NSW Education Standards Authority

2021 HSC Biology

Marking Guidelines

Section I

Multiple-choice Answer Key

Question Answer
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 C
6 A
7 C
8 D
9 D
10 A
11 B
12 C
13 A
14 A
15 B
16 C
17 B
18 D
19 C
20 B

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Section II

Question 21 (a)
Criteria Marks
• Correctly labels TWO features of the diagram 2
• Correctly labels ONE feature on the diagram 1

Sample answer:

Answers could include:

• Plasma membrane
• Absence of membrane bound organelles
• DNA.

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Question 21 (b)
Criteria Marks
• Completes TWO boxes in the flowchart correctly 2
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:

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Question 21 (c)
Criteria Marks
• Outlines a benefit and a limitation of the strategies 3
• Outlines a benefit or limitation
OR
• Identifies a benefit and a limitation 2
OR
• Identifies benefits or limitations
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The use of antibiotics on Farm 1 eliminates the disease quickly but may induce resistance in
the bacteria with longer term use so the strategy will become less effective.

On Farm 2, improved hygiene including removal of rats and mice is slow to eliminate the
disease but provides a long-term solution that will prevent future outbreaks.

Question 22
Criteria Marks
• Predicts the correct phenotypic ratio of the offspring
3
• Provides parental genotypes and suitable working out
• Predicts the correct phenotypic ratio of the offspring
• Provides some correct working
OR
• Identifies correct parental genotypes
2
• Provides appropriate working out
OR
• Provides parental genotypes
• Provides appropriate working out and relevant phenotypic ratio
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
Bb × bb
b b
B Bb Bb
b bb bb

Ratio — Black : White

1:1

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Question 23
Criteria Marks
• Correctly identifies the valid result
• Provides a suitable justification 3
• Includes reference to test line and control line
• Correctly identifies a negative result
2
• Provides a justification
• Provides relevant information about the test 1

Sample answer:
Strip 2 is the only valid negative result. The control line is present therefore indicating that the
test itself has worked. No LH surge line has been detected in strip 2 therefore it is a negative
result (unlike test 3 and 4 which have no control line, making those results invalid). Ovulation
is not occurring according to test 2.

Question 24 (a)
Criteria Marks
• Identifies the type of mutation
3
• Justifies the type of mutation with reference to the information provided
• Identifies the type of mutation
2
• Provides a reason for the type of mutation
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
It is a somatic mutation because it is a dominant trait but not present in the parents or the
offspring of the affected male. If it were a germ-line mutation which occurs in the cells that
form gametes, it is most likely it would be seen in the offspring.

Question 24 (b)
Criteria Marks
• Explains the effects of the mutations on the twins and their offspring 4
• Explains some effects of the mutations on the twins and/or their offspring 3
• Demonstrates some understanding of the effect(s) of the mutation(s) 2
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
Mutation B occurred after twin formation, therefore affecting only Twin 1. Because it occurred
prior to formation of the germ cells it will be evident in both the germ cells and the somatic
cells of Twin 1 and through the germ cells may be passed to the offspring.

Because Mutation C occurs in the cells leading to somatic cells in Twin 2 only, it will be
evident in the somatic cells of Twin 2 but not in the germline cells and can’t be passed on to
offspring.

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Question 25 (a)
Criteria Marks
• Data for right and left ear plotted correctly
3
• Appropriate key provided
• All data plotted accurately
OR 2
• Most data plotted correctly and includes an appropriate key
• Plots some data 1

Sample answer:

Question 25 (b)
Criteria Marks
• Draws correct conclusions about the hearing level in both left and right
2
ears
• Provides some appropriate information about the hearing 1

Sample answer:
Right ear has normal hearing.
Left ear has a deficit/cannot hear at a normal level.

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Question 25 (c)
Criteria Marks
• Justifies the use of a suitable technology to assist hearing 3
• Outlines a relevant hearing technology 2
• Provides relevant information on any hearing technology 1

Sample answer:
Bone conduction implants would be the most suitable technology for this patient. The
blocked outer ear needs to be completely bypassed, and bone conduction works by
detecting sound waves via a microphone, and relaying it to a sound processor that converts
the waves into vibrations. These vibrations are transferred directly to the cochlea in order to
hear the sound and so improve the patient’s hearing.

Question 26
Criteria Marks
• Explains reasons for the changing phenotypes with reference to recessive
alleles and gene pools in populations
4
• Relates concentration of recessive alleles to offspring being different to
parents
• Explains a reason for the changing phenotypes showing a sound
3
knowledge of gene pools in populations
• Demonstrates some understanding of inheritance in populations 2
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
A reduction in gene flow occurs as populations become smaller and more isolated. This
results in inbreeding, a reduction in the gene pool and the accumulation of mutations. Many
mutations are recessive and when offspring receive two copies of a mutation it is expressed
(and offspring will appear different to their parents). Inbreeding with close relatives results in
increased risk of phenotype being affected by mutations.

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Question 27
Criteria Marks
• Provides correct phenotype for Child 3
3
• Justifies it using the DNA profile
• Provides correct phenotype for Child 3
2
• Provides some justification
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The third child will have sickle cell anaemia because the mother, father and child two are all
heterozygous/unaffected (Aa) and this is depicted by the 2 bands on the DNA profile. Child
one is unaffected and displays only 1 band therefore must be homozygous normal (AA).
Child 3 displays one band in a different location to child one but is a common band to the
heterozygous family member therefore must be (aa) recessive and will have sickle cell
anaemia.

Question 28 (a)
Criteria Marks
• Demonstrates a thorough knowledge of the role of mRNA 3
• Describes a feature of the role of mRNA
OR 2
• Identifies features of the role of mRNA
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
mRNA carries a complementary copy of a section of DNA that codes for a polypeptide to the
ribosomes. At the ribosomes mRNA provides a template. Each codon (three nucleotides) on
the mRNA results in the addition of a correct amino acid to form a polypeptide chain.

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Question 28 (b)
Criteria Marks
• Provides a comprehensive explanation of how the vaccine results in
active immunity
5
• Applies knowledge of mRNA and protein to the production of active
immunity
• Provides a sound explanation of how the vaccine results in active
immunity 4
• Links mRNA and protein to the production of active immunity
• Demonstrates a sound knowledge of vaccination and the development of
active immunity
3
OR
• Links mRNA and protein to the production of active immunity
• Outlines how a vaccine could provide immunity
OR 2
• Demonstrates an understanding of active immunity
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The vaccine’s mRNA enters cells and provides instructions for the production of the spike
protein. The mRNA is translated at the ribosomes and the viral spike protein is produced and
released into the body.

The protein will be an antigen in the body as it is foreign (not coded for by the human
genome). This will trigger a specific response by B and T lymphocytes that match the
antigen. Once the viral protein has been removed, memory B and T cells for the spike protein
will remain, providing active immunity that allows for a rapid future response.

If the person is later exposed to the virus, the spike protein molecules on the virus’s surface
will trigger a rapid, large response by the memory cells.

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Question 29
Criteria Marks
• Demonstrates a thorough understanding of adaptations to maintain stable
body temperature
4
• Relates the answer to the stimulus provided
• Explains the relevant adaptations in the koala
• Demonstrates a sound understanding of adaptations to maintain stable
body temperature
3
• Links the answer to the stimulus provided
• Describes adaptations in the koala
• Describes an adaptation to maintain stable body temperature
2
• Refers to the stimulus provided
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The posture of the koala on the tree is associated with the category of hot or mild air
temperatures. Posture is a behavioural adaptation that changes the surface area of the skin
exposed to the air. In mild conditions koalas were sometimes observed to curl up, minimising
the surface area exposed and therefore minimising heat loss, a behaviour which was never
observed in hot conditions. Maximising the surface area of ventral skin exposed by leaning
back on a branch occurred much more frequently in hot conditions than in mild.

Hugging of tree trunks was observed more often in hot conditions. Since the tree trunk
temperatures have been shown to be lower than air temperatures in hot conditions, this is
also a behavioural adaptation by the koala to expose its ventral surface to the cool trunk and
use it as a heat sink.

Answers could include:

Reference to physiological adaptation of directing blood flow to the koala’s belly to make
contact with the tree trunk.

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Question 30
Criteria Marks
• Provides a comprehensive analysis and interpretation of scientific data
reference to the statement 7
• Provides arguments for and against the statement
• Provides a sound analysis and interpretation of scientific data
6
• Provides argument(s) for and against the statement
• Interprets scientific data to support arguments for and/or against the
4–5
statement
Demonstrates some understanding of the information provided and/or the
2–3
role of vaccines in the control of infectious disease
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The measles vaccine protects children against contracting measles. The graph shows that
the incidence of measles in vaccinated children is very low, sometimes zero, compared with
unvaccinated children. Since these children are matched for age and other social factors, it is
likely that the vaccine is responsible for the differences. The table supports this conclusion in
that only two vaccinated children died of measles compared with 40 in the unvaccinated
group. Therefore the data supports the statement that the measles vaccine protected the
community against measles.

The table provides data that suggests the measles vaccine protects children against dying
from diseases other than measles and therefore contradicts the statement that a vaccine
targets a specific disease. Children vaccinated against measles died at about half the rate of
unvaccinated children from diarrhoea and dysentery, and less than one third the rate from
oedema. However, numbers dying of oedema are small so this conclusion needs further
study. If all other variables were taken into account then the vaccine appears to have non-
specific beneficial effects, especially for diarrhoea. However, only small differences between
the groups with respect to fever suggest that the protection of the vaccine is for selected
diseases only. Since it is likely the vaccine targeted specific antigens for the measles virus,
the mechanism for this wider protection is not clear.

Overall the vaccinated group showed about half the mortality of the unvaccinated group
supporting the conclusion that the vaccine was protective in a more general way. The results
in the table question the specificity of the measles vaccine and therefore the statement
requires qualification.

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Question 31
Criteria Marks
• Evaluates the validity of the design of the study
• Provides a suitable interpretation of the data 6
• Provides a suitable judgement
• Demonstrates an understanding of the validity of the study
• Provides an interpretation of the data 5
• Provides a judgement
• Outlines suitable points about the validity of the study and/or the data 3–4
• Identifies several suitable points about the study and/or the data
OR 2
• Outlines one suitable point about the study or the data
• Provides relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The study results show that when patients were in the ‘no tablet’ period they still displayed
the symptoms of side effects (score 8). Taking placebo tablets doubled the severity of side
effects (from 8 to 15.4) even though no active ingredients were present. Statin tablets and
placebo tablets had very similar results (16.3 and 15.4). These data seem to indicate that
side effects in patients taking statins may not be due to the active ingredients in statins but
other factors.

However these results cannot be regarded as valid as only 60 patients were involved
(millions of people take statins). Also, symptoms were monitored and recorded by the
patients themselves in a qualitative way and cannot be regarded as reliable measurements.
The study should also have included a control group that could be used for comparison.

The study and its results cannot be regarded as valid. However, it is valuable as it indicates it
would be worthwhile following this up with a large randomised control trial to confirm that
statins do not cause side effects in most people.

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Question 32
Criteria Marks
• Explains changes that would occur in the testes in response to anabolic
steroids
• Demonstrates a comprehensive knowledge and understanding of
negative feedback loops 5
• Correctly interprets the diagram

• Describes changes that would occur and provides a reason for the
proposed changes
4
• Demonstrates an understanding of negative feedback loops
• Correctly interprets some steps in the diagram
• Identifies change(s) that would occur and/or provides a reason for the
proposed change(s)
2–3
• Demonstrates some understanding of negative feedback loops and/or
relates answer to the diagram
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer:
In a normal male as shown in the diagram, the hypothalamus releases Releasing Hormone
which stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce hormones that stimulate the testes to
produce sperm and the hormones testosterone and inhibin. Testosterone stimulates sperm
production also. When a large dose of an anabolic steroid that is like testosterone is taken,
while this may initially increase sperm production and the associated hormone inhibin, the
testosterone effect of negative feedback on both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary
cause less stimulatory hormones to be released so that the testes produce less sperm and
less inhibin and less testosterone. Although less inhibin would mean a smaller negative
feedback on the anterior pituitary caused by this hormone, the ongoing dose of testosterone
would ensure a large overall negative feedback effect. In time, the testes would lose their
normal function.

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Question 33 (a)
Criteria Marks
• Explains the processes in the steps 3
• Outlines the process of gene cloning 2
• Provides relevant information 1

Sample answer:
The transgene is inserted into a plasmid by using enzymes. The plasmid is then placed into a
bacterial host. As the host reproduces the plasmid is copied and so is the transgene (gene
cloning). This is done in order to produce multiple copies of the gene.

Question 33 (b)
Criteria Marks
• Explains a benefit of the use of transgenic salmon in aquaculture
3
• Links answer to data in the graph
• Describes a benefit of the transgenic species
OR 2
• Identifies a benefit of the transgenic salmon and links it to the data
• Provides relevant information 1

Sample answer:
Transgenic salmon has a higher rate of growth in the first two years than standard salmon.
Transgenic salmon reaches market size in the second year whereas the standard salmon
takes five months longer. This saves money in producing the fish for market as there are
lower feed and maintenance costs.

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Question 33 (c)
Criteria Marks
• Demonstrates extensive knowledge and understanding of biotechnology,
reproduction and biodiversity
9
• Provides scientific analyses for the techniques used
• Relates analyses to protecting and preserving biodiversity
• Demonstrates thorough knowledge of biotechnology, reproduction and
biodiversity
7–8
• Provides scientific analyses for the main techniques used
• Links techniques to maintaining biodiversity
• Demonstrates sound knowledge of biotechnology and reproduction
• Applies knowledge to explain technique(s) used 5–6
• Links technique(s) to effect(s) on biodiversity
• Demonstrates a sound knowledge of biotechnology/techniques and/or
reproduction and/or biodiversity
OR 3–4
• Demonstrates basic knowledge of biotechnology/techniques and makes a
link to biodiversity
• Provides relevant information 1–2

Sample answer:
Biodiversity is the variety in gene pools of species as well as the variety of species in
ecosystems. Transgenic salmon carries the risk of reducing biodiversity and has the potential
to do great harm.

Physical isolation techniques 1 and 5 prevent transgenic salmon from escaping into the
environment. They may have a survival advantage, and pass the transgene onto offspring.
This may reduce biodiversity as wild-type fish become less common and the gene pool is
reduced. Transgenic salmon could outcompete other species, potentially reducing species
biodiversity.

Reproductive techniques such as the hormone treatment in technique 2 allow sperm to be

produced that only carries X chromosomes as the parents are genetically female. This sperm
is used to fertilise eggs from wild-type salmon, and all offspring are female as none of the
sperm have a Y chromosome. They will all have a copy of T from the sperm – only one T is
needed as it is dominant. Technique 4 prevents meiosis II and results in diploid eggs being
fertilised by haploid sperm. This produces infertile, triploid offspring that have three copies of
each type of chromosome. These techniques prevent the transgene from being passed on.

Using eggs from wild-type salmon is crucial to preserving biodiversity as it prevents

inbreeding of transgenic fish stock and ensures hybrid vigour in the offspring, preventing the
accumulation of mutations.

Physical isolation, reproductive technologies and the introduction of hybrid vigour are crucial
in protecting biodiversity in ecosystems as well as within the transgenic salmon population.

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NESA 2021 HSC Biology Marking Guidelines

2021 HSC Biology

Mapping Grid
Section I

Question Marks Content Syllabus outcomes

1 1 Mod 8 Causes and Effects BIO12-15

2 1 Mod 5 Reproduction BIO12-12
3 1 Mod 6 Biotechnology BIO12-13
4 1 Mod 8 Epidemiology BIO12-15
5 1 Mod 8 Homeostasis BIO12-15
6 1 Mod 6 Mutation BIO12-13
7 1 Mod 5 Cell Replication BIO12-12
8 1 Mod 7 Prevention, Treatment and Control BIO12-5, BIO12-14
9 1 Mod 7 Prevention, Treatment and Control BIO12-14
10 1 Mod 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-15, BIO12-12
11 1 Mod 6 Biotechnology BIO12-13
12 1 Mod 5 Reproduction BIO12-5, BIO12-12
13 1 Mod 8 Homeostasis BIO12-5, BIO12-15
14 1 Mod 7 Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
15 1 Mod 6 Mutation BIO12-13
16 1 Mod 7 Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-5, BIO12-14
17 1 Mod 5 Cell Replication BIO12-4, BIO12-12
18 1 Mod 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-5, BIO12-12
19 1 Mod 8 Causes and Effects BIO12-5, BIO12-15
20 1 Mod 8 Causes and Effects BIO12-5, BIO12-15

Section II

Question Marks Content Syllabus outcomes

21 (a) 2 Mod 7 Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14

21 (b) 2 Mod 7 Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
21 (c) 3 Mod 7 Prevention, Treatment and Control BIO12-6, BIO12-14
22 3 Mod 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-6, BIO12-12
23 3 Mod 5 Reproduction BIO12-2, BIO12-12
24 (a) 3 Mod 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-5, BIO12-12
24 (b) 4 Mod 6 Mutation BIO12-6, BIO12-13
BIO12-4, BIO12-7,
25 (a) 3 Mod 8 Technologies and Disorders
BIO12-15
25 (b) 2 Mod 8 Technologies and Disorders BIO12-5, BIO12-15
25 (c) 3 Mod 8 Technologies and Disorders BIO12-15
26 4 Mod 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-12
27 3 Mod 5 Inheritance Patterns in Populations BIO12-12

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Question Marks Content Syllabus outcomes

28 (a) 3 Mod 5 DNA and Polypeptide Synthesis BIO12-12

28 (b) 5 Mod 7 Immunity BIO12-14
29 4 Mod 8 Homeostasis BIO12-5, BIO12-15
BIO12-5, BIO12-6,
30 7 Mod 7 Prevention, Treatment and Control
BIO12-14
BIO12-2, BIO12-5,
31 6 Mod 8 Epidemiology
BIO12-15
BIO12-5, BIO12-6,
32 5 Mod 8 Homeostasis
BIO12-15
33 (a) 3 Mod 6 Genetic Technologies BIO12-5, BIO12-13
BIO12-5, BIO12-6,
33 (b) 3 Mod 6 Genetic Technologies
BIO12-13
BIO12-5, BIO12-6,
33 (c) 9 Mod 6 Biotechnology
BIO12-7, BIO12-13

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