BIOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

1. Which blood type has neither anti-A nor anti-B and can receive blood from
anyone?
A. AB B. A C. B D. O
2. The kidneys contain millions ox excretory units or filtering units which is made-up
of a network of glameroli. These units are called ______________.
A. Lymp nodes B. nephrons C. renal tributes D.
ureter
3. Identify the steroids hormones among the following:
I. Androgens II. Estrogens III. Oxytocin IV. Progesterone
A. II, III, and IV B. II and III C. I, II and IV D. I and III
4. Which of the technology being used now in the surgery of the retina?
A. MRI B. X-ray C. CT scan D. Laser
5. Which part of the brain controls heart action, breathing and digestion?
A. Medulla oblongata B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D.
thalamus
6. When the air sacs of a smoker’s lung become brittle, the patient experiences
breathlessness. It is a condition called _________.
A. Pneumonic B. emphysema C. pleurisy D.
lung cancer
7. Which of the following techniques will unable us to detect the defects of the fetus
as early as the 8th and 12th week of pregnancy?
A. Amniocentesis B. ultrasound C. bar body test D. chorionic
sampling
8. Using a genetic engineering technique, a research team was able toproduce a
rare human protein which is now being tried as a possible cure for cancer.
Identify this protein.
A. Keratin B. collagen C. interferon D. polymerase
9. Which parental pair can produce a colorblind female?
A. Colorblind mother and normal vision father
B. Heterozygous norma vision mother and colorblind father
C. Homozygous normal vision mother and colorblind father
D. Heterozygous normal vision mother and normal vision father
10. What is the process that uses microbes to break down pollutants in the
environment, particularly the soil?
A. Biolimatnion C. bioremediation
B. pollutant breakdown D. environment eradication
11. who among the following scientists supported the idea that evolutionary changes
occurred because there was a need for them?
A. Darwin B. Lamarck C. De Vries D. Mendel
12. Which is the connective tissue that is made up of tough fibers that are strong
enough to connect a bone to another bone in our body?
A. Tendon B. Cartilage C. joints D. ligament

13. Name the kind of organelle that is found in the cytoplasm which is composed of
protein and lipid molecules and lipid molecules and is considered the
powerhouse of the cell?
A. Mirochondria B. lysosome C. centrosome D. golgi
bodies
14. Fishermen are advised not to drink ocean water because it can cause ________.
A. Dehydration of the cells C. increase in cell pressure
B. bursting of the cells D. poisoning of the cells
15. Name the feeding procedure unique to birds wherein the mother bird partially
digest the food and places an amount into the young’s beak?
A. Redigestion C. regurgitation
B. External digestion D. internal digestion
16. Describe the chromatopores that lizards and snakes possess.
A. Green-colred cells used for protection
B. Pigment cells that enable them to change color
C. Colored pigments used for defense
D. Colored pigments used food-getting
17. The “caste system” exhibited by honeybees wherein each member has a specific
task to perform is called _____________.
A. Polymorphism C. morphologic system
B. metamorphosis D. adaptive mechanism
18. how do soluble organic molecules travel from photosynthesis sites or storage
areas to the organs that need them? What do we call this “long distance
transport” of solutes?
A. Translocation B. diffusion C. transduction D. transpiration
19. Name the plant hormone that promotes stem elongation and helps break
dormancy of seeds and buds.
A. Florigen B. abscistic acid C. gibberellins D.
cytokinins
20. Which part of the flower of the cashew plant develops into a fleshy part where the
seed is attached?
A. Ovary B. receptacle C. pistil D. stigma
21. Bile which is used to emulsify fat is stored in the _________.
 A. Liver B. urinary bladder C. gall bladder D. kidney
22. Which is the emergency hormone?
A. Thyroxine B. Pitrivin C. Ptyalin D. Adrenalin
23. The most important on-going project today which involves the mapping of genes
in all our 46 chromosomes is the _______
A. Human genome project C. Cloning of organisms
B. Stem cell production D. Genetic Engineering Project
24. In a double-stranded DNA, which of the following are complimentary to each
other?
A. Members of a base pair C. thymine and cytosine
B. Ribose and organic base D. adenine and guanine

25. In the creation of a genetically modified organism in the country today, what
microbial organism is being used?
A. Psuedonomas vulgaris C. bacillus thuringensis
B. Agrobacterium D. Escherichia coli
26. Which stage in the life cycle of a butterfly is considered most destructive by
farmers and why?
A. Eggs; it spoils the taste of leaves
B. Larva; it eats the parts of the plant
C. Adult; it kills the flower
D. Pupa; it adds to the weight of the branch
27. Why do leaves of plants wilt temporarily at noontime
A. Transpiration occurs faster than root absorption of water
B. Roots absorb water than the leaves evaporate
C. Too much heat makes the leaves weak
D. Osmosis of the water through the stem is faster
28. Which of the following is the possible food chain in the particular area?
A. Cat corn rat
B. Corn rat cat
C. Rat corn cat
D. Corn cat rat
29. In an energy pyramid which group of organisms receive the least amount of
energy?
A. Producers C. second- order consumer
B. First-order consumer D. third-order consumer
30. In what way do we become part of the oxygen-carbon dioxide cycle?
A. We use oxygen and carbon dioxide to keep us alive
B. We give off oxygen during respiration
 C. We breath oxygen and give off carbon dioxide.
D. We take in carbon dioxide and use oxygen for respiration
31. What kind of biome is prevalent in the equatorial zone of the earth, to which our
country belongs?
A. Taiga B. Tundra C. tropical rainforest D. freshwater
32. How will you determine the population density of grass growing in the school
lawn?
A. Measure the area and count the number of grass
B. Measure the area occupied by one grass
C. Count the big grass in the area during one month
D. Count the grass growing in one year
33. In a particular ecosystem, what trophic level occupied by the herbivores?
A. Primary consumer B. producers C. consumers D.
decomposers
34. What interspecific relationship may exist between frogs and fishes in a pond
ecosystem?
A. Parasitism B. predation C. competition D.
commercialism
35. Which of the following factors contribute to an increase in a town’s human
population?
A. Immigration and natality C. immigration and mortality
B. Emigration and mortality D. emigration and natality
36. Which is the property of a particular species living in a particular setting together
with the role it plays in relation with other species?
A. Habitat B. niche C. population D.
community
37. Choose from among these heterotrophs organism that feed on partially
decomposed tissues of plants and animals.
A. Herbivores B. autotrophs C. detritivores
D. carnivores
38. Which is the biogas obtained from biological wastes such as those from animal
manures which contains hydrocarbons?
A. Methane B. alcogas C. ester D.
ethanol
39. One of the main features of man-made aerosol is a propellant which includes
such gasses as butane and chlorinated hydrocarbons. Why is this group seen as
a dangerous pollutant?
A. Fluorocarbons break down and release carbon monoxide
B. Contains insecticides that can eliminate pests
C. Could acr as pollutants of bodies of water
 D. Fluorocarbons does not cause thermal pollution
40. What is a disposal area where solid wastes are deposited, spread in layers,
compacted and covered with soil daily?
A. Open dump B. incinerator C. sanitary landfill D. recycling
dump
PHYSICAL SCIENCES, EARTH SCIENCE FOR BEeD

1. The average salinity of the ocean is _______?

A. 25% B. 35% C. 15% D. 45%
2. In which layer of the atmosphere does weather occur?
A. Stratosphere B. ionosphere C. troposphere D.
mesosphere
3. What motion of the earth causes the occurrence of night and day?
A. Revolution B. rotation C. solar translation D. inclination
of axis

4. When does a summer solstice occur and describe it

A. June 21 and 22 wherein days are longer than night
B. March 21 and 22, there is equal length of day and night
C. September 22 or 23, nights are longer than days
D. December 21 and 22, nights are longer than days
5. What instrument used to measure wind velocity

A. Clinometer B. thermometer C. anemometer D. hygrometer

6. Identify our galaxy and to which type does it belong?
A. Andromedal; spiral C. Pegasus; irregular
B. Milky way; spiral D. magellanic; irregular
7. Which surface of the earth heats and cools faster?
A. Atmosphere B. vegetation C. water D. soil
8. What forces keep the planets in their orbits?

A. Magnetism and inertia C. revolutionary forces

B. Inertia and gravity D. gravity and electromagnetism
9. A lunar eclipse can occur during __________.
A. New moon B. first quarter C. last quarter D. full moon
10. Jet propulsion is explained by Law of _____________.
A. Acceleration B. inertia C. interaction D. universal gravitation
11. Why can the astronauts jump higher on the moon than on earth?
A. Moon’s gravity is one-sixth that of earth

B. There is no atmosphere on the moon

C. Their mass is less
D. Moons gravity is more than one
12. Mirrors can form images due to the __________.
A. Regular refraction of light C. regular reflection of light
B. Difference in density of light D. separation of white light

13. In the electromagnetic spectrum, how will the waves be arranged in the order of
increasing wavelength?
A. Gamma, ultraviolet, infrared, radio
B. Radio, gamma, ultraviolet, infrared

C. Radio, infrared, gamma, ultraviolet

D. Gamma, radio, infrared, ultraviolet
14. Light falling on soap bubbles form a band of colors. This is due to _________.
A. Dispersion B. interference C. refraction D. diffraction
15. The voltage across the input terminals of a transformer is 110V. The primary has
50 loops and the secondary has 35 loops. What is the voltage that the
transformer puts out?
A. 55V B. 65V C. 110V D. 220V

16. According to Ohm’s law, the amount of current in a circuit is directly proportional
to the voltage and ________.
A. Directly proportional to the resistance
B. Inversely proportional to the resistance

C. Inversely proportional to the voltage

D. Directly proportional to the voltage
17. Which part of the nucleus of an atom determines its isotope?
A. Proton B. electron C. positron D. neutron
18. The sum emits a tremendous amount of energy which is the result of
atomic____.
A. Fission B. disintegration C. fusion D. intensity
19. The half-life of a certain isotope is one day. At the end of 2 days, how much of
the isotope remains?
A. One half B. one eight C. one third D. one quarter
20. Hydrogen peroxide, H202 can be bought as a disinfectant for wounds. It is
composed of 6.00% hydrogen and 94.00% oxygen. This illustrates the Law of __.

A. Conversion of mass C. conversion of matter

B. Definite proportion D. multiple proportion
21. Why do farmers practice spreading powdered limestone on their fields?
A. It acts as fertilizer. C. it neutralizes soil acidity
B. It improves the absorbing ability of the soil D. it provides the needed
Nutrients

22. Who is the French physicist who, while studying about fluorescence working with
uranium compound, accidentally discovered radioactivity?
A. Marie Curie C. William Roentgen
B. Antoine Becquerel D. John Dalton

23. Which kind of radiation is most dangerous to humans?

A. Gamma B. beta C. alpha D. infrared
24. Why is carbon-dating the best way to determine the age of the fossil?
A. Plants and animals emits carbon-14
B. After death, a plant or animal stops producing oxygen
C. After a plan or animal dies it stops in taking in carbon-14

D. After death, a plant or animal stops producing carbon dioxide

25. The intensity of cosmic rays bombarding the earth’s surface is largest at the___.
A. Mid-latitudes B. equator C. near the equator D. poles
26. A volcanic cone described to have a steep slope with a narrow base is called __.
A. Shield B. cinder C. composite D. lava

27. Which is a measure of the strength of an earthquake?

A. Magnitude B. tremors C. intensity D. focus
28. The core of the earth is composed of _______.
A. Iron and sodium C. nickel and magnesium
B. Iron and nickel D. magnesium and iron
29. Climate in a region is determined by ________.

A. Temperature and rainful C. cloudiness and temperature

B. Wind velocity and rainful D. latitude and temperature
30. During the earth’s revolution seasons occur due to the _______.
A. Inclination of the earth’s orbit C. rate of earth’s revolution
B. Inclination of the earth’s axis D. rate of earth’s rotation
31. Name the seasonal wind that is experienced from December to February, also
called “hanging amihan”
A. Southwest monsoon C. northeast monsoon
B. Tropical winds D. trade winds
32. Choose the color of the stars with the highest temperature.

A. Red B. yellow C. orange D. blue-white

33. The most widely accepted theory on the origin of the universe is the ______.
A. Steady state B. pulsating C. bing bang D. continental drift
34. Which is the first mission and when did it land on the moon?
A. Apollo 13; July 16, 1969 C. Apollo 12; July 19,1969
B. Apollo 11; July 21, 1969 D. Apollo 14; July 20, 1969
35. Why do we see the sun rising in the east?
A. Earth rotates counter clockwise C. earth rotates clockwise
B. Earth revolves from east to west D. earth’s axis is inclined
36. The breaking of boulders into small particles due to the action of wind and water
is called _____.
A. Erosion B. weathering C. deflation D. faulting
37. What is the process that occurs when exposed rock surfaces break due to daily
changes in temperature?
A. Exfoliation B. Deflation C. hydration D. dissolution
38. Name the processes involved in the occurrence of the hydrologic cycle
I. Evaporation II. Condensation III. Air circulation IV precipitation
A. I, II and IV B. I, II and III C. II,III and IV D. I,III and IV

39. How long does earth complete one journey around the sun?
A. 365 days B. 365 ¼ days C. 24 hours D. 27 1/3 days
40. We see the four phases of the moon in how many days?
A. 27 1/3 days B. 31 days C. 29 ½ days D. 30 days
41. Which of these would be the best conductor of electricity?
A. Saltwater B. space C. glass D. air

42. What does the needle of a compass respond to when it deflects?

A. Earth’s geographic pattern C. earth’s magnetic field
B. Earth’s gravitation D. earth’s electric field
43. Which among the simple machines work to change the direction of the force?
A. Lever B. pulley C. wheel and axle D. wedge
44. Two charges separated by a distance of 1 meter exert a 1-N force on each other.
If the charges are pushed to separate at ¼ m, what will be the force on each
charge?

A. 8 N B. 16N C. 1N D. 4N
45. If you comb your hair and the comb become positively charged, what happens to
your hair?

A. Hair becomes positively charge C. hair becomes negatively charge

B. Hair become uncharged D. nothing happens to the hair
46. Which of the following illustrates the occurrence of lightning?
A. Charging by polarization C. charging by friction
B. Charging by induction D. charging by contact
47. Which can prevent fire by blocking the path of electricity?

A. Switch B. capacitor C. resistor D. fuse

48. Choose which material could be used as insulator
A. Iron B. copper C. plastic D. aluminium
49. If a bar magnet is suspended by a string from its centre, what will happen to it?
A. It will line up with the earth’s magnetic field
B. It will line up with the earth’s gravitational field

C. It will keep swinging

D. It will line up in any direction
50. Which of the following is a characteristic of a series connection?
A. The sum of the resistance is less than the total
B. There is only one current through each load
C. There is a common voltage drop across all load

D. The current flowing each load varies