BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES SET A

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/ answer Sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title “BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES” on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is SET A; Set “B” if your test booklet is Set B.

1. A mango tree is planted besides a sampaguita plant in a garden. They demonstrate the following relationship:
A. Commensalism C. Mutualism
B. Competition D. Predation
2. Monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides are types of __________.
A. Lipids C. Proteins
B. Nucleotides D. Carbohydrates
3. What type of asexual reproduction occurs when a new organism develops from an outgrowth as exemplified by
corals?
A. Fission C. Fertilization
B. Sexual reproduction D. Budding
4. Kingdom Plantae includes which organisms?
A. Protozoa C. Fungi
B. Magnoliidae D. Prokaryotes
5. A forest suffered from wildfires and destroys the existing vegetation. However, the soil remained viable. Five years
later, trees and bushes are seen flourishing in the forest once again. This phenomenon is called _____.
A. Tertiary ecological succession C. Secondary ecological succession
B. Quarternary ecological succession D. Primary ecological succession
6. Which of the following qualities is NOT true among considerations that humans are the masters of other living
organisms, as well as of the nonliving on earth?
A. Most developed species C. Most intelligent species
B. Most dominant species D. Most reproductive species
7. Organisms that decomposed substances into products that can be useful are called _____.
A. Herbivores C. Saprolites
B. Carnivores D. Saphrophytes
8. Of the following, which is NOT among the uses of the Phylogenetic Tree that explains the genealogical history of
groups of organisms?
A. Visualize point at which species diverge
B. Provide chronology of evolutionary events
C. Trace common ancestry
D. Estimate the age of living things
9. Eutrophication which causes the depletion of dissolved oxygen in water results into _______.
A. Decrease in aquatic plants C. Abundant sea harvest
B. Decreased in dissolved nutrients D. Diminished sea harvest
10. The domains included in Woese’s 1990 classification are:
I. Archaea
II. Bacteria
III. Chromista
IV. Eukarya
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, IV
11. An example of asexual reproduction is ______.
A. Fertilization C. Conception
B. Grafting D. Pollination
12. If carbohydrates are hydrophilic-organic compounds, lipids are ________ organic compounds.
A. Biomolecules C. hydrophobic
B. Simple D. polypeptide
13. The hierarchy of Biology taxonomy has how many levels?
A. 10 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8
14. Which of the following is an example of a useful function of bacteria?
A. Can clean up an oil spill by digesting hydrocarbons in petroleum
B. Can synthesize new form of heavy metals
C. May cause a foul-smelling odor when it invades the outer dermal layer
D. May be pathogenic and cause human disease
15. A substance that moves by passive transport tendsto move
A. away from the area of equilibrium.
B. away from the area where it is less concentrated.
C. away from the area where it is more concentrated.
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 D. toward the area where it is more concentrated.
16. How does energy first enter our living Planet Earth?
A. As energy manufactured through photosynthesis
B. As molecular energy from the biosphere
C. As radiant energy from the sun
D. As heat energy from the outer space
17. An ant colony stores food in the summer, defends itself by stinging enemies and invades a competing ant colony and
steals larvae and use them as new workers. What is the term to best describe how this species cope with everyday
life?
A. Ecological niche C. Environmental habitation
B. Ecological defeat D. Ecological success
18. Which of the following about the law of segregation is FALSE?
A. It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes.
B. It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
C. It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendelʹs crosses.
D. It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.
19. In science, what is a theory?
A. a temporary explanation to a scientific problem generated from observations
B. well-tested explanation for a range of phenomena to make accurate predictions
C. specific description of how aspects of the natural world are expected to behave
D. a logical interpretation based on what scientists already know
20. A phospholipid is composed of
A. hydrophobic lipid tails and a hydrophilic phosphate head
B. hydrophobic phosphate tails and a hydrophilic lipid head
C. a hydrophobic phosphate head and hydrophilic phosphate tails
D. a hydrophobic lipid head and hydrophilic phosphate tails
21. Which is the most basic process performed in the science of Taxonomy?
A. Naming organisms C. Classifying organisms
B. Identifying organisms D. Understanding organisms
22. Perfumes contain organic compounds called _______.
A. Alcohol C. Ethers
B. Acids D. Esters
23. Which protist causes malaria?
A. Plasmodium C. Euglena
B. Staphylococcus D. Kneallhazia
24. In vitro fertilization is the union of an ovum and a sperm inside the _________.
A. Vase C. Microscope slide
B. Test tube D. Receptacle
25. Under the Five Kingdom System recognized by most biologists today, where do the true bacteria, the bacteria-like
organisms, and the blue green algae belong?
A. Kingdom Plantae C. Kingdom Protista
B. Kingdom Monera D. Kingdom Fungi
26. There are foods rich in proteins that provide energy for man, but this is NOT an example of these foods:
A. Butter C. Fish
B. Nuts D. Meat
27. In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
A. hydrogen bonds. C. nonpolar covalent bonds.
B. polar covalent bonds. D. ionic bonds.
28. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely woulduse
A. a light microscope. C. a scanning electron microscope.
B. a transmission electronic microscope. D. a dissecting microscope.
29. If the field of view of the low power (10x) objective lens is 4 mm, what would the field of view be for the high power
(100x) lens?
A. 400 microns C. 4 millimeters
B. 0.4 centimeters D. 4 micrometers
30. The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than thecorresponding volume in
animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observationis that
A. plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animalcells.
B. plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane thananimal cells.
C. plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
D. animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated.
31. Which organisms is an example of a fungus?
A. Algae C. Euglenoids
B. Entamoeba D. Yeast
32. The world largest ecosystem of deserts is _______.
A. Africa
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 B. Sahara
C. Libya
D. Saudi
33. Carbon dioxide is produced by plants in the _________.
A. Evening C. afternoon
B. Noon D. morning
34. A human arm, a bat's wing and a seal's flipper are examples of
A. Analogous organs C. Embryonic organs
B. Homologous organs D. Vestigial organs
35. What are the hormones responsible for plant growth, promoting auxiliary bud growth and apical dominance?
A. Auxins and gibberellins C. Cytokinins and gibberellins
B. Auxins and abscisate D. Cytokinins and auxins
36. Among organisms that is capable of regeneration when cut into parts.
A. Yeast C. Bacteria
B. Molds D. Sea star
37. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is NOT correct?
A. Prokaryotic cells have a circular DNA.
B. Prokaryotic cells do not have chromosomes.
C. Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus.
D. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryoticcells.
38. Which will manifest as blood type of one of the children of a man who is a homozygote type B and a woman with a
type O blood?
A. Blood type B C. Blood type AB
B. Blood type A D. Blood type O
39. In the human life cycle, what process maintains chromosome number once a spermatozoon unites with an ovum
during fertilization?
A. Oogenesis C. Meiosis
B. Mitosis D. Spermatogenesis
40. What is the process in human sexual reproduction wherein the zygote undergoes a series of cell division needed for
the growth and maturation of the fetus?
A. Mitosis C. Oogenesis
B. Spermatogenesis D. Meiosis
41. What does a critical minded person consistently do?
A. Gathers and analyses evidence C. Criticizes members of a group
B. Careful about what happens D. Remembers to be honest always
42. Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?
A. It allows organisms to repair tissue.
B. It allows organisms to grow.
C. It allows organisms to reproduce asexually.
D. It allows organisms to promote genetic diversity.
43. What is true of the cell theory?
A. Cells come from preexisting cells.
B. Cell membrane dictate data needed for protection.
C. Some organisms are not composed of cells.
D. Cytoplasm regulates what goes in and out of cells.
44. In which of the following ways do isotopes of thesame element differ?
A. in number of neutrons only C. in number of protons only
B. in numbers of neutrons and protons D. in number of neutrons and in mass
45. Cell specialization means that cells in an organism are uniquely suited to:
A. carry on reproduction C. respond to changing conditions
B. react with the environment D. perform a specific function
46. Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
A. rough ER C. lysosomes
B. smooth ER D. Golgi vesicles
47. If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which organs or tissues would you expect
dysfunction?
A. limbs, hearts, areas with a good deal of contraction
B. microvilli, alveoli, and glomeruli
C. all ducts, such as those from salivary or sebaceous glands
D. sperm, larynx, and trachea
48. What distinguishes mammalian from plant cell membranes?
A. Plant membranes contain chlorophyll, while mammalian membranes do not.
B. Mammalian membranes contain cholesterol, while plant membranes do not.
C. Plant membranes contain ion channels, while mammalian membranes do not.
D. Mammalian membranes are attached to a cytoskeleton, while plant cells are not.
49. In the light-dependent reactions, when light strikes the pigments (P700 or P680) what is the immediate result?
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 A. Electrons from water are fused by ATP synthase.
B. Excited electrons are passed to electron acceptors.
C. Glucose is produced from RuBisCO in the stroma.
D. Hydrogen ions passed through ATP synthase.
50. What evolutionary tactic is developed by CAM and C4 plants to cope with harsh cold or dry environment?
A. Plants close their stomata during the day or incorporate carbon atoms to intermediate acids.
B. Plants transform into insectivores that devour flies and even flesh of the hands of a gardener.
C. Plants broaden their leaves to captureall light energy and maximize transpiration.
D. Plants bloom their flowers as much as they can to attract light energy and active pollinators.
51. A new biological structure has been discovered. It is larger thanmost bacteria. Although primarily composed of
protein, it is covered with a lipid-based membrane. Its genetic material is double-stranded DNA, but the structure
lacks RNA. The interior of thestructure has ribosomes and a few enzymes. What is this?
A. A virus C. A multicellular eukaryote
B. A prokaryote D. A unicellular eukaryote
52. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?Pyruvate + NADH + H + → Lactate + NAD +
A. Oxygen C. NADH
B. NAD + D. lactate
53. Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of aglucose molecule?
A. the citric acid cycle C. the electron transport chain
B. glycolysis D. synthesis of acetyl CoA from pyruvate
54. A species of fish lived in a lake. When a dam was constructed in the area, a group of fish was separated and
populated a new pond. They then developed differing characteristics and became distinct species. Which of the
following concepts explain this speciation?
A. Geographical isolation C. Temporal isolation
B. Episodic isolation D. Behavioral isolation
55. What is the Philippine species known as Pithecophagajefferyil that was listed as an endangered species by the 1975
Convention on International of Endangered Species?
A. Philippine tamaraw C. Palawan peacock pheasant
B. Bohol Tarsier D. Monkey-eating eagle
56. The protein shell of a virus is called:
A. Nucleus C. Capsid
B. Nucleic acid D. Nucleolus
57. Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals isthat in plants
A. the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindlesdo not contain
microfibrils.
B. sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.
C. a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow isinitiated at that stage.
D. chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animalschromosomes do not
become attached until anaphase.
58. During which stage of mitosis do chromatids separate to form two sets of daughter chromosomes?
A. prophase C.telophase
B. anaphase D. metaphase
59. Which is FALSE about changes caused by density-independent limiting factors.
A. Most populations can adapt to a certain amount of change.
B. Periodic droughts can affect entire populations of grasses.
C. Populations never build up again after a crash in population size.
D. Major upsets in an ecosystem can lead to long-term declines in certain populations.
60. Which BEST describes the climax stage of an ecological succession?
A. It changes rapidly form season to season C. Represents initial phases of evolution
B. It persists until drastic changes occurs D. Populated by big mammals and birds
61. Who proved the experiment of Griffith but with the use of DNA, lipids, carbohydrates and proteins?
A. Miescher C.Phoebus Levene
B. Hershey and Chase D.OswardAvery’s team
62. There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
A. different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon
B. different amino groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon
C. different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (α) carbon
D. different alpha (α) carbons in every amino acid
63. Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of
the nucleotides in this sample will be Adenine?
A. 38% B. 24% C. 12% D. 76%
64. The human genome consists of approximatelyhow many DNA base pairs?
A. 30,000 C. 300,000,000
B. 3,000,000 D. 3,000,000,000
65. If the DNA strand contains the sequence TACGGATCT, what is the resulting mRNA sequence after transcription?
A. TACGGATCT C. ATGCCTAGA
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 B. AUGCCUAGA D. TUGCCTUATA
66. What is the shape of the tRNA?
A. single straight strand C. clover-leaf shape
B. spade-shaped D. burger-like shape
67. Which enzyme removes the RNA primer in the DNA?
A. DNA Polymerase I C. SSB Proteins
B. DNA Polymerase III D. Primase
68. Which type of protein binds the DNA molecule to produce the nucleosome structure?
A. Histone C. Centromere
B. Polymerase D. Chromatin
69. Which does NOT belong to the group?
A. Sickle-cell anemia CHuntington’s disease
B. Cystic fibrosis D. Tay-Sach’s disease
70. Which of the following statements about a controlled experiment is true?
A. All the variables must be kept the same in an experiment.
B. This is when only one variable is tested at a time.
C. Everything can be studied by setting up a controlled variable.
D. Controlled experiments cannot be performed on living things.
71. Which of the following pairs is most closely related?
A. dog and tapeworm C. tapeworm and bacteria
B. amoeba and bacteria D. bacteria and fungi
72. Instead of phylum, plants use which category?
A. Division C. subspecies
B. Class D. subkingdom
73. What kind of selection will happen when individuals at one end of the curve have higher fitness than individuals in the
middle or at the end?
A. Directional selection C. Stabilizing selection
B. Disruptive selection D. Diversifying selection
74. What is systematics?
A. study of the diversity and the evolutionary relationships between organisms
B. a group or level of organization into which organisms are classified
C. in a taxonomic classification, a group of similar genera
D. in a taxonomic classification, a group of closely related families
75. Which describes a phylogeny?
A. study of evolutionary relationships among organisms
B. largest and most inclusive group in classification
C. a system in which each species is assigned a two-part scientific name
D. a group or level of organization into which organisms are classified
76. A population that satisfies the conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle will experience
A. bottleneck effect. C. stabilizing selection.
B. a founder effect. D. no natural selection.
77. Speciation cannot take place without
A. homologous structures. C. disruptive selection.
B. geographic isolation. D. reproductive isolation
78. Important differences between Archaebacteria and Eubacteria include all of the following EXCEPT
A. type of membrane lipids. C. presence of peptidoglycan.
B. presence of capsid proteins. D. nucleotide sequences of DNA.
79. Which of the following is an advantage of bipedalism?
A. It is a faster form of locomotion than quadrupedalism.
B. It is biomechanically more stable than quadrupedalism.
C. Bipedalism frees the arms for other tasks.
D. All of the above.
80. Which of the following statements is true about evolutionary fitness?
A. Survival is more important than reproduction in its contribution to fitness.
B. Fitness may be defined as an individual's lifetime reproductive success relative to that of others in the
population.
C. An individual has an innate fitness that determines its lifetime reproductive success regardless of
environmental factors.
D. All of the above.
81. When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of
producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75%
82. What are the four most abundant elements found in living matter?
A. Nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and carbon
B. Hydrogen, oxygen, carbon and nitrogen
C. Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon and sulfur
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 D. Nitrogen, oxygen, hydrogen and phosphorus
83. Which statement is correct aboutthe genetic disorder called Trisonomy21?
A. An abnormality of chromosomes inheritance in which there are 3 copies of chromosomes 21
B. This abnormality is also known as Turner’s syndrome producing a polypoid individual
C. Presents with superior mental intelligence, tall stature and protruding eyeballs
D. This genetic disorder results when an individual is missing 3 chromosomes
84. Who was the author of Principles of geology who gave evidence that Earth was subject to show but continuous
geological cycles of erosion and uplift?
A. Charles Lyell C. Charles Lamarck
B. Charles Darwin D. Charles Windsor
85. Of the following, which is NOT one of the reasons why Mendel selected garden peas for his experiments?
A. They reproduce at a fast rate
B. They need much caring and cultivating
C. They exhibit contrasting traits
D. Their flowers are structurally adapted for self-pollination
86. When is prenatal screening with the use of DNA technology applied in order to detect congenital metabolic disorders
in babies?
A. 9 months of the fetus in the womb
B. Within 48 hours after delivery
C. Within 36 hours after delivery
D. 8 months of the fetus in the womb
87. The statement “The worm is 2 centimeters long” is a(n)
A. observation C. theory
B. inference D. hypothesis
88. Each element is unique and different from other elements because of the number of protonsin the nuclei of its atoms.
Which of the following indicates the number of protons in anatom’s nucleus?
A. atomic mass C. atomic weight
B. atomic number D. mass weight
89. Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atommust have
A. 20 protons. C. 40 electrons.
B. 40 neutrons. D. A and B only
90. An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between
A. C and H in methane (CH4).
B. the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
C. Na + and Cl- in salt.
D. the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H 2)
91. Which pair of terms will most likely apply to the same organism?
A. Producer, predator C. Autotroph, detritivore
B. Heterotroph, autotroph D. Heterotroph, herbivore
92. What is the major role of decomposer in an ecosystem?
A. Act as pollutants C. Recycle nutrients
B. Make the soil fertile D. Clean the environment
93. The maximum rate at which a certain species reproduces is its
A. growth rate C. liming factors
B. biotic potential D. carrying capacity
94. The movement of individuals into an area is called
A. immigration. C. emigration.
B. population growth rate. D. population density.
95. A tiger that hunted and ate deer is an example of
A. Parasite and host C. Commensalism
B. Predator and prey D. Mutualism
96. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
A. vitamin A C. vitamin B12
B. vitamin C D. calcium
97. What is the substrate of salivary amylase?
A. Protein C. starch
B. Sucrose D. glucose
98. Which of the following is true of ALL single-celled organisms?
A. They are all prokaryotes. C. They are all bacteria.
B. They all reproduce. D. They all have a nucleus.
99. The net gain of energy from glycolysis is
A. 4 ATP molecules. C. 2 ATP molecules.
B. 8 ADP molecules. D. 3 pyruvic acid molecules.
100. Which of the following disorders is a direct resultof nondisjunction?
A. sickle cell disease C. Turner’s syndrome
B. Huntington’s disease D. cystic fibrosis
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101. A group of genes that are regulated together iscalled a(n)
A. promoter. C. intron.
B. operon. D. allele.
102. The donor cell, in the case of Dolly, is taken from which part of the body of the donor sheep?
A. egg cell C. udder
B. stomach D. womb
103. Which refers to any alteration in the sequence of nucleotides that can be passed on to the next generation?
A. mutation C. X-limited trait
B. X-linked disease D. aneuploidy
104. Who observed variations in the characteristics of plants and animals on different islands of the Galápagos?
A. James Hutton C. Charles Darwin
B. Charles Lyell D. Thomas Malthus
105. Which of the following would an animal breeder use to increase the number of cows that give the most milk?
A. overproduction C. acquired characteristics
B. genetic isolation D. artificial selection
106. An inherited characteristic that increases an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is
called a(n)
A. vestigial structure. C. speciation.
B. adaptation. D. analogous structure.
107. Gene therapy corrects detectable gene disorders but this is NOT one of its procedures.
A. Addition of functional cells C. Cells extraction from patient
B. Reintroduction of corrected cells into patient D. Newborn screening
108. What is true about herbivores?
A. They are the main producers in the food chain.
B. They are at the apex of the food chain.
C. They can be producers if given adequate water and food.
D. They are only consumers.
109. Which combined tissues are directly involved when a boy kicks, a frog leaps or a bird flies?
A. Nerves and muscles C. Muscles and bones
B. Bones and nerves D. Blood and muscles
110. Which of the following pertains to slight quantifiable evolutionary modifications within a population from generation
to generation?
A. Microevolution C. Generational selection
B. Artificial selection D. Evolutionary upheaval
111. Which protist causes malaria?
A. Euglena C. Fungi
B. Plasmodium D. HIV
112. Of the following, which does NOT characterize the bacteria, which is believed to be the earliest life forms having lived
3.8 million years ago?
A. Has nuclear membrane to separate nuclear materials from cytoplasm
B. Made up of prokaryotic cells
C. Has cell walls made up of protein-carbonate complex
D. Has single circular DNA
113. Ailene is completely a healthy woman and would like to donate one of her organs as an altruism. Which among the
following can be donated even while Ailene is still alive, without compromising her overall wellbeing?
A. Her heart C. One of her lungs
B. One of her two corneas D. One of her two kidneys
114. What can prevent being infected with hepatitis virus (HBV) transmitted by sharing contaminated blood through blood
transfusion, contaminated needles or by sexual contact from an infected person?
A. laxatives C. antibiotics
B. Vaccination D. Dissolution therapy
115. Which of the following countries may be considered as a tropical rainforest?
A. Spain C. Netherlands
B. Philippines D. Korea
116. Of the three types of natural selection, which happens when the intermediate phenotype is favored?
A. artificial selection C. Stabilizing selection
B. disruptive selection D. Directional selection
117. Which is correct about retroviruses?
A. Proteinaceous infectious particles
B. Only acquired by a select population of humans
C. A plant virus with an enzyme that makes an RNA copy of its DNA
D. HIV is an example of a retrovirus
118. Mark John has straight black hair because both his parents have straight black hair. What can you deduce from the
preceding statement?
A. The character and color of hair is determined by genetics.
B. There is no relation between his hair and that of his parents.
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 C. Mark John is good-looking.
D. His hair remains the same even when he gets old.
119. Each “tick” of a molecular clock is an occurrence of
A. genetic drift. C. DNA mutation.
B. crossing-over. D. mitosis.
120. Temporal isolation occurs when two different populations
A. develop different mating behaviors.
B. become geographically separated.
C. reproduce at different times.
D. interbreed.
121. Which vitamin is important for blood clotting and is Involved In the formation of prothrombin?
A. K
B. B
C. E
D. D
122. Intermediate fossil forms are important evidence of evolution because they show
A. how organisms changed over time.
B. how animals behaved in their environments.
C. how the embryos of organisms develop.
D. molecular homologies.
123. The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population forms a
A. gene pool. C. niche.
B. phenotype. D. genome.
124. Traits, such as human height, that are controlled by more than one gene are known as
A. single-gene traits. C. polygenic traits.
B. dominant traits. D. multiple allelic traits.
125. Which hominid lived on the Earth at the same time our ancestors Homo sapiens lived?
A. Sahelanthropus C. Homo neanderthalensis
B. Orrorintugenensis D. Homo habilis
126. In a population of lizards, the smallest and largest lizards are more easily preyed upon than medium size lizards. What
kind of natural selection is MOST likely to occur in this situation?
A. genetic drift C. stabilizing selection
B. sexual selection D. directional selection
127. Which is true about the phosphorus cycle?
A. Phosphate is released as rocks and sediments wear down.
B. Plants absorb phosphate from atmosphere
C. Phosphorus is abundant in the atmosphere.
D. Organic phosphate cannot move through food webs.
128. The acoelomates, typified by the flatworms, are the most primitive bilaterally symmetricalanimals, and the simplest
ones in which true organs composed of two or more primary, tissues occur. Flatworms _______,
A. Have an open circulatory system
B. Have a closed circulatory system with a heart
C. Have no need for a circulatory system because they have no organs
D. Lack of circulatory, and therefore all of their ceils must be within diffusion distance of oxygen and food.
129. If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably true?
A. Species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor.
B. Species A evolved independently of species B for a long period.
C. Species A is younger than species B.
D. Species A is older than species B.
130. Organisms in the Kingdom Animalia are:
A. multicellular and heterotrophic C. multicellular and autotrophic
B. unicellular and autotrophic D. unicellular and autotrophic
131. Which of the following groups would contain the largest number of organisms?
A. class C. order
B. phylum D. family
132. A scientific name contains information about its:
A. family and species C. genus and species
B. phylum and order D. class and family
133. Which of the following is NOT a prezygotic reproductive isolating mechanism between two species?
A. exploitation of different microhabitats in sympatry
B. female preference for species-specific male plumage color
C. production of pollen at different times of the year
D. failure of hybrid offspring to develop into adult
134. What do plants and animals have in common?
A. both are heterotrophic C. both are autotrophic
B. both are prokaryotic D. both are eukaryotic
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135. The fossil record will never be complete because _________.
A. there are too few scientists to examine the fossil
B. not every living thing becomes fossilized
C. ancient life forms were too simple
D. they are not written on the holy books
136. Which of the following is NOT a vestigial structure?
A. human appendix C. snake leg bone
B. human outer ear D. coccyx
137. Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water ismost directly responsible for
the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?
A. water’s change in density when it condenses
B. water’s ability to dissolve molecules in the air
C. the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D. the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
138. Which is thought to be direct ancestors of modern humans?
A. Neanderthal man C. Cro-Magnon man
B. Homo erectus D. Australopithecus afarensis
139. What is meant by the description ”antiparallel” regarding the strands that make up the DNA?
A. The DNA is twisted in a spiral way.
B. The direction of one strand runs counter to the other.
C. Base pairing goes with pyrimidine and purine bases.
D. The strands never meet even if extended throughout.
140. From their scientific names Zea mays and Allium cepa, you know that the two organisms are
A. in different genera. C. plants
B. animals. D. in the same phylum.
141. Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
A. They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids areadded to them.
B. They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases areadded to them.
C. They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.
D. They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them.
142. Modern methods of classification include the idea that all organisms share a common
A. ancestor. C. environment.
B. source of food. D. atmosphere.
143. The most important difference between classification during the time of Linnaeus and current classification is that
organisms are now grouped according to their
A. evolutionary relationships. C. fossil relationships.
B. size relationships. D. ecological relationships.
144. In addition to Animalia, Plantae, and Fungi, the six-kingdom system of classification includes
A. Protista, Archaebacteria, and Eubacteria. C. Protista, Bacteria, and Monera.
B. Monera, Archaebacteria, and Eubacteria. D. Monera, Protista, and Eubacteria.
145. Which illustrates adhesion resulting to capillary action?
A. Blood flows from arteries to small blood vessels called capillaries.
B. A needle does not sink when carefully placed on a glass of water.
C. Water is drawn out of the roots and up into stems and leaves of plants.
D. Sea breeze is produced in a beach during the day because land heats up first.
146. Which of the following ideas proposed by Lamarck was later found to be incorrect?
A. Acquired characteristics can be inherited.
B. All species are descended from other species.
C. Living things change over time.
D. There is a relationship between an organism and its environment.
147. In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA molecules are made from
A. exons spliced together after introns are removed.
B. introns spliced together after exons are removed.
C. exons spliced together with introns.
D. long pieces of RNA shortened by an enzyme.
148. Promoters are
A. genes that code for individual proteins.
B. proteins that bind with DNA and preventtranscription.
C. DNA sequences near operons that regulatetranscription.
D. small molecules that bind with repressorproteins.
149. Which is true about species?
A. Reproductive barriers are mechanisms to facilitate interbreeding among different species.
B. Among sexually reproductive organisms, members of one species are reproductively isolated from member
of other species.
C. It is possible for two different species to mate to produce generations of fertile offspring.
D. Members of one biological species are not able to interbreed with each other.
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150. If a large population of bacteria were to be growing on a surface and then one was to clean it with an antibacterial
agent, what would likely be the effect on the gene pool?
A. The surviving population would have less genetic variation.
B. There will be no decrease on the population of bacteria.
C. The bacterial population would dramatically increase in number.
D. The new population of bacteria would diversify in species.
151. The dinosaurs went extinct at the end of the
A. Mesozoic C. Paleozoic
B. Cenozoic D. Pre-Cambrian
152. Which of the following differentiates a eukaryote from a prokaryote?
A. Eukaryote has mitochondria and a prokaryote does not.
B. A eukaryote has no cell membrane and prokaryote has.
C. Eukaryotes are too small compared to prokaryotes.
D. A eukaryote has no nucleus and a prokaryote has.
153. What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
A. A dihybrid cross involves two genes and a monohybrid only one gene.
B. A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
C. A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
D. A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two
generations.
154. How did anthropologists determine that the "Lucy" skeleton comprised the remains of a female?
A. The bones were found in a rudimentary grave and were adorned with jewelry and beads characteristic of
females in that culture.
B. The bones were found with those of an infant.
C. The skull contained a set of third molars, found only in females.
D. The pelvic canal was very large.
155. A fossil species of terrestrial reptile is unearthed from the same time horizon in eastern South America and western
Africa. What is the most likely explanation for the geographic distribution of this species?
A. This species lived during a time when South America and Africa were adjacent regions of a supercontinent.
B. There was a land bridge between South America and Africa when these animals were alive.
C. These reptiles were extremely good swimmers and migrated from Africa to South America.
D. A violent storm washed a mass of floating debris containing a pregnant female of this species into the ocean
off the coast of eastern South America; she found her way to Africa and founded a new population.
156. Which of the following was the most serious obstacle for Darwin's theory?
A. Nobody before Darwin had ever questioned the fixity of species.
B. Malthus's essay on human population growth was inconsistent with one of the conditions for natural
selection.
C. Darwin had very little evidence from nature to support his views.
D. Darwin did not understand the mechanism of inheritance.
157. Genetic drift is a
A. steady movement of individuals (and their genes) from one population to another.
B. change in allele frequencies due to chance events in small populations.
C. natural selection in a peripheral isolate.
D. clinal geographic variation in allele frequencies.
158. Two important events of the Paleozoic Era were
A. development of many diverse types of organisms and a mass extinction.
B. development of the dinosaurs and their sudden extinction.
C. diversification of mammals and appearance of humans.
D. appearance of birds and flowering plants.
159. Which of the following statements describes the cytoplasm?
A. Cytoplasm is made up of hydrophobic molecules.
B. Cytoplasm allows selective permeability of the cell membrane.
C. Cytoplasm is a semi-fluid environment inside the plasma membrane.
D. Cytoplasm is never present in prokaryotic cells but it is present in eukaryotes.
160. Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foodstuffs with a high sugar content hardly ever become contaminated by
bacteria, even when the food containers are left open at room temperature. This is because bacteria that encounter
such an environment
A. undergo death by plasmolysis.
B. are unable to metabolize the glucose or fructose, and thus starve to death.
C. undergo death by lysis.
D. are obligate anaerobes.
161. Which of the following statements is MISTAKENLY stated?
A. Prokaryotic cells do not separate their genetic material within a nucleus.
B. The cell membrane is sometimes called the plasma membrane.
C. Matthias Schleiden concluded that all plants are made of cells.
D. At some point of its life, a cell can exist without the cell membrane.
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162. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but notcytokinesis, the result would be 
a cell with
A. a single large nucleus.
B. high concentrations of actin and myosin.
C. two abnormally small nuclei.
D. two nuclei.
163. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxoldisrupts microtubule formation by 
binding to microtubules and accelerating their assemblyfrom the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mi
tosis. Specifically, taxol mustaffect
A. the fibers of the mitotic spindle.
B. anaphase.
C. formation of the centrioles.
D. chromatid assembly
164. Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A. The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs.
D. During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
165. Why did the improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the stage for the
emergence of modern genetics?
A. It revealed new and unanticipated features of Mendelʹs pea plant varieties.
B. It allowed the study of meiosis and mitosis, revealing parallels between behaviors ofgenes and chromosomes
C. It allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes.
D. It led to the discovery of mitochondria.

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