1. Which tapeworm with a scolex having 4 D.

Serology
suckers and proboscis may occasionally cause
cysticercosis in humans? 8. A type of quality assurance scheme that
A. Spirometra mansonoides makes use of unknown controls to assess staff
B. Echinococcus multicularis competency is known as ____
C. Taenia multiceps A. SOPS
D. Taenia solium B. proficiency testing
C. CLIA
2. Which is an activity during the pre-analytical D. quality control testing
phase of Parasitology testing?
A. Correct patient identification. 9. Sabouraud's dextrose agar is most useful as
B. Use of controls a ____.
c. StaNdardized reporting of parasite A. medium for identiication of Cryptococcus
concentration. neoformans
D. Ensure proper storage of reagents and B. medium for the subculture of fungi
stains being used. recovered on enriched medium
C. primary isolation medium
3. Protozoa that live in the blood or tissue of D. rich medium for growing a wide range of
humans are transmitted to other humans by a/ fungi
an __________ vector.
A. arthropod 10. The oocysts of this protozoan infects warm-
B. human blooded animals has the following
c. dust particle characteristics:
D. plant * survive in the environment for several months
to more than 1 year
4. What is the unique morphological feature of xresistant to disinfectants, freezing and drying
Spirochetes? * killed by heating to 70 degree C
A. Presence of sterols in the cell wal
B. Motility without flagella Identify the most probable organism involved
C. Lack of cell wall A. Trichomonas tenax
D. Lack of plasma membrane B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Naegleria fowleri
5. Which organisms grow at 44 or 44.5 degrees D. Balamuthia mandrillaris
c and ferment lactose to produce acid and
gas? 11. What staining method is often used to
A. Amoeba identify trichomonads?
C. Streptococci A. Acid Fast
B. Thermotolerant coliforms B. Giemsa
D. Bacteria of fecal origin C. Pap
D. Wright
6. Which is a measure of the total number of
aerobic bacteria in milk ? 12. How is the result of E2s test interpreted
A. Direct Microscopic Count when there is no black precipitate formed?
B. Milk Urea Nitogen A. Doubtful
c. Standard Plate count B. Negative
D. Somatic Cell Count C. Indeterminate
D. Positive
7. What is a test that identifies the presence of
drug – resistant TB? 13. An organism with indole (-), urea (+) is
A. Microscopy suggestive of:
B. DNA-based A. E. tarda
C. Culture B. P. vulgaris
C. S. typhi A. Shaking
D. P. mirabilis B. Humidity incubator
C. Oven incubator
14.A structure that helps in the locomotion of D. Smart incubator
certain forms of bacteria is:
A. flagellum 20. A part of the compound microscope that
B. Pili gathers and focuses light from the illuminator
C. cilium into the specimen being viewed is the
D. fimbria A. iris diaphragm
B. lens
15. What must be done if a stool sample C. aperture
cannot be submitted to the laboratory for D. condenser
immediate testing?
A. Add saline solution 21. In the semi-quantitative method of
B. Add ethyl alcohol susceptibility testing, the concentration of the
C. Place the specimen in the freezer at 0 deg antibiotic is highest at the
Celsius A. edge
D. Refrigerate for no longer than 24 hrs B. center
C. middle third
16. The method that gives an antimicrobial a D. under surface
concentration resulting in a 99.9% reduction in
CFU/ml compared with the organism 22. To ensure accurate diagnosis of viral
concentration in the original inoculum is disease, it is imperative to collect specimen
recorded as ____. during the ____ phase of the infection.
A. MBC A. lag
B. ESBL B. acute
C. MIB C. chronic
D. MIC D. incubation

17. All genera in the list given grow on 5% 23. What is the role of charcoal in liquid media
Sheep Blood Agar and chocolate Agar but not for blood culture?
in MAC, EXCEPT: A. Maintains survival of organisms in changing
A. Staphylococcus environmental conditions
B. Erysipelothrix B. Absorbs fatty acids that could kill
C. Gardnerella fastidious organisms
D. Lactobacillus C. Prevents clotting of blood in agar
D. Maintains the appropriate colony counts in
18. All these aerobes have cell walls containing urine culture
mycolic acid, EXCEPT:
A. Nocardia 24. A patient tested for ASO titer. The result is
B. Rhodococcus > 200 units/ ml. What organism is the most
c. Corynebacterium probable etiologic agent?
D. Streptomyces A. Mycobacterium spp.
B. Enterobacteriaceae spp
C. Streptococcus spp
19. What type of incubator is used in an D. Staphylococcus spp
automated Microbiology laboratory where
individual plates are placed in their own 25. In select tapeworms, what is the fleshy
shelves allowing for a homogenous extension with attached hooks
atmosphere to bring culture plates to their A. Flagellum
optimal conditions faster? B. Villus
C. Rostellum ??
D. Proglottid B. Dipylidium caninum
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
26. In whch of the following are yeasts BEST D. Taenia saginata
utilized?
A. Food production 33. What method of Antimicrobial Susceptibility
B. Manufacture of drugs and medicines testing is based on the determination of an
C. Ethanol production inhibition zone proportional to the bacteria
D. Breakdown of organic materials susceptibility to the antimicrobial present in the
disk?
27. A lymphatic filarial parasite resembling W. A. Disk diffusion
bancrofti that do not typically cause B. Broth dilution
lymphadenitis in the genital regions is C. Agar dilution (E-test)
A. Ancylostoma spp D. Gradient strips
B. Brugia spp
C. E. vermicularis 34. Which is the most common cestode in
D. T. spiralis humans with infection prevalence highest
among children and in warm climates with poor
28. Which parasite is also called a Chinese sanitation facilities?
liver fluke? A. Taenia solium
A. Paragonimus westermanii B. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Taenia saginata D. Hymenolepis nana
D. Fasciola hepatica
29. Helminth ova are more likely to be seen in 35. Identify the organism belonging to the
_____stools Enterobacter sp. giving the following results:
A. soft * Lactose (-)
B. formed stool * K/A TSI,
C. semi-formed * nonmotile at 35° C
D. liquid A. Edwardsiella
B. Klebsiella
30. What is the required minimum PPE inside C. Salmonella
the laboratory? D. Shigella
A. Face shield
B. Safety glasses 36. Which is an error during the pre-analytic
C. Lab coat phase of testing?
D. Gloves A. Undetected failure in quality control
B. Instrument malfunction
31. What Gram positive organism causes C. Contamination from infusion route
antibiotic-associated diarrhea that is seen as D. Specimen interference
yellow ground-glass colonies on cycloserine 37. Which is the CORRECT sequence of the
cefoxitin fructose agar? Gram staining procedure?
A. Clostridium tetani A. crystal violet, safranin, iodine, alcohol
B. Clostridium difficile B. crystal violet, alcohol , iodine, safranin
C. Clostridium perfringens C. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol , safranin
D. Clostridium botulinum D. crystal violet, iodine , safranin, alcohol

32. Which organism has the following 38. An oncology nurse from YYY General
characteristics? Hospital collected bronchial washing Specimen
* quadrate scolex, from a 70 year old female receiving
* no rostellum or hooklets chemotherapy and sent the laboratory.
* 4 suckers Microscopic examination revealed a gram
A. Hymenolepis nana positive and partially colored acid fast
organism. Biochemical tests showed the 43. Which of the following does NOT apply to a
following: right result?
A. right reference data
* negative: hydrolysis in casein, tyrosine, and B. right patient
xanthine C. right specimen
* positive: catalase D. right price
What organism is most identifiable with the
foregoing characteristics? 44. Which is a nonmotile, non-spore-forming,
A. Streptomyces somaliens obligate aerobe that often appears beaded or
B. Nocardia asteroides unstained using Gram stain but forms stable
C. Actinomadura madurae mycolate complexes with arylmethane dyes?
D. Nocardia caviae A. Neisseria spp.
B. Klebsiella peumoniae
39. In how many days is quantitative fecal fat C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
done? D. Strep.pneumoniae
A. four
B. three 45. What trematode eggs can only be found in
C. two fecal specimens?
D. two A. S. mansoni
B. S. intercalatum
40. Bacteria from the human gut grow well at C. s. japonicum
_____37 degrees C D. S. haematobium
A. 60
B. 50 46. In the Formal Ether Sedimentation
C. 37 Technique, the top layer consists of
D. 38 A. formalin
B. plug of debris
41. which test can distinguish M. tuberculosis C. ethyl acetate
from M.bovis where a positive test (canary D. parasitic elements
yellow color is given
A. Hydroxylamine 47. What is the traditional diagnostic specimen
B. Nitrate to test for Chlamydia in males?
C. Niacin A. Rectal swabs
D. Nitrite B. Urethral swabs
C. Serum
42. The urine sample of a patient has the D. Urine (NAAT)
following laboratory results from Microbiology
section 48. What instrument is used to check the
*>100,000 CFU/mL of Gram-negative bacilli speed of a clinical centrifuge?
isolated on MacConkey Agar A. Speed scale
*glucose with acid and gas, B. Beam balance
* indole (-) C. Caliper
* urea (+) D. Tachometer
* TDA (+)
* H2S (+) 49. In the surgical treatment of echinococcosis,
The organism is most likely. _____. a scolicidal agent like _____is injected in to the
A. Proteus vulgaris cyst/s to sterilize the area prior to removal of
B. Providencia stuartii the cysts.
c. Proteus mirabilis A. acetone
D. Morganella morganii B. KOH
C. 10% formalin
D. india ink
 D. Pseudosel agar
50. What staining technique is used to detect
small protozoa missed by wet mount 56. What is the color change of the methylene
examination? blue infused strip when an anaerobic
A. Methyl red environment has been achieved in an
B. Gram anaerobic jar?
C. Pap A. Blue
D. Trichrome B. Colorless
C. Green
51. The results of blood smear from EDTA tube D. White
of a patient is as follows:
* crescent-shaped gametocytes 57. The favorable energy source for many
*presence of all sizes of red blood cells enteric pathogens is
* Maurer's dots A. mannitol
* multiple delicate rings with two (2) chromatin B. sodium citrate
dots in red cells C. Lysine
What is the most likely organism identified? D. V factor
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum 58. Which of the following is the correct result
C. Plasmodium knowlesi for E. coli using the Methyl Red Voges-
D. Plasmodium ovale Proskauer test?
A. MR+ /VP-
52. Protozoan trophozoites may be destroyed B. MR-/ VP-
when processing stool specimen using C. MR +/ VP+
_____technique. D. MR-/ VP +
A. culture
B. concentration 59. Curved Gram negative bacilli seen in a 35
C. viral isolation years old patient with gastric ulcers. What can
D. direct microscopy be used to confirm a possible GI tract
infection?
53. Which culture medium does NOT inhibit A. H2S test
Gram-positive organisms while allowing the B. culture the organism in agar
growth of Gram-negative rods? C. Urease test
A. Salmonella-Shigella Agar D. PYR test
B. Tetrathionate Broth
C. Blood Agar 60. Sealed centrifuge buckets with liquid
D. Selenite broth culture media are appropriately unloaded in
a____.
54. What selective and differential medium is A. fume hood
used to isolate Vibrio species? B. dry laboratory bench
A. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts agar C. disinfected table top
B. Campy blood agar D. biological safety cabinet
C. Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar
D. Thioglycollate broth 61. The drug of choice for treatment of
Paragonimus infections is
55. Which special media is used for growing A. Praziquantel
organisms that need low oxygen content, B. Thiabendazole
reduced oxidation -reduction potential and C. Albendazole
extra nutrients? D. Ivermectin
A. Alkaline Peptone Water
B. Lowenstein-Jensen medium 62. Why is a second dengue infection worse
C. Thiogycollate broth than the first?
A. Infection with other serotypes causing an acute syndrome with cough,
B. Infection with related viruses abdominal pain, discomfort and low grade fever
C. Inadequate treatment that may occur 2-15 days after infection. Long
D. Inadequate immune response term infection may mimic tuberculosis.
Consumption of shellfish specialty dishes are
63. When undercooked meat is ingested, the implicated in this condition
larvae of this parasite is resistant to the gastric A. Ascaris lumbricoides
pH so that they eventually pass to the B. Schistosoma japonicum
intestines where they invade the mucosa. What C. Entamoeba histolytica
organism is described? D. Paragonimus westermani
A. T. cati
B. T. canis 70. Which of the following is the ultimate goal
C. T. spiralis of the National External Quality Assurance
D. D. medinensis Scheme (NEQAS) for Parasitology?
A. An unsatisfactory result is a basis for
64. The specimen to be collected for Epstein discontinuing the testing
Barr virus PCR amplification is. ____. B. Validate the entire testing process
A. synovial fluid c. Validate performance characteristics of
B. serum reagents
C. whole blood in 5 mls.EDTA D. Verify accuracy and reliability of testing
D. sputum

65. A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal

swab is the collection device of choice for
recovery of. ______ from the nasopharynx. A. Alcaligenes faecalis
A. Corynebacterium diptheriae B. Shigella subgroup A
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Klebsiella-Aerogenes spp
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Proteus spp
D. Bacteroides fragilis
LACKING OF PAGE 8 and 9
66. What is chocolate agar made of?
A. Lysed red blood cells 91. When performing the disk diffusion method
B. Clotted blood of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, What is
C. Brown-colored nutrient agar the MOST appropriate remedial action when
D. Chocolate added to plain agar the zone diameters are too large or too small
with all the antimicrobials?
67. Stool specimens for the diagnosis of A. Standardize illumination
typhoid fever are POSITIVE _______of illness B. Take fresh culture from stock
A. after the first week C. Check the inoculum size
B. during second week D. Check preparation of inoculum
C. after first day of illness
D. during first week 92. An organism capable of growth in cold
environment is a _____.
68. Transmission of food-borne trematodes A. mesophile
may be influenced by ____ B. thermophile
A. sex C. hyperthermophile
B. geography D. psychrophile
C. climate change
D. age 93. The first larval stage of a trematode which
is hatched from an egg often ciliated and free-
69. Which of the following parasites cause a swimming is _____.
food-borne parasitic zoonosis A. rediae
B. cercaria 100. What additional tests are included when
C. miracidium IMvic tests are done?
D. metacercaria A. Sugar & Simmon's citrate
B. Motility & H2S
94. During specimen collection, how do you C. Oxidase & Urease
minimize contamination of skin scrapes? D. Catalase & coagulase
A. Wipe the area with dry sterile gauze
B. Clean the area with 70% alcohol END….
c. Clean the area with soap and water
D. Wipe the area with iodine disinfectant

95. Identify the parasite form ingested by the

female Anopheles mosquito during a blood
meal.
A. Schizont
B. Gametocyte
C. Merozoite
D. Sporozoite

96. Determining an organism's ability to liquefy

______, aids in the classification of the
Enterobacteriaceae.
A. peptone
B. mannitol
c. nutrient gelatin
D. beef extract

97. A solution used for routine examination of

stool samples is
A. phosphate buffered saline
B. normal saline
C. half normal saline
D. plain water

98. What is the purpose of flaming an

inoculating loop before and after use?
A. To prevent accumulation of dust particles
B. To sterilize
C. To prevent cross-contamination
D. To test integrity of the loop

99. What type of infection mimics acute viral

enteritis, bacillary bacterial poisoning and
traveler 's diarrhea where the dysentery,
diarrehiec stools lack blood, mucus, and
cellular exudate?
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Giardiasis
C. Balantidiosis
D. Sarcocysticosis