, or his defiance of the orders
of his master or absconding, by forfeiture of wages or imprisonment with or without hard
labour. Between 1842 and 1870 a total of 525,482 Indians emigrated to the British and French
Colonies. Of these, 351,401 went to Mauritius, 76,691 went to Demerara, 42,519 went to Trinidad,
15,169 went to Jamaica, 6,448 went to Natal, 15,005 went to Reunion and 16,341 went to the
other French colonies. This figure does not include the 30,000 who went to Mauritius earlier,
labourers who went to Ceylon or Malaya and illegal recruitment to the French colonies. Thus
by 1870 the indenture system, transporting Indian labour to the colonies, was an established
system of providing virtual slaves for European colonial plantations.

Famines in British India: The Bengal famine of 1770, took a heavy toll of about 10 million
people or nearly one-third of the population in Bengal. This is how British rule commenced
in India. Similarly, the British rule ended with a terrible Bengal famine of 1943 that claimed
the lives of nearly three million. Amartya Sen, awarded the Nobel Prize in 1998, who as a
young boy saw people dying on the streets of Kolkata wrote a path-breaking study of it.
1. ______________ was brought to the attention of the East India company by Francis light.
(a) Spice islands
(b) Java island
(c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
2. In 1896 ______________ states were formed into Federated Malay States.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
3. _____________ was the only part of Indo-China which was directly under French control.
(a) Annam
(b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
(d) Cochin-China
4. The Discovery of gold in the _____________ led to a large number of British miners settled
in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
(c) Cape Colony
(d) Rhodesia
5. ______________ became the first European power to establish trade with India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) French
(c) Danes
(d) Dutch

6. Indentured labour system was a form of ___________
(a) Contract labour system
(b) Slavery
(c) Debt bondage
(d) Serfdom
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ Conference resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the

various European Powers.
2. The settlement made with the Zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is _______________
3. ______________ was the main source of revenue for the British.
4. ___________ were money lenders in the Tamil speaking areas.
1. i) Until the last quarter of the 19th century, Africa south of Sahara was unknown to the world.
ii) The coastal states of Gold Coast became a British colony in 1864.
iii) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 500 years.
iv) The famine of 1876-78 occurred in Odisha.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(d) iv is correct
2. i) The French had occupied Java and Sumatra in 1640.
ii) The Dutch began their conquest of the English Settlements by capturing Malacca.
iii) Berlin Conference met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin.
iv) The possessions of Sultan of Zanzibar were divided into French and German spheres of
influence.
(a) i is correct
(c) iii is correct
(d) iv is correct
3. Assertion (A): In the Madras Presidency, the famine of 1876-78 was preceded by droughts.
Reason (R): Because of the colonial government’s policy of Laissez Faire in the trade of Food-
grains.
(a) A is correct, R is wrong

(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
4. Assertion (A): Berlin Conference agreed to the rule of Leopold II in Congo Free State.
Reason (R): Leopold II, King of Belgium, showed interest in Congo.
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
1. Leopold - Ethiopia
2. Menelik - Vietnam
3. Cecil Rhodes - Belgium
4. Bengal Famine - Cape colony
5. Bao Dai - 1770
Answers:
1. Penang island 2. Four 3. Cochin-China 4. Transvaal 5. Portuguese 6. Debt bondage
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Berlin Colonial 2. Permanent settlement 3. The land tax 4. Nattukottai Chettiyars

1. Statement i is correct 2. Statement iii is correct 3. Statement A is correct and R is the correct
explanation of A 4. Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
1. Belgium 2. Ethiopia 3. Cape colony 4.1770 5. Vietnam

12] Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes
Do You Know?
“The Earth can physically be described as a ball of rock (the lithosphere) , partly covered by
water (the hydrosphere) and wrapped in an envelope of air (the atmosphere) . To these three
physical zones it is convenient to add a biological zone which includes all the living
organisms (the biosphere) ”.
The lithosphere is the solid outer part of the Earth. The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases
that surrounds the Earth. The hydrosphere is the watery part of the Earth’s surface including
oceans, rivers, lakes and water vapour. The biosphere is the layer of Earth where life exists.

The terms ‘lithosphere’ and ‘crust’ are not the same. The lithosphere includes the crust and
the uppermost part of the mantle. All terrestrial planets have lithosphere. The lithospheres of
Mercury, Venus, and Mars are much thicker and more rigid than that of the Earth.
The ancient city of Petra in Jordan is an example of an entire city carved out of rocks. There
are many specimens of magnificent rock-cut architecture in India, like the Ajanta and Ellora
caves in Maharashtra, the Aihole and Badami temples in Karnataka, the Konark temple in
Odisha and Mamallapuram in Tamil Nadu.
The Deepest Place ever reached by human technology vary from time to time. Till 2011 Kola
Super Hole (12,262m) in Murmansk, Russia was the deepest place. But in 2012, Z-44 Chavyo
Well (12,376m) broke the record, and is supposed to be 15 times the height of Burj Khalifa in
Dubai. The exploration of Earth’s interior continues.
C.F. Richter devised a scale to measure the magnitude of Earthquakes. This scale relates to
the energy released at the epicentre and provides an estimation of the severity of an
Earthquake. It is an open ended scale. The highest magnitude ever recorded is 9.5 on Richter
scale (Bio-Bio, Chile in 1960) .
The instrument which records the Earthquake waves is called ‘seismograph’ or ‘seismometer’.
The science that deals with Earthquakes is called ‘seismology’.
The term ‘volcano’ is derived from the Latin term VULCAN, which is the name of Roman ‘God
of Fire’.
On 26 December 2004 a tsunami occurred in the Indian Ocean. It was the result of the Indio-
Australian Plate subducting below the Eurasian Plate. It was caused by an Earthquake
measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter scale. The Earthquake caused the seafloor
to uplift, displacing the seawater above.
1. ______________ is the rigid outer layer of the Earth.

(a) Core
(b) Mantle
(c) Crust
(d) Inner core
2. __________ layer is made up of liquid iron.
(a) Inner core
(b) Outer core
(c) Mantle
(d) Crust
3. Magma is found in the _____________
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core

4. The movement of tectonic plates is induced by ______________ energy.
(a) Hydel
(b) Thermal
(c) Wave
(d) Tidal
5. In the ancient period, Gondwanaland moved towards _____________ direction.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
6. Many million years ago, India was a part of the super continent _____________
(a) Gondwana
(b) Laurasia
(c) Panthalasa
(d) Pangea
7. The movement of plates that creates stress and tension in the rocks causing them to stretch
and cracks result in ___________
(a) Fold
(b) Fault
(c) Mountain
(d) Earthquake
8. ___________ refers to bowl-shaped depression found at the top of the volcano.
(a) Crater
(b) Vent
(c) Chamber
(d) Volcanic cone
9. The point of origin of an Earthquake is called the ______________
(a) Epicentre
(b) Focus
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Magnitude
1. Endogenetic process - Seismograph

2. Mantle - Subduction Zone
3. Convergent boundaries - Volcanic Eruption

4. Earthquake - Pacific Ocean
5. Composite Volcano - SIMA
1. i. Mt. Fuji is a dormant volcano.

ii. Mt. Kilimanjaro is a dormant volcano.
iii. Mt. Tanzania is a dormant volcano. Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) i is true
(b) ii is true
(c) iii is true
(d) i, ii, iii are true
2. Statement: Magma gushes out when it finds vents.
Reason: Interior of the Earth contains compressed hot Magma
(a) Statement & reason are true
(b) Statement is true, reason is false
(c) Statement is false reason is true
(d) Statement & reason are false
3. Statement I: Mountain ranges are formed by the collision of tectonic plates.
Statement II: The movement of tectonic plates is due to the thermal energy from the mantle.
(a) Statement I is false II is true
(b) Statement I and II are false
(c) Statement I is true II is false
(d) Statement I and II are true
Answers:
1. Crust 2. Outer core 3. Mantle 4. Thermal 5. North 6. Gondwana 7. Fault 8. Crater 9. Focus
1. Volcanic Eruption 2. SIMA 3. Subduction zone 4. Seismograph 5. Pacific Ocean
1. Statement i is true.
2. Both Statement and Reason is true.
3. Statement I and II are true


13] Lithosphere – II Exogenetic Processes
Do You Know?
The disintegrated rock materials, in due course of time, are weathered further, to form soil.
Soil is a mixture of disintegrated rock material and decayed organic matter called humus.
The highest water falls in the world is Angel falls (979 m) in Venezuela.
Tributary: Small streams that join the main river. Eg. River Bhavani. Distributary: River
channels that get separated from the main river. Eg. River Kollidam.
The Greek letter (∆) pronounced delta closely resembles the triangular delta of the river Nile.
Sunderban Delta formed by the river Ganga-Brahmaputra is the largest delta in the world. The
world’s best known geyser is the Old Faithful Geyser in the Yellowstone National Park in
Wyoming, U.S.A.
The world’s largest oxbow lake is Lake Chicot is Arkansas of USA. Lake Kanwar in Bihar
(India) is Asia’s largest fresh water ox how lake.
Karst Areas in India: Western Bihar - Guptadham caves; Uttarakhand - Robert cave and
Tapkeshwar temple; Madhya Pradesh - Pandav caves Pachmari hills; Bastar district in
Chattisgarh – Kutumsar; Andhra Pradesh (Visakhapatnam) - Borra Caves.
The World’s deepest sinkhole is China’s xianozhai Tienkang at 2172 feet. There are as many
as 15000 Sinkholes in Illinois.
The thickest known deposit of loess is, 335 metre found in the loess plateau in China.
1. The disintegration or decomposition of rocks is generally called as

(a) Weathering
(b) Erosion
(c) Transportation
(d) Deposition
2. The process of the levelling up of land by means of natural agents.
(a) Aggradation
(b) Degradation
(c) Gradation
(d) None
3. ______________ is seen in the lower course of the river.
(a) Rapids
(b) Alluvial fan
(c) Delta
(d) Gorges

4. Karst topography is formed due to the action of
(a) Glacier
(b) Wind
(c) Sea waves
(d) Ground Water
5. Which one of the following is not a depositional feature of a glacier?
(a) Cirque
(b) Moraines
(c) Drumlins
(d) Eskers
6. Deposits of fine silt blown by wind is called as
(a) Loess
(b) Barchans
(c) Hamada
(d) Ripples
7. Stacks are formed by ____________
(a) Wave erosion
(b) River erosion
(c) Glacial erosion
(d) Wind deposition
8. ______________ erosion is responsible for the formation of cirque.
(a) Wind
(b) Glacial
(c) River
(d) Underground water
1. Distributaries - Glacial action

2. Mushroom rock - Action of sea wave
3. Eskers - Lower course of river
4. Stalactites - Aeolian process
5. Cliff - Karst topography
1. i) ‘I’ Shaped valley is an erosional feature of the river.

ii) ‘U’ Shaped valley is an erosional feature of the glacier.

iii) ‘V’ Shaped valley is an erosional feature of the glacier.
(a) i, ii & iii are correct
(b) i & ii is correct
(c) i & iii is correct
(d) only iii is correct
2. Statement I: Running water is an important agent of gradation.
Statement II: The work of the river depends on the slop of land on which if flows.
(a) Statement I is false and II is true
(b) Statement I and II are false
(c) Statement I is true and II is false
(d) Statement I and II are true
3. Statement: Limestone regions have less underground water.
Reason: Water does not percolate through limestone.
(a) The statement is right reason is wrong.
(b) The statement is wrong reason is right.
(c) The statement and reason are wrong.
(d) The statement and reason are right.
Answers:
1. Weathering 2. Gradation 3. Delta 4. Ground water 5. Cirque 6. Loess 7. Wave erosion 8. Glacial
1. Lower course of river 2. Aeolian process 3. Glacial action 4. Karst topography 5. Action of
sea wave
1. Statement i and ii is correct.
2. Statement I and II are true
3. The statement is right reason is wrong.

14] Atmosphere
Do You Know?
In 1772 CE Daniel Rutherford discovered Nitrogen in atmosphere. In 1774 Joseph priestly

discovered oxygen in atmosphere.
Auroras are cosmic glowing lights produced by a stream of electrons discharged from the
Sun’s surface due to magnetic storms that are seen as unique multi coloured fireworks
hanging in the polar sky during midnight.

Magnetosphere lies beyond the exosphere. It is earth’s magnetic belt, where proton and
electrons, coming out from the sun are trapped by the earth. The magnetic field extends to
around 64,000 km above the Earth.
During the day, the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans. Heater air ascends
and this causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean. Therefore, the wind blows from ocean
to land in the afternoon. This is called sea breeze. Sea breeze helps in reducing the
temperature of the coastal region especially during the summer season. During the night, the
land cools more rapidly than the ocean. Cold air sinks and forms high pressure. The wind
blows from land to sea during the night, this is called land breeze.
The windward is the side of a mountain which faces the prevailing wind. It receives heavy
rainfall. The leeward side of the mountain is the side sheltered from the wind. It receives very
less rainfall.
The rotation of the Earth causes deflection of winds from their original path, called the
“Coriolis effect” winds are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in
the southern hemisphere which is known as “Ferrel’s Law”. This was profounded by William
Ferrel. He used “Coriolis force” named after G.G. Coriolis (1792-1843) for proving Ferrel’s law.
Super Cyclone: A violent cyclone that hit Odisha, on Friday, 29 October 1999, was one of the
most devastating and strongest storm to hit the Indian coast. Winds of up to 260 kph raged
for over 36 hours. The winds caused seven metre tidal wave that swept more than 20 km
inland and brought massive destruction and death to a number of coastal districts in the state
of Odisha. It is estimated that more than 10 million people in 12 coastal belt districts were
affected by the cyclone. More than 10,000 people lost their lives.
Deliberations for naming cyclones in the Indian Ocean region began in 2000 and a formula
was agreed upon in 2004. Eight countries in the region Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Myanmar,
Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and Thailand contributed a set of names which our assigned
sequentially whenever a cyclonic storm develops.
A front is the boundary separating warm and cold air masses. One type of air mass is usually
denser than the other, with different temperatures and humidity. This meeting of air mass
causes rain, snowfall, hail storm, thunder storm, lightening cold days, hot days, and windy
days.
During sunset cirrus clouds look colourful hence they are called as “Mare’s Tails”.
The only sphere which contains all clouds in the atmosphere is troposphere.
Any thunderstorm which is associated with fall of hail stones is known as hailstorm.
Hailstorm is one of the most feared weather phenomenons because it has the potential to
destroy plant, trees, crops, animals and human life.
When the relative humidity of the air is 100%, the air is said to be saturated. Saturated air will
not absorb any more water vapour. The temperature at which air gets saturated is called dew
point. Humidity of the atmosphere is measured by the wet and dry bulb thermometer also
called the Hygrometer.
Absolute humidity is expressed in terms of grams of water vapour present per cubic metre of
air. Relative humidity is expressed in percentage.

Mawsynram is the wettest place of India as it is located in the windward side of the Purvachal
hills, whereas Shillong lies on the leeward side and thus receives less rainfall. This is the
same, in the case of Mumbai and Pune.
1. _______________ is the most important gas for the survival of living organisms.
(a) Helium
(b) Carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Methane
2. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is _____________
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Mesosphere
3. ____________ reflects radio waves.
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere
4. The process of change of state of water from gaseous to liquid state is called
_______________
(a) Precipitation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Transpiration
(d) Condensation
5. The ____________ is the chief energy source of the Earth.
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Stars
(d) Clouds
6. All types of clouds are found in the _______________
(a) Troposphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Exosphere

7. _____________ clouds are called “Sheep Clouds”
(a) Alto-Cumulus
(b) Alto-Stratus
(c) Nimbo-Stratus
(d) Cirro-Stratus
8. The monsoons are _______________
(a) Prevailing winds
(b) Periodic winds
(c) Local Winds
9. Dew in the form of ice crystals is called ___________
(a) Frost
(b) Fog
(c) Mist
(d) Sleet
10. _______________ is called the eye of the storm/cyclone.
(a) Pressure
(b) Wind
(c) Cyclones
(d) Snow
11. The vertical movement of air is called
(a) Wind
(b) Storm
(c) Air current
(d) Drift
1. Meteorology - Wind Speed

2. Climatology - Direction of wind
3. Anemometer - Cirrus
4. Wind Vane - Study of Climate
5. Mare’s Tail - Study of Weather
6. Leeward side - Australia
7. Willy willy - Rain shadow region
Answers:

1. Oxygen 2. Troposphere 3. Mesosphere 4. Condensation 5. Sun 6. Troposphere 7. Alto-
cumulus 8. Periodic winds 9. Frost 10. Cyclones 11. Air current
1. Study of weather 2. Study of climate 3. Wind speed 4. Direction of wind 5. Cirrus 6. Rain
shadow of rain 7. Australia

15] Hydrosphere
Do You Know?
Sylvia Earle is a famous American oceanographer. She was named as the first, “Hero for the
Planet” by Time magazine for her efforts towards marine life protections. Jacques-Yves
Cousteau (1910-1997) was a famous French Ocean explorer, who conducted extensive under-
sea investigation. He belonged to the information service of the French Navy, and was sent
on missions to Shanghai and Japan (1935-1938) and in the USSR (1939) .
Finland is known as the land of thousand lakes. There are 1,87,888 lakes in Finland.
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s
surface. Aquifers are porous rock strata filled with water, found below the earth’s surface.
Geo Connect: ONGC: Oil and Natural Gas Corporation is India’s largest oil and gas exploration
and production company. Its latest estimate is that about 20 million tons of oil reserves are
found west of Mumbai high off shore.
A Hypsometric Curve is a graphic representation which shows the height of a certain place
found on land and the height of oceans features at sea. “Hypso” means height in Greek.
Fathoms: A nautical measurement of the depth of water in the ocean. Isobath: An imaginary
line on a map joining the points of equal depths. Isohaline: An imaginary line on a map joining
the points of equal salinity in oceans.
Abyssal plains in the Atlantic and Indian Oceans tend to be extensive than the Pacific Ocean
because, majority of the world’s largest rivers empty their sediments into either Atlantic or
Indian Ocean. Eg. Amazon, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers
Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sink hole in the world. The local fishermen
call it the “eye” of the South China Sea.
Potential tidal energy zones of India are the Gulf of Khambhat, Gulf of Kutch and Sundarbans.
The energy of the falling wave water is used to turn hydro turbines to generate power plants
have been installed at Vizhinjam in Kerala coast and Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India.
Maritime Borders: Maritime boundary of most the Countries are fixed to be 12 nautical miles
from the baseline. This was fixed by the U.N. Convention on the Law of the sea 2013 whereas
Jordan and Palau have 3 nautical miles as their maritime boundary and Benin, Republic of
Congo, EI Salvador, Peru and Somalia have 200 nautical miles.

NIO (National Institute of Oceanography) was established in 1st January 1966. The
headquarters of NIO is located at Dona Paula, Goa. It conducts research and observations to
understand oceanic features, Ocean engineering, marine Archaeology etc.
The Great Barrier Reef: The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system
composed of 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for about 2,000 kilometres. It
covers an area of about 3,50,000 km. The reef is located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of
Queensland, Australia. The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from the outer space. This
sprawling coral reef system is one of the most biologically diverse places on the planet. Coral
reefs are built by billions of tiny organisms, known as Coral polyps. CNN labelled it as one of
the seven natural wonders of the world.
The Gangetic Dolphin was declared the National Aquatic Animal in 2010. This has become an
endangered species. Are the Dolphins really at risk? If so, list out the reasons.
1. The temperature of the ocean waters generally ____________ all greater depth.
(a) Increase
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Decreases
2. Ocean currents are produced due to ______________
(a) Due to rotation of earth
(b) Due to variation in temperature
(c) Due to earth’s movement
(d) All the above
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
4. The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to
(a) Convergence of tectonic plates
(b) Divergence of tectonic plates
(c) Lateral movements of plates

(d) Steering of plates
5. Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of the topography beneath the surface
of the sea?
(a) Continental Shelf-Continental Slope-Sea Plain-Sea trench
(b) Continental Slope-Continental Shelf-Sea Plain-Sea trench
(c) Sea Plain-Continental Slop-Continental Shelf-Sea trench.
(d) Continental Shelf-Sea Plain-Continental Shelf-Sea trench.
6. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Gulf Stream – Pacific Ocean
(b) Labrador Current – North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current – Mediterranean Sea
(d) Mozambique current – Indian Ocean
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is correct
1. Assertion (A): Oceans are always shown in blue in maps.
Reason (R): It indicates the natural colour of the oceans.
2. Assertion (A): Flat topped seamounts are known as Guyot.
Reason (R): All guyot features are of volcanic origin.
3. Assertion (A): Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor.
Reason (R): They are mainly restricted to continental shelf, slope and rise.
4. Assertion (A): Atolls are more common in the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): The marine population at the depth is less.
1. Mariana trench - Decreases salinity in the oceans.
2. Great Barrier Reef - Along the coast of Japan
3. Spring tides - Deepest point in the pacific
4. Heavy rains - Australia
5. Kuroshio current - Second order landform
6. Continental slope - On full and new moon days

Answers:
1. Decreases 2. Due to rotation of earth, earth’s movement and variation in temperature. 3.

Statement 1, 2, 3 are correct 4. Divergence of tectonic plates 5. Continental Shelf-Continental
Slope-Sea Plain-Sea trench 6. Gulf Stream – Pacific Ocean and Canary current –
Mediterranean Sea
Consider the following statement and choose the correct answer:
1.Both A and R are correct and R explains A

2.A is correct but R is false
3.Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
4.A is false but R is correct
1. Deepest point in the pacific 2. Australia 3. On full and new moon days 4. Decreases salinity
in the oceans 5. Along the coast of Japan 6. Second order landform
16] Biosphere
Do You Know?
The branch of science that deals about ecosystem is called Ecology. A person who studies
ecology is referred to as an Ecologist.
An ecological region that has lost more than 70% of its original habitat is considered a hotspot.
Hotspots in India are the Himalayas, Western Ghats, Indo Burma Region and Sunderland.
There are 34 areas around the world which are qualified as biodiversity hotspots.
The U.S. National Cancer Institute has identified about 70% of the plants used for treating
cancer. Which are found only in rain forests. Eg. Lapacho
An oasis is a fertile fresh water source found in deserts and semi-arid regions. Oases are fed
by springs. Crops like date palms, figs, citrus fruits, maize etc. are cultivated near these oases.
Of late, parts of the Savannah grasslands are being converted into farmlands, which pose a
great threat to the wide range of fauna. For Eg. The population of the big cats like cheetah,
lion etc. are dwindling drastically.
Temperate grasslands are called differently in different parts of the world. Prairies – North
America; Steppes – Eurasia; ampas – Argentina and Uruguay; Veld – South Africa; Downs –
Australia; Canterburg – New Zealand; Manchurian – China.
A Biosphere Reserve is a special ecosystem or specialized environment with flora and fauna
that require protection and nurturing. There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in India.

1. The coldest biome on Earth is
(a) Tundra
(b) Taiga
(c) Desert
(d) Oceans
2. This is the smallest unit of biosphere.
(a) Ecosystems
(b) Biome
(c) Environment
3. Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain microorganisms, referred
to as
(a) Producers
(b) Decomposers
(c) Consumers
4. To which climatic conditions are Xerophyte plants specifically adapted to?
(a) Saline and Sandy
(b) Limited moisture availability
(c) Cold temperature
(d) Humid
5. Why is the usage of rainforest biomes for large scale agriculture unsustainable?
(a) Because it is too wet
(b) Because the temperature is too warm
(c) Because the soil is too thin
(d) Because the soil is poor
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is true; R is false
(d) Both A and R are false

1. A: Heterotrophs do not produce their own food.
R: They depend on autotrophs for their nourishment.
2. A: Hotspots are the regions characterised by numerous endemic plants and animal species
living in a vulnerable environment.
R: To manage and focus on conservation work more effectively, researchers identified

hotspots.
Fill in the blanks:
1. An area where animals, plants and micro-organisms live and interact with one another is
known as ____________
2. ______________ are also called Heterotrophs.
3. ______________ is a system of interlocking and independent food chains.
4. _______________ is an extensive large ecosystem.
5. The vegetative type commonly found in desert biomes is called ______________
6. ____________ is an aquatic biome that is found where fresh water and salt water mix.
Find out the dates for the following:
1. World Wild Life Day: _______________
2. International Day of Forest: ______________
3. World Water Day: ____________
4. Earth Day: _____________
5. World Environment Day: ______________
6. World Oceans Day: ___________
Answers:
1. Tundra 2. None of the above 3. Decomposers 4. Limited moisture availability 5. Because it is

too wet
1.Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A

2.Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true; R explains A
Fill in the blanks:
1. Consumers 2. Ecosystem 3. Food web 4. Biome 5. Xerophytes 6. Estuary
Find out the dates for the following:
1.October 4th 2. March 21st 3. March 22nd 4. April 22nd

2.June 5th 6. December 26th

17] Man and Environment
Do You Know?
The Stockholm Conference, 1972, declared man as both a creator and moulder of his
environment. “The Earth Summit”, formally known as the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED) was held in Rio Janeiro in 1992.
Census: Census is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically. It records

information about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation.
Different countries of the world conduct census every 5 to 10 years as recommended by the
United Nations. The first known census was undertaken nearly six thousand years ago by
the Babylonians in 3800 BC (BCE) . Denmark was the first country in the modern world to
conduct a census. In India, the first census was carried out in the year 1872. Censuses have
been conducted regularly every tenth year since 1881. The Indian Census is the most
comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic data. Have you ever seen a
census report? Check in your library.
What is Demography? In ancient Greek, “demos” means people and “graphis” means study of
measurement. So, “Demography” is the statistical study of human population.
The World Population Day is observed on 11th July every year. It seeks to raise awareness of
global population issues. The United National Development Programme started celebrating
this event from the year 1989.
The Black Death is estimated to have killed 30-60 percent of Europe’s total population during
the 14th century. The dominant explanation for Black Death is attributed to the outbreak of
plague.
Over Population and Under Population: Over population is a condition when a country has
more people than its resources to sustain. Under population is a condition where there are too
few people to develop the economic potential of a nation fully.
“India has an official population policy implemented in 1952. India was the first country to
announce such a policy. The main objective of this policy was to slow down the rate of
population growth, through promotion of various birth control measures.
Damascus is widely believed to be the oldest, continuously inhabited city in the world, dating
back to at least 11,000 years. Tokyo is the world’s largest city with the greater Tokyo area,
housing about 38 million inhabitants. According to the Quality of Living Rankings by
Consultancy Mercer, in 2016, the city offering the best quality of life was Vienna, with Zurich
falling second.
How to help the value of sustainability grow among students? Lifestyle: Your lifestyle is your
choice and you can change it. For example, when you go to the grocery store, make sure you
always carry a cloth bag. This way the shopkeeper does not have to give you many plastic
bags.

Fixing: If your watch or a toy or a camera is broken or not working, try getting it fixed before
you buy yourself a new one.
Recycle: Try and be conscious about the things around you. When you consume something,
see if you can re-use it later.
Needs vs Wants: Before you buy something, ask yourself the question - do I NEED this or do I
WANT it? Remember sustainability begins with you. So act locally and think globally.
1. All external influences and factors that affect the growth and development of living
organisms is ______________
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biotic factors
(d) Abiotic factors
2. The “World Population Day” is observed on _____________ every year.
(a) August 11th
(b) September 11th
(c) July 11th
(d) January 11th
3. The statistical study of human population is _______________
(a) Demography
(b) Morphology
(c) Etymology
(d) Seismography
4. The extraction of valuable minerals and other geological minerals from the mines, is
___________
(a) Fishing
(b) Lumbering
(c) Mining
(d) Agriculture
5. The Secondary Sector of the economy produces _____________ from raw materials.
(a) Semi finished goods
(b) Finished goods

(c) Economic goods
(d) Raw materials
1. Loudspeaker - Noise pollution
2. Rio de Janeiro Brazil - T-shaped settlement
3. Cruciform settlement - Earth summit, 1992
1. Assertion (A): Ozone layer in the stratosphere is considered as a protective shield.
Reason (R): It prevents the UV radiation from reaching the earth’s surface.
(a) A and R is correct and A explains R
(b) A and R is correct, but A does not explain R
(d) Both A and R is incorrect
2. Assertion (A): In tertiary activities, instead of producing goods by themselves, they are in
the process of production.
Reason (R): People in Tertiary activities are purely eco-friendly.
(a) Both A and R is incorrect
(b) A and R is correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect
(d) A and R is correct and A explains R
Answers:
1. Environment 2. July 11th 3. Demography 4. Mining 5. Finished goods
1. Noise pollution 2. Earth summit, 1992 3. T-shaped settlement
1. A and R is correct and A explains R
2. A is correct and R is incorrect

18] Mapping Skills
Do You Know?
A cartographer is one who measures, analyses and interprets geographical information to

create maps and charts for political, cultural and educational purposes.
Mnemonic device or memory technique to recall cardinal directions is the sentence “Never
Eat Soggy Wheaties”. (North, East, South and West)
The mainland of India extends from 8o4’N to 37o6’N latitude and from 68o7’E to 97o25’E
longitude. Here, (o) is degree and (‘) is minutes.
The actual shape of the Earth is termed Geoid, which is an oblate spheroid. The “azimuthal”
polar projection is depicted on the United Nations flag. North America was prominent on the
initial 1945 UN flag (which had the longitude line 90 degrees west pointing upwards) . The
following year, the map on the flag was reoriented to be more neutral by having the
International Date Line (180 degrees east, lying in the middle of the Pacific Ocean) pointing
upwards. The map ends at 60 degrees South latitude, meaning Antarctica does not appear.
We operate three remote sensing organs in our body. (a) Eyes - Sense of sight.
(b) Nose - Sense of smell.
(c) Ear - Sense of hearing.
Early History of Surveying: In Egypt, surveyors were called ‘rope stretchers’ because they
used ropes to measure distances.
Felix Nadar was a French photographer, journalist, novelist and balloonist. In 1858, he became
the first person to take aerial photographs. He took his first photograph in 1853 and pioneered
the use of artificial lighting in photography, working in the catacombs of Paris. Around 1863,
Nadar built a huge (6000 m3) balloon named Le Geant (“The Giant”) .
1. _____________ indicates the purpose or theme of the map.
(a) Title
(b) Scale
(c) Direction
(d) Legend
2. Standard symbols that are used in maps to convey a definite meaning are called
______________
(a) Conventional signs and symbols
(b) Coordinates

(c) Grid references
(d) Directions
3. GPS consists of a constellation of ______________ satellites.
(a) 7
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 64
1. The art and science of mapping - USA
2. Actual shape of the earth - Geoid
3. NAVSTAR - Cartography
1. Assertion (A): The points at which the vertical and horizontal lines of the grid intersect are
called coordinates.
Reason (R): The lines that run horizontally and vertically are called Northings and Easting
respectively.
(a) Both A and R are true; R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct; R is false
(d) A is false; R is true
2. Assertion (A): The legend of a map does not help us to understand the information in a map.
Reason (R): Tit is usually placed at the left or right corner at the bottom of the map.
(a) A is false; R is true
(b) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
(c) A is correct; R is false
(d) Both A and R are true; R explains A
Answers:
1. Title 2. Conventional signs and symbols 3. 24
1. Cartography 2. Geoid 3. USA

1. Both A and R are true; R does not explain A
2. A is false; R is true
19] Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters
Do You Know?
Tsunami: Shortly before 8 am on 26 December 2004, the region fell silence and the ground
shook in dismay. The Moken, an isolated tribe on the Andaman Islands in the Indian Ocean,
knew that the Laboon, the “wave that eats people”, had stirred from his ocean lair. The Moken
also knew what was next: a towering wall of water washing over their island, cleansing it of
all that was evil and impure. To heed the Laboon’s warning signs, elders told their children,
run to high ground. “If the water recedes after an earthquake, run immediately to high ground”.
The tiny Andaman and Nicobar Islands were directly in the path of the tsunami generated by
the magnitude 9.1 of earthquake off the coast of Sumatra. Final total put the islands’ death toll
at 1,879 alone with another 5,600 people missing. The islanders who had heard the stories
about the Laboon or similar mythological figures survived the tsunami essentially unscathed.
Most of the casualties that occurred in the Southern Nicobar Islands were outsiders, leaving
them with no indigenous tsunami warning system to guide them to higher ground.
Japan is in a very active seismic area and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
Which country actually has the most number of earthquakes? Indonesia is in a very active
seismic zone also, but because it is larger than Japan, it has more earthquakes. Which
countries have the most earthquakes per unit area? This would probably be Tonga, Fiji or
Indonesia, since they are all in extremely active seismic areas along subduction zones.
1. One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) Police officers
(b) Fire fighters
(c) Insurance agents
(d) Emergency medical technicians
2. “Drop, Cover, Hold” is a mock drill avowal for
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Riot
3. When you happen to see a fire break out, you will make a call to

(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
4. Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ” Stop, Drop, Roll” is for fire
(b) “Drop, Cover, Hold” is for an earthquake
(c) “If sea water recedes back, run to higher places” is for flood
(d) “If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand” is for riot
5. Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid, any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the
coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answers:
1. Insurance agents 2. Earthquake 3. 112
4. “If sea water recedes back, run to higher places” is for flood
5. Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls and anything that could fall
20] Forms of Government and Democracy
Do You Know?
The term “democracy” is derived from two Greek words: DEMOS meaning people and cratia
meaning power. Thus, literally democracy means “the power of the people”.
The term “republic” was first coined in 500 BCE in Rome. It is derived from res publica, a Latin
word meaning public matter.
India became a Republic on 26 January 1950. It is governed in accordance with the

Constitution adopted on 26 November 1949, which came into force on 26 January 1950.
Abraham Lincoln, one of the Presidents of USA, defines democracy as a government of the
people, by the people and for the people.

The Parliament House in India was designed by the British architects Edwin Lutyens and
Herbert Baker in 1912-13 and construction began in 1921 and ended in 1927.
Two houses of Parliament: Lok Sabha/Lower House/House of People; Rajya Sabha/Upper

House/Council of States.
British India-General elections, 1920: General elections were held in British India in 1920 to
elect members to the Imperial Legislative Council and the Provincial Councils. They were the
first elections in the country’s history.
1. A system of government in which one person reigns supreme, usually a king or queen, is
called _____________
(a) Autocracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Democracy
(d) Republic
2. A system of government with absolute power.
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Theocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Autocracy
3. Former Soviet Union is an example for ___________
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Theocracy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Republic
4. Select the odd one
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Vatican
5. Abraham Lincoln was the President of the ______________
(a) USA
(b) UK

(c) USSR
(c) India
6. Kudavolai system was followed by
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Cholas
(d) Kalabhras
7. Direct Democracy in olden times existed
(a) In the republics of ancient India
(b) Among the USA
(c) In the city-state of ancient Greece
(d) Among the UK
8. From which language was the term “Democracy” derived?
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Persian
(d) Arabic
9. In democracy the final authority rests with
(a) The Parliament
(b) The people
(c) The council of Ministers
(d) The President
10. Which one of the country has Presidential form of Government?
(a) India
(b) Britain
(c) Canada
(d) USA
11. The largest democratic country in the world is
(a) Canada
(b) India
(c) USA

(d) China
12. Assertion (A): Direct democracy is practised Switzerland.
Reason (R): People directly participate in decision making.
(a) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true and R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is false
(d) A is false and R is true
13. Assertion (A): India has parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R): Indian parliament comprises two houses.
(a) Both A and R are true and R explain A
14. The meaning of Franchise is
(a) Right to elect
(b) Right to vote for the poor
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to vote for the rich
15. The grant of universal franchise creates
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) Legal equality
16. Prime Minister of India is appointed by
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker
(d) President
17. The President of India can nominate
(a) 12 members to Lok Sabha
(b) 2 members of Rajya Sabha

(c) 12 members of Rajya Sabha
(d) 14 members of Rajya Sabha
18. The first general elections after independence in India were held in
(a) 1948-49
(b) 1951-52
(c) 1957-58
(d) 1947-48
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Constitution of India was finally adopted on _____________
2. The two types of democracy are _____________ and _____________
3. An example for direct democracy is ___________
4. India has a ___________ form of democracy.
5. _____________ was the first Prime Minister of independent India.
6. The first general elections were held in British India in the year _______________
7. The Parliament House in India was designed by ______________ and _____________
1. Autocracy - 18
2. Right to vote - Arthashastra
3. Chanakya - Vatican
4. Theocracy - North Korea
Answers:
1. Monarchy 2. Autocracy 3. Oligarchy 4. Vatican 5. USA 6. Cholas 7. In the city-state of ancient

Greece 8. Greek 9. The People
10. USA 11. India 12. Both A and R are true and R explains A 13. Both A and R is true and R
explains A 14. Right to vote
15. Social equality 16. President 17. 12 members of Rajya Sabha 18. 1951-52
Fill in the blanks:
1. 26th November 1949 2. Direct, Indirect 3. Switzerland 4. Parliamentary 5. Jawaharlal Nehru

6. 1920
7. Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker

1. North Korea 2. 18 3. Arthashastra 4. Vatican
21] Elections, Political Parties and Pressure Groups
Do You Know?
Kudavolai was the system of voting followed during the Chola period in Tamil Nadu.
We celebrate National Voters Day on 25th January in India.
Voters verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is the way forward to enhance credibility and
transparency of the election process. This system was first introduced in the 2014 General
Election.
NOTA was first introduced in the General Elections held in 2014. India is the 14 th country in
the world to introduce NOTA.
How is the President of India elected? The President of India is elected by the members of an
electoral college consisting of: 1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament; 2. The
elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the states and Union territories in India.
NOTE: The members nominated to either House Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of
states are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Examples for Pressure Groups: 1. Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(FICCI) ; 2. All India trade union congress (AITUC) ; 3. All India Kisan Sabha; 4. Indian Medical
Association (IMA) ; 5. All India Students Federation (AISF) ; 6. All India Sikh Students
Federation; 7. Young Badaga Association; 8. Tamil Sangam; 9.Tamil Nadu Vivasayigal
Sangam; 10. Narmada Bachao Adolan.
1. India has adapted the electoral system followed in the
(a) USA
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
2. The Election Commission of India is a/an
(a) Independent body
(b) Statutory body
(c) Private body
(d) Public corporation
3. Which Article of the Constitution provides for an Election Commission?

(a) Article 280
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 325
4. Which part of the constitution of India says about the election commission?
(a) Part III
(b) Part XV
(c) Part XX
(d) Part XXII
5. Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or regional parties?
(a) The President
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President in consultation with the Election Commission
6. Assertion (A): Indian Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission.
Reason (R): To ensure free and fair elections in the country.
7. NOTA was introduced in the year
(a) 2012
(b) 2013
(c) 2014
(d) 2015
8. The term pressure groups originated in _____________
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) India
9. Assertion (A): A large number of pressure groups exist in India.

Reason (R): Pressure Groups are not developed in India to the same extent as in the USA.
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Election Commission of India is a body of ____________ members.
2. National Voters Day has been celebrated on ____________
3. In India _____________ party system is followed.
4. In 2017, there were ___________ recognised national parties.
5. Narmada Bachao Andolan is a _______________
1. National party - Trade unions
2. Single-party system - USA
3. Two-party system - China
4. Pressure groups - Seven
Answers:
1. United Kingdom 2. Independent 3. Article 324 4. Part XV 5. The Election Commission 6. Both
A and R are true and R explains A 7. 2014 8.USA 9. Both A and R are true and R does not explain
A
Fill in the blanks:
1. Three 2. January 25 3. Multi 4. Seven 5. Pressure Group
1. Seven 2. China 3. USA 4. Trade Unions
22] Human Rights
Do You Know?
End of Apartheid: Apartheid was the highest form of discrimination that existed in South
Africa. Places of residence were determined by racial classification. It was the governing
policy in the country by the minority whites over the majority non-whites. The people of

South Africa protested against racial discrimination. Nelson Mandela raised his voice against
apartheid. When he organised defiant campaigns against the government, he was imprisoned.
Amid growing domestic and international pressure and with the fear of a racial civil war,
President F.W. de Klerk released him in 1990. The efforts taken by Mandela and de Klerk put
an end to apartheid. In 1994, a multiracial general election was held, in which Mandela led
the African National Congress to victory and became president.
Human Rights Day is celebrated every year on 10th December. October 24 is UNO day.
WRIT is a written order from the court or other legal authority ordering to do an act or not to
do it.
Preethika Yashini won her right of employment by approaching the court according to the
Right to Constitutional remedies.
Maintenance and welfare of parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 is a legislation passed in
2007 by the Government of India. This Act is a legal obligation for children and heirs to
provide maintenance to senior citizens and parents.
Malala: Nobel Peace prize laureate says: “I loved school. But everything changed when the
fundamentalist took control of our town in Swat Valley. They said girls could no longer go to
school. I spoke out publicly on behalf of girls and our right to learn. And this made me a target.
In October 2012, on my way home from school, a masked gunman boarded my school bus and
asked, “Who is Malala?” He shot me on the left side of my head. I woke up 10 days later in a
hospital in Birmingham, England. After months of surgeries and rehabilitation, I joined my
family in our new home in the U.K. I determined to continue my fight until every girl could
go to school. Every day I fight to ensure all girls receive 12 years of free, safe, quality education.
With more than 130 million girls out of school today, there is more work to be done. I hope you
will join my fight for education and equality. Together, we can create a world where all girls
can learn and lead. If you were Malala, what would you have done? Is Malala’s fight
necessary? Are girl children treated and given education equally? The right of children to free
and compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, means that every child has a right to formal
elementary education. This right of children provides free and compulsory education till the
completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school. The child need not pay any
kind of fee for completing elementary education.
The Kavalan SOS app is launched by the Government of Tamil Nadu for public use during
emergencies. Anyone in a critical situation, not only women, can easily and directly access
the State Police Control Room using this App.
POCSO Act – Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act. The Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 regards the best interest of the child as being of paramount
importance at every state.
Salient features of POCSO Act: The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of
age, to ensure the healthy, physical, emotional, intellectual and social development of the
child. When the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority vis-à-vis

the child, like a family member, neighbours or any other acquaintances. The statement of the
child is to be recorded exactly as the child narrates. A child not to be called repeatedly to
testify. An ordinance providing the death penalty for rapists of girls below 12 years of age and
other stringent penal provisions for rape has been promulgated in April 2018. The Criminal
Law Amendment Ordinance, 2018, amended the Indian Penal Code. Another salient feature of
this amendment is that the fine imposed shall be just and reasonable to meet the medical
expenses and rehabilitation of the victim.
Kailash Satyarthi is a Nobel Peace Prize recipient and the founder of Bachpan Bachao
Andolan, and many other child rights organisations. More than 86,000 children in India have
been liberated by him and his team members from child labour, slavery and trafficking. An
80,000 km long Global March against Child Labour was led by Kailash in 1998 which turned
the world’s attention towards the issue of Child labour. He received Nobel Prize for peace in
the year 2014.
1098: Childline is India’s first 24 hours free emergency phone service for children in need of
assistance. Special are is given for vulnerable children like those affected by child labour,
child marriage and children affected by any abuse.
Child Rights in the Indian Constitution: Article-24: No Child below the age of 14 must be
employed in hazardous employment. Article-45: Free and compulsory education for all
children until they attain the age of 14 years.
Children are the foundation of any nation. When girls get married early, they lose many
privileges like childhood happiness, availing education and a healthy life. The society in turn
gets affected by child marriage. Thus child marriage should be avoided at any cost.
In Tamil Nadu, ancestral property rights were given to women through Hindu Succession
(Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act 1989. The Central Government Amended the Hindu Succession
Act in 2005. By this amendment, women are now given equal shares in inheritance of the
undivided property.
Women Labourers’ Welfare and Ambedkar: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar framed many laws for women
workers in India such as the “Mines Maternity Benefit Act”, “Women Labour Welfare Fund”,
“Women and Child Labour Protection Act”, “Maternity Benefit for Women Labour” and
“Restoration of Ban on Employment of Women on Underground Work in Coal Mines”.
Contribution of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Contribution to Labourers: Reduction in Factory Working

Hours (8 hours a day) . Compulsory Recognition of Trade Unions. Employment Exchange in
India. Employees State Insurance (ESI) . Minimum Wages for labourers. Coal and Mica Mines
Provident Fund.
It is a great victory for female workers who stand all the time more or less 12-14 hours per day
while they are working in shops and commercial malls. Female workers who are working in
shops and commercial malls are not allowed to sit or even lean on the wall. They were
allowed only 5 minutes of break two times a day to take rest. There was a strong voice against
this inhuman practice among women workers for a long time. Considering this, the

Government of Kerala has decided to redress by amending the Shops and Commercial
Establishment Act in July 2018.
1. “Apartheid” was followed by ___________
(a) South Sudan
(b) South Africa
(c) Nigeria
(d) Egypt
2. ______________ right exercise in the formation and administration of a government.
(a) Social
(b) Economic
(c) Political
(d) Cultural
3. A 10-year-old boy is working in a shop. Which right can you use to recover him?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against child labour exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of Religion
4. What is the time limit to get the information from RTI Act 2005?
(a) 20 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 35 days
5. Which of the following statements are true?
i) The State Human Rights Commission was established in 1993.
ii) It has the power of a civil court.
iii) It’s power extend beyond the state.
iv) It can also recommend compensation to victims.
(a) i and ii are true
(b) i and iii are true
(c) i, ii and iii are true
(d) ii, iii and iv are true

Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): We have a right to freedom of religions. We have to promote harmony and the
spirit of the people of other religions.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explain A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A
(c) A is correct but R is false
(d) A is false but R is correct
7. According to the UNO a child is a person who has no completed the age of ___________
years.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(d) 16
(d) 18
8. Kailash Satyarthi and Malala have been awarded Nobel Prize for ____________
(a) Literature
(b) Peace
(c) Physics
(d) Economics
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights contains _____________ articles.
2. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution by ______________

Amendment Act.
3. The National Human Rights Commission was established on ____________
4. Indian state to implement women ancestral property act in 1989 was ______________
1. Right to Vote - Cultural Rights
2. Right to form union - Right against exploitation
3. Right to preserve tradition - Political Rights
4. The Hindu Succession Act - Right to freedom
5. Child labour - 2005
Answers:

1. South Africa 2. Political 3. Right against child labour exploitation 4. 30days 5. i, ii and iv
statements are True 6. Both A and R are correct and R explain A 7. 18 8. Peace
Fill in the blanks:
1. 30 2. 42nd Amendment Act in 1996 3. 12th October 1993 4. Tamil Nadu
1. Political Rights 2. Right to freedom 3. Cultural Rights 4. 2005 5. Right against Exploitation
23] Forms of Government
Do You Know?
Which is the oldest form of government? Monarchy is the oldest form of government in the
United Kingdom. In a monarchy, a king or queen is Head of State. The British monarchy is
known as a constitutional monarchy. This means, while the Sovereign is Head of State, the
ability to make and pass legislation resides with an elected Parliament.
The relationship between the Central and the State in India: India is a union of States where
the power shared between the centre and the states, as per the procedures mentioned in the
Constitution of India. Though the powers are shared between the Central and State
Governments, the final decision is by the Central government in all matters. The relationship
between the centre and the states are: (i) Legislative relations (Articles 245 – 255) , (ii)
Administrative relations (Articles 256 – 263) , (iii) Financial relations (Articles 268 – 293) .
Both the Central and State governments have the power to make laws, but the matters differ.
The centre can make laws applicable to the whole nation on certain matters called as the
union list. The States have the powers to make laws in some matters only, applicable to their
own state, called as the State list. The concurrent list includes the subjects on which both
Central and State government have the power to make laws.
Union List: Union list has 100 subjects. These include Foreign affairs, Defence, Armed forces,
Posts and Telegraphs, inter-state trade and commerce and so on.
State List: The state list consists of 61 subjects, which include Public order in the state, police,
prisons, Local Governments, agriculture so on.
Concurrent List: The Concurrent list has 52 subjects which include Criminal and Civil
procedures, marriage and divorce, economic and special planning, newspapers, books and
printing presses, population control and so on.
Gross National Happiness (GNH): Gross National Happiness is a developing philosophy as

well as an ‘index’ which is used to measure the collective happiness in any specific nation.
The concept was first mentioned in the constitution of Bhutan, which was enacted on 18 July

2008. The term ‘Gross National Happiness’ was coined by the fourth king of Bhutan, Jigme
Singye Wangchuck in the 1970s. The GNH’s central tenets are: “Sustainable and equitable
socio-economic development; environmental conservation; preservation and promotion of
culture; and good governance”. GNH is distinguishable by valuing collective happiness as the
goal of governance and by emphasising harmony with nature and traditional values.
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________, _______________ are a few examples for unitary form of government.
2. The Parliamentary government is also known as _____________
3. In the parliamentary form of government ___________ is the leader of the majority part.
Fill in the blanks:
Country Name of the Parliament
1. USA _____________
2. Norway ______________
3. _____________ Folketing
Answers:
1. England, France 2. Cabinet Government, Responsible Government, Westminster model of

Government
3. The Prime Minister
Fill in the blanks:
1. Congress 2. Storting 3. Denmark
24] Local Self Government
Do You Know?
He tried to remove obstacles in the sphere of Local Self Government by his resolution of 1882.
He led a series of enactments in which larger powers of the local self-government were given
to the rural and urban bodies and the elected people received wider rights.
Lord Ripon: Lord Ripon was the one who gave Indians the first taste of freedom by introducing
the Local Self Government in 1882. Ripon took some steps towards liberalizing the
administration in India. He formulated the local self-government and made it clear that he
was advocating for the decentralization of administration.
Historical Origin and Development of Local Self Government in Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu has
a long history of local self-governance as is evident from the Utthiramerur stone inscriptions

of Paranthaka Chola I, in Kanchipuram District. Village republics, reached its peak during the
reign of Cholas. These Village Councils had effective links with the Chola rulers. “Kuda Olai
Murai” was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to the Village
Councils. With the downfall of Cholas, the stat experienced a decline of the village autonomy
and rise of the centralized feudal administrative system. This continued till British rules
introduced local self-governance primarily as an administrative convenience for the colonial
British Government. In the post-independence era, the first enactment in democratic
decentralization in the state was the Madras Village Panchayats Act, 1950. Pursuant to the
White Paper on the ‘Reform of Local Administration’ in 1957, the Madras Panchayats Act, 1958
and Madras District Development Council Act were enacted with the following salient
features.
Gandhi’s Concept of Gram Swaraj: Gandhi really wanted ‘Swaraj’, the self-rule by the people
of India who represent the rural mass. He observed ‘India’s soul lives in the village’. He dreamt
of village republics in terms of Panchayat in free India. Mahatma Gandhi advocated
Panchayat Raj, a decentralized form of government, where each village is responsible for its
own affairs, as the foundation of India’s political system. In simpler words, Gandhi’s ideal
village should be basically self-reliant, making provision for all necessities of life-food
clothing, clean water, sanitation, housing, education, and other requirements, including
government and self-defence.
In Tamil Nadu, there are 15 Corporations. They are in Chennai, Kovai, Madurai, Trichy,
Tirunelveli, Salem, Erode, Vellore, Tuticorin, Tiruppur, Tanjore, Dindigul, Nagarkoil, Hosur,
and Avadi.
Periyar as chairman of Municipality: Periyar E.V. Ramasamy became the Chairman of Erode
Municipality in 1917. During his tenure in Erode Municipality, Periyar works effectively for
providing piped drinking water supply and health facilities to the people. Piped water supply
scheme was implemented in 1919 by Periyar. This scheme was said to be first of kind in the
history of Indian Municipal administration.
1. Which committee was appointed by the planning commission in 1985?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) G K Rao
(d) L M Singhvi
2. The Uthiramerur stone inscription show evidences of prevelant local self-government

during the ______________ period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chola
(b) Chera

(c) Pandiya
(d) Pallava
3. The 73rd and 74th constitutional Amendment Acts, was enacted during the year in
_____________
(a) 1992
(b) 1995
(c) 1997
(d) 1990
4. ____________ act as the inspector of Village Panchayat.
(a) Commissioner
(b) District Collector
(c) Councillors
(d) Mayor
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ is known as the ‘Father of Local Governments’.
2. Restoration of ___________ has become an article of faith during our freedom struggle.
3. ______________ was the name of the secret ballot method exercised to elect members to
the village councils during the Chola period.
4. Local Government which function in villages are called ___________
5. ______________ will look after the administration of the Town Panchayat.
1. Zilla Parishad - Villages
2. Gram Sabhas - Mayor
3. Ward Committees - Chairman
4. Panchayat Union - District Collector
5. Corporation - Municipalities
Correct the statements:
1. Panchayat Union is formed by grouping of Districts.
2. District Panchayat is constituted in each village.
3. The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service
(IAS) .
4. In Village Panchayat, the President and ward members are elected by the people.

Answers:
1. G K Rao Committee 2. Cholas 3. 1992 4. District Collector
Fill in the blanks:
1. Lord Ripon 2. Panchayats 3. Kudavolai 4. Village Panchayats 5. Executive Officer
1. District Collector 2. Villages 3. Municipalities 4. Chairman 5. Mayor
Correct the statements:
1. Wrong
Panchayat Union is formed by grouping of villages.
2. Wrong
Village Panchayat is constituted in each village.
3. Correct
The Municipal Commissioner will be a person from the Indian Administration Service (IAS) .
4. Correct
In Village Panchayat, the President and ward members are elected by the people.
25] Road Safety
Do You Know?
With over 1,30,000 deaths annually India has the worst road accident rate worldwide.
Every three minutes a child is killed in an accident in the world. The main causes of death by
road accidents include: (i) Drunk and drive (40%), speeding (24%) , car boom in India (16%) ,
inefficient law enforcement (15%) and less use of helmets and seat belts (5%) ; (ii) Distractions
to drivers; (iii) Red light jumping; (iv) Overtaking in a wrong manner.
The chances of death by accident can be decreased by 51% with the proper use of seat belt and
helmet.

26] Understanding Development: Perspectives, Measurement and Sustainability
Do You Know?
Final money value of total goods and services produced within the geographic boundaries of
a country during a specified period of time, normally a year is known as Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) .
Per Capita Income: According to the World Bank report, new income measurements of
countries are classified as below (2017-18):
Types of Countries Per Capita Income (US Dollar)
1. Low Income < 1005
2. Lower Middle Income 1006 – 3955
3. Upper Middle Income 3956 – 12,235
4. High Income > 12,235
The Ministry of Human Resource Development is responsible for the development of human
resources in India. Its headquarters is situated at Shastri Bhavan in New Delhi.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu is the second highest among the southern states. Tamil Nadu’s
literacy rate is higher than the national average. The enrolment for higher education in Tamil
Nadu is the highest in India.
The Growth Story of Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu is one of the states having achieved rapid
progress with a relatively short period, despite it started from appalling levels of poverty,
deprivation and inequality. During the short period, Tamil Nadu much to the consternation of
many economists, initiated bold social programmes such as universal midday meals in
primary schools and started putting in place an extensive social infrastructure – schools,
health centres, roads, public transport, water supply, electricity connections, and much more.
Today, Tamil Nadu has some of the best public services among all Indian states, and many of
them are accessible to all on a non-discriminatory basis. Last but not least, there is no
evidence that the cultivation of human capability has been at the cost of conventional
economic success, such as fast economic growth. Tamil Nadu have some of the highest per
capita incomes and lowest poverty rates among all Indian states. Economic growth, in turn,
has enabled these states to sustain and consolidate active social policies. This is an important
example of the complementarity between economic growth and public support.
1. Assertion (A): Development increases the quality of life.
Reason (R): People will have higher incomes, better education, better health and nutrition, less
poverty.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explains (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
2. The term ‘Human resources’ refers to
(a) Investment on poor people
(b) Expenditure on agriculture
(c) Investment on assets
(d) Collective abilities of people
3. For comparing development between countries, their ___________ is considered to be one

of the most important attributes.
(a) Growth
(b) Income
(c) Expenditure
(d) Savings
4. _______________ is considered a true measure of national income.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
5. The ___________ income is also called per capita income.
(a) Average
(b) Total
(c) People
(d) Monthly
6. Which one of the following country is not a G-8 country?
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) India
7. Which one of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan

(c) China
(d) Bhutan
8. Assertion (A): The Net National Product (NNP) is considered as a true measure of national
output.
Reason (R): It is known as national income.
9. Assertion (A): Human resource is necessary for the progress of any country.
Reason (R): Investment in education and health of people can result in a high rate of returns
in the future for a country.
10. The Human Development Index (HDI) does not take into account the following dimensions
in its calculation
(a) Gender
(b) Health
(c) Education
(d) Income
11. Among the following states which states have the literacy rate (2011) higher than national
average?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
12. Sex-ratio means
a) The ratio between adult-male and adult female in population.
b) The ratio between female and male in a population
c) The relationship between male of female

d) The number of females per thousand males.
13. Inter-generational equality is ensuring under the process of
a) Industrial progress
(b) Economic development
c) Sustainable development
(d) Economic growth
14. Find the odd one
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Paper
(d) Natural gas
15. _____________ is the state with highest installed solar capacity in India.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
16. ____________ resources are those which will get exhauster after years of use.
(a) Natural
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-renewable
(d) New
17. Thermal plant emits large quantity of _________, which pollutes the environments.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon
(d) Carbon dioxide
Fill in the blanks:
1. Economic progress of any country is known as ______________
2. The headquarters of HRD ministry is in ___________
3. The state having the highest literacy rate in India is _____________
4. Human development report of the world prepared and released by ______________

5. Groundwater is an example of _____________ resource.
6. The book an uncertain glory was written by ____________
1. Development - Wild Life Protection Act
2. Human resource - Renewable resources
3. Solar energy - Part of daily life
4. 1972 - Education
Answers:
1. Both A and R is True and R explains the Statement A 2. Collective abilities of people
3. Income 4. NNP 5. Average 6. India 7. China
8. Both A and R is True and R explains the statement A
9. Both A and R is True and R explains the statement A
10. Gender 11. Tamil Nadu 12. The number of females per thousand males. 13. Sustainable
development 14. Paper 15. Tamil Nadu
16. Non-renewable 17. Carbon dioxide
Fill in the blanks:
1. Economic development 2. Sastri Bhavan, New Delhi 3. Kerala 4. Union Nation Development
Programme 5. Renewable water source 6. Prof. Amartya Sen
1. Part of daily life 2. Education 3. Renewable resources 4. Wild Life Protection Act
27] Employment in India and Tamil Nadu
In the medieval period, Feroz Shah Thuglaq, the Sultan of Delhi, had set up an “Employment
Bureau” to solve the unemployment problem.
Employment in Iruvelpattu: What is happening in the employment scenario can be

understood not only from national or state level, but also from the study of the village
economy. Iruvelpattu is one such village in Villupuram district in Tamil Nadu. This village
has been studied for more than 100 years by many scholars. This village is also called Slater
village as Gilbert Slater was the first scholar working in the University of Madras to go with
his students to study this village in 1916. Over the years, many scholars surveyed the
occupation of villagers and collected many more details of each person in the village. It was
clearly observed that the government brought social security awareness among the people of

the village through primary health care, provision of schools and maintenance of public
distribution system. Though this village underwent many changes, it is still dependent on
agriculture as the main occupation. Look at the following table or chart. You will notice that
during 1981, out of 100 families, 24% were engaged in non-agricultural labours. In 2008, the
member of families engaged in such employment increased to 41%. During 1981-2008, the
proportion of families engaged in agriculture has declined from 34% to 26% - both as
agriculture labourers and as cultivators.
1. We take age group _____________ years for computation of the workforce.
(a) 12-60
(b) 15-60
(c) 21-65
(d) 5-14
2. Which is the correct sequence of various sectors in GDP of India in the descending order?
a) Primary sector, Secondary sector, Tertiary sector
b) Primary sector, Tertiary sector, Secondary sector
c) Tertiary sector, Secondary sector, Primary sector
d) Secondary sector, Tertiary sector, Primary sector
3. Which one of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Public sector
4. Which one of the following is not in Primary sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Mining
(d) Fishery
5. Which one of the following is not in the Secondary Sector?
(a) Construction
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Small Scale Industry
(d) Forestry

6. Tertiary sector include/s
(a) Transport
(b) Insurance
(c) Banking
(d) All of these
7. Which sector is not included in the occupational pattern?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Private sector
8. Match the List I with List II using the codes given below:
I II
a) Agriculture, Forestry, Fishery and Mining - Unorganised Sector
b) Manufacturing Electricity Gas and Water Supply - Service Sector
c) Trade, Transport and Communication - Secondary Sector
d) Unincorporated Enterprises and Household industries - Primary Sector
ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
9. Which Delhi sultan of medieval India formed “Employment Bureau” to solve the
unemployment problem?
(b) Muhammad Bin Thuglaq
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Feroz Shah Thuglaq
(d) Balban
10. ______________ sector is registered and follows government rules.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Organised
(c) Unorganised
(d) Private
11. ______________ sector provides job security and higher wages.

(a) Public sector
(b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Private sector
12. Find the odd one
(a) Banking
(b) Railways
(c) Insurance
(d) Small Scale Industry
13. The sectors are classified into Public and Private Sectors on the basis of
(a) Number of workers employed
(b) Nature of economic activity
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Employment conditions
14. Assertion (A): The unorganised sector of the economy characterised by the household
manufacturing activity and small-scale industry.
Reason (R): Jobs here are low paid and often not regular.
15. People who employ workers and pay rewards for their work is termed as ___________
(a) Employee
(b) Employer
(c) Labour
(d) Caretaker
16. _____________ continues to be the largest employer in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Banking
(d) Small Scale Industry
Fill in the blanks:
1. In _____________ sector, the employment terms are not fixed and regular.

2, Economic activities are classified into ____________ and ___________ sectors.
3. _____________ has always featured as an important element of development policy in

India.
4. Employment pattern changes due to ______________
5. The nature of employment in India is _____________
6. _____________ of the economy is the number of people in the country, who work and also
capable of working.
7. Public sector means ___________
1. Public sector - a. Banking
2. Private sector - b. Poultry
3. Primary sector - c. Profit motive
4. Tertiary sector - d. Service motive
Answers:
1.15-60 2. Primary sector, Tertiary sector, Secondary sector 3. Primary Sector 4. Manufacturing
5. Forestry 6. Transport, Insurance
and Banking 7. Private Sector 8. A. Primary Sector B. Secondary Sector C. Service Sector D.
Unorganized Sector
9. Feroz Shah Thuglaq 10. Organised 11. Organised Sector 12. Small Scale Industry 13.
Ownership of enterprises
14. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explains (A) 15. Employee 16. Agriculture
Fill in the blanks:
1. Unorganized 2. Public and Private 3. Employment 4. Lifestyle of the people
5. Multi-dimensional 6. Labour force 7. Government undertaking
1. Service motive 2. Profit motive 3. Banking 4. Poultry

28] Money and Credit
Do You Know?
During his rule (1540-1546) Sher Shah Suri set up a new civic and military administration and
issued a coin of silver weighing 178 grams, which was termed the Rupiya. The silver coin
remained in use during the Mughal period, the Maratha era and in British India as well.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s Ph.D thesis on “The Problem of the Rupee – Its origin and solution” was
the reference tool and provided guidelines for the Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934.
How is currency printed in India? One rupee and two rupee notes were first printed in India
in the year 1917. The Reserve Bank of India is empowered to issue the Government of India
notes since 1935. 500 rupee note currency was introduced later. In 1940, one Rupee notes were
issued again. Till 1947, the currency notes with the image of King George VI were in
circulation. After Independence, the Government of India issued currency notes. In 1925, the
British government established a government press at Nasik in Maharashtra. Currencies
were printed three years later. In 1974, a press was started in Dewas, Madhya Pradesh.
(Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd.) In the 1990s, two more presses were
started in Mysuru, Karnataka and Salboni in West Bengal to print bank notes. The Reserve
Bank of India has the authority to decide the value of currency to be printed and how the
amount should reach its destination safely. Though the RBI has the power to print up to ten
thousand rupee notes, at present a maximum of up to rupees two thousand is printed.
1. Certain metals like _____________ (gold/iron) were used as a medium of exchange in

ancient times.
2. The Head Quarters of the RBI is at _____________ (Chennai/Mumbai) .
3. International trade is carried on in terms of ___________ (US Dollars/Pounds) .
4. The currency of Japan is _________ (Yen/Yuan) .
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ system can be considered as the first form of trade.
2. Money supply is divided into _____________
3. The first printing press of the RBI was started at ____________
4. _____________ act as a regulator of the circulation of money.
5. The thesis about money by B.R. Ambedkar is ______________
1. US Dollar - Automatic Teller Machine
2. Currency in circulation - Substitute of money

3. ATM - Universally accepted currency
4. Salt - Saudi Arabia
5. Riyal - 85%
a) 1. The barter system flourished wherever civilizations thrived.
2. This was the initial form of trade.
(i) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
b) 1. Most of the international trade transactions are carried out in US dollars.
2. No other country except the US carries out trade in the world.
(i) Both the statements are correct
(ii) Both the statements are wrong
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answers:
1. Gold 2. Mumbai 3. US Dollars 4. Yen
Fill in the blanks:
1. Barter 2. Four 3. Nasik in Maharashtra 4. The Reserve Bank of India 5. The problem of the
Rupee- its origin and solution
1. Universally accepted currency 2. 85% 3. Automated Teller Machine 4. Substitute of money

5. Saudi Arabia
Consider the following the statements and best answer:
a) Both 1 and 2 statements are correct.
b) Statement 1 is correct; 2 is wrong

29] Agriculture in Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
The area under irrigation is about 57 percent of the total area under cultivation.
Virtual water: The term “virtual water” was introduced by Tony Allen in 1990. The water
consumed in the production process of an agricultural or industrial product is called “virtual
water”. It is the hidden flow of water when food or other commodities are traded from one
place to another. For instance, it takes 1340 cubic metres of water (based on the world average)
to produce one metric ton of wheat. That is, if one metric ton of wheat is exported to another
country, it means that 1340 cubic metres of water used to cultivate this amount of wheat is
also being exported. India is the largest global freshwater user. India has been the fifth largest
exporter of virtual water in the world.
Micro irrigation: Micro irrigation technology is a very good remedial measure to tackle
shortage in irrigational water. This irrigation technology helps to have a higher yield when
compared to the traditional irrigation methods. As only required amount of water is supplied
at regular intervals, it increases the ability of water usage and productivity of the crop
resulting in reduction of labour expenses and weed growth in the field. As the fertilizer is
distributed through water, it increases the usage of fertilizer and the yield. As Tamil Nadu
gets insufficient rainfall, the government has taken many measures to implement micro
irrigation for proper distribution of water to crops that require more water.
River Cauvery is the 3rd largest river in South India. Its length is 765 km. The dams constructed
across Cauvery in Tamil Nadu are Mettur Dam, Kallanai.
1. Irrigated land surface out of cultivable land is
(a) 27%
(b) 57%
(c) 28%
(d) 49%
2. Out of the following, which is not a food crop?
(a) Bajra
(b) Ragi
(c) Maize
(d) Coconut
3. The productivity of paddy during the year 2014-2015
(a) 3,039 kg

(b) 4,429 kg
(c) 2,775 kg
(d) 3,519 kg
4. Both agricultural productivity and food productivity has
(a) Decreased
(b) Not stable
(c) Remained stable
(d) Increase
5. The North-East monsoon period in Tamil Nadu.
(a) August-October
(b) September-November
(c) October-December
(d) November-January
Fill in the blanks:
1. The major occupation of people in Tamil Nadu is ______________
2. Tamil Nadu receives rainfall all from the _____________ monsoon.
3. The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is ______________ hectares.
1. Non-food crops - 79, 38,000
2. Dhal - Less than 1 hectare of cultivable land
3. North east monsoon - October-December
4. Small farmers - Urad Dal, Toor Dal, Green grams
5. No. of farmers in 2015-2016 - Coconut, Channa
Answers:
1.57% 2. Coconut 3. 4429kg 4. Increase 5. October-December
Fill in the blanks:
1. Agriculture 2. North-East 3. One crore 30 lakh 33 thousand hectares
1. Coconut, Channa 2. Urad Dal, Toor Dal, Green grams 3. October-December 4. Less than 1
hectare of cultivable land 5. 79, 38,000

30] Migration
Do You Know?
The largest migration corridor in the world in 2010 was Mexico – U.S.A. The Arctic tern has
the longest migration distance of any bird in the world.
1. According to the 2011 census, the total population of India was ______________
(a) 121 crore
(b) 221 crore
(c) 102 crore
(d) 100 crore
2. ______________ has recorded the maximum number of emigrants.
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Vellore
3. During 2015, ______________ of illiterates were migrants from Tamil Nadu.
(a) 7%
(b) 175%
(c) 23%
(d) 9%
4. The poorer sections of the population migrate ______________
(a) As a survival strategy
(b) To improve their living standards
(c) As a service
(d) To get experience
Fill in the blanks:
1. Migration is enumerated on ____________ and _____________ bases.
2. The mobility of population in rural areas is ______________ than urban areas.
3. In rural India, as per census 2011, _______________ percent of the population are counted
as migrants.
4. ____________ is the major reason for female migration.

5. Any migrant stream would consist of _____________ sub streams.
1. Migration policy - Work
2. Female migrants - Low incidence of immigration
3. Chennai - Maximum number of emigration
4. Better off migrants - Marriage
5. Salem - To reduce the volume of migration
6. Male migrants - To improve the living standards
Answers:
1. 121 crores 2. Chennai 3. 7% 4. As a survival strategy
Fill in the blanks:
1.Place of birth and Place of residence 2. Higher 3. 37% 4. Marriage 5. Heterogeneous
1. To reduce the volume of migration 2. Marriage 3. Maximum number of emigration
4. Low incidence of immigration 5. To improve the living standards

1] Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath
Do You Know?
A trust is an industrial organisation engaged in the production or distribution of any
commodity. The trust would possess adequate control over the supply and price of that
commodity to its own advantage.
Trench Warfare: Trenches or ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers to safely stand and
protect themselves from enemy fire. The main lines of trenches were connected to each other
and to the rear by a series of linking trenches through which food, ammunition, fresh troops,
mail, and orders were delivered.
President Wilson laid down his Fourteen Points, which were to be followed by the Allies. The
most important one he highlighted was the need for ‘a general association of nations for the
purpose of affording mutual guarantees of political independence and territorial integrity to
great and small states like’.
The revolutionary Tamil poet Bharathiyar cheerfully welcomed the revolution in Russia by
penning these poetic lines…
The Mother Great, the Power supreme,
Turned her glance benign towards Russia,

The Revolution of the Age,
Behold the wonder, rises high
The tyrant howling falls down limp,
The shoulders of the heavenly gods,
Are swelling now with joy and pride,
Eyes hot with unshed tears, the demons,
Perish. O people of the world,
Behold this mighty change!
Pravda is a Russian word meaning “Truth”. It was the official newspaper of the Communist
Party of the Soviet Union from 1918 to 1991.
Lenin was born in 1870 near the Middle Volga to educated parents. Influenced by the ideas of
Karl Marx, Lenin believed that the way for freedom was through mass action. Lenin gained
the support of a small majority (bolshinstvo) , known as Bolsheviks, which became the
Bolshevik Part. His opponents, in minority (menshinstvo) , were called Mensheviks.
1. What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
2. Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth
century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
3. Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-Sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
4. What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) Air warfare
(b) Trench warfare
(c) Submarine warfare
(d) Ship warfare

5. To which country did the first Secretary General of League of Nations belong?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Dutch
(d) USA
6. Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Fill in the blanks:
1. Japan forced a war on China in the year ____________
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of ______________ signed in
May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ______________
4. In the Balkans _____________ has mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg ______________ suffered heavy losses.
6. _______________ as Prime minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year ____________
1. i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans.
ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers.
iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople.
iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
(c) iv is correct
(d) i, ii and iv are correct
2. Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods
and capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(d) R is right but A is wrong

3. Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody
battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
(d) R is right but A is wrong
1. Treaty of Brest – Litovsk - Versailles
2. Jingoism - Turkey
3. Kemal Pasha - Russia with Germany
4. Emden - England
5. Hall of Mirrors – Madras
Answers:
1. Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans 2. Japan 3. Lenin 4. trench warfare 5. Britain
6. Russia
Fill in the blanks:
1. 1894 2. London 3. 1902 4. Macedonia 5. Russia 6. Clemenceau 7. 1925

1. i) and ii) are correct
2. Both A and R are wrong
3. A is right but R is not the correct reason
1.Treaty of Brest- Litovsk - Russia with Germany

2.Jingoism – England
3.Kemal Pasha - Turkey
4.Emden - Madras
5.Hall of Mirrors - Versailles

2] The World Between Two World Wars
Do You Know?
Gold Standard is a monetary system where a country’s currency or paper money carried a
value directly linked to gold.

Fascism: It is a form of radical authoritarian ultra-nationalism, characterised by dictatorial
power, forcible suppression of opposition and strong regimentation of society and of the
economy, which came to prominence in early 20th – century Europe.
Social Democratic Party was founded as the General German Workers Association on 23 May
1863 in Leipzig. Founder was Ferdinand Lassalle. German elites of the late 19 th century
considered the very existence of a socialist party a threat to the security and stability of the
newly unified Reich, and so Bismark outlawed this party from 1878 to 1890. However, in 1945,
with the fall of Hitler, the Social Democratic Party was revived. It was the only surviving party
from the Weimar period with a record of opposition to Hitler.
Decolonisation is a process through which colonial powers transferred institutional and legal
control over their colonies to the indigenous nationalist governments.
Ho Chi Minh (1890 – 1969) was born in Tongking. When Ho Chi Minh was twenty one, he
went to Europe. After working as a cook in a London hotel, he went to Paris. In the Paris peace
conference, he lobbied for the independence for Vietnam. His articles in newspapers and
especially the pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam
nationalist. In 1921 he became a founder-member of the French Communist party. Two years
later he went to Moscow and learnt revolutionary techniques then. In 1925, he founded the
Revolutionary Youth Movement.
The descendents of original Dutch settlers of South Africa, also known as Afrikaners, were
called Boers. Their language is Afrikaans.
Apartheid in South Africa: Apartheid, which means separateness, became the racial policy of
the Nationalist Party in 1947. From 1950 onwards a series of laws came to be enforced. The
whole country was divided into separate areas for the different races. Marriage between
white and non-white was forbidden. Nearly all schools were brought under government
control so that education different from that the Whites could be implemented for Africans.
University education was also segregated. Apartheid is based on the belief that the political
equality of White and Black in South Africa would mean Black rule. The ANC which fought
the practice of racism was banned and its leader Nelson Mandela was put behind bars.
Mounting pressure at the global level helped to end the racist regime in South Africa. In 1990
the ban on ANC was lifted and Mandela freed after 27 years. In the elections held subsequently
the Africans were allowed to vote and ANC won the election and Mandela became the first
black president of South Africa. Even though apartheid was dismantled the Whites
completely dominate the economic sphere.
Dollar Imperialism: The term used to describe the policy of the USA in maintaining and
dominating over distant lands through economic aid.
1. With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
2. With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?

(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
3. Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russians
(d) French
4. Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
5. Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Fill in the blanks:
1. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was ______________
2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by ______________
3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in _____________
4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as _______________
5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May _______________
6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ______________ years.
7. Boers were also known as ____________
1. i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the
Southern Front.
ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
(b) iii is correct

2. Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism
affected the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor
countries.
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
3. Assertion: The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had resolved that Africa should be
divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of
this resolution.
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
1. Transvaal - Germany
2. Tongking - Hitler
3. Hindenburg - Italy
4. Third Reich - Gold
5. Matteotti - Guerilla activities
Answers:
1. Pope 2. Hernan Cortes 3. Spaniards 4. Roosevelt 5. Latin America

Fill in the blanks:
1. Ferdinand Lassalle 2. Josef Goebbeels 3. 1927 4. Gestapo 5. 1910 6. 27 7. Afrikaners

1. i) , ii) and iii) are correct 2. R is right but it has no relevance to A

3. A is right but R is not the right reason
1.Transvaal - Gold
2.Tongking – Guerilla activities
3.Hindenburg – Germany

4.Third Reich – Hitler
5.Matteotti – Italy

3] World War II
Do You Know?
The word ‘holocaust’ is used to describe genocide of nearly six million Jews by the Germans
during World War II. Annihilating the Jews was one of the main items on the political agenda
of Hitler and the Nazis. Hitler was able to play on the anti-Jewish feelings (anti-Semitism)
which were common in Germany and, in fact, throughout Europe. Jews were scattered all
across Europe and many had become prominent in business, in performing arts and
professional fields. Money-lending was a major business activity among Jews and this
strengthened the prejudice against them. Shakespeare’s play, The Merchant of Venice clearly
depicts the dislike and distrust of Jews among the people.
“We, the peoples of the United Nations, determined to save succeeding generations from
scourge of war, which twice in our lifetime has brought untold sorrow to mankind, and to
reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person,
in the equal rights of men and women, and of nations large and small…” – from the Preamble
to the United Nations.
The objectives of the IMF are: “to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability,
facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth
and reduce poverty around the world”.
1. When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945
(b) 2 October, 1945
(c) 15 August, 1945
(d) 12 October, 1945
2. Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Baldwin
3. Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Gudalcanal
(b) Battle of Midway
(c) Battle of Leningrad
(d) Battle of El Alamein

4. Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki
(b) Innoshima
(c) Hiroshima
(d) Nagasaki
5. Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians
(b) Arabs
(c) Turks
(d) Jews
6. Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Lloyd George
(d) Stanley Baldwin
7. When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942
(b) June 26, 1945
(c) January 1, 1942
(d) January 1, 1945
Fill in the blanks:
1. Hitler attacked ______________ which was a demilitarised zone.
2. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as ______________
3. ___________ started the Lend Lease programme.
4. Britain Prime Minister ______________ resigned in 1940.
5. ______________ is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
1. Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had a change its policy of
isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.

1. Blitzkrieg - Roosevelt
2. Royal Navy - Stalingrad
3. Lend Lease - Solomon Island
4. Volga - Britain
5. Guadalcanal - Lightning strike
Answers:
1. 2 September, 1945 2. Woodrow Wilson 3. Battle of Midway 4. Hiroshima 5. Jews 6.

Chamberlain 7. June 26, 1945
Fill in the blanks:
1. Rhineland 2. Axis power 3. US – President Roosevelt 4. Chamberlin 5. Radar

1. A is right but R is not the correct reason

1.Blitzkrieg – Lightning strike

2.Royal Navy – Britain
3.Lend Lease – Roosevelt
4.Volga – Stalingrad
5.Guadalcanal – Solomon land

4] The World After World War II
Do You Know?
Dr. Sun Yat-sen (1866-1925): Born in a poor family near Canton, Dr. Sun Yat-sen, the father of
modern china was educated in a mission school and became a Christian. He was then trained
as a doctor of medicine in Hong Kong. Evincing interest in politics he took part in a rising
against the Manchus in 1895. In 1905 he founded in Tokyo the political party which in 1912
became the Kuomintang or the National People’s Party. Dr. Sun Yat-sen’s three principles
were Nationalism, Democracy, and the People’s livelihood with Socialism as the ultimate
object.
Mao Tse-tung (1893-1976): Mao was born in Hunan in south-east China. His father was a
wealthy peasant, and a firm supporter of the Manchus. Mao, who was very fond of reading,
soon showed his ability and entered the Junior College at Changsha. This was the year (1911)
when the Revolution had broken out in China. Mao joined the revolutionary army but soon
left and enrolled in the Teacher’s Training College in Changsha. In the following year Mao
began his full-fledged political activities of Human and emerged as a staunch Communist.
The United States was much concerned that poverty, unemployment, and dislocation caused
by the post-World War II period were increasing the appeal of communist parties in Western
Europe. The Secretary of State, George C. Marshall, advanced the idea of a European self-help

programme to be financed by the United States. Sixteen nations, became part of this
programme. Administrative and technical assistance was offered through the Economic
Cooperation Administration (ECA) of the United States. Marshall Plan funding ended in 1951.
Cold War: The rivalry that developed after World War II between the US and the USSR and
their respective allies created tension which is referred to as Cold War. They did not take
recourse to weapons. Instead they waged war on political, economic and ideological fronts.
Zionist Movement: In Palestine, the ancient home of Jews, only a few thousand Jews were
living in 1900. Some 15 million were scattered around Europe and North America. (This is
referred to as the Diaspora) . In 1896 Thodore Herzel, a Viennese journalist, published a
pamphlet called The Jewish State in which he called for the creation of a Jewish national
home. Next year (1897) the World Zionist Organisation was founded.
Yasser Arafat (1924-2004): In 1969, Yasser Arafat became chairman of the PLO’s executive
committee a position he held until his death in 2004. Yasser Arafat was appointed
commander-in-chief of the all Palestinian Arab guerrilla forces in September 1970. Wearing
a disguised pistol and carrying an olive branch and dressed in a military uniform, his
appearance raised world awareness of the Palestinian cause. Arafat was elected by the
central council of the PLO as the first president of the state of Palestine on April 2, 1989.
Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO): It is an umbrella political organization representing
the world’s Palestinians – all Arabs and their descendants who lived in mandated Palestine
before the creation of the State of Israel in 1948. It was formed in 1964 to federate various
Palestinian groups that previously had operated as clandestine resistance movements.
Yasser Arafat was its most prominent leader.
Helmut Kohl, Chancellor of West Germany from 1982 to 1990, and played a crucial role in
integrating East Germany into West Germany in 1990. He thus became the first chancellor of
a unified Germany after forty five years of division. Which French president Mitterand, Kohl
was the architect of the Maastricht Treaty, which established the European Union (EU) and
the euro currency.
Perestroika (‘restructuring’) refers to the programme introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev in the
late 1980s to restructure Soviet economic and political system. Along with the policy of
‘Glasnost’ (‘openness’) , Perestroika was intended to energize Soviet economy which was
lagging behind the developed countries of the capitalist world.
Glasnost (‘openness’) was a policy of ideologically openness introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev
along with Perestroika in the 1980s. Under Glasnost there was more openness, writers who
had been censored earlier were rehabilitated, and there was space for criticism of politics and
government.
Yeltsin was first an ally of Gorbachev. However, as Mayor of Moscow, Yeltsin won great
popularity as a champion of political and economic freedom. With Gorbachev’s introduction
of democratic elections for the Soviet parliament, Yeltsin was returned to power with
overwhelming support of a Moscow constituency in 1989. The following year he was elected
President of Russia over Gorbachev’s objections. President Yeltsin advocated greater
autonomy of the Russian Republic, with executive presidential system that would allow him
to govern independently of parliament.

1. Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
2. When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
3. The United States and Europeans allies formed ____________ to resist any Soviet
aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
4. Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser
(d) Saddam Hussein
5. When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
6. When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ was known as the “Father of modern China”.
2. In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in _____________ University.
3. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ______________

4. ___________ treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
5. The treaty of ____________ provided for mandates in Turkish – Arab Empire.
6. Germany joined the NATO in ______________
7. ______________ was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
8. _______________ treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
1. i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated minority, initiated
a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand
of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
(c) i and iii are correct
2. i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern
Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining
ground in the region.
iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the
USSR.
(a) ii, iii and iv are correct
3. Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged Europe.
Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshall Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe
under its influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen - South Vietnam

2. Syngman Rhee - Kuomintung
3. Anwar Sadat - South Korea
4. Ho-Chi Minh - Egypt
5. Ngo Dinh Diem - North Vietnam
Answers:
1. Truman 2. September 1949 3. NATO 4. Yasser Arafat 5. 1976 6. 1991

Fill in the blanks:
1. Dr. Sun Yat – Sen 2. Peking 3. Chiang Kai- Shek 4. Central 5. Versailles 6. 1955 7. Strasbourg
8. The Maastricht
1. (i) and (iii) are correct 2. (i) and (ii) are correct
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
1.Dr. Sun Yat-Sen - Kuomintung

2.Syngman Rhee - South Korea
3.Anwar Sadat – Egypt
4.Ho-Chi Minh - North Vietnam
5.Ngo Dinh Diem - South Vietnam

5] Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century
Do You Know?
It was also to the credit of Vidyasagar that the first age of consent was included in the Indian
Penal code, which was enacted in 1860. The age for marriage was fixed as ten years. It was
raised to twelve and thirteen years in 1891 and 1925 respectively. Sadly, as reported in the Age
of Consent Committee (1929) , the law remained on paper and the knowledge of it was
confined to judges, lawyers and a few educated men.
Ramalinga bore witness to hunger and poverty in the country: “I saw poor people, emaciated
with hunger and terribly weary, going to every house, yet their hunger was not removed, and
my heart suffered intensely. Those who suffer with relentless disease, I saw them in front of
me and my heart trembled. I saw those people, poor and of unmatched honour, their hearts
weary and I grew weak”.
1. In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826

(d) 1927
2. What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
3. Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
4. Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
5. Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
6. Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Ayyankali
7. Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Iyothee Thassar
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ found the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ____________
3. Gulumgir was written by _______________

4. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ___________
5. _______________ was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
6. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by _____________
1. (i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism.
(ii) He encouraged idolatry.
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils.
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck.
(a) i is correct
(c) i, ii and iii are correct
(d) i, iii and iv are correct
2. (i) Prathana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang.
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged inter-dining and inter-caste marriage.
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had its origin in the Punjab.
(a) i is correct
(b) ii is correct
(c) i, and ii are correct
3. (i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health
care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission.
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal.
(a) i is correct
(c) iii is correct
4. Assertion: Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows.
Reason: Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage.
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant

1. Oru paisa Tamilan - Widows Remarriage Reform Act
2. Thiruvarutpa - Nirankari
3. Baba Dayal Das - Adi Brama Samaj
4. Iswarchandra Vidyasagar - Hournal
5. Debendranath - Songs of Grace
Answers:
1. 1829 2. Arya Samaj 3. Iswarchandra Vidyasagar 4. Parsi movement 5. Baba Ramsingh 6. M.G.
Ranade 7. Dayananda Saraswathi
Fill in the blanks:
1. Ramalinga Swamigal 2. M.G. Ranade 3. Jyotiba Phule 4. Swami Vivekananda 5. Singh Sabha
6. Iyothee Thassar
1. i) , iii) and iv) are correct

4. Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
1.Oru paisa Tamilan – Journal

2.Thiruvarutpa - Songs of Grace
3.Baba Dayal Das - Nirankari
4.Iswarchandra Vidyasagar – Widow remarriage act
5.Debendranath – Adi Bramo Samaj

6] Early Revolts against British Rule in Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
Gopala Nayak, the Palayakkarar of Virupachi: Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous
Dindugal League, which was formed with Lakshmi Nayak of Manaparai and Poojai Nayak of
Devadanapatti. He drew inspiration from Tipu Sultan who sent a deputation to show his
camaraderie. He led the resistance against the British from Coimbatore and later joined
Oomaidurai,Kattabomman’s brother. He put up a fierce at Aanamalai hills where the local
peasants gave him full support. But Gopala Nayak was overpowered by the British forces in
1801.
Ondiveeran: Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Puli Thevar. Fighting by the side of Puli
Thevar, he caused much damage to the Company’s army. According to oral tradition, in one

battle, Ondiveeran’s hand was chopped off and Puli Thevar was saddened. But Ondiveeran
said it was a reward for his penetration into enemy’s fort causing many heads to roll.
Kuyili, a faithful friend of Velunachiyar, is said to have led the unit of women soldiers named
after Udaiyaal. Udaiyaal was a shepherd girl who was killed for not divulging information on
Kuyili. Kuyili is said to have walked into the British arsenal (1780) after setting herself on fire,
thus destroying all the ammunition.
1. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial
aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachityar
(d) Veerapandya Kattabomman
2. Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
3. Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
4. Who issued the Tiruchirappalli proclamation of Independence?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Veerapandya Kattabomman
(d) Gopala Nayak
5. When did the Vellore Revolt breakout?
(a) 24 May 1805
(b) 10 July 1805
(c) 10 July 1806
(d) 10 September 1806
6. Who was the Commander-in-Chief responsible for the new military regulations in Vellore
fort?
(a) Col. Fancourt

(b) Major Armstrong
(c) Sir John Cradock
(d) Colonel Agnew
7. Where were the sons of Tipu Sultan sent after the Vellore Revolt?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mysore
Fill in the blanks:
1. The Palayakkarars system was put in place in Tamil Nadu by ______________
2. Velunachiyar and her daughter were under the protection of ___________ for eight years.
3. Bennerman deputed _______________ to convey his message, asking Kattabomman to
surrender.
4. Kattabomman was hanged to death at _____________
5. The Rebellion of Marudhu Brothers was categorized in the British records as the
_______________
6. ______________ was declared the new Sultan by the rebels in Vellore Fort.
1. (i) The Palayakkarars system was in practice in the Kakatiya Kingdom.
(ii) Puli Thevar recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764 after the death of Khan Sahib.
(iii) Yusuf Khan who was negotiating with the Palayakkarars, without informing the
Company administration was charged with treachery and hanged in 1764.
(iv) Ondiveeran led one of the army units of Kattabomman.
(a) i, ii and iv are correct
(b) i, ii and iii are correct
2. (i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
(ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted
Velunachiyar in restoring the throne to her.
(iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
(iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
(c) ii, iii and iv are correct

3. Assertion (A): Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with
the Marathas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
1. Theerthagiri - Vellore Revolt
2. Gopala Nayak - Ramalinganar
3. Bannerman - Dindigul
4. Suberdar Sheik Adam - Vellore Fort
5. Col. Fancourt – Odanilai
Answers:
1. Puli Thevar 2. Puli Thevar 3. Nagalapuram 4. Marudhu brothers 5. 10 July 1806 6. Sir John
Cradock 7. Calcutta
Fill in the blanks:
1. Viswanatha Nayaka 2. Gopala Nayak 3. Ramalinga Mudaliar 4. Kayathar 5. South Indian

Rebellion 6. Fateh Hyder
1. (i) , (ii) and (iii) are correct

2. (ii) and (iii) are correct
3. (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
1.Theerthagiri – Odanilai
2.Gopala Nayak – Dindigul
3.Bannerman – Ramalinganar
4.Subedar Sheik Adam – Vellore revolt
5.Col. Fancourt – Vellore fort

7] Anti – Colonial Movements and the Birth of Nationalism
1. Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatuallah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion

(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
2. Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine
law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
3. Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under
Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
4. Find out the militant nationalist from the following:
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
5. When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
6. What was the context in which the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
7. Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak

8. Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play
Nil darpan?
(a) Dina Bandhu mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement which originated in and
around 1827.
2. The major tribal revolt which took place in Chotanagpur region was _____________
3. The ________________ Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
4. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year _______________
5. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year.
1. (i) The Company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the
industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831 – 1832, which was directed against government
officers and moneylenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers, Sidhu and Kanu, led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) i, ii and iii are correct
(d) i, and iv are correct
2. (i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the
formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary
reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of Partition of Bengal was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the
nationalist movement.
(b) i, ii and iv are correct
3. Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, government claimed
a direct proprietary right over forests.

Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
1. Wahhabi Rebellion - Lucknow
2. Munda Rebellion - Peshwa Baji Rao II
3. Begum Hazarat Mahal - Titu Mir
4. Kunwar Singh - Ranchi
5. Nana Sahib – Bihar
Answers:
1. Farazi Movement 2. Dudu Mian 3. Santhals 4. Bipin Chandra pal 5. 16 October 1905 6. Munda
Rebellion 7. Tilak
8. Dina Bandhu Mitra
Fill in the blanks:
1. Wahhabi rebellion 2. Kol revolt 3. Chotanagpur Tenancy act 4. 1908 5. 1885


2. (i) , (iii) , and (iv) are correct
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
4. (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
1.Wahhabi Rebellion – Titu Mir

2.Munda Rebellion – Ranchi
3.Begum Hazarat Mahal – Lucknow
4.Kunwar Singh – Bihar
5.Nana Sahib - Peshwa Baji Rao II

8] Nationalism: Gandhian Phase
Do You Know?
Dyarchy, a system of dual government introduced under the Government of India Act 1919,
divided the powers of the provincial government into Reserved and Transferred subjects. The
Reserved Subjects comprising finance, defence, the police, justice, land revenue and irrigation
were in the hands of the British. The Transferred Subjects that included local self-government,
education, public health, public works, agriculture, forests and fisheries were left under the
control of Indian ministers. The system ended with the introduction of provincial autonomy
in 1935.
The British enacted the first forest act in 1865. This act restricted the access of the forest
dwellers to the forest areas to collect firewood, cattle fodder and other minor forest produce
such as honey, seeds, nuts, medicinal herbs. The Indian Forest Act of 1878 claimed that
original ownership of forests was with the state. Waste lands and fallow lands were included
as forest. Shifting cultivation practiced by, the tribal people, was prohibited. Alienation of
forests from local control was stiffly resisted by the aggrieved adivasis (tribals) and the
nationalists. The most striking evidence of continuing struggles of the tribal groups was the
one waged by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Rampa. Raju’s efforts at fighting corrupt officials to
protect the interests of Rampa tribals prompted the British to target his life. A special Malabar
Police team was sent to quell the uprisings (1922-24) of Rampa Adivasis. Allure Sitarama Raju
attained martyrdom for the cause of forest dwellers.
‘Real Swaraj will come not by acquisition of authority by a few, but by the acquisition of the
capacity by all to resist authority, when abused.
1. Who was arrested during the anti-Rowlatt protests in Amritsar?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew
(c) Mohamed Ali
(d) Raj Kumar Shukla
2. In which session of the Indian National Congress was Non-Cooperation approved?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Nagpur
3. Which among the following was declared as ‘Independence Day’?
(a) 26th January
(b) 26th December 1929
(c) 16th June 1946
(d) 15th January 1947

4. When was the first Forest Act enacted?
(a) 1858
(b) 1911
(c) 1865
(d) 1936
5. On 8 January 1933 which day was observed _____________
(a) Temple Entry Day
(b) Day of Deliverance
(c) Direct Action Day
(d) Independence Day
6. Which Act introduced Provincial Autonomy?
(a) 1858 Act
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Fill in the blanks:
1. Gandhi regarded _____________ as his political guru.
2. Khilafat Movement was led by _______________
3. Government of India Act 1919 introduced _____________ in the provinces.
4. The Civil Disobedience Movement in North West Frontier Province was led by
______________
5. Ramsay Macdonald announced ______________ which provided separate electorates to
the minorities and the depressed classes.
6. ______________ established Congress Radio underground during the Quit India Movement.
1. (i) The Communist Party of India was founded in Tashkent in 1920.
(ii) M. Singaravelar was tried in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case.
(iii) The Congress Socialist Party was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra
Dev and Mino Masani.
(iv) The Socialists did not participate in the Quit India Movement.
(c) iv is correct
2. Assertion: The Congress attended the First Round Table Conference.

Reason: Gandhi-Irwin Pact enabled the Congress to attend the Second Round Table
Conference.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
3. Assertion: The Congress Ministries resigned in 1939.
Reason: The Colonial government of India entered the war without consulting the elected
Congress ministries.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
1. Rowlatt Act - Surrender of titles
2. Non- Cooperation Movement - Dyarchy
3. Government of India Act, 1919 - M.N. Roy
4. Communist Party of India - Direct Action Day
5. 16th August 1946 - Black Act
Answers:
1. Saifuddin Kitchlew 2. Nagpur 3. 26th January 1930 4. 1865 5. Temple Entry Day 6.
Government of India Act, 1935
Fill in the blanks:
1. Gopala Krishna Gokhale 2. AH brothers 3. Dyarchy 4. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 5.

Communal award 6. Usha Mehta

2. A is wrong but R is correct
3. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
1.Rowlatt Act - Black Act

2.Non -Cooperation Movement - Surrender of titles
3.Government of India Act, 1919 - Dyarchy
4.Communist Party of India - M.N. Roy
5.16th August 1946 - Direct Action Day

9] Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
Prominent Nationalist of Tamil Nadu in the Moderate phase: The early nationalists believed
in constitutional methods. Their activities consisted of conducting hall meetings and
deliberating the problems of the country in English. When, at the time of Partition of Bengal,
Tilak and other leaders adopted popular methods such as mass public meetings, and used
vernacular languages to address the larger public, the early nationalists came to be known as
moderates. The distinguished Tamil Moderates from Madras: V.S. Srinivasa Sastri, P.S.
Sivasamy, V. Krishnasamy, T.R. Venkatramanar, G.A Natesan, T.M. Madhava Rao and S.
Subramaniar.
Tamil Nadu was then part of the Madras Presidency which included large parts of the
present-day states of Andhra Pradesh (Coastal districts and Rayalaseema) , Karnataka
(Bengaluru, Bellary, South Canara) , Kerala (Malabar) and even Odisha (Ganjam) .
George Joseph: George Joseph, a barrister and eloquent speaker, played a leading role in
organising and publicising the cause of Home Rule League in Madurai. Though born in
Chengannur (Alappuzha district, Kerala State) , he chose to settle down in Madurai and
practice as a people’s lawyer. He was fondly called “Rosaappu Durai” by the people of Madurai
for the services he rendered to the affected communities.
Agitation for Removal of Neill Statue (1927): James Neill of the Madras Fusiliers (infantry
men with firearms) was brutal in wreaking vengeance at Kanpur (‘the Cawnpur massacre; as
it was called) in which many English women and children were killed in the Great Rebellion
of 1857. Neill was later killed by an Indian sepoy. A statue was erected for him at Mount Road,
Madras. Nationalists saw this as an insult to Indian sentiments, and organised a series of
demonstrations in Madras. The statue was finally moved to Madras Museum when Congress
Ministry, led by C. Rajaji, formed the government in 1937.
1. Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
2. Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
3. Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari

(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
4. Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurti
(b) Kasturirangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
5. Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) K. Kamaraj
(b) C. Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
6. Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
2. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society named _______________
3. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by
___________
4. ___________ formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
5. _____________ was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
6. ______________ hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.
1. (i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in
India.
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an ectremist.
(b) iii is correct
(c) iv is correct
(d) All are correct

2. (i) EVR did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(c) ii is correct
1. MNA - Anti-Hindi agitation
2. EVR Periyar - Removal of Neill Statue
3. S.N. Somayajulu - Salt Satyagraha
4. Vedaranyam - Torture Commission
5. Thalamuthu - Vaikom Hero
Answers:
1. P. Rangaiah 2. Thousand Lights 3. Annie Besant 4. S. Satyamurti 5. T. Prakasam 6. Salem

Fill in the blanks:
1. T. Muthuswami 2. Bharat Matha Society 3. C. Natesanar 4. Rajaji 5. Yakub Hasan 6. Bhasyam

1. (i) and (ii) are correct

2. (ii) is correct
1.MNA - Torture Commission

2.EVR Periyar - Vaikom Hero
3.S.N. Somayajulu – Removal of Neill Statue
4.Vedaranyam - Salt Satyagraha
5.Thalamuthu - Anti-Hindi agitation

10] Social Transformation in Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
In 1930, Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar introduced in the Madras Legislative Council a Bill on the
“prevention of the dedication of women to Hindu temples in the Presidency of Madras”. The
Bill, which later became the Devadasi Abolition Act, declared the “pottukattu ceremony” in
the precincts of Hindu temples or any other place of worship unlawful, gave legal sanction to

devadasis to contract marriage, and prescribed a minimum punishment of five years’
imprisonment for those found guilty of aiding and abetting the devadasis system. The Bill
had to wait for over 15 years to become an Act.
1. ____________ established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W. Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
2. ______________ founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.C. Rajah
3. India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in ____________
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
4. ______________ was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of
Government officials.
(a) Staff Selection Board
(b) Public Service Commission
(c) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board
(d) Staff Selection Commission
5. _______________ was the first elected Legislative Council Member from the depressed
class in Madras Province.
(a) M.C. Rajah
(b) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(c) T.M. Nair
(d) P. Varadarajulu
Fill in the blanks:
1. _______________ was the first non-European language that went into print.
2. The College of Fort St. George was founded by ____________
3. _____________ is considered the father of Tamil linguistic purism.
4. ___________ was the first to approve participation of women in the electoral politics.

5. The name Suriyanarayana Sastri changed in Tamil as ______________
6. ____________ gave prominence to Tamil music.
7. The first Woman Legislator in India was ___________
1. (i) Thirukkural was one of the earliest Tamil literary texts to be published in 1812.
(ii) Maraimalai Adigal collected and edited different plan leaf manuscripts of the Tamil
grammars and literature.
(iii) Robert Caldwell established the close affinity between the Dravidian languages in
contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.
(iv) Thiru. Vi. Kalyanasundaram was an early pioneer in Trade union movement.
(c) iv is correct
(d) ii and iii are correct
2. Assertion (A): The Justice Party continued to remain in government from 1920-1937 in
Madras Presidency.
Reason (R): The Congress Party boycotted the Madras Legislature during this period of
Dyarchy.
(b) A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation
(d) R is correct, but it has no relevance to A
1. Dravidian Home - Maraimalai Adigal
2. Thozhilalan - Rettaimalai Srinivasan
3. Tani Tamil Iyakkam - Singaravelar
4. Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam – Natesanar
Answers:
1. Ziegenbalg 2. Rettaimalai Srinivasan 3. 1918 4. Staff Selection board 5. M. C. Rajah

Fill in the blanks:
1. Tamil 2. F.W. Ellis 3. Maraimalai Adigal 4. Justice party government

5. Parithimar Kalingar 6. Abraham Pandithar 7. Muthulakshmi Reddi
1. (i) and (iii) are correct

2. Both A and R are correct
1.Dravidian Home - Natesanar

2.Thozhilalan - Singaravelar
3.Tani Tamil Iyakkam - Maraimalai Adigal
4.Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam - Rettaimalai Srinivasan

11] India – Location, Relief and Drainage
Do You Know?
Amaravati is the new capital of Andhra Pradesh. According to Andhra Pradesh
Reorganization Act, Hyderabad will be the capital for both the states of Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana till 2024 (For 10 years from the act passed) .
Aravalli range is the oldest fold mountain range in India.
Himalaya is the home of several high peaks. However, it holds the record of having the
maximum number of highest peaks among any mountain range in world. Out of 14 highest
peaks in this world, Himalayas holds 9.
The major passes in the Himalaya are Karakoram Pass (Jammu and Kashmir) , Zojila pass,
Shipkila pass (arunachal Pradesh) , Boomdila pass (Arunachal Pradesh) , Nathula pass and
Jhelepla pass (Sikkim) . The Khyber Pass which connects Pakistan and Afghanistan, and
Bolan pass in Pakistan are the important passes of the Indian subcontinent.
1. The north-south extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
2. ____________ River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
3. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _____________
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) Strait

4. The Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from ___________
(a) Goa
(b) West Bengal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Maldives
5. The highest peak in South India is
(a) Ooty
(b) Kodaikanal
(c) Anaimudi
(d) Jindhagada
6. ___________ Plains are formed by the older alluviums.
(a) Bhabar
(b) Tarai
(c) Bhangar
(d) Khadar
7. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
(a) West Bengal and Odisha
(b) Karnataka and Kerala
(c) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
1. Tsangpo - Tributary of River Ganga
2. Yamuna - Highest peak in India
3. New alluvium - River Brahmaputra in Tibet
4. Mt. Godwin Southern part of East Austen (K2) - Coastal Plain
5. Coromandel Coast – Khadhar
Answers:
1. 3,214 km 2. Kosi 3. Peninsula 4. Sri Lanka 5. Anaimudi 6. Bhangar 7. Tamil Nadu and Andhra
Pradesh
1.Tsangpo - River Brahmaputra in Tibet

2.Yamuna - Tributary of River Ganga
3.New alluvium - Khadhar
4.Mt. Godwin Southern part of East Austen (K2) - Highest peak in India
5.Coromandel Coast - Coastal Plain

12] Climate and Natural Vegetation of India
Do You Know?
Equable climate is also called as the British climate, which is neither too hot nor too cold.
Weather refers to the state of atmosphere of a place at a given point of time. Climate is the
accumulation of daily and seasonal weather events of a given location over a period of 30-35
years.
Mawsynram, the place which receives highest rainfall (1141 cm) in the world. It is located in
Meghalaya.
Project Tiger was launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population in
specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India.
1. Western disturbances cause rainfall in ____________
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
2. ___________ helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
3. ______________ is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
4. Climate of India is labelled as _____________
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
5. The monsoon forests are otherwise called as ____________
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest

(d) Mountain forest
6. Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in ______________
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
7. ____________ is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
1. Sundarbans - Desert and semi desert vegetation
2. Biodiversity hotspot - October – December
3. North east monsoon - Littoral forest
4. Tropical thorn forests - West Bengal
5. Coastal forests - The Himalayas
1. Assertion (A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reasons (R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Sub-
continent warm (Give option for this question) .
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true; R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; R does not explain A
(c) (A) is true (R) is false
Choose the inappropriate answer:
1. Tidal forests are found in and around ___________
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
2. Climate of India is affected by ______________
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea

(d) Soil
Answers:
1. Punjab 2. Mango showers 3. Isohyets 4. Tropical Monsoon Climate 5. Deciduous forest 6.

Andhra Pradesh 7. a, b, c
1.Sundarbans - West Bengal

2.Biodiversity hotspot – The Himalayas
3.North east monsoon - October - December
4.Tropical thorn forests - Desert and semi desert vegetation
5.Coastal forests - Littoral forests
1. Both (A) and (R) are true: R explains A
Choose the inappropriate answer:
1. Desert
2. Soil

13] India – Agriculture
Do You Know?
Soil degradation: Soil degradation is an acute problem in India. According to a 2015 report of
the Indian institute of remote sensing (IIRS) . The estimated the amount of soil erosion that
occurred in India was 147 million hectares. The main problems of the Indian soils are (i) Soil
erosion (sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Ravine and Badland) ; (ii) Degradation of
soil; (iii) Water-logging; (iv) Saline and Alkaline and (v) Salt Flats, types of soils are different
erosion.
Methods of Conservation and Management of Soil: (1) Afforestation; (2) Constructing Dams
and Barrages; (3) Prevention of Overgrazing; (4) Improved methods of Agricultural practices.
Contour method, Rotation of crops, Contour Bunding, Strip cropping, Planting of shelter belts,
Adopting the techniques of sustainable agriculture are different conservation methods for
better soil management.
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY): This has been implemented to get more
production by using water saving and conservation technologies.
Different names of shifting agriculture in different regions in India: Jhum – Assam; Poonam
– Kerala; Podu - Andhra Pradesh, Odisha; Beewar, Mashan, Penda, Beera - Madhya Pradesh.
Livestock Census: First Livestock Census in India was conducted with the title of Dairy Cattle
Census in 1919.
How is Livestock census conducted in Tamil Nadu? State Government is conducting
Livestock Census with the help of Department of Animal Husbandry at state level and

Regional Joint Director at Distric level under the guidelines of Government of India Ministry
of Agriculture and farmer’s welfare, Department of Animal Husbandary Dairying and
Fisheries.
1. The soil which is rich in iron oxides is _____________
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
2. Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
3. The soils formed by the rivers are:
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Desert soils
(d) Alluvial soils
4. _____________ dam is the highest gravity dam in India.
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
5. ___________ is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
6. Black soils are also called as:
(a) Arid soils
(b) Saline soils
(c) Regur soils
(d) Mountain soils
7. The longest dam in the world is ______________

(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
8. Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
1. Assertion (A): Horticulture involves cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) does not explain (A)
2. Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials
brought by the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
Pick the odd one out:
1. (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Millets (d) Coffee
2. (a) Khadar (b) Bhangar (d) Alluvial Soil (d) Black soil
3. (a) Inundational canals (b) Perennial canals (c) Tanks (d) Canals
1. Sugar bowl of India - Mahanadi
2. Coffee - Golden revolution
3. Tehri - Karnataka
4. Hirakud - Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
5. Horticulture - Highest dam in the India
Answers:

1. Red 2. Indian Council of Agricultural Research 3. Alluvial soils 4. Bhakra Nangal dam
5. Cotton 6. Regur soils 7. Hirakud dam 8. Jute
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
2. (A) is false (R) is true
Pick the odd one out:
1. Coffee
2. Black soil
3. Tanks
1.Sugar bowl of India - Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

2.Coffee - Karnataka
3.Tehri - Highest dam in the India
4.Hirakud – Mahanadi
5.Horticulture - Golden revolution

14] India-Resources and Industries
Do You Know?
The organisations associated with minerals in India are: (1) The Geological Survey of India
Headquarter is at Calcutta; (2) Indian Bureau of Mines Headquarter at Nagpur; (3) Non-Ferrous
Material Technology Development Centre NFTDC, Hyderabad; (4) The Ministry of Mines is
responsible for the administration of all mines and minerals (Development and Regulation
Act, 1957) .
The iron is usually found in following form: Magnetite - 72.4%; Hematite - 69.9%; Goethite -
62.9%; Limonite - 55%; Siderite - 48.2%
MOIL - Manganese Ore India Limited State-owned manganese-ore mining company
headquartered in Nagpur. With a market share of 50%. It was the largest producer of
manganese ore in India.
SAIL (Steel Authority of India Limited): The Ministry of Steel is responsible for planning and
development of iron and steel industry in India.
Hindustan Copper Ltd is a Government-owned-corporation in the central public enterprise
under the Ministry of minies, India.
Bauxite is an oxide of aluminium; the name has been derived after the French word Le Baux.
National Aluminium Company Limited, abbreviated as NALCO, (incorporated 1981) has units
in Odisha at places like Angul and Damanjodi. It was incorporated as a public sector enterprise
of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India in 1981.
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MOP&NG) is a ministry of the Government of
India. It is responsible for the exploration, production, refining, distribution, marketing, import,

export, and conservation of petroleum, natural gas, petroleum products, and liquefied natural
gas in India.
Coal India Limited (CIL) is an Indian state-controlled coal mining company headquartered in
Kolkata, West Bengal.
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) (methane stored at high pressure) is a fuel which can be used
in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane/LPG. In comparison to other fuels, natural gas
poses less of a threat in the event of a spill, because it is lighter than air and disperses quickly
when released. Biomethane-cleaned-up biogas from anaerobic digestion or landfills-can be
used. Natural gas run vehicles are increasingly used in Delhi, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Pune,
Kolkata Lucknow, Kanpur, Varanasi, etc.
GAIL (formerly known as Gas Authority of India Limited) is the largest state-owned natural
gas processing and distribution company in India. It is headquartered in New Delhi.
The first hydro-electric power station in India was established at “Darjeeling” in 1897.
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation is located in Faridabad, India.
Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited is a Government of India Enterprise. Its head
quarter is located at New Delhi.
The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is an Indian public sector
undertaking based in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It is wholly owned by the Government of India
and is responsible for the generation of nuclear power for electricity.
Tamil Nadu has the largest installation of wind turbines in the country in the Aralvoimozhi
area near Kanniyakumari is the largest concentrations of wind farm capacity at a single
location in the world.
The National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) , Chennai was established in Tamil Nadu in
1998 as an autonomous institution under the administrative control of the Ministry of New
and Renewable Energy. NIWE main activities include resource assessment testing and
certification.
The first cotton textile mill was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818.
Ginning is the process of separating cotton seed from cotton.
National jute board is headquartering at Kolkata.
CSTRI is the only research institute in the country dedicated to the Research & Developmental
activities related to silk technology. CSTRI was established in the year 1983 by the Central Silk
Board, Ministry of Textiles, Govt. of India having head quarter at Bengaluru.
Office of the Development Commissioner for Handlooms was set up as an attached non-
participating office on 20th November of Commerce. At present it is functioning under the
Ministry of Textiles, headquarters at Udyog Bhawan, New Delhi.
The first paper mill of India was started in 1812 at Serampore in West Bengal.
National Newsprint and Paper Mills (NEPA) is at Nepanagar in Burhanpur District of Madhya
Pradesh.
Chennai is nick named as the “Detroit of Asia” due to the presence of major automobile
manufacturing units and allied industries around the city.

The first attempt to produce iron and steel unit was set up at Porto Novo in Tamil Nadu in
1830.
Make in India program was launched in 2014 to put India on the world map as a major hub
for global design and manufacturing.
1. Manganese is used in _____________
(a) Storage batteries
(b) Steel making
(c) Copper smelting
(d) Petroleum Refining
2. The Anthracite coal has _____________
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon
(b) Above 70% Carbon
(c) 60 to 70% Carbon
(d) Below 50% Carbon
3. The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
4. The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
5. The first Nuclear Power Station was commissioned in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
6. The abundant source of energy is
(a) Bio mass
(b) Sun
(c) Coal
(d) Oil

7. The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Assam
8. The nucleus for the development of the Chotanagpur Plateau region is
(a) Transport
(b) Mineral Deposits
(c) Large demand
(d) Power Availability
1. Bauxite - Cement
2. Gypsum - Aircraft
3. Black Gold - Electrical goods
4. Iron ore - Coal
5. Mica – Magnetite
Answers:
1. Steel Making 2. 80 to 95% Carbon 3. Carbon 4. Coimbatore 5. Kolkata 6. Sun 7. Jharkhand 8.

Mineral deposits
1.Bauxite - Aircraft
2.Gypsum – Cement
3.Black gold – Coal
4.Iron ore – Magnetite
5.Mica - Electrical goods

15] India – Population, Transport, Communication & Trade
Do You Know?
In India the first census was carried out in the year 1872. But the first complete and
synchronous. Census was conducted in 1881. And the 2011 census represents the fifteenth
census of India.
Shershah suri built the shahi (Royal) road to strengthen and consolidate his empire from the
Indus valley to the Sonar valley in Bengal. This road from Kolkata to Peshawar was renamed
as Grand Trunk (GT) road during the British period. At present, it extends from Amritsar to
Kolkata.

National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) was established in 1995. It is an autonomous
body under the Ministry of Surface Transport.
The first sub-urban railway was started in 1925 in Mumbai. Gateman Express is the fastest
operational train in India. This train connects New Delhi and Agra and touches 160 km/h.
The state of Meghalaya has no railway network.
1. The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
(a) Cartography
(b) Demography
(c) Anthropology
(d) Epigraphy
2. _______________ transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
3. The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5942 km
(c) 5630 km
(d) 5800 km
4. The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at ___________
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
5. The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
6. Which of the following is associated with helicopter service?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot

(d) Pavan Hans
7. The major import item of India is
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
1. Border Road Organisation - Satellite communication
2. INSAT - Impact of Urbanization
3. Mazagaon Dock - Mumbai
4. Urban sprawl - Mumbai
5. Konkan Railway - 1960
Answers:
1. Demography 2. Roadways 3. 5846 km 4. Hyderabad 5. Airways 6. Pavan Hans 7. Petroleum

1.Border Road Organisation – 1960

2.INSAT - Satellite communication
3.Mazagaon Dock – Mumbai
4.Urban sprawl - Impact of Urbanization
5.Konkan Railways – Mumbai

16] Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
As per, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, state boundaries were reorganised on some
linguistic basis.
All districts of Tamil Nadu except the Chennai, the Nilgiris and Kanyakumari were bifurcated
at different points of time.
Major hills in Tamil Nadu: Coimbatore – Maruthamalai, Velliangiri and Anaimalai;
Dharmapuri – Theertha malai, Chitteri and Vathalmalai; Dindigul – Pazhamalai and
Kodaikanal; Erode – Chennai hills and Sivan hills; Vellore – Javadhu, Yelagiri and
Rathinamalai hills; Namakkal – Kolli hills; Salem – Servarayan, Kanjamalai and Chalk hills;
Kallakurichi – Kalvarayan; Villupuram – Gingee hills; Perambalur – Pachaimalai;
Kanyakumari – Marunthuvazhmalai; Tirunelveli – Mahendragiri and Agasthiyarmalai; The
Nilgiris – Nilgiri hills.
Peaks in Eastern Height (m)
Ghats

Shervarayan temple 1,623
Mazhamalai 1,500
Urgamalai 1,486
Kuttirayan 1,395
Muganur 1,279
Valsamalai 1,034
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island

Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major
islands of Tamil Nadu.
Seasons of Tamil Nadu: Winter – January-February; Summer – March-May; Southwest
Monsoon-June-September; Northeast Monsoon – October-December.
Chinnakallar near Valparai is the 3rd wettest place in India and the wettest place in Tamil
Nadu.
Pichavaram mangrove forest is located near Chidambaram, Cuddalore district. This is the
second largest mangrove forest in the world covering about 1,100 hectares (11 sq.km) of area.
It is separated from the Bay of Bengal by a sandbar. It consists of species like Avicennia and
Rhizophora.
Biosphere Reserves in Tamil Nadu: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, Gulf of Mannar Biosphere
Reserve, Agasthiyamalai Biosphere Reserve.
Role of Mangroves in Coastal Zone Management: Mangroves helps in the prevention of
coastal erosion from waves and storms. It also protects coral reefs and sea grass meadows
from being smothered in sediments.
Districts with prominent forest cover in Tamil Nadu
District Area (sq km)
Dharmapuri 3,280
Coimbatore 2,627
Erode 2,427
Vellore 1,857
The Nilgiris 1,583
Dindigul 1,662
Some methods of water conservation are: Protection of water from pollution; redistribution
of water; rational use of groundwater; population control; renovation of traditional water
sources; use of modern irrigation methods; increasing forest cover; changing crop pattern;
flood management and use of geothermal water are some of the major water conservation
methods.

State/Union Territories organisations: State Disaster Management Authority (Chairman-
Chief Minsiter) , Relief/Disaster Management Department, Police, Forest Department, Fire and
Civil Defence Services, Health Services, Transport Department, Public Works Department,
Veterinary Services, Food & Civil Supplied Department.
District Organisations: District Magistrate (Chairman-District Collector) , Revenue
Department, Civil Administration, Local Police, Civil Defence, Fire & Emergency Services,
Home Guards (also Local Community, Non-Government Organisations, Voluntary Agencies)
etc.
1. The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 8o5’N to 13o35’N
(b) 8o5’S to 13o35’S
(c) 8o0’N to 13o05’N
(d) 8o0’S to 13o05’S
2. The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 76o18’E to 80o20’E
(b) 76o18’W to 80o20’W
(c) 86o18’E to 10o20’E
(d) 86o18’W to 10o20’W
3. The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) MAhendragiri
(d) Servarayan
4. Which of the following passes in not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
5. Which one of the following rivers is flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Chittar
(d) Bhavani
6. The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Ramanathapuram

(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
7. Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Timor Sea
8. Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
9. The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindigul
(d) Erode
Fill in the blanks:
1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is _____________
2. ______________ is the highest peak in the southern most part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between ______________ and _____________
branches of Cauvery.
4. ____________ is the Tamil Nadu state animal.
1. Winter Season - Pre-monsoon
2. Summer Season - June to September
3. Southwest monsoon - March to May
4. North east monsoon - January and February
5. Mango Shower - October to December
1. Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoon.
Reason (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.

Answers:
1. 8°5′N to 13°35′N 2. 76°18′ E to 80°20′E 3. Doddabetta 4. Bhorghat 5. Periyar

6. Cuddalore 7. Bay of Bengal 8. Ramanathapuram 9. Dharmapuri
Fill in the blanks:
1. Bharamahal 2. Solaikaradu 3. Northern and Southern 4. Laterite 5. Nilgiri Tahr

1.Winter season - January and February

2.Summer season – March to may
3.Southwest monsoon - June to September
4.North east monsoon - October to December
5.Mango Shower – Pre – Monsoon shower
Assertion type Question:

17] Human Geography of Tamil Nadu
The Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute (TRRI) is an Indian research institute working in the
field of rice under Tamil Nadu Agricultural University (TNAU) . It is situated at Aduthurai, in
Thanjavur district, it was established in April, 1985 in TNAU to meet the research
requirements of the region with the help of existing Agricultural Colleges and Research
centres and performs lead function for rice and based cropping system research.
Second Green Revolution (Eco-Framing or Organic Farming): In organic farming synthetic
fertilizers, pesticides, growth regulator and livestock feed additives are not used. These types
of farming rely on crop rotation, crop residues, animal manure, off-farm organic wastes and
biological pest control to maintain soil productivity. This farming method is being adopted by
very few farmers in the state.
India observed 2018 as national year of millets. FAO has decided to observe 2023 as the
International year of millets.
TANTEA (TANTEA – Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited) is one of the biggest
Black Tea Producers in India with high quality clonal tea. Its plantation spreads over nearly
4500 hec.
Tamil Nadu Dairy Development Corporation Ltd. was transformed into the newly registered
Tamil Nadu Co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited Popularly known as “Aavin”.
To promote organic farming a central scheme name ‘National Project on Organic Farming’
was launched Apart from general things (creating awareness, promoting organic fertilizers,
training, capacity building etc.) , the scheme provides financial assistance through Capital
Investment Subsidy Scheme for agro-waste compost production units, bio-fertilizers/bio-

pesticides production units, development and implementation of quality control regime,
human resource development etc.
GI Tag: GI (Geographical Indication) is a name or sign used in products which corresponds to
a specific geographical location. It provides rights and protection of holders. Some important
GI Tags of Tamil Nadu are: Arani – Silk; Kancheepuram – Silk; Coimbatore – Wet Grinder and
Coracotton; Thanjavur – Paintings, Art plate, Doll and veenai; Nagecoil – Temple Jewellery;
Erode – Turmeric; Salem – Venpatty (Salem silk) ; Bhavani – Jamakkalam; Maduari –
Sungudi; Swamimalai – Bronze Icons; Nachiarkovil – Kuthuvilakku; Pattamadai – Mat;
Nilgiri – Orthodox Embroidery; Mahabalipuram – Stone sculpture; Sirumalai – Hill banana;
Eathomozhi – Coconut.
The list of IT parks in Tamil Nadu: Tidel Park, Ascendas, Mahindra world city 4 IT & ITES SEZ
TIDEL-II, IT & ITES SEZ TIDEL-III, Coimbatore SEZ – Tidel Park.
NH-44 is the longest national highway in Tamil Nadu which runs from Hosur to
Kanniyakumari (627.2 km) Via Dharmapuri – Salem – Karur – Dindigul – Madurai –
Tirunelveli.
Zone/Districts and Head quarters: Chennai – Chennai; Western – Coimbatore; Central –
Thiruchirapalli; Southern – Madurai.
1. The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
2. Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Rice
3. A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Thungabahdra
4. Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 abd 15

Fill in the blanks:
1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes ______________ % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river ___________
3. _______________ is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
4. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ____________
1. Bauxite - Salem
2. Gypsum - Servaroy hills
3. Iron - Coimbatore
4. Limestone - Tiruchirapalli
1. Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil
Nadu.
Reason (R): They contribute a major share to the states economy through textile.
2. Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
Answers:
1. Cauvery delta 2. Millets 3. Mettur 4. 3 and15

Fill in the blanks:
1. 21 2. Thenpennai 3. Chennai international airport 4. Balance of trade

1.Bauxite - Servaroy hills

2.Gypsum - Tiruchirapalli
3.Iron – Salem
4.Limestone – Coimbatore

2. Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)

18] India Constitution
Do You Know?
Liberty, Equality and Fraternity were the important slogans during the French Revolution in
1789. They are given importance in the Preamble of our Constitution.
Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original
constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italic style.
I. RIGHT TO EQUALITY: Art. 14 – Equality before law; Art. 15 – Prohibition of discrimination
on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth; Art. 16 – Equality of opportunity in
matters of public employment; Art. 17 – Abolition of Untouchability; Art.18 – Abolition of titles
except military and academic.
II. RIGHT TO FREEDOM: Art. 19 – Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association,
movement, residence and profession; Art. 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences;
Art. 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty; Art. 21A – Right to elementary education; Art.
22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
III. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION: Art. 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
forced labour; Art. 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.
IV. RIGHT TO RELIGION: Art. 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and
propagation of religion; Art. 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs; Art. 27 – Freedom from
payment of taxes for promotion of any religion; Art. 28 – Freedom from attending religious
instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
V. CULTURAL & EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS: Art. 29 – Protection of languages, script and culture
of minorities; Art. 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
VI. RIGHT CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES: Art. 32 – It allows individuals to seek redressal for
the violation of their fundamental rights.
Right of Property (Art. 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th
Amendment Act, 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the
Constitution.
The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject – matter of Article 45 and made
elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The amended directive requires
the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete
the age of six years.
In 1969, the Tamil Nadu Government appointed a three-member committee under the
chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre-state relations.
The Union List, State List and Concurrent List consisting at present 100, 61 and 52 items
respectively. the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from
State List, that is, education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and

birds, and administration of justice; constitution and organisation of all courts excepts the
Supreme Court and the high courts.
In 2004, the Government of India decided to create new category of languages called as
“classical languages”. So far, the six languages are granted the classical languages status
namely Tamil (2004) , Sanskrit (205) , Telugu (2008) , Kannada (2008) , Malayalam (2013) and
Odia (2014) .
42nd amendment of the Constitution is known as the mini Constitution.
1. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign. Socialist, secular, democratic, republic
2. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
3. A foreigner can acquire India citizenship through
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
5. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain up missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
6. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul
of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion

(b) Right to equality
(c) Rights to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
7. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
8. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
9. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
10. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the
Centre-State Relations?
(1) Sarkaria Commission (2) Rajamannar Committee (3) M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 2 & 3
Fill in the blanks:
1. The concept of constitution first originated in ____________
2. ______________ was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of Indian was adopted on _____________
4. _____________ writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article ___________
1. Citizenship Act - Jawaharlal Nehru
2. The Preamble - 42nd Amendment

3. The mini Constitution - 1955
4. Classical language - 1962
5. National Emergency – Tamil
Answers:
1. Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic 2. Once 3. Naturalisation

4. Right to Property 5. Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
6. Right to Constitutional remedies 7. If the President orders it during the national emergency
8. Russian Constitution 9. Article 360 10. 1 & 2
Fill in the blanks:
1. USA 2. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha 3. 26th November 1949 4. 5 5. 51A

1.Citizenship Act - 1955

2.The Preamble – Jawaharlal Nehru
3.Te mini Constitution – 42nd amendment
4.Classical language – Tamil
5.National Emergency – 1962

19] Central Government
Do You Know?
It is a well known fact that the President of India resides at Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi.
The residence and the office of the President are located in the same building. However, he
has two other office cum residences where he conducts office at least once a year. They are
“The Retreat Building” at Shimla and the ‘Rashtrapati Nilayam’ at Hyderabad. These locations
one in North and other one is South symbolise the unity of the county and unity of the diverse
culture of the people.
Kerala and Punjab are the States where the President’s Rule was imposed for maximum
number of times i.e., nine times in both States.
Casting Vote: According to Article (100) of the Constitution, the vice-president can/only cast
his vote when there is a tie over the Bill in the Rajya Sabha. It means that there is need for one
vote only to pass the Bill. No members have any right to oppose his decision.
If the posts of President and Vice-President lie vacant, Chief Justice of India works as
President. This situation happed in 1969 when Chief Justice M. Hidayutalla was appointed as
President of India.
Money Bill: Rajya Sabha does not have any power to amend or reject the Money bill. Lok Sabha
can only introduce Money bill and once it is approved by the Lok Sabha, it is passed to Rajya
Sabha for its approval. If Rajya Sabha fails to pass it within 14 days then the bill gets passed
without the approval of Rajya Sabha. Also, Lok Sabha does not need to consider the
amendments peoposed by the Rajya Sabha. Lok Sbha can reject all the proposals and pass it.

Parliament Sessions: Budget Session – February to May; Monsoon Session – July to
September; Winter Session – November to December.
Elected members of the Parliament from Tamil Nadu. Rajya Sabha – 18 members; Lok Sabha
– 39 members.
The Supreme Court of India New Delhi was inaugurated on January 28, 1950. It succeded the
Federal Court of India, established under the Government of India Act of 1935.
1. The Constitutional Head of the Union is
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
2. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) The President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
4. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
5. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
6. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial
Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360

(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
7. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by:
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Fill in the blanks:
1. ___________ bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ____________ is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. _______________ is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. _______________ has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses
of the Parliament.
5. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of
______________ years.
6. ______________ is the Guardian of the Constitution.
7. At present, the Supreme Court consist of ____________ judges including the chief justice.
1. (i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President form amongst persons
experience in the field of literatures, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) ii and iv are correct
(b) iii and iv are correct
2. (i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of
62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) ii and iv are correct

(d) i, and ii are correct
1. Article 53 - State Emergency
2. Article 63 - Internal Emergency
3. Article 356 - Executive power of President
4. Article 76 - Office of the Vice President
5. Article 352 - Office of the Attorney General
Answers:
1. The President 2. Speaker of Lok Sabha 3. Lok Sabha 4. 25 years 5. Parliament 6. Article 360
7. The President
Fill in the blanks:
1. Money 2. Prime Minister 3. Vice- President 4. Attorney general of India 5. 65 6. Supreme

court
7. 33(out of 34 sanctioned strength)
Choose the correct statement
1. i, ii & iii are correct
2. ii & iv are correct
1.Article 53 – Executive power of the president

2.Article 63 – Office of the Vice – President
3.Article 356 – State Emergency
4.Article 76 – Office of Attorney general
5.Article 352 – Internal Emergency

20] State Government
Do You Know?
In Tamil Nadu, according to the strength of Legislative Assembly (234 members) , the number
of ministers may be up to 36, i.e. 15 percent of 234.
The Tamil Nadu Legislative Council was abolished by Tamil Nadu Legislative Council
(Abolition) Bill, 1986. The Act came into force on the 1st November 1986.
The High Court of madras is the one of the three High Court in India established in the three
Presidency Towns of Bombay. Calcutta and Madras by letters patent granted by Queen
Victoria, bearing date 26 June 1862. The High Court building is the second largest judicial
complex in the world after London.

1. The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
2. The Speaker of a State is a
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
3. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
4. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State
Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Speaker of State legislative
5. The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
6. The State Council of Ministers is headed by
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
7. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years
8. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
9. The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
10. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Fill in the blanks:
1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to ____________
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the ___________
3. ____________ acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
4. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only
by the ___________
1. Governor - Head of the Government
2. Chief Minister - Head of the State Tribunals
3. Council of Ministers - Responsible for the Assembly
4. MLC - Responsible for the Assembly
5. Armed forces - Cannot vote for grants
1. Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with
the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answers:
1. President 2. None 3. Diplomatic 4. The Governor 5. Judges of the High Court 6. The Chief
Minister 7. 30 years 8. Tamil Nadu 9. Calcutta, Bombay, Madras 10. Punjab and Haryana
Fill in the blanks:
1. President 2. People 3. Governor 4. President

1.Governor - Head of the State

2.Chief Minister - Head of the Government
3.Council of Ministers – Responsible for the Assembly
4.MLC - cannot vote for grants
5.Armed forces – Tribunals
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

21] India’s Foreign Policy
Do You Know?
The Constitution of India 1950 Article 51: Lays down Directive Principles of India’s foreign
policy. The state shall endeavour to: Promote International peace and security; Maintain just
and honourable relations between nations; Foster respect for international law and
international organisation; Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
The Ministry of External Affairs of India also known as Foreign Ministry comes under
Government of India is responsible for the conduct of foreign relations of India. The Foreign
Service Training Institute, New Delhi established in 1986 provides training for officers of
Indian Foreign Services (IFS) .
Foreign Policy is a combination of strategies carefully formulated by a nation for maintaining
relationship with other nations. Diplomacy is the instrument for implementing foreign policy
of a state.
1. Which Minister plays a vital role in molding foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
2. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
(a) India and Nepal

(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
3. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
4. Apartheid is
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
5. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co existence
6. Which is not related to our foreign policy
(a) World co operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
7. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
8. Find the odd one
(a) Social Welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
9. Non-Alliance means
(a) Being neutral

(b) Freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) Demilitarisation
10. Non-military issues are
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above
Fill in the blanks:
1. India conducted its first nuclear test at ____________
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ___________ for domestic growth
and development.
3. _____________ is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. _____________ was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice _____________
1. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer
from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel (ii) China’s Nuclear Test
(iii) Twenty-year treaty (iv) First Nuclear test of India
(a) i, iii, iv, ii
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv, iii
(d) i, iii, ii, iv
2. Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military
alliance.
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
3. Write true or false against each of the statement:

(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign
relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
4. Assertion (A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason (R): This began with a disastrous Indo-China war of 1962.
5. Assertion (A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason (R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
(d) Both are wrong
6. Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India
had to redeemed from
(a) Acute Poverty
(b) Illiteracy
(c) Chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) All the above
1. Indian Ocean island - 1955
2. Land bridge to ASEAN - 1954
3. Panchsheel - Maldives
4. Afro Asian Conference - Foreign Policy
5. World Peace - Myanmar
Answers:
1. External Affairs Minister 2. India and China 3. Article 51 4. A policy of racial discrimination
5. The Five Principles of Co- existence 6. Colonialism 7. Pakistan 8. Diplomacy
9. freedom to decide on issues independently 10. All the above
Fill in the blanks:

1. Pokhran 2. Inward investment, business and technology 3. Diplomacy 4. Non- alignment 5.
Disarmament
1. (i) , (ii) , (iv) , (iii)

2. (ii) only
3. a) True b) False c) True
4. A is correct and R does not explain A
5. A is correct and R does not explain A
6. All the above
1.Indian Ocean-island – Maldives

2.Land bridge to ASEAN – Myanmar
3.Panchsheel - 1954
4.Afro Asian Conference - 1955
5.World Peace – Foreign policy

22] India’s International Relations
Do You Know?
The countries that share the most number of neighbours touching its borders are China and
Russia.
From the Indus Civilisation, India and Afghanistan have a deep-rooted multi-faceted
relationship. During the reign of Kanishka, a large number of Indian missionaries went to
China, Central Asia and Afghanistan to preach their religion. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of
Baluchistan (a border province in today’s Pakistan) was a prominent leader of the Indian
Independence movement and active supporter of the Indian National Congress.
The Teen Bigha Corridor is a strip of land belonging to India on the West Bengal-Bangladesh
border, which was leased to Bangladesh in 2011.
Gur Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint who went to Bhutan from India, played an influential
role in spreading Buddhism and cementing traditional ties between people of both nations.
McMahon Line: This is the boundary line between India and China, east of Bhutan. It was
determined 1914 at a conference of representatives of British India, Tibet and China. The
Secretary of State for India (in British Cabinet) , Arthur Henry McMahon, represented British
India at the Conference.
Ashoka had sent his son Mahinda and daughter Sangamitra to Ceylon (Sri Lanka) for the
propagation of Buddhism. Chola kings Rajaraja I and Rajendra I conquered the northern part
of Ceylon.
LoC (Line of Control): The Ceasefire line determined in 1949 was called the LoC after 1972.
This is the boundary that came to be agreed between India and Pakistan under the Shimla

Agreement of 1972. It was called Radcliffe Line at the time of partition in 1947, (Radcliffe was
the chairman of the border commission) . This is now called LoC.
One of the oldest maritime trading routes ran from ancient Sumeria via Bahrain to the Indus
Civilisation called Meluha.
The acronym BRICS was coined by Jim O’Neill, a famous British economist. He predicted that
by year 2050 Brazil, Russia, India and China would become bigger than the six most
industrialised nations in dollar terms and would completely change the power dynamics of
the last 300 years.
The OPEC LOGO: It is the result of an international design competition held in 1969. An
Austrian designer Svoboda won the competition with her design, which combined the
different letters of the organisation’s name in a rounded design.
1. Mc Mahon Line is a border between
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and Nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
2. India is not a member of which of the following
(1) G20 (2) ASEAN (3) SAARC (4) BRICS
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. OPEC is
(a) An international insurance Co
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
4. With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
5. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan

iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
6. How many countries share its border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
7. Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldives and Lakshadweep Island
(c) Maldives and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldives
8. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
9. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
10. Who drew up the borders for independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the Above
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ___________
3. ___________ is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land _____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.

5. _____________ is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by _____________
1. The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following
modes of transport?
(1) Road (2) Railways (3) Shipping (4) Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of
Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(d) Both are wrong
3. Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1: ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2: Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3: Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4: Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
4. Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and
industrial production.
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong

1. Brandix - Vienna
2. COMCASA - Japan
3. Shinkansen System - Shanghai
4. BRICS - USA
5. OPEC - Garment city in Vishakapatnam
Answers:
1. India and China 2. 2 and 4 3. An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries 4. Bangladesh

5. 3 1 4 2 6. 7 7. Sri Lanka and Maldieves 8. Sikkim 9. Five 10. Sir Cyril Radcliffe
Fill in the blanks:
1. Bhutan 2. Myanmar 3. Nepal 4. Teen Bigha corridor 5. Bhutan 6. Palk strait

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. Both are correct
1.Brandix - Garment city in Vishakapatnam

2.COMCASA - USA
3.Shinkansen system - Japan
4.BRICS - Shanghai
5.OPEC - Vienna

23] Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: An Introduction
Do You Know?
The modern concept of GDP was first developed by Simon Kuznets for a US Congress report
in 1934.
In 1867-68 for the first time Dadabhai Navroji had ascertained the Per Capital Income in his
book “Poverty and Un-British Rule of India”.
Estimation of GDP: The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) , under the Ministry of
Statistical department keeps the records. Its processes involve conducting an annual survey
of industries and compilation of various indexes like the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
Consumer Price Index (CPI) etc.
Gross value added (GVA) is the measure of the value of goods and services produced in an
area, industry or sector of an economy. GVA = GDP + subsidies – (direct, sales) taxes.

Human Development Index: In 1990 Mahbub ul Haq, a Pakistani Economist at the United
Nations, introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) . The HDI is a composite index of
life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rate and standard of living measured as a logarithmic
function of GDP, adjusted to purchasing power parity. India climbed one spot to 130 out of 189
countries in the latest human development rankings released today by the United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP) . Between 1990 and 2017, India’s HDI value incased from
0.427 to 0.640, an increase of nearly 50 percent – and an indicator of the country’s remarkable
achievement in lifting millions of people out of poverty.
Gross National Happiness (GNH): The term Gross National Happiness was coined in 1972
during an interview by a British journalist for the Financial Times at Bombay airport when
the then king of Bhutan, Jigme Singye Wangchuck, said “Gross National Happiness is more
important than Gross National Product”. In 2011, The UN General Assembly passed Resolution
“Happiness: towards a holistic approach to development” urging member nations to follow
the example of Bhutan and measure happiness and well-being and calling happiness a
“fundamental human goal.” The four pillars of GNH’s are: (1) Sustainable and equitable socio-
economic development; (2) Environmental conservation; (3) Preservation and promotion of
culture; (4) Good governance. The nine domains of GNH are psychological well-being, health,
time use, education, cultural diversity and resilience, good governance, community vitality,
ecological diversity and resilience, and living standards.
1. GNP equals
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
2. National Income is a measure of
(a) Total value of money
(b) Total value of producer goods
(c) Total value of consumption goods
(d) Total value of goods and services
3. Primary sector consist of
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
4. ____________ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to
estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value added approach

(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
5. Which one sector is highest employment in the GD?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
6. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ___________ lakh
crore in 2018-19.
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
7. India is ___________ larger producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 2nd
8. India’s life expectancy at birth is ___________ years.
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 55
9. Which one is a trade policy?
(a) Irrigation policy
(b) Import and export policy
(c) Land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
10. Indian economy is
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ is the primary sector in India.

2. GDP is the indicator of ___________ economy
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as ____________
1. Electricity/Gas and water - National Income/Population

2. Price policy - Gross Domestic Product
3. GST - Industry Sector
4. Per capita income - Agriculture
5. C + I + G + (X-M) - Tax on goods and service
Answers:
1. GDP plus net property income from abroad 2. Total value of goods and services 3. Agriculture
4. Value added approach 5. Service sector 6. 92.26 7. 2nd 8. 65 9. import and export policy 10. All
the above
Fill in the blanks:
1. Agriculture, Fishing, Mining 2. GDP 3. Industrial Sector

1.Electricity/ Gas and Water - Industry Sector

2.Price policy - Agriculture
3.GST - Tax on goods and service
4.Per capita income - National Income / Population
5.C + I + G + (X-M) - Gross Domestic Product

24] Globalization and Trade
Do You Know?
Top 10 Largest Multinational Companies in India 2018: Sony Corporation – Nettle; Hew left
Packard (HP) - Procter & Gamble; Tata Group - City Group; Microsoft Corporation - Pepsi
Company; IBM - The Coca-cola Company.
FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1974): This Act referred directly to the operations of
MNCs in India.
FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999): Under FEMA the emphasis is a
“Management” rather than “regulation”.
Rounds of GATT: First in Geneva (Sweitzerland) (1947) ; Second in Annecy (France) in 1949;
Third in Torquay (UK) in 1950-51; Fourth, fifth, and sixth in Geneva (Switzerland) in 1956, 1960-
61, 1964-67; Seventh in Tokyo (Japan) in 1973-79; Eighth and final round at Punta del Este
(Uruguay) in 1986-1994, known as “Uruguay Round”.

World Trade Organization (WTO): Head quarter - Geneva, Switzerland; Purpose - Regulation,
International trade; Members of WTO - Director General, Four Deputy Director General, and
other 600 Official Staff from around 80 member countries.
1. Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) ?

(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
2. Colonial advent in India
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French.
(b) Dutch, English, Danish, French
(c) Portuguese, Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
3. GATT’s first round held in
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
4. India signed the Dunket proposal in
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c) 1950
(d) 1994
5. Who granted the English “Golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb
6. Foreign Investment Policy (FIP) announced in
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug 1991
(d) Aug 1991
7. Indian government was introduced ___________ in 1991.

(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) None
Fill in the blanks:
1. A better economy introduce rapid development of the ___________

2. WTO agreement came into force from _____________
3. The term globalization invented by ____________
1. Multination corporation in India - 1947

2. MNC - Enforce international trade
3. GATT - Minimize cost of production
4. 8th Uruguay Round - Infosis
5. WTO – 1986
Answers:
1. Director General 2. Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French 3. Geneva 4. 1994 5. Sultan of
Golconda 6. July- Aug-1991
7. New Economic Policy
Fill in the blanks:
1. Capital market 2. January 1, 1995 3. Prof. Theodore Levitt

1.Multination corporation in India – Minimize cost of production

2.MNC – Infosys
3.GATT - 1947
4.8th Uruguay Round – 1986
5.WTO – Enforce international trade

25] Food Security and Nutrition
Do You Know?
Minimum Support Price: Minimum Support Price is a price fixed by an expert group for a
particular crop by considering various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop. After
announcing the MSP, the State will open procurement centres in places where these crops
are widely grown. However, the farmers are free to sell in the open market if they get a better
price for their crop produce. On the other hand, if the open market price is lower than the MSP,
the farmers would get an assured price (the MSP) by selling their produce to the FCI.

National Food Security Act in Tamil Nadu: On 1 November 2016, National Food Security Act
was implemented in Tamil Nadu after holding out for three years.
Buffer Stock: Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the
government through the Food Corporation of India (FCI) . The FCI purchases wheat and rice
from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-
announced price for their crops. This price is called Minimum Support Price (MSP) . The MSP
is declared by the government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to
farmers for raising the production of these crops. The purchased food grains are stored in
granaries. Buffer stock is done to distribute food grains in the deficit areas and among the
poorer strata of the society at a price lower than the market price also known as the Issue
Price. This also helps resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather
conditions or during the periods of calamity.
Purchasing Power Parity (PPP): A concept related to purchasing power is Purchasing Price
Parity (PPP) . PPP is an economic theory that estimates the amount that needs to be adjusted
to the price of an item. PPP can be used to compare countries income levels and other relevant
economic data concerning the cost of living, or possible rates of inflation and deflation.
Recently, India became the third largest economy in terms of PPP. China became the largest
economy, pushing the US to the second position.
Important ongoing Schemes in Tamil Nadu:
1. Under Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme, financial assistance to the tune
of ₹.12,000 is being disbursed to poor pregnant women.
2. The Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Health Insurance Scheme was launched in the state
in 2011-12 with the aim to provide Universal Healthcare to all by providing free medical and
surgical treatment.
3. Tamil Nadu Health Systems Projects (TNHSP) has launched ambulance services free of cost
(The 108 Emergency Ambulance Service) .
4. The School Health Programme emphasises on providing comprehensive healthcare
services to all students studying in Government and Government-aided schools.
5. The National Leprosy Eradication programme is being implemented in the state with the
aim to detect and to provide sustained regular treatment to all leprosy patients.
Some Nutrition Programmes in Tamil Nadu:
1. Puratchi Thalaivar M.G.R. Nutrition Meal Programme
2. National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
3. General ICDS Projects and World Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
4. Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
5. Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme.
6. Mid-Day Meal programme.
1. ____________ of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is

a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food

(b) Access to food
(c) Absorption of food
(d) None
2. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government
through the ___________
(a) FCI
(b) Consumer Cooperatives
(c) ICICI
(d) IFCI
3. Which is correct?
i) HYV - High Yielding Varieties
ii) MSP - Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS - Public Distribution System
iv) FCI - Food Corporation of India
(d) all are correct
4. ___________ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Singapore
(d) UK
5. ____________ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain
production.
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Grey Revolution
6. __________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka

7. _____________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and
growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Fill in the blanks:
1. ______________ is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.

2. In the year _____________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
3. _____________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to
common people.
1. Consumer cooperatives - Subsidized rates

2. Public Distribution System - 2013
3. UNDP - Least poor region
4. National Food Security Act - Supply of Quality goods
5. Kerala - United Nations Development Programme
1. Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increase and then the
purchasing power is affected.
(a) A is correct, R is false
(b) Both A and R are false statements
(c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
Answers:
1. Availability of food 2. FCI 3. All the above 4. United States of America 5. Green Revolution 6.
Tamil Nadu 7. Nutrition
Fill in the blanks:
1. Underweight 2. 2013 3. Consumer Co-operatives

1.Consumer cooperatives – Supply of quality goods

2.Public Distribution System – Subsidized rates
3.UNDP – United Nations Development Programme
4.National Food Security Act - 2013

5.Kerala – Least poor region
Assertion and Reason
1. A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A

26] Government and Taxes
Do You Know?
Tax System: Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have tax
system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. From Adam Smith, many economists have
given lists of canons of taxation. It is important to recall those common among them for
discussion here.
1. Canon of equity: Since tax is a compulsory payment, all economists agree that equity is the
cardinal principle in designing the tax system. The rich should pay more tax revenue to
government than the poor, because rich has more ability than the poor to pay the tax.
2. Canon of Certainty: Government should announce in advance the tax system so that every
tax payer will be able to calculate how much tax amount one may have to pay during a year
to the government.
3. Canons of Economy and Convenience: If the tax is simple, then the coast of collecting taxes
(tax payer cost + tax collector cost) will be very low. Further, tax should be collected from a
person at the time he gets enough money to pay the tax. This is called canon of convenience.
A convenient tax reduces the cost of collecting tax.
4. Canons of Productivity and Elasticity: Government should choose the taxes that can get
enough tax revenue to it. It should choose a few taxes that can fetch more tax revenue, instead
of lots of taxes. This is canon of productivity. Tax is paid by the people out their incomes.
Therefore, the tax system should be designed in such a way that the people automatically pay
more tax revenue if their incomes grow. This is called canon of elasticity.
Taxation in India has its roots from the period of Manu Smriti and Arthasastra. The present
Indian tax system is based on this ancient tax system.
In India taxes are collected by all the three tiers of government. There are taxes that can be
easily collected by the Union government. In India almost all the direct taxes are collected by
the Union governments. Taxes on goods and services are collected by both Union and State
governments. The taxes on properties are collected by local governments. In India we collect
more tax revenue through indirect taxes than through direct taxes. The major indirect taxes
in India are customs duty and GST.
In India, Income Tax was introduced for the first time in 1860 by Sir James Wilson in order to
meet the losses sustained by the Government on account of the Mutiny of 1857.
France was the first country to implement GST in 1954.
Structure of Goods and Service Tax (GST): State Goods and Service Tax (SGST): Intra state
(within the state) VAT/sales tax, purchase tax, entertainment tax, luxury tax, lottery tax and
state surcharge and cesses.

Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST): Intra state (within the state): Central Excise Duty,
Service tax, countervailing duty, additional duty of customs, surcharges, education and
secondary/higher secondary cess.
Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) Inter state (integrated GST): There are four major
GST rate: (5%, 12%, 18% and 28%) Almost all the necessities of life like vegetables and food
grains are excempted from this tax.
1. The three levels of government in India are

(a) Union, State and local
(b) Central, State and village
(c) Union, municipality and panchayat
2. In India, taxes are including
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
3. Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign policy
(c) Regulate the economy
(d) All of above
4. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
(a) Service tax
(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Central sales tax
5. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
(a) Value added tax (VAT)
(b) Income tax
(c) Goods and service tax
(d) Sales tax
6. Income tax was introduced in India for the first time in the year _____________
(a) 1860
(b) 1870
(c) 1880

(d) 1850
7. ______________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Corporate tax
(d) Excise duty
8. What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods
(b) High tax rate
(c) Smuggling
(d) All of above
Fill in the blanks:
1. _____________ is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy.

2. The origin of the word “tax” is from the word _____________
3. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on _______________
4. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called
_____________
1. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?

i) GST is the “one point tax”.
ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State
Governments.
iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
iv) It will have unified the tax structure in India.
(b) ii, iii and iv are correct
(c) i, iii and iv are correct
(d) All are correct
1. Income tax - Value added tax

2. Excise duty - 1 July 2017
3. VAT - Smuggling
4. GST - Direct tax
5. Black money - Indirect tax
Answers:

1. Union, state and local 2. Both (a) and (b) 3. all of above 4. Income tax 5. Goods and service
tax 6.1860 7. Wealth tax
8. All of above
Fill in the blanks:
1. Tax 2. Taxation 3. Direct 4. 1st July 2017 5. Black Money

1. (i) , (iii) and (iv) are correct

1. Income Tax - Direct tax

2. Excise duty – Indirect tax
3. VAT – Value added tax
4. GST – 1st July 2017
5. Black money – Smuggling

27] Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu
Do You Know?
Countries in the southern hemisphere are called Global South Countries.

Information Technology Specific Special Economic Zones: In order to make development
more inclusive, Tier II cities such as Coimbatore, Madurai, Trichy, Tirunelveli, Hosur and
Salem have been promote as IT investment destinations apart from the Chennai region. To
facilitate this, ELCOT has established ELCOSEZs, (IT Specific Special Economic Zones) in the
following eight locations: Chennai - Sholinganallur, Coimbatore - Vilakurichi, Madurai -
Ilandhaikulam, Madurai – Vadapalanji-Kinnimangalam, Trichy - Navalpattu. Companies
desiring to set up units in the state can avail themselves of the facilities provided in ELCOSEZs.
The possibility of setting up ELCOSEZs in new locations will be explored based on demand
and viability. (Map Information Communication Technology Policy - 2018-19) . Tirunelveli -
Gangaikondan, Salem - Jagirammapalaym, Hosur - Viswanthapuram.
Special Economic Zones (SEZs): A policy was introducted in April 2000 for the settling up of
special economic Zones in the country with a view to a hassle-free environment for exports.
Accordingly, the government has converted Export Processing Zones located at following
places: Nanguneri SEZ - A multi product SEZ, Thirunelveli; Ennore SEZ - Thermal power
project, Vayalur; Coimbatore SEZ - IT Parks; Hosur SEZ - Auto Engineering, Electronics,
Defence and Aerospace; Perambalur SEZ - Multi product SEZ; Autocity SEZ - Automoblile/Auto
Components, Tiruvallur; India-Singapore SEZ - IT & ITES, Electronic Hardware, Logistics and
Warehousing Thiruvallur District; Bio-Pharmaceuticals SEZ - Clinical Research Organisation,
Poison Control Centre, Centre for Regenerative Medicine, Medicine Research.
Madras Export Processing Zone (MEPZ): MEPZ is a Special Economic Zone in Chennai. It is
one of the seven exports processing zones in the country set up the central government. It
was established in 1984 to promote foreign direct investment, enhance foreign exchange

earnings and create greater employment opportunities in the region. The MEPZ headquarters
in located on GST Road in Tambaram, Chennai.
Start-up India Scheme (Launched 16-Jan-2016): Start-up India Scheme is an initiative of the
Indian government, the primary objective of which is the promotion of start-ups, generation
of employment and wealth creation.
Stand-up India Scheme (Launched 5-April-2016): Stand-up India Scheme is to facilitate bank
loans between ₹.10 lakh and ₹.1 crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe
(ST) borrower and one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a green-field
enterprise.
1. “The Detroit of Asia” is ____________

(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
2. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharmapuri
3. _____________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) None of these
4. Tiruppur is known for
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Agro-Processing
5. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Tirunelveli
Fill in the blanks:

1. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around _____________ District in
Tamil Nadu.
2. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in _____________
3. ____________ is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.
Pick out odd one:
1. Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Dharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
2. Which one of the following is not an industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPZ
(d) SIPCOT
1. Entrepreneur - Export Processing Zone

2. MEPZ - Coimbatore
3. Indian Ordance Factory - Organizer
4. TNPL - Aravankadu
5. Machester of South India – Karur
Answers:
1. Chennai 2. Coimbatore 3. Industry 4. Knitwear 5. Hosur

Fill in the blanks:
1. Vellore 2. April 2000 3. Entrepreneur

Pick out odd one:
1. Dharmapuri 2. MEPZ
1. Entrepreneur - Organizer
2. MEPZ - Export Processing Zone
3. Indian Ordnance Factory - Aravankadu
4. TNPL – Karur
5. Manchester of south India - Coimbatore

6 To 10 DYK Book Back Social EM

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6th To 10th DYK - Book Back Social Science - EM

Join Tnpsc Test Series Buy Question Bank Books

History is the study of past events in chronological order.

Numismatics – The study of Coins, Epigraphy – The study of inscription

Choose the correct answer:

(d) Rearing of animals

(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.

(b) Statement and reason are correct

(c) Statement is wrong, and reason is correct

Find out which of the following is related to the statement:

(b) Burial materials

(c) Stone tools

3. Find out the wrong pair:

(a) Old Stone age - Stone tools

(b) Rock paintings - Walls of the caves

(c) Copper plates - A source of history

(d) Cats - First domesticated

4. Find the odd one:

(a) Paintings were drawn on rocks and caves.

(b) There were paintings depicting hunting scenes.

(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.

(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours.

Fill in the blanks:

1. The Old Stone Age man lived mostly in _______________.

2. ____________ is the father of history.

4. Inscriptions are ___________ sources.

5. Ashoka Chakra has ____________ spokes.

State true or false:

3. During the period of Ashoka, Buddhism spread across the country.

Match the following:

1. Rock paintings - Copper plates

4. Religious Literature - To understand the lifestyle

Choose the correct answer:

1. Statement and reason are correct.

3. Cats- First domesticated

4. It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.

Fill in the blanks:

1. Caves 2. Herodotus 3. Dog 4. Archaeological 5. 24

State True or False:

1. True 2. True 3. True

Match the following:

6th Social Science Lesson 2

Choose the correct answer:

1. The process of evolution is _____________.

2. Tanzania is situated in the continent of ______________.

Reason: Climate changes.

(a) Statement is correct

(b) Reason is wrong

(c) Statement and Reason is correct

(d) Statement and Reason is wrong

Find out the Right pair:

1. Australopithecus - Walked on both legs

2. Homo habilis - Upright man

3. Homo erectus - Wise man

4. Homo sapiens - Less protruding face

Fill in the blanks:

1. ______________ unearthed the footprints of early humans in Tanzania.

2. Millions Of years ago, our ancestors led a ______________ life.

5. Rock paintings are found at ______________ in Nilgiris.