FIITJEE - Phase Test (JEE-Advanced) : Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics

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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-3 QP CODE: PAPER - 1


BATCH – Two Yr CRP(2224)-ABC-lot-PT-5

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 186

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Section is divided in to One Part: PART-A in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.


(i) Part-A (01-06) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) PART–A (07–14) contains eight (8) Multiple Choice questions with partial marking, which have ONE or
MORE THEN ONE correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −1
marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are Two multiple
choice questions. Each question has only One Correct Answer and carries +3 marks for the correct
answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________


PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A short coil is placed n a time-varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due to
the current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire
radius halved, the electrical power dissipated would be
(A) halved (B) same
(C) doubled (D) quadrupled

2. A straight conductor with its length in the East-West


direction falls under gravity. As a result of this motion
being in the Earth’s magnetic field, choose the
INCORRECT option.
(A) induced emf develops with the East end of the
conductor at higher potential than the West end.
(B) induced emf develops with the East end of the
conductor at lower potential than the West end. R
(C) induced current passes from East end to the West end
in resistor.
(D) induced current passes from West end to the East end
in rod.

3. The dependence of nuclear force on distance between nucleons is not known precisely but
approximate variation is shown graphically. Choose the INCORRECT option.
F
(Nuclear force)

0.5 fermi 10 fermi

r (separation between
nucleon)

From the above graph it can be concluded that:


(A) Nuclear force is repulsive for separation less than 0.5 fermi
(B) Nuclear force is attractive for separation less than 0.5 fermi
(C) Nuclear force is attractive for separation more than 0.5 fermi
(D) Nuclear force is negligible when the separation between nucleons is more than 10 fermi

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

4. The given figure shows a YDSE apparatus.


Parallel monochromatic coherent light rays are
2
incident on slits S1andS2 ( S1S2 = mm ) at an
3
angle 30o with the horizontal. The medium on S1
left side of the slits is water (  w = 4 / 3 ) . To 0
30 P
obtain the central maxima at point P, a glass
slab ( )
g = 3 / 2 inside water is introduced in S2

front of slit S1. The thickness of the glass slab D

required for this purpose is


(A)2mm (B)4/3 mm
(C) 4 mm (D) 8/3 mm

5. In young’s double slit experiment, the separation between two coherent sources S1 and S2 is
d and the distance between the source and screen is D. In the interference pattern, it is
found that exactly in front of one slit, there occurs a minimum. The possible wavelengths
used in the experiment are
d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 d2
(A)  = , , (B)  = , ,
D 3D 5D D 5D 9D
d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 d2
(C)  = , , (D)  = , ,
D 5D 3D 3D 7D 11D

6. For an LCR circuit, the power transferred from the driving source to the driven oscillator is
P = I2 Zcos  :

(A) Here, the power factor is cos , as 0     P  0
2
(B) P cannot be zero in any case.
(C) The driving force can take away energy out of the oscillator
(D) None of these

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. Choose from following the correct alternatives.


(A) Random error is minimised by taking the arithmetic mean of a large number of
observations.
(B) The source of random error is known and hence it can be corrected completely.
(C) The source of random error is not known and analysis is done by statistical methods
(D) Zero error of an apparatus can be corrected completely.

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

8. An unstable radio nuclei X can decay into two stable nuclei Y and Z. A sample containing
only X is taken at t = 0, three graphs log e ( N x )Vs t , N y Vs t and N z Vs t are drawn as shown
below, here N x , N y Choose the correct choice(s) from the following:

b tan 
(A) Decay constant for decay of X into Y is
ea
c tan 
(B) Decay constant for decay of X into Z is
ea
(C) Number of nuclei of X at t = 0 is ea

1
(D) Half life of nuclei X is .
tan 

9. When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric


cell, the cut off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6V and 18.0 mA. If the
same source is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then:
(A) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt (B) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
(C) the saturation current will be 6.0 mA (D) the saturation current will be 2.0 mA

10. The distance between an object and the screen is 100 cm. A lens produces an image on the
screen when placed at either of the positions 40 cm apart. Choose from following the correct
option(s).
21 100
(A) Power of lens is dioptres (B) Power of lens is dioptres
100 21
3 7
(C) Magnification by the lens = − (D) Magnification by the lens = −
7 3

11. The electron in the hydrogen atom make a transition from an excited state to the ground
state. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energies decrease
(B) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy remains the
same
(C) Its kinetic and total energies decrease and its potential energy increases
(D) Its kinetic potential and total energies decreases

12. In young’s double-slit experiment, let A and B be the two slits. A thin film of thickness t and
refractive index  is placed in front of A. Let  = fringe width then the central maxima will shift
(A) towards A (B) towards B
 
(C) by ( − 1) t (D) by t
 

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

P1 P2
x x x x x

x x x x x

13. In the diagram shown, the identical wires P1Q1 and x x x x x


P2Q2 are made to slide on the rails with same speed 4cm 9
2 2
x x x x x
of 5 cm/s. In this region a magnetic field of 1T exists.
The electric current in 9  resistor is x x x x x

x x x x x

Q1 Q2
(A) Zero if both wires slide towards left
(B) Zero if both wires slide in opposite direction
(C) 0.2 mA if both wires move towards right
(D) 0.05 mA if both wires move in opposite direction

14. A YDSE is performed in a medium of refractive


index 1 . In front of one of the slits say S1 as S1

shown a thin glass slab of refractive index C


 2 ( 1 ) is kept. If initially the central maxima
O

was formed on the central line OC then S2

(A) central maxima will shift upwards


(B) central maxima will shift downwards
(C) the waves reaching on the screen at C from S1 will lead the waves reaching from S2
(D) the waves reaching C from S1 will lag from the waves reaching from S2

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question no. 15 to 16

Consider the nuclear fission reaction W → X + Y. Using the graph given, answer the
following equations:
Binding energy per nucleon

E3
E2
E1

N3 N2 N1
Mass number

15. What is the Q value of the reaction?


(A) E1N1 − (E2N2 + E3N3 ) (B) (E2N2 + E3N3 − E1N1 )
(C) E2N2 + E1N1 + E1N1 − E3N3 (D) E1N1 + E3N3 − E2N2

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

16. If MW is the mass of W, MX is mass of X and MY is mass of Y nucleus, choose correct


statement.
M M M M M M
(A) W  Y  X (B) W  Y  X
N1 N2 N3 N1 N2 N3
M M M M M M
(C) W  Y  X (D) W  Y  X
N1 N2 N3 N1 N2 N3

Paragraph for Question no. 17 to 18

The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 50 divisions on its cap. When nothing is
put in between the studs, 44th division of the circular scale coincides with the reference line
zero of the main scale is not visible. When a glass plane is placed between the studs, the
main scale reads three divisions and the circular scale reads 26 divisions. Calculate the
thickness of the plate.

17. The zero error of the screw gauge is


(A) 0.12 mm (B) 0.88 mm
(C) −0.12 mm (D) −0.88 mm

18. The thickness of the plate is


(A) 3.64 mm (B) 3.40 mm
(C) 4.30 mm (D) 3.26 mm

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Jamshedpur : Om Plaza, 3rd Floor, Thakurbari Road, Aam Bagan, Sakchi, Jamshedpur
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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. ZnS reacts with dilute H2SO4 to produce a colorless gas, which on reaction with Cl2 yields
(A) HCl (B) SCl4
(C) HOCl (D) S2Cl2

2. On the basis of data given below predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption
on a definite amount of charcoal?
Gas CO2 SO2 CH4 H2
Critical temp./K 304 630 190 33
(A) CO2 (B) SO2
(C) CH4 (D) H2

3. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+ sol?
(A) Na2S (B) Na3PO4
(C) Na2SO4 (D) NaCl

4. Total number of possible isomers for square planar [Pt(Cl)(NO2)(NO3)(SCN)]-2 is:


(A) 24 (B) 16
(C) 8 (D) 12

5. Among the oxides of nitrogen the molecules having nitrogen-nitrogen bond(s) are:
(A) N2O3 and N2O4 (B) N2O4 and N2O5
(C) N2O3 and N2O5 (D) N2O3, N2O4 and N2O5

6 In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing and reducing
agents used are:
(A) O2 and CO respectively (B) O2 and Zn dust respectively
(C) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively (D) HNO3 and CO respectively

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. For which of the following electrochemical cells ECell = EoCell ?


(A) Zn(s) | Zn2+(1 M) || Ag+(1 M) | Ag(s)
(B) Fe(s) | Fe2+(0.01 M) || Cu2+(0.01 M) | Cu(s)
(C) Sn(s) | Sn2+(0.01 M) || Ag+(0.01 M) | Ag(s)
(D) Pt, H2(1 atm) | H+(1 M) || Au+(1 M) | Au(s)

8. Cl2 ( excess ) + NH3 ⎯⎯


→P + Q
Cl2 + NH3 ( excess ) ⎯⎯
→R + S
Which of the following is/are the product(s) of above reactions?
(A) HCl (B) NH4Cl
(C) N2 (D) H2

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

9. The correct statement(s) regarding the unit cell of ZnS is/are


(A) S2– ions occupy the corners and face centres of the unit cell.
(B) Zn2+ ions are present at edge centres and body centre.
(C) Zn2+ ions occupy half of the tetrahedral voids.
(D) The coordination no. of Zn2+ ion is four.

10. Which of the following interhalogen compound(s) do/does not exist?


(A) ClF4 (B) FCl3
(C) IF5 (D) BrF

11. In which aqueous solutions of the given salts, the boiling point of water is above 100o C ?
(A) NaCl (B) CaCl2
(C) KCl (D) AlCl3

12. Which of the following statements is / are correct when a mixture of NaCl and K 2Cr2O7 is
gently warmed with conc. H2SO4?
(A) A deep red vapour is evolved
(B) The red vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
(C) Oxygen gas is evolved
(D) Chromyl chloride is formed

13. m and  eq are molar and equivalent conductivities at infinite dilution;  is ionic conductivity
at infinite dilution, then for potash alum:
(A) m (potash alum) = 2  K+ + 2   Al3 + + 4  SO

2−
4

1
(B)  eq (potash alum) =  M (potash alum)
8
1 1 1
(C)  eq (potash alum) =  K+ +   Al3 + +   SO

2−
4 4 2 4

   
(D) m (potash alum) = K + +  Al3 + + SO2 −
4

14. Which of the following reaction produces SO2 gas?


(A) Burning of sulphur in oxygen (B) Reaction of copper with H2SO4
(C) Roasting of sulphide ores (D) Burning of H2S

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question no. 15 to 16

The crystal of a metal contains b.c.c. unit cell. The unit cell contains metal atoms ‘M’ at the lattice
points. An attempt was made to accommodate a largest foreign possible atom(N) in the voids of the
1 1 
unit cell. The suitable position was chosen to be  , ,0  .
2 4 
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.

15. What is the coordination number of the metal which contains ‘M’ atoms?
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

16. If the radius of metal atom ‘M’ is r, what will be the radius of the foreign atom, ‘N’ in terms
of ‘r’?
(A) 0.82 r (B) 0.29 r
(C) 0.68 r (D) 0.46 r

Paragraph for Question no. 17 to 18

A green crystalline salt(P), on slow heating becomes anhydrous, then upon strong heating, forms a
raddish brown residue(Q) and gases(R) and (S). Aqueous solution of (P), upon treatment with
Na2O2 forms a raddish brown precipitate(T). Both the gases(R) and (S) contain the same elements.

Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.

17. Which of the following is (Q)?


(A) Cu2O (B) Fe2O3
(C) FeO (D) CuO

18. Which of the following is ‘T’?


(A) Fe(OH)3 (B) Fe(OH)2
(C) Fe2O3 (D) FeO

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Jamshedpur : Om Plaza, 3rd Floor, Thakurbari Road, Aam Bagan, Sakchi, Jamshedpur
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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x +1 y + 3 z + 5 x−2 y−4 z−6


1. The point of intersection of the lines = = and = = is
3 5 7 1 3 5
 1 1 2 1 1 3
(A)  , − , −  (B)  , − , − 
3 3 3 2 2 2
 1 1 2  1 1 2
(C)  , ,  (D)  , , 
2 2 2 3 3 3

 1
2. If y = f ( x ) is the solution curve of the differential equation x 2 dy +  y −  dx = 0; x  0 and
 x
 1
y (1) = 1 , then y   is equal to:
2
3 1 1
(A) − (B) 3 +
2 e e
(C) 3 + e (D) 3 − e

3. The area, enclosed by the curve y = sin x + cos x and y = cos x − sin x and the lines

x = 0, x = , is:
2
(A) 2 2 ( 2 −1 ) (B) 2 ( 2 +1 )
(C) 4 ( 2 −1 ) (D) 2 2 ( 2 +1 )
4. How many 3  3 matrices M with entries from 0,1,2 are there, for which the sum of the
diagonal entries of MTM is 5?
(A) 99 (B) 33
(C) 190 (D) 198

5. There be two bags A and B each containing 5 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. P1 and P2 be


two persons who randomly pick one ticket from bags A and B respectively. The probability
that P1 has a number higher than P2 is
1 2
(A) (B)
2 5
3 4
(C) (D)
5 5

6. The area bounded by the curves y = x − 1 + x − 2 and y = 3 is equal to


(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. The plane passing through the points (1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 2) and parallel to the line, 2x = 3y, z = 1
The point which not lie on this plane is
(A) (2, 0, –1) (B) (–2, 0, 1)
(C) (0, –6, 2) (D) (0, 6, -2)

 dy 
8. If y = y ( x ) is the solution of the differential equation, e y  − 1 = e x such that y ( 0 ) = 0 ,
 dx 
then
(A) y (1) = 1 + loge 2 (B) y = x + loge ( x + 1)
(C) e y − x = x + 1 (D) y (1) = 2 + loge 2

9. 5 boys and 5 girls sit in a row at random, then

(A) Probability that 5 girls sit together is


( 5!)( 6!)
10!

(B) Probability that boys and girls sit alternately is


( 5!)( 5!)
10!
(C) Probability that all boys are together and all girls are together given that all girls are
1
together =
3
9
(D) A particular boy and girl sit together given that boys and girls sit alternately =
25

10. Two different digits are chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4,……8}. Then the
Probability that:
1
(A) Their sum is equal to 5 is
14
3
(B) Their sum will exceed 13 is
28
3
(C) Both digits exceeding 5 is
28
1
(D) Both digits are less than 3 is
28

1 2
11. If the plane 2x – y + 2z + 3 = 0 has the distances and units from the planes
3 3
4x – 2y + 4z +  = 0 and 2x – y + 2z +  = 0, respectively, then
(A)  = 4 (B)  = 8
(C) Maximum value of (  +  ) = 13 (D) Minimum value of

12. The value of , for which the points whose position vectors
ˆi + 2jˆ + 3k, ˆ (  + 1) ˆi + 2kˆ and 9iˆ + (  − 8 ) ˆj + 6kˆ are coplanar, is equal to
ˆ 2iˆ − 3jˆ + 4k,
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) –2 (D) 2

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PT5 PAPER-1 (PCM)

13. If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
x +1 y + 3 z − 2
2x − y + z = 3, 4x − 3y + 5z + 9 = 0 and parallel to the line = = is
−2 4 5
ax + by + cz + 6 = 0 , then
(A) a = 11 (B) a = 12
(C) b = 10 (D) b = 13

14. If the system of equations


x + y + az = b
2x + 5y + 2z = 6
x + 2y + 3z = 3
has infinitely many solutions, then
(A) a = 7 (B) a = 8
(C) 2a + 3b 22 (D) 2a + 3b = 23
2a + 3b = 23

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question no. 15 to 16

Let two planes P1 : 2x − y + z = 2 and P2 : x + 2y − z = 3 are given.

15. The equation of the plane through the intersection of P1 and P2 and the point (3, 2, 1) is
(A) 3x − y + 2z − 9 = 0 (B) x − 3y + 2z + 1 = 0
(C) 2x − 3y + z − 1 = 0 (D) 4x − 3y + 2z − 8 = 0

16. Equation of the plane which passes through the point (–1, 3, 2) and is perpendicular to each
of the planes P1 and P2 is
(A) x + 3y − 5z + 2 = 0 (B) x + 3y + 5z − 18 = 0
(C) x − 3y − 5z + 20 = 0 (D) x − 3y + 5z = 0

Paragraph for Question no. 17 to 18

In certain growth and decay processes, the rate of change of amount of substance is
proportional to the amount of substance present. Initially 10000g of radioactive material is
present and after two hours, the material has lost 10% of its original mass.

17. Absolute values of constant of proportionality for radioactive decay


1 10 10
(A) ln (B) ln
2 9 9
10
(C) 2ln (D) None
9

18. Amount of radioactive material present (in g) after 8 hours


(A) 4561 (B) 5561
(C) 6561 (D) None

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ANSWER KEY:- Phase Test (JEE-Advanced) – PAPER : 1


PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
Ans1. C Ans1. A Ans1. B
Ans2. B Ans2. D Ans2. D
Ans3. B Ans3. B Ans3. A
Ans4. D Ans4. D Ans4. D
Ans5. A Ans5. A Ans5. B
Ans6. A Ans6. B Ans6. B
Ans7. ACD Ans7. ABD Ans7. ACD
Ans8. AC Ans8. ABC Ans8. ABC
Ans9. BD Ans9. ACD Ans9. ACD
Ans10. BCD Ans10. AB Ans10.
AC ACD AC
Ans11. BD Ans11. ABCD Ans11.
BD ABC BD
Ans12. AC Ans12. ABD Ans12. BC
Ans13. BC Ans13. ABC Ans13. A
Ans14. BC Ans14. ABCD Ans14. AD
Ans15. B Ans15. B Ans15. B
Ans16. A Ans16. B Ans16. C
Ans17. C Ans17. B Ans17. A
Ans18. A Ans18. A Ans18. C

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Solution

PHYSICS
d dB
Sol1. Induced emf, e = (NBA) = NA
dt dt

Electrical resistance, R = 2
r
e2
Power dissipated, P =
R
2
r 2 2 2  dB 
= NA  
  dt 
N2 A 2r 2 N2r 4
 
When number of turns are quadrupled and radius of coil is made half. The length of wire used
becomes double (i.e., 2).
2 4
P2  4N   r / 2   2 
 =  
P1  N   r   
= 2.

Sol2. By Lenz law we can predict that East end will be at higher potential.

Sol3. Concept based.

Sol4. Extra phase change in glass = phae change in water of


length AS2. g
S1
2t 2 2 2
− t=  sin 30o
g   3
30°

3 4 4 1
 t −  = 
2 3 3 3 A
8
 t = mm . S2
3

d2 (2n − 1)
Sol5. =
2D 2

Sol6. cos  will always be positive.

Sol7. Concept based.

Sol8. Solutions Let initial momentum of neutron be P, and after collision the momentum of neutron and
helium atom be P1 and P2 respectively. Also mHe = 4mN
Using conservation of momentum
P = P2 cos  .... ( i ) , P1 = P2 sin  .... ( ii )
From (i ) and (ii ) P2 + P12 = P22 → 2mN K + 2mN K1 = 2mHe K 2
As, M He = 4mN  4 K 2 − K1 = K = 60 ...... ( iii )
After collision as the Helium atoms is in excited state, the energy absorbed by it for excitation is
 1
E = 13.6  22 1 − 2  = 40.8eV
 2 
 Out of the initial energy of 60 eV the energy absorbed for excitation is 40.8eV and the rest 60 –
40.8=19.2eV appears as kinetic energy of the neutron and the Helium atom after collision
K1 + K 2 = 19.2 eV .... ( iv) )

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Solving equations (iii) and (iv) , we get , K1 = 3.36 eV and K 2 = 15.84 eV

Sol9. Stopping potential does not depend on intensity and saturation current depends on intensity.
1
Intensity I due to point source  where r is distance from the source.
r2

D2 − x 2
Sol10. f = (Focal length by displacement method)
4D
(100)2 − (40)2
 f= = 21 cm
4  100
100 100
 P= =  5D
f 21
 x + 40 = 100 – x
 x = 30
v 70 7
 m1 = = =−
u −30 3
7
and m2 = −
3

1
Sol11. E  and total energy is –ve.
n2

D 
Sol12. y = ( − 1)t = ( − 1)t
d 

Sol13. If both the wires move in opposite direction the totals emf will be equal to zero.
If both wires move in same direction both emf will be in same direction.
B v 1 4  4  10−2  5  10−2
Hence, i = =
10r 10
= 2 × 10–4 = 0.2 mA.

Sol14. Central maxima will shift downward because path travelled inside he slit will be less and hence the
waves reaching C will lag.

Sol15. W correspond to N1, X and Y correspond to N2 and N3 and Q value = E2N2 + E3N3 – E1N1

Sol16. Binding energy per nucleon for N1 is least hence mass of nucleus of W is greatest.

Sol17. Zero error = (44 – 50) × LC

Sol18. LC of apparatus is 0.02 mm


Thickness = 3 + 26 × LC + zero correction = 3.64 mm.

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CHEMISTRY

Sol1. The colorless gas is H2S. H2S + Cl2 ⎯⎯


→ 2HCl + S

Sol2. More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily.

Sol3. Positive sols are coagulated by anions.

Sol4. 3 geometrical isomers X 4 linkage isomers

N O O
O N O
Sol5. N N
O O
O

Sol6. O2 oxidises the sulphide ion to sulphate and Zn reduce Ag+ to Ag.

0.0591 C
Sol7. ECell = ECell
o
− log 1
n C2
o C
ECell = ECell if 1 = 1
C2

Sol8. P = NCl3, Q = HCl, R = NH4Cl, S = N2

Sol9. C.N of Zn2+ = C,N of S2– = 4.

Sol10. FCl3 is not formed because F cannot form three covalent bonds and ClF 4 is not formed as halogens
do not form stable compounds in +4 oxidation state.

Sol11. In each case the boiling point of solvent will increase.

Sol12. CrO2Cl2 + 4NaOH ⎯⎯


→ Na2CrO 4 + 2NaCl + 2H2O
( Yellow sol )
n

 m

Sol13.  e = n-factor of electrolyte = 8

Sol14. 2H2S + 3O2 ⎯⎯


→ 2SO2 + 2H2O

Sol15. C.N of b.c.c unit cell is 8.

Sol16. Let the distance of N from body centre is d(r + r’).


r = radius of ‘M’, r’ = radius of ‘N’.
2 2
a a 5a2 5
d=   +  = = a
2  4 16 16
4r
Since 3 a = 4r, a =
3
4r
Putting a = , d = 1.29 r  r’ + r = 1.29 r  r’ = 0.29 r
3

Sol17. P = FeSO4.7 H2O, Q = Fe2O3, R = SO2, S = SO3, T = Fe(OH)3.

→ 4Fe ( OH)3 + 4Na2SO4 + O2


Sol18. 4FeSO4 + 4Na2O2 + 6H2O ⎯⎯

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MATHEMATICS

Sol1. Any point on the first line is ( 3r1 − 1, 5r1 − 3,7r1 − 5 )

And any point on the second line is ( r2 + 2, 3r2 + 4, 5r2 + 6 )


At the point of intersection , we must have
3r1 − 1 = r2 + 2
5r1 − 3 = 3r2 + 4,
7r1 − 5 = 5r2 + 6
1 3
Thus , r1 = , r2 = − .
2 2
3 5 7 
Hence required point is  − 1, − 3, − 5  .
2 2 2 
1 1 3
i.e.,  , − ,− 
2 2 2

 1
Sol2. x 2 dy +  y −  dx = 0; x  0, y (1) = 1
 x

x 2 dy +
( xy − 1) dx = 0
x

x 2 dy =
( xy − 1)
dx
x
dy 1 − xy
=
dx x3
dy 1 y
= 3 − 2
dx x x
dy 1 1
= 2 .y = 3
dx x x
1
 x2 dx
1

If e =e x
1
1 1
ye x =  3 .e x
x
 1
1
ye x = e− x  1 +  + C
 x
1.e = e ( 2 ) + C
−1 −1

1
C = e −1 = −
e
 1 1
1 1
ye x = e x  1 +  −
 x e
 1 1
y   = 3 −  e2
 
2 e
 1
y  = 3 − e
2

(( sin x + cos x ) − cos x − sin x ) dx


 /2
Sol3. A=
0

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(( sin x + cos x ) − (cos x − sin x )) dx +  (( sin x + cos x ) − ( sin x − cos x )) dx


 /4  /2
A=
0  /4
 /4  /2
A = 2 sin x dx + 2 cos x dx
0  /4

 1   1 
A = −2  − 1 + 2  1 − 
 2   2
A =4−2 2 =2 2 ( 2 −1 )
Option (A)

a p x 
Sol4.

Let M = b q y

 
c r z 

( )
 tr MTM = a2 + b2 + c 2 + p2 + q2 + r 2 + x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 5
 Total number of ways = 9P2 + 9C5 = 72 + 126 = 198, where
9
P2 = Number of matrices when 2 comes once, 1 comes once and 0 comes 7 times
9
C5 = Number of matrices when 1 comes 5 times and 0 comes 4 times.

1 4 1 3 1 2 1 1 10 2
Sol5. Required probability =  +  +  +  = =
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 25 5

Sol6. y = x − 1 + x − 2 and y = 3
1
 Required area = (1 + 3 )  2 = 4
2

x y
Sol7. Two points on the line (L say) = ,z = 1 are (0, 0, 1) and (3, 2, 1)
3 2
So dr’s of the line is < 3, 2, 0 >
Line passing through (1, 2, 1), parallel to L and coplanar with given plane is
( )
r = ˆi + 2jˆ + kˆ + t 3iˆ + 2j , t  R ( −2, 0, 1) satisfies the line (for t = –1)
 ( −2, 0,1) lies on given plane.
Answer of the question is (B)
We can check other options by finding equation of plane
x −1 y − 2 z −1
Equation plane : 1+ 2 2 − 0 1− 1 = 0
2 + 2 1− 0 2 − 1
 2 ( x − 1) − 3 ( y − 2 ) − 5 ( z − 1) = 0
 2x − 3y − 5z + 9 = 0

Sol8. ey = t
dy dt
ey =
dx dx
dt
− t = ex
dx
IF = e
−1.dx
= e− x

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( )
t e− x =  ex .e− x dx
ey−x = x + c
Putting x = 0,y = 0,c = 1
ey−x = x + 1
y = x + loge ( x + 1)
at x = 1, y = 1 + loge 2

65
Sol9. Option 1, P (E ) =
10
255
Option 2, P (E ) =
10
255 1
Option 3, P (E ) = =
65 3
2 4 4.9 9
Option 4, P (E ) = =
25 5 25

Sol10. n ( 8 ) = C2 = 28
8

n (sum is equal to 5) = 2 {(1, 4) (2, 3)


1
P (sum is equal to 5)
14
n (sum will exceed 13) = 3 {(6, 8) & (7, 8)
3
P (sum will exceed 13) =
28
n (both digit exceeding 5) = 3 C2
3
n (both digit exceeding 5) =
28
n (both are less than 3) = C2
2

1
p (both are less than 3) =
28

Sol11. 4x − 2y + 4z + 6 = 0
−6 −6 1
= =
16 + 4 + 16 6 3
−6 =2
−3 2
=
4 + 4 +1 3
−3 =2

 Maximum value of (  +  ) = 13 .

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Sol12.
(
A 2iˆ − 3ˆj + 4kˆ )

O (
B (  + 1) ˆi + 2kˆ )
( ˆi − 2ˆj + 3kˆ )

(
C 9iˆ + (  − 8 ) ˆj + 6kˆ )
OA OB OC = 0
1 −1 1
 2 −1 = 0
8 −6 3
 2 − 2 − 8 = 0
 (  − 4 )(  + 2 ) = 0
  = 4, − 2

Sol13. Equation of family of plane


( 2x − y + z − 3 ) +  ( 4x − 3y + 5z + 9 ) = 0
x ( 2 + 4 ) − y (1 + 3 ) + z (1 + 5 ) − 3 + 9 = 0
Parallel to the line
−2 ( 2 + 4 ) − (1 + 3 ) 4 + (1 + 5 ) 5 = 0
5 = 3
3
 = equation of plane
5
11x − 7y + 10z + 6 = 0
a + b + c = 14

1 1 a
Sol14.  = 2 5 2 = 0  11 − 4 − a = 0
1 2 3
a=7
b 1 a
1 = 6 5 2 = 0  11b − 12 − 21 = 0
3 2 3
b=3
2a + 3b = 23

Sol15. The equation of any plane through the intersection of P 1 and P2 is


P1 + P2 = 0
 ( 2z − y + z − 2 ) +  ( x + 2y − x − 3 ) = 0 ……….(i)
Since, it passes through (3, 2, 1), then
( 6 − 2 + 1 − 2) +  (3 + 4 − 1 − 3 ) = 0

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  = −1
From eq. (i),
x − 3y + 2z + 1 = 0
which is the required plane.

Sol16. The equation of any plane through (– 1, 3, 2) is a ( x + 1) + b ( y − 3 ) + c ( z − 2 ) = 0 ………(i)


If this plane (i) is perpendicular to P1, then
2a − b + c = 0 …….. (ii)
and if the plane (i) is perpendicular to P2 then
a + 2b − c = 0 …….. (iii)
From eq. (ii) and (iii), we get
a b c
= =
−1 3 5
Substituting these proportionate values of a, b, c in eq. (ii), we get the required equation as
− ( x + 1) + 3 ( y − 3 ) + 5 ( z − 2 ) = 0
or x − 3y − 5z + 20 = 0

Sol17. Given, at t = 2, 10% of original mass of 10000g has decayed.


1 9
 at t = 2, N = 9000  9000 = 10000e2k k = ln ( 0)
2 10
4
 9 
9
4ln
Sol18.  At t = 8,  N = 10000 e 10  N = 10000    = 6561
 10 

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