FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: 100159 PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examina tion Hall before the end of the test.
BATCHES – NWCM2024O1S & O2S _RT

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(i) Part-A (08-13) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-B (01-05) contains five (05) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals Two decimal Places (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. A metallic circular disc having a circular hole at its centre rotates about an axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. When the disc is heated:
(A) its speed will decrease (B) its diameter will decrease
(C) its moment of inertia will increase (D) its speed will increase

2. A uniform rope having mass m hangs vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave
pulse is produced at the lower end. The speed v of wave pulse varies with height h from
the lower end as
(A) (B)
v v

h h
(C) (D)
v v

h h

3. An artificial satellite is in a circular orbit around the earth. The universal gravitational
constant starts decreasing at time t = 0 at a constant rate with respect to time t. Then the
satellite has its
(A) path gradually spiralling out away from the centre of the earth.
(B) path gradually spiralling in towards the centre of the earth.
(C) angular momentum about the centre of the earth remains constant.
(D) potential energy increases.

4. A massless conical flask filled with a liquid is kept on a table in a

vacuum. The force exerted by the liquid on the base of the flask is
“
W1. The force exerted by the flask on the table is W2.
(A) W1 = W2 “ “
(B) W1 > W2 “ “ “
(C) W1 < W2
(D) the force exerted by the liquid on the walls of the flask is (W1 – W2)

5. A certain amount of ice is supplied heat at a constant rate for 7 minutes. For the first one
minute the temperature rise is uniformly with time. Then it remains constant for the next 4
minutes and again the temperature rises at uniform rate for the last two minutes (Given
Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g-0C, latent heat of fusion = 80 cal/gm and specific heat of
water = 1 cal/gm – 0C)
(A) The initial temperature of ice is –300C
(B) The final temperature at the end of 7 min is 40 0C
(C) The final temperature at the end of 7 min is 30 0C
(D) The initial temperature of ice is –500C

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 3

6. In the figure, the block of mass m, attached to the spring of wall

stiffness k is in contact with the completely elastic wall, and the
compression in the spring is e. The spring is compressed further k
by e by displacing the block towards left and is then released. If m
the collision between the block and the wall is completely elastic
then the time period of oscillations of the block will be
2 m m  m  m
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
3 k k 3 k 6 k

7. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into two
equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first

(Single Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Graphs below represent the different energies during a SHM. Choose the correct
representation

E0 E0 E0

-A O A -A O A -A O A

(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) (i) Total mechanical energy (B) (i) Potential energy

(ii) kinetic energy (ii) kinetic energy
(iii) Potential energy (iii) Total mechanical energy
(C) (i) Potential energy (D) None of these
(ii) Total mechanical energy
(iii) kinetic energy

9. In figure, a certain mass of gas traces three

paths 1,2,3 from state A to state B. If work
done by the gas along three paths are B
W1, W2 , W3 respectively, then P
1
(A) W1  W2  W3 2
3
(B) W1 = W2 = W3
(C) W1  W2  W3 A
V
(D) cannot say

10. In the figure shown, the heavy cylinder (radius R) resting

on a smooth surface separates two liquids of densities 2 h 2 3
R R
and 3. The height h for the equilibrium of cylinder must
be

3R 3 3
(A) (B) R (C) R 2 (D) R
2 2 4

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 4

11. An object is cooled from 750C to 650C in 2 minutes in a room at 300C. The time taken to
cool another identical object from 550C to 450C in the same room in minutes is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

12. From a point source, if amplitude of waves at a distance r is A, its amplitude at a distance
2r will
(A) A (B) 2A
(C) A/2 (D) A/4

13. The mass of the moon is 1/8 of the earth but the gravitational pull is 1/6 of the earth. It is
due to the fact that
(A) moon is the satellite of the earth
(B) the radius of the earth is 8/6 of the moon
(C) the radius of the earth is 8 / 6 of the moon
(D) the radius of the moon is 6/8 of the earth.

PART – B
(Numerical based)

1. At a distance of 20 m from a point source, the loudness is 30 dB. After a minimum distance
of k(50 10) metre the sound is inaudible. Value of ‘k’ is

2. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of
the gas is A/T where T is temperature in kelvin. Find the value of A.

3. A sinusoidal wave is propagating in negative x direction in a string stretched along x axis.

A particle of string at x = 2m is found at its mean position and it is moving in positive y
direction at t = 1sec. The amplitude of the wave, the wave length and angular frequency of

the wave are 0.1 meter, meter and 4 rad/s respectively. Determine the instantaneous
4
power transfer through x = 2m and t = 1.125 second.

4. Two blocks of masses m1 = 1kg and m2 = 2kg are

connected by a non deformed light spring. They are
lying on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient
of friction between the blocks and the surface is 0.4, m2 m1 F

what minimum constant force F (In N) has to be

applied in horizontal direction to the block of mass
m1 in order to shift the other block? (g = 10 m/s2)

5. An alpha particle collides with a stationary nucleus and continues on at an angle of 600
with respect the original direction of motion. The nucleus recoils at an angle of 300 with
respect to this direction. Mass number of the nucleus is
Space For Rough Work

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 5

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. The number of allowed electronic transitions between two orbits of hydride ion, depends
on the principal and azimuthal quantum number of the orbits. Choose correct statement(s).
(A) there is only one transition possible between the second and first orbits of hydride ions.
(B) one of the allowed transition between the third and second orbit is 3s → 2s.
(C) 3p → 2s is an allowed transition
(D) a transition from orbital( = 2) to orbital ( = 0) is not allowed .

5 1
N N
N
4 2
2. N
3 N
(I) ( II )
Choose correct statement(s)

(A) (I) is more basic than (II)

(B) (II) has more aromatic character than (I)
(C) In (I) N-1 is more basic than N-3
(D) In(II) both nitrogen atoms are equally basic

3. CH3
HCl P
+
H2O/H
Q
B2 H ,
6 THF
Na
Hg OH, H R
(O 2O
2
CO
Na CH
BH 3)
4, 2,
Na H
OH 2 O
S

The correct statement(s) is/are

(A) R forms maximum number of products when P, Q, R & S are separately heated with
conc. H2SO4.
(B) P and Q are associated with other minor products.
(C) P is formed through elimination reaction.
(D) R and S are position isomers.

4. AlCl3 ⎯⎯⎯
KCN
H2O
→ ( X )(precipitate )
( X ) ⎯⎯⎯
Heat
−H O
→(Y)2

Correct statement(s) is/are

(A) the yield of (Y) is higher in neutral medium(pH = 7).
(B) the precipitate(X) will start to dissolve if KCN is taken excess than required.
(C) (Y) prevents aluminium from corrosion by water and air
(D) Al2Cl6 is formed if the reaction mixture stands for sometime

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 6

5. Which of the following option contains a pair of compounds, in which the left side
compound has higher or stronger properties(giving along side) than the right side one?
CH2Cl Cl

(A)
,
(ease of ionization to form reaction intermediate)
CN OH

(B) ,

CN OH (dipole moment)
H H

(C)
,
(homolytic fission of C – H bond)
(D) , (melting point)

6. H3BO3 ⎯⎯⎯Heat
→B2O3
The intermediate product(s) of above reaction is
(A) H2B4O7 (B) HBO2
(C) [B(OH)4]– (D) HBO3

7. Which of the following substance(s) is/are thermally more stable than CaCO3?
(A) BeCO3 (B) MgCO3
(C) SrCO3 (D) BaCO3

(Single Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. The electronegativity of phosphorus is maximum in one of its halides. What is the

characteristic of that halide?
(A) It has square pyramidal geometry (B) It contains identical bond lengths
(C) The central atom contains a lone pair (D) Hybridization of phosphorus is sp3d2

9. CO, N2, Cl2, O2

Which property is given in correct order?
(A) Bond energy: CO > N2 > Cl2 > O2 (B) Rate of effusion: Cl2 > N2 > CO > O2
(C) Boiling point: Cl2 > O2 > CO > N2 (D) Dipole moment: CO > Cl2 > N2 > O2

+
10. AB ( s ) A ( aq) + B− ( aq)
The solubility product of AB is 10-4. What will be it’s solubility in water in presence of 10–3
M NaB solution?
[NaB completely dissociated in water]
(A) 0.2 mol L–1 (B) 0.1 mol L–1
–7 –1
(C) 10 mol L (D) 10–2 mol L–1

11. 2BCl3 + 3H2 ⎯⎯ → 6HCl + 2B

The correct statement regarding above reaction is
(A) BCl3 undergoes hydration (B) pure boron is formed
(C) product B has octahedral geometry (D) B2H6 is the by-product
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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 7

12. The empirical formula of sheet silicate is Si2O52− . Therefore

(A) number of Si – SI bond in the silicate is one
(B) each tetrahedral unit contains one O– which is bonded to silicon
(C) two Si = O bonds are present per unit
(D) one O – O bond is present in the repeating unit

13. How many electrons of Zn has the following set of quantum numbers?
n = 3,  = 0, 1, m = -1, s = +½
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

PART – B
(Numerical based)

1. The wavefunction of an atomic orbital of hydrogen is given below

3/2
Z1  Zr  − Zr /2a
=   2 − a e
4 2  a   
o
Z = 1,a = 0.53 A
o
What is the distance between the nucleus and the radial node of the orbital in A unit?

CHO
2. A cyclic hydrocarbon on ozonolysis reaction from only four moles of . What is the
CHO
degree of unsaturation of the hydrocarbon?

3. H2 A ( aq) HA − ( aq) + H+ ( aq) ;K a = 1  10−5

HA − ( aq) A 2− ( aq) + H+ ( aq) ;K a = 1  10−8

What is the pH of the solution if the ratio of

H2 A  is 10 : 1
 A 2 − 

4. For a chemical reaction at equilibrium the graph is given below.

G
–1
(in kJ mol )

400 500 600 700 800

T (in k)
The intercept of above graph is 15.31 kJ mole. What is the value of the equilibrium
constant KP of the reaction?

COOH
5. H2 C ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dehydration
−H2O
→ (P )
COOH
(P) is an oxide of carbon. How many pi-bond(s) is/are present in it?

Space For Rough Work

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 8

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. In ABC, where the opposite edges of A, B and C are a, b and c respectively, c = 2,

C = and 2sin2A + sin ( 2B + C) = sinC, then:
3
(A) the value of sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C is equal to 2
2 3
(B) inradius of ABC is
3 ( 3 +1 )
2 3
(C) circumradius of ABC is
3
2 3
(D) area of ABC is
3

2. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

100

 Cr ( x − 4 ) (5)
2 100 100 −r r
(A) The coefficient of x in the expansion of is equal to 4950.
r =0
8
 −8

(B) If the sixth term in the expansion of  x 3
+ x log10 x  is 5600, then x is equal to
2

 
1000.
A n+1 15
(C) Let A n = C0 C1 + C1 C2 + ... + Cn−1 Cn and =
n n n n n n
, then the sum of
An 4
possible values of n is equal to 6.
n n −1
Ck
(D) If A k = n
Ck + nCk +1
and 3
A
k =0
k = 4, then n is equal to 128.

3. Let p and q be non – zero real numbers. Then the equation

(px 2 2
)(
+ qy + r 4x + 4y − 8x − 4 = 0 represents:
2 2
)
(A) two straight lines and a circle, when r = 0 and p, q are of the opposite sign
(B) two circles, when p = q and r is of sign opposite to the of p.
(C) a hyperbola and a circle, when p and q are of opposite sign and r  0 .
(D) a circle and an ellipse, when p and q are unequal but of same sign and r is of sign
opposite to that of p.

4.  
If y , 2 and x are the first three terms of a G.P. where x is an integer in the domain of
f ( x ) = sec −1 x and [k] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to k, then identify the
correct statement(s):
(A) Number of such G.P. s are 3
(B) Number of such G.P. s are 6

(C) The set of values of y is −4, 5 ) − 0
(D) The set of values of y is  −4, − 3 )   −2, 0 )  1, 3 )   4, 5 )

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 9

If (1 + x ) = C0 + C1x + C2 x 2 + ... + Cn xn , then the sum of the product of the coefficients taken
n
5.
n n
b!
two at a time can be represented by   CC
i=0 j =i +1
i j = 2a −
c ( d!)
2
. Then which of the following

are correct?
(A) a = 2n − 1 (B) b = 2n
(C) c = 2 (D) d = n


6. The value of  cot (n
n=1
−1 2
)
+ n + 1 is also equal to:

(A) cot ( −1) + sec −1 (1) − cos ec −1 (1)

−1

(B) cot ( 2 ) + cot ( 3 )

−1 −1

−1  1 − x 
2
(C) minimum value of the function ( )
f x = tan  2 
 1+ x 
−1  41 
(D) cos  cos
 4 

7. Let z1,z2 and z3 be three distinct complex numbers satisfying z1 = z2 = z3 = 1. Which of

the following is/are true?
z    z − z1  
(A) If arg  1  = then arg    where z  1
 z2  2  z − z2  4
(B) z1z2 + z2 z3 + z3 z1 = z1 + z2 + z3
 ( z + z2 )( z2 + z3 )( z3 + z1 ) 
(C) Im  1  = 0
 z1 .z2 .z3 
 z − z1 
(D) If z1 − z2 − 2 z1 − z3 = 2 z2 − z3 , then Re  3 =0
 z3 − z 2 

(Single Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

y
, where (x, y) is real number pair, satisfying ( x − 3 ) + ( y − 3 ) = 6 ,
2 2
8. The largest value of
x
is
(A) 2 3 (B) 2 + 3
(C) 3 + 2 2 (D) 6 + 2 3

9. Tangent is drawn at any point (p, q) on the parabola y2 = 4ax . Tangents are drawn from
any point on this tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = a2 , such that the chords of contact pass
through a fixed point (r, s). Then p, q, r, s hold which of the given relation?
(A) rq2 = 4ps2 (B) r 2q = 4p2s
(C) rq2 = −4ps2 (D) r 2q = −4p2 s

10. If a,b,c  R and a2 + b2 + c 2 + 4 = ab + bc + 2c + 2a, then roots of ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are:

(A) real and distinct (B) real and equal
(C) imaginary (D) none of these

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IT−2024_NWCM2024O1S & O2S_RT (P-1)-(PCM) 10

1 1 1 1 1
11. The sum of the infinite series + + + + + .......
9 18 30 45 63
1 1
(A) (B)
3 4
1 2
(C) (D)
5 3

sin x sin3x sin9x

12. The least positive value of x satisfying the equation + + = 0 is:
cos3x cos9x cos 27x
 
(A) (B)
26 27
 
(C) (D)
9 3

x2 y2
13. F1 , F2 are left and right focus points of the hyperbola C : − = 1( a  0, b  0 ) . Point O
a2 b2
is the origin and M is an arbitrary point on C which lies in the first quadrant. H is a point on
 1 1
MF1 . If MF2 ⊥ FF 1 2 , MF1 ⊥ OH, OH =  OF2 , where    ,  then the range of the
3 2
eccentricity of the hyperbola C is
(
(A) 1, 3 ) (
(B) 1, 2 )
(C) ( 2, 3 ) (D) ( 2, 2 )

PART – B
(Numerical based)

1. Let a,b,c  N such that a  b  c satisfying the relation

abc + 2bc + 2ac + 2ab + 4a + 4b + 4c = 202 .
The number of possible values of a + b + c is:

k
cos ( 3n + 1) x − cos ( 3n + 2 ) x   
2. Let fk ( x ) =  , then find  2f10   + 5  .
n =1 1 + 2 cos ( 2n + 1) x  3 

3. Let the equation x3 + y3 + 3xy = 1 represents the coordinate of one vertex A and the
equation of side BC of the triangle ABC. If B is the orthocentre of the triangle ABC and the
equation of side AB is y = mx + c . Then absolute value of ( 4 − m − c ) , is:

If the sum S = C2 + 2. C3 + 3. 20C4 + ... + 19. 20C20 can be expressed as 1 + p.2q ,

20 20
4.
then find the value of ( p + q) .

 ( )
n n
5. Let f ( n ) =
k
Cr . Find the total number of divisors of f (11) .
r =0 k =r

Space For Rough Work

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