MYCOLOGY

1. Characteristically, fungi:
a. Are members of the plant kingdom
b. Lack roots and stems
c. Lack chlorophyll
d. AOTA
2. Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym for:
a. Sepatat hyphae
b. Arthroconidia
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Aseptate hyphae
3. Which type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host?
a. Deep mycoses
b. Cutaneous
c. Superficial mycoses
d. Systemic mycoses
4. Arthroconidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the
hair shaft is called:
a. Ectothrix
b. Endothrix
c. Scutula
d. Dimorphic
5. True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage?
a. Chlamydospores
b. Favic chandiliers
c. Balstoconidia
d. Arthroconidia
6. Septate hyphae have:
a. No divisions
b. Divisions
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Vegatative parts
7. Molds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure
called a:
a. Conidiophore
b. Sporangiophore
c. Thallospore
d. Zygospore
8. The basic, branching, intertwining structures of molds are referred
to as:
a. Mycelium
b. Rhizoids
c. Conidia
d. Spores
9. Arthroconidia are formed:
 a. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation
b. By daughter cells piching off from portions of the mother
cell
c. By knots of twisted hyphae
d. Within the hyphae
10. Mycelia within the colony that grow into the substrate are called:
a. Aerial hyphae
b. Conidiosphores
c. Macroconidia
d. Vegatative hyphae
11. Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred to as:
a. Spirals
b. Terminal
c. Intercalary
d. Sessile
12. Budding forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a single
mother cell or forms laterally from a mycelium or pseudomycelium are
called:
a. Blastopores
b. Chlamydospores
c. Ascospores
d. Sporangiospores
13. Which of the following are the result of asexual reproduction?
a. Arthrospores
b. Ascospores
c. Zygospores
d. B and C
14. Conidia are:
a. Asexual spores
b. Sexual spores
c. Vegetative spores
d. Asexual or sexual spores
15. Macroconidia are usually:
a. Multicellular
b. Unicellular
c. Square
d. Rectangular
16. The swollen portion of the conidiophore is called the:
a. Spherule
b. Sporangium
c. Sterigmata
d. Vesicle
17. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to true yeasts?
a. Ascospores are produced in the sexual phase
b. Blastospores are the sexual reproductive form
c. Saccharomyces is a representative of this group
d. They exhibit thermal dimorphism
18. Conidia with rough or spiny surfaces are described as:
a. Catenate
b. Echinulate
c. Pedunculate
d. Sessile
19. Conidia in chains are said to be:
a. Catenate
b. Echinulate
c. Pedunculate
d. Sessile
20. When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, why is the slide
gently heated?
a. Preserves the specimen
b. Increased the rate of clearing
c. Mounts the specimen
d. AOTA
21. Which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate debris
and make fungal elements more prominent in skin, hair, and nails?
a. Lactophenol cotton blue
b. 10% KOH
c. 70% alcohol
d. Ether
22. What is the stain in Aman medium?
a. Cotton blue
b. Methylene blue
c. Prussian blue
d. Bromthymol blue
23. Which of the following is negative stain?
a. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
b. Giemsa stain
c. Acridine orange stain
d. India ink stain
24. In the periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS), what colors denote the
presence of glycogen?
a. Blue to green
b. Red to violet
c. Pink to red
d. Yellow to brown
25. Which of the following stains is used for sharp delineation of fungal
elements by fluorescent microscopy?
a. Gomori methenamine silver
b. Calcoflour white
c. Hematoxylin
d. Eosin
26. When the fungus wall is invisible with the hemotoxylin and eosin
stain, which of the following may be used to re-stain the slide?
a. Acid-fast stain
 b. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
c. Gram stain (Hucker medification)
d. Gomori methenamine silver stain
27. Fungal elements in the acridine orange staining procedure:
a. Stain red
b. Do not stain
c. Stain purple
d. Fluoresces a green color
28. How does MYCOSEL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar?
a. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide
b. Does not contain dextrose
c. Contains an indicator
d. Stimulates the production of chlamydospores
29. Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance
of fungal cultures?
a. Sabouraud dextrose agar
b. Cornmeal agar
c. Staib’s medium
d. Rice agar
30. What is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test Medium?
a. Methyl red
b. Phenol red
c. Bromcresol purple
d. Methyl orange
31. If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, Trichophyton rubrum can be
differentiated from Trichophyton mentagrophytes by the production of:
a. Hyphae
b. Ascospores
c. Pigment
d. Sporangia
32. Fungi should be incubated at:
a. 25-30oC
b. 10-15oC
c. 35-37oC
d. 50-56oC
33. How long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as negative?
a. 5 days
b. 14 days
c. 48 hours
d. 30 days
34. Which of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the
isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated material?
a. Penicillin and streptomycin
b. Vancomycin and nystatin
c. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol
d. Streptomycin and nystatin
35. Which of the following media stimulates the production of
chlamydospores?
a. Brain-heart infusion blood agar
b. Czapek’s agar
c. Cornmeal agar
d. Urease test medium
36. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?
a. Urease medium
b. Rice agar
c. Czapek’s agar
d. Ascorpore agar
37. A positive result for the hair-baiting test is:
a. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft
b. The production of germ tubes
c. The production of red pigment
d. The production of brown pigment
38. A tinea infection is commonly referred to as:
a. Taeniasis
b. Ringworm
c. Pityriasis
d. Piedra
39. Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra?
a. Trichosporon beigelii
b. Microsporum canis
c. Piedraia horate
d. Malasseizia furfur
40. Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the:
a. Nail plates
b. Beard
c. Palm of hand
d. Feet
41. The favus type of tinea capitis is caused by which of the following?
a. Trichopython violaceum
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Candida albicans
42. Which of the following is/are anthrophilic?
a. Microsporum audouinii
b. Microsporum canis
c. Microsporum gypseum
d. All of these organisms
43. Hairs infected with which of these dermatophytes fluoresce under
Wood’s lamp?
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton tonsurans
c. Microsporum canis
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
44. Colonization by dermatophytic fungi of the hair, nails and skin is
called:
a. Mycetoma
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Phaeohyphomycosis
d. Dermatophytoses
45. Which of the following fungi is/are cause of dermatophytoses?
a. Epidermophyton
b. Trichophyton
c. Microsporum
d. AOTA
46. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large,
multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?
a. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton mantagrophytes
47. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive
b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft
c. Trichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon” forms
d. Trichophyton rubrum produces a red pigment on some media
48. Which of the following produces small, very slow growing colonies and
has favic chandeliers?
a. Trichophyton tonsurans
b. Microsporum canis
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
49. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomucosis?
a. Flowerette conidia
b. Asteroid body
c. Sclerotic body
d. Germ tube
50. Which of the following are found in the yeast phase of Sporothrix
schenckii on culture medium at 37oC?
a. Sclerotic bodies
b. Asteroid bodies
c. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
d. Germ tube
51. Which of the following is the result of an antigen-antibody reaction
in cases of sporotrichosis?
a. Sclerotic body
b. Flowerette conidia
c. Sleeve conidia
d. Asteroid body
52. In order mold cultures of Sporothrix schenckii, single conidia borne
along the sides of the hyphae are referred as:
 a. Cigar-shaped
b. Flowerette
c. Asteroid body
d. Sleeve
53. Which of the following infections is caused by dermatiaceous saprobes
that invade organs of immunosupressed hosts?
a. Phaeohyphomycosis
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Hyalohyphomycosis
d. Dermatophytoses
54. The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the U.S. is:
a. Pseudoallescheria boydii
b. Nocardia asteroides
c. Rhinosporidium seeberi
d. Actinomadura madure
55. Dermatiaceous fungi have colonies with:
a. Surface and reverse side light
b. Surface and reverse side dark
c. Surface light and reverse side dark
d. Surface dark and reverse side light
56. Which of the following are a dermatiaceous fungi?
a. Sporotrichum and Aspergillus
b. Phialophora and Cladosporium
c. Penicillin and Acremonium
d. Fusarium and Paecilomyces
57. Sclerotic bodies are found in tissue in an infection with:
a. Candida
b. Cladosporium
c. Chrysosporium
d. Coccidioides
58. Infection of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the
following fungi?
a. Exophiala
b. Cladosporium
c. Phialophora
d. Fonsecaea
59. A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37oC and a mold at 25oC is
described as:
a. Monomorphic
b. Mycelial
c. Dimorphic
d. Eumycotic
60. True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as:
a. Eumycotic
b. Monomorphic
c. Dimorphic
d. Yeast
61. Which of the following causes an infection by hyaline saprobes that
invade most tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed hosts?
a. Aspegillus
b. Penicillium marneffei
c. Fusarium moniliforme
d. AOTA
62. If you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores, report the
organism as:
a. Scedosporidium apiospermum
b. Actinomyces israelii
c. Nocardia asteroids
d. Pseudoallescheria boydii
63. The actinomycetes are best classified as:
a. Acid-fast bacteria
b. Eumycetes
c. Funguslike bacteria
d. Opportunistic fungi
64. Which of the following is anaerobic, gram-positive but not acid-fast
and does not stain with fungal stains?
a. Nocardia asteroides
b. Nocardia brasiliensis
c. Actinomyces israelii
d. Actinomadura madurae
65. Which of the following has a capsule?
a. Candida albicans
b. Geotrichum candidum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
66. When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the
following antibiotics should not be in the medium?
a. Trimethoprim
b. Vancomycin
c. Aminoglycoside
d. Cycloheximide
67. In the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid, which
of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte?
a. Candida
b. Cryptococcus
c. Geotrichum
d. Blastomyces
68. Why does Cryptococcus neoformans produce a brown color on Birdseed or
stain agar?
a. Assimilates creatinine
b. Assimilates niacin
c. Ferments glucose
d. Ferments trehalose
69. Cryptococcus neoformans has the following biochemical reaction/s:
 a. Urease positive
b. Inositol positive
c. Nitrate negative
d. AOTA
70. Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid
detects cryptococcal:
a. Creatinine
b. Antibody
c. Carbohydrate
d. Antigen
71. Candida albicans produces:
a. Blastospores
b. Chalmydospores
c. Pseudohyphae
d. AOTA
72. Which of the following is another name for oral candidiasis?
a. Ring worm
b. Thrush
c. Barber’s itch
d. Favus
73. A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by
checking the ability of the organism to produce what structure with
serum
a. Blastospores
b. Chalmydospores
c. Germ tube
d. Pseudohyphae
74. Cornmeal agar plus Tween 80 is used to identify Candida albicans
through the organism’s production of:
a. Capsules
b. Chlamydospores
c. Germ tubes
d. Sporangia
75. Geotrichum candidum colonies appear as:
a. Slow growing, dematiaceous growth
b. Rapid, yeastlike growth
c. Slow growing, violet, waxy growth
d. Rapid growing, suede-like growth
76. Laboratory workers are in no danger when handling which form of
dimorphic fungi?
a. Yeast form (tissue)
b. Hyphal form (culture)
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B
77. Sepedonium produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia but is a:
a. Dimorphic fungus
b. Yeastlike fungus
 c. Monomorphic mold
d. A and B
78. Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum?
a. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia
b. Small, budding yeast cells
c. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
d. Tuberculate macroconidia
79. Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
d. AOTA
80. The tissue phase oh Histoplasma capsulatum, characteristically shows:
a. Pseudohyphae with blastospores
b. Yeast forms with multiple buds
c. Yeast cells within macrophages
d. Tuberculate chlamydospores
81. The characteristic structures of the mycelial phase of Histoplasma
capsulatum are:
a. Blastospores
b. Arthrospores with a germ tube in one corner
c. Tuberculate chlamydospores
d. Yeast cells usually in monocytes
82. Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania
has:
a. A different size
b. A different shape
c. Central nuclear material
d. NOTA
83. Which of the following tests may be used instead of conversion when
identifying dimorphic fungi?
a. Exoantigen test
b. String test
c. Immunofluorescence test
d. ELISA
84. In the mycelial form, Blastomyces dermatitidis produces:
a. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops
b. Wide, septate hyphae
c. Broad, nonseptate hyphae
d. Delicate, branching, acid-fast hyphae
85. A yeast form with a single broad-based bud would identify an organism
as:
a. Blastomyces
b. Coccidioides
c. Histoplasma
d. Sporothrix
86. The characteristic structures of the mycelial phase of blastomycosis
are:
a. Clusters of blastospores
b. Small pear-shaped conidia called lollipops
c. Numerous intercalary or terminal chlamydospores
d. Spherules filled with endospores
87. Yeast-like forms with multiple buds are characteristic forms
associated with:
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Candida albicans
c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
d. Sporothrix schenckii
88. Immature spherules of Coccidioides are differentiated from yeast
forms of Blastomyces because:
a. They produce buds
b. Their buds have a wide base
c. Their buds have a narrow base
d. They never bud
89. Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard to laboratory
personnel?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
90. The exoantigen test is a/an:
a. Indirect passive agglutination test
b. Microscopic immunodiffusion test
c. Neutralization test
d. Rocket electrophoresis technique
91. In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are
present in a positive result?
a. H and/or M
b. J and/or L
c. A and/or D
d. O and/or P
92. When differentiating Histoplasma capsulatum from Leishmania using
special fungus stains, Leishmania stains:
a. Green
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Will not stain
93. Which of the bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces
dermatitidis is present in a positive result?
a. A
b. G
c. H
d. M
94. Which of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled with
endospores?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Blastomyces immitis
d. Rhisopus arrhizus
95. Zygomycosis is caused by which of the following genera?
a. Aspergillus and Rhizopus
b. Rhizopus and Aureobasidium
c. Mucor and Aspergillus
d. Mucor and Rhizopus
96. Fungal elements in Zygomycosis show hyphae that are:
a. Broad and nonseptate
b. Broad and septate
c. Narrow and septate
d. Regular and dichotomous branching

VIROLOGY

1. A mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by

a protein coat, with or without envelope, is called a:
a. Nucleocapsid
b. Genome
c. Virion
d. Capsomer
2. Viruses are characterized by the presence of:
a. Mitochondrial DNA
b. DNA and RNA
c. Ribosomal RNA
d. RNA
3. What is the largest DNA virus?
a. Herpesvirus
b. Poxvirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Parvovirus
4. Which of the following is the smallest RNA virus?
a. Paramyxovirus
b. Togavirus
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Enterovirus
5. What is the first step in the replication cycle of a virus?
a. Attachment and penetration
b. Assembly of virion
c. Release
d. Uncoating
6. The virus capsid morphology is:
a. Square or round
b. Long or short
c. Ribbon-like or square
d. Helical or icosahedral
7. From what part of the virus is the envelope acquired?
a. Nuclear or cytoplasmic membrane
b. Nucleus or cytoplasm
c. Capsomeres or genomes
d. mRNA or DNA
8. Where is the site of virion assembly?
a. Capsomere
b. Nucleus or cytoplasm
c. Genomes
d. Membranes
9. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. Retroviridae
b. Orthomyxoviridae
c. Herpesviridae
d. Paramyxoviridae
10. Which of the following is an RNA virus?
a. Pseudomyxoviridae
b. Papoviridae
c. Herpeviridae
d. Poxviridae
11. Specimens collected for virus isolation should be kept at:
a. 37oC
b. 20oC
c. 4oC
d. -20oC
12. At what temperature should clinical specimens suspected of
containing viruses kept for transport that takes days?
a. -70oC
b. 37oC
c. 4oC
d. -10oC
13. In what family of viruses, after primary infection, does an
individual become latently infected and then the infection can be
reactivated?
a. Adenoviridae
b. Herpesviridae
c. Poxviridae
d. Papvaviridae
14. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:
a. Monkey kidney cells
b. A549 cells
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
 d. Embryonated hen’s egg
15. Which of the following viruses causes acute central nervous system
disease in humans and animals?
a. Rabies
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. Measles
16. What specimen/s should be collected from a patient with suspected
enteroviral meningitis?
a. Stool
b. Throat swab
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. AOTA
17. Influenza A viruses can be detected in cell cultures by:
a. Complement-fixation test
b. Hemadsorption assay
c. Immunoperoxidase test
d. Hemagglutination-inhibition test
18. The best host system for influenza virus isolation are:
a. Monkey kidney cells and embryonated hen’s eggs
b. Monkey kidney cells and human embryonic fibroblasts
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts and embryonated hen’s eggs
d. Monkey kidney cells and A549 cells
19. What common antigen is cross-reactive in all human adenoviruses?
a. Fiber
b. Hexon
c. Hemagglutinin
d. Capsomere
20. The following characteristics are similar in both influenza and
parainfluenza viruses, EXCEPT:
a. Helical symmetry
b. Lipid envelope
c. Budding from cytoplasmic membrane
d. Segmented RNA genome
21. Myxoviridae virus envelope contains both:
a. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin
b. Lipoprotein and nonsegmented nucleocapsid
c. Lipid and double stranded DNA
d. Hemmaglutinin and nonsegmented nucleocapsid
22. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are elementary bodies of the:
a. Herpes virus
b. Poxvirus
c. Poliovirus
d. Papilloma virus
23. German measles is caused by:
a. Rubeola virus
b. Rubella virus
 c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Vaccinia virus
24. What is an alastrim infection?
a. Smallpox
b. Chickenpox
c. Mild form of smallpox
d. Measles
25. Which of the following laboratory procedures is routinely used for
the detection of hepatitis B virus (HBV) in blood donors?
a. Solid-phase RIA
b. ELISA
c. Culture
d. A and B
26. Which of the following laboratory procedures is the most rapid
method for diagnosis of a virus infection?
a. Culture
b. Serological tests
c. Direct electron microscopy
d. Cytophatic effect (CPE) in cell cultures
27. What specimen/s should be collected from a patient with suspected
influenza?
a. Stool
b. Throat swab
c. Urine
d. AOTA
28. What virus group contains a double-stranded, segmented RNA genome?
a. Herpesvirus
b. Influenza virus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Reovirus
29. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:
a. Acid resistance
b. Size determination
c. Ether stability
d. Ribonuclease treatment
30. What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children
during the winter months?
a. Influenza viruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Rotavirus
d. Hepatitis A virus
31. All of the following groups of viruses are resistant to ether
treatment, except:
a. Herpesviruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Enteroviruses
d. Reoviruses
32. The most common method for rapid electron microscopy examination is:
a. Negative staining
b. Acid-fast staining
c. Gram stain
d. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
33. Various virus groups can be differentiated in negatively stained
specimens by their:
a. Envelope
b. Cytoplasmic membrane
c. Morphology
d. Nucleus