BACTERIOLOGY QUESTIONS

For item 1-10. Case Analysis 1: Wales, a 75-year old man lived in a retirement village. He received periodic medical check-ups and was
relatively in good health. During winter, an outbreak of influenza affected many residents of the complex even though all had received
vaccinations. The man developed a progressive lower respiratory tract illness with symptoms including abrupt chills, high fever,
productive coughs and chest pains. Sputum cultures revealed large number of gram-positive diplococci which were also found in blood
samples. Chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation. During his hospitalization, he was given penicillin G antibiotic. Later, the man’s
condition deteriorated ending with his death.
1. the following observed in the patient’s sputum and blood c. Streptococcus
probably belongs to which of the following genera:
a. Staphylococcus
b. Neisseria
c. Streptococcus
d. Enterococcus
2. The organism streaked on Blood agar plate would produce: a. alpha-hemolytic
a. alpha-hemolytic
b. no hemolysis
c. beta-hemolytic
d. does not grow
3. Vaccines against the organism are prepare against the d. capsule
a. cell wall
b. nucleic acid proteins
c. flagella
d. capsule
4. A toxin isolated from animal infected experimentally with the b. pneumolysin
organism is
a. shiga toxin Shiga toxin – Shigella
b. pneumolysin Diphtheria toxin – C. dipththeriae
c. diphtheria toxin LPS – most gram neg organisms
d. LPS toxin
5. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding d. Blood drawn for culture may be allowed to clot
blood culture?
a. Collection of 10-20 ml per culture for adults
b. Two or three blood cultures are recommended
c. Volume of blood culture is more critical than timing of culture
d. Blood drawn for culture may be allowed to clot
6. What initial biochemical test should be done to identify the b. Taxo P
suspected bacterial species?
a. Bile esculin test
b. Taxo P
c. Coagulase
d. Oxidase
7. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic mentioned? a. inhibition of cell wall
a. inhibition of cell wall
b. inhibition of DNA synthesis
c. inhibition of ribosomes
d. inhibition of folic acid metabolism
8. Based on Bartlett’s criteria, what is the ideal sputum samples b. >25 PC/field
for culture?
a. >10 EC/field
b. >25 PC/field
c. <10 PC/field
d. <25 EC /field
9. All are possible complications of the suspected etiologic agent, d. Endocarditis
except:
a. Meningitis MOPS
b. Otitis media M – Meningitis
c. Sinusitis O – Otitis media
d. Endocarditis P – Pneumonia
S – Sinusitis
10. What is considered as a confirmatory test to identify the c. Quellung test
suspected agent?
a. Optochin test
b. Bacitracin test
c. Quellung test
d. Coagulase
For items 11-16. Case Analysis 2: A male patient with culture-positive gonococcal urethritis was treated with 5 million units of aqueous
procaine penicillin G intramuscularly plus probenecid (1.0g) orally. Eight days later, he returned complaining of similar symptoms
consisting painful urination, but less urethral discharge.
11. What is suspected primary causative agent for the above a. N. gonorrhoeae
infection?
a. N. gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis and C. albicans – non-gonococcal
b. Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis
c. C. albicans
d. E. coli
12. If the causative agent responsible for the above infection were c. oxidase test
gram-negative diplococcus, and what biochemical test is used to
confirm the above gram stained finding?
a. coagulase test
b. catalase test
c. oxidase test
d. indole test
13. What is the reagent of the biochemical test used in #12? b. 1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine diHCl
a. serum
b. 1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine diHCl
d. 3% Hydrogen peroxide
d. Kovac’s
14. What is the possible virulence factor of the primary pathogen b. somatic pili
for the above infection?
a. somatic antigen
b. somatic pili
c. capsular antigen
d. flagellar antigen
15. What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics? b. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
a. Inhibit DNA synthesis
b. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
c. Inhibit protein synthesis
d. Inhibit cell membrane
16. In doing CHO utilization test, what sugar is fermented by the a. glucose only
primary etiologic agent?
a. glucose only
b. glucose and sucrose
c. glucose and lactose
d. AOTA
17. Which of the following is a selective medium for N. c. MTM
gonorrhoeae?
a. MHIA
b. CAP
c. MTM
d. BAP
18. Bacitracin A discs are used for presumptive identification of a. Group A
which group of beta hemolytic streptococci?
a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group C
d. Group D
19. Which streptococci grows with on 6.5% salt broth, bile esculin d. E. faecium
positive and ferments sucrose and trehalose but not on
arabinose? E. faecalis - ferments sucrose and trehalose and arabinose
a. S. mutans
b. E. faecalis sucrose
c. S. pneumoniae arabinose
d. E. faecium trehalose

Fae SAT and left (FaecALIS)

20. S. epidermidis is recovered from which of the following d. AOTA
sources?
a. prosthetic heart valves
b. intravenous catheters
c. urinary tract
d. AOTA
21. Which test used to differentiate the viridans streptococci from d. Bile esculin test
the group D streptococci and enterococci?
a. Bacitracin disk test
b. CAMP test
c. Hippurate hydrolysis test
d. Bile esculin test
22. Which of the following enzymes contribute to the virulence of b. hyaluronidase and B-lactamase
S. aureus?
a. urease and lecithinase
b. hyaluronidase and B-lactamase
c. lecithinase and catalase
d. cytochrome
23. Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus b. S. epidermidis
species?
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. intermedius
d. S. saprophyticus
24. The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase- c. N. gonorrhoeae
positive, glucose-positive, and a major cause of venereal disease
is most likely which of the following?
a. N. meningitidis
b. S. pyogenes
c. N. gonorrhoeae
d. S. viridans
25. A throat culture was taken from a 6-year old boy with a gray c. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shape
pseudomembane covering his oropharynx. A catalase-positive
organism was isolated on cysteine-tellurite medium and
subcultured to Tinsdale medium, where it grew as black colonies C. diphtheriae
with brown halos. A gram stain was performed on these colonies.
Which of the following cellular morphologies was most likely PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS – C. DIFFICILE
seen?
a. Gram-positive branching bacilli
b. Gram-positive cocci in short chains
c. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shape
d. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters
26. Which of the following sets of tests provide the best c. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, esculin hydrolysis
differentiation of Erysipelothrix from Listeria monocytogenes?
a. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin Among gram-neg bacilli, only Erysipelothrix produce
b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility H2s
c. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, esculin hydrolysis
d. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, B-hemolysis
27. The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, S. dysenteriae
urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile
best describe which organism?
a. P. vulgaris
b. S. enterica
c. Y. pestis
d. S. dysenteriae
28. The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as d. Woolsorters disease
a. Valley fever
b. Walking pneumonia  Valley fever – Coccidioides spp.
c. Farmers’ lung  Walking pneumonia – Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Woolsorters disease  Farmers’ lung – Aspergillus spp.
29. Colonies of Listeria monocytogenes on a sheep blood agar c. S. agalactiae
plate most closely resemble colonies of:
a. C. diphtheriae L. monocytogenes – reverse
b. S. bovis group S. agalactiae – bow tie
c. S. agalactiae
d. R. equi
30. Which of the following reactions is typical for Escherichia coli? a. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar
a. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar
b. Colorless colonies on MacConkey agar Colorless colonies on MacConkey agar – E. coli is a lactose
c. Colorless on XLD agar fermenter
d. Green colonies with black center of HE Green colonies with black center of HE – for Salmonella
31. Colonies that are said to resemble “droplets of mercury” are c. B. pertussis
characteristics of:
a. B. abortus
b. C. diphtheriae
c. B. pertussis
d. B. anthracis
32. Sereny test is used to diagnose which type of organism? c. EIEC
a. EHEC
b. ETEC
c. EIEC
d. EPEC
33. All of the following enzymes are produced by Serratia spp. d. Hyaluronidase
Except
a. DNAse
b. Gelatinase
c. Lipase
d. Hyaluronidase
34. Which species of Citrobacter is the only hydrogen sulfide c. C. freundii
producer?
a. C. koseri Has the most “freunds” (friends) in “H2S” (HS/High School)
b. C. diversus
c. C. freundii
d. C. amalonaticus
35. Which Proteus species is the source of OX2 and OX19 sera c. P. vulgaris
that agglutinate when a patient has rickettsial infection?
a. P. mirabilis
b. P. rettgeri
c. P. vulgaris
d. P. multocida
36. The vector of bubonic plague is c. Rat flea
a. Dog ticks
b. Human louse
c. Rat flea Bacteria is Yersinia pestis
d. Tsetse fly
37. Which of the following is the basic composition of B. anthracis c. D-Glutamic acid
capsule?
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Polypeptides
c. D-Glutamic acid
d. Mycolic acid
38. It is also known as Hay bacillus c. B. subtilis
a. B. anthracis
b. B. thuringiensis
c. B. subtilis
d. B. cereus
39. Which Corynebacterium species is the most common cause of b. C. jeikeium
Corynebacterium-associated prosthetic valve endocarditis in
adults?
a. C. diphtheriae
b. C. jeikeium
c. C. ulcerans
d. C. pertussis
40. Which characteristic pattern is observed when Listeria b. Umbrella-like pattern
monocytogenes is grown and incubated at RT not BT?
a. Inverted-like pattern Bowtie/arrowhead - S. pneumoniae
b. Umbrella-like pattern Test tube brush – E. rhusiopathiae
c. Bowtie or arrowhead
d. Test tube brush pattern
41. The only catalase-neg, gram-pos non-spore forming rod that c. E. rhusiopathiae
produce H2S
a. P. mirabilis
b. C. freundii
c. E. rhusiopathiae
d. S. typhi
42. Which of the following is mismatched? e. AOTA
a. S. dysenteriae: Group D
b. S. sonnei: Group A Group A – S. dysenteriae
c. S. flexneri: Group C Group B – S. flexneri
d. S. boydii: GROUP B Group C - S. boydii
e. AOTA Group D – S. sonnei

43. Suggested QC organisms for Simmons citrate agar slants are: b. Klebsiella pneumoniae (positive); E. coli (negative)
a. Shigella sonnei; Escherichia coli
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae; E. coli Shigella sonnei – negative
c. E. coli; Edwardsiella tarda Edwardsiella tarda – negative
d. Morganella morganii; Edwardsiella tarda Morganella morganii - negative
44. In the nitrate test, reduction is demonstrated of a red color, d. Alpha-napththylamine and sulfanilic acid
following the addition of
a. Alpha naphthol and potassium hydroxide Alpha naphthol and potassium hydroxide – Methyl red and
b. P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde and amyl alcohol Vogues Proskauer test
c. Ninhydrin and acetone P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde and amyl alcohol – composition of
d. Alpha-napththylamine and sulfanilic acid Kovac’s solution

45. The Moeller test for the detection of decarboxylase activity is a. An alkaline pH shift in the medium
dependent upon
a. An alkaline pH shift in the medium
b. The oxidation of gluconate
c. An acid pH basal medium
d. A deamination of tryptophan
46. The ONPG test is most useful when differentiating: b. Shigella spp. and some strains of E. coli
a. Salmonella spp. and Pseudomonas spp
b. Shigella spp. and some strains of E. coli Late lactose fermenter vs True lactose fermenter
c. Klebsiella spp. and Enterobacter spp.
d. Proteus vulgaris from Salmonella spp.
47. At what pH does the methyl red test become positive (red)? d. 4.5
a. 7.0
b. 6.5
c. 6.0
d. 4.5
48. In test for urease production, ammonia reacts to for which c. Ammonium carbonate
product?
a. Ammonium citrate
b. Ammonium oxalate
c. Ammonium carbonate
d. Ammonium nitrate
49. Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysine, ornithine and d. Amine
arginine results in the formation of:
a. Ammonia
b. Urea
c. Carbon
d. Amine
50. Lysine iron agar showing a purple slant and a blackened butt c. Salmonella spp.
indicates:
a. E. coli
b. Citrobacter spp.
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Proteus spp.
51. Kligler iron agar (KIA) differs from triple iron sugar (TSI) in the: b. Use of sucrose in the medium
a. Ratio of lactose to glucose
b. Use of sucrose in the medium
c. Ability to detect H2S production
d. Color reaction denoting acid production
52. Care must be taken when identifying biochemical isolates of a. E. coli
Shigella because serological cross-reactions occur with what
organism?
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella spp
c. Proteus spp
d. Pseudomonas
53. Which genera of Enterobacteriaceae are usually non-motile at a. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia
36C?
a. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia REMEMBER SKY
b. Escherichia, Edwardsiella, and Enterobacter
c. Proteus, Providencia, and Morganella
d. Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia
54. Cold environment of feces in phosphate buffered saline prior d. Yersinia enterocolitica
to subculture onto enteric media enhances the recovery of:
a. Enterooxigenic E. coli
b. Hafnia alvei
c. Salmonella paratyphi
d. Yersinia enterocolitica
55. An isolate of E. coli recovered from stool of a patient with a. Sorbitol (fermentation)
severe diarrhea should be tested for which sugar before sending it
to a reference laboratory for serotyping? EHEC will ferment sorbitol
a. Sorbitol (fermentation)
b. Raffinose (fermentation)
c. Mannitol (oxidation)
d. Sucrose (fermentation)
For item 56-65 Case Analysis 3: Carlisle gave birth to a healthy girl. The mother came from a rural area, was in good health and had
received prenatal care. At home, the energetic infant scratched herself along the left thigh resulting in a slight reddening which the
mother noted and treated with an antibacterial ointment. A week later, the skin on the infant’s leg and hands started to peel. The infant
was taken to a clinic where infection was examined, cultures were taken, and treatment was initiated with tetracycline and nafcillin.
56. The exfoliation of large areas of skin from different areas of b. Scalded skin syndrome
the body suggests:
a. Systemic viral infection
b. Scalded skin syndrome
c. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Fungal infection
57. Bacterial cultures taken from wounds or abscesses on the d. S. aureus
infant will most likely show the presence of:
a. S. pyogenes
b. E. coli
c. P. aeruginosa
d. S. aureus
58. The exfoliation associated with the infection is caused by: c. Exfoliative toxin
a. Alpha toxin
b. Coagulase TSST-1 (Enterotoxin F) - Menstruating-associated toxic shock
c. Exfoliative toxin syndrome
d. TSST-1
59. Stain differences of the causative agent may be distinguished c. Coagulase test
by:
A, Coagulase test
b. Taxo P
c. Catalase test
d. Oxidase
60. Positive result of the test being answered in question number b. Clot/agglutination
59
a. Effervescence Effervescence - + result of catalase test
b. Clot/agglutination Yellow (acid) – fermentation
c. Yellow (acid) Capsular swelling – Quellung’s test
d. Capsular swelling
61. A proteolytic enzyme produced by the suspected agent that c. Staphylokinase
causes dissolution of clot and helps in spreading the infection
a. Coagulase
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Staphylokinase
d. Lipase
62. The suspected organism grows well in which culture medium? b. Mannitol salt agar
a. Chocolate agar
b. Mannitol salt agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. Cetrimide agar
63. Increased dosage of tetracycline may lead to these d. Biliary obstruction
abnormalities and diseases, except:
a. Hepatic damage
b. Kidney damage
c. Yellowing discoloration of teeth
d. Biliary obstruction
64. Nafcillin antibiotic is an example of which type of cell wall b. Penicillinase-resistant penicillin drugs
inhibitors
a. Beta-lactams
b. Penicillinase-resistant penicillin drugs
c. Cephalosporins
d. Glycopeptides
65. Which of the following toxin produced by S. aureus b. PVL
responsible for CA-MRSA (Community Acquired-MRSA)?
a. Hemolysin
b. PVL (Panton-Valentine Leucocidin)
c. Coagulase
d. Enterotoxin F
66. Which toxin is released by B. cereus that causes diarrhea that b. Emetic
is commonly isolated from fried or boiled rice?
a. Diarrhea Diarrheal toxin - meat producers
b. Emetic Shiga toxin – EIEC
c. Enterotoxin
d. Shiga toxin

67. Which of the following tests is specifically for B. anthrax? c. Ascoli test
a. Catalase test
b. Coagulase test
c. Ascoli test
d. Frei test
68. Which forms of anthrax that shows black eschar and b. Cutaneous
malignant pustule?
a. Pulmonary Pulmonary – Woolsorter’s disease
b. Cutaneous Gastrointestinal – abdominal pain
c. Gastrointestinal
d. Injection
69. Which colonial types of C. diphtheriae is the largest and a. Gravis
described to have daisy-head colonies which are non-hemolytic?
a. Gravis
b. Mitis
c. Intermedius
d. Bellanti
70. In vitro toxigenicity test done to diagnose C. diphtheriae? c. Elek’s
a. Schick’s
b. Ascoli’s
c. Elek’s
d. Widal
71. Which of the following organisms are generally positive for d. Escherichia
Beta-galactosidase?
a. Salmonella
b. Shigella
c. Proteus
d. Escherichia
72. The method of serotyping Shigella used in the clinical d. O antigen
laboratory is based on:
a. Bacteriocins
b. H antigen
c. K antigen
d. O antigen
73. Given the following results, which is most likely the organism? c. E. coli
TSI: A/A +G -H2S Urease: -
IMViC: ++-- PAD: -
Lysine Decarboxylase: +
a. P vulgaris
b. S. typhi
c. E. coli
d. K. pneumoniae
74. Given the following results, which is most likely the organism? b. S. marcescens
MAC: colorless; NLF Urease: -
IMViC: --++ PAD: -
Lysine and Ornithine decarboxylase and DNAse: +
a. P. mirabilis
b. S. marcescens
c. P. mirabilis
d. E. cloacae
75. Given the following result, which is most likely the organism? a. P. vulgaris
MAC: colorless; NLF Urease: +
IMViC: ++-- PAD and H2S: +
Lysine and Ornithine decarboxylase: +
Gelatin hydrolysis: + DNAse: +
a. P. vulgaris
b. P. mirabilis
c. S. marcescens
d. K. oxytoca
76. Colonies on CIN agar displayed “bulls-eye” after 24 hours of d. Y. enterolitica
incubation
a. S. typhi
b. S. sonnei
c. Y. pestis
d. Y. enterolitica
77. Which of the following organisms is positive for string test? b. K pneumoniae
a. E. coli
b. K. pneumoniae
c. S. marcescens
d. S. paratyphi
78. What do you call the pigment produced by Serratia c. Prodigiosin
marcescens?
a. Biliverdin
b. Pyocyanin
c. Prodigiosin
d. Bilirubin
79. In which of the following cellular structure is the H antigen of a. Flagella
enterobacteria located?
a. Flagella
b. Cell wall
c. Capsule
d. Cell membrane
80. Which among the E. coli strain is responsible for the profuse c. EAEC
diarrhea among HIV positive patients?
a. ETEC
b. EHEC
c. EAEC
d. EIEC
81. Which E. coli strain is known to cause “traveler’s diarrhea”? a. ETEC
a. ETEC
b. EHEC
c. EAEC
d. EIEC
82. Verotoxin 1 is also produced by which species of Shigella? c. S. dysenteriae
a. S. sonnei
b. S. boydii
c. S. dysenteriae
d. S. flexneri
83. Which of the following is mismatched? c. K. pneumoniae = atypical pneumonia
a. K. ozanae = atrophic rhinitis
b. K. rhinoscleromatis = granuloma of the nose K. pneumoniae = TYPICAL pneumonia
c. K. pneumoniae = atypical pneumonia M. pneumoniae = ATYPICAL pneumonia
d. K. granulomatis = Donovanosis
84. The quellung test is used to identify which streptococcus d. S. pneumoniae
species?
a. S. pyogenes
b. S. sanguies
c. S. agalactiae
d. S. pneumoniae
85. B-hemolytic streptococci, more than 50,000 col/Ml, were c. Enterococci faecalis
isolated from a urinary tract catheter urine specmen. Given the
following reactions, what is the most likely identification?
CAMP test = Neg Hippurate hydrolysis = +/-
Bile solubility test = Neg 6.5% salt = +
PYR= + Bile esculin = +
SXT = Resistant Bacitracin = Resistant
a. Group A streptococci
b. Group B streptococci
c. Enterococci faecalis
d. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D streptococci
86. Two blood cultures on a newborn grew B-hemolytic b. Group B streptococci
streptococci with the following reactions:
CAMP test = + Hippurate hydrolysis = +
Bile solubility = Neg 6.5% salt: +
Bacitracin = Resistant Bile esculin = Neg
PYR = Neg
Which is the most likely identification?
a. Group A streptococci
b. Group B streptococci
c. Enterococci faecalis
d. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D streptococci
87. Gram-negative diplococci recovered from an MTM plate and d. AOTA
giving a positive oxidase test can be presumptively identified as:
a. N. gonorrhoeae
b. N. lactamica
c. N. meningitidis
d. AOTA
88. A Gram-stain of a urethral discharge from a man showing a. N. gonorrhoeae
extracellular and intracellular gram-negative diplococci within
segmented neutrophils is a presumptive identification for:
a. N. gonorrhoeae
b. M. catarrhalis
c. N. meningitidis
d. N. lactamica
89. Culture on MTM media of a cerebrospinal fluid produced d. N. meningitidis
several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase
and oxidase positive and Superoxol negative. Given the following
carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification
Glucose = + Sucrose = - Lactose = - Maltose = + Fructose = -
a. N. gonorrhoeae
b. N. flavescens
c. N. sicca
d. N. meningitidis
90. Beta hemolytic streptococci are divided into different a. Group-specific cell wall polysaccharide antigen
Lancefield groups based upon:
a. Group-specific cell wall polysaccharide antigen
b. Type specific protein cell wall antigen
c. Hemolytic patterns
d. Biochemical difference
91. A positive CAMP reaction is produced by d. S. agalactiae
a. L. pneumophila
b. E. equi
c. H. pylori
d. S. agalactiae
92. The slide coagulase test is a screening test because a. A positive test must be confirmed with a tube test
a. A positive test must be confirmed with a tube test
b. It measures only free coagulase
c. Some staphylococci are coagulase positive by tube but not by
slide
d. Citrate-positive organisms may interfere by using the
anticoagulant
93. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be differentiated from Neisseria b. Fermentation of glucose, maltose, sucrose
sicca by:
a. Fermentation of glucose and maltose
b. Fermentation of glucose, maltose, sucrose
c. Fermentation of lactose and maltose
d. Fermentation of glucose only
94. On a blood agar plate, organisms producing a clear zone c. Beta hemolytic
around growing colonies are described as:
a. Delta hemolytic
b. Gamma hemolytic
c. Beta hemolytic
d. Alpha hemolytic
95. The culture media of choice for the cultivation of Neisseria c. Chocolate agar
gonorrhoeae is
a. Blood agar Neisseria will use the iron component in the CAP
b. Nutrient agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Saboraud’s agar
96. The enterotoxin produced by certain strains of coagulase c. Causes one type of bacterial food poisoning
positive Staphylococcus aureus:
a. Is destroyed by boiling for 15-30 minutes
b. Is identical to the dermonecrotic toxin
c. Causes one type of bacterial food poisoning
d. Is highly antigenic
97. A beta-hemolytic, catalase test positive, gram positive coccus d. Do a tube coagulase test to confirm the slide test
is coagulase negative by the Slide coagulase test. Which of the
following is the most appropriate action in identification of this
organism?
a. Report a coagulase-negative staph
b. Report a coagulase-neg S. aureus
c. Reconfirm the hemolytic reaction on a fresh 24-hr culture
d. Do a tube coagulase test to confirm the slide test
98. Lancefield classification of Streptoccous bovis: d. group d, non- enterococcus
a. group A streptococci
b. group b
c. group d, enterococcus
d. group d, non- enterococcus
99. All Neisseria species are positive for this enzyme b. Oxidase
a. Coagulase
b. Oxidase
c. DNAse
d. Penicillinase
100. A pure culture from a blood agar grew grayish white, b. Streptococcus pyogenes
transparent, matte, beta hemolytic colonies and gave the following
reactions:
PYR = +
VP = 0
Hippurate test = 0
CAMP test = 0
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus dysgalactiae
101. A group of pre-schoolers attending a day care facility all d. S. pyogenes
developed fevers and severe sore throats. Cultures of throat
swabs grew up Beta hemolytic streptococci which were bacitracin
sensitive.
a. S. pneumoniae
b. S. mutans
c. S. agalactiae
d. S. pyogenes
102. A middle-aged woman cut her scalp while working in her b. S. epidermidis
attic. The cut was improperly treated and became purulent. White
colonies clumped cocci, causing no hemolysis recovered on blood
agar, in Kirby Bauer test it was susceptible to novobiocin disk. The
organisms also failed to clot plasma.
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saphropyticus
d. S. haemolyticus
103. Phenylethyl alcohol agar is used in media to b. inhibit the growth of gram negative bacteria
a. inibit the growth of gram positive bacteria
b. inhibit the growth of gram negative bacteria
c. stimulate the growth of gram positive bacteria
d. stimulate the growth of gram negative bacteria
104. Positive result of CAMP test b. arrowhead beta hemolysis
a. Pink colored on the filter paper
b. arrowhead beta hemolysis
c. black pigment colonies
d. swelling of capsule
105. Ethylhydrocupreine HCl susceptibility is a presumptive test d. S. pneumoniae
for the identification of:
a. S. bovis Ethylhydrocupreine HCl is the chemical name of Optochin
b. Grp B strep
c. S. pyogenes strep
d. S. pneumoniae
For items 106-110. Case Analysis 4: New York, a 4-year old who presented to her pediatrician in early summer with a 3-day history of
vomiting and bloody, mucus-flecked diarrhea. She had several episodes of vomiting and approximately 0 bowel movements/day. Her
bowel movements were described as painful, and the parents reported that the patient had moderate abdominal pain. She also had
fevers to 40℃ with chills. The patient had decreased fluid input and urine output. She had no recent travel or camping history, no
recent change in diet, no one at home with a similar illness, and no history of exposure to “bad” food; she was cared for at home. On
physical examination, she was alert with vital signs within normal limits. A stool was guaiac positive and was sent for culture. Three
days later, the laboratory reported that a non-lactose fermenting, nonmotile, H2S-negative organism was growing on MacConkey agar
from the patient’s stool specimen. When the father was called, he reported that the diarrhea had completely resolved.
106. What is your clinical impression of his child? c. bacillary dysentery
a. salmonellosis
b. traveler’s diarrhea Salmonella – H2S (+) agar
c. bacillary dysentery E. coli – LF
d. giardiasis G. lamblia – a protozoa

The disease is shigellosis or bacillary dysentery

107. What is the possible etiologic agent of the disease? a. Shigella spp.
a. Shigella spp.
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Salmonella spp.
d. E. coli
108. What is the possible source of infection? a. human
a. human
b. dogs and cats
c. turtles
d. rat bite
109. Based on the MacConkey growth, what is the expected TSI b. K/A
result after 24 hours of incubation?
a. A/A
b. K/A
c. K/K
d. A/K
110. Ideal specimen of Salmonellosis on the 3rd week of infection: c. urine
a. blood
b. stool First week – stool
c. urine Second – blood
d. CSF Third – urine
111. Based on the IMViC results, what test differentitae C. freundii a. Indole
from C. koseri?
a. Indole
b. Methyl red
c. Vogues-Proskauer
d. Citrate
112. What is the odor description of Proteus mirabilis on BAP? a. Burnt chocolate
a. Burnt chocolate
b. Rotten egg
c. Rancid potato
d. Fruity
113. Which strain of E. coli has a negative result to MUG test? b. EHEC
a. ETEC
b. EHEC
c. EAEC
d. EIEC
114. All are oxidase negative, except: d. Plesiomonas spp.
a. Shigella spp.
b. Salmonella spp.
c. Yersinia spp.
d. Plesiomonas spp.
115. Select method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria c. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
from a deep abscess.
a. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area
b. Skin snip of the surface tissue
c. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
d. Swab the scalpel used for debridement
116. If a clean-catch midstream urine, was processed, which of b. >100,000 CFU/ml
the following is indicative of true urinary tract infection?
a. <10,000 CFU/ml For E. coli, >100,000 CFU/mL
b. >100,000 CFU/ml For, S. saphrophyticus, at least 10,000 CFU/ml is needed for the
c. >1000 CFU/ml infection to be considered important.
d. >10,000 CFU/ml
117. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is best differentiated from b. 5 ug of novobiocin
Staphylococcus epidermidis by resistance to:
a. 5 ug of lysostaphin
b. 5 ug of novobiocin
c. 10 units of penicillin
d. 0.04 unit of bacitracin
118. Which of the following tests will rapidly differentiate b. modified oxidase
micrococci from staphylococci?
a. catalase
b. modified oxidase
c. coagulase
d. novobiocin
119. All of the following are culture media used to facilitate the d. Blood agar
growth of C. diphtheriae, except:
a. PAI slant
b. Tinsdale agar
c. Loeffler serum
d. Blood agar
120. Which of the following is partially acid-fast organism gram- b. Nocardia
positive bacilli?
a. Lactobacillus
b. Nocardia
c. Streptomyces
d. Rhodococcus
121. Which of the following gram-positive bacilli show pink b. Rhodococcus
colonies after 24 hrs?
a. Nocardia
b. Rhodococcus
c. Gordonia
d. Tsukamurella
122. All of the following are protective exotoxins released by B. d. tissue factor
anthracis, except?
a. lethal factor
b. protective antigen
c. edema factor
d. tissue factor
123. Which of the following test is specific for Listeria b. Anton
monocytogenes diagnosis?
a. Ascoli Ascoli – Anthrax
b. Anton Weil-Felix – Rickettsial infections
c. Weil-Felix Widal – Typhoid fever
d. Widal
124. Which bacteria under Enterobacterales is typically associated a. Edwardsiella tarda
with water harboring fish or turtle that rarely causes systemic
infections among patients with underlying liver disease?
a. Edwardsiella tarda
b. E. coli
c. E. histolytica
d. E. hartmanni
125. T/F: All Enterobacteriaceae are catalase positive and motile, a. TRUE
except S. dysenteriae
a. TRUE b. FALSE -Motile with peritrichous flagella (except: Klebsiella, Shigella, Yersinia
(motile at room temp; nonmotile at 37℃)
-Catalase positive (except: Shigella dysenteriae)