English As A Second Language (Speaking Endorsement)

Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0510 English as a Second Language (Speaking Endorsement) March 2018

Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

(SPEAKING ENDORSEMENT)
Paper 0510/12
Reading and Writing – Core
Key messages
• In Exercises 1 and 2, it is essential that candidates focus on the key points of each question.
Candidates should take time to read and identify the requirements in order to select precise and
relevant information. Responses should be brief, as extra details may include incorrect information
which can negate the answer.
• In Exercise 3 particularly, it is essential that answers are clearly written. The requirement is for total
accuracy of grammar, spelling and punctuation. Candidates must also be precise in following the
instruction to tick, circle or delete as required, and in this series, this was generally well observed.
o In Section D, the requirement is for two accurate and relevant sentences. Responses must
start with a capital letter and finish with a full stop to be considered a complete sentence.
• In Exercise 4, candidates should locate brief and precise details in the text, and ensure that their
answers correspond to the heading of the relevant section. Each line represents a separate point
and candidates should not repeat a point.
• In Exercise 5, centres should encourage candidates to use their own words when writing a summary
rather than quoting sections from the text. The notes from Exercise 4 are to be used as a basis for
writing a rounded and logical paragraph where ideas are linked together to form a coherent
response.
• In Exercises 6 and 7, it is essential that candidates read the tasks carefully to ensure that they
provide information relevant to the task. Some candidates did not provide any detail when describing
the place that they had visited in Exercise 6, and sometimes only discussed unpaid work without
linking it to improving the lives of people in the community in Exercise 7. This affected the Content
mark. In Exercise 6, responses must address all the bullet points in order to have access to marks
in the top band for Content. Centres are asked to continue to enable candidates to practise
differentiating each bullet point and providing separate details in response to each one.
• In Exercise 7, a more formal register is required. Candidates should attempt to move outside the
boundaries of the prompts given, and introduce ideas and arguments of their own.
General comments
Overall, candidates were entered appropriately for the Core tier. A small number of candidates made no
attempt to answer individual questions in Exercises 1 and 2, and typically Section D of Exercise 3.
Candidates were required to demonstrate different language skills, including selecting short relevant details
from a range of texts, accurately completing a form and making notes, to the more challenging skills of
summary writing and extended writing for a specific purpose and different audiences.
© 2018
Comments on specific questions
Exercise 1
In general, this exercise was well attempted by most candidates.
(a) This was reasonably well answered. However, some candidates incorrectly selected the distracting
detail, ‘3 April’.
(b) Most candidates were able to give the correct answer.
(c) This was generally well answered.
(d) Many candidates found this question challenging, either providing the response 11–14 as they had
possibly only read as far as ‘Those aged 11–14 must be accompanied by an adult’ and missing the
words ‘to the start’ that followed on from this.
(e) This question was in general not well answered, with many candidates writing ‘medal and special
T-shirt’.
(f) This was well answered by almost all candidates.
(g) This was mostly well answered with the occasional candidates responding with ‘US $500 000’.
Exercise 2
There was evidence that the general themes of the text had been understood by candidates, but also an
indication that candidates did not interpret the requirements of some questions. This was most noticeable in
(f) and (g), which proved challenging for many. Practice in isolating key sections of the text in response to
the specific demands of a question is recommended.
(a) Most candidates correctly selected ‘2 weeks or 14 days’ but some were distracted by the number of
kilometres they had travelled or the number of years the journey actually had actually taken instead
of the expected length of the trip.
(b) This was generally well answered although some candidates were distracted by the cost of repairs
to the boat, and either gave this as their response, or added the cost of repairs to the purchase
price.
(c) This question was generally answered well with most candidates identifying both correct answers.
(d) This was generally well answered.
(e) This was generally well answered with most candidates identifying that the benefit of using the
wind was a saving in time or money due to less stops for refuelling.
(f) There was a mixed response to this question. Successful candidates located the correct detail in
the text and sometimes gave the additional information of ‘trading possessions for supplies’, but
some candidates had only the additional information and therefore could not be credited with a
mark.
(g) Some candidates correctly answered this question, but many gave answers such as ‘to repair a
roof in the village’ or ‘wanted to climb a mountain with it’.
(h) There was a good response to this question with most candidates reading the chart correctly.
(i) This question was generally answered well although some candidates were distracted by some of
the events enjoyed on the trip by the two travellers.
© 2018
(j) Most candidates recognised the key idea in this question, but sometimes were not able to express
themselves effectively. Those candidates who wrote ‘crossed the boat’ and not ‘crossed to the
other boat’ could not be credited, and also responses which did not state that Patricia was the one
that crossed over to the other boat (either by using her name or the correct pronoun) could not be
credited.
Exercise 3
There was some evidence of good preparation for this task, particularly in Sections A and B. Candidates
generally wrote clearly and legibly, and understood the requirement to tick, circle and delete. Spelling was
mainly accurate and there was clear definition of capital letters.
Section A
All three answers in this section were well written.
Section B
Overall, this section was more challenging. Candidates occasionally selected ‘acting for TV and film’ instead
of the correct answer. The month of the course was sometimes missed and some candidates gave two
months as an answer. In general, ‘Milltown’ was correctly selected and most candidates were able to
understand that parking was not required. The instruction to delete was well observed, although a handful of
candidates opted to tick the correct option.
Section C
Although just the word ‘Poster’ was acceptable as the correct answer here, many candidates wrote much
longer answers which meant that if they used incorrect punctuation, spelling or grammar, responses could
not be credited.
Most candidates deleted the correct option for the final point of the form.
Section D
This section proved to be challenging for a number of candidates.
Candidates are required to write two sentences, one in answer to each separate aspect of the question.
Sentences must contain relevant information from the text and be grammatically accurate.
In order to be relevant, candidates should ensure that they are addressing the questions directly.
Grammatical accuracy is concerned with writing a full and complete sentence, with correct spelling and
punctuation.
In this series, most candidates wrote from Eliza’s point of view and selected the required details from the
text. Occasionally, candidates responded from their own experience, or used the third person, ‘she’. These
responses could not be credited. Responses which were written as incomplete sentences, for example,
‘Acted in a play called Downtown Story’ could also not be credited. To achieve success in this section,
candidates should also avoid overlapping information in both sentences and be encouraged not to write
bullet point notes.
Exercise 4
Overall, this exercise was well attempted. The majority of candidates showed sufficient understanding of the
text and were able to extract relevant details to be reasonably successful. A number of candidates scored full
marks. There was a good attempt to write clear, brief notes and stay within the space provided. Marks could
not be awarded when candidates omitted a key element of an answer, for example, ‘Too much’ at the
beginning of the answer in the eighth point and ‘for schools’ in the thirteenth or fourteenth point, or when the
answer was placed under the wrong heading.
© 2018
Benefits of using technology about the environment
All key points on the mark scheme were identified with the exception of point 6. The majority of candidates
were unable to identify three points. Most found points 1 and 2, but appeared to struggle to find more.
Occasionally candidates repeated the same point on separate lines, as in point 1 ‘Show predictions about
the future’ and ‘Explains how different pollution levels will affect a lake’, which could not be credited twice.
Problems identified when using technology to learn about the environment
In this section, key points were well identified, and most candidates located one of the possible four options
on the mark scheme. The most popular choices being ‘too much time spent on electronic devices’ and ‘not
everyone has a smart phone’. Occasionally candidates omitted ‘too much’ for point 8, and a mark could not
be awarded.
Some solutions to these problems
This section was well answered and all the available ideas on the mark scheme were identified. Some
responses omitted ‘for schools’ for points 13 and 14, and therefore could not be credited. Centres are
encouraged to remind candidates that the notes written on each line should have a different focus.
Exercise 5
Overall there were some good attempts to write a coherent summary about using technology to learn about
the environment, and the whole range of marks was awarded. More able candidates used some of their
notes from all sections of Exercise 4 as the basis for their summary and returned to the text for other
relevant details. In less successful responses, candidates relied on repeating their notes from the previous
exercise, with no further detail and with little attempt to connect the ideas. Centres are reminded to
encourage candidates to expand their notes into full sentences, present their ideas in a logical order and
create a coherent paragraph through the use of linking words and phrases.
Exercises 6 and 7
In this series, many candidates responded satisfactorily to the different requirements outlined in both tasks.
Candidates are reminded that Exercise 6 requires an informal style and register, appropriate to the target
audience, whereas in Exercise 7 arguments should be presented in a more discursive, objective style. A
significant number of candidates did not demonstrate sufficient differentiation of register between the two
exercises and wrote both in a more formal style, using connecting phrases such as ‘furthermore’ and
‘moreover, which was not appropriate for the context of Exercise 6.
Candidates are also reminded that the use of paragraphs to separate different ideas can provide a
framework to their writing and encourage good structure and organisation. Teachers are asked to continue to
encourage the use of paragraphs, particularly in extended writing.
Exercise 6
Email
In this task, candidates are required to respond to three given bullet points. To achieve satisfactory or higher
marks, all three points should be addressed, showing awareness of purpose, and the response should be
suitable informal, and address the target reader. The most successful responses were those which
addressed all aspects of the bullet points, and included some development.
In this series, the prompts required candidates to describe a place that they had been on holiday, explain
why they went there and say what they bought while they were there. Candidates that wrote where they had
been on holiday, but who failed to give any description did not quite fulfil the task. Bullet points 2 and 3 were
mostly addressed well.
Many candidates responded confidently to the first point saying where they had been on holiday and why
they had chosen that place, but then did not provide any description of the place that they had visited. Some
candidates used the pictures as a stimulus for their response, but most came up with original ideas of their
own. Candidates who addressed the first point successfully talked about the scenery, architecture or weather
and others included the activities that they had participated in while they were there.
© 2018
For the second point, candidates were asked to give a reason for their holiday. Some successful candidates
explained that one of their parents had a meeting in that country or that they had gone because their own
city was hot and the holiday destination cool, others just explained their need for a rest and change of
scenery after a hard term at school.
The third point required candidates to say what they had purchased at their holiday destination. Candidates
were often keen to respond at length about shopping and what they had bought, although had not applied
the same amount of time on the other two bullet points, which resulted in a lack of balance in the email.
Overall, many candidates were successful in the amount of detail provided in response to the task. Centres
are reminded of the importance of providing writing practice which focuses on relevance, organisation and
register. From a language point of view, candidates are recommended to focus on greater accuracy of verbs
in compound and complex sentences to avoid errors such as ‘I decided to went ’, the correct use of
prepositions, for example, ‘I took photos for help you; I went some places and visits ’, and singular/plural
agreement, for example, ‘this hills’.
Exercise 7
Article
Most candidates engaged with the topic with a fair degree of success although some candidates focused too
generally on unpaid work without talking about improving lives of others in the community. Most candidates
used the prompts provided, but often the points were developed well. Candidates should be encouraged to
come up with ideas around the topic to achieve higher marks for content.
Some candidates felt that helping their local community was something that they agreed with, although many
stated that they wanted to see more help from their local government. Some gave examples of charity work
that they had done in the past such as cleaning up the streets, tutoring younger children and delivering
meals. They said that this would gain them respect within the community and also allow them to gain some
valuable work experience. Other candidates were totally against community work and suggested that it was
totally the government’s responsibility. They felt they had enough work to do at school without also being
expected to do unpaid work after school or at the weekend.
Overall, candidates were able to adopt a more formal tone and register for the final task. Stronger candidates
achieved a good balance to their writing by including a short introductory paragraph and a concluding
opinion. In conjunction with a framework of paragraphs and the use of linking words and phrases such as ‘on
the other hand’, ‘another reason why’ and ‘in my view’ to signpost the direction of the writing, this produced
an effective and coherent response. Centres should be encouraged to promote the use of paragraphs to
introduce different points of view as a way for candidates to organise their ideas effectively.
From a language point of view, candidates achieved a degree of grammatical accuracy in this exercise and
used appropriate vocabulary to explain their ideas in mainly simple sentences. Increased accuracy in more
complex sentences and improving spelling, often in basic words, for example, ‘beautiful’ and ‘abroad’ would
have allowed candidates access to higher language marks.
© 2018

Paper 0510/22
Reading and Writing – Extended
Key messages
• In Exercises 1 and 2, it is important that candidates focus on the requirements of individual questions.
Responses should be as brief as possible but precise. Candidates should take care not to add incorrect
information that negates a response. Some questions require two details for one or two marks. This was
generally well observed this series.
• Close attention to detail and complete accuracy in transferring key information to the form from the text
are essential in Exercise 3. Capitalisation must be used exactly as it is in the stimulus text. In Section
3D, the sentence provided must be relevant, accurate and must not exceed the specified word count for
full marks to be awarded.
• In Exercise 4, note-taking, candidates need to ensure that responses are brief and that they correspond
to the headings of each section. Each response should be presented on a separate line and not be
finished on the line below as a response in that format cannot be credited. Also, candidates should not
add extra bullet points unless they have crossed through a previous response.
• In Exercise 5, candidates must ensure they provide information relevant to the task. They should focus
on accuracy, cohesion and on not exceeding the word limit of 120 words. Many candidates exceeded
the word limit this series, and relevant content points which were included after the 120 word limit had
been reached could not be credited.
• In Exercises 6 and 7, responses should be of an appropriate length demonstrating effective content

and range of language. All aspects of the three content points should be addressed and expanded
upon. The prompts in Exercise 7 are to guide the candidate, but can be developed and candidates are
encouraged to introduce their own topic-related ideas.
• In Exercise 6 this series some candidates did not address and develop all three content prompts, and
this affected the content mark.
General comments
Overall, the majority of candidates were entered appropriately for the extended tier. A few had difficulty at
this level, so the Core tier might have been more appropriate given their linguistic ability.
The paper offered a range of tasks within the seven exercises, requiring candidates to demonstrate a variety
of skills. There were degrees of difficulty within each exercise, and differentiation was achieved in individual
questions and across the paper as a whole.
Generally, candidates should be advised that throughout the paper, the spaces and number of lines are
arranged as a guide to the length of an answer required and they should not exceed this.
© 2018
Exercise 1
In reading comprehension exercises candidates must take time to recognise the requirements of individual
questions so that responses are precise enough for a successful answer. It is essential that candidates
distinguish between relevant and incorrect details. They should pay particular attention to any distractors in
the text, especially where several numbers are presented e.g. in dates, ages and prices.
(a) Many candidates provided a correct response to this question. A significant number of candidates,
however, gave the response ‘3rd April’, which was the distractor.
(b) This was well answered with just a few candidates omitting ‘US’ or doing the mathematical
calculation for twelve friends and offering ‘US$72’.
(c) This was very well attempted with the occasional misspelling of ‘moth’ rather than ‘month’.
(d) This item proved to be more challenging. A good proportion of candidates located the correct
sentence in the text but offered ‘11–14’ as the response or included the lift ‘no minimum age’
before the correct response ‘11’ so could not be credited.
(e) This was extremely well answered.
(f) A number of candidates included ‘special T shirts’ in their response which could not be credited as
it negated the correct answer of ‘a medal’.
(g) This was extremely well answered.
(h) This item was well attempted with a small number of candidates offering ‘US$500 000’. This was
the distractor.
(i) This item was more challenging. Many responses included ‘dates of future events’ which did not
relate to this year’s event.
Exercise 2
The second part of this exercise proved more challenging for candidates, but there was evidence that the
text had been generally understood. Candidates should ensure they focus on the specific requirements of
the question when providing their response.
(a) This item was well answered. Some candidates provided ‘14 years’ which was the length of time
the trip lasted.
(b) This was well attempted although a few candidates offered two prices or did the mathematical
calculation and added together the purchase price for the boat with the price of repairs and offered
‘US$35 000’.
(c) This item was well answered and most candidates provided two different details.
(d) This item was well attempted.
(e) This was very well answered.
(f) This item proved more challenging, and many candidates appeared to understand that the couple
had financed the trip by ‘trading possessions for supplies’.
(g) This item was answered less successfully. Many candidates wrote ‘to climb a mountain’ (the
intended purpose for the rope) or ‘to repair a roof’ (how the villagers actually used the rope).
(h) Very few candidates failed to locate the correct two months required.
(i) This item required candidates to find the correct answer ‘meeting other travellers’ amongst
distracting detail in the text, and was generally well answered.
© 2018
(j) This item was answered less successfully by many candidates with some implying that the real
danger for Patricia was treating an unknown crew member on the other fishing boat rather than
crossing over to the other boat. A small number of candidates amended key information from the
text and wrote ‘David crossed over to the other boat’, or included that Patricia crossed ‘without
safety equipment’ so the response could not be credited.
(k) Many candidates scored at least three marks here but some of the details were imprecise, e.g.
‘dental problems’ and ‘injuries’, and some candidates included the incredible experiences of
meeting a giant whale and swimming with seals as difficulties.
Exercise 3
Candidates appeared to be well prepared for Sections A, B and C of this form-filling exercise and these
were well answered.
Section A
Many candidates successfully completed this first section. Occasionally, responses could not be credited
when ‘Finley’ was misspelt as ‘Finely’, or when the ‘s’ was omitted from ‘56 Hills Avenue’.
Section B
This section was also well attempted but at times candidates did not accurately transfer details from the text
meaning that the name of the shop was incomplete, e.g. ‘Easy IT Solution’ and the name of the manufacturer
was written as ‘Janson’ without the ‘ss’. Additionally, there was incorrect use of lower case letters in this
section.
Section C
For this task, candidates were required to circle any problems with the laptop. There were two correct
answers here ‘screen display’ and ‘internet not working properly’. Some candidates circled these two and
then also one wrong answer so could not be awarded maximum marks.
Section D
Candidates found writing the sentence very challenging. One of the requirements of this task is to convey the
relevant information in one sentence within the prescribed word limits. A significant number of candidates
produced sentences which exceeded the 20 word limit and some produced very short sentences of less than
12 words. Some focused on the problems with the laptop or not being able to work without it rather than
asking about how long the repairs would take or if a replacement would be needed. To gain maximum
marks, candidates also need to use accurate sentence construction with no grammar, spelling, or
punctuation errors. Some candidates struggled with correct word order when a question was embedded in
the sentence, e.g. ‘I would like to know how long would it take for the repairs or would I need a replacement’.
A number of responses did not include a main clause and common errors occurred around the omission of a
full stop at the end of the sentence or a question mark if it was a question.
Candidates should be reminded that this sentence must be written in the first person.
Exercise 4
Most responses were suitably brief and in note form, but a few candidates continued responses over two
lines or added extra bullet points without crossing through previous ones. The bullet points and the length of
lines are always a guide to candidates as to how many points to include and how to present their responses.
Benefits of using technology to learn about the environment
Many candidates found completing the points relevant to the first heading challenging. Responses here were
often incomplete, and omitted key detail from the text. Some candidates offered other phrases from the text
such as ‘sharing information’ and ‘a great learning opportunity’ which were not precise enough. Many omitted
key verbs under this first heading and omitted key detail such as ‘latest’ in point 4, ‘long-term’ in point 5 and
‘with students’ in point 7. These responses could not be credited.
© 2018
Problems identified when using technology to learn about environment
Overall, this section was well attempted by candidates. There was good recognition of points 8–11 on the
mark scheme. Occasionally, ‘too much’ was omitted in point 8 and ‘games’ was omitted in point 11.
Solutions to the problem
This section was generally well attempted. Some candidates changed key detail from the text and wrote ‘free
internet access for schools’. This could not be credited.
Exercise 5
The full range of marks was awarded here. More able candidates carefully selected content points from the
text and conveyed precise detail. Generally, responses demonstrated good cohesion.
A large number of candidates exceeded the prescribed word limit in this series. This was largely due to
overlong introductions before the rubric requirements were addressed. In this exercise, the task was to write
about what has helped the sequoia trees survive for so long. Many candidates wrote long, irrelevant
introductions, focusing on the history of the trees and this meant that often content points could not be
credited as they appeared after the 120 word limit had been reached. Other candidates focused on the
problems the trees faced such as climate change resulting in less snowfall and visitors causing harm by
walking around the base of the trees. Candidates are reminded that they should focus on the requirements
of the summary and ensure that they write clearly and concisely.
Language marks were awarded across the whole range. A number of candidates effectively used synonyms
or paraphrased points and linked points skilfully. Many responses, however, lacked the points required for
higher language marks and candidates did not always use their own words to express the various points. It is
essential that content points remain accurate and clear since marks cannot be awarded if the meaning
changes.
Exercise 6
In this extended writing exercise, the extent to which the bullet points are addressed and developed will
determine the band achieved for content. If any bullet point is not addressed, this will effect on the content
mark. To achieve satisfactory or higher marks, all three points need to be addressed and the writing should
be suitably informal. Successful responses addressed the specific context, considered all required aspects of
the bullet points, and provided some development, while engaging with the target audience.
Email
The topic and prompts engaged a large number of candidates and there were many good responses. The
word limit was generally well observed, although with a tendency toward the lower limit.
The first point prompted some detailed descriptions of various holiday spots visited. Many focused on a trip
to somewhere in India but others wrote about visiting the Alps, New Zealand, Italy and the USA. Some
candidates successfully conveyed a realistic impression of the place and mentioned ‘mesmerizing
mountains’, ‘attractive beaches with crystal clear water’ and ‘bustling, crowded markets’. Some responses
provided a sense of excitement about the place: ‘it was like heaven on earth’ and ‘the only fitting description
for my experience was amazing’, and often expressed the desire for the friend to join them on a future visit.
For the second point, there was a range of reasons as to why candidates had visited the holiday spot. Some
wrote about attending an extended family reunion or family wedding or their father attending a conference
there. Many simply wanted to enjoy spending time with their family.
The final bullet point was typically the least developed of the three and was sometimes overlooked by
candidates. Items purchased included ivory jewellery, hand crafted purses, leather goods, electronic gadgets
and ‘exotic fruits which you don’t get in India’.
With regard to language, the vast majority of candidates used language that was at least satisfactory or
competent. Occasionally, candidates mixed informal with formal language and used unsuitable formal
connectors such as ‘moreover’ and ‘in conclusion’. Occasionally, candidates tended to overuse idiomatic
language, not always successfully. Some emails included mainly a string of short sentences (subject +verb
+object) which were accurate, but did not demonstrate a sufficient range of language for the higher bands.
© 2018
Some responses featured more complex language but which was not produced accurately. Candidates also
often wrote ‘brought’ for ‘bought’ but the intended meaning was clear from the context. Paragraphing was not
always evident.
Exercise 7
In this final exercise, candidates were required to write an article for their school newspaper and give their
views on whether all young people should do some unpaid work to help improve the lives of everyone in their
local community. It is important that candidates read the task carefully and consider the two prompts, which
are given to help form ideas on the subject. Candidates can develop the views in the prompts but are also
encouraged to include a range of perspectives on the topic for a mark in one of the higher bands.
Article
Candidates seemed fairly divided for and against the statement but many favoured taking part in such work
claiming that ‘the younger generation is becoming increasingly self-absorbed’ and ‘glued to electronic
gadgets’ and that volunteering ‘can be extremely fruitful for both sides’. In more successful responses,
candidates conveyed the many benefits of this activity and introduced arguments such as it teaches young
people important life skills, it helps them to grow up to become responsible citizens and that colleges and
universities look favourably on applicants who have undertaken this sort of unpaid work. The arguments
against the statement included that young people already have enough pressure and responsibilities with
their studies and should be seeking paid work and leaving community matters to those council workers who
are paid for this role. Some responses appeared not to have fully understood the requirements of the task
and wrote about donating money to charity rather than giving their time to the community or concentrated
solely on paid work. Less successful responses stayed close to the cues with little or no development or
independent contribution and often used the prompts as quotes from other students they had supposedly
interviewed.
The full range of marks was awarded for language. There were candidates who demonstrated a range of
advanced structures, with very few slips, enabling them to access higher bands. There was evidence of
skilful use of linking words which provided a balance when both sides of the argument were being discussed.
Less successful responses provided a string of repetitive sentences or overlong ones which affected
communication, often using commas instead of full-stops or no punctuation at all.
Candidates are recommended to address the following:
• Subject/verb agreements, e.g. to avoid ‘Nowadays there are many youngsters who does unpaid work
and helps the community’.
• Appropriate use of definite and indefinite articles, e.g. to avoid ‘by helping in small way’ and ‘this helps
them find job’.
• Tenses, e.g. to avoid ‘I was keen to visit the beaches so I can relax’ and ‘Is it not true that young people
always spent their time social networking?
© 2018

Paper 0510/32
Listening – Core
Key messages
• Candidates should to be reminded to provide clear and legible responses. The formation of individual
letters must be clear. Where handwriting cannot be read, no marks can be awarded.
• Candidates should be made aware of distracting information included in listening texts and practise their
listening for specific detail which is required as the intended answer.
• In Questions 1 to 4, candidates should try to establish what a question is asking for, by highlighting the
question words, e.g. how, where, when, and the key words in the question. In most cases, short, direct
responses are most successful.
• In Question 5, candidates should be encouraged to read the statements on the question paper carefully
before they listen and try and predict the detail required in each gap. At the end of each listening
section, candidates should also check their responses to make sure they fit grammatically, and are
within the required word limit. Candidates should also be reminded not to include words that are printed
in the statements on the question paper, before or after each gap, as part of their answer.
• In the matching speakers questions (Question 6) and the multiple choice question (Question 7)
candidates should be encouraged to make it clear which answer they wish to be taken as their final
selection by examiners. Candidates should be encouraged not to leave any blank boxes.
• In Question 6, candidates should be reminded to use each letter only once.
• Candidates’ awareness should be raised of the importance of using correct prepositions and
singular/plural form of nouns, as these can alter the key meaning.
• When making phonetic attempts, it is recommended that candidates try to mimic the number of syllables
in the word that has been heard, and also to try to re-create the vowel and consonant sounds
accurately. However, phonetic attempts that create a homophone are not accepted (e.g. bears/bares).
• More pronunciation awareness activities, particularly of connected speech (e.g. assimilation of sounds,
omission of sounds), would be beneficial to learners. Learners should also be made aware of the
importance of transcribing voiced and unvoiced consonants accurately, as these may change meaning
(e.g. s/z as in ‘race’ and ‘raise’, or ‘code’ and ‘coat’).
• Candidates should be encouraged to check their answers after they have heard each listening section
the first time and correct their answers while they are listening for the second time. During the pauses
between each listening section candidates should familiarise themselves with the next section and read
the questions for that section carefully before the recording starts.
• Learners should practise a range of listening skills (e.g. listening for gist/opinion, listening for specific
information, listening for grammatical/lexical/phonetic detail, etc.) in various formats (e.g.
announcements, informal dialogues, formal talks, etc.).
© 2018
General comments
• Successful responses were those which provided short, clear answers. However, there were still some
candidates who did not always adhere to the word limit in Questions 1–4 and included distracting
details in addition to their correct answers. This also applied to the gap-filling in Question 5. Such
answers could not be credited. However, fewer candidates wrote their answers as full sentences
compared to previous series.
• Although some candidates selected the correct detail, they did not always transcribe the word
accurately. By changing the part of speech, candidates’ final answers did not make a grammatical fit in
Question 5.
• Some candidates still use the same letter twice in Question 6 and ticked more than one box as their
answer in Question 7.
• Candidates need to be reminded of the importance of clear handwriting and clearly indicating their final
answer by crossing out the responses they do not want to be read.
• Overall, most candidates dealt relatively well with listening for gist and speakers’ opinions, but more
practice of listening for correct detail is recommended.
Questions 1–4
Overall, this section was answered reasonably well. Responses could not be credited when distracting
details in addition to correct details were included.
Question 1
(a) This question was answered fairly well. The expected answer ‘science(-)fiction’ was provided by
most candidates. Some candidates included an extra detail ‘games’ and this attempt was also
credited. Most phonetic attempts at this answer were successful. However, some phonetic
attempts did not gain a mark as the meaning of the intended answer was in doubt, for example,
‘since fiction’, ‘science friction’. ‘Fiction’ on its own lacked the required detail and could not be
credited.
(b) This question was challenging for most candidates. The majority of candidates provided the first
possible answer ‘characters’. However, there was a wide range of other attempts that were also
credited. Most of these attempts included extra details. For example, ‘characters not interesting’,
‘characters were uninteresting’. Responses which contained the detail ‘graphics’ or ‘story(line)’
were not accepted as these were the distracting details.
Question 2
(a) This question was answered well by more than half of the candidates. Responses which placed the
intended meaning in doubt could not be credited. For example, ‘balliet’, ‘balle’, ‘bailet’, ‘balae’.
However, attempts such as ‘balet’, ‘balley’ and ‘ballay’ were all credited. Inaccurate responses
included the distracting information ‘jazz dancing’.
(b) The intended answer was ‘(self-) confidence’ and most responses were credited. Marks could not
be given to attempts which did not convey the necessary detail (e.g. ‘developed herself’ and
‘development of skills’). Other inaccurate attempts included the distracting information ‘physical
strength’ and ‘discipline’.
Question 3
(a) This question proved challenging for candidates. Where candidates omitted ‘club’ or ‘discussion’
from their answers, or replaced the noun with another one (e.g. ‘discussion plan’, ‘discussion
class’, ‘discussion party’), marks could not be awarded.
© 2018
(b) This question was reasonably attempted by a small number of candidates. The question targeted a
job which the boy is going to do this term. The required detail here was ‘photographer’. However,
candidates who provided different grammatical forms; ‘photography’, ‘(to) photograph’ or
‘photographing’ also gained marks, as these attempts still retained the required meaning. Most
inaccurate responses included the distracting details ‘editor’ and ‘designer’.
Question 4
(a) This question was fairly well attempted. A range of phonetic attempts at the expected answer
‘scenery’ were credited. However, phonetic attempts which left the meaning in doubt could not be
credited.
(b) This was a challenging question for candidates. The intended answer was ‘carnival’ which was the
cause of the coach arriving late this time. Responses which provided distracting details could not
be credited.
Question 5
This question was reasonably well attempted by most candidates. On average, candidates scored between
three and five marks. The more successful attempts were for items (a), (d) and (e). Most candidates also
coped reasonably well with items (g) and (h). Candidates performed less well in items (b), (c) and (f).
Marks were often lost due to selecting distracting information (e.g. ‘Central Asia/India’ instead of ‘Iran’ in item
(a), ‘generations’ instead of ‘cultures’ in item (b) and ‘lamb’ instead of ‘potatoes’ in item (g)), non-grammatical
fits (e.g. ‘culture’ in item (b), ‘historical’ in item (c), ‘shaped’ in item (e) and ‘potato’ in item (g).)
Question 6
There was a mixed level of success here. On average, candidates matched between 2–3 speakers correctly.
The vast majority of candidates were successful with speakers 2 and 4. The most common errors included
swapped answers for speakers 5 and 6. Statement E was sometimes wrongly used for speaker 1. The most
common wrong answer for speaker 3 was the distracting statement C. Several candidates provided the
same letter twice and answers like these could not be given a mark.
Question 7
Overall, half of the candidates performed fairly well in this question. Candidates were successful in
answering items (d) and (f). There was a mixed level of success in items (a), (e) and (h). Most candidates
made a poor attempt at items (b), (c) and (g). On some occasions, more than one box was ticked. It was
also not always clear which tick was intended as a final choice, when a candidate had not clearly crossed out
the response they initially gave before changing their mind.
© 2018
0510 Syllabus March 2018

Paper 0510/42
Listening – Extended
Key messages
• Candidates should to be reminded to provide clear and legible responses. The formation of individual
letters must be clear. Where handwriting cannot be read, no marks can be awarded.
• Candidates should be made aware of distracting information included in listening texts, and practise
their listening for specific detail which is required as the intended answer.
• In Questions 1 to 4, candidates should try to establish what a question is asking for, by identifying the
question words, e.g. how, where, when, and the key words in the question. In most cases, short, direct
responses are most successful.
• In the gap-filling exercise (i.e. Questions 5, 8A and 8B) candidates should be encouraged to read the
statements on the question paper carefully before they listen and try and predict the detail required in
each gap. At the end of each listening section, candidates should also check their responses to make
sure they fit grammatically and are within the word limit. Candidates should also be reminded not to
include words that are printed in the statements on the question paper, before or after each gap, as part
of their answer.
• In the matching speakers questions (Question 6) and the multiple choice questions (Question 7),
candidates should be encouraged to make it clear which answer they wish to be taken as their final
selection by examiners. Candidates should be encouraged not to leave any blank boxes.
• In Question 6, candidates should be reminded to use each letter only once.
• Candidates’ awareness should be raised of the importance of using correct prepositions and
singular/plural form of nouns, as these can alter the key meaning.
• When making phonetic attempts, it is recommended that candidates try to mimic the number of syllables
in the word that has been heard, and also to try to re-create the vowel and consonant sounds
accurately. However, phonetic attempts that create a homophone are not accepted (e.g. bears/bares).
• More pronunciation awareness activities, particularly of connected speech (e.g. assimilation of sounds,
omission of sounds), would be beneficial to learners. Learners should also be made aware of the
importance of transcribing voiced and unvoiced consonants accurately, as these may change meaning
(e.g. s/z as in ‘race’ and ‘raise’, or ‘code’ and ‘coat’).
• Candidates should be encouraged to check their answers after they have heard each listening section
the first time and correct their answers while they are listening for the second time. During the pauses
between each listening section candidates should familiarise themselves with the next section and read
the questions for that section carefully before the recording starts.
• Learners should practise a range of listening skills (e.g. listening for gist/opinion, listening for specific
information, listening for grammatical/lexical/phonetic detail, etc.) in various formats (e.g.
announcements, informal dialogues, formal talks, etc.)
© 2018
General comments
• Successful responses were those which provided short, clear answers. There were some candidates
who did not always adhere to the word limit in Questions 1–4 and included distracting details in
addition to their correct answers. This also applied to gap-filling Questions 5, 8A and 8B. Such
answers could not be credited. However, fewer candidates wrote their answers as full sentences
compared to previous series.
• Although some candidates selected the correct detail, they did not always transcribe the word in the
correct form they heard. By changing the part of speech, candidates’ final answers did not make an
accurate grammatical fit in Questions 5, 8A and 8B.
• Some candidates used the same letter twice in Question 6 and ticked more than one box as their
answer in Question 7.
• Candidates need to be reminded of the importance of clear handwriting and clearly indicating their final
answer by crossing out the responses they do not want to be read.
• Overall, most candidates dealt relatively well with listening for gist and speakers’ opinions, but more
practice of listening for correct detail is recommended.
Questions 1–4
Overall, this section was answered well by most candidates. Responses could not be credited when
distracting details in addition to correct details were included.
Question 1
(a) This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. The expected answer
‘science(-)fiction’ was provided by most candidates. Some candidates included an extra detail
‘games’ and this attempt was also credited. Most phonetic attempts at this answer were successful.
However, some phonetic attempts did not gain a mark as the meaning of the intended answer was
in doubt, for example, ‘since fiction’. ‘Fiction’ on its own lacked the required detail and could not be
credited.
(b) This question was reasonably well answered. The majority of candidates provided the first possible
answer ‘characters’. However, there was a wide range of other attempts that were also credited.
Most of these attempts included extra details. For example, ‘characters not interesting’, ‘characters
were uninteresting’. Responses which contained the detail ‘graphics’ or ‘story(line)’ were not
accepted as these were the distracting details.
Question 2
(a) This question was answered well by more than half of the candidates. Responses which placed the
intended meaning in doubt could not be credited. For example, ‘balliet’, ‘balle’, ‘bailet’, ‘balae’.
However, attempts such as ‘balet’, ‘balley’ and ‘ballay’ were all credited.
(b) The intended answer was ‘(self-)confidence’ and most responses were credited. Marks could not
be given to attempts which did not convey the necessary detail (e.g. ‘developed herself’ and
‘development of skills’). Other inaccurate attempts included the distracting information ‘physical
strength’ and ‘discipline’.
Question 3
(a) Most candidates dealt reasonably well with this question, providing the full required detail
‘discussion club’. Where candidates omitted ‘club’ or ‘discussion’ from their answers, or replaced
the noun with another one (e.g. ‘discussion plan’, ‘discussion party’), marks could not be awarded.
© 2018
(b) This question was well attempted. The question targeted a job which the boy is going to do this
term. The required detail here was ‘photographer’. However, candidates who provided different
grammatical forms; ‘photography’, ‘(to) photograph’ or ‘photographing’ also gained marks, as these
attempts still retained the required meaning. Most inaccurate responses included the distracting
details ‘editor’ and ‘designer’.
Question 4
(a) This question was successfully attempted by the majority of the candidates. A range of phonetic
attempts at the expected answer ‘scenery’ were credited. For example, ‘sceniry’, ‘seenary’,
‘scennery’, ‘senery’ and ‘seanary’. However, phonetic attempts which left the meaning in doubt
could not be credited.
(b) This question had a mixed level of success. The intended answer was ‘carnival’ which was the
cause of the coach arriving late this time. Responses which provided distracting details could not
be credited.
Question 5
This was question was well attempted by most candidates. On average candidates scored between six and
seven marks. The more successful attempts were for items (a), (d) and (e). Most candidates also coped
reasonably well with items (g) and (h). Candidates performed less well in items (b), (c) and (f).
Marks were often lost due to selecting distracting information (e.g. ‘Central Asia / India’ instead of ‘Iran’ in
item (a), ‘generations’ instead of ‘cultures’ in item (b) and ‘lamb’ instead of ‘potatoes’ in item (g)), non-
grammatical fits (e.g. ‘culture’ in item (b), ‘historical’ in item (c), ‘shaped’ in item (e) and ‘potato’ in item (g))
Some candidates provided an answer which contained a detail already printed in the statement on the
question paper, which resulted in a change of meaning. One example of this was the response ‘chocolate
samosa’ in item (h). Responses such as these could not be credited.
Some candidates provided alternative answers, which were also allowed, as they conveyed the intended
meaning (e.g. ‘different countries / places / groups’ in item (b) and ‘handy food / fast food / convenient snack’
in item (f)).
Question 6
This question was attempted fairly well by most candidates. On average, candidates matched four speakers
correctly. The vast majority of candidates were successful with speakers two and four. The most common
errors included swapped answers for speakers five and six. Statement E was sometimes wrongly used for
speaker one. The most common wrong answer for speaker three was the distractor statement C. Several
candidates provided the same letter twice and answers like these could not be given a mark.
Question 7
Overall, most candidates performed reasonably well in this question. Candidates were successful in
answering items (d), (e), (f) and (h). There was a mixed level of success in items (a), (b) and (g), where
option A was often provided. On some occasions, more than one box was ticked. It was also not always
clear which tick was intended as a final choice, when a candidate had not clearly crossed out the response
they initially gave before changing their mind.
Question 8, part A
This was reasonably well attempted. On average candidates scored between three and five marks. The most
successful attempts were on items (b) and (e). Candidates dealt reasonably well with item (a), with items (c)
and (d) being the least well answered.
Attempts which selected the distracting detail could not be credited. For example, ‘wildlife photography’ in
item (a), ‘field guide’ in item (b), ‘size / colour’ in item (c) and ‘beaches / forests’ in item (d). Most candidates
did not distinguish between the speaker’s personal preference and the general trends enjoyed by other
birdwatchers.
© 2018
Item (a) also provided a range of creditable alternative paraphrased responses such as ‘fitness’, ‘staying fit’,
‘exercise / exercising’ and ‘walking’.
Question 8, part B
Candidates attempted this question with a mixed level of success. The most successful attempt was at item
(d) with the vast majority of candidates gaining a mark for their answer. However, other grammatical forms
and synonymous answers were also credited – for example, ‘draining’, ‘drying’ and ‘dryness’. Responses
which provided a generalised response (e.g. ‘destruction’ and ‘disappearance’) were not credited.
Most candidates also provided the correct detail for items (a), and (e). Reponses which selected distracting
detail (e.g. ‘blue legs’ in item (a) and ‘security guards’ in item (e)) could not be credited.
Candidates dealt least successfully with items (b) and (c). In item (b) the expected answer was ‘islands’ with
the extra detail ‘small’ or ‘muddy’ also accepted. Most candidates included ‘mud’ or ‘land’ as their answer.
Answers like these did not convey the key detail of ‘islands’ and could not be credited. Other inaccurate
responses included ‘coast’, ‘inland’, ‘nests’ and ‘shallow pools’. In item (c), few candidates identified the
correct detail ‘seagulls’.
© 2018

Paper 0510/52
Speaking
Key messages
The tests were generally well conducted. However, there was a tendency towards short Part D’s which
potentially disadvantages the candidate.
• Examiners are reminded to use the examiner script provided on the relevant assessment card page to
welcome the candidates, and to give them clear and accurate instructions about the test.
• Many Examiners brought out the best in the candidates by maintaining a friendly conversational tone
and eliciting full responses. The candidates that performed most successfully were those who were
encouraged to take part in a conversation, rather than run through the prompts without the participation
of the Examiner.
• It is important to check, and adhere to, timings for the different parts of the test. Many Part Bs (warm-
ups) were too short. This part should last 2–3 minutes (not including Part A). Part Ds (discussions)
were often too short and occasionally too long. Examiners may find it helpful to set a timer at the
beginning of each phase of the test.
• Centres are reminded that candidates should not be given the impression that there are providing
‘correct’ and ‘incorrect’ answers.
General comments
Part A
A significant number of Examiners did not read out the explanation of the test provided. However, some of
those Examiners did provide a clear and accurate explanation of the test.
Part B
This part was often too short and tended to appear rushed. Opportunities were missed to seek out an
appropriate Speaking test card linked to the candidates’ interests.
Part C
Most Centres chose a range of cards across their candidates and gave candidates at least two minutes to
prepare. Part C’s tended to be short when Examiners started Part D at the candidate’s request. The card
was announced in most cases. Very few candidates asked clarification questions. And when they did, some
Examiners could have provided a more helpful explanation/paraphrase.
Part D
On the whole, discussion lasted between six to nine minutes as required. However, some discussions were
too short, often because the Examiner had not developed the discussion based on ideas arising out of each
of the prompts or not used open questions. The prompts were discussed in order, often with a roughly equal
amount of time given to each prompt. However, some prompts were sometimes rushed through.
© 2018
Comments on specific tasks
A – Time Travel
This card was frequently chosen and some very effective conversations developed. Prompt 4 was
particularly well developed, and some candidates used a very wide range of task-related vocabulary. When
prompted to consider time travel, many candidates were aware of the issue of changing something that had
happened in the past. Most candidates agreed that space exploration was necessary in order to find other
planets on which to live in the future.
B – Best Friends
This was a very popular card and was handled well by all candidates. Candidates appeared to enjoy talking
about things they did with their friends, for example gossiping, sharing secrets, shopping at the mall and
sports, such as cricket. Prompt 4 elicited successful evaluations of the two viewpoints. Many thought friends
were more able to offer advice on personal issues such as boyfriends and relationships, others thought
family members were more helpful as they had wider experience, though they felt parents tended to offer
judgements and tried to control them.
C – A Sense of Humour
This card was not frequently chosen. For Prompt 3, most candidates were aware that our sense of humour
changes over time but struggled to explain how. Some candidates talked about how a level of maturity
affects our sense of humour, others mentioned that it gets darker as we get older. Encouragement was
needed from the Examiner to expand this prompt. In response to Prompt 4, candidates thought humour
could help people live longer with some quoting ‘laughter is the best medicine’. Some stronger candidates
attempted to describe the medical benefits of laughter such as release of endorphins.
D – National Dishes
This was a very popular choice, prompting natural conversations with most candidates having plenty to say.
However, some candidates did not always fully develop ideas on the prompts. For Prompt 1, candidates
appeared to enjoy talking about the popular dishes of different areas, though this prompt tended to elicit long
lists. Often they explained the dishes rather than offering an opinion on them, but used a good range of
appropriate food vocabulary. In response to prompt 5, some candidates discussed a love of junk food and
others were vocally against it, describing the dangers of eating too much of this kind of food, showing real
concern about artificial colouring and additives, obesity and heart problems, but all felt that national dishes
were still an important part of life.
E – Studying History
This was often selected when the candidate expressed some interest in history as a subject in the warm up
and resulted in some productive conversations. Candidates were able to weigh up the importance of knowing
about a country’s history versus world history. Some thought both were important and could explain why.
Some thought it was best to learn about your own country’s history first but believed world history was
ultimately more important for Prompt 4
F – Going Shopping
This was a popular card which proved accessible to all candidates, and generated many involved
conversations. Candidates were able to use variety of effective vocabulary items in response to Prompt 3,
and express a range of opinions for Prompt 5.
G – Ambition
This card was often chosen when candidates had expressed academic or professional aspirations in the
warm up part. Candidates were able to respond effectively to Prompts 1-4, but found Prompt 5 more
challenging.
© 2018
H – Healthy Living
This was a very popular card, often given to candidates who mentioned sport or fitness in the warm up.
Candidates were able to provide examples to support their opinions, and could discuss a wide range of
benefits and challenges of living a healthy life.
I – Imagination
This was a popular card often given to candidates who mentioned art or music in the warm up. Candidates
were able to extend the conversation effectively and were able to evaluate whether children or adults are
more imaginative, often deciding children were more imaginative, as adults have restrictions on their time
and thoughts, apart from those working in certain professions. Some candidates found the final prompt
challenging and sought clarification from the examiner.
J – Cities and Countryside
This was a popular card and generated extensive discussions. Candidates were able to comment on related
topics such as environmental issues and demonstrated strong opinions in Prompt 5.
Application of the marking criteria
On the whole, application of the marking criteria was secure, and adjustments were minimal or across just
one section of the mark range. Overall, there was a slight tendency to be slightly severe rather than slightly
generous. There appeared to be some caution in awarding a mark of ten in any of the criteria, opting for a
nine if the candidate was deemed to be placed in the top band.
Structure
There was a tendency to mark generously. To achieve nine to ten marks, the accurate use of a range of
structures is required, though it should be noted that to achieve a mark of ten, it is acceptable to have some
slips in structure use. A lot of repetition of structures was also observed within the same assessment,
particularly over-use of the present continuous.
Vocabulary
Some Centres marked slightly generously when there was repetition of words and phrases, and/or some
inappropriate collocations used. Where marking was slightly severe, candidates were not given credit for the
range of more suitably advanced and precise lexis that were used.
Development and fluency

Sometimes this was assessed too severely across the mark range, particularly in the lower mark range.
When candidates were not asked questions arising from the prompts, they were unable to demonstrate their
ability to respond to changes in direction.
Administration
Paperwork on the whole was accurate. Recording quality was, on the whole, good. Some Centres needed to
select and send the sample only, indicating the sample on the summary form.
Internal moderation
Centres are reminded that internal moderation is only necessary if more than one Examiner is used.
© 2018

Paper 0510/06
Oral Communication (Coursework)
Key messages
• Centres are reminded of the ethos of coursework, which is to provide the candidates with a broad range
of activities and a variety of ways for their second language speaking skills to be demonstrated and
assessed. Evidence of this should be presented on the individual candidates record cards, which should
contain full descriptions of the activities and tasks undertaken. At least one of these tasks must be
unscripted in order to give candidates the opportunity to demonstrate their fluency in the language and
their ability to develop a discussion. Please remember that the assessment criteria are designed to test
language skills, not presentational or performance skills.
General comments
This series there was only one entry for the 06 component. The centre provided three tasks for each
candidate. However, these were very short and lacked variety, with no evidence of unscripted language. It is
important to undertake a range of tasks of varying length, such as presentations, group discussions, role play
(mock interviews, telephone conversations); one of which must give the opportunity for spontaneous
discussion.
© 2018

English As A Second Language (Speaking Endorsement)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

English As A Second Language (Speaking Endorsement)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

English As A Second Language (Speaking Endorsement)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

0510 English as a Second Language (Speaking Endorsement) March 2018

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Comments on specific questions

In general, this exercise was well attempted by most candidates.

(b) Most candidates were able to give the correct answer.

(c) This was generally well answered.

(f) This was well answered by almost all candidates.

(d) This was generally well answered.

All three answers in this section were well written.

This section proved to be challenging for a number of candidates.

Benefits of using technology about the environment

Problems identified when using technology to learn about the environment

Some solutions to these problems

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

• In Exercises 6 and 7, responses should be of an appropriate length demonstrating effective content

Comments on specific questions

(e) This was extremely well answered.

(g) This was extremely well answered.

(d) This item was well attempted.

(e) This was very well answered.

Benefits of using technology to learn about the environment

Problems identified when using technology to learn about environment

Solutions to the problem

Candidates are recommended to address the following:

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

• In Question 6, candidates should be reminded to use each letter only once.

Comments on specific questions

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

• In Question 6, candidates should be reminded to use each letter only once.

Comments on specific questions

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Comments on specific tasks

J – Cities and Countryside

Application of the marking criteria

Development and fluency

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

You might also like