202 Q & A PMP. Collected by Mohamed Adel

202 Q & A PMP.
Collected By Mohamed Adel

1) A project manager analyzed the project’s communication requirements and
decided that 10 out of the 30 stakeholders in the project would only need
voicemail updates of certain information. This type of communication is:
A. Push communication
B. Pull communication
C. Interactive communication
D. On-demand communication
Answer
A - Use of voicemail is push communication. In this type of communication,
information is distributed to specific recipients who need to know the
information. However, this method does not certify that the information actually
reached, or was received by, the intended audience. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
374]
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‫علم ينتفع به‬
202 Q & A PMP. Collected By Mohamed Adel
2) A project involved development of a high-speed, hard disk drive. As part of its
testing, the hard disk was subjected to continuous operation at a high speed and
an elevated temperature. At the end of the test, the hard disk was destroyed
beyond use. The cost of such testing is usually classified as:
A. Appraisal costs
B. Internal failure costs
C. Cost of nonconformance
D. Prevention costs
Answer
A - This type of testing is called destructive testing, and it is classified under
appraisal costs. Along with other tests and inspections, it helps in assessing the
quality of the product. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282]
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3) You and your team are documenting requirements on your project to control
fatigue as people need to work more hours to keep up with the competition. You
decided to set up categories for the requirements on your project. Temporary
capabilities are an example of—
a. Stakeholder requirements
b. Transition requirements
c. Project requirements
d. Business requirements
Answer
B. Transition requirements, there are a number of different ways to categorize
requirements. This question is an example of transition and readiness
requirements. They are temporary capabilities needed to transition from the
current or as is stated to the desired future state. Examples include data
conversion and training requirements. [Planning] PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 148]
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4) Identification of new risks, reassessment of old risks, and closing of outdated
risks are part of the Monitor Risks process. How often should project risk
reassessment be scheduled?
A. It depends on how the project progresses relative to its objectives.
B. Reassessment is necessary at the 50 percent and 75 percent stages of project
completion.
C. Reassessment is necessary at the 25 percent, 50 percent, and 75 percent stages
of project completion.
D. Reassessment is necessary at the 20 percent, 40 percent, 60 percent and 80
percent stages of project completion
Answer
A -The Monitor Risks process is performed throughout the project. The number of
project risk reassessments scheduled depends on the progress of the project
relative to its objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453]
5) Which of the following is the process of communicating and working with

stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues as they occur,
and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement?
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
C. Manage Communications
D. Monitor Communications
Answer
A - Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process of communicating and
working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues
as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 523]
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6) Rick has just been assigned as the project manager of a project to develop a
complex product. The project is in the Define Scope phase. Which of these tools
and techniques will Rick not use in this phase?
A. Systems analysis
B. Process analysis
C. Product breakdown
D. Value engineering
Answer
B - Process Analysis is a tool and technique used in the Manage Quality process
and not in the Define Scope process. The other choices are valid Product Analysis
techniques used during the Define Scope process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 153]
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7) You are working to collect the requirements for your project to eliminate the
possibility of later scope creep. You have a variety of tools and techniques you can
use. Assume you want to obtain early feedback on the requirements, and you
have decided the most appropriate tool and technique is—
a. Interviews
b. Prototypes
c. Brainstorming
d. Requirements management plan
Answer
B. Prototypes are useful to obtain early feedback on requirements. They provide a
model of the expected product before it is built. Then, stakeholders can
experiment with the model for the final product instead of discussing abstract
requirements for it. This approach supports progressive elaboration with iterative
cycles of mock-ups, user experiments, feedback, and prototype revision.
[Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 147
Resource Management Plan
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8) Teams go through various stages of development. According to the Tuckman
ladder of development, the stage during which the least amount of work gets
done is usually the:
A. Storming phase
B. Forming phase
C. Norming phase
D. Performing phase
Answer
B - The forming phase is the phase where the team gets to know each other and
learns about the project. Teams are usually on their "best behavior" and little
tangible work gets accomplished. The project manager needs to guide the team
and move them through this phase into the performing phase. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 338
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9) During which stage of risk planning are risks prioritized based on their relative
probability and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer
A - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses the impact and likelihood of
identified risks. During this process, the risks are prioritized based on their relative
probability and impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 419]
01) With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced and highly
competitive global marketplace, where long-term scope is difficult to define, it is
becoming even more important to have a ____ for effective adoption and
tailoring of development practices to respond to the changing needs of the
environment.
A. Rigid management approach
B. Predefined detailed scope
C. Contextual framework
D. Black box approach
Answer
C - With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced, highly
competitive global marketplace where long term scope is difficult to define, it is
becoming even more important to have a contextual framework for effective
adoption and tailoring of development practices to respond to the changing
needs of the environment. Traditional, predictive and rigid methods are not
suitable for projects operating in an environment with a high degree of
uncertainty. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177
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10) At the beginning of the project, a project manager realized the technical
expertise of the team was limited, a risk to the project. Midway through the
project, the project manager decided that this was no longer a risk and
considered it outdated. As part of which process would he do the risk
reassessment?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Risk Assessment
D. Monitor Risks
Answer
D - Risk reassessment is performed as part of the Monitor Risks process. Such
project risk reassessments should be regularly scheduled and may result in the
closure of outdated risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 453]
12) As part of a strategy to handle negative risk, a project manager decided to
adopt less complex processes, conduct more tests, and choose a more stable
supplier. What strategy would this be classified as?
A. Acceptance
B. Transference
C. Mitigation
D. Avoidance
Answer
C - Actions such as adopting less complex processes, more testing, or choosing a
more stable supplier would be considered mitigation. These actions reduce the
probability and impact of risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443]
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13) Bill is the project manager of an external project for a customer. The project is
expected to take about a year to complete. Six months into the project, the
customer informs Bill that he or she needs to scrap the project. During which of
the following processes would procedures be developed to handle early
termination of a project?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Define Scope
D. Monitor Risks
Answer
B -The Close Project or Phase process establishes the procedures to investigate
and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before
completion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 123]
14) During a discussion with the quality department, Dave, a project manager,
was told that as applied to projects, the terms “prevention” and “inspection” are
synonymous. However, his understanding of the terms is different. What would
you comment on this situation?
A. The project manager is correct. Prevention is about keeping errors out of the
process; inspection is about keeping errors out of the customer’s hands.
B. The project manager is correct. Inspection is about keeping errors out of the
process; prevention is about keeping errors out of the customer’s hands.
C. The project manager is wrong. Both inspection and prevention are about
keeping errors out of the customer’s hands. They are used in different contexts.
D. The project manager is wrong. Both inspection and prevention are about
keeping errors out of the process. They are used in different contexts.
Answer
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A - The project manager is correct. Prevention is about keeping errors out of the
process, whereas inspection is about keeping errors out of the hands of the
customer. This is an important distinction, which the project management team
needs to be aware of. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 274]
15) Mark is managing an airport construction project. He is currently identifying

his project stakeholders, and he has compiled a long list of stakeholders already.
Managing expectations of every project stakeholder is not practical. What should
he do in this situation?
A. Project stakeholders should be prioritized based on their influence and
interest.
B. Stakeholder analysis should be outsourced.
C. Non-key stakeholders should be dropped from the stakeholder register.
D. Stakeholder management processes should not be followed for such complex
projects.
Answer
A - When the stakeholders list becomes unmanageable, the project stakeholders
should be prioritized to ensure the efficient use of effort and time to manage
their expectations. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 512]
16) While preparing a resource management plan, a project manager designated

one of the senior programmers on the team to make decisions on whether the
quality of deliverables met the project's documented standards. Which of the
following aspects of a resource management plan does this address?
A. Competency
B. Responsibility
C. Authority
D. Role
Answer
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C - Authority is the best choice. Authority is the right to apply project resources
and make decisions within the project. These decisions could include quality
acceptance, selection of the method for completing an activity, and how to
respond to project variances. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 318]
17) LA project manager uses the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for
constructing a project schedule network and creates a network diagram for the
purpose. He decides to use the most common type of precedence relationship for
all activities. Which of the following relationships would he use?
A. Start-to-finish (SF)
B. Finish-to-finish (FF)
C. Start-to-start (SS)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
Answer
D - Finish-to-start (FS) is the most common type of precedence relationship. In
contrast, the start-to-finish (SF) relationship is rarely used. [PM 6th, Page 190]
18) Sally, a project manager, was reconciling expenditure of funds with funding
limits on the commitment of funds for the project. She found a large variance
between the funding limits and planned expenditures. As a result, she decided to
reschedule work to level out the rate of expenditures. This is:
A. Funding limit reconciliation
B. Funding limit constraints
C. Funding limit expenditure
D. Funding limit appropriation
Answer
A - This is known as funding limit reconciliation. It can be accomplished by placing
imposed date constraints for work into the project schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 253]
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19) A project manager used the services of a trained moderator during the Collect
Requirements process. Which of the following is likely to have required the
services of a trained moderator?
A. Interviews
B. Prototypes
C. Questionnaires
D. Focus groups
Answer
D - Focus groups bring together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter
experts to learn about their expectations for, and attitudes toward, a proposed
product, service or result. Typically, a trained moderator is employed to guide the
group through an interactive discussion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 142]
21) Kelly is part of a project management office (PMO). Her office is responsible
for the centralized and coordinated management of 18 projects. Each project has
its own project manager. Which of the following will not typically be a
responsibility of her PMO?
A. Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight
B. Development of a detailed description of each project and the product it
produces.
C. Managing shared resources across all the projects administered by the PMO
D. Developing and managing project policies
Answer
B - The primary function of a PMO is to support project managers in a variety of
ways. This may include developing and managing project policies, coaching,
mentoring, training, and oversight. This may also include management of
resources that are shared across the projects. However, development of a
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detailed description of each project would be a responsibility of the project
manager handling the project, not of the PMO. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 48]
20) Jessica is managing an office refurbishment project. All the project
stakeholders are identified and classified. The stakeholder engagement plan is
also approved. Jessica is managing a project for the first time, and she is relying
on the PMBOK guide as a reference to deliver an excellent project. Which of the
following processes would provide guidance to Jessica regarding how to execute
the approved stakeholder engagement plan?
A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Answer
B - The question is asking about the Stakeholder Management process from the
executing process group. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process executes
the stakeholder engagement strategy developed during the Plan Stakeholder
Engagement process. The Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process deals with
making the necessary adjustments to the stakeholder engagement strategy.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 523
22) Which of the following statements accurately describes how the completion
of project scope and the completion of product scope are measured?
A. The completion of project scope and product scope are both measured against
the product requirements.
B. The completion of project scope is measured against the project management
plan, and the completion of product scope is measured against the product
requirements.
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C. The completion of project scope is measured against the product requirements,
and the completion of product scope is measured against the project
management plan.
D. The completion of project scope and product scope are both measured against
the project management plan.
Answer
B - The completion of project scope is measured against the project management
plan, whereas the completion of product scope is measured against the product
requirements. The work of the project results in delivery of the specified product
scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131]
23) Bill and Jake are two team members in a project. They do not get along well
and are constantly involved in verbal conflicts. The project manager understands
the characteristics of conflict and the conflict management process and tries to
resolve the situation. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
A. Openness resolves conflict
B. Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives
C. Conflict is inevitable in a project environment.
D. The project manager is not responsible for conflict management.
Answer
D - Project team members are initially responsible for resolution of them conflicts.
If conflict escalates, the project manager should help resolve it. [PM 6th Page 348
24) You are planning to conduct the team-building portion of your new project
management training curriculum out-of-doors in the local park. You are limited to
scheduling the course at certain times of the year, and the best time for the
course to begin in mid-July. You are using the precedence diagramming method
for your schedule. In it, you can show relationships between tasks in four ways,
and the most common is—
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A. Finish-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-start
D. Start-to-finish
Answer
A. Finish-to-start. While many schedules use all four approaches, especially on
complex projects, the most common approach is finish to start. In it a successor
activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished. The start-to-finish
approach is rarely used, but you should recognize it could be used in case you
have an exam question about it. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK ®️ Guide, 2017, 190
25) Project schedule development is an iterative process. If the start and finish
dates are not realistic, the project probably will not finish as planned. You are
working with your team to define how to monitor any schedule changes. You
documented your decisions in which of the following?
A. Schedule change control procedures
B. Schedule management plan
C. Schedule risk plan
D. Service-level agreement
Answer
B. Schedule management plan is part of the overall project management plan.
Whether it is formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, it is based on
specific project needs. It is the output of the Plan Schedule Management process.
It Includes appropriate control thresholds. It establishes criteria and activities to
develop, maintain, and control the schedule. [Planning] PMBOK®️, 2017, 151
26) You can use various estimating approaches to determine activity durations.
When you have a limited amount of information available about your project,
especially when in the early phases, the best approach to use is—
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A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Reserve analysis
D. Parametric analysis
Answer
B. Analogous estimating is a tool and technique in Estimate Activity Durations.
Although limitations exist with all estimating approach, analogous estimating is
often used when there is a limited amount of information for the project. It uses
historical information from a similar activity or a project. It uses data from a
previous but similar project such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity
to estimate the same data or measure for a future project. It is considered as a
gross value estimating approach, which often is adjusted for known differences in
project complexity. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 200
27) You are working on identifying possible risks to your project to develop a
nutritional supplement. You want to develop a comprehensive list of risks that
can be addressed later through qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. A data
gathering technique used to identify risks is—
A. Documentation reviews
B. Probability and impact analysis
C. Prompt lists
D. Brainstorming
Answer
D. Brainstorming is a frequently used data gathering technique for identifying risk.
It enables the project team to develop a list of potential risks relatively quickly.
Project team members, often with invited experts, possibly under the direction of
a facilitator, participate in the session. Traditional brainstorming sessions are free
form, or other approaches may be used. Categories of risks, such as in a RBS, can
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be used as a framework. The identified risks should be described as brainstorming
may result in ideas that may not be completely formed. It is part of several data
gathering approaches as data gathering is a tool and technique in Identify Risks.
28) Assume you have prepared your risk management plan, identified possible
risks, analyzed them, and determined possible responses if they occur. Now it is
time to Implement Risk Responses. The benefit of this process is to—
A. Present a sequence of decision choices to decision makers
B. Ensure agreed-upon risk response are executed as planned.
C. Ensure actions to implement risks are only taken from people who are on the
team
D. Help take into account the attitudes of the decision makers toward risk
Answer
B. Ensure agreed-upon risk response are executed as planned the purpose of the
Implement Risk Response process is to implement agreed-upon risk responses.
The key benefit is it ensures these responses are executed as planned such that it
addresses overall project risk exposure, minimizes individual potential threats,
and maximizes project opportunities. [Executing] PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 449
29) The Identify Risks process involves determining which risks may impact a
project. It is considered an iterative process. What is the frequency of the
iteration?
A. Every month
B. Every two weeks
C. The frequency of iteration will vary based on the situation.
D. Every week
Answer
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C - Identify Risks is an iterative process as risks become known or evolve. The
frequency of iteration, and who participates in each cycle, will vary by the
situation. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 411]
31) You are using an RBS to manage your risk categories. What process are you
performing?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Answer
A - You use an RBS to figure out and organize your risk categories even before you
start to identify them. Then you decompose the categories into individual risks as
part of Identify Risks. Pmbok pg. 405
31) A new project manager has just taken over a project that is 50 percent
complete. As part of the hand-over process, the outgoing project manager
provided the new project manager with a list of stakeholders that needed to be
managed. The list had been compiled at the start of the project. Which of the
following is true about stakeholders?
A. Stakeholder identification is usually performed when there are problems with
the project.
B. Stakeholder identification needs to happen at the start of each new phase of a
project
C. Stakeholder identification is a continuous process and needs to happen all
through the project.
D. Stakeholder identification needs to happen at the start of the project
Answer
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C - Stakeholder identification is a continuous process and can be quite difficult.
Failure to identify stakeholders can result in project overruns. The new project
manager can use the list of stakeholders provided by the outgoing project
manager as a starting point, but he or she will still need to perform his or her own
analysis to identify stakeholders during the rest of the project. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 507]
32) Working with your team to provide the basis for measuring and reporting
schedule progress, you agree to consider the—
a. Schedule data
b. Network diagram
c. Schedule baseline
d. Technical baseline
Answer
C - The schedule baseline is a key input to the Control Schedule process. It is
compared with actual results to determine if a change requires corrective or
preventive action. [Monitoring and Controlling] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ 224
33) Acceptance is a strategy adopted because it is not possible to eliminate all

risks from a project. This strategy indicates that the project management team
has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk. What
action does passive acceptance require?
A. Passive acceptance is no longer adopted in projects and is a poor project
management practice.
B. Passive acceptance requires no action except to document the strategy and
come up with a risk management strategy.
C. Passive acceptance requires no action.
D. Passive acceptance requires no proactive action except periodic review of the
threat.
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Answer
D - Acceptance is a strategy adopted because it is not possible to eliminate all
risks from a project. This strategy indicates that the project management team
has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk.
Passive acceptance requires no action except performing periodic review of the
threat. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443]
34) A buyer and seller set the rates for junior engineers, senior engineers,
architects, and other predefined roles. In what type of contract would this be
applicable?
A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment contract
B. Fixed-price incentive contract
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Time and material contract
Answer
D - In time-and-materials contracts, the buyer and seller agree on unit labor rates
and the actual cost of materials. Both parties agree on specific hourly rates for
such categories as junior or senior engineers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 472]
35) “I cannot test the software until I code the software.” This expression
describes which of the following dependencies?
a. Internal
b. Rational
c. Preferential
d. Mandatory or hard
Answer
D - Mandatory or hard dependencies may be required contractually or may be
inherent in the nature of the project work. Dependency determination and
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integration is a tool and technique in the Sequence Activity process. They describe
a relationship in which the successor activity cannot be started because of
physical constraints until the predecessor activity has been finished. For example,
software cannot be tested until it has been developed (or coded). They may be
called hard logic or hard dependencies; however, technical dependencies may not
be mandatory. This distinction is important to remember. The project team
determines the dependencies that are mandatory as it sequences the activities.
However, these dependencies should not be confused with assigning constraints
in the scheduling tool. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 191
36) Your project schedule was approved. Management has now mandated that
the project be completed as soon as possible. However, you do not think it is
possible given resource constraints. In order to convince your management of
your need for additional resources, you decide to use—
a. Resource manipulation
b. Resource breakdown structure
c. Critical chain scheduling
d. Resource leveling
Answer
D - While resource leveling will often result in a project duration that is longer
than the preliminary schedule as the original critical path probably will change
and increase, it can also be used to get a schedule back on track by reassigning
activities from noncritical to critical path activities. It is a resource optimization
technique in the Develop Schedule process. Start and finish dates are adjusted
based on resource constraints, and the goal is to balance demand with the
available supply of resources. It is used when scarce or critically required
resources are only available at certain times or in limited quantities, are over
allocated if the resource is assigned to two activities at the same time, or to keep
resource use at a constant level. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 211
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37) The project manager for a construction project discovers that the local city
council may change the building code to allow adjoining properties to combine
their sewage systems. She knows that a competitor is about to break ground in
the adjacent lot and contacts him to discuss the possibility of having both projects
save costs by building a sewage system for the two projects. This is an example of
which strategy?
A. Mitigate
B. Share
C. Accept
D. Exploit
Answer
B - Sharing is when a project manager figures out a way to use an opportunity to
help not just her project but another project or person as well. Examples of
sharing actions include forming risk-sharing partnerships, teams, special-purpose
companies, or joint ventures PMBOK Pg. 444
38) An Agile team is working on Project XYZ. They encountered a critical problem
and are brainstorming to resolve the problem. What will be the most effective
way in resolving the problem?
a. Create an environment where mistakes are allowed
b. Create rewards program to the one solving the problem
c. Ask experts in the concerned field
d. Create environment where individuals can work on their own
Answer
A - When we are allowed to make mistakes then we don’t feel threatened by the
negative outcome. This helps in encouraging trying out different approaches to
solve the problem.
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39) In Agile, velocity helps to know how much team can accomplish in future
iterations. Which of the following is NOT true about velocity?
a. It measures team’s capacity for work per iteration
b. It varies the most during the first few iterations
c. It stabilizes after few iterations
d. It always increases with time as the team members get habitual of working
with each other.
Answer
D - Velocity gets stabilized with time as team needs to maintain, refactor, and
support already developed and deployed solutions. Moreover, sometimes team
adds some improvement activities decided in retrospective meetings in the
iteration which also let team pick up fewer story points for the iterations.
41) Project manager was setting up the agenda for the next project meeting. Few
members argued over one feature. Some said it should be included for detailed
discussion while others said it would be too early to go for detailed discussion.
Project manager decided to include it but mentioned that only high level
discussion would be done for this feature. Which conflict resolution technique is
being used by project manager?
a. Smoothing
b. Withdrawal
c. Compromising
d. Forcing
Answer
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C - Project Manager included viewpoints of both the parties but didn’t include it
completely to satisfy both the parties up to a certain extent. This is an example of
compromise.
41) Team is working on the project ABC. It encountered problem in an activity

with the free float. Due to this, its duration got extended by the project manager.
What is MOST likely to be affected in this situation?
a. Resource schedules
b. Project duration
c. Start date of the successor activity
d. Scope management plan
Answer
A - Since an activity with float will not affect the project duration as long as any
delay is not greater than the float, choice B could not be best. Choice D cannot be
best as this situation is not related to scope, just time. An activity with free float
means it has time where it can be delayed without impacting the next activity.
Therefore, choice C cannot be best. Any delay in when an activity is to be
completed will most likely impact resources schedules.
41) A project manager is estimating project costs and needs to decide whether
the estimates will include direct costs only or include indirect costs, as well. In
which of the following phases does this decision need to take place?
A. Define Scope
B. Estimate Costs
C. Plan Expenses
D. Determine Budget
Answer
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B - This is done in the Estimate Costs process. The project manager works in
accordance with the organization's guidelines and decides whether the estimates
will be limited to direct project costs only or whether the estimates will also
include indirect costs. Indirect costs are those that cannot be traced to one
specific project, and are usually allocated equitably over multiple projects.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Page246]
42) Joe is the project manager of a large software project. When it’s time to
identify risks on his project, he contacts a team of experts and sends them a list of
questions to help them all come up with a list of risks and send it in. What
technique is Joe using?
A. SWOT
B. Ishikawa diagramming
C. Interviews
D. Brainstorming
Answer
C - Using the Interview technique, experts supply their opinions of risks for your
project so that they each get a chance to think about the project. Interview is a
formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to
them directly. It is typically performed by asking prepared and spontaneous
questions and recording the responses. Interviews are often conducted on an
individual basis between an interviewer and an interviewee, but may involve
multiple interviewers and/or multiple interviewees. Interviewing experienced
project participants, sponsors, other executives, and subject matter experts can
aid in identifying and defining the features and functions of the desired product
deliverables. Interviews are also useful for obtaining confidential information.
43) After conducting a bidder conference, you receive an email from one of the
bidders requesting additional information. The information was neither included
in your request for proposal, nor did anyone ask for it during the bidder
conference. You realize the answer to this question is critical to understanding the
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scope of the project. If the answer is not communicated to bidders, they cannot
size their teams accurately or estimate the total duration of the project. The
answer also greatly affects cost. However, the answer contains some proprietary
information that, if disclosed to a competitor, may reveal the future product
strategy of your company. Such a disclosure could be disastrous for a major
product launch you are planning next year. You decide to send the answer to all
the bidders, but you realize one of the bidders is also working closely with one of
your competitors on a similar project. What should you do?
A. Don’t send this information in writing; instead, telephone each bidding
company.
B. Send this information to all bidders except the bidder working with your
competitor.
C. Send this information to only the supplier who requested it.
D. Require all bidders to sign a nondisclosure agreement. You may then send the
information to each company that signed the NDA.
Answer
D - The best choice is to require all bidders to sign a non-disclosure agreement
(NDA) before sending them this additional information, and then provide the
additional information to each bidder that has signed an NDA. Project managers
are required to act fairly and provide equal access to information to all authorized
parties. Sending the information to only some of the bidding companies would
represent a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. [PMI
Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct]
44) During a project status meeting, a project manager presented sensitive

information related to the project. However, this information was not intended to
be available to the audience. Which of the following processes was done
incorrectly, resulting in the project manager communicating sensitive information
to the wrong audience?
A. Monitor Communications
27
B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Plan Communications Management
D. Identify Stakeholders
Answer
C - Deciding what information is relevant to an audience is an activity done in the
Plan Communications Management process. Improper communication planning
will lead to problems such as delays in message delivery or communication of
sensitive information to the wrong audience. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 366
45) A project manager created a resource histogram. On the histogram, some

bars extended beyond the maximum available hours. What does this usually
signify?
A. This means that the resources on those bars are being underused.
B. This means that a resource optimization strategy needs to be applied.
C. This means the resources are producing outputs at a rate faster than the
average rate.
D. This means that resources need to be reduced from the project.
Answer
B - If the bars in a resource histogram extend beyond the maximum available
hours, it means that a resource optimization strategy needs to be applied, such as
adding more resources or modifying the schedule. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 220]
46) A project manager needs team members that report to a functional manager.
What technique is the project manager most likely to use to obtain these
resources?
A. Pre-assignment
B. Authority
C. Negotiation
28
D. Coercion
Answer
C - Staff assignments are negotiated on many projects. The project manager will
negotiate with functional managers to ensure that the project receives
competent staff in the required time frame. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 332]
47) Which of the following statements about project teams is incorrect?

A. The project management team is usually a team external to the project team.
B. The project management team is a subset of the project team.
C. For smaller projects, the entire team can share the project management
responsibilities.
D. For smaller projects, the project manager can solely administer project
management responsibilities.
Answer
A - The project management team is a subset of the project team.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 86]
48) You’re performing Identify Risks on a software project. Two of your team
members have spent half of the meeting arguing about whether or not a
particular risk is likely to happen on the project. You decide to table the
discussion, but you’re concerned that your team’s motivation is at risk. The next
item on the agenda is a discussion of a potential opportunity on the project in
which you may be able to purchase a component for much less than it would cost
to build. Which of the following is NOT a valid way to respond to an opportunity?
A. Exploit
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Enhance
29
Answer
B - You wouldn’t want to transfer an opportunity to someone else! You always
want to find a way to use that opportunity for the good of the project. That’s why
the response strategies for opportunities are all about figuring out ways to use
the opportunity to improve your project (or another, in the case of sharing).
PMBOK Pg. 443
49) Risks that are caused by the response to another risk are called:
A. Residual risks
B. Secondary risks
C. Cumulative risks
D. Mitigated risks
Answer
B - A secondary risk is a risk that could happen because of your response to
another Risk. Pmbok pg. 722
50) What’s the main output of the Risk Management processes?

A. The Risk Management plan
B. The risk breakdown structure
C. Work performance information
D. The risk register and project documents updates
Answer
D - The processes of Risk Management are organized around creating the risk
register, and updating it as part of project documents updates.
51) A company is undergoing some changes due to which it decided to do some

new type of projects. However, it got request from one of its old customers for
30
the project which doesn't match with the new type of projects. What would be
the best way for the Project Manager in this case?
a. Decline the request
b. Consult PMO
c. Ask management for the project charter
d. Conduct cost-benefit analysis
Answer
B -The PMO determines whether a project supports the organization’s strategy
and can authorize exceptions to projects.
52) Sara is working as the scrum master for her team. During her absence, senior
management asked team about the current project schedule and future plans.
Team prepared detailed task status and plans and shared with the senior
management. Senior Management liked it very much and asked team to share
these reports on regular basis. Sara got to know about it when she joined back.
What should she do in such scenario?
a. Appreciate the team and continue reporting the same way as senior
management liked it
b. Discuss with senior management and revoke the detailed plans
c. Track team performance against the plan and make necessary changes
d. Display the detailed plan to the whole team so that everyone is aware of the
status
Answer
B - Agile projects are change-driven. They do not follow detailed plans. Having
detailed plans restrict agility and restrict necessary changes required.
53) Sheila is the project manager of a website development project. After a

detailed discussion with the project management team, she decides to create an
31
informal, broadly framed quality management plan. What would your comment
on this be?
A. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be formal but broadly
framed.
B. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be formal and highly
detailed.
C. This is fine. The project requirements determine the style and detail of the
quality management plan.
D. This is incorrect. A quality management plan should be informal and highly
detailed.
Answer
C - The quality management plan may be formal or informal, highly detailed or
broadly framed. Its style and detail are determined by the requirements of the
project as defined by the project management team. [PMBOK 6th Page 286]
54) A project manager was involved in preparation of the project charter for an
external project. One of the inputs to the project charter was a statement of work
(SOW). The SOW may have been received from the customer as part of any of the
following except:
A. As part of a request for information
B. As part of the business case
C. As part of a request for proposal
D. As part of a contract
Answer
B - The statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services
to be delivered by the project. For an external project, the SOW may be received
as part of a bid document such as the request for proposal, request for
32
information, request for bid or as part of a contract. It is usually not part of the
business case. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 477]
55) Team has been working on difficult issues 9n a critical project. During the
discussion, few members disagreed on how the work has to be done. Project
sponsor had to intervene to resolve the issue. During later phase, project
manager discovered that a particular task was not completed as it was intended
to be done. What did the project manager NOT do?
a) Ask team members responsible for the work to describe how the task would be
done
b) Ensure functional managers should be involved during development
c) Provide training to team members
d) Organize team building sessions
Answer
A - When the work is not straightforward and team members disagrees on how
the work should be done then it became very much important that after
agreement ask members responsible for the work to describe how they would
complete the work or resolve the issues in detail. This helps to make sure whole
team is on the same page.
56) To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, a project

manager is determining which ones require a lead or a lag. Which of the following
correctly describes leads or lags?
A. A lead allows a successor activity to be delayed.
B. A lag directs a delay in the predecessor activity.
C. A lag allows acceleration of the successor activity.
D. A lead allows an acceleration of the successor activity.
Answer
33
D - To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, the project
management team determines which ones require a lead or a lag. A lead allows
an acceleration of the successor activity. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192]
57) While working on your project, you identify a new risk at 50 percent project
completion. There is a very high probability the risk will occur on the project,
while at the same time, it is expected to have a low impact. Which of the
following mitigation strategies would you use?
a) You will add risk to the watch list
b) You will get insurance to cover the risk
c) You will eliminate the risk and impact
d) You will avoid the risk
Answer
A - Since the risk has a low impact, it is best to add the risk to the watch list and
see if it's impact will be greater down the road. Risks will always present
themselves on projects, you need to decide which one of them are important
enough to stop you from creating the final deliverable as required within the cost
and schedule. This is why you have a list of prioritized risks which you need to
address. It is not worth spending time and money on a risk with low impact.
58) Currently, there are 7 people in the project team. 2 more resources are added
later on in the project's life. What is the number of the additional channels of
communication?
A.21
B.15
C.36
D.9
Answer
34
B - Formula = [N (N-1)/2] First there were 7 members of the project team [7(7-
1)/2] = 21 Channels of Communication Then there were 9 members of the project
team [9(9-1)/2] = 36 Channels of Communication 36-21 = 15 additional channels
of communication.
59) Dina, the project manager of a hardware project, is performing a structured

review of the procurement process. She would like to examine each document
from the Plan Procurement Management process through the Control
Procurements process to identify failures. What tool should Dina use?
A. Procurement audits in the control procurements process
B. Performance reports in the conduct procurements process
C. Negotiated settlements in the control procurements process
D. Procurement audits in the conduct procurements process
Answer
A - A procurement audit is a tool in the Control Procurements process.
Procurement audits are carried out to identify successes and failures that warrant
recognition. When this tool is used, all procurement processes are thoroughly
checked, and corresponding documents are checked for problems. Therefore, the
correct answer is procurement audits in the Control Procurements process.
60) Erica is managing a kitchen tools manufacturing project, which is intended to

produce modern cooking ovens. This project is hugely important for the company
as well as for Erica‘s career. Although the project scope statement was well-
defined and requirements were gathered from stakeholders in the planning
phase, many design change requests have come in from customers during project
execution. Which of the following tasks must Erica perform to avoid scope creep
caused by uncontrollable changes?
A. Perform validate scope process and process all changes through the plan risk
responses process
35
B. Perform integrated change control process and process all changes through the
control quality process
C. Perform scope control and process all changes through the integrated change
control process
D. Perform scope control and process all changes through the validate scope
process
Answer
C - All scope changes must be controlled in a project through the Control Scope
process. However, scope control must also ensure that all changes requested by
customers go through the Perform Integrated Change
Control process. This way, scope creep can be avoided, and project changes can
be managed. Hence, Erica must perform scope control and process all changes
through the Integrated Change Control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168
61) Decomposition is a technique used for both WBS development and activity
definition. However, in Define Activities, decomposition—
a. The final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBS.
b. The final output is described as deliverables or tangible items.
c. The final output is described as activities.
d. Is used the same way in scope definition and activity definition.
Answer
C. The final output is described as activities, In the Create WBS process, the work
package is defined as the lowest level of the WBS to then estimate and manage
cost and duration. In the Define Activities process, the final output is described as
activities. It is a tool and technique in both processes as it divides and subdivides
the project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. Activities
represent the effort to create the work package in Create WBS. The best
36
approach is to involve team members in decomposition in both processes.
62) A schedule performance index of less than 1.0 indicates that the—
a. Project is running behind the monetary value of the work it planned to
accomplish
b. Earned value physically accomplished thus far is 100%
c. Project has experienced a permanent loss of time
d. Project may not be on schedule, but the project manager need not be
concerned
Answer
A. Project is running behind the monetary value of the work it planned to
accomplish, The SPI represents how much of the originally scheduled work has
been accomplished at a given period in time, thus providing the project team with
insight as to whether the project is on schedule. It is a measure of schedule
efficiency and is calculated by EV/PV. A SPI of 1 means the project is on schedule,
and the work that has been done to date is exactly the same as the work that was
planned. Other values show how much costs are over or under [as in this
example] the budgeted amount for the work planned. [Monitoring and
Controlling] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 226
63) You recently joined a new organization where you have been given the
responsibility of leading the project management office. What is the FIRST thing
you should do?
A .Talk to the main stakeholders to develop an understanding of the organization
and its projects.
B. Develop strong communication with your senior management
C. Review the historical documents
37
D. Immediately get involved in the projects so as not to waste time
Answer
A - Speaking directly to the stakeholders first will allow you to come up to speed
with the nature of the organization and a better understanding of the
stakeholder’s requirements.
64) Which of the following can include information such as: Source of the
requirements, Requirement identification number, and person assigned for
managing the requirement
A. Work Breakdown Structure
B. Project Scope Baseline
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Pareto Chart
Answer
C - The traceability requirement matrix includes all this information. It links the
objectives of the project with the requirements.
65) Assume you are working to sequence the activities in your schedule. You have
focused on the need for predecessors and successors for your tasks. Now, you
have finished, and you realize—
a. You have a fragment.
b. There can be multiple predecessors for some tasks.
c. Several identical or nearly identical series of activities are repeated throughout
the project.
d. There are too many successors.
Answer
38
B. There can be multiple predecessors for some tasks. The main output in
Sequence Activities is a project network diagram of the logical relationships or
dependencies in the schedule activities. A summary narrative can accompany th
diagram. You also may have multiple predecessors for a task or activity, which is
known as path convergence. Activities with multiple successors are known as path
divergence. In both of these situations, these activities or tasks are at greater risk.
66) Which of the following is so important that they should always be included on
the list of items under discussion at all team meetings.
A. Discussing project deadlines
B. Discussing project activities
C. Discussing the risks on the project
D. Devising ways to engage stakeholders on the project
Answer
C - It is of utmost importance to discuss risks at project meetings
67) One of your key suppliers for an important deliverable is constantly making
delays in submitting his work to your project. You decide to deal with the
situation when you have more time available from your current workload. You are
using the conflict resolution technique known as:
A.Compromising
B. Withdrawing
C. Smoothing
D. Postponing
Answer
B - This technique would be considered as Withdrawing since you are not dealing
with the situation directly at that time.
39
68) While working on your construction project, you come across environmental
risks that could negatively affect the project. It would be best to hire a consultant
to share insights and advice on tackling the challenges. Which contract type
should be used for hiring the consultant?
A. Cost plus Fixed Fee
B. Time and Material
C. Fixed Price
D. Cost plus Incentive Fee
Answer
B - The most appropriate contract type is the Time and Material contract since the
project is already under way and you have to hire someone in the middle of the
project without a procurement statement of work.
69) You’re managing a project to fulfill a military contract. Your project team is
assembled, and work has begun. Your government project officer informs you
that a supplier that you depend on has lost the contract to supply a critical part.
You consult your risk register and discover that you did not plan for this. What’s
the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Consult the Probability and Impact matrix
B. Perform Quantitative and Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Recommend preventive actions
D. Look for a new supplier for the part
Answer
D - You’ve got an unplanned event that’s happened on your project. Is that a risk?
No. It’s a project problem, and you need to solve that problem. Your Probability
and Impact matrix won’t help, because the probability of this happening is
100%—it’s already happened. No amount of risk planning will prevent or mitigate
the risk. And there’s no sense in trying to take preventive actions, because there’s
40
no way you can prevent it. So the best you can do is start looking for a new part
supplier.
70) The scope of work in a project could not be clearly defined. There was also a
strong possibility that the scope would change during the course of the project.
Which type of contract would suit this type of situation?
B. Fixed-price contract
C. Cost-reimbursable contract
D. Fixed-price incentive contract
Answer
C - A cost-reimbursable contract gives the project flexibility to redirect a seller
whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely determined at the start of the
project and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort.
71) A member of your team informs you that she does not know which project is
the most important one out of the several projects she is working on. In a large
organization, who is responsible for determining the priorities between the
different projects?
A. The Team itself
B. The Project Manager of the team
C. The Project Management Team
D. PMO (Project Management Office)
Answer
D -The PMO is responsible for determining the priorities between projects.
72) A project manager is considering risk in a project. When does risk come into
play in a project?
41
A. During the SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) Analysis
B. During the Identify Risks phase
C. As soon as the Plan Risk Management phase begins
D. As soon as a project is conceived
Answer
D - Project risk exists in a project from the moment the project is conceived. The
risks are identified as part of specific processes, but the risks always exist.
73) Jackie is the project manager of a large project. During the Determine
Budget process, she identifies that contingency reserves need to be set up for
unplanned but potentially necessary changes that could result from realized risks
identified in the risk register. Which of the following is true about reserves?
A. Management Reserves are not a part of project cost baseline, but will be
included in the total budget for the project.
B. Contingency Reserves are not a part of project cost baseline, but will be
included in the total budget for the project
C. Both the Management Reserves and the Contingency Reserves are part of
project cost baseline, and they are also not included in the total budget for the
project
D. Both the Management Reserves and the Contingency Reserves are not part of
project cost baseline, but they are included in the total budget for the project
Answer
A - Management Reserves are not a part of the project cost baseline but will be
included in the total budget for the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 252]
74) You are meeting with your stakeholders to gather requirements for your
project. You are well aware that requirements to be gathered include both
42
product and project requirements. All the following tools can be used to gather,
define, and analyze project requirements from stakeholders except:
A. Surveys
B. Focus Groups
C. Decomposition
D. Prototypes
Answer
C - Both product and project requirements are gathered from stakeholders during
the Collect Requirements process. This effort is undertaken during project
planning. Focus groups, surveys, and prototypes are some of the tools used to
define and analyze requirements. Decomposition is used only to break down the
work and not to gather requirements. Therefore, decomposition is the correct
answer. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 138, 158]
75) At the recent meeting, you discover that the customer is not satisfied with a
certain deliverable of the project. What is the Best thing to do?
A. Discuss with the team on what changes can be implemented
B. Develop another variation of the deliverable and present it to the customer
immediately
C. Tell the customer the deliverable is exactly in line with the scope defined for
the project
D. Ask the customer why they are not satisfied with the deliverable
Answer
D - You need to discover why the customer is not satisfied, the rest of the options
can be implemented after you determine the cause of dissatisfaction.
76) An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th.
The activity has a duration of four days. There are no non-workdays. From the
information given, what can be concluded about the activity?
43
a. Total float for the activity is nine days.
b. The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day on the 14th.
c. The late finish date is the 25th.
d. The activity can be completed in two days if the resources devoted to it are
doubled.
Answer
A - Total float for the activity is nine days, Total float or slack is computed by
subtracting the early start date from the late start date, or 19 – 10 = 9. To
compute the early finish date given a duration of 4, we would start counting the
activity on the morning of the 10th; therefore, the activity would be completed at
the end of day 13, not 14 (10, 11, 12, 13). If we started the activity on its late start
date on the morning of the 19th, we would finish at the end of day 22, not 25.
Insufficient information is provided to determine whether this activity can be
completed in 2 days if the resources are doubled. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️
Guide, 2017, 210–211
77) A project manager is highly Skeptical of his team members. He constantly

monitors their every move and doubts their performance. The project manager
can be considered to be a:
a. Functional Manager
b. Theory Y Manager
c. Maslow's motivational theory proponent
d. Theory X Manager
Answer
D - Theory X managers exhibit such behavior while Theory Y managers give more
empowerment and decision making authority to employees.
44
78) What is your analysis of a situation whereby the Earned Value of your project
is lesser than Planned Value and if the performance of the project were to
continue the same way?
A. The project will be behind schedule when it completes
B. The project will end up costing lesser than the original planned cost
C. The estimate at completion will be low compared to what was originally
planned
D. The project will perform ahead of the originally planned schedule
Answer
A - If EV is lesser than PV, the project will finish behind schedule.
79) The project team identifies a risk and shares information on it with the Project
Manager. After extensive discussions with the management, a strategy is
developed to deal with it. It is decided that it is in the best interest of the project
to allow the risk to happen. Which type of Risk Response Strategy is being used?
A. Share
B. Accept
C. Exploit
D. Enhance
Answer
C - Since the risk is an opportunity, it has been decided by the stakeholders that
they will exploit it, which refers to making changes to the project to ensure that
the risk occurs and the benefit from the opportunity is gained.
80) Regina the sponsor of a large publishing project, meets with all of the
stakeholders on the project to ask for their support in an upcoming testing event.
Which engagement level is he displaying?
A. Unaware
45
B. Resistant
C. Supportive
D. Leading
Answer
D -Since Regina is working to bring other stakeholders to support the project, he’s
in a leading engagement role.
81) You are the project manager of ABC project. Mid-way through the project a
key component was found defective. This was not planned for. The team met
after the event and managed to make the product work without the defective
component. This is an example of -
A. Risk mitigation
B. Transfer of risk
C. Workaround
D. Accepting the consequences passively.
Answer
C - This was an unplanned event that happened. Workaround refers to handling
of risk that has occurred but was not planned for workarounds are unplanned
responses developed to deal with the occurrence of unanticipated events or
problems on a project (or to deal with risks that had been accepted because of
unlikelihood of occurrence and/ or minimal impact.
82) A stakeholder in your company has a regular habit of requesting multiple

changes on projects. What is the ideal approach a project manager can take to
handle this situation at the beginning of the project?
A. Involve the stakeholder on the project as early as possible
B. Deny the stakeholders change requests since they could be harmful for the
project costs and schedule
46
C. Request the stakeholder’s manager to allocate him to a different project
D. Request the stakeholder to make fewer change requests
Answer
A - Most problems on projects arise because certain stakeholder’s requirements
were not fully taken into account at the beginning of the project. To avoid such a
situation, involve the stakeholder as soon as possible and get their requirements
so as to avoid changes later on during the projects life.
83) You are part of an expert committee deciding which project should be
implemented by your company. Your committee asks tough questions from the
project teams and helps decide which project your company should select. Which
project selection technique are you using?
A. Scoring Model
B. Committee Selection
C. Murder Board
D. Defined Benefit
Answer
C - Murder board is a process where a committee asks questions from project
representatives as part of the project selection process.)Murder Board( It is a
panel of people who try to shoot down a new project. Participants in the panel
act as the devil’s advocate and try to claim negative aspects that will come with
the implementation of the project. Based on the results of the panel, if a project
can defend these negative aspects, it is selected for initiation.
84) Project managers should pay attention to critical and subcritical activities
when evaluating project time performance. One way to do this is to analyze 10
subcritical paths in order of ascending float. This approach is part of—
a. Variance analysis
b. Simulation
47
c. Earned value management
d. Trend analysis
Answer
A - Performance of variance analysis during Control Schedule is a tool and
technique that can be used. It focuses on variance analysis in planned versus
actual start and finish dates, planned versus actual durations, and variances in
float. Float variance is an essential planning component for evaluating project
time performance. It determines the cause and degree of variance relative to the
schedule baseline, estimates the implications of the variances for future work to
complete the project, and helps decide if corrective or preventive action is
needed. It may not be needed on some activities not on the critical path, but an
activity on the critical path may need immediate attention. [Monitoring and
Controlling] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 227
85) During the execution of a project, a large number of defects were discovered.
The project manager ensured that the issues, defect resolution, and action item
results were logged into a defects database. What would the defect database be
considered a part of?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Deliverables
C. Change Requests
D. Organizational Process Assets
Answer
D - Issue and defect management databases are considered part of the
organizational process assets. These databases typically contain historical issue
and defect status, control information, issue and defect resolution, and action
item results. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 39]
48
86) Several types of float are found in project networks. Float that is used by a
particular activity and does NOT affect the float in later activities is called—
a. Extra float
b. Free float
c. Total float
d. Expected float
Answer
B - Free float is defined as the amount of time an activity can be delayed without
delaying the early start of any immediately succeeding activities or violating a
schedule constraint. It is important to know the difference between zero total
float, positive total float, negative total float, and free float and be able to
recognize examples of all four types of float. [Planning]PMI®, PMBOK®, 2017, 210
87) You have just been made the Project Manager of the ABC project. You are
trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS
components. Which should be your first step to understand this?
A. Refer to the WBS dictionary
B. Refer to the scope statement
C. Refer to the Project charter
D. Contact the previous Project Manager
Answer
A - WBS dictionary is the best option. WBS Dictionary identifies all the
components used in the WBS. PMBOK Pg. 162
88) The scope of work in a project could not be clearly defined. There was also a
strong possibility that the scope would change during the course of the project.
Which type of contract would suit this type of situation?
49
B. Fixed-price contract
C. Cost-reimbursable contract
D. Fixed-price incentive contract
Answer
C - A cost-reimbursable contract gives the project flexibility to redirect a seller
whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely determined at the start of the
project and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort.
89) You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You
identify a dependency that the wheels must be designed and developed before
the assembly of the vehicle can be performed. This is an example of which type of
dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Soft Logic
D. Mandatory
Answer
D - Mandatory dependency represents dependencies due to nature of work.
PMBOK pg. 191
90) A project manager is looking at a make-or-buy analysis as part of the

Procurement Management process. What type of costs should the project
manager consider for this analysis?
A. Direct costs
B. Indirect costs
C. Out-of-pocket costs
50
D. Both direct as well as indirect costs
Answer
D - The make-or-buy analysis needs to be as comprehensive as possible. Hence, it
should consider all possible costs, both direct and indirect. [PMBOK 6th, Page
473]
91) You are planning to use PERT for planning of your project. A task has
pessimistic estimate of 24 days, most likely estimate of 15 days and optimistic
estimate of 12 days. What is the mean using the PERT technique?
A. 18 days
B. 25.5 days
C. 15 days
D. 16 days
Answer
D - Mean for PERT is defined as (P+4M+O)/6 which comes out to be 16 days.
92) John is an excellent engineer. The management assumes that since he is a

good technical performer, he will be a good project manager too. Based upon
this, John was promoted to Project Manager. This is an example of
A. Halo Effect
B. Expectancy Theory
C. McGregor Theory of X and Y
D. Herzberg Theory
Answer
A - The behavior described is an illustration of Halo's effect. In project
management, the wrong perception to rate a team member high or low in all the
knowledge areas, based in a brilliant performance in some specific area is called
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the “halo effect”. For example “If you have a good performance in the technical
areas you should be good in management tasks”.
93) You are the Project Manager assigned to build a next generation vehicle. You
identify a dependency that before the vehicle can be sold, it must be approved by
the Government regulatory authority. This is an example of which type of
dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Soft Logic
D. Mandatory
Answer
A - This is an example of dependency to an external (outside) body. External
dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-project
activities. These dependencies are usually outside of the project team’s control.
For example, the testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the
delivery of hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental
hearings may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction
project. The project management team determines which dependencies are
external during the process of sequencing the activities. Pmbok pg. 192
94) You are required to estimate the time to paint a large wall. You know it takes
two hours to paint one square foot of wall. The wall has an area of 30 square foot.
So you estimate that it will take 60 hours to paint the wall. Which estimation
model are you using?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric modeling
C. Analogous
D. Expert judgment
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Answer
B - Parametric modeling is the best option. Parametric estimating is an estimating
technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on
historical data and project parameters. Parametric estimating uses a statistical
relationship between historical data and other variables (e.g., square footage in
construction) to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as cost,
budget, and duration. PMBOK pg. 200
95) You are the project manager of ABC project. One of the risks that has been
identifies is attrition of team members. Mid-way through the project you notice
that the morale and motivation of the team members is going down. You think
that this is a precursor to people leaving the organization. For this risk, low
motivation is an example of
A. workaround
B. trigger
C. risk monitoring
D. risk planning
Answer
B - A risk trigger is an indication that the risk is about to occur or has occurred.
PMBOK pg. 417
96) You are the Project Manager for XYZ project. The scope of the project has
been completed. You receive a request for a new module to be developed as part
of this project. What should you do next?
A. You should approach the Project sponsor and ask her for a new module to be
developed as part of this project.
B. You should approach the Senior Management and ask them for a new module
to be developed as part of this project.
C. You should send the request to Change Control Board for approval.
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D. Since the project scope is completed you should inform the customer that this
change cannot be done as part of the project.
Answer
D - As the scope is completed, the project is complete. Additional work should be
done as part of a new project.
97) Teresa is a Project Manager for a project to build a bridge. During his review
of the progress, Teresa finds out that the project is likely to be completed in six
months before schedule. Which is the most suitable thing for Teresa to do next?
A. Organize a party for the project team to ensure employee motivation remains
high.
B. Raise a change request to reduce staff.
C. Teresa does not need to do anything.
D. Teresa needs to use the additional six months to make sure the bridge exceeds
the quality goals.
Answer
B - If the project is running ahead of the schedule, Project Manager should
evaluate reducing staff for the project. This could lead to savings for organization.
98) You are the project manager working on a large scale office building
construction project for one of the leading technology companies in the world.
Given the amount of scope left to be completed, you will require more time to
finish the project. What is the Best decision to make at this moment?
A. Cut the scope of the project so that you can finish the work on time
B. Put in more hours per day and work overtime
C. Tell the client the work cannot be done on the initial deadline as planned
D. Come up with ways to compress the schedule and share them with
management
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Answer
D - A project manager is responsible for coming up with solutions, not problems.
The other options won't do much good to the project and may in turn end up
negatively influencing it e.g. cutting scope. The best thing to do is to come up with
options for how the work may still be achieved within the timeline through
schedule compression and then present it to management for approval. PMBOK
PG 215
99) While managing a project that has several stakeholder requests for changes,
which of the following is the best description of when would you decide to change
the scope baseline?
A. When you have received the approval for the changes.
B. In situations when the project has to be completed under urgent conditions
C. When the customer gives you the go ahead
D. When the project sponsor gives you permission
Answer
A - You can only make changes to the scope baseline of a project when you have
received approval for the changes from the integrated change control process by
the change control board. After implementing the changes on the project, you
will then accordingly update the changes to the scope baseline. PMBOK pg. 96
100) Describing stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose will),

urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement),
describes what type of grid or model?
A. Power/Influence grid
B. Salience Model
C. Influence/Impact grid
D. Power model
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Answer
B - Describes classes of stakeholders based on assessments of their power (level
of authority or ability to influence the outcomes of the project), urgency (need for
immediate attention, either time-constrained or relating to the stakeholders’ high
stake in the outcome), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate). There is
an adaptation of the salience model that substitutes proximity for legitimacy
(applying to the team and measuring their level of involvement with the work of
the project). The salience model is useful for large complex communities of
stakeholders or where there are complex networks of relationships within the
community. It is also useful in determining the relative importance of the
identified stakeholders. PMBOK Pg. 513
101) Michael is the Project Manager of a software project being developed for a
large customer. A senior management executive of Michael’s organization
suggests Michael that adding a new feature will be a good addition to his project.
What is the best course of action for Michael?
A. Document the request and present it to change control board.
B. Refuse the request as this was not part of the original scope.
C. Accept the request as it is being suggested by a senior member of the
organization.
D. Consult the project sponsor.
Answer
B - Gold plating is the process of providing functionality not in scope. Gold plating
refers to giving extra functionality, higher quality component, extra scope or
better performance. PMI does not recommend gold plating.
102) A project manager is expected to possess various important abilities. Which

leadership aspect is considered to be the most important for a project manager to
have?
A. The ability to motivate and build a team
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B. Have considerable technical knowledge and expertise of a subject
C. To have the ability to resolve conflict efficiently
D. To be a strong communicator
Answer
D - It is most important for a project manager to have strong communication skills
since they spend most of their time on a project communicating.
103) The optimistic estimate for an activity is 15 days, and the pessimistic
estimate is 27. What is the standard deviation for the activity?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 8
Answer
C -The beta standard deviation can be calculated as (P-O)/6. = (27-12)/6 =2
104) While working on your project, the senior management contacts you directly
and requests some changes to be made on the project. What is the First thing you
should do as a project manager?
A. Implement the change since you can't question the decision of the senior
management
B. Tell the customer about the change
C. Share the details of the change with your team and ask them to start work on it
immediately
D. Understand the scope of the change being requested
Answer
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D - The first thing to do is to understand the scope of the change. Next, it is
important to evaluate the impact of that change. After that, you consider the
options available to you, which you present to the change control board. The
change control board will then decide whether to include the change on the
project considering its impact.
105) You are a certified PMP, and the PMI has contacted you as part of an
investigation it is conducting into allegations of improper conduct by your
manager, who is also a PMP. A complaint has been filed stating your manager has
received bribes related to a large procurement contract on another project. PMI
has asked whether you could provide information regarding this situation. What
should you do?
A. Confront your manager
B. Send PMI project documentation and emails related to the allegations to assist
with their investigation
C. Notify the appropriate management immediately
D. Do nothing, citing a conflict of interest
Answer
C - Notifying the appropriate management of the PMI investigation and their
request for your assistance is the best choice. Sharing confidential information
with an outside party without approval from your management is a violation of
the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Once the appropriate
management have been notified, they will let you know the best way to proceed
with this investigation. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
106) As part of the Estimate Costs process, a project manager obtained access to
certain commercially available databases to get resource cost rate information.
Such published commercial information is considered what type of input?
A. Enterprise environmental factor
B. Historical information
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C. Organizational process asset
D. HR Input
Answer
A - Such published commercial information is considered part of enterprise
environmental factors that influence the Estimate Costs process. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 243
107) You are working on a project to build a shopping complex. You have reached
the planned half way mark. The total planned cost at this stage is Nine hundred
dollars and you have completed actual physical work at this stage is worth $400.
You have already spent one thousand dollars on the project. What is the Schedule
Variance SV?
A.-400
B.100
C.-500
D.600
Answer
C - SV=EV-PV. 400- 900 = -500, Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule
performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the
planned value. It is the amount by which the project is ahead or behind the
planned delivery date, at a given point in time. It is a measure of schedule
performance on a project. It is equal to the earned value (EV) minus the planned
value (PV). The EVA schedule variance is a useful metric in that it can indicate
when a project is falling behind or is ahead of its baseline schedule. The EVA
schedule variance will ultimately equal zero when the project is completed
because all of the planned values will have been earned. Schedule variance is best
used in conjunction with critical path method (CPM) scheduling and risk
management. Equation: SV = EV – PV. PMBOK 6th Pg. 262
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108) Midway through the delivery of development services, a customer requested
that new requirements be incorporated. When asked to submit a change request
to modify the terms of the contract, the customer refused and insisted that the
changes be implemented at no cost. After multiple discussions, neither party
changed their stance on the situation. What tool and technique will the project
manager likely use to address this situation?
A. Claims administration
B. Alternative dispute resolution
C. Inspection
D. Conflict management.
Answer
A - Claims administration is a tool and technique of the Control Procurements
process. Claims administration involves addressing contested changes between
the buyer and seller, which then converts into a claim. PMBOK 6th Pg. 498
109) Alice is joining a new project. Her manager informs Alice that requirements
of the project will be defined using progressive elaboration. Which of the
following options best describes progressive elaboration?
A. The requirements of the project will be defined over a period of time in
iterative fashion based upon feedback received.
B. Requirements are unknown at this time and will be defined later.
C. Requirements will be defined based upon discussions with the customer.
D. Requirements will be defined based upon discussions with the subject matter
expert.
Answer
A - Requirements may start out at a high level and become progressively more
detailed as more information about the requirements is known. This ongoing
refinement of the project management plan is called progressive elaboration,
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indicating that planning and documentation are iterative or ongoing activities.
PMBOK 6th, pg. 147
110) Q.___ motivation theory is concerned with how the salary and working
conditions of a workplace do not lead to improved levels of motivation for the
employees.
A. McGregor
B. Deming
C. Herzberg
D. Maslow
Answer
C - Herzberg's hygiene factors are more like prerequisites, In case of hygiene
factor reduction or absence will demotivate the people, although increasing in
hygiene factor may not increase employee motivation or productivity.
111) During a planning meeting, a group of project team members expressed

concerns regarding requirements gathered to date, noting that the customer was
not very clear on what they wanted. They urged the project manager to add in an
additional preliminary phase that would allow them to get feedback early, before
the team spent too much time developing the product. What is the project
manager likely to do next?
A. Continue moving forward according to the existing plan
B. Create a context diagram to generate a scope model
C. Hold a series of focus groups with the customer
D. Incorporate a prototype into the plan.
Answer
D - Prototypes allow project teams to collect feedback from stakeholders early on,
which they can use to progressively elaborate on the scope and requirements.
Prototypes are small-scale versions of the product and can include mock-ups or
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simulations. Prototyping is a method of obtaining early feedback on requirements
by providing a model of the expected product before actually building it. PMBOK
6th, pg. 147
112) PM is in the process of overseeing the implementation of risk responses for

risks that are being mitigated. As part of his approach, he references the plan that
outlines the roles and responsibilities of team members for risk management.
What document did PM reference to get this information?
A. Project management plan
B. Risk report
C. Risk register
D. Risk management plan.
Answer
D - The risk management plan captures information on how risk management will
be performed for the project. This includes risk management roles and
responsibilities, among other key risk management information. Although project
management plan is technically a correct choice, it is not as specific as the risk
management plan; the risk management plan is therefore a better choice. PMBOK
6th, pg. 405
113) As a project manager, for which of the following situations would you
consider that a customer has accepted the entire project as complete?
A. The customer has expressed his satisfaction with the project
B. The customer has paid all the money for the project
C. You have received formal sign off and formal acceptance from the customer
D. You have not received any further requests for more project work from the
customer
Answer
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C - When the customer has given the formal sign off and formal acceptance, that
is when a project can be considered as complete. Without acceptance, you cannot
be sure the project was finished. Concepts was very simple and memorable,
114) Jeff is managing a very large road construction project. As per the contract, it
is mandatory that all the team members should have more than 5 years of
experience in the field of road construction. Jerome is an excellent resource to
have in your team, but he has only 4 years of experience. Jerome's friend who is
in your team is suggesting that he can arrange for a work experience certificate.
Since Jerome is technically very sound, even the customer will be happy to have
him and the project will surely close successfully. He also feels that since Jerome
is a very good resource, quality of work will improve, so there is no harm in
getting a work experience. Jeff is a certified PMP, but is not a member of PMI
now. What should he do?
A. Jeff is not a member of PMI and code of conduct is not binding. He can do what
he feels is right.
B. Jeff should report this to senior management and refuse to arrange for a
fraudulent certificate. He is PMP and is bound by mandatory standard for
responsibility.
C. Jeff should call in legal authorities and report the incidence as this is against
aspirational responsibility standards.
D. Jeff should refuse to arrange for a fraudulent certificate and report the
incidence to customer along with senior management as he is bound by
aspirational code of conduct
Answer
B - Jeff should report this to senior management and refuse to arrange for a
fraudulent certificate. He is PMP and is bound by mandatory standard for
responsibility. (PMI Handbook)
63
115) All of the following statements about the final closing stages of a project are
true except for which one?
A. Costs and staffing taper off at this stage.
B. Overall project risk is at the lowest during this stage.
C. Stakeholders have the greatest influence at this stage.
D. The likelihood that the project will complete is highest at this stage.
Answer
C - During the final stages of a project’s life cycle, stakeholders have the least
amount of influence. During this stage, it is unlikely that a stakeholder may get a
scope change approved.
116) A project manager is in the process of developing the project management

plan. What is a valid tool and technique that the project manager can use to bring
various stakeholders into alignment on the various aspects of the plan?
A. Data gathering
B. Interpersonal and team skills
C. Expert judgment
D. Meetings.
Answer
B - When developing the project management plan, soft skills become key,
particularly in cases where the stakeholder group is large. In the context of
developing the project management plan, interpersonal and team skills involves
conflict management, facilitation, and meeting management. Bringing
stakeholders into alignment with each other is a part of resolving conflicts.
117) You are managing a project where you are setting up solar heating
equipment’s in a large residential complex of about 2000 houses. You do not have
technical knowhow and are planning to outsource procurement of panels. You are
asking for bids from 8 vendors. One of the vendors is your brother. You know that
64
he can do an excellent job. Your brother works for your organization regularly and
is one of your management's preferred vendors. Your management is aware of
your relation. What should you do?
A. Go ahead and invite your brother. You are giving him a fair chance along with
others and you are meeting aspirational standard for fairness.
B. Since he is you brother, you cannot invite him. Inviting bids from relatives will
mean that you are violating mandatory standard for fairness.
C. Since he is you brother, you cannot invite him. Inviting bids from relatives will
mean that you are violating aspirational standard for fairness.
D. Go ahead and invite your brother. You are giving him a fair chance along with
others and you are meeting mandatory standard for fairness
Answer
A - Go ahead and invite your brother. You are giving him a fair chance along with
others and you are meeting aspirational standard for fairness. (PMI Handbook)
118) Dan is a PMP and is managing an agricultural project for Global Agro food.
The project will improve the quality of soil. This is a very technology intensive
project. Dan has just joined Global Agro food. He was working with Best Agro
products and has acquired the know how while he was working there. Their
technology is patented. Can Dan use his knowledge and experience acquired in
his previous employment?
A. No. This will violate patent regulation and hence PMP code of conduct cannot
allow it.
B. PMP code of conduct is not agricultural product specific. Dan will not be
violating code of conduct.
C. Knowledge cannot be patented. He can use knowledge and experience without
violating any standards or regulations
D. This is illegal and even if he is PMP or not, PMI code of conduct will be binding
for him in this case
65
Answer
C - Knowledge cannot be patented. He can use knowledge and experience
without violating any standards or regulations (PMI Handbook)
119) While working on a real estate housing construction project in a
mountainous area, you realize that the previously identified risk of thunderstorms
is inevitable. If there is no appropriate response to this risk, what response
strategy would you use?
A. Acceptance
B. Avoidance
C. Transference
D. Mitigation
Answer
A - In case no response strategies can be developed, the only choice left is to
continue the work while accepting the risk. You cannot always address all of the
risks on a project.
120) A project management office (PMO) organization held a weekly staff

meeting for project managers to remain up to date on interdependent projects.
During this meeting, PM1 shared that her project had closed, and she had moved
on to another assignment. PM2 immediately expressed concern about the news,
since his own project was dependent on ongoing support that should have gone
live for the system that was deployed through PM1’s now closed project. He
explained that he had not heard of this milestone occurring. What closure step
did PM1 miss?
A. Archiving support documentation
B. Sending out a closure email
C. Transitioning to operations
D. Measuring stakeholder satisfaction.
66
Answer
C - While any one of the administrative closure tasks listed may have been missed
by PM1, it is clear that she did not finalize the transition of the project’s end result
to ongoing operations. This would have occurred through the implementation of
ongoing support for the new system deployed.
121) A project sponsor called the project manager to express concern over not
seeing the latest weekly update on the progress of the project. What key output is
the sponsor looking for?
A. Work performance data
B. Work performance report
C. Work performance information
D. Communications management plan.
Answer
B - Weekly status updates are an example of work performance reports, which
are produced out of the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
122) A project needed to monitor the technical performance of the project and
capture data related to how many errors or defects had been identified and how
many remained uncorrected. Which of the following techniques should the
project use?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Flowchart
C. Histogram
D. Control chart
Answer
C - Histograms are bar charts that are used to graphically show numeric data.
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123) Which of the following is not an example of parametric estimating?

A. Activity duration estimated based on the number of drawings multiplied by the
number of labor hours per drawing.
B. Activity duration estimated based on the number of labor hours per meter for
cable installation.
C. Activity duration estimated based on the square footage in construction.
D. Activity duration estimated based on the actual duration of a similar, previous
project.
Answer
D - Estimated activity duration based on the actual duration of a previous similar
project is an instance of analogous estimating. The other three choices are
examples of parametric estimating. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 200]
124) A project charter that formally authorized a project was created. The project
charter documented the initial requirements to satisfy stakeholders' needs and
expectations. How often should the project charter be revised?
A. At the beginning, middle, and end of a project
B. Once a month
C. Project charter is usually not updated during the course of the project.
D. As required by the PMO
Answer
C - The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes a project.
It documents a broad understanding of the project and does not need to be
updated during the course of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 75]
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125) Sue, the sponsor of the industrial design project you’re managing, is plotted
on your power/interest grid as high power, high interest. Which is the BEST
approach for managing her requirements and expectations?
A. Keep her informed of all project decisions.
B. Manage her requirements and expectations closely.
C. Keep her satisfied by inviting her to all of the team meetings.
D. Understand her goals and expectations, but don’t do anything with them.
Answer
B - Stakeholders in the high power/high interest quadrant of the power/interest
grid need to have their expectations and requirements closely managed by the
project manager. PMBOK Pg. 513
126) Which of the following techniques focuses on identifying non-value-added

activities in a project?
A. Pareto charting
B. Process analysis
C. Root cause analysis
D. Affinity diagrams
Answer
B - Process analysis examines problems experienced, constraints experienced, and
non-value-added activities identified during process operation. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 292]
127) Kyle is the project manager of a project that has teams distributed in many
different places. One of the stakeholders in his project has asked that all formal
communications from the project be shared with all of the teams, regardless of
their location. Which of the following is not a tool that Kyle’s team will use to
monitor this stakeholder requirement:
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A. Data analysis
B. Data representation
C. Meetings
D. Inspection
Answer
D - Inspection is not a tool or technique of Monitor Stakeholder Expectations. (It’s
part of Procurement Management.)
128) Procurement statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of the

products or services to be delivered by the vendor. It usually references all the
following except:
A. The business case
B. Product specifications
C. Work location
D. Performance requirements
Answer
A - The procurement statement of work (SOW) does not usually reference the
business case. The business case may contain cost sensitive information that may
not be made available to a wider audience. The rest of the choices are valid
components of a procurement statement of work. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 477]
129) Project is in execution. Nancy is currently planning to execute the Manage

Stakeholder Engagement process. She has gathered the project documents such
as the issue log, the change log, the stakeholder register, the lessons learned
register and the necessary organizational process assets. Which of the following is
a key input to this process that is still missing from this list?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Communication Skills
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C. Change requests
D. Project Management Plan
Answer
D - The missing input is the project management plan. [PMBOK 6th, Page 523]
130) A project manager needed to shorten a project schedule and decided to
employ crashing, a schedule compression technique. Which of the following
activities would not be an example of crashing?
A. Bringing in additional resources
B. Reducing project scope
C. Paying to expedite delivery activities
D. Approving overtime
Answer
B - Schedule compression techniques such as crashing and fast tracking shorten
the project schedule without changing the project scope.
Approving overtime, bringing in additional resources and paying to expedite
delivery activities are valid examples of crashing. Reducing project scope is not a
valid example of crashing. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 215
131) Joe, a stakeholder on your project, has been plotted on the power/interest
grid as high interest with low power. What’s the BEST approach for managing his
engagement?
A. Make him responsible for a deliverable on the project.
B. Keep him informed of all of the decisions that might affect the project’s
outcome.
C. Closely manage his requirements and expectations.
D. Ignore his requirements and expectations, since he doesn’t have the power to
the project’s outcome
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Answer
B - Stakeholders in the low power/high interest quadrant of the power/interest
grid need to be kept informed of all project decisions. PMBOK Pg. 513
132) You are working in a matrix project environment where functional managers
have control over the resources. You are well aware that not acquiring the project
team soon enough for your project could result in changes to the schedule, cost,
and quality. To acquire the project team from functional managers, the best
technique for you to use is:
A. Pre-assignment
B. Virtual teams
C. Negotiations
D. Acquisition
Answer
C - Pre-assignment, virtual teams or negotiations as tools or techniques for
acquiring project resources. However, negotiation is the tool used to acquire the
project team from functional managers to ensure that the project receives
appropriate staff in the required time frame. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 332]
133) You work at a multinational organization. Your latest project includes people
in four time zones, people who work from their homes, and technical experts
from around the globe. This is an example of
A. A virtual team
B. Cultural diversity
C. A reduced travel budget
D. Geographical dispersion
Answer
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A. A geographically diverse team is a Virtual team’s can be defined as groups of
people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles with little or no time spent
meeting face to face. PMBOK pg. 333
134) You’re managing a project for a military subcontractor to modify the

software for a missile guidance system. You’re planning the project, and need to
take into account information about the company’s operating environment.
Which of the following is not an example of the factors you are looking at:
A. Marketplace conditions
B. The forecast for project completion, including ETC and TCPI
C. Government standards you need to comply with
D. The political climate that can affect your project
Answer
B. Since this question is asking about the company’s operating environment, it’s
really asking you to figure out which of the answers is not an enterprise
environmental factor. Marketplace conditions, government standards, and
political climate are enterprise environmental factors, but forecasts aren’t—that’s
a Cost Management output.
135) A first-time project manager created a Work Breakdown Structure

(WBS) where the deliverables had different levels of decomposition.
What would your comment on this be?
A. This is incorrect. All deliverables need to have the same level of decomposition.
B. This is incorrect. Only deliverables under different branches can have different
levels of decomposition.
C. This is fine. Different deliverables can have different levels of decomposition,
depending on the work involved.
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D. This is fine. The focus of the WBS is not the deliverables but the tasks Involved.
Answer
C - This is acceptable. Deliverables need not all have the same level of
decomposition. This will depend on the work involved and degree of control
required. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 158
136) A vendor who failed to attend the bidder conference because of illness asks
for a repeat. To minimize the burden on the contracting organization, the vendor
offers the use of its conference room to serve breakfast and lunch. What should
you do?
A. Escalate this matter to your sponsor for guidance.
B. You can repeat the conference, but only in the same facilities and under the
same conditions as everyone else.
C. If the vendor provides evidence of the claimed illness, go ahead.
D .You cannot present a private bidder conference for one client.
Answer
D - This is a Fairness standard. The offer of the vendor to provide breakfast, lunch,
and a room would have the appearance of favoritism and could impede the
impartiality of the selection. The bidder conference is a technique to provide
equal access to information. If a bidder is unable to attend, the buyer cannot
make special arrangements. Look at PMI Code of Ethics and Prof.Conduct 4.2.
137) Stanley's project is in execution. Stanley has a monthly stakeholder update

meeting scheduled in which he presents the project's progress and current issues
to the key stakeholders. During the last stakeholder update meeting, the
stakeholders requested Stanley to provide bi-weekly project updates instead of
monthly updates. The communication management plan has been broadly
framed, and it does not restrict Stanley from doing bi-weekly updates. What
should Stanley do?
A. Start providing bi-weekly updates instead of monthly updates
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B. Update the communication management plan prior to providing the biweekly
updates
C. Disregard the stakeholders' request and continue with the monthly updates
Answer
A - The key stakeholders' concerns and requests can never be disregarded. Since
the communication management plan is flexible and it not restrict Stanley from
doing bi-weekly updates, Stanley must immediately accept the key stakeholders'
request. Since this is not impacting the communication management plan, there
is no need to go through the formal change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 389]
138) You’re meeting with your team to focus efforts on accomplishing the project
objectives and working as a team. This is an example of
A .Negotiation skills
B. Leadership
C. Influencing
D. Listening
Answer
B - Getting people to work together toward a common end is leadership.
Leadership skills involve the ability to guide, motivate, and direct a team. These
skills may include demonstrating essential capabilities such as negotiation,
resilience, communication, problem solving, critical thinking, and interpersonal
skills. PMBOK Pg. 60
139) Decision tree analysis is used to calculate the average outcome when the
future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. What are a decision
node’s inputs and outputs?
A. Input: Cost of each decision; Output: Probability of occurrence
B. Input: Cost of each decision; Output: Decision made
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C. Input: Scenario probability; Output: Expected Monetary Value (EMV)
D. Input: Cost of each decision; Output: Payoff
Answer
B - Decision tree analysis is used to calculate the average outcome when the
future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. In a decision node, the
input is the cost of each decision and the output is a decision made. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 435
140) One of your resources has been transferred to a more critical project in the
organization. You’re looking to see the best way to spread her work among the
remaining team members until you can find a replacement. What tool should you
use to accomplish this?
A. Variance analysis
B. Resource analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Resource optimization
Answer
D. Use resource optimization to make sure no resources are over-worked and that
the work is spread out as evenly as possible among the remaining Resources.
PMBOK 6th pg. 211
141) Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential
impact on the project. A project manager prepared a display chart of sensitivity
analysis for his project. The diagram contained a series of bars with the length of
the bars corresponding to the risk impact on the project. The longer the bar, the
greater was the risk presented. Such a chart is likely to be:
A. An assessment diagram
B. A triangular distribution
C. A tornado diagram
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D. A funnel distribution
Answer
C - The chart is likely to be a tornado diagram. Tornado diagrams are useful for
comparing relative importance and impact of variables that have a high degree of
uncertainty to those that are more stable. The variables are positioned vertically,
and the bars extend horizontally. The longest bar is at the top of the chart, and
the shortest bar is at the bottom. This resembles the shape of a tornado; hence
the name. [PMBOK 6thedition, Page 434]
142) Which of the following is neither an input nor an output of the Direct and
Manage Project Work process?
A. Approved change requests
B. Change requests
C. Approved deliverables
D. Deliverables
Answer
C - Approved deliverables are neither an input nor an output of the Direct and
Manage Project Work process. Approved or accepted deliverables are outputs of
the Validate Scope process and are the inputs of the Close Project or Phase
process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 90]
143) Validate Scope is the process of

A. Obtaining formal acceptance of the project scope by the project management
team.
B. Obtaining all appropriate sign-offs from the project team
C. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables
D. Documenting the scope for the project stakeholders
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Answer
C - Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed
project deliverables. The key benefit of this process is that it brings objectivity to
the acceptance process and increases the probability of final product, service, or
result acceptance by validating each deliverable. PMBOK 6th Pg. 163
144) The CFO of a company tells you that you need to include a new feature in
software that’s being produced by a project you are managing. The deadline for
the project is tight, and if you take on the extra work then the project will come in
late. What best describes the first thing that you should do?A. Update the Project
Management plan to make sure the new feature is included in the project.
B. Tell the CFO that he needs to wait until you’re working on the next version,
and then submit a change request to the change control board.
C. Tell the CFO that the deadline is too tight, and the feature can’t be included
D. Evaluate the impact that the change will have on the project.
Answer
D - Whenever your project’s scope changes, that means you need to put your
project through change control. That doesn’t necessarily mean that you need to
have you. Team change the way they’ll work, or reject the change outright. The
first step in evaluating any change is understanding the impact that it will have on
the project.
145) Which process is the most dependent upon the nature of the deliverables
being created and the work being performed?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Answer
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C. The majority of the product work is accomplished in the Direct and Manage
Project Work process. The Direct and Manage Project Work process is wholly
dependent upon the nature of the product, service, or result. PMBOK 6th, Pg. 90
146) You’re managing an architecture project to design an extension on an

existing building. One of the stakeholders has been adamant that the plans
should not include an interior supporting wall, because she wants to be able to
reconfigure the floor plan.
Where do you document this information?
A. Project scope statement
B. Scope Management plan
C. Work breakdown structure
D. WBS dictionary
Answer
A. This stakeholder wants to exclude something from the scope, and project
exclusions—which identify what is out of scope for the project—should always be
documented in the project scope statement. (You might also consider it a
constraint—technically, it’s both—but constraints are also documented in the
project scope statement.) PMBOK 6th, pg. 154
147) You’re conducting a performance review from the last several reporting
periods. You notice that the TCPI has gone from 1.04 to 1.05 to 1.07. What’s going
on in your project?
A. Your cost performance is improving.
B. Your schedule performance is improving.
C. Your forecast is improving.
D .Your cost performance is deteriorating.
Answer
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D - A TCPI higher than 1.0 indicates that you have more scope left than you do
budget. Therefore, this situation is deteriorating. Greater than 1.0 = Harder to
complete Exactly 1.0 = same to complete Less than 1.0 = Easier to complete
PMBOK 6th, Pg. 266
148) A seller organization was executing work for a project under a contract.
During the course of the project, a number of disputes arose over the scope and
quality of the work. Which of the following is the preferred method of resolving
these claims?
A. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR)
B. Claims court
C. Appeals court
D. Negotiation
Answer
D - When a buyer and seller enter into a dispute over the execution of work under
the terms of a contract, negotiation is the preferred method of resolution of all
claims and disputes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 498]
149) You’re in the process of working with the project stakeholders, figuring out
what they need, and writing it down. Which of the following is a tool or technique
that you would use?
A. Decomposition
B. Observations
C. Variance analysis
D. Inspection
Answer
B. When you’re talking to project stakeholders and documenting their needs,
you’re collecting requirements. “Observations” is a technique used in the Collect
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Requirements process. And that makes sense—you often need to observe people
doing their jobs in order to figure out how they’ll use your project’s deliverables.
PMBOK 6th, pg. 145
150) You’re trying to figure out how an error was introduced into a product. You
look at all the inputs that could have led to the defect. The appropriate technique
to chart this type of analysis is the
A. Pareto chart
B. Histogram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Ishikawa diagram
Answer
D - An Ishikawa diagram looks for the root cause of defects.it also known as
Cause-and-effect diagrams, fishbone diagrams or why-why diagrams. This type of
diagram breaks down the causes of the problem statement identified into
discrete branches, helping to identify the main or root cause of the problem.
PMBOK 6th, pg. 293
151) A project manager is analyzing deliverables and subdividing them into

smaller, more manageable components. This project manager is performing
which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Collect Requirements
D. Create WBS
Answer
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D. When a project manager analyzes deliverables and subdivides them into
smaller components, he is using decomposition, which is the only tool or
technique in the Create WBS process. PMBOK 6th, pg. 156
152) A software project team lead is working with stakeholders to make sure that
there’s formal, documented acceptance of every one of the project deliverables.
Which of the following best describes the work that she’s doing?
A. Performing variance analysis on the cost baseline
B. Updating the traceability matrix
C. Structuring and organizing the WBS
D. Running the software and walking through it with the stakeholders
Answer
D. When a project team led—who, in this case, is acting as the project manager-
is gathering formal acceptance of deliverables, she is performing the Validate
Scope process. That process’s tools and techniques include inspection, and a
walkthrough is a very common way to inspect a deliverable. 6th, Pg. 163, 166
153) You have just taken over a project from another project manager about six
months into a 12-month project. As you get to know the staff on the project, you
become aware that five staff members are relatives of the previous project
manager. What do you do?
A. Notify your project stakeholders there is a possibility that nepotism was behind
some of the staffing decisions made on your project
B. Check recruitment records of all employees
C. Report the HR manager to PMI
D. Interview these five employees
Answer
A - Notify your project stakeholders of the situation. Once they are aware of the
circumstances, a plan of action can be developed. It is possible the stakeholders
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may already be aware of the situation and had actually approved the hiring of
these resources. Therefore, you should involve your stakeholders to resolve this
issue. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
154) As the project manager, you’re involved in administrative activities, such as

finalizing open claims, updating records, making sure all payments are finalized,
and archiving the information for future use. These activities occur
A. At the end of the project
B. When a contract is complete
C .During the monitoring and controlling process

D. During the executing process
Answer
B - Finalizing open claims, updating records, and finalizing payments are all part
of the Close Procurements process. You can close out a contract at any point in
the project life cycle. Pmbok 6th, pg., 499
155) Your organization is looking at teaming up with another organization to

respond to a very lucrative long-term RFP. However, you have grave misgivings
about the other organization. The committee in charge of assessing the teaming
arrangement must have a unanimous decision to move forward. Everyone else on
the Executive Committee is for it. You really don’t want to rock the boat, but you
feel compelled to vote against the decision. What’s the best way to approach the
committee with this information?
A. Arrange for a third party to enter the negotiations and muddy the water.
B. Send an anonymous letter to the Executive Committee.
C. Send an anonymous letter to your proposed partner.
D. Prepare your facts and make your case to the Executive Committee
Answer
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D - You have a responsibility to take actions and be truthful in your
communication about what you believe are the best interests of the organization.
This is a Responsibility aspirational standard and an Honesty aspirational
standard. Review the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct 2.2
156) Project objectives should include all the following except

A. Date by which the project should be completed
B Budget
C. Quality parameters
D. Risk assessment
Answer
D - A risk assessment is not a project objective. Pmbok 6th, pg. 35
157) To shift the risk to the seller, which type of contract should you use?
A. Time and materials
B. Firm fixed price
C. Cost plus fixed fee
D. Fixed price incentive
Answer
B - A firm fixed price contract shifts the risk to the seller to deliver all the scopate
set price. The most commonly used contract type is the FFP. It is favored by most
buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and not
subject to change unless the scope of work changes. Pmbok, 6th, pg. 471
158) The primary advantage of the bottom-up estimate is the increased accuracy
in the estimates. What is a consideration that the project team must keep in
mind?
A. The relationship of the data to other variables
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B. The additional cost associated with this level of detail
C. The size of the project
D. The level of experience of the estimator
Answer
B - The additional accuracy takes time, and therefore costs more, to develop.
Bottom-up estimating is a method of estimating a component of work. The cost of
individual work packages or activities is estimated to the greatest level of
specified detail. The detailed cost is then summarized or “rolled up” to higher
levels for subsequent reporting and tracking purposes. The cost and accuracy of
bottom-up cost estimating are typically influenced by the size or other attributes
of the individual activity or work package. PMBOK, 6Th, pg. 244
159) The management style used by a project manager who makes decisions
without considering input by other team members is
A. Laissez-faire
B. Judgmental
C. Autocratic
D. Bureaucratic
Answer
C -The autocratic style is top-down, where the leader makes the decisions.
PMBOK, 6th, pg. 119
160) The Actual Cost (AC) is the total cost actually incurred and recorded in
accomplishing work performed for an activity or work breakdown structure
component. What is the upper limit for the AC?
A. 50 percent over and above the Planned Value (PV)
B. the Actual Cost (AC) is limited to the Planned Value (PV).
C. 100 percent over and above the Planned Value (PV)
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D. There is no upper limit for the Actual Cost (AC).
Answer
D - There is no limit to the Actual Cost (AC). Whatever is spent to achieve the
Earned Value (EV) is measured as the Actual Cost. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 261]
161) You are the project manager of a project executing work under a contract
signed with a buyer organization. Just after the project has started, you notice
that the buyer organization had made a mistake in the financial terms, and your
organization stands to benefit considerably from this oversight. What should your
stance be?
A. Do not take any action since a contract is a binding and legal document.
B. Discuss with your management how you could gain a bonus due to the
increased revenue your company stands to gain.
C. Informally check with your counterpart in the buyer organization to see
whether he or she noticed this error.
D. Bring the error to the notice of the buyer organization and have an amendment
made to the contract since this was in good faith.
Answer
D - The ethical thing to do would be to bring this to the notice of the buyer
organization and have an amendment made to the contract. [PMI Code of Ethics
and Professional Conduct]
162) You’re planning an IT project to set up a development environment,
including designing and building a computer room, installing the operating
systems and software, and performing a security evaluation. Your project includes
three different activities that involve three different network technicians splicing
ends onto wires in order to build their own Ethernet cables, because that’s less
expensive than buying prepackaged ones. Every Ethernet cable must be tested
with a qualification tester. That’s an expensive piece of equipment, and there are
only a few of them that must be shared among all of the technicians in the
86
company. You need to plan your schedule based on the availability of the testing
equipment. What’s the best place to find that information?
A. Staffing requirements
B. Activity network diagram
C. Resource calendar
D. Activity resource requirements
Answer
C - The resource calendar has information on which resources—which includes
equipment and material, as well as people—are available at specific times. You’ll
typically use it to estimate resource utilization, which you’ll need to do when
you’re building the schedule for this project. PMBOK 6th Pg. 199
163) You’re bidding on a contract with a government agency. At the bidder

conference, you discover that a good friend from college is the government’s
contract officer. What is the appropriate plan of action?
A. Because you probably see eye to eye on most issues, this relationship could be
a significant advantage to the government.
B. Establish a policy of dealing only with your friend’s subordinates.
C. Avoid any decisions or actions that could be interpreted as a conflict of
interest.
D. Disclose your past relationship, given that it is a potential conflict of interest.
Answer
D. This is a Fairness mandatory standard; therefore, you must disclose real or
potential conflicts of interest to the appropriate stakeholders
164) You’re working on an IT project to set up a development environment,

systems and software, and performing a security evaluation. Once the operating
87
system on a machine is installed, it needs to be imaged and copied to three
identical boxes. Which of the following best describes this relationship?
A. Lead
B. Lag
C. Finish-to-Start (FS)
D. Start-to-Start (SS)
Answer
C - A Finish-to-Start (FS) relationship is the most common sort of predecessor that
you’ll see in a project schedule. That’s what you call it when one activity (imaging
the machine) starts as soon as another one is finished (the operating system is
installed). PMBOK 6th, pg. 190
165) You’re a contract project manager, midway through an assignment. Another

project comes along at a 50% higher hourly rate. Can you take it?
A. As a contract project manager, you can leave immediately.
B. You can begin to phase out of the old project and have team members pick up
more of the project, while phasing into the new project.
C. This is a conflict of interest, which you must disclose. You might be able to take
the project if all stakeholders agree to the plan.
D. You can give two weeks’ notice and take the assignment.
Answer
C. This is a Fairness mandatory standard. Therefore, you must refrain from
engaging in the decision-making process or otherwise attempting to influence
outcomes, unless or until: You make a full disclosure to the affected stakeholders;
you have an approved mitigation plan; and you have obtained the consent of the
stakeholders to proceed. Review the PMI Code of Ethics and Prof. Conduct 4.3.
166) You’re working on an IT project to set up a development environment,

88
systems and software, and performing a security evaluation. Your team comes up
with a best-case scenario for the activity that involves ordering and installing the
equipment. If everything goes perfectly, they feel it will take five weeks. However,
they think it’s much more likely to take nine. A team member points out that on
his last project, there was a major equipment delivery delay that cost the project
an extra four weeks, and the rest of the team agrees that this is a possibility in a
worst-case scenario. Use a three-point estimate to calculate how long you should
expect this activity to take.
A. 5 weeks
B. 9 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 13 weeks
Answer
B - This question is asking you to apply a three-point estimate. The optimistic
estimate is 5 weeks, the most likely is 9 weeks, and the pessimistic is 13, so the
three-point estimate is (5 + 4 + 13) ÷ 6 = 9 weeks. PMBOK 6th, Pg. 201
167) The purpose of a change control system is to

A. Ensure that project team member’s work the same plan.
B. Make sure that changes to the statement of work (SOW) are approved.
C. Assess the impact of changes on cost or schedule before deciding to implement
them.
D. All the above.
Answer
D - The change control system ensures all team members are working to the same
plan, that all changes to any aspect of the project are approved, and that there is
an analysis of the impact of a change before it is approved
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168) A unique aspect of the quantitative risk analysis process is that PMI
recommends that quantitative risk analysis:
a. Should be performed in conjunction with quality assurance
b. Should be repeated after Plan Risk Responses to determine if project risk has
decreased
c. Can be used in place of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
d. Can be used to make unknown risks, visible to the project team
Answer
B - Outputs from Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis are used as inputs to the Plan
Risk Responses process, particularly in recommending responses to the level of
overall project risk and key individual risks. A quantitative risk analysis may also
be undertaken following the Plan Risk Responses process, to determine the likely
effectiveness of planned responses in reducing overall project risk exposure.
PMBOK 6th, pg. 429
169) Your project is completed and is ready to roll into maintenance and support
mode. You are weighing the risk of having the internal organization handle
support; or contracting an external company that has guaranteed 99.9% response
time within an hour for all support issues. There are financial penalties for the
external company if it does not meet its guaranteed response time. You decide on
the external vendor. This risk response strategy is known as?
a. Accept
b. Transfer
c. Exploit
d. Mitigate
Answer
B - Transfer involves shifting ownership of a threat to a third party to manage the
risk and to bear the impact if the threat occurs. You have transferred the risk to a
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third party. If they do not meet their service-level agreements, there are financial
penalties levied against the performing organization. PMBOK 6th, pg. 443
170) You are managing a project to design microprocessor control systems.

The design work was estimated to be complete in 3.5 months with seven
milestones. The sixth milestone is the prototype to be transferred to
manufacturing. All milestones before prototyping have been completed ahead of
schedule, with the sixth one being delayed for four months because the prototype
was sent back several times due to conflicts between departments. You are now
planning to hold a meeting to review the design specifications and handle
conflicts between design and manufacturing. Who is at fault?
A. The scheduler
B. The project manager
C. The manufacturer
D. The design engineer
Answer
B - The project manager is at fault for failing to mediate and resolve conflict and
for failing to control the project schedule. The project manager is ultimately
responsible for the project, and in accordance with the PMI Code of Ethics must
take ownership and be accountable for his or her errors and omissions during all
project phases. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct]
[Prof.Responsibility]
171) The risk register has been reviewed for completeness at this point in time.
Risks have been prioritized based upon urgency and potential impact. As the team
was working on the project, an event occurred that was not identified in the risk
register. Since something needed to be done to handle the emergency, the
technical team implemented a temporary fix until the issue could be discussed
and a permanent resolution installed. This is best described as a:
a. Secondary risk response
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b. A workaround risk response
c. A residual risk response
d. A contingency risk response
Answer
B - A workaround is defined as a response to a negative risk that was not part of
original risk planning. It is usually a solution developed "on-the-fly" until a
permanent solution can be derived
172) Sheila is a project manager who manages a global project. She has
stakeholders located in various parts of the globe. Due to the nature of the
project, she also has large volumes of information she needs to share with the
recipients. What type of communication method should she prefer for this
purpose?
A. Pull communication
B. Push communication
C. Request-based communication
D. Interactive communication
Answer
A - Pull communication is suited for this purpose. It is used for large volumes of
information or for large audiences and requires the recipients to access
communication content at their own discretion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374]
173) Risk management is not a one-time process and transcends project

management. Risks are first discussed as part of the—
a. Project plan
b. Project charter
c. Business case
d. Enterprise environmental factors
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Answer
C - Each project should have a business case that is used to determine whether
the project should be initiated. It lists the objectives and reasons the project
should be done and helps measure success at the end of the project against these
objectives. One section of the business case is an analysis of the situation. This
section identifies any known risks at the time the business case is prepared.
Decision makers, since resources are scarce and not all proposed projects can be
pursued, can review these risks a part of the decision-making process. [Planning]
PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 30–31
174) Your risk register is reviewed by an external team every two weeks so that
‘fresh eyes’ are looking at all potential risks. One of the risk response strategies to
a specific risk is met with some skepticism by one of the assessors. “You may need
to develop an additional response strategy in case this one creates additional
problems for you.” What kind of risk is she referring to?
a. Secondary risk
b. Fallback plan
c. Residual risk
d. Workaround
Answer
A – Secondary risks are risks that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk
response, In this case, the fact that the risk response may create 'additional
problems for you' defines the secondary risk. PMBOK 6th, pg. 439
175) Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce time to

completion or to provide better quality than originally planned are examples of
which one of the following strategies?
a. Enhance
b. Exploit
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c. Share
D. Contingent response
Answer
B - Exploit, although it might have a negative connotation, exploitation is a
strategy used for risks with positive impacts where the organization wants to
ensure that the opportunity is realized. This strategy seeks to eliminate
uncertainty with a particular upside risk by ensuring the opportunity happens.
Other examples, in addition to that in the question, are using new technology or
upgrading technology to reduce the cost and duration required to realize the
project’s objectives. [Planning] PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 444.
176) The impact of risk and the probability of experiencing a risk event are best
described in?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Risk Register
D. Random Access Matrix
Answer
A - The probability and impact matrix may be used to sort or rate risks to
determine which ones warrant an immediate response and will therefore be
moved on through the risk process and which ones should be put on the watch
list. The matrix may be standardized within the company or department, or it may
be customized to the needs of the project. Such a matrix results in a consistent
evaluation of low, medium, or high (or some other scale) for the project or for all
projects. Use of a standardized matrix makes the risk rating process more
consistent across projects.
177) You are managing a large project team of over 75 people. This computes to a
minimum of 2775 potential lines of communication between all the team
members. As the project manager, what is your largest risk concern?
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a. Crashing the e-mail system
b. Controlling the communication hierarchy
c. Shielding potentially embarrassing communications from senior executive staff
d. Ensuring communications are clear
Answer
B - Three of the answers are, to a degree, somewhat correct. However,
controlling the communication hierarchy is the only answer that will enable you
to control the complexity of communications on the project.
178) You have just experienced a risk trigger on your project. What type of risk
response usually occurs when a risk is triggered?
a. Mitigation response
b. Contingency response
c. Avoidance Response
d. Workaround response
Answer
B – The contingency response is the most common in this case, a contingency
reserve is often allocated for time or cost. If developed, it may include
identification of the conditions that trigger its use. PMBOK 6th, pg. 439
179) Several risks have occurred on your recent project. You and your team
implemented the appropriate risk response strategies with great success. What is
the next thing the project manager should do?
a. Inform senior management of the team’s successful risk response
b. Perform a risk reserve analysis
c. Update the stakeholder management plan
d. Update the risk register
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Answer
D – Risk register is updated with information on responses taken, describing
details on how well the responses addressed the risk, and suggesting changes to
future risk response plans. Answers B and C would probably be done as a follow-
up. Answer A is immaterial PMBOK 6th, pg. 452
180) Which of the following best describes funding limit reconciliation?

A. Comparing your project’s budget against the project’s reserves
B. Comparing your project’s planned expenditures against the funding constraints
C. Comparing your project’s planned value against the actual costs
D. Comparing your project’s net present value against the internal rate of return
Answer
B - Funding limit reconciliation means checking the project’s expenditures—how
much you’ve already spent—against any limits that your company has on the
commitments of funds. Companies typically don’t allow project managers to
throw unlimited amounts of money at the project, so this makes sure that the
project can be done within the company’s guidelines…so you can catch cost
overruns before you’ve spent more than you’re allowed to spend! This is how you
know you haven’t blown your budget—by comparing it against the hard limits set
by your company. PMBOK 6th pg. 253
181) Your project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $75,000, and you need to
figure out if you’re on track to meet it. You know that you’ve already spent
$56,000, and you’re 70% done with the project. If your project continues
expenditures at the current rate, what calculation do you need to perform to find
the lowest that you can allow your CPI to go before you’ve exceeded your
project’s budget?
A. TCPI
B. SV
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C. SPI
D. CV
Answer
A - When you’re asked to figure out the lower limit of your CPI to keep your
project within its budget, you’re being asked to calculate the to-complete
performance index (TCPI). If you’ve got a BAC, an AC, and a % complete, then you
know enough to compute the EAC, so you should use the formula TCPI = (BAC –
EV) ÷ (EAC – AC). Note the numbers in this question were a red herring. You didn’t
need them to come up with the answer. PMBOK 6th, pg. 266
182) You’re managing a construction project, and you’re estimating your project’s
activities using a spreadsheet that a consulting company created for you. You
have to fill in the dry weight of the materials, the number of people required to
do the work, the type of building you’re working on, and other information about
the project. Which best describes what you are doing?
A. Parametric estimation
B. Analogous estimation
C. Bottom-up estimation
D. Top-down estimation
Answer
A - A really common way of doing parametric estimation involves entering
numbers into a spreadsheet that performs calculations based on historical data
gathered from previous projects. PMBOK 6th, pg. 244
183) Which of the following is not considered when you are calculating cost of
quality?
A. How much it costs to repair deliverables when they don’t meet requirements
B. The cost of training the team to perform inspections
97
C. The cost of working with customers who find problems with the work delivered
to them
D. The cost of gaining formal acceptance of project deliverables
Answer
D - Gaining formal acceptance of project deliverables is part of Scope Verification,
which is NOT a quality activity, so it’s not part of the cost of quality. All of the
other answers involve costs incurred in either finding defects or dealing with
them once they’ve been found, and that’s all part of cost of quality. PMBOK 6th,
pg. 282
184) A project manager is building her team. She notices that team members are
not collaborating efficiently, and she is concerned that this is leading to a
destructive environment. Which of the following best describes the state that the
team is in?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Answer
C - Many teams go through five stages of development: forming, storming,
norming, performing, and adjourning. The storming stage occurs early on in team
development, before the team members are really comfortable with one another
or the work. During this stage, they often have trouble collaborating, and are not
necessarily open to one another’s ideas. PMBOK 6th, pg.338
185) A project manager is running into trouble with his team, because they always
come to meetings late. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of
this problem?
A. The team resents the work that they’re doing.
98
B. The project manager needs to schedule meetings later in the day.
C. The project manager was late to meetings himself, and this influenced the
team.
D. The team is in the storming phase of team development
Answer
C - One of the most important interpersonal and team skills that a project
manager has is influencing, and leading by example is a very effective way to do
this. But when a project manager sets a bad example, it is almost certain to be
reflected in the behavior or attitude of the team. Note, Even if the team is in the
storming phase of team development, they should still be expected to act in a
professional manner—and this includes showing up to meetings on time.
186) Bob and Sue are stakeholders in your project. Sue is in the high-power, low-
interest quadrant of the power/interest grid. Bob is in the low-power, high
interest quadrant. Which of the following best describes the approach you should
take:
A. Sue needs to participate in every important meeting, while Bob needs to have
his opinion heard in those meetings.
B. You need to make sure that Bob is on the change control board, but Sue
requires only minimum effort.
C. You need to go out of your way to satisfy all of Sue’s needs, while Bob has to be
kept in the loop on important decisions.
D. Sue needs to be managed closely, and you must satisfy Bob by making sure he
feels his needs are being met.
Answer
C -Since Sue is in the high-power, low-interest quadrant, she needs to be kept
satisfied. This means that she has to feel that her needs are actually being met,
but since she’s not following the project on a day-to-day basis, the only way you
can do that is by delivering a final product that meets those needs. Bob is low-
99
power, high-interest, so he needs to be kept informed. This means that he needs
to feel like he’s constantly in the loop on important decisions, even if he won’t
actively be taking part in them. PMBOK 6th, pg. 513
187) A project manager is analyzing the communications requirements for a

project. There are six team members, four stakeholders, and two subcontractors.
He needs to find the number of potential communication channels. How many
channels are there?
A. 13
B. 55
C. 66
D. 78
Answer
D - This is a basic “lines of communication” problem—you need to figure out how
many people are communicating. In this case it’s six team members, four
stakeholders, two subcontractors…and don’t forget the project manager! That’s 6
+ 4 + 2 + 1 = 13 people. The formula is n (n – 1) ÷ 2 = 13(12) ÷ 2 = 78.
188) Rina and Gimo are the senior developers in a website development project.
They have argued about the best web design product to use in developing the
new website. As the project manager, you use a forcing approach to make a
decision and reduce the conflict. What is the main characteristic of this approach?
A. Forcing to close the project
B. Highlighting areas of agreement rather than areas of disagreement
C. Asserting one‘s viewpoint at the expense of others
D. Withdrawing from the actual conflict
Answer
C - Project managers must resolve conflicts as early as possible to improve
productivity and generate positive working relationships. Forcing is a conflict
100
resolution technique in which one's viewpoint is asserted at the expense of
others. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349]
189) You’re about to close your project when you are surprised to get an email
from someone you’ve never spoken to before. He is very angry, because he’s
directly impacted by your project, and there are specific things he needs from it
and you aren’t delivering those things. Which best describes the communications
process you are in?
A. You did not manage communications effectively.
B. You did not identify a project stakeholder.
C. You did not encode your communications.
D. You did not have a Stakeholder Management strategy.
Answer
B - The definition of a stakeholder includes “anyone who is directly impacted by
your project.” That means this person is a stakeholder! Since you never spoke to
this person, you failed to identify him as a stakeholder, and as a result you did not
meet his needs. Note, Tools and techniques like a Stakeholder Management
strategy or stakeholder register are great, but they don’t work well if you haven’t
identified all of the project’s stakeholders.
190) You are in the process of making relevant information available to your
project’s stakeholders. Which of the following is not a tool or technique that you
would use?
A. Hard copies of documents interoffice-mailed to stakeholders
B. Power/interest grid that includes all stakeholders
C. Conference calls with stakeholders
D. An online folder that contains project documents
Answer
101
B - When you’re making relevant information available to your project’s
stakeholders, you’re performing the Manage Communications process. The
power/interest grid is a useful tool, but it’s not part of Manage Communications.
191) Rick, a project manager, is updating the status of his project. Based on the
performance indices, he expects the project to finish a month earlier than the
planned finish date. However, he expects the project to exceed the budgeted
costs. What can you say about the schedule performance index (SPI) of the
project?
A. the SPI is less than 1.0.
B. the SPI equals the CPI.
C. the SPI is greater than 1.0.
D. the SPI is equal to 1.0.
Answer
C - A project that is ahead of schedule will have a SPI value greater than 1.0, since
it indicates that more work was completed than was planned. [PM. 6th Pg. 263]
192) A project manager is analyzing project risks by using quantitative techniques

to assign a numeric value to each of those risks. Which of the following tools and
techniques are not used for this?
A. EMV analysis that uses a decision tree
B. Sensitivity analysis to determine which risks pose the biggest threat
C. A Probability and Impact matrix that assigns numeric values to each risk priority
D. A simulation that runs through many different project scenarios
Answer
C - The question asked for “quantitative techniques,” which means that it’s asking
about tools and techniques in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
Even though the Probability and Impact matrix assigns numbers to risks, it’s not
102
one of those tools and techniques—in fact, it’s not a quantitative technique at all!
It’s a qualitative technique, because it’s used for prioritization and categorization.
193) One of your construction project team members warns you that your
concrete supplier caused serious delays in his last project because he delivered
the wrong kind of concrete. You discuss it with the team, and decide that you
need to accept the possibility that this will happen. But you make back-up plans
with an alternate provider by putting a down payment on an emergency
shipment, just in case. This is an example of:
A. Avoidance
B. Transference
C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance
Answer
C - This is an example of risk mitigation, because you are taking steps to deal with
the problem just in case it happens. Note, did the word “accept” throw you?
Make sure that you always read the whole question, and don’t just take a single
word out of context! PMBOK 6th, pg. 443
194) A project manager is forced to dip into his management reserve. Which of
the following is the most likely cause of this?
A. One of the risks on the risk register caused a budget overrun.
B. The project went over budget because the project manager miscalculated his
forecast.
C. A risk that was never planned for occurred.
D. The team’s estimates were incorrect.
Answer
C - The management reserve is the part of the budget reserved for unplanned
risks. If a risk was on the risk register, it was planned for, and the contingency
103
reserve is used to pay for it. In this case, since the management reserve was used,
that means the risk wasn’t planned for at all.
195) Your software project team informs you that another team working at the
company built a tool that will save three weeks on the project. You ask the other
team’s project manager to have his team members share the tool with your team
members. Which best describes this strategy?
A. Exploiting
B. Sharing
C. Enhancing
D. Accepting
Answer
A - When the other team built that tool that presented an opportunity. Asking the
team to share the tool with you is your way of taking advantage of it. That’s called
exploiting the opportunity. Note, Even though the word “share” appeared in the
question, since only one party—your team!—is benefiting from the action, you’re
exploiting the opportunity, not sharing it. Since your use of the tool doesn’t
benefit the other team at all, this isn’t an opportunity for them. PMBOK, pg. 443
196) A seller is in trouble because she took on a contract that overran its budget,
and now her company has to eat the cost out of their own budget. Which of the
following best describes his contract?
A. Time and materials (T&M)
B. Firm fixed price (FFP)
C. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
D. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
Answer
B - The firm fixed price contract is the riskiest type of contract that a seller can
take on. When the project’s costs exceed the price of the contract, the seller has
104
to pay for the overrun .Note ,this is usually bad for the buyer, too! Contracting
works best when it’s a win-win situation for both the buyer and the seller. PMBOK
6th, pg. 471
197) A project manager for an industrial design project is reviewing the work
performance data that’s being produced by his project team to determine
whether or not changes need to be made in Stakeholder Management. When he
finds a change, he writes up a request and incorporates all approved requests
into the Project Management plan, project documents, and lessons learned. What
process is he performing?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
Answer
D - The project manager is performing the Control Stakeholder Engagement
process. The outputs of Monitor Stakeholder Engagement are work performance
information, change requests, Project Management plan updates, project
document updates, and organizational process asset updates. The question
mentioned most of these outputs.
198) You are working in Lab-X, a laboratory experimental project to research the
effect of a virus on human male bodies. This project needs local government
approval for carrying out tests on living people. However, the local authorities
informed you were informed it would take at least three weeks to obtain
authorization for such approval because of the documents involved in the review
and approval process. You consider this a risk to the project and would like to
send the paperwork in advance to reduce the approval time to one week. Which
of the following describes the risk response techniques being employed in this
scenario?
A. Risk mitigation
105
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk accept
D. Risk avoid
Answer
A - You want to reduce the delay in the approval process because delay in the
approval process is likely to delay the project. Because this is a negative risk, the
valid risk response strategies are avoid, transfer, mitigate or accept. Risk
mitigation techniques can be used to reduce the probability and impact of
negative risks rather than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred.
In this case, you are reducing the approval time by sending paperwork early to
avoid delays in the project. Hence, risk mitigation is the correct answer. [PMBOK
6th edition, Page 443]
199) Joanne, the sponsor for a software project, has been working with the
senior management team in her company to cancel the project even though it’s
only just begun its planning processes. Which is the best classification for
Joanne’s engagement with the project?
A. Unaware
B. Resistant
C. Supportive
D. Leading
Answer
B - A resistant stakeholder is a stakeholder who doesn’t want the project or
decision you’re making to happen. Even though Joanne is the sponsor for the
project, she’s actively working to cancel it, which shows that she doesn’t really
want it to happen.
200) When sequencing project activities in the schedule, you should ensure—
a. There always are scheduled dates for specific milestones
106
b. Every activity is connected to at least one predecessor and at least one
successor
c. Lead or lag time should be used in each schedule
d. Necessary sequencing of events may be described by the activity attributes
Answer
B - Every activity is connected to at least one predecessor and at least one
successor, The Sequence Activity process involves identifying and documenting
relationships among the project activities. Every activity is connected to at least
one predecessor or successor except the first and last. Logical relationships are
set up to create a realistic project schedule. Some leads and lags may be used.
The purpose of the Sequence Activity process is to convert the activity list into a
diagram, which is the first step in establishing the schedule baseline. [Planning]
PMI®️, PMBOK®️ Guide, 2017, 188
201) Which of the following is incorrect regarding a bidder’s conference?

A. Questions from each seller should be handled confidentially and not shared
with other sellers.
B. No bidders should receive preferential treatment, even if they are part of the
company's existing list of approved suppliers.
C. Bidder conferences should not involve individual face-to-face meetings.
D. All prospective sellers should be allowed to have a common understanding of
the procurement
Answer
A - A key objective of a bidder’s conference is to ensure that all bidders have the
same level of understanding of the procurements. Hence, to be totally fair, buyers
must ensure that all prospective sellers hear every question from any individual
prospective seller and every answer from the buyer. [PMBOK 6th, Page 487]
107
202) A project manager manages a distributed team with team members located
in five countries. Due to time zone differences, he cannot find a time that is
acceptable to all team members. Which conflict resolution technique is best
suited for this situation?
A. Compromise
B. Force
C. Withdraw
D. Avoid
Answer
A - A compromise requires searching for options that bring some degree to
satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict.
This would be the best way to handle the current situation, since time zone
differences are not under anyone’s control. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 349]
108

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202 Q & A PMP.

Collected By Mohamed Adel

5) Which of the following is the process of communicating and working with

Resource Management Plan

15) Mark is managing an airport construction project. He is currently identifying

16) While preparing a resource management plan, a project manager designated

33) Acceptance is a strategy adopted because it is not possible to eliminate all

41) Team is working on the project ABC. It encountered problem in an activity

44) During a project status meeting, a project manager presented sensitive

45) A project manager created a resource histogram. On the histogram, some

47) Which of the following statements about project teams is incorrect?

50) What’s the main output of the Risk Management processes?

51) A company is undergoing some changes due to which it decided to do some

53) Sheila is the project manager of a website development project. After a

56) To define the logical relationship among dependencies accurately, a project

59) Dina, the project manager of a hardware project, is performing a structured

60) Erica is managing a kitchen tools manufacturing project, which is intended to

77) A project manager is highly Skeptical of his team members. He constantly

82) A stakeholder in your company has a regular habit of requesting multiple

90) A project manager is looking at a make-or-buy analysis as part of the

92) John is an excellent engineer. The management assumes that since he is a

100) Describing stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose will),

102) A project manager is expected to possess various important abilities. Which

111) During a planning meeting, a group of project team members expressed

112) PM is in the process of overseeing the implementation of risk responses for

116) A project manager is in the process of developing the project management

120) A project management office (PMO) organization held a weekly staff

123) Which of the following is not an example of parametric estimating?

126) Which of the following techniques focuses on identifying non-value-added

128) Procurement statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of the

129) Project is in execution. Nancy is currently planning to execute the Manage

134) You’re managing a project for a military subcontractor to modify the

135) A first-time project manager created a Work Breakdown Structure

137) Stanley's project is in execution. Stanley has a monthly stakeholder update

143) Validate Scope is the process of

146) You’re managing an architecture project to design an extension on an

151) A project manager is analyzing deliverables and subdividing them into

154) As the project manager, you’re involved in administrative activities, such as

C .During the monitoring and controlling process

155) Your organization is looking at teaming up with another organization to

156) Project objectives should include all the following except

163) You’re bidding on a contract with a government agency. At the bidder

164) You’re working on an IT project to set up a development environment,

165) You’re a contract project manager, midway through an assignment. Another

166) You’re working on an IT project to set up a development environment,

167) The purpose of a change control system is to

170) You are managing a project to design microprocessor control systems.

173) Risk management is not a one-time process and transcends project

175) Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce time to

180) Which of the following best describes funding limit reconciliation?

187) A project manager is analyzing the communications requirements for a

192) A project manager is analyzing project risks by using quantitative techniques

201) Which of the following is incorrect regarding a bidder’s conference?

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