Micro
Micro
Micro
1. A 6 year old boy named Diego is presented to a clinic saying he has diarrhea, gastrointestinal pain
and bleeding. The physician ordered a series of stool sample. It has barrel-shaped structure that
appears to have plugs at the end. What is the parasite presented on Diego’s stool sample?
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Entamoeba hystolitica
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichiura
2. Where does the larva of the Ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small intestines?
A. Migrates to the lymph nodes and back to the large intestines
B. Migrates to the blood and brain
C. Migrates to the blood, liver, lungs, pharynx and back to small intestine
D. It doesn’t migrate
4. What causes Strongyloides stercoralis in adult stage that has honeycomb appearance in Mucosa?
A. Cochin China diarrhea
B. Pneumonia
C. Diarrhea
D. Hepatic ascariasis
D. Neck
9. Hydatid cysts are normally found in canines and are transmitted to humans due to ingestion of a
tapeworm stage; this stage is the
A. Cercaria
B. Sporocyst
C. Hydatid cysts
D. Embryonated egg
10. This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12 deficiency, and individuals with pernicious
anemia are predisposed to more severe symptoms.
A. Hymenolepis diminuta
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Taenia saginata
11. Which statement is correct for the specimen collection and processing?
A. Stool samples can contain urine.
B. Liquid stools are best for detecting ameba and flagellate trophozoites.
C. Stools can be frozen without affecting the parasitic structure.
D. Unpreserved stools can remain at room temperature for up to 72 hours.
12. This parasite contains only 3 proglottids and is known for being the shortest.
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymnelopis nana
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Hymnelopis diminuta
13. This tapeworm dislikes alcohol and also has regular uterine branches (more than 15) resembling a
tree.
A. T. saginata
B. T. solium
C. D. latum
D. D. caninum
17. To treat lice infections, which morphologic forms are necessary to destroy and what lice treatment
is needed?
A. Eggs, larvae, adult apply hydrocortisone
B. Adults and larvae apply oil of lemon eucalyptus
C. Eggs and adult Permethrin Lotion
D. Eggs and adult and apply benzene hexachloride lotion
19. A 10 year old boy is playing inside his room and a mite bite him in the arm, after that when he
begun to sleep there’s a severe itching and he begun to have a rash, the parents brought him to the
doctor. What species of mite bite the 10 years old boy
A. Clover mite
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. American house dust mite
D. Red spider mite
20. What parasite sucks blood from intestinal tissue and it causes severe anemia?
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Giardia intestinalis
D. Retortamonas intestinalis
21. Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum often accompanied by
blood and Charcot-leyden crystals?
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Dipylidium caninum
23. Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes?
A. Fish
B. Crab
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C. Snail
D. Water plant
24. These 2 trematodes are known as blood flukes, their eggs are found in stool specimen.
1 - Schistosoma japonicum
2 - Schistosoma haematobium
3 - Schistosoma mansoni
A. 1&2
B. 2&3
C. 1&3
D. All of the above
26. Ingestion of raw or poorly cooked infected fish can lead to infection with this trematode.
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Babesia microti
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Clonorchis sinensis
34. The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria from a sputum sample is:
A. First morning specimen
B. 10-hour evening specimen
C. 12-hour pooled specimen
D. 24-hour pooled specimen
35. What concentration of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is used to prepare a working decontamination
solution for the processing of not normally sterile specimens for mycobacteria?
A. 1% NaOH
B. 4% NaOH
C. 8% NaOH
D. 12% NaOH
36. Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily
contaminated specimen?
A. Löwenstein–Jensen agar
B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar
C. Petragnani’s agar
D. American Thoracic Society medium
37. Mycobacteria stained by the Ziehl–Neelsen or Kinyoun methods with methylene blue
counterstain are seen microscopically as:
A. Bright red rods against a blue background
B. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
C. Orange-red rods against a black background
D. Bright blue rods against a pink background
38. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved,
beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored
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microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37°C. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
39. Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially
in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?
A. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium marinum
D. Mycobacterium bovis
40. Which of the following organisms are used as controls for rapid growers and slow growers?
A. Mycobacterium fortuitum and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium chelonei and Mycobacterium fortuitum
D. Mycobacterium kansasii and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
41. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce(s) pigmented colonies in the dark (is a
scotochromogen)?
A. M. szulgai
B. M. kansasii
C. M. tuberculosis
D. All of these options
42. All of the following mycobacteria are associated with skin infections except:
A. Mycobacterium marinum
B. Mycobacterium haemophilum
C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
D. Mycobacterium kansasii
43. All of the following are examples of appropriate specimens for the recovery of fungi except:
A. Tissue biopsy
B. CSF
C. Aspirate of exudate
D. Swab
44. For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount technique for examination of fungal
elements used?
A. Skin
B. CSF
C. Blood
D. Bone marrow
45. The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?
A. Aspergillus niger in blood
B. Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF
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46. Cutaneous disease involving skin, hair, and nails usually indicates an infection with a:
A. Dimorphic fungus
B. Dermatophyte
C. Zygomycetes
D. Candida species
47. What is the first step to be performed in the identification of an unknown yeast isolate?
A. Gram stain smear
B. India ink stain
C. Catalase test
D. Germ tube test
48. An isolate produced a constriction that was interpreted as a positive germ tube, but Candida
albicans was ruled out when confirmatory tests were performed. Which of the following fungi is
the most likely identification?
A. Candida tropicalis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida glabrata
D. Rhodotorula rubra
49. Cornmeal agar with Tween 80 is used to identify which characteristic of an unknown yeast
isolate?
A. Hyphae (true and pseudo)
B. Blastoconidia and arthroconidia
C. Chlamydospores
D. All of these options
51. An isolate from CSF growing on cornmeal agar produces the following structures:
Blastoconidia = + Pseudohyphae = Neg
Chlamydospores = Neg Arthroconidia= Neg
52. Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar?
A. Phenol oxidase
B. Catalase
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C. Urease
D. Nitrate reductase
53. The retrovirus responsible for causing acquired immune deficiency syndrome is a member of the
family of?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Paramyxoviridae
C. Retroviridae
D. Flaviviridae
54. Characteristics of this DNA hepatitis virus include infections spread by contaminated body fluids,
50 to 180 a day incubation period, and chronic infections.
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
55. Negri bodies may be found in brain tissue of humans or animals infected with?
A. Adenovirus
B. Filovirus
C. Measles virus
D. Rabies virus
56. A 25 year old patient presented with multiple vesicles around the mouth. Material from the
lesions was obtained by needle aspiration and inoculated to MRC-5 cells. After 1 day, the
cytopathic effect included foci of “ballooned” and lysed cells. These observations suggest
infection with?
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Epstein-BArr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus
57. Which of the following yeasts produces only blastoconidia on cornmeal Tween 80 agar?
BLASTOCONIDIA PSEUDOHYPHA ARTHROCONIDIA
E
Cryptococcus spp + - -
Candida spp + + -
Trichosporon spp. + + +
Geotrichum spp - + +
A. Candida spp
B. Trichosporon spp
C. Geotrichum spp
D. Cryptococcus spp
58. The urease test, nigger seed agar test, and the germ tube test are all used for the presumptive
identification of?
C. neoformans R. rubra T. cutaneum C. albicans
Urease + + + -
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Germ tube - - - +
Brown and black colonies on niger + - - -
seeds agar
A. Rhodotorula rubra
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Trichosporon cutaneum
D. Candida albicans
59. Which of the following viruses is implicated along with Epstain-Barr virus as a cause of
infectious mononucleosis?
A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B. Coxsackie A virus
C. Coxsackie B virus
D. Hepatitis B virus
60. The appearance of Koplik spots in the oral mucosa of patients is characteristic of infection with
what viral agent?
A. Hepatitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Smallpox
62. The molecular receptor of the virus causing acquired immune deficiency syndrome is
A. CD 4
B. CD 8
C. Fc receptor
D. Complement receptor
B. Morbillivirus
C. Mumps Virus
D. Papillomavirus
66. Which of the following types of Candida albicans infection is commonly acquired from an
exogenous source?
A. Diaper Rash
B. Neonatal thrush
C. Perianal infection
D. Urinary tract infection
67. A black pigment produced by colonies growing on bird seed agar is due to
A. Urease
B. Phenol oxidase
C. Sucrose assimilation
D. Arthroconidia production
68. Which of the following stains greatly enhances the visibility of fungi by binding to the cell walls,
causing the fungi to fluoresce blue-white or apple green?
A. Rhodamine-auramine
B. Warthin-Starry
C. Calcofluor white
D. Periodic acid-schiff
70. During digestion and decontamination of specimen for mycobacterium. What reagent is used to
destroy contaminants and it’s shorten exposure time?
A. Trisodium phosphate
B. PO4
C. 6% Oxalic acid
D. Benzalkonium chloride
74. Which of the following Mycobacteria appears as buffed-colored colonies after exposure to light
and niacin positive?
A. M. bovis
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. tuberculosis
D. M. xenopi
75. The species of Mycobateria that would be most commonly associated with contamination of the
hot water system in large instituions such as hospital?
A. M. heamophilum
B. M. marinum
C. M.ulcerans
D. M. xenopi
82. Colonies of Neisseria spp. turn color when a redox reagent is applied. The color change is
indicative of the activity of the bacterial enzyme.
A. Beta-galactosidase
B. Urease
C. Cytochrome oxidase
D. Phenylalanune deaminase
84. Which Clostridium spp. is most commonly recovered from cases of gas gangrene?
A. bifermentas
B. perfringes
C. sordelii
D. C. difficile
86. A child presented in August at the pediatric clinic with a superficial skin infection of the neck.
The large, itchy lesions were cultured, and the diagnosis of IMPETIGO was made. One of the
etiologic agents of this clinical condition is:
A. rhusiopathiae
B. diptheriae
C. S. saprophyticus
D. S. pyogenes
87. In the CAMP test, a single streak of a beta-hemolytic Streptococcus is placed perpendicular to a
streak of beta-lysin-procuding S. aureus. After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape
of an arrowhead noted; this indicates the presumptive identification of:
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A. S. agalactiae
B. S. bovis
C. S. equinus
D. S. pyogenes
88. What varieties of rickettsiae are significantly more prevalent in the acidic phagolysosome
environment, which is a hostile setting for most other organisms to survive?
A. Rickettsiae siberica
B. Rickettsiae autralis
C. Rickettsiae burnetti
D. NOTA
89. It is a spp. of Chlamydia that can be injected intravenously, into the yolk sac of mice, or into cell
culture.
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Chlamydia psittaci
D. AOTA
91. A stage or condition also known as "condylomata lata" that causes lesions on the body
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. NOTA
92. The last stage of syphilis's last stage, also known as gumma's or gummatous
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. NOTA
93. Which among the following group of microorganisms are found in the ducts of cow’s mammary
glands?
A. Micrococci
B. Microbacteria
C. Lactobacilli
D. Coliforms
B. True
95. The diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis (Clostridium difficile associated disease) is often
made by?
A. Serology
B. Culturing blood specimen
C. Assays to detect toxin in stool
D. Acid fast stain of fecal material
97. An anaerobically incubated blood agar plate shows colonies surrounded by an inner zone of
completed red cell lysis and an outer zone of incomplete cell lysis (double zone of hemolysis).
The most likely presumptive identification of this would be?
A. Clostridium perfringes
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus agalactiae