ALE REVIEWER

ANIMAL SCIENCE

ISBN: 978-971-705-342-4
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
Animal Science
Foreword
Contributors:
Acknowledgement
Alona T. Badua
Irene J. Domingo Tips for those who will take the ALE written exam
Dante D. Lorenzo
Ernesto A. Martin Practice test in Animal Science
Ramon Ceasar DC. Salas
Joice V. San Andres Part I. Anatomy and Physiology

Part II. Genetics and Breeding

Part III. Animal Nutrition

Part IV. Animal Diseases

Part V. Beef Cattle Production

Part VI. Dairy Production

Part VII. Poultry Production

Part VIII. Small Ruminant Production

Part IX. Swine Production

Part X. Slaughtering and Meat Fabrication

Answer Key

Published by:

College of Agriculture
Central Luzon State University
Science City of Munoz, Nueva Ecija, Philippines 3120

TABLE OF CONTENTS Republic of the Philippines

REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 CENTRAL LUZON STATE UNIVERSITY Science City of Munoz, Nueva Ecija
Science City of Munoz, Nueva Ecija

COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE
FOREWORD
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
The College of Agriculture of the Central Luzon State University as “Center of Excellence in
Agriculture Education” and as a National University of College of Agriculture (NUCA) under the NAFES With the forthcoming 2015 ASEAN Integration, the college once more tried its best to publish
system is committed to continue its role to advance agriculture education not only in the country but this set of reviewers for the six subject areas taken in the Agriculturist Licensure Examination (ALE) to
also in the ASEAN region. With the ASEAN integration by 2015 where there will be free flow of goods help graduates of HEIs offering agriculture and related fields to hurdle the said examination.
and services, a comparative advantage of any higher education institution (HEI) must be sustained
compared with our ASEAN neighbors. We must continue to excel and create the difference always. We tried to capture the questions given in the previous ALEs by interviewing our “takers” so
that we can give questions that are more relevant and updated. We revised the format by separating
Considering that board examination is one among the several criteria in the world ranking of the six subject areas into independent ones.
universities, we are not remiss with our duty to help HEIs in the country to alleviate their passing rate,
hence, this reviewer. My sincerest thanks to the Department Chairs who served as coordinators:

With the college continuously revising the reviewer every two years including its format, • Dr. Dante D. Lorenzo – Agricultural Extension Education
current trends like agricultural biotechnology, climate change science, supply value chain and • Dr. Pablo J. Rafael Jr. – Agri-Management
entrepreneurship are often part of it. I am certain that having this reviewer by the graduates of • Dr. Irene J. Domingo – Animal Science
agriculture and related fields will substantially increase their potentials not only the passing of • Dr. Elaida R. Fiegalan – Crop Protection
Agriculturist Licensure Examination (ALE) but also provide an added information and knowledge for
• Dr. Rosemarie T. Tapic – Crop Science
them especially so that not all SUCs have the luxury of acquiring recent publications.
• Dr. Purisima P. Juico – Soil Science
As you go reading the reviewer, always keep in mind that as you put more effort in
To the contributors in each subject area, my deepest gratitude, for without you, we cannot
understanding the questions, the more you can relate to other questions that might be given to you and
have as many questions included in this reviewer; to Asso. Prof. Ma. Pamela DV. Roguel who
you may not know when the results are released, you might already be a part of the top performers. So
continuously followed up the various contributors in the departments, the non academic staffs
have the patience and dedication in going over it.
and the CERDS staff to arrive at this newly formatted and presentable reviewer, my sincerest
appreciation.
Wishing you all the best.
And finally, to all SUCs that patronize our reviewers and by continuously encouraging
their respective graduates to join our board review classes, my deepest gratitude and thanks.
RUBEN C. SEVILLEJA, Ph.D.
President
FEDERICO O. PEREZ, Ph.D.
Dean, College of Agriculture

TIPS FOR THOSE WHO WILL TAKE THE WRITTEN EXAM

Republic of the Philippines
CENTRAL LUZON STATE UNIVERSITY
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
A. General Tips Long Before the Examination D. During the examination
1. Be conscientious while still in the review class. Be prepared. Always read your 1. Try to relax
modules. Do not cram during exams. Participate fully in your review group as 2. Listen to and read instructions carefully.
this will enhance your learning process. 3. Read questions quickly with comprehension.
2. Read as many reference materials as you can related to the areas covered. 4. Do not spend too much time on difficult questions. Answer easy questions
Even reading newspapers, primers and journals may help you be updated on first. Then, go back to difficult ones and try again.
specific topics. 5. Do not leave questions unanswered. Try to answer them using your intuition to
3. Keep your books and notes together so that you have something to review give your best guess.
before the exam. 6. Mark only one answer for each question. If you need to change your answer,
B. Few months before the Examination erase your previous answer completely.
1. Know the scope and coverage of the examination.
2. Prepare for the exam early. Go back to your old books and notes. Review
them by giving more time to areas which you do not know very well.
3. Allot time for regular review of each area.
4. Know and locate the place of your exam as soon as you receive the notice. If
the place is not familiar to you, try to go there in advance.

C. Before and on the day of examination

1. Get ready with everything that you need to take with you early enough before
going to bed.
2. Relax the night before the test. Go to bed early and get a good sleep.
3. Get up early enough to make a leisurely trip to your examination center. Give
lead time for traffic and other unforeseen events.
4. Wear clothes that make you feel comfortable and confident.
5. Locate your examination room.

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PART I. ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 7. It is a cuplike leaflet structure of the heart that allows only blood flows from the ventricle into
the artery and not in the opposite direction.
1. A placenta or afterbirth is delivered soon after birth but it may accompany the fetus or precede a. Atrioventricular valve
it. Another term for afterbirth is b. Sino-atrial valve
a. Trophoblast c. Semilunar valve
b. Extra-embryonic membranes d. Auricular valve
c. Epitheliochorial 8. Digestion of roughages in ruminant happens in the rumen. However in young ruminants, what
d. Yolk sac is the structure that causes milk to bypass the rumen and reticulum and pass through the
2. The cardiovascular system is involved in the transport of oxygen and nutrients to the different omasum directly to the abomasum?
organs of the body. The site of exchange between blood and the interstitial fluid that surrounds a. Esophageal groove
all cells of tissues is called b. Ruminoreticular groove
a. Alveoli c. Ruminant pillar
b. Glomerulus d. Esophageal sphincter
c. Capillaries 9. If a foreign body entered into the body and the body responds by producing circulating
d. Lymph vessels antibodies, this response is called
3. The parasympathetic nervous system is called the craniosacral system because the nerve a. Humoral response
fibers arise from the cranial nerves and sacral portion of the spinal cord. The following are the b. Cellular response
effect of parasympathetic stimulation of a given organ except: c. Immune response
a. Contacts pupils of the eye d. Innate response
b. Dilate blood vessels 10. If an animal had an allergic response, what kind of white blood cells will increase in number in
c. Accelerates heart beat respond to the allergens?
d. Excites gastrointestinal motility a. Neutrophils
4. Estrogen is the female hormone secreted by the ovarian follicle, it is involved in the following b. Lymphocytes
functions except: c. Eosinophils
a. Initiation of sexual receptivity d. Basophils
b. Regulation of secretion of luteinizing hormone 11. Synarthrodial joints are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage. The joint between a tooth and its
c. Promotion of the lobuloalveolar growth in the mammary gland socket is an example of what type of immovable joint?
d. Stimulation of duct growth in the mammary gland a. Sutures
5. The retina is the innermost tunic of the eye which is composed of the light-sensitive cell layer b. Syndesmoses
consisting of the rods and cones. Which of the following is not true about the rods and cones? c. Synchondroses
a. Rods are more sensitive to light than cones d. Gomphosis
b. Cones are responsible for the color vision 12. The peripheral nervous system provides a means of communication from the environment
c. At dusk or when light intensity is low, the cones are sensitive where stimuli are received by receptor organs to the central nervous system and to proper
d. Chemicals in the rods and cones decompose on exposure to light organs in the body, muscles and glands. The spinal nerves are part of the peripheral nervous
6. It is considered as the pacemaker of the heart because the action potential that spontaneously system, what do you call the braid-like arrangements of nerves that supplies the appendages?
developed is propagated around the heart to stimulate action potentials in all myocardial cells a. Commisure
and produce contraction. b. Plexuses
a. Purkinje fibers c. Ganglia
b. Sinoatrial node d. Tracts
c. Atrioventricular node 13. Neurotransmitters are endogenous chemicals which relay, amplify, and modulate signals
d. Diastolic node between a neuron and another cell. The following are example of neurotransmitters except:

REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination

 a. Acetylcholine a. A cryptorchid is likely to be sterile
b. Norepinephrine b. A monorchid could be fertile
c. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) c. Both cryptorchid and monorchid produce testosterone
d. Glycerol d. Both cryptorchid and monorchid could be used as breeders
14. The following are considered functions of the bones except: 21. Animals sometimes hyperventilate or breathe abnormally rapidly, why will this happen?
a. Site for blood formation a. It resulted from a significant increase in blood carbon dioxide concentration
b. Gives rigidity and form to the body b. It resulted from a significant increase in blood oxygen concentration
c. For storing minerals c. It resulted from a significant decrease in blood carbon dioxide concentration
d. Circulation of blood d. None of the above
15. What will happen to a red blood cell when its bathing fluid has lower osmotic pressure than the 22. The mouth is the beginning of the digestive system, and its functions are as follows except:
cell? a. Initial breakdown of food
a. The cell will move b. Used as offensive and defensive weapon
b. The cell will shrink c. Use for grasping mechanism
c. The cell will burst d. For chemical digestion of food
d. The cell will grow 23. Which is not true about the digestive system of chicken?
16. The following statements describe the physiological response of the bone except: a. Prehension is a function of the beak
a. Bone can decrease in size b. The crop serves as temporary storage for food
b. Bone can increase in size c. There are two cecae and no rectum in chicken
c. Bone can undergo repair d. The stomach is divided into a glandular and muscular portion
d. Bone cannot reshape itself 24. There are three processes involved in urine formation, which of the following is not included?
17. Reflex centers are located throughout the central nervous system and are involved with the a. Glomerular filtration
integration of more complex reflexes. When the animal sneeze and cough, the reflex center b. Selective tubular reabsorption
involved in these reactions is the: c. Selective tubular absorption
a. Hypothalamus d. Selective tubular secretion
b. Cerebellum 25. This hormone is involved in the regulation of kidney function by increasing the reabsorption of
c. Medulla oblongata sodium ions to decrease urine volume.
d. Cerebrum a. ADH
18. Which of the following statements does not described the similarities and differences of b. Aldosterone
muscle cells of the body? c. Renin
a. Both skeletal and visceral muscles are striated d. Pitocin
b. All muscle cells are capable of contraction or shortening of cell 26. Spermatids are the cells resulting from the second meiotic division in the seminiferous tubules.
c. Cardiac and visceral muscles are involuntary in action What is the term for series of functional and structural changes undergone by a spermatid to
d. All muscle cells are capable of undergoing hypertrophy become spermatozoa?
19. The respiratory system is a complementary system of the cardiovascular system which is a. Spermatogenesis
involved in the following functions except: b. Spermiogenesis
a. Supplies oxygen to the blood and remove carbon dioxide from the blood c. Acrosome reaction
b. Temperature regulation d. Mitosis
c. Elimination of water 27. Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of fully grown follicles in the ovary?
d. Overcoming diseases a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
20. Which statement is not true about animals whose testis/testes failed to descend into the b. Luteinizing Hormone
scrotum? c. Estrogen

REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination

 d. Progesterone d. Inverse polarization
28. The most important factor associated with seasonal breeding in domestic animals is? 35. Water is the most abundant constituent of the body fluids comprising 60% of the total body
a. Nutritional status of the animals weight. The following statements best described the functions of water except:
b. The specie characteristics a. It functions as a lubricant
c. Photoperiod b. Helps regulate body temperature
d. The age of the animals c. Transport glandular products
29. The following are statements about body temperatures in animals, which is incorrect? d. None of the above
a. Different parts of the body can differ in temperature
b. Animals that are active during the day and sleep at night have body temperatures PART II. GENETICS AND BREEDING
lower in the morning than in the afternoon
c. Mammals and birds can maintain a relatively constant temperature regardless of the 1. The ovum of poultry contains this type of chromosome
temperature of the surroundings a. XY
d. None of the above b. ZZ
30. When an animal is exposed to extreme environmental heat, which is not a physiologic c. ZW
response of its body? d. XX
a. There will be vasodilation 2. Which type of intraallelic gene action is applied when a black coat (dominant) color Angus
b. There will be vasoconstriction cattle is crossed with a red coat (recessive) color, resulting to a heterozygous black color
c. There will be an increase in evaporation loss like sweating and panting offspring?
d. All of the above a. Complete dominance
31. The epididymis is a male structure with the following functions except: b. Incomplete dominance
a. Serves as storage space for spermatozoa c. Overdominance
b. Reabsorbs seminiferous tubular fluid d. Epistasis
c. Site of maturation for spermatozoa 3. The type of gene action which involve non-allelic interaction of genes with complementary or
d. None of the above inhibitory effects
32. The S-shape structure in the penis is called the sigmoid flexure. Erection causes extension of a. Epistasis
this structure. Sigmoid flexure is located pre-scrotally in what male animal? b. Crossing
a. Boar c. Overdominance
b. Stallion d. Complete dominance
c. Bull 4. A cross made when an F1 progeny or offspring is mated back to either of the parental
d. Ram genotypes is called
33. Ventilation is the process by which air is moved in and out of the lungs. The volume of air that a. Test cross
moved during each breath is known as b. Trihybrid cross
a. Residual volume c. Back cross
b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume d. Dihybrid
c. Tidal Volume 5. What type of breeding is applies when a native doe is mated with an Anglo-Nubian buck?
d. Respiratory Volume a. Upgrading
34. The influx of sodium ions inside the nerve cell results to _________ of the resting membrane b. Inbreeding
potential c. Backcrossing
a. Polarization d. Line breeding
b. Depolarization 6. Broiler chicken originated from crossing these two breeds of chicken
c. Hyperpolarization a. Cornish and White Rock

REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination

 b. Cornish and Rhode Island Red 14. A progeny of crossing between different species
c. White Rock and Rhode Island Red a. Hybrid
d. Brahmas and Cochin b. Cross
7. The average superiority of the crossbreds of offspring compared to the average of their c. Mutant
parents is called ______. d. Hybrid vigor
a. Heritability estimate 15. The method of crossing wherein the first generation crosses are mated with their parents:
b. Heterosis a. Back cross
c. Repeatability estimate b. Criss-cross
d. None of the above c. Upgrade
8. If the heritability estimate is 20%, this means that 80% of the trait expression is d. Cross breeding
a. Inherited 16. An abnormal condition affecting reproduction wherein female twin in mixed sexed twins occur
b. Repeated throughout its life a. Pre-martin
c. The improved environmental factor b. Free-martin
d. Transfer to offspring c. Mixed twins
9. The egg production of layer which is 90% was consistent throughout their laying period layers, d. Martins
this shows the: 17. In the selection of breed, this trait is the aptitude to tolerate the environmental conditions
a. Heritability estimate without drop in egg production
b. Heterosis a. Hardiness high productivity
c. Repeatability estimate b. Low feed consumption
d. Inherited estimate c. Product quality
10. Breeding of animals is done to attain the following except: d. None of these
a. Increase the number of animals 18. Which among the following animal traits has the most important influence on animal selection
b. Improve the efficiency of the animals and environmental impact which is highly considered by animal breeders at present?
c. Improve the quality of animals and its products a. Litter size
d. Choose the desirable animals for the next generation b. Mothering ability
11. The manner by which the genetic information is transmitted from parents to offspring is c. Feed conversion efficiency
through d. Growth rate
a. Somatic 19. The economic trait in pigs that can be associated to feed efficiency
b. Germinal a. Litter size
c. Gonadal b. Growth rate
d. Autosomes c. Back fat thickness
12. If a Holstein Friesian is mated with a Red Sindhi, the resulting offspring is a/an d. Birth weight
a. Inbred 20. The top of the line parent stock, which is usually the top 2% from an intensely selected
b. Upgraded population is
c. Crossbred a. Purebreds
d. None of the above b. Grandparent stocks
13. The progeny of two different breeds or strains belonging to a single species is called _____. c. Great grandparent stocks
a. Cross d. Crossbred
b. Hybrid
c. Strain
d. Inbreed

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PART III. ANIMAL NUTRITION c. Animal protein sources have generally higher protein quality than plant protein
sources
1. Nutrients are used in animal’s body for this purpose: d. None of the above
a. Synthesis of muscles and bones 8. How much each of rice bran (RB: 12% CP) and soybean mean (SBM: 47%CP) is needed for a
b. Heat production, work and fat deposition dietary mixture with 16% crude protein?
c. Regulation of body processes a. RB 88.60% & SBM 11.40%
d. All of the above b. RB 50% & SBM 50%
2. Lipids or fats and oils are dietary essential because of this function: c. RB 75% & SBM 25%
a. Without them water soluble vitamins cannot be used by animals d. RB 11.40% & SBM 88.60%
b. Animals need it for the formation of regulatory hormones 9. A diet is deficient in protein. How much fish meal (65% CP) is needed to correct the 2.0%
c. They supply concentrated amount of energy to the animal crude protein deficiency?
d. All except item a a. 3.08%
3. Which statement depicts biologically essential mineral? b. 30.80%
a. Active part of body structure c. 0.30%
b. Activator of enzymes d. 0.03%
c. Causes specific deficiency symptom which can be cured by providing source of the 10. A feed was analyzed to contain 3% nitrogen. How much crude protein does the feed contains?
mineral a. 18.75%
d. All of the above b. 19.50%
4. The new science of nutrigenomics deals with ________. c. 20.00%
a. Study of how different feeds may interact with specific genes to increase the risk of d. N
some diseases 11. This toxic factor in ipil-ipil leaf meal causes alopecia
b. Exploration of the relationship between genetic makeup of individual and nutrients in a. Mimosine
certain foods that may assist in the prevention of specific diseases b. Hydrocyanic acid
c. Development of feeds that can be matched to individual genotypes to benefit the c. Anti-trypsin factor
health of individuals and enhance normal physiological processes d. Gossypol
d. All of the above 12. An animal protein containing 80-85% CP but low in isoleucine. It is commonly used as bypass
5. Nutrient is a feed constituent or group of feed constituents that aids in the support of life, such protein in ruminants
as a. Blood meal
a. Chemically synthesized vitamins b. Fish meal
b. Chemically produced inorganic salts such as ZnO and MgSO4 c. Feather meal
c. Naturally occurring sugar, starch, cellulose and gums d. Squid meal
d. All of the above 13. A macro mineral found in amino acids cytine and methionine and in vitamins biotin and
6. Which of the following minerals occur largely in the fluids and tissues to maintain osmotic thiamine
pressure and acid-based equilibrium? a. Sulfur
a. Na, K and Cl b. Magnesium
b. Na, P and Cl c. Phosphorus
c. Na, Cl and Mn d. None of the above
d. All of the above 14. The ideal ratio of calcium and phosphorus in the diet for monogastric animals
7. Which of the following is not true a. 1:1 – 2:1
a. Fish meal has higher protein quality than soybean meal b. 2:1 – 3:1
b. Skim milk has higher protein quality than soybean meal c. 1:2 -2:3

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 d. None of the above c. Starch
15. Vitamin K functions in the blood coagulation system such as ________. d. Lignin
a. Synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clothing factor 23. The sweetest monosaccharide is
b. Degradation of prothrombin and other clothing factors a. Fructose
c. Prevents synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors b. Glucose
d. Synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors c. Galactose
16. The process of digestion is accomplished through this activity: d. Xylose
a. Mastication and muscular contraction of the gastro-intestinal tract 24. Rice bran is a feedstuff that contains high amount of organic phosphorus called __________.
b. Chemical processes such as action of HCL produced in the gastro-intestinal tract a. Phytin phosphorus
c. Enzymatic action produced by bacteria located in the cecum b. Phosphoric acid
d. All of the above c. Phytate
17. Proper nutrition practice is essential in growing animals. This requires ___________. d. a and b
a. Providing the essential chemical elements for life 25. This feed is derived from processing of corn grain into ethanol
b. Providing sources of substances/ elements that function in vivo as antioxidant a. Distiller’s dried grain with soluble
c. Providing feed that provides fiber for the maintenance of gut mucosa b. Yeast culture extract
d. All of the above c. Corn germ meal
18. Diet is a preparation with this following composition: d. Corn grits
a. Composed of individual feed selected to make balance ration 26. Which of the following plant protein sources has the highest nutritive value?
b. Also known as mixed feed a. Soybean meal
c. Also known as formula feed b. Corn gluten meal
d. All of the above c. Peanut meal
19. Which fat soluble vitamin can be synthesized by the microflora of the digestive system of d. Ipil-ipil meal
herbivores? 27. The toxic compound found is cassava is
a. K a. Hydrocyanic acid
b. A b. Hydrochloric acid
c. D c. Volatile fatty acid
d. E d. Pyruvic acid
20. The recommended inclusion rate of a feed enzyme is 2kg per ton of diet. How much enzyme is 28. A micromineral which is essential for the formation of enzymes related to oxygen transport and
needed for a 200kg diet? utilization.
a. 0.40 kg a. Fe
b. 400 kg b. Mn
c. 400,000 mg c. I
d. All of the above d. Zn
21. Which of the following lipids contain saturated fatty acids? 29. Choline deficiency causes this condition in animals:
a. Corn oil a. Slipped tendons in chickens and turkey
b. Tallow b. Goose stepping in swine
c. Fish oil c. Cracked hooves in swine
d. a and c d. Poor appetite
22. The most digestible polysaccharide is 30. This vitamin contains cyanide group attached to cobaltatom
a. Hemicellulose a. B1
b. Cellulose b. B2
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 c. B6 PART IV. ANIMAL DISEASES
d. B12
31. Feed additives are important component of animal rations because of this role: 1. Zoonotic diseases are animal diseases that could be transferred to humans. Which of the
a. They provide extra nutrient for the animal following is not considered as a zoonotic disease?
b. Their use guarantee production performance a. Tuberculosis
c. Some helps minimizing pollution of the environment from animal wastes b. Anthrax
d. None of the above c. Infectious Bursal Disease
32. Lipids are made up of carbons, hydrogen and oxygen. They release more energy upon d. Rabies
oxidation because of this characteristic. 2. Pullorum disease is also called Bacillary White Diarrhea in poultry. This is chiefly transmitted
a. Oxygen comprises much smaller proportion of the molecule than its counterpart directly through the egg but also by direct or indirect contact. This disease is best prevented
b. Oxygen comprises greater percentage of the molecule than its counterpart by
c. There are three molecule of fatty acids a. Use of antibiotics
d. The glycerol component also yield energy b. Vaccination
33. Storage of bran and rice polishing is difficult because of this component/ condition: c. Routine testing of breeding stock
a. High oil content d. All of the above
b. High silica of hull 3. Which of the following swine diseases exclusively affects only pigs?
c. To fine to become dusty a. Foot and Mouth Disease
d. Bulkiness of the stuff b. Pseudorabies
34. Kapok seeds cannot be fed for monogastric due to tannin. Kapok is known scientifically as: c. Hog Cholera
a. Helianthus anus d. Tetanus
b. Henea brasiliensis 4. Which of the following endoparasites is transmitted prenatally?
c. Ceiba pentandra a. Strongyloides ransomi
d. Arachis hypogeal b. Ascaris suis
35. Which of the following about water is not correct? c. Trichuis suis
a. The cheapest nutrient d. Dioctophyma renale
b. Need of water is more critical than that for minerals 5. Trichuis suis is a whipworm of pig and the adult worm could be located in the
c. Requirement of animals for nutrients can be obtained from metabolic water a. Liver
d. Water has low specific heat b. Small intestine
c. Cecum
d. Stomach
6. Infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms and could be classified as contagious or
non-contagious. Which of the following disease is considered as non-contagious infectious
disease?
a. Hog cholera
b. Tetanus
c. Pseudorabies
d. Tuberculosis
7. Surra is a protozoan disease of horse and ruminants which is commonly transmitted by biting
flies. It causes intermittent fever and anemia, and the causative agent for this disease is
______.
a. Trypanosoma evansi

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 b. Trypanosoma cruzi 15. A reactive defense of the body that results from increase in body temperature brought by the
c. Trypanosome equiperdum presence of microorganisms in the body of the animal is termed
d. Trypanosome brucei a. Hypothermia
8. The disease condition cause by lice in animals is known as b. Fever
a. Pediculosis c. Hyperthermia
b. Mange d. Chill
c. Dermatitis 16. Toxoid is the recommended preventive measure for Tetanus in pigs, ruminants and horses.
d. Surra Giving of toxoid will confer what type if immunity?
9. Coccidiosis is common in chicken and can cause decreased growth rate to high percentage of a. Natural passive immunity
sick birds, severe diarrhea and high mortality. The causative agent of this disease is b. Natural active immunity
a. Roundworm c. Artificial passive immunity
b. Flatworm d. Artificial active immunity
c. Bacteria 17. Which of the following animals is most sensitive to the neurotoxin produced by clostridium
d. Protozoa tetani?
10. Which of these could be considered both as an antiseptic and disinfectant? a. Chicken
a. Ethyl alcohol b. Horse
b. Cresol c. Dog
c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Pig
d. Formalin 18. Fowl pox is a common disease of chicken which is characterized by proliferative lesions in the
11. This nutritional deficiency cause rickets in young and osteomalacia in adults skin that progress to thick scabs and by lesions in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory
a. Vitamin A deficiency tract. Which of the following is not vaccinated against fowl pox?
b. Vitamin D deficiency a. Layers
c. Vitamin E deficiency b. Broilers
d. Vitamin K deficiency c. Breeders
12. This disinfectant is often used to cover dead carcasses that are buried d. None of the above
a. Phenol 19. Newcastle Disease vaccine LaSota is given to chicks using this route of administration
b. Chlorine a. Intraocular
c. Quicklime b. Wing web
d. Formalin c. Intramuscular
13. Parturient paresis in cattle is treated by giving calcium gluconate, which is best given through d. Subcutaneous
this route: 20. Non-infectious diseases are those diseases not cause by microorganisms, which of those
a. Intramuscular listed below is not a non-infectious disease?
b. Subcutaneous a. Fracture
c. Intravenous b. Snake bite
d. Orally c. Hernia
14. This hormonal disease is caused by the absence or lack of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) d. None of the above
a. Diabetes insipidus 21. Which of the following diseases could be hereditary acquired?
b. Diabetes mellitus a. Scrotal hernia
c. Goiter b. Diabetes insipidus
d. Pernicious anemia c. White muscle disease
d. Rickets

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 22. Mosquitos could cause severe annoyance and blood loss in livestock, the house mosquito is d. Every 5 years
also known as 4. In beef cattle breeding, the recommended bull to cow ratio under normal situation is:
a. Anopheles gambiae a. 1:20
b. Culex pipiens b. 1:30
c. Aedes aegypti c. 1:40
d. Psorophora columbiae d. 1:50
23. The following are the harmful effects of ticks to poultry and livestock except 5. The distinguishing features of Philippine carabao are the two diagonal stripes on its brisket. It
a. Local irritation is known as:
b. Blood loss a. Chevon
c. Can cause paralysis b. Chevron
d. None of the above c. Stripes
24. The infective stage of Fasciola gigantica in ruminants is the: d. Liners
a. Miracidium 6. The total number of animals carried per unit of pasture and it is measured in terms of animal
b. Rediae unit is ________.
c. Metacercaria a. Stocking rate
d. Cercaria b. Grazing pressure
25. Haemonchus contortus is a common roundworm that causes severe anemia in ruminants. c. Stocking density
This endoparasite is found in: d. General herd
a. Rumen 7. To consider as good silage, the proper pH of the ensiling materials should be within this range:
b. Small intestine a. 4.2 – 4.5
c. Abomasum b. 3.2 – 3.5
d. Cecum c. 5.2 – 5.5
d. 3.0 – 4.0
PART V. BEEF CATTLE PRODUCTION 8. A good silage should contain how many percent lactic acid?
a. 5-9 %
1. In a cow-calf operation, the standard weaning weight of Brahman and its crosses is: b. 10-15 %
a. 125 kg c. 1-5 %
b. 150 kg d. 15-20%
c. 175 kg 9. In cattle housing, what is the recommended height of the ceiling so the animals are more or
d. 200 kg less comfortable?
2. Culling is an effective tool in removing the undesirable animals. The recommended rebreeding a. 3-3.5 m
time before a cow must be culled is: b. 5 m
a. 2 times c. 8 m
b. 3 times d. 5-10 m
c. 4 times 10. For beef cattle shed or barn, what is the proper space requirement of yearling?
d. 5 times a. 3-4 sq. m
3. Under continuous breeding program in beef cattle production, bull culling should be done b. 2-3 sq.m
using this frequency: c. 4-5 sq.m
a. Yearly d. 1-2 sq.m
b. Every 2 years 11. In cattle feeding, the percent dry matter requirement of feedlot cattle based on its body weight
c. Every 4 years is
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 a. 2.5% 19. It is a tropical breed of beef cattle:
b. 2.0% a. Brahman
c. 3% b. Chianina
d. 1.5% c. Charolais
12. The extensive system of beef cattle/ buffalo production is also popularly known as d. Hereford
a. Ranching 20. Usually the weaning weight of Brahman and its crosses is:
b. Cow-calf a. 125 kg
c. Feedlot fattening b. 150 kg
d. Backyard system c. 175 kg
13. Stocking rate is measured in terms of animal unit. What is the A.U. equivalent to how many d. 200 kg
kilograms? 21. Estrus cycle is the gap or length of time between two estrus period, the average estrus cycle
a. 1.0 A.U. of Murrah buffalo is:
b. 0.75 A.U. a. 21 days
c. 0.5 A.U. b. 30 days
d. 0.25 A.U. c. 25 days
14. To measure carrying capacity of pasture, usually one animal unit is equivalent to how many d. 45 days
kilograms? 22. This ensure the appropriate nutrition of the various age groups of the herd:
a. 300 kg a. Herd division
b. 250 kg b. Herd management
c. 275 kg c. Nutritional requirement
d. 325 kg d. None of the above
15. In beef/ buffalo production, one of the improved grasses used as forage in cattle feeding is: 23. The most common and legal means of identifying beef cattle ownership is by this method:
a. Napier a. Hide branding
b. Centrosema b. Horn branding
c. Siratro c. Earnotching
d. Calopogonium d. Tattooing
16. In buffalo production, what breed is a good example of swamp type? 24. It is the roughage dry matter requirement of a 400 kg mature cattle with a roughage to
a. Draft type concentrate ratio of 80:20:
b. Philippine carabao a. 6.4 kg
c. Bulgarian b. 8.4 kg
d. Nili-ravi c. 7.4 kg
17. Paragrass is improved forage, what is its scientific name? d. None of the above
a. Brachiara mutica 25. For pasture management, what is the total number of vegetative planting materials needed for
b. Brachiara decumbens 1 ha. if the distance between furrows is 0.7 m and 0.5 m between hills.
c. Brachiara ruziziensis a. 20,000
d. Panicum maximum b. 25,000
18. Siratro is an improved legume, what is its scientific name? c. 20,666
a. Macroptilium atropurpureum d. 26,666
b. Centrocema pubescens 26. The scientific name of Aurochs is:
c. Arachis pintoi a. Bos auros
d. Desmanthus virgatus b. Bos longifrons
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 c. Bos Taurus 4. A criterion for judging dairy cows based on its milking ability, lactation and health
d. Bos premigenus characteristics
27. The 997,000 hectare Philippine pasture land can support this number of animal unit: a. General appearance
a. 500,000 A.U. b. Dairy character
b. 5,000 A.U. c. Body character
c. 500 A.U. d. Mammary system
d. None of the above 5. A condition in mammals particularly buffalos wherein behavioral manifestation of heat is
28. The commercial cow-calf operation of the country are located in this province: absent although the animal undergoes ovulation
a. Pangasinan a. Anestrus
b. Masbate b. Diestrus
c. Bukidnon c. Silent estrus
d. All of the above d. None of the above
29. The total agricultural lands devoted to crops of the country like the riceland, cornland, coconut 6. Colostrum is richer of the following nutrients than the normal milk
farming, etc. can support this number of animal unit: a. Total protein, albumin, ash, and lactose
a. 10 M A.U. b. Total solid, lactose, fat and total protein
b. 12 M A.U. c. Albumin, globulin, casein and lactose
c. 11 M A.U. d. Total solid, protein, vitamin and minerals
d. None of the above 7. Challenge feeding as a form of feeding management applied on dairy cows involves this
30. Herd division is merely grouping the cattle/ buffalo according to this condition activity:
a. Age a. Feeding of high quality forage
b. Purpose b. Limiting the feeding of energy-rich feeds
c. Size c. Ad libitum feeding of concentrate and forage
d. All of the above d. Limited feeding of concentrate and forage
8. A dairy cattle breed which is also known as the black and white cattle.
PART VI. DAIRY PRODUCTION a. Jersey
b. Holstein Friesian
1. The type of antibodies present in colostrum c. Dalmatian
a. Penicillin d. Angus x Charolais breed
b. Albumin 9. It is responsible sometimes for the goaty flavor of goat’s milk
c. Immune-globulin a. Capric and caproic acids
d. All of the above b. Buck taint
2. Milk is considered as a complete food. However, it is not rich in this mineral c. Silage and some weeds
a. Iron d. All of the above
b. Zinc 10. Cells found in alveoli of the mammary gland which is responsible in the secretion of milk.
c. Calcium a. Myo-epithelial cells
d. Phosphorus b. Epithelial cells
3. It is a volatile fatty acid necessary in the synthesis of milk fat c. Milk cells
a. Butyric acid d. None of the above
b. Propionic acid 11. A disease commonly affecting the udder of dairy cows.
c. Acetic acid a. Meningitis
d. Capric acid b. Agalactia
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 c. Mastitis a. Vein
d. Mammilities b. Connective tissue
12. The hormone responsible in the secretion of milk initiated before or at parturition and becomes c. Artery
a continuous process during lactation d. All of the above
a. Oxytocin 20. There are several types of milk commercially available in the market. This milk is also known
b. Prolactin as non-fat milk.
c. Lagtogen a. Whole milk
d. Somatotropin b. Skim milk
13. A contractile tissue covering the surface of the alveoli that forces the milk from the gland c. Low fat milk
during the milk let-down process. d. None of the above
a. Myo-epithelial cells 21. It is the process of standardizing reconstituted milk with butter oil.
b. Epithelial cells a. Reconstitution
c. Sphincter muscles b. Recombination
d. Gland cistern c. Homogenization
14. The end product in the fermentation of lactose d. Standardization
a. Galactic acid 22. A modified skin gland that secretes milk is _____.
b. Lactic acid a. Alveolus
c. Acetic acid b. Paunch
d. None of the above c. Udder
15. A life sustaining fluid intended especially for newly-borne mammals d. Teat
a. Plasma 23. The butter contains several vitamins. These are:
b. Lactose a. A, D, E, and K
c. Milk b. B-complex
d. Mineral water c. Water soluble vitamins
16. A type of milk protein which is a by-product in cheese making. d. All of the above
a. Buttermilk 24. Cheese is rich with the following protein:
b. Cheese crumbs a. Amino acid
c. Whey b. Whey
d. Casein c. Casein
17. The term used indicating nervous reflex on the udder produced by various stimuli resulting in d. None of the above
milk ejection from the alveoli 25. Cheese from goat’s milk is popularly known as
a. Milk ejection reflex a. Chevre
b. Milk let-down b. Mozzarella
c. Neurohormonal reflex of milk ejection c. Roquefort
d. All of the above d. Brie
18. The absence of milk in the udder following parturition is called _________.
a. Mastitis
b. Mammilities
c. Agalactia
d. None of the above
19. It is responsible in transporting the nutrients and oxygen into the mammary system.
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PART VII. POULTRY PRODUCTION b. 18 %
c. 16 %
1. A commercial strain of female egg-type chicken, 16 weeks of age is called d. 22 %
a. Ready to lay pullet 9. Starter mash for quail should have this crude protein content for proper growth.
b. New layer a. 18%
c. Hen b. 20%
d. All of the above c. 22%
2. Which of the following is correct regarding the incubation period of poultry species? d. 24%
a. Chicken egg hatches at 21 days 10. Eggshell color varies with breeds. The color of egg shell is due to ________.
b. Quail egg hatches at 18 days a. Ooporphyrin
c. Mallard duck egg hatches at 35 days b. Xanthophyll
d. All of the above c. Melanin
3. How much is the amount of feed consumed by a broiler with a body weight of 1.6 kg and feed d. Hemoglobin
conversion ratio of 1.70? 11. Which pf the following is the cause of soft-shelled egg?
a. 2.72 kg a. Dietary calcium deficiency
b. 3.80 kg b. High ambient temperature
c. 3.0 kg c. Premature oviposition
d. None of the above d. All of the above
4. Which of the following values for feed conversion ratio is regarded as most efficient? 12. Fertilization is the union of the sperm cell and egg cell. The section of the bird’s oviduct where
a. 2.00 fertilization of ovum takes place:
b. 1.80 a. Magnum
c. 1.70 b. Isthmus
d. 1.60 c. Infundibulum
5. The scientific name of Hybro G is d. Vagina
a. Meleagridis gallopavo 13. The type of poultry house being recommended to mitigate the adverse effects of climate
b. Coturnix coturnix change is:
c. Gallus gallus a. Tunnel ventilated house
d. Gallus domesticus b. Open-sided house
6. The recommended photo period for growing pullets to delay sexual maturity is: c. Slat-floor house
a. 16-18 hrs a day d. Litter-floor house
b. 24 hrs a day 14. The total production of 340 eggs in one production period is possible with the use of this
c. 12-14 hrs a day modern strains of chickens:
d. 10 hrs a day a. Dekalb
7. The floor space requirement of broilers grown in houses with elevated floor until market age is b. Starbro
__________. c. Cobb 500
a. 10 sq. ft/10 birds d. Hybro G
b. 2.0 sq. ft per bird 15. The total feed consumption of a broiler chicken with a feed conversion ratio of 1.80 and body
c. 10 sq. meters / 20 birds weight of 1.7 kg at 32 days of age is _____________.
d. All of the above a. 3.06 kg c. 3.00 kg
8. The percent protein present in chicken grower diet is: b. 3.60 kg d. 4.00 kg
a. 20 %
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
16. A hen needs 18 g of protein per day for body maintenance and egg production, how much 24. A poultry species having 40 pairs of chromosomes.
feed with 16 crude proteins is needed to support this a. Duck
a. 112.5 g b. Geese
b. 112.5 kg c. Turkey
c. 112.5 mg d. All of these
d. None of the above 25. Young chicks with mixed population of male and female are called _________.
17. Chicks are subjected to brooding because of this condition: a. Straight-run chicks
a. Down cannot keep them comfortably warm b. Sexed chicks
b. Oxygen consumption per unit time is low c. Birds in the downy stage
c. Their capacity to metabolize nutrient is low d. All of the above
d. None of the above 26. The recommended floor space for 100 adult broiler chicken is:
18. Which of the following is used as an indicator of point of sexual maturity of a flock of pullets? a. 10 sq. ft
a. Fully developed comb b. 100 sq. ft
b. An egg collected c. 1.0 sq. ft
c. When they started to crow d. 10 sq. ft
d. None of the above 27. The daily water requirement of 100 broiler chicks can be provided using a drinking fountain
19. The range of the annual egg production of native chicken is: with this capacity:
a. 50-60 eggs a. 1 gallon
b. 100-150 eggs b. 3.78 liters
c. 200-240 eggs c. 3780 cc
d. 260-280 eggs d. All of the above
20. Young domestic ostrich in the downy stage is called _____________. 28. A breed of chicken which is popularly used as male line for breeding meat-type chicken
a. Chick a. Cornish
b. Poult b. Leghorn
c. Keet c. Hampshire
d. Gosling d. Plymouth rock
21. A male fowl one year old or over is termed as: 29. A native chicken found in the Visayas which is famous for its taste.
a. Cob a. Bolinao
b. Gobbler b. Camarines
c. Cock c. Paraokan
d. Drake d. Darag
22. Unsexed female fowl is known as: 30. The group of quails is known as
a. Capon a. Colony
b. Pullet b. Covey
c. Poulard c. Company
d. Poult d. Brood
23. A poultry species having 39 pairs of chromosomes
a. Chicken
b. Quail
c. Guinea fowl
d. All of these
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
PART VIII. SMALL RUMINANT PRODUCTION 9. The prehensile organ of goat is ____.
a. Lips
1. The range of mature weight of a native goat: b. Mouth
a. 20-25 kg c. Tongue
b. 15-20 kg d. Teeth
c. 20-30 kg 10. The daily clean water consumption of a mature goat is:
d. 30-40 kg a. 1.5 liters
2. The chromosome number of goat is ________. b. 2 liters
a. 54 c. 2.5 liters
b. 60 d. 3 liters
c. 64 11. The other term for female goat is ___________.
d. 72 a. Nanny
3. The latest breed of goat in the Philippines is: b. Jenny
a. Anglo-Nubian c. Kelly
b. Saanen d. Golly
c. Boer 12. It is the computed daily feed intake of a 50 kg goat fed with grasses having 20% dry matter
d. Kiko content.
4. A breed of goat characterized with long pendulous ears and distinct Roman nose. a. 6.5 kg
a. Boer b. 7.0 kg
b. Anglo-Nubian c. 8.5 kg
c. Toggenburg d. None of these
d. Kambing kajang 13. The commonly recommended buck to doe ratio is _____________.
5. Parturition in sheep is usually termed as: a. 1:1
a. Sheeping b. 1:25
b. Lambing c. 1:100
c. Darling d. 1:50
d. Ewing 14. Goats that are introduced from a temperate condition to a tropical condition is _________ to
6. The queen of dairy goat is called _______. heat stress and so management practices should be applied to ___________ metabolic heat
a. Alpine production in the animal’s body.
b. Toggenburg a. Highly susceptible/ minimize
c. Saanen b. Highly susceptible/ maximize
d. Kiko c. Less susceptible/ minimize
7. The castrated ram is called _______. d. Less susceptible/ maximize
a. Wether 15. Kid’s milk requirement should be calculated at ______________ of its body weight.
b. Fether a. 2 to 14%
c. Bether b. 4 to 6%
d. Rather c. 2 to 3%
8. The meat of sheep is called ______. d. 8 to 10%
a. Lapan 16. Overgrown hooves must be removed to prevent foot rotting. The process is called _____.
b. Chevrons a. Hoof removal
c. Mutton b. Hoof trimming
d. Chevon c. Nail cutting
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 d. Pedicuring c. 205 does
17. A biotechnology that uses follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) to induce release of ova from the d. 210 does
ovary. 25. What is the roughage concentrate feeding ratio of goats that are intended for fattening?
a. Ovum pick-up a. 50:50
b. Multiple ovulation b. 80:20
c. Semen sexing c. 60:40
d. Embryo transfer d. 40:60
18. A dehorning practice that uses an acid-based liquid to prevent growth of the horn
a. Hot iron cautery PART IX. SWINE PRODUCTION
b. Freeze cautery
c. Surgical method 1. Cooked pork contains about 23% protein. How many grams of cooked pork is needed to
d. Caustic method satisfy 50% of the 35g daily protein allowance a person should consume?
19. What is the feeding behavior of goats? a. 55 g
a. Scavenger b. 64 g
b. Browser c. 76 g
c. Grazer d. 98 g
d. Trouser 2. Growth does not only involve increase in size and weight but also changes in the organs. The
20. All are examples of leguminous forage specie except __________. first to reach full development in the pig’s body is:
a. Arachis pintoii a. Adipose tissue
b. Panicum maximum b. Skeletal system
c. Styosanthes guianensis c. Lean muscle\
d. Desmodium cineria d. Reproductive organs
21. The recommended breeding age and body weight of medium- to large-built goats. 3. A sow bred on 25 March can be expected to farrow on what specific date listed below?
a. 6 to 8 mos/ 15 to 20 kg a. 10 July
b. 5 to 6 mos/ 15 to 20 kg b. 17 July
c. 8 mos to 1 year / 25 to 30 kg c. 21 July
d. 6 to 8 mos / 25 to 30 kg d. 28 July
22. The computed biomass of one hectare napier plantation with a herbage yield of 2.5 kg/ sq. m. 4. Segregated early weaning of piglets allows the advantage of
is _________. a. Increased reproductive rate of sows
a. 25 tons b. Reduced risk of piglet infection and mortality
b. 25,000 kg c. Lower feed cost
c. 25,000 tons d. Faster growth rate
d. 2.5 lbs 5. Mothering ability of a sow is measured by the number of
23. All are examples of leguminous forage species except ___________. a. Piglets born alive per sow per year
a. Samanea saman b. Piglets weaned per sow per year
b. Flemingia macrophylla c. Piglets reared per sow per year
c. Desmanthus virgattus d. Fatteners sold per sow per year
d. Cynodon plechtostachyus
6. When pigs have high tendency to have thick carcass fat they tend to:
24. If conception rate is 95% and kidding rate is 80%, how many goats will give birth in a 273 does
a. Have high feed conversion ratio
breeding herd?
b. Reach market weight fast
a. 207 does
c. Resist heat stress effectively
b. 200 does
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 d. Have high lean percentage b. Age at successful mating
7. Reproductive longevity starts from first mating to last weaning. Gilts expected to have good c. First litter size
reproductive longevity must possess this characteristic: d. Ability to be successfully bred
a. At least 14 functional teats 15. Flushing increases the plasma levels of this hormone:
b. Long, wedge-shaped body a. FSH
c. Strong legs and arched back b. LH
d. Well-developed ham and shoulder c. Progesterone
8. The physical attributes of a gilt that can describe its potential for mothering ability are: d. Estrogen
a. Legs and back 16. Excessive restriction before and after the first few days of farrowing can cause excessive sow
b. Mammary system and body length ____________.
c. Development of ham, loin and shoulder a. Excitement
d. Shape and size of vulva b. Stress
9. In the process of upgrading, heterosis is expected to be highest in c. Hunger
a. F1 50:50 d. Malnutrition resulting to an increase in piglet’s death by crushing
b. F2 75:25 17. Small piglets are prone to this condition:
c. F3 87.5:12.5 a. Hyperthermia
d. All equal b. Hypothermia
10. The following are factors that influence puberty except c. Hypoxia
a. Stimulation by a boar d. Anorexia because of smaller surface to body ratio
b. Adding new pen mates 18. After _______ the newly born piglet is incapable of absorbing immunoglobin thus exposing
c. New animal handlers them to a high risk of infection or diseases if they are not provided immediately the colostrum
d. Breed a. 48 hours
11. False heat occurs in gilts after transport when they are above this age: b. 58 hours
a. 200 days old c. 68 hours
b. 175 days old d. 78 hours
c. 150 days old 19. What happens if there is frequent changing on the position of the sow?
d. 125 days old a. It can result to crushing
12. A good parent stock should produce an offspring that has an average daily gain of more than b. It will increase feed intake
this weight: c. There is exhaustion of energy
a. 550 grams d. It will decrease feed intake
b. 650 grams 20. The minimum required sperm count per inseminate is 3 billion. A 300 ml ejaculate with a
c. 700 grams concentration of 200 million sperm cells per ml can produce how many inseminates?
d. 750 grams a. 15 doses
13. When there is delayed parturition, the piglet will suffer from lack of oxygen. This condition is b. 18 doses
termed as: c. 20 doses
a. Hypoxia d. 23 doses
b. Anorexia
c. Anemia 21. Shelf life of a processed boar semen for artificial insemination can be prolonged by storing at
d. Toxemia this temperature at approximately 40 hours after the onset of estrus
14. Gilt productivity is influenced by the following factors except a. 2-8 ◦c
a. Boar exposure b. 10-14◦C

REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination

 c. 16-17◦C 29. A sow apparently is having difficulty in farrowing. The appropriate assistance to the sow to
d. 20◦C undertake is:
22. Optimum conception is achieved if insemination is performed 12 hours before ovulation or a. Administer oxytocin to enhance contraction of the uterus
a. 14 hours after onset of estrus b. Check for obstruction in the birth canal
b. 22 hours after onset of estrus c. Leave the sow alone
c. 28 hours after onset of estrus d. Allow the sow to stand
d. 32 hours after onset of estrus 30. From 15 to 90 kg body weight a fattener with 750 g ADG will reach end weight by how many
23. A sow was served by artificial insemination. At what stage can it be assumed pregnant? days
a. Missed heat period after 3 weeks a. 90
b. Absence of estrus after 2nd heat control or day 42 after mating b. 100
c. Markedly gained weight c. 110
d. Mammary system enlarge and milk is secreted d. 120
24. Early introduction of solid diet to suckling piglets is primarily intended to:
a. Augment feed intake of piglets PART X. SLAUGHTERING AND MEAT FABRICATION
b. Allow early weaning to increase reproductive rate of the sow
c. Ensure heavy piglets at weaning 1. Which is not a principle being followed in meat fabrication?
d. Prevent loss of body condition of the sow a. Tender meat is separated from tough meat
25. A sow on its first parity gave birth to only 6 piglets. The best decision to undertake is: b. Cheap part is separated from tough part
a. Cull the sow for having poor reproductive performance c. Cutting of muscles across the grain
b. Retain the sow up to 3rd parity d. Thick part separated from thin part
c. Review performance of the AI technician 2. This meat is described to have a grayish pink to grayish red color and also with white and
d. Try new method of mating the sow greasy fat color.
26. In case pre-weaning piglets suffer scouring, the immediate course of action must be: a. Chevon
a. Withdraw solid feed given to piglet b. Pork
b. Withdraw feed of the sow c. Veal
c. Administer antibiotics to the piglets d. Beef
d. Administer antibiotics to the sow 3. This procedure could lead to the smoothening of the external fat of beef carcass and prevent
27. Normally, a lactating sow is given 2 kg feeds for maintenance plus 0.3 kg per piglet and ± 0.5 shrinkage and oxidation.
a. Chilling
kg based on body condition. A sow late in lactation was in poor condition for raising 13 piglets.
To recover, the ration of the sow must be: b. Singeing
a. 2.8 kg/day c. Shrouding
b. 5.9 kg/day d. Blanching
c. 6.4 kg/day 4. Which is not true about the presence of glycogen in the muscle?
a. Half of it is only present in the muscle
d. 8.0 kg/day
b. It undergoes glycolysis after slaughtering
28. A sow failed to give birth on the expected date and appears to give no sign of impending
c. Its amount is high in postmortem meat
parturition. What is the immediate action to take?
d. None of the above
a. Check breeding record for possible error on date of breeding
5. Which of the following will lengthen the curing process of meat?
b. Check sow for pseudo pregnancy
a. Addition of ascorbates
c. Administer exogenous hormone to induce parturition
b. Use of nitrate
d. Prepare for caesarean operation of the sow
c. Curing meat at the freezer
d. Curing meat at room temperature
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
6. Which of the following does not describe salting? a. Nitrogenous extractives
a. It enhances the flavor of meat b. Sarcoplasmic proteins
b. It draws out water from meat c. Fats
c. It lengthens the shelf-life of meat d. Carbohydrates
d. it causes plasmolysis of bacterial cells 15. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals prior to slaughter?
7. Which of the following does not describe the use of smoking in processed meat? a. Save feeds
a. It causes rapid oxidation of fat in meat b. Ease of cleaning entrails
b. It helps develop the color of the product c. Low shrinkage
c. It reduces moisture content of meat d. Short shelf-life
d. Improves the shelf-life of the product 16. Which is not a use of the bone structure?
8. Which of the following components of smoke could cause the coagulation of the surface a. Estimating age of live animals
proteins of frankfurters? b. Guide for cutting carcasses
a. Organic acids c. Clue to the tenderness of the cut
b. Alcohols d. In identifying and naming of the cut of meat
c. Hydrocarbons 17. Which is not included as lean cut of pork carcass?
d. Carbonyls a. Ham
9. Which of the following properties of meat affects the yield of processed meat product? b. Loin
a. Binding ability c. Belly
b. Emulsion stability d. Shoulder
c. Water holding capacity 18. These are proteins that are extracted during processing of sausages.
d. Emulsifying ability a. Myfibrillar proteins
10. A type of meat that contains high amount of muscle glycogen. b. Sarcoplasmic proteins
a. Carabeef c. Stromal proteins
b. Beef d. Connective tissue proteins
c. Pork 19. The following are measurements for determining carcass composition of pork except:
d. Horsemeat a. Lean-fat-bone component
11. Which of the following muscles yield the less tender meat? b. Rib eye area
a. Leg muscle c. Density or specific gravity
b. Back muscle d. Maturity
c. Rib 20. The following are functions of phosphate in meat processing except:
d. Rump a. Stabilizes the color of cured product
12. Which of the following characteristics is not affected by water or moisture content in the meat? b. Increases product yield
a. Texture c. Makes product firm and dry
b. Color d. Increases the water holding capacity of meat
c. Juiciness 21. Meat grading offers the following advantages except:
d. None a. Provides products of varying quality
13. This is a protein that greatly influences the tenderness of the muscle after cooking. b. Facilitates sale based on inspection
a. Collagen c. Increases competition
b. Elastin d. Improves pricing efficiency
c. Reticulin 22. This refers to the cutting of carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts.
d. Myosin a. Fabrication
14. These substances are responsible for the so-called “gamey” flavor of meat of wild animals b. Meat grading
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 c. Meat evaluation
d. Meat chopping PART XI. ANIMAL SCIENCE TRIVIA
23. Which is not a function of nitrite?
a. Stabilizes the color of lean tissues 1. ILRI is a non-profit association for the advancement in animal science, which aims to promote
b. Inhibits the growth of Clostridium botulinum sustainable livestock production. Where is the location of the second headquarters of this
c. Makes product firm and dry famous institute?
d. Retards development of rancidity a. Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
24. Which of the following properties of meat affects the yield of processed meat product? b. Geneva, Switzerland
a. Binding ability c. Ibadan, Nigeria
b. Emulsion stability d. Shanhua, Thailand
c. Water holding capacity 2. A famous professional organization established in 1963 at Diliman, Quezon City by 31
d. Emulsifying ability veterinarians and one animal scientist.
25. It is an edible by-product of slaughtering pig and is also referred to as chitterlings a. Association of Animal Science
a. Small intestines b. Society of Animal Scientist
b. Thymus gland c. Philippine Society of Animal Science
c. Testicles d. Phil. Society of Animal Nutritionist
d. Stomach 3. The strain of Ebola that hit the swine industry in 2008.
26. Which conditions make the color of meat darker? a. Chauvoei
a. Long exposure to the air, old age and type of animal b. Pyogenes
b. Dehydration, species and age of animal c. Reston
c. Proper bleeding, specific part of the animal and age of animal d. Pullorum
d. All of the above 4. Festivities for the good harvest and promotion of local products are popular among the
27. This refers to the process of making the animal unconscious prior to slaughtering country’s provinces. One of these festivals is Lechon Festival, which is being celebrated at this
a. Sticking town.
b. Scalding a. San Pedro, Laguna
c. Stunning b. Los Banos, Laguna
d. Evisceration c. Lipa city, Batangas
28. It is correlated with the bone content of the carcass. d. Balayan, Batangas
a. Backfat thickness 5. The carabao is popular among Filipino farmers being the “beast of burden” that helps folks in
b. Loin eye area the countryside in their field works. Owing a lot from this animal, a festival is being held for it in
c. Length of hindlegs this town.
d. Liveweight a. Dumaguete City
29. Which of the following can cause meat deterioration? b. Science City of Munoz
a. Phosphate c. Puerto Princessa
b. Nitrate d. Pulilan
c. Enzyme 6. The most duck populated region in the country is _____.
d. All of the above a. CALABARZON
30. Why is age being considered in selection of animals to be slaughtered? b. MIMAROPA
a. Tenderness changes with age c. Central Luzon
b. Age could affect the texture and flavor of meat d. Bicol Region
c. Age could affect the color of meat
d. All of the above
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
7. Among the popular delicacies in the Philippines is the Darag, a native chicken. The increasing b. Malaysia
popularity of this native chicken boosts the production of native chicken in the south.The part c. Indonesia
of the Philippines that is considered as the top producer of native chicken is d. Japan
a. Western Visayas 15. The freezing point of milk is used to determine the presence of what contaminant in milk?
b. Eastern Visayas a. Bacteria
c. Central Visayas b. Fungi
d. Northern Mindanao c. Vegetable oil
8. The world’s largest producer of pork is this country d. Added water
a. China
b. Brazil
c. Canada
d. Argentina
9. The first mammal to be successfully cloned from a mature cell is _________.
a. Goat
b. Sheep
c. Rabbit
d. Rat
10. The milk protein component of the lactose synthesis enzyme is _________.
a. Whey
b. Casein
c. Lactalbumin
d. Zein
11. A cross between genuses is permissible with the use of biotechnology like crossing a tiger with
a lion producing a liger. What is the term for the animals produced from the crossing of turkey
and chicken?
a. Chiturks
b. Turkins
c. Chicteys
d. Keykens
12. International Training Center on Pig Husbandry is an institution in the Philippines that helps in
the improvement of our local swine industry. It is located in this place.
a. San Pedro, Laguna
b. Los Banos, Laguna
c. Lipa City, Batangas ANSWER KEY
d. Balayan, Batangas
13. Which of the following is not among the top 5 largest swine producing countries? PART I. ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
a. USA 1 B 11 D 21 A 31 D
b. Canada 2 C 12 B 22 D 32 A
c. Brazil 3 C 13 D 23 C 33 C
d. Argentina 4 C 14 D 24 C 34 B
14. The country which is considered the largest importer of dairy products. 5 C 15 C 25 B 35 D
a. Philippines 6 B 16 D 26 B
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 7 C 17 C 27 B 7 A 17 B
8 A 18 A 28 C 8 A 18 B
9 A 19 D 29 C 9 D 19 A
10 C 20 D 30 B 10 A 20 D

PART II. GENETICS AND BREEDING PART V. BEEF AND CATTLE PRODUCTION
1 C 11 A 1 B 11 A 21 A
2 A 12 C 2 B 12 A 22 A
3 A 13 A 3 B 13 B 23 A
4 C 14 A 4 A 14 A 24 A
5 A 15 A 5 B 15 A 25 D
6 A 16 B 6 A 16 B 26 D
7 B 17 A 7 A 17 A 27 A
8 C 18 D 8 A 18 A 28 D
9 C 19 C 9 A 19 A 29 C
10 D 20 C 10 A 20 B 30 D

PART III. ANIMAL NUTRITION PART VI. DAIRY PRODUCTION

1 D 11 A 21 B 31 C 1 C 11 C 21 B
2 D 12 A 22 C 32 C 2 A 12 B 22 C
3 D 13 A 23 A 33 A 3 C 13 A 23 A
4 D 14 A 24 D 34 D 4 B 14 C 24 C
5 D 15 A 25 A 35 D 5 C 15 C 25 C
6 A 16 D 26 A 6 D 16 C
7 B 17 D 27 A 7 C 17 D
8 A 18 D 28 A 8 B 18 C
9 A 19 A 29 B 9 A 19 C
10 A 20 D 30 D 10 B 20 B

PART VII. POULTRY PRODUCTION

1 A 11 D 21 C
PART IV. ANIMAL DISEASES 2 D 12 C 22 C
1 C 11 B 21 A 3 A 13 A 23 A
2 C 12 C 22 B 4 D 14 A 24 A
3 C 13 C 23 D 5 D 15 A 25 A
4 A 14 A 24 C 6 C 16 A 26 B
5 C 15 B 25 C 7 A 17 D 27 D
6 B 16 D 8 C 18 B 28 A
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination
 9 D 19 B 29 D 9 C 19 D 29 C
10 A 20 B 30 A 10 D 20 A 30 D

PART VIII. SMALL RUMINANT PRODUCTION PART XI. TRIVIA

1 A 11 A 21 C 1 A 11 A
2 B 12 C 22 B 2 C 12 C
3 C 13 B 23 D 3 C 13 D
4 B 14 A 24 A 4 D 14 C
5 B 15 D 25 C 5 D 15 D
6 A 16 B 6 C
7 A 17 B 7 A
8 C 18 D 8 A
9 A 19 B 9 B
10 D 20 B 10 C

PART IX. SWINE PRODUCTION

1 C 11 C 21 C
2 B 12 B 22 C
3 B 13 A 23 B
4 B 14 D 24 B
5 B 15 A 25 B
6 A 16 B 26 A
7 C 17 B 27 C
8 B 18 A 28 A
9 A 19 A 29 B
10 D 20 C 30 B

PART X. SLAUGHTERING AND MEAT PROCESSING

1 B 11 A 21 B
2 B 12 C 22 A
3 C 13 A 23 C
4 C 14 A 24 C
5 C 15 D 25 A
6 A 16 A 26 D
7 A 17 C 27 C
8 A 18 A 28 C
REVIEWER Agriculturist Licensure Examination