MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics

B.Pharm. 6th Semester
1. The substantial degradation of an orally administered drug caused by enzyme metabolism
in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation.
A. First-pass metabolism
B. Disposition
C. Antagonist
D. Hydrophilic

2. The increase in hepatic enzyme activity that results in greater metabolism of drugs
A. Bioavailability
B. Elimination
C. Enzyme
D. Enzyme induction

3. The study of the factors associated with drug products and physiological processes, and
the resulting systemic concentration of drugs.

o A. Disposition
o B. Complexation
o C. Biopharmaceutics
o D. Bioavailability

4. The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms.

o A. Bioequivalency
o B. Bioavailablity
o C. Biopharmaceutics
o D. Biological

5. The relative amount of an administered dose that reaches the general circulation and the
rate at which this occurs

o A. Biological
o B. Bioavailability
o C. Biopharmaceutics
o D. Bioequivalency

6. Water repelling; cannot associate with water

 o A. Hydrophilic
o B. Hydrophobic
o C. Hydraulic
o D. Hydrogen

7. Capable of associating with or absorbing water

o A. Hydrophilic
o B. Hydrophobic
o C. Hydrologic
o D. Hydraulic

8. The blood filtering process of the nephron

o A. Glomerular filtration
o B. Disposition
o C. Complexation
o D. Enzyme

9. The time a drug will stay in the stomach before it is emptied into the small intestine

o A. Glomerular filtration
o B. Gastric emptying time
o C. Disposition
o D. Agonist

10. The decrease in hepatic enzyme activity that results in reduced metabolism of drugs

o A. First-pass metabolism
o B. Hydrophilic
o C. Gastric emptying time
o D. Enzyme inhibition

11. A complex protein that catalyzes chemical reactions

o A. Enzyme
o B. Enzyme induction
o C. Enzyme inhibition
 o D. Enzymes from fruit

12. The transfer of drugs and their metabolites from the liver to the bile in the gall bladder,
then into the intestine, and then back into circulation

o A. Enzyme
o B. Enterohepatic cycling
o C. First-past metabolism
o D. Glomerular filtration

13. The process of metabolism and excretion

o A. Elimination
o B. Disposition
o C. Antagonists
o D. Absorption

14. The time for which the drug concentration is above the MEC.

o A. Elimination
o B. Disposition
o C. Duration of action
o D. Absorption

15. A term sometimes used to refer to all the ADME processes together.

o A. Complexation
o B. Disposition
o C. Enzyme inhibition
o D. Enzyme

16. When different molecules associate or attach to each other

o A. Biopharmaceutics
o B. Elimination
o C. Complexation
o D. Bio hazard
17. The movement of drugs from an area of the lower concentration to an area of higher
concentration; requires cellular energy

o A. Active transport
o B. Absorption
o C. Antagonist
o D. Agonist

18. The movement of drug from the dosage formulation to the blood

o A. Absorption
o B. Active transport
o C. Hydrate
o D. First-pass metabolism

19. Drugs that activate receptors to accelerate or slow normal cellular function

o A. Antagonist
o B. Agonists
o C. Disposition
o D. Lipoidal

20. Drugs that bind with receptors but do not activate them

o A. Agonists
o B. Antagonist
o C. Antiviral
o D. Antibacterial

21. Fat like substance

o A. Grease
o B. Chicken
o C. Emulsion
o D. Lipoidal

22. The attachment of a drug molecule to a protein, effectively making the drug inactive

o A. Metabolite
 o B. Metabolism
o C. Protein binding
o D. None of the above

23. The cellular material which interacts with the drug

o A. Selective (action)
o B. Receptor
o C. Selective (action)
o D. Onset of action

24. The movement of drugs from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration

o A. Pharmaceutical alternative
o B. Passive diffusion
o C. Receptor
o D. Site of action

25. The characteristic of a drug that makes it action specific to certain receptors

o A. Selective (action)
o B. Passive diffusion
o C. Nephron
o D. Neuron

26. The location where an administered drug produces and effect

o A. Systemic effect
o B. Onset of action
o C. Site of action
o D. Selective (action)

27. The blood concentration needed for a drug to produce a response

o A. Metabolite
o B. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
o C. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)
o D. Protein binding
28. The time at which MEC is reached and the response occurs.

o A. Onset of action
o B. Passive diffusion
o C. Systemic effect
o D. Site of action

29. A drug's blood concentration range between its MEC and MTC.

o A. Therapeutic equivalent
o B. Therapeutic window
o C. Receptor
o D. Onset of action

30. The upper limit of the therapeutic window

o A. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

o B. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
o C. Therapeutic window
o D. Therapeutic equivalent

31. Drug products that containing identical amounts of the same active ingredient in the
same dosage form

o A. Pharmaceutical alternative
o B. Passive diffusion
o C. Pharmaceutical equivalent
o D. Onset of action

32. Pharmaceutical equivalent that produce the same effects in patients

o A. Therapeutic equivalent
o B. Therapeutic window
o C. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
o D. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)
33. Drug products that contain the same active ingredient but not necessarily in the same
salt form, amount, or dosage form

o A. Pharmaceutical equivalents
o B. Passive diffusion
o C. Receptor
o D. Pharmaceutical alternative

34. The place where a drug causes and effect to occur is called the

o A. Site of action
o B. Site of administration
o C. Therapeutic window
o D. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

35. When a drug produces an effect, it is action at a/an _____ level

o A. Tissue
o B. Atomic
o C. Molecular
o D. Organ

36. Drug action can be caused by a

o A. Physical action, such as a protective ointment

o B. Chemical action, such as an antacid neutralizing acidity
o C. Osmotic action, such as moving water out of tissues into blood
o D. All of the above

37. An antagonist will

o A. Not bind to a receptor

o B. Accelerate a normal body process
o C. Prevent other drugs from binding to a receptor
o D. Cause extended stimulation of receptor

38. In a blood concentration-time curve, the range between the minimum toxic
concentration (MTC) and the minimum effective concentration (MEC), is called the
 o A. Onset of action
o B. Concentration at site of action
o C. Duration of action
o D. Therapeutic window

39. The time a drug's blood concentration is above the MTC is called the

o A. Onset of action
o B. Duration of action
o C. Concentration at site of action
o D. None of the above

40. When studying concentration and effect, the ____ is the time MEC is reached and the
response occurs

o A. Therapeutic window
o B. MTC
o C. Onset of action
o D. Duration of action

41. Which drug would not typically be monitored with peak and through blood
concentrations?

o A. Vancomycin
o B. Valproic acid
o C. Promethazine
o D. Phenytoin

42. If the blood concentration-time profile reflects the amount of drug at the site of action,
the maximum therapeutic response would occur

o A. At the onset of action

o B. At the MEC
o C. At the peak blood concentration
o D. When elimination is the predominant process

43. The transfer of a drug out of a dosage form and into the blood is called

o A. Absorption
 o B. Dissolution
o C. Metabolism
o D. Elimination

44. Blood concentrations are the result of ______ simultaneously occurring processes,
which together are referred to as _____

o A. Two, passive diffusion

o B. Four, disposition
o C. Three, elimination
o D. Five, absorption

45. Unionized drugs are

o A. Actively transported
o B. Hydrophobic drugs
o C. Passively diffused through membranes
o D. Hydrophilic drugs

46. Which processes can influence the absorption of drugs given orally?

o A. First-pass metabolism
o B. Intestinal transit time
o C. Gastric emptying
o D. All of the above

47. Which formulation does not have an absorption step?

o A. Intravenous sol.
o B. Intramuscular emulsion
o C. Topical cream
o D. Vaginal suppository

48. When drug molecules are bound to plasma or tissue proteins they are

o A. More potent
o B. Metabolized
o C. Inactive
 o D. Excreted

49. An enzyme is a complex _____ that catalyzes chemical reactions

o A. Lipid
o B. Mineral
o C. Protein
o D. Atom

50. When some drugs are chronically administered, the liver will decrease its enzyme
activity, this is called

o A. Enzyme induction
o B. Enzyme inhibition
o C. Enzyme secretion
o D. First pass metabolism

51. Enterohepatic recycling occurs when a

o A. Drug is metabolized to a metabolite

o B. Drug is secreted to the intestines along with the bile
o C. Drug is secreted into the intestines along with the bile and reabsorbed back
into the blood circulation
o D. All of the above

52. Elimination is

o A. Absorption and metabolism

o B. Metabolism and excretion
o C. Distribution and excretion
o D. Distribution and metabolism

53. Which set of circumstances will result in a drug undergoing urinary reabsorption?

o A. Basic drug in high urine pH

o B. Basic drug in low urine pH
o C. Acidic drug in high urine pH
o D. None of the above
 54. The amount of drug excreted in the urine is the amount

o A. Filtered + secreted + reabsorbed

o B. Filtered + secreted - reabsorbed
o C. Filtered - secreted + reabsorbed
o D. Filtered - secreted - reabsorbed

55. The percentage or fraction of the administered dose of a drug that actually reaches the
system circulation and the rate at which this occurs is the drug's

o A. Bio equivalence
o B. Bio availability
o C. Bio transformation
o D. Bio pharmaceutics

56. To determine the bio availability of a drug product, it must be compared to another
product containing the same drug. If the second product is an intravenous solution, the bio
availability is termed

o A. Relative
o B. Bio equivalent
o C. Redundant
o D. Absolute

57. For elimination of a drug to be essentially complete, ___ times the half-life must elapse.

o A. Two
o B. Three
o C. Five
o D. Seven

58. The rate of drug transport across a cell membrane by lipid diffusion depends on all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Drug size (diffusion constant)
b) Lipid partition coefficient
c) Density of transporters
d) Concentration gradient
59. The major mechanism of drug transport involved in the transport of drug out of the blood
into tissues is:
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Active transport
d) Facilitated transport

60. The distribution of drugs into the central nervous system (brain) usually depends on:
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Active transport
d) Facilitated transport

61. A characteristic of absorption by lipid diffusion is its saturability at high drug

concentrations.
True or False

62. Drugs with low oil:water partition coefficients undergo lipid diffusion more rapidly than
drugs with high oil:water partition coefficients.
True or False

63. A fundamental characteristic of all first order pharmacokinetic processes is that the rate
of the process is proportional to drug concentration:
True or False

64. Competition between two drugs for binding to plasma protein(s) can result in a change in
the concentration of free drug and potential drug toxicity.
True or False

65. At pH 9.0, morphine (a weak base containing an ionizable amine group, pKa of 7.0)
would exist predominantly in the charged form.
True or False

66. Following intravenous administration, drugs are distributed fastest to:

a) the skin, kidney, and brain
b) the liver, kidney, and brain
c) the liver, adipose, and brain
d) the liver, kidney, and adipose
67. At pH 5.0, the ratio of the protonated to unprotonated forms of morphine (a weak base
containing an ionizable amine group, pKa = 7.0) would be:
a) 1:100
b) 1:10
c) 1:1
d) 100:1

68. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be associated with a high apparent
volume of distribution?
a) High hepatic extraction ratio
b) Extensive binding to plasma protein
c) Distribution into total body water
d) Extensive binding to tissue constituents

69. For a normal sized adult, the hepatic clearance of a drug whose metabolism is limited by
the rate of blood flow to the liver would be:
a) 60 milliliters/min
b) 120 milliliters/min
c) I650 milliliters/min
d) 1500 milliliters/min

70. For a drug that is eliminated primarily by renal glomerular filtration, the theoretical
maximum clearance is approximately:
a) 1-2 milliliters/min
b) 12 milliliters/min
c) 120 milliliters/min
d) 1250 milliliters/min

71. Passive diffusion is expressed by

a) Fick’s first law of diffusion
b) Fick’s second law of diffusion
c) First order kinetics
d) Zero order kinetics

72. Noyes and Whitney equation is used to describe

a) Absorption
b) Dissolution
c) Distribution
d) Disintegration

73. ___________is used to study gastric emptying

a) Barium sulphate
b) Aluminium sulphate
c) Calcium sulphate
d) Aluminium hydroxide
74. The rate of drug transport across a cell membrane by lipid diffusion depends on all of the
following except
a) Surface area of absorption
b) Lipid partition coefficient
c) Density of transporters
d) Concentration gradient

75. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be associated with a high apparent
volume of distribution?
a) Penetration across the blood brain and blood testis barriers
b) Extensive binding to plasma protein
c) Distribution into total body water
d) Extensive binding to tissue constitutions

76. For a drug that is eliminated primarily by renal glomerular filtration, the theoretical
maximum clearance is approximately
a) 1-2 ml/min
b) 12 ml/min
c) 120 ml/min
d) 1200 ml/min

77. The half life of a drug eliminated by first order elimination kinetics will be longer in
individual who have an …
a) Increased volume of distribution or increased clearance
b) Increased volume of distribution or decreased clearance
c) Decreased volume of distribution or increased clearance
d) Decreased volume of distribution or decreased clearance

78. The volume of distribution of drug is …..

a) An expression of total body volume
b) A measure of total fluid volume
c) A relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the
concentration of the drug in the blood
d) Proportional to bioavailability of the drug

79. The area under the serum concentration time curve of the drug represents
a) The biological half-life of the drug
b) The amount of drug in the original dosage form
c) The amount of drug absorbed
d) The amount of drug excreted in the urine

80. The loading dose of a drug is based upon the

a) Time taken for complete elimination
b) Percentage of drug excreted unchanged in urine
c) Percentage of drug bound to plasma protein
d) Apparent volume of distribution and the desired drug concentration in plasma
81. According to pH partition theory, a weakly acidic drug will most likely be absorbed from
the stomach because the drug which exist primarily in the
a) Un ionized, more lipid soluble form
b) Ionised, more water soluble form
c) Form of weak acid and more soluble in acid media
d) Ionic form of the drug, which facilitates diffusion

82. The term bioavailability refers to the

a) Relationship between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and the systemic
absorption of the drug
b) Measurement of the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that reaches
the systemic circulation
c) Movement of drug into the body tissues over time
d) Dissolution of drug in the gastrointestinal tract

83. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement for …..

a) Glomerular filtration rate
b) Renal excretion rate
c) Drug metabolism rate
d) Passive renal excretion

84. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a
a) Controlled release product
b) Hard gelatin capsule
c) Tablet
d) Solution

85. Renal excretion of drug depend on…….

a) Urine flow
b) pH of the urine
c) Physiochemical properties of the drug
d) All of the above

86. The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of

a) Effective renal blood flow
b) Rate of renal drug excretion
c) Active renal secretion
d) Glomerular filtration rate

87. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to biotransform the drugs?
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Lungs
d) Skin
88. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the ….
a) Rate of blood flow to tissue
b) Tissue binding
c) Protein binding
d) All the above

89. p-Aminohippurate is used to measure

a) Effective hepatic blood flow
b) Effective renal blood flow
c) Effective lungs blood flow
d) Non of the above

90. Total body clearance is

a) The drug elimination rate divided by the plasma drug concentration
b) The drug elimination rate divided by the Vd
c) The amount of drug in body divided by the plasma drug concentration
d) None of the above

91. All are characteristics of passive diffusion except

a) Drugs moves down the concentration gradient
b) It is an energy independent process
c) Drugs moves up the concentration gradient
d) It is non saturable process

92. Which form of drug shows rapid dissolution rate?

a) Crystalline
b) Amorphous
c) Hydrate
d) None of the above

93. Protein binding of drugs helps to maintain ______ for absorption of drugs.
a) Non-sink condition
b) Sink condition
c) Biological condition
d) Non of the above

94. The process in which some drugs stimulate their own metabolism is known as
a) Enzyme inhibition
b) Auto induction
c) Product inhibition
d) None of the above

95. Which of the following is carrier mediated transport system

a) Passive diffusion
b) Active transport
c) Pore transport
 d) None of the above

96. As per BCS system, class I drugs comes under

a) High solubility high permeability
b) Low solubility high permeability
c) High solubility low permeability
d) Low solubility low permeability

97. Dissolution test apparatus I as per IP is

a) Paddle
b) Basket
c) Rotating basket
d) Rotating cylinder

98. Absorption of poorly soluble drug is

a) Diffusion rate limited
b) Dissolution rate limited
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

99. Very weak bases having pKa<5

a) Are ionized in the entire pH range of GIT
b) Show absorption, which is pH dependent
c) Are unionized at all pH values
d) None of the above

100. ______ is the concerned with the release of drugs from the dosage form and its
subsequent absorption into systemic circulation
a) clinical pharmacokinetics
b) pharmacodynamics
c) biopharmaceutics
d) all of the above

101. Which one of the following physicochemical property is more important for passive
diffusion of drugs from the GIT?
a) Partition coefficient
b) Lipid solubility
c) pH of GIT fluids
d) Dissolution rate constant

102. Micronized form of drug absorbed fast because

a) Surface area increased
b) Viscosity increased
c) Angle of distribution increased
d) None of the above
103. Drugs undergoing first pass metabolism are advised not to be administered through
a) Oral route
b) Rectal route
c) Parenteral route
d) Transdermal route

104. The pH range of stomach is:

a) 0-2
b) 1-3
c) 3-5
d) 5.5-7.5

105. Small intestine has a pH range of:

a) 5-7.5
b) 7.9-8
c) 7.5-8
d) 1-3

106. Large intestine has a pH range of:

a) 1-3
b) 7.9-8
c) 5-7.5
d) 7.5 – 8

107. The pH of rectum varies from:

a) 7.9-8
b) 7.5-8
c) 1-3
d) 5-7.5

108. Bile has a pH range of:

a) 7.8-8.6
b) 4.5-7.5
c) 5-7.5
d) 7.9-8

109. Mouth has a pH value of:

a) 7
b) 7.4
c) 6.8
d) 5.5

110. The pH of saliva varies from:

a) 5.5-7.5
b) 5.8-8.4
 c) 6.4-7.6
d) 7.9-8

111. The mean salivary pH in man:

a) 6.4
b) 7
c) 6.8
d) 7.4

112. The pH of milk varies from:

a) 5.5-7.5
b) 5.8-8.4
c) 6.4-7.6
d) 7.9-8

113. The mean pH value of milk:

a) 6.4
b) 6.8
c) 7
d) 7.4

114. The MW of HSA is:

a) 44000
b) 65000
c) 59000
d) 64500

115. The % abundance of HSA in total plasma:

a) 99
b) 90
c) 55
d) 59

116. The MW of Hb is:

a) 44000
b) 65000
c) 59000
d) 64500

117. The order of binding to extravascular tissues:

a) Liver>kidney>lung>muscle
b) Liver>lung>kidney>muscle
c) Lung>liver>muscle>kidney
d) Liver>kidney>muscle>lung

118. …………………….drugs bind to HSA & ……….. drugs bind to AAG:

 a) Anionic & cationic
b) Cationic & anionic
c) Anionic & neutral
d) Neutral & cationic

119. The disorder caused by displacement of bilirubin by NSAIDs:

a) Diabetes
b) Hypoalbuminemia
c) Kernicterus
d) Renal dysfunction

120. Metabolism converts:

a) Non polar drugs to polar
b) Polar drugs to non polar
c) Cationic to anionic
d) Anionic drugs to cationic

121. Which of the following change represents a change in pharmacologic activity:

a) Digitoxin to digoxin
b) Aspirin to salicylic acid
c) Diazepam to tenazepam
d) Isoniazid to iproniazid

122. Codeine to morphine, this is an example of:

a) N dealkylation
b) S dealkylation
c) O dealkylation
d) Oxidative deamination

123. ……………. Is the most common Phase- II reaction:

a) Glutathione conjugation
b) Glucoronidation
c) Acetylation
d) Methylation

124. GFR is:

a) 650 ml/min
b) 500 ml/min
c) 120-130 ml/min
d) <100 ml/min

125. Renal clearance value for creatinine is:

a) 130
b) 0
c) >130
d) 650
126. Renal clearance ration for glucose is:
a) 5
b) 0-1
c) >1
d) 0

127. The highest value (650) of renal clearance belongs to:

a) Inulin
b) Glucose
c) Iodopyracet
d) Creatinine

128. The renal function is …………….. of normal:

a) <0.7
b) >0.7
c) 0.7
d) 1

129. Excretion of drugs in milk is a :

a) Passive diffusion
b) Active transport
c) Both a and b
d) Active secretion

130. Gaseous and volatile substances are excreted by:

a) Milk
b) Skin
c) Bile
d) Lungs

131. The decrease in enzyme content is called:

a) Induction
b) Inhibition
c) Repression
d) Altered physiology

132. Complete the following reaction-

RH+O2+NADPH+H+ = ……….. + H2O + NADP+
a) R+
b) ROH
c) RXH
d) R.

133. Gamma globulins bind specifically to:

a) Steroids
 b) Carotenoids
c) Antigens
d) Antibodies

134. The urine pH range is:

a) 5.5-7.5
b) 6.4-7.6
c) 5.8-8.4
d) 1-3

135. For passive diffusion the MW of drugs lies between:

a) 100-400D
b) >400D
c) <100D
d) 800-1200D

136. Which one of the following is true for ionic diffusion:

a) Anions>cations>unionized
b) Unionized>cations>anions
c) Unionized>anions>cations
d) Cations>anions>unionized

137. Under sink conditions;

a) Cs>>Cb
b) Cb>>Cs
c) Cs=Cb
d) None of the above

138. The order for dissolution of different solid dosage forms is:
a) Stable>metastable>amorphous
b) Amorphous>stable>metastable
c) Amorphous>metastable>stable
d) Amorphous<metastable<stable

139. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when it is formulated as a:

a) CR product
b) Hard gelatin capsule
c) Tablet
d) Solution

140. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on:

a) Total body clearance of the drug
b) % of drug bound to plasma proteins
c) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in urine
d) Apparent volume of distribution & desired drug conc. in plasma
141. Diclofenac tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate has been administered to
a patient. Where do you expect the drug to be released?
a) Stomach
b) Oral cavity
c) Small intestine
d) Liver

142. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by:
a) Rate of blood flow to the tissue
b) PPB of drug
c) Affinity for the tissue
d) Stomach emptying time

143. In vitro dissolution rate studies on drug products are useful in bioavailability
evaluations if they are correlated with:
a) Disintegration rate
b) In vivo studies in atleast 3 species of animals
c) The chemical stability of the drug
d) In vivo studies in human

144. Half life equation for first order reaction is:

a) t1/2 = a/2k
b) t1/2 = 0.693/k
c) t1/2 = 1/ak
d) t1/2 = 3/2k

145. If a drug has a very small volume of distribution it is likely that this drug:
a) has a short biological half life
b) does not accumulate in various tissues & organs
c) not bioavailable
d) will not be effective

146. The term bioavailability refers to the:

a) The relationship between the physical & chemical properties of drug
b) Measurement of the rate & amount of drug that reaches the systemic circulation
c) Movement of drug into the body tissues over time
d) Dissolution of a drug in GIT

147. The area under the serum concentration time curve represents the:
a) Amount of drug that is cleared by the kidneys
b) Biologic half life of the drug
c) Amount of drug absorbed
d) Amount of drug excreted in the urine

148. According to the pH partition theory, a weakly acidic drug will most likely to be
absorbed from the stomach because the drug which exist primarily in the:
 a) Unionized, more lipid soluble form
b) Ionized, more water soluble form
c) Form of weak acid and more soluble in acid media
d) Ionic form of the drug which facilitates diffusion

149. Blood flow through a capillary is described by one of the following equations:
a) Langmuir
b) Noyes-Whitney
c) Hildebrand
d) Stokes

150. All of the following physicochemical constants are useful in predicting the
solubility of a drug except:
a) Dielectric constant
b) pH of the solution
c) pKa of the drug
d) Valency

151. pH of a buffer system can be calculated by using-

a) pH partition theory
b) Noyes-Whitney theory
c) Henderson- Hasselbalch equation
d) None of the above

152. The loading dose of a drug is based upon the-

a) Time taken for complete elimination
b) % of drug excreted unchanged in urine
c) % of drug bound to plasma protein
d) Apparent volume of distribution & the desired plasma drug conc.

153. The biological half life of a drug –

a) Is a constant physical property of the drug
b) Is a constant chemical property of the drug
c) May be increased in patients with impaired renal function
d) May be decreased by giving the drug by rapid iv injection

154. The volume of distribution of drug is-

a) An expression of total body volume
b) A measure of total fluid volume
c) A relationship between the amount of drug in the body & conc. of drug in blood
d) Proportional to bioavailability of the drug

155. The rate of diffusion of drug across biological membranes is-

a) Directly proportional to the conc. gradient
b) Dependent on the route of administration
c) Indirectly proportional to membrane thickness
 d) Both a and c

156. The biological half life of a drug of first order kinetics is-
a) 1/K
b) Log K
c) 0.693/K
d) 20303/K

157. On a product the label states protect from light. What type of decomposition does
the product undergoes?
a) Carboxylation
b) Decarboxylation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Oxidation

158. Aspirin undergoes decomposition in a formulation. It can be prevented by-

a) Adding a chelating agent
b) Adding an oxidant
c) Protecting it from light
d) Suppressing its solubility

159. Which one of the following is primarily not a chemical decomposition?

a) Isomerization
b) Hydrolysis
c) Oxidation
d) Volatilization

160. Which one of the following physicochemical properties is more important for
passive diffusion of drugs from the GIT?
a) Dissolution constant
b) Lip[id solubility
c) Partition coefficient
d) pH of the GI Fluids

161. Half life of drug may be useful to determine-

a) dosage schedule of the drug
b) level of absorption
c) distribution in body system
d) time to get the steady state

162. Phase II reactions of a drug biotransformation-

a) Decreases its water solubility
b) Includes activity of cytochrome P-450
c) Distribution into different body system
d) Lead to inactivation of drug
163. The rate of desorption is proportional to the-
a) Uncovered surface
b) Covered surface
c) Internal area
d) All of the above

164. The release of maintenance dose in sustained release dosage form should follow-
a) Zero order kinetics
b) First order kinetics
c) Second order kinetics
d) Pseudo order kinetics

165. The half life for first order photolysis of cefotaxime solution containing 150 mg
drug is 50 min. if the aliquot after 90 min of exposure was found to contain 0.43 mg of
cefotaxime, what was the original volume of the solution?
a) 100 ml
b) 120 ml
c) 80 ml
d) 140 ml

166. The normal creatinine clearance value in humans is ……………. ml/min-

a) 100-110
b) 80-90
c) 150-160
d) 120-130

167. If the pKa of phenobarbitone is 7.4, what fraction of drug would be ionized at pH
8.4?
a) 0.01
b) 0.5
c) 0.9
d) 1

168. The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation, describes the-

a) First order kinetics
b) Zero order kinetics
c) Mixed order kinetics
d) Dissolution rate

169. Drug X has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance
dose rate will be directly proportional to-
a) Plasma protein binding
b) Volume of distribution
c) Lipid solubility
d) Total body clearance
170. Which category of drug is evaluated for dissolution?
a) Highly diffusible
b) Diffusion
c) Poorly water soluble
d) Water soluble

171. The biological half life of procaine in a patient was 35 mins and its volume of
distribution was estimated to be 60 litres. The total clearance rate of procaine is-
a) 1.88 l/min
b) 0.115 l/min
c) 11.5 l/min
d) 5.57 l/min

172. The tablet of Aceclofenac is given to a patient. Its dose was 200 mg, after 2 h the
concentration was found to be 10 mcg/ml. What is the volume of distribution of
Aceclofenac?
a) 2 litres
b) 20 litres
c) 200 litres
d) 2000 litres

173. Active tubular secretion is determined by-

a) Creatinine
b) Mannitol
c) Iodopyracet
d) Sodium thiosulfate

174. Drug X has a MW of 750 D. from which of the following route will it get
excreted?
a) Bile
b) Urine
c) Both
d) Cannot say

175. Flip flop phenomena occurs when-

a) Ka/Ke > 3
b) Ke/Ka > 3
c) Ka = Ke
d) None

176. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Alloxanthine is a long acting competitive inhibitor
b) Probenecid decreases half life of alloxanthine and allopurinol increases half life
of probenecid
c) NSAID increase the action of uricosuric drugs
d) None of the above
177. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Half life increases or increases in the first order kinetics due to increase or decrease in
dose
b) Increase dose results decreased Cl, half life increased in zero order kinetics
c) In 4-5 half life nearly complete drug elimination occurs
d) Both a and c

178. How much solvent is required to dissolve a sparingly soluble salt?

a) 10 to 30 parts
b) 1 to 10 parts
c) 100 to 150 parts
d) 100 to 1000 parts

179. Sigma minus method is used to determine the-

a) Rate of absorption
b) Rate of elimination
c) Rate of excretion
d) Rate of metabolism

180. According to the pH partition theory, a weakly acidic drug will be absorbed more
likely from the stomach, because the drug exists primarily in the-
a) Form of weak acid and more soluble in acid medium
b) Ionized, more water soluble form
c) Ionic form which facilitated diffusion
d) Unionized, more lipid soluble form

181. When the release of drug from a dosage form satisfies Higuchi’s equation, the
release of drug can be considered as-
a) Absorption rate controlled
b) Diffusion rate controlled
c) Dissolution rate controlled
d) Dosing rate controlled

182. In biotransformation, phase 1 reaction is also known as-

a) Conjugation
b) Synthetic
c) Functionalization reaction
d) None of above

183. According to the pH partition hypothesis, the absorption of drug is maximum

when-
a) Drug is ionized
b) Drug is unionized
c) Both
d) Cannot say
184. What effect does plasma protein binding have on biotransformation?
a) Change the mechanism
b) Increases the formation of metabolites
c) Slows the process
d) Has no effect

185. Apparent volume of distribution increases when-

a) More tissue binding of drug
b) More protein binding of drug
c) Both
d) None

186. Zolmitryptan is given i.v. to the patient in dose of 1.2 mg/kg (AUC = 450
mcg.hour/l). Same drug was given as oral SR tablet in dose 8.0 mg/kg ( AUC = 1040
mcg.hour/l). What is the absolute bioavailability of SR tablet?
a) 30%
b) 35%
c) 38%
d) 42%

187. Which statement is correct?

a) Mainly acidic drug bind to albumin
b) Mainly basic drug bind to albumin
c) Acidic drug binds only to AAG
d) None of the above.

188. Calculate the dialysis clearance if the blood flow rate to the dialysis is 50ml/min
and concentration of drug entering and leaving the dialyser is 100 and 20 mcg/ml,
respectively.
a) 20 ml/min
b) 40 ml/min
c) 35 ml/min
d) 50 ml/min

189. The reaction rate constant k is 2 X10-3/min for aspirin hydrolysis in 0.1 N HCl at
1 mg/ml concentration. Under same conditions, if the product contains aspirin 4 mg/ml of
the initial concentration, the k value in /min will be-
a) 0.5 X10-3/min
b) 2 X10-3/min
c) 4 X10-3/min
d) 8 X10-3/min

190. The half life of a first order reaction is 4 years. What is its shelf life in years?
a) 0.02
b) 0.03
 c) 0.17
d) 0.61

191. Generally passage of drug molecules across a cell membrane from high
concentration to a region of low concentration is known as-
a) Carrier mediated
b) Dissolution
c) Passive diffusion
d) Pinocytosis

192. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on the-

a) Total body clearance of the drug
b) Apparent volume of distribution
c) Percentage of drug bound to plasma protein
d) AUC

193. Following is not true for pKa of a drug-

a) pH at which half of the molecules of solute in solution are ionized
b) it is determined using Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
c) it affects the solubility of the drug at a given pH
d) at pH above this the solute exists in ionized forms

194. Following is true for Kw/o in Brunner’s equation-

a) partition coefficient of drug is between the lipoidal membrane and the aqueous GI
fluids
b) higher the value of Kw/o, faster the dissolution
c) it is an intrinsic dissolution rate constant
d) both b and c

195. Capacity limited process is best described by-

a) Michaelis-Menten equation
b) Lineweaver-Burk equation
c) Hanes-Woolf plot
d) All

196. In Michaelis-Menten equation, when km = C

a) The rate of process is equal to half of max. rate
b) Equation becomes identical to first order elimination of drug
c) Indicates zero order process
d) The rate process occurs at a constant rate

197. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by-
a) Rate of blood flow to the tissue
b) Plasma protein binding of drug
c) Affinity for the tissue
d) Stomach emptying tissue
198. When absorption is solubility or dissolution, the rate limited order of reaction will
be-
a) First order
b) Zero order
c) Mixed order
d) Rate limited process does not affect the order of reaction

199. Compartment modeling is explained by assuming-

a) Rate of drug presentation is first order
b) Drug disposition is first order
c) Rate of drug absorption is constant’
d) Both a and b

200. Surfactant increases the bioavailability of drug-

a) Promoting the wetting and penetration of dissolution fluid into the solid drug particles
b) Forming adsorptive layer on drug molecule and inhibiting Ostwald ripening
c) Enhancement of dissolution rate
d) All of the above

201. Absorption of contraceptives from vaginal route follows-

a) Passive diffusion
b) Endocytosis
c) Carrier mediated transport
d) Pore transport

202. Glucoronidation process results in-

a) Increased Biliary excretion of drug
b) Increased renal excretion of drug
c) Decreased Biliary excretion of drug
d) Both a and b

203. An agent used to determine the hepatic function is-

a) Inulin
b) Mannitol
c) Sulphobromophthalein
d) Raffinose

204. When statistical moment theory is used for IVIVC-

a) Mean dissolution time is correlated with mean residence time
b) LD50 is correlated with rate constant of dissolution
c) Drug excreted unchanged in urine is correlated with percent drug dissolved
d) 63.2% of drug dissolved is correlated with 63.2% of initial conc.reduction

205. One compartment open model, iv bolus, can be explained mathematically by-
 a) Multi-exponential equation
b) Mono-exponential equation
c) Calculation loading dose and Css
d) Calculating %ARA

206. Absolute bioavailability is denoted by-

a) [AUC]oral/[AUC]iv
b) [AUC]test/[AUC]std
c) [AUC]oral. Div/[AUC]iv. Doral
d) [AUC]test. Dstd/[AUC]std. Dtest

207. The order of dissolution of different dosage forms of drugs is-

a) Metastable>Stable>Amorphous
b) Stable>Amorphous>Metastable
c) Amorphous>metaStable>Stable
d) Amorphous>Stable>Metastable

208. Which of following are not characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

a) Carrier mediated transport
b) Concentration gradient is required
c) Structural specificity
d) Non-saturable

209. The main mechanism of most drug absorption in GI tract is-

a) Active transport
b) Filtration
c) Endocytosis and Exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion

210. During the primary drying stage in Lyophilization the temperature of the product
must remain below its critical temperature. This temperature is termed as-
a) Collapse temperature
b) Breakdown temperature
c) Lyophilization temperature
d) Subcritical temperature

211. Most commonly used bulking agent in lyophilized product is-

a) Methyl cellulose
b) Mannitol
c) NaCl
d) All

212. Nucleation process is involved in-

a) Distillation
b) Crystallization
c) Filtration
 d) None

213. Secondary drying stage of freeze drying is to-

a) Remove solvent from the product by evacuation of chamber
b) Remove bound water from solute to a level that assures long term stability of product
c) Both
d) None

214. Ideal solid content of a freeze dried product should be-

a) 5-30%
b) 40-50%
c) 40-60%
d) 70%

215. Which of the following mechanisms of drug absorption is saturable type?

a) Passive
b) Pore
c) Carrier mediated
d) None

216. Micronization of hydrophobic drug decrease solubility of drug. This is because-

a) Drug adsorbs air on their surface
b) Particle reaggregate to form large particle
c) Surface charges may prevent wetting
d) All of above

217. Which of the following polymorphic form of drug has the hishest solubility of
drug?
a) Amorphous
b) Metastable
c) Stable
d) Hydrated

218. Very weak bases (pKa = 5.0) nature drug absorbed in which of the following part
in our body?
a) Stomach
b) Intestine
c) Colon
d) Entire length of GIT

219. Higher absorption of drug through small intestine is due to-

a) Kekckring
b) Villi
c) Microvilli
d) None
220. Drug disposition includes-
a) Drug absorption and distribution
b) Drug absorption and metabolism
c) Drug distribution, metabolism and excretion
d) Drug metabolism and excretion

221. Drug elimination includes-

a) Absortion+Distribution
b) Absorption+metabolism
c) Distribution+metabolism+excretion
d) Metabolism+excretion

222. Which of the following process is responsible for loss of drug irreversible?
a) Elimination
b) Distribution
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

223. Which of the following types of drugs has tissue permeability as a rate limiting
step for drug distribution?
a) Lipophilic
b) Hydrophilic
c) Polar, hydrophilic
d) Both a and b

224. Which of the following part of brain where BBB does not exist?
a) Trigger area
b) Hypothalamic
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

225. Which of the following approaches have been used to promote crossing the BBB
by drug?
a) Use of permeation enhancers such as DMSO
b) Osmotic disruption of BBB by mannitol
c) Use of dihydropyridine redox system
d) All of above

226. Which of the following junctions is responsible for distribution of drug to

cerebrospinal from blood?
a) Choroidal cell junction
b) Glial cell junction
c) Basement cell junction
d) Both a and b
227. Which of the following barrier is responsible for transfer of nutrients from mother
to foetus?
a) Simple cell membrane barrier
b) BBB
c) Placental barrier
d) Blood-CSF barrier

228. Which one of the following marker is used to measure total body water?
a) Antipyrine
b) Evans blue
c) Na+
d) Mannitol

229. Inulin is used as a marker for measurement of-

a) Plasma
b) ECF
c) ICF
d) Total body water

230. Unit of apparent volume of distribution is-

a) Litre
b) Litre/Kg
c) Both a and b
d) Kg/litre

231. Which of the following binding site is not available in HSA?

a) Azaprpoazane
b) Diazepam
c) Digitoxin
d) Phenytoin

232. Which one of the following plasma protein has high affinity for binding with
drug?
a) HSA
b) AAG
c) Lipoprotein
d) Globulins

233. Larger dose of digoxin requirement to infants as compared to young age patient is
due to-
a) Greater protein binding of drug
b) Larger renal clearance of drug
c) Both a and b
d) None of above

234. Which one of the following process is responsible for higher half life of drug?
 a) Absorption
b) Excretion
c) Metabolism
d) Protein binding

235. The term bioavailability refers to the-

a) Relationship between the physical and chemical properties of the drug and the
systemic absorption of drug
b) Measurement of the rate and extent of the therapeutically active drug that
reaches the systemic circulation
c) Movement of drug into the body tissues with time
d) Dissolution of drug in the GIT

236. If a drug has very small volume of distribution, it is likely that this drug-
a) Has a short biological half life
b) Does not accumulate in various body organs
c) Is not bioavailable
d) Will not be effective

237. Drug metabolism is maximum during-

a) 6am to 9 am
b) 12noon to 3pm
c) 10pm to 12pm
d) Can’t say

238. Which one of the following is not a Phase 2 reaction-

a) Glucoronidation
b) Methylation
c) Acetylation
d) Oxidation

239. The relation between t90 and t50 for first order kinetics is-
a) t90 = 0.693 t50
b) t90 = 0.152 t50
c) t90 = 0.1 t50
d) t90 = 0.512 t50

240. The dissimilarity of bioavailability between two dosage forms-

a) Bioinequivalency
b) Bioavailability
c) Biopharmaceutics
d) Bioequivalency

241. Cell drinking is known as-

a) Pinocytosis
b) Phagocytosis
 c) Exocytosis
d) None

242. In mixed order kinetics-

a) Zero order changes to first order
b) First order changes to zero
c) First order changes to second order
d) It follows only first order kinetics

243. Cell eating is known as-

a) Exocytosis
b) Phagocytosis
c) Pinocytosis
d) None

244. In one compartment open model for iv bolus dose, the rate of drug absorption is-
a) zero
b) one
c) Ro
d) none

245. Xenobiotics are-

a) Exogenous compounds
b) Endogenous compounds
c) Nutrients
d) Agonist

246. The increase in hepatic enzyme activity that results in increased metabolism of
drugs-
a) First pass metabolism
b) Enzyme induction
c) Gastric emptying time
d) Enzyme inhibition

247. A protein that catalyzes chemical reactions-

a) Enzyme
b) Vitamins
c) Antibiotics
d) Drugs

248. The transfer of drugs and their metabolites from the liver to the bile in the gall
bladder then into the intestine and then back into circulation-
a) Enzyme induction
b) Entero-hepatic cycling
c) First pass metabolism
d) Repression
249. The process of conversion from one chemical form to another is-
a) Elimination
b) Metabolism
c) Antagonists
d) Absorption

250. Non Linear pharmacokinetics is also known as-

a) Mixed order kinetics
b) Dose dependent kinetics
c) Michaelis Menten Kinetics
d) All of the above