MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

1. He discovered the bacteria, free living and parasitic microscopic protest, sperm cells , blood cells, parasites and fungi.
A. Louis Pasteur C. Robert Koch
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek D. Joseph Lister

2. The hierarchical classification system consists of different taxa designations. Arrange the ff. in order:
A. SpeciesGenusFamilyOrderClassPhylumKingdom
B. SpeciesGenusOrderFamilyClassPhylumKingdom
C. SpeciesGenusFamilyClass OrderPhylumKingdom
D. SpeciesGenusFamilyOrderPhylumClass Kingdom

3. A collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features and as a group differ notably
from other bacterial species.
A. Species C. Family
B. Genus D. Order

4. In bacterial growth curve, what is the phase where there is no net growth, and bacteria’s nutrients were depleted while
toxin/waste accumulates.
A. Adjustment Phase C. Plateau Phase
B. Exponential Phase D. Death Phase
5. AUG, the start codon codes for what amino acid?
A Threonine C. Serine
B. Methionine D. Arginine
6. It is defined as an alteration in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome; that
is, a change in the organism’s genotype.
A. Genetic Recombination C. Genetic Exchange
B. Mutation D. Transformation
7. The structure of the cell wall is unique and is composed of disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits. What are these
disaccharides?
A. N-Acetylglucosamine C. N-Acetylglycosamine and N-Acetylneuramic Acid
B. N-Acetylmuramic Acid D. Both A and B

8. What phase of bacterial growth does bacteria become more susceptible to antimicrobial agents?
A. Lag phase C. Stationary phase
B. Log phase D. Death phase
9. NFPA diamond:Yellow: Violent chemical change
A. 1+ C. 3+
B. 2+ D. 4+
10. Which of the following is not included in the White: Specific Hazard of NFPA diamond?
I. Corrosive III. Radiation
II. Alkali IV. Combustible

A. I and II C. I and III

B. I, II and III D. IV only

11. Which of the following bacteria are encapsulated?

I. Neisseria meningitides III. Clostridium tetani
II. Salmonella typhi IV. Listeria monocytogenes

A. I and II C. I and III

B. I, II and III D. I to IV

12. The laboratory aide has to sterilize the glassware in the laboratory. What method should he use?
A. Moist heat C. Filtration
B. Dry heat D. Ionizing radiation

13. HEPA filters in biosafety cabinets are designed to remove organisms

A. larger than 0.3 μm C. larger than 0.5 μm
B. smaller than 0.3 μm D. smaller than 0.5 μm
 MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

14. Iodophor is compose of

A. iodine + alcohol C. iodine + detergent
B. iodine + metal D. iodine + bleach
15. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) is usually used at a concentration of 0.025% (w/v) because it inhibits which of the
following bacteria?
A. N. gonorrhoeae C. H. influenzae
B. P. aeruginosa D. S. minus
16. Medical technologists do not perform routine stool cultures for patients whose length of stay in the hospital exceeds 3
days and whose admitting diagnosis was not diarrhea; these patients should be tested for the presence of what
organisim?
A. C. perfringens C. C. difficile
B. Salmonella enterica D. H. pylori
17. Which of the following statement is true for transport/ holding media.
A. Maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen without supporting the growth of organisms
B. Maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen and supports the growth of the organisms
C. Sometimes charcoal is added to these media to absorb amino acids
D. LIM broth is an example of transport media
18. Which of the following can be used to transport samples for recovery of bacteria and virus?
A. Amie’s Medium C. Cary-Blair Medium
B. Stuart’s Medium D. JEMBEC Transport System
19. What is the decolorizer used in Modified Kinyoun for acid-fast organisms?
A. 2% acid alcohol C. 95% isopropyl alcohol
B. 0.5% acid alcohol D.1% sulfuric acid
20. Media that is selective for N. gonorrhoeae and also supports the growth of Ureaplasma urealyticum and some
Mycoplasma spp.
A. New York City (NYC) Agar C. Martin-Lewis Agar
B. Thayer-Martin Agar D. GC Agar
21. Brilliant apple green fluorescence using fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
A. 1+ C. 3+
B. 2+ D. 4+
22. New York City (NYC) agar is a selective agar for Neisseria gonorrhoeae but also supports which of the following?
I. Ureaplasma spp. III. Moraxella spp
II. Mycoplasma spp. IV. Francisella spp.

A. I and II C. I, III and IV

B. I, II and III D. AOTA
23. After application safranin in Gram staining technique, what is the color of the causative agent of kennel cough?
A. violet C. pink
B. colorless D. red
24. After application decolorizer in Kinyoun technique, what is the color of the bacteria that causes lumpy jaw and
mycetoma?
A. violet C. pink
B. colorless D. red
25. The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium C. Calcium and magnesium
B. Calcium and potassium D. Sodium and magnesium.
26. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is detected using agar containing:
A. Penicillin and sodium chloride C. Nafcillin and magnesium chloride
B. Ampicillin and magnesium chloride D. Oxacillin and sodium chloride
27. How does one measure the zone of growth inhibition for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test?
1. On the underside of the plate
2. With the unaided eye
3. Using a ruler, caliper or template

A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. All are correct
 MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

28. A Chromogenic Cephalosporinase Test is used to detect resistance to

A. Aminoglycosides C. Macrolides
B. Β-Lactams D. Tetracyclines
29. Inhibitor of essential metabolite that tends to bind dihydrofolate reductase
A. Aminoglycosides C. Sulfonamides
B. Trimethoprim D. Penicillin
30. Micrococci are resistant to which of the following?
1. Bacitracin 3. Furazolidone
2. Lysostaphin

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3
B. 2 only D. All are correct
31. Identify: gram positive cocci
DNAse Novobiocin Mannitol
(-) R < 16mm +

A. S. aureus C. S. saprophyticus
B. S.epidermidis D. S. lugdinensis
32. Bacitracin= resistant
SXT= resistant
Hippurate Hydrolysis= positive
a. Group A streptococci c. Group D streptococci
b. Group B streptococci d. S. pneumoniae
33. Bile Esculin hydrolysis= positive Optochin= R <14mm
6.5% NaCl= positive PYR= positive

A. S. Pneumoniae C. Enterococci
B. Group B Streptococci D. Non-Enterococci
34. Cystine tellurite blood agar (CTBA) is used for primary isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. What
substance in CTBA enhances growth of fastidious organisms?
A. Cystine C. Potassium Tellurite
B. Blood D. Loeffler’s Serum

35. Which organisms may stain partially acid-fast when stained with a modified acid-fast stain?
A. Gordonia Sp. C. Nocardia Sp.
B. Rhodococcus Sp. D. All of the above

36. It is a facultative intracellular organism that can replicate within macrophages and associated with
immunocompromised patients such as patients with HIV.
A. Nocardia brasiliensis C. Nocardia asteroides
B. Rhodococcus equi. D. Streptomyces

37. Member of Enterobacteriaciae that produces sporadic infections that can occur due to trauma and known as lysine,
arginine and ornithine (LOA) negative.

A. Pantoea agglomerans C. Klebsiella pnemoniae

B. Plesiomonas shigelloides D. Providencia retgerri
38. Aside from Klebsiella spp. these organisms, which often causes nosocomial infections, have plasmid-encoded
antimicrobial resistance to other cephalosporins, penicillins, carbapenems and aminoglycosides.

A. Proteus spp C. Serratia spp

B. Salmonella spp D. Shigella spp
39. These organisms are associated with harbouring fish or turtles and causes gastroenteritis to human.

A. Edwardsiella tarda C. Ewingella americana

B. Enterobacter cloacae D. Hafnia alvei
 MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

40. After inoculation of this bacteria in SIM at 22°C, the growth of colonies remain at the inoculation site.
A. Proteus spp C. Cronobacter spp
B. Enterobacter spp D. Shigella spp
41. Enterobacteria that produces a yellow pigment which is enhanced by incubation at 25oC
a. Citrobacter sakazakii c. Edwardsiella tarda
b. Cronobacter sakazakii d. Hafnia alvei
42. Neisseria meningitides degrades which of the following sugars?
1. Glucose 3. Lactose
2. Maltose 4. Sucrose

A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. All are correct
43. How many sets of blood cultures will a medical technologist collect per 24 hours?
A. 1-2 C. 2-3
B. 3-4 D. 4-5
44. All of the following are DNAse positive organisms except:
1. Staphylococcus aureus 3. Moraxella catarrhalis
2. Serratia marcescens 4. Acinetobacter baumanni

A. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2, 3
B. 1and 3 D. 4 only
45. The reagent in this test is Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride in dimethylsulfoxide. It is used to
differentiate gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci

A. Acetamide utilization C. Indole production

B. Citrate utilization D. Oxidase test
46. Triple Sugar Iron agar (TSI) is composed of the following except:

A. 1 part dextrose C. 10 parts levulose

B. 10 parts saccharose D. All of the above
47. Urea Hydrolysis determines an organism’s ability to produce the enzyme urease, which hydrolyzes urea. What is
negative control used for this test?

A. Proteus vulgaris C. Klebsiella pneumoniae

B. Morganella morganni D. Escherichia coli
49. All but one is H2S positive.
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Hafnia alvei
D. Citrobacter freundii
Motility TSI LIA MR/VP Indole Citrate Urease
50. + A/A gas K/K +/- + - -
51. - A/A gas K/K -/+ + + +
52. + K/A (+) K/K +/- - - -
gas (+)
H2S
53 + K/A (+) R/A +/v - + +
gas (+)
H2S
54. + A/A gas K/A -/+ - + -
55 . + K/A (+) R/A +/v + - +
gas
56. - A/A gas K/K -/+ - + +
57. + K/A (+) R/A +/v + + -
gas
58. + K/A (+) R/A +/v + + +
gas (+)
H2S
59. + A/A gas K/A +/- - + -
(+) H2S
 MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

60. + K/A (+) R/A +/v + + +

gas
61. - K/A K/A +/- - - -
62. + A/A gas K/K -/+ - + -

a. Escherichia coli c. Salmonella typhi

b. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Klebsiella oxytoca
c. Enterobacter aerogenes e. Morganella morgani
a. Providencia retgerri
d. Enterobacter cloacae
b. Providencia stuartii
e. Citrobacter freundii c. Shigella dysenteriae
a. Proteus vulgaris
b. Proteus mirabilis

.
____63. EIEC A. Virulence factors are pili and cytolysins
____64. EAEC B. Produces heat-labile enterotoxin (LT) and a heat-stable enterotoxin (ST)
____65.EPEC C. Associated to thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
____66. EHEC D. Has adhesive properties because of pili and intimin
____67. UPEC E. Produces global aggregative regular gene, Aggr
____68. ETEC A. Shigella-like infection

69. All the following are oxidase positive EXCEPT:

A. A. baumanni C. N. meningitides
B. P. aeruginosa D. NOTA
70. All the following are glucose oxidizers EXCEPT:
A. Proteus spp C. Staphylococcus spp
B. Salmonella spp D. AOTA
71. The following are characteristics of fungi except:
a. Exist as mold or yeast c. Mycelia is the fundamental unit
b. Exist as dimorphic/monomorphic d. Most are saprophytic organisms
72. Which of the following are asexual spores?

1. Chlamydospore 3. Oospore
2. Arthrospore 4. Basidiospore

a. 1 only c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 d. All of the above

73. It causes ptyriasis versicolor and has a ‘spaghetti and meatballs’ appearance when stained with Periodic Acid Schiff
(PAS)
a. Malassezia furfur c. Trichosporon beigelii
b. Piedra hortai d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

74. Which test can be used to differentiate T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum?

a.Fluorescence using a Wood’s lamp c. In vitro hair perforation
b. Red color on reverse side of colony d. Pyriform microconidia

75. Which of the following is a characteristic of T. tonsurans

a. Teardrop microconidia c. Red tail/ stringbean macroconidia
b. Balloon-shaped microconidia d. Favic chandelier/ antler hyphae

76. What fungi causes a subcutaneous disease and form distinctive asteroid body which is a central rounded yeast
structure with radiating eosinophilic substance in tissue formed by antigen- antibody reaction
a. Phialophora verrucosa c. Pseudallescheria boydii
b. Cladosporium carrionii d. Sporothrix schenkii
 MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

77. A patient with Wood’s lamp-positive, dermatophyte infection has a skin scraping taken for culture. The organism
grows on SDA agar with a light tan front and salmon-colored reverse. Microscopically, the organism produces rare
distorted macroconidia and rare microconidia. Additionally, there was no growth on sterile rice media. What is the most
likely organism?
a. Microsporum gypseum c. Microsporum audouinii
b. Microsporum canis d. Epidermophyton floccosum

78. Chromoblastomycosis is a chronic granulomatous fungal infection characterized histologically by the presence of
brown, spherical fungal cells that resemble copper pennies known as sclerotic bodies. All are agents of
chromoblastomycosis except:

1. Phialophora verrucosa 3. Cladosporium carrionii

2. Fansecae pedrosoi 4. Blastomyces dermatitidis

a. 1 only c. 1 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only d. 4 only

79-82 Match the following systemic fungi to their characteristic tissue form

______79. Blastomyces dermatitidis a. multiple budding yeast

______80. Paracoccidioides brasillensis b. cells intracellular in macrophages
______81. Histoplasma capsulatum c. single-budding yeast with broad-based yeast form
______82. Coccidioides immitis d. spherule with endospores

83. Which of the following is produced by Candida albicans

1. Chlamydospore 3. Germ tube

2. Pseudohyphae 4. Blastoconidia

a. 1 only c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only d. All of the above
84. Which of the following is a characteristic of T. schoenleinii
a. Teardrop microconidia c. Red tail/ stringbean macroconidia
b. Balloon-shaped microconidia d. Favic chandelier/ antler hyphae

85. What is used to demonstrate the presence of capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans?

a. Methylene blue c. Carbol fuchsin

b. KOVA stain d. India ink

86. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?

a. Cottonseed medium c. Rice agar
b. Czapek’s agar d. Nigerseed agar

87. Which of the following is associated with hairy cell leukemia?

a. HTLV- 1 c. CMV
b. HTLV II d. EBV

88. VIRAL REPLICATION:

1. Adsorption 3. Uncoating 5. Assembly
2. Penetration 4. Synthetic phase 6. Release

a. 1-2-3-4-5-6 c. 1-2-4-3-5-6
b. 2-1-3-4-5-6 d. 2-1-4-3-6-5

89. All the following are DNA virus except:

a. Parvoviridae c. Adenovirus
b. Papilomavirus d. Pseudomyxovirdae
 MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW

90. It is considered as the smallest DNA virus that causes Erythema Infectiosum (“fifth childhood disease”)
a. Parvovirus B-19 c. Poxvirus
b. Enterovirus d. Paramyxoviridae

91. Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis caused by EBV is supported by demonstration of a lymphocytosis and atypical
mononuclear cells called
a. Owl’s eye cells c. Cowdry cells
b. Downey cells d. Sezary cells
92. What is the leading cause of viral conjunctivitis that is diagnose by production of grape-like cytopathic effect in cell
culture?

a. Hepadnavirus c. Adenovirus
b. Poxvirus d. Papilomavirus
93. What serotype of Adenovirus causes infantile gasteroenteritis?

a. 8,19 c. 11,21
b. 40,41 d. 3,4
94. What causes roseola infantum or the 6th disease (skin rash) of childhood
a. HSV-5 c. HSV-7
b. HSV-6 d. HSV-8
95. Poxvirus, the largest DNA virus has ovoid or brick-shaped. Upon examination of epithelial tissues of patients with
smallpox, one would expect to see:
a. Molluscum bodies c. Councilman bodies
b. Mallory bodies d. Guarnieri bodies
96-100 Match the ff. hepatotrophic viruses o their associated diseases.
______96. HAV (Picornavirus) a. post transfusion, NANB
______97. HBV (Hepanavirus) b. serum hepatitis
______98. HCV (Flavivirus) c. post transfusion hepatitis of unknown etiology
______99. HGV (Flavivirus) d. infectious hepatitis
______100. TTV (Transfusion Transmitted Virus) e. blood borne hepatitis