Prepcast - Test 03

13/12/2018 Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Question 1 of 200 Question ID: 612727
At a project closing meeting, the project manager declares the project closed because all the requirements have been
met and signed off by the customer. The customer representative raises a concern that one of the design components
that was supposed to be included in the scope was not delivered.
Which of the following should the project manager consult in order to verify the client representative's claim?
A Project charter
B Requirements documentation
C Requirements traceability matrix
D Scope baseline
J Question answered incorrectly
Hint:
Read the question carefully because it states that the client believes that one of the design components that was
'supposed' to be included in the scope was not delivered. Which of the answer choices would contain this information?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Many prospective PMP aspirants incorrectly answer this question selecting either requirements documentation or the
requirements traceability matrix as a correct answer. This mistake is common, and this explanation will attempt to clarify.
First of all, requirements and scope are not the same. A requirement is a condition or capability that is necessary to be
present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need. The scope is the sum of the products, services, and
results to be provided as a project. The question suggests that the Close Project or Phase process is being performed.
At least three answer choices, the project charter, requirements documentation, and the scope baseline are among the
inputs to this process. However, only the scope baseline (a component of the project management plan) which is
comprised of the approved scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary, can be used as a basis for comparison
between the scope that was planned to be delivered by the project and the scope that was actually delivered. In the
scenario described, the client representative is not saying that the requirements have not been met. Instead, the
representative is saying that a deliverable, one of the design components that was supposed to be included in the scope,
was not delivered. Therefore, of the choices provided, to verify the client representative's claim and understand if the
design component was indeed planned to be delivered, the project manager should review the scope baseline.
https://www.project-management-prepcast.com/index.php?option=com_joomla_lms&task=show_quiz&id=6&quiz_id=124&Itemid=1248&tmpl=quiz 1/2
Details for Each Option:
A Project charter
Incorrect. The purpose of the project charter is to authorize the existence of the project and provide the project
manager with the authority to start to utilize resources toward project activities. The project charter does not
contain the detailed scope to verify the client representative's claim.
Incorrect. Requirements documentation describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the
project. It does not contain the fully documented scope of the project but does contain product or service
specifications and the requirements collected as a part of project scope management. If the client representative
were claiming that a requirement of the system had not been met, then the requirements documentation would be
the best choice.

Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix links product or service requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them. However, it may not contain the fully documented scope of the project.
D Scope baseline
Correct. The scope baseline is the approved version of the project scope statement, work breakdown structure
(WBS), and it’s associated WBS dictionary. The scope baseline is used as a basis for comparison while performing
Validate Scope and Control Scope processes. Therefore, to verify the client representative's claim, the project
manager should consult the scope baseline.
Reference:
A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge, (PMBOK® Guide) – Sixth Edition, Project Management Institute
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123, 124, 147, 148
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
After reviewing comments from a participant survey from a project kick-off meeting, it is clear that more frequent breaks
would have helped the participants maintain focus throughout the meeting.
Where should this information be captured?
A The kick-off meeting is over, so this information is no longer relevant
B Stakeholder register
C Lessons learned register
D Lessons learned repository
Hint:
Where is information captured that may be useful later in the current project and in future projects?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Surveys are a popular method of gathering valuable feedback from meeting participants, which can be used to improve
the effectiveness of future meetings. The lessons learned gained from the feedback should be captured in the lessons
learned register. The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so
that it can be used in the current project. During the Close Project or Phase process, the lessons learned register is
archived as an organizational process asset for use on future projects. Therefore, of the choices given, capturing the
feedback in the lessons learned register is the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. Even though the project kick-off meeting is over, this information may be useful for future meetings with
the current project or future projects.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project Online
document which
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classification of project stakeholders. However, the stakeholder register does not capture lessons learned during
project activities.

Correct. The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so
that it can be used in the current project. During the Close Project or Phase process, the lessons learned register
is archived as an organizational process asset for use on future projects.

Incorrect. The lessons learned repository is an organizational process asset which serves as a store of historical
information about lessons learned in past projects. Since the scenario indicates that project execution is about to
begin, it is premature to capture this information in the lessons learned repository. The information should first be
captured in the lessons learned register and transferred to the lessons learned repository during the Close Project
or Phase process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 86, 104
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project is supposed to roll out a new service to thousands of existing users. The project team wants to consider and
prepare for various possibilities and situations that may occur during rollout.
What technique can the project manager facilitate to help the team with their preparations?
A What-if scenario analysis
B Critical path method
C Fast tracking technique
D Statistical sampling
Hint:
How might the project team guess at what might happen?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When developing the project schedule and faced with many potential scenarios, a what-if analysis enables the project
team to explore 'what' might happen 'if' something were to happen. Ideally, the team wants to consider many scenarios to
gather more data and improve considerations of many outcomes and perspectives. Questioning and considering
potential scenarios gets the project team to think more deeply about possibilities and question their assumptions. In this
scenario, the team is wrestling with the reaction to their rollout. Asking, "What if the situation represented by scenario X
happens?" is going to better empower the team to plan and prepare for various situations.

Correct. The what-if scenario analysis is an example of a data analysis technique that can be used as part of the
Develop Schedule process or Control Schedule process to evaluate various potential combinations and variables
to predict possible outcomes. Analyzing data based on hypothetical situations may provide some useful insights.
B
13/12/2018 Critical path method Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The critical path method is used to determine the longest path of activities on a schedule network path.
According to the scenario, the team knows the work; they don't know various possibilities and situations that may
occur during rollout. The critical path method cannot help answer the team's questions.

Incorrect. Fast tracking is a scheduling technique used to compress the schedule while retaining the same scope.
There is not enough information in the question to determine if schedule compression is required. Regardless, fast
tracking is not designed to prepare the team for various possibilities and situations that may occur during rollout.
Incorrect. Statistical sampling is an example of a data gathering technique that can be used during the Control
Quality process to inspect part of a population of interest. The Control Quality process is part of the Monitoring and
Controlling Process Group, while according to the scenario, the team is involved in planning.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 213
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is 20 weeks into a project that was planned to be completed in one year. From a schedule
perspective, half of the work has already been completed.
What are the earned schedule and schedule variance for the project?
A 26 weeks and 6 weeks
B 20 weeks and 6 weeks
C 52 weeks and 20 weeks
D 26 weeks and 20 weeks
Hint:
Schedule variance (SV) = earned schedule (ES) - actual time (AT)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Earned schedule (ES) is an extension of the theory and practice of earned value management (EVM) which is one of the
trends and emerging practices in project cost management. Earned schedule theory replaces the schedule variance
measures used in traditional EVM (where the schedule variance (SV) was calculated as earned value (EV) minus
planned value (PV)) with earned schedule (ES) and actual time (AT). The alternate equation for calculating schedule
variance is:
SV = ES - AT
In this scenario, the project was scheduled for one year. While the scenario does not specify the number of weeks in a
year, based on the answer choices provided and general project management practices, it can be reasonably assumed
that one year consists of 52 weeks. Therefore, half of the scheduled work that has been completed represents the
earned schedule (ES) of 26 weeks. The actual time (AT) is stated as 20 weeks. The schedule variance (SV) is the
earned schedule (ES) minus actual time (AT):
SV = 26 weeks - 20 weeks = 6 weeks
Therefore,
13/12/2018 in this case, the ES is 26 weeks, and the SV is Courses
Online 6 weeks. Even
- PMP though
Exam the question does not require to
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interpret these values, positive schedule variance of 6 weeks means that the project is ahead of schedule by 6 weeks.

Correct. The project was scheduled for one year (52 weeks), and half of the scheduled work has been completed
which represents the earned schedule (ES) of 26 weeks. The schedule variance is the earned schedule (ES)
minus actual time (AT) or SV = 26 - 20 = 6 weeks.

Incorrect. 20 weeks represents the actual time (AT) and not the earned schedule (ES).

Incorrect. 52 weeks represents the one year that the project was scheduled to take. 20 weeks is the actual time
(AT) and not the schedule variance (SV). The correct formula to calculate the schedule variance (SV) is earned
schedule (ES) minus actual time (AT).

Incorrect. The project was scheduled for one year (52 weeks), and half of the scheduled work has been completed
which means which represents the earned schedule (ES) of 26 weeks. However, 20 weeks represents the actual
time (AT) rather than the schedule variance (SV).
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 233; see also
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are planning a project to design and develop a new product, and you are in the process of determining the funding
that will be necessary to execute the project. In support of this process, you have aggregated activity cost estimates and
contingency reserves into control accounts.
Once you have completed a summation of the control accounts, what will you have produced?
A Management reserve
B Project budget
C Cost baseline
D Basis of estimates
Hint:
What is the approved version of the time-phased budget, excluding management reserves?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased budget, excluding management reserves. Cost estimates
for the various project activities, along with any contingency reserves for these activities, are aggregated into their
associated work package costs. The work package cost estimates, along with any contingency reserves estimated for
the work packages, are aggregated into control accounts. The summation of the control accounts yields the cost
baseline. Therefore, of the choices provided, the result of your efforts is best described as the cost baseline.
A Management reserve
Incorrect. Management reserves are an amount of the project budget withheld for management control purposes
and are reserved for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project. Management reserves are part of the
project budget, but these funds are not included in the sum of the control accounts.
B
13/12/2018 Project budget Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The project budget is derived from the summation of the cost baseline and the management reserves.
The summation of the control accounts yields the cost baseline which is only a component of the project budget,
making this choice an incorrect answer.
C Cost baseline
Correct. The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased budget, excluding management reserves.
The cost baseline is derived from the summation of the control accounts.
D Basis of estimates
Incorrect. The basis of estimates includes supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing
project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels. The description
provided in the question does not represent the basis of estimates, making the basis of estimates an incorrect
answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 254
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project team has examined the degree of variance relative to the scope baseline. The project manager needs to know
if the variance has been improving or deteriorating as the project has progressed.
What should the project manager do next?
A Perform variance analysis
B Conduct product analysis
C Complete a schedule network analysis
D Perform a trend analysis
Hint:
What data analysis technique examines project performance over time?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question insinuates that the project team is performing the Control Scope process. Data analysis techniques used
during the Control Scope process include variance analysis and trend analysis. Trend analysis examines project
performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating. Trend analysis is the best tool or
technique for the project manager to use based on the description provided by the question, and this is what the project
manager should do next.

Incorrect. Variance analysis is a technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the
baseline and actual performance, but it does not examine project performance over time to see if it has been
improving or deteriorating.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Product analysis is a tool used to define scope.
Online Product
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- PMP Exam does not provide information regarding
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project performance.

Incorrect. Schedule network analysis is a technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late
finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project activities. Schedule network analysis is not useful in
determining project performance over time.

Correct. Trend analysis is a data analysis technique which examines project performance over time to determine if
performance is improving or deteriorating.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 170
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project manager is currently closing a procurement with a contractor and has requested for the final invoice. The
contractor forwarded an invoice for $100,000. However, according to the project manager's calculation and the work
delivered by the contractor, the invoice be should no more than $70,000.
What should the project manager do?
A Pay the contractor $70,000
B Talk to the contractor
C Use alternative dispute resolution (ADR)
D Take the contractor to court
Hint:
What should be the first approach to resolve a dispute?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario describes a project in the closing stage. Procurements should be closed, and all claims settled before the
project can be closed. Procurements are closed as part of the Control Procurements process. Claims administration is
one of the tools and techniques of this process. In all procurement relationships, the ideal method of finalizing all
outstanding issues, claims, and disputes is through negotiation. In the scenario described, the project manager does not
know if the $30,000 difference between the invoice and the project manager's calculation is a mistake or an issue.
Therefore, talking directly to the contractor is the easiest and fastest way to determine the root cause of the discrepancy.
Whenever a settlement cannot be achieved through direct negotiation between a buyer and a seller, some form of
alternative dispute resolution (ADR), such as mediation or arbitration may be explored. When all else fails, litigation in the
courts is possible but is considered the least desirable option.
A Pay the contractor $70,000

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Based on the scenario, the project manager does-not
Online Courses PMPagree
Exam with the contractor's invoiced amount. Short
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paying the contractor is not going to resolve it. You should talk to the contractor to understand the reason for the
discrepancy and come up with a mutual agreement.
B Talk to the contractor

Correct. The scenario suggests there is a procurement dispute between the project manager and the contractor.
The $30,000 difference between the invoice and the project manager's calculation could be a mistake. Therefore,
the easiest and fastest way to begin resolution is by talking to the contractor directly. In other words, in all
procurement relationships the ideal method of finalizing outstanding issues, claims, and disputes is through direct
negotiation between the involved parties. Even if the discrepancy turns out to be real, direct negotiations are still
the preferred method to settle the dispute.
C Use alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

Incorrect. The project manager should first try to resolve the dispute via negotiation. If the settlement cannot be
achieved through direct negotiation between a buyer and a seller, some form of alternative dispute resolution
(ADR), such as mediation or arbitration may be explored.
D Take the contractor to court

Incorrect. Taking the contractor to court is the last resort and the least preferred method to resolve procurement
disputes. However, if negotiations and alternative dispute resolution fail, this choice represents an action that the
project manager will have to take eventually.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The director of new business development has assigned you as the project manager and other staff to work on your
team. You want to know more about the project, but all you have received so far was an email from your department
manager with little detail about the project.
In order to learn more about the project, which of the following options would be your best course of action in this
situation?
A Interview the director of new business development.
B Hold a brainstorming session with your team members.
C Identify other stakeholders who will be impacted by the project.
D Visit the project management office (PMO) to gather organizational process assets.
Hint:
A project manager should first seek to understand a situation.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
It is your duty as project manager to thoroughly understand the project purpose, objective, its alignment with company
strategy, and the conditions you will be operating under so that you can effectively manage the project. The director of
new business development who initiated the project appears to be the project sponsor. During project initiation, project
sponsors typically possess the most knowledge about the project. A conversation with the project sponsor would most
likely provide you with the information you need at this point to understand the project on a high level. Therefore, of the
choices provided, interviewing the director of new business development is the best course of action in this situation.
13/12/2018 Correct. Interviews, an example of a data gathering
Online technique of the
Courses - PMP Develop
Exam SimulatorProject Charter process, can be used
to obtain information on high-level requirements, assumptions or constraints, approval criteria and other
information from stakeholders by talking to them directly. Although, the question does not suggest you have
already started to develop the project charter, in this situation, since you know nearly nothing about the project, to
better understand the essence of the project, interviewing the director of new business development is the best
course of action among the choices given.

Incorrect. Brainstorming sessions are used to create new ideas for analysis in a group environment in a short
period of time. Since you know very little about the project, holding a brainstorming session with team members
would not be the best course of action nor a good use of resources at this stage of the project.

Incorrect. This answer is not the best course of action in this situation because you would need to understand
more about the project and its objectives in order to best identify those who would be impacted by the project (i.e.,
stakeholders). Identifying the stakeholders without knowing the gist of the project would be unproductive.
Incorrect. The PMO may indeed have organizational process assets (OPAs) relevant to the project. However,
OPAs alone would not provide the details about the current project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 80
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are working in a matrix environment, and your project team has recently been reduced by three team members. As a
result, you will need more time from a team member who only spends 50% of their time on your project.
Which of the following will have the most significant impact on your ability to acquire more of this employee's time?
A Decision making
B Issue log
C Training
D Influencing
Hint:
What skill does the project manager need in order to persuade others to see the project manager's point of view?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Depending on the type of organizational structure, the authority of project managers over project resources may vary
from little or none to high or almost total. When project managers have little or no direct authority over team members,
which is typical in the matrix organization described in the scenario, their ability to influence stakeholders on a timely
basis is critical to project success. Influencing skills include the ability to be persuasive, clearly articulate points, and
gather relevant information to address issues while maintaining mutual trust. In this scenario, you have lost three key
team members and need to utilize the resources that are still available. Influencing the employee's manager will have the
most significant impact on your ability to acquire more of this employee's time for your project.
A Decision making
Incorrect. Decision making will be used in this scenario, but it is not the best way to acquire more of the employee's
time. Since the employee is only partially allocated to your project, you will need to negotiate for additional time,
most likely with the employee's manager, by using your interpersonal skill of influence.
B
13/12/2018 Issue log Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The issue log is an internal document where issues that have arisen on the project are recorded. The
issue log could be used to document the problem described in the scenario, but it would not assist with acquiring
more of the employee's time on the project.
C Training
Incorrect. Training includes all activities that are used to enhance the competencies of the project team members.
In this scenario, there is nothing to indicate the employee lacks adequate training; therefore, this choice is
incorrect.
D Influencing
Correct. In a matrix environment, project managers often have little or no direct authority over team members.
Their ability to influence stakeholders on a timely basis is critical to project success. Influencing skills include the
ability to be persuasive, clearly articulate points, and gather relevant information to address issues all of which
would go the furthest in gaining more of the employee's time on your project. Typically, to acquire more of the
employee's time for the project, a project manager will have to work with the employee's manager trying to
influence them in favor of the project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 350
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Project deliverables include four diagnostics tests and implementation instructions. The instructions are similar for each
test but do require some customization. The fourth and final test has just been delivered to the customer and accepted
as meeting customer expectations. However, the implementation instructions were incomplete and caused an increased
call volume to the technical support hotline.
What could have been done differently before the launch of the final revised diagnostic test to avoid this issue?
A Perform a SWOT analysis
B Review the prompt list
C Use a checklist
D Review the risk register
Hint:
The project manager could have used a data-gathering technique in the Manage Quality process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
This scenario is looking back at a project and asking what could have been done differently during the Manage Quality
process of the development of the final implementation instructions to ensure they were complete. A checklist is one of
the tools and techniques that can be used in the Manage Quality to verify that a set of required steps has been
performed or to check if a list of requirements has been satisfied. Checklists can ensure consistency in frequently
performed tasks. The scenario describes issues with the implementation instructions of the fourth revised product and
suggests the documentation would have contained similar information as the previous three launches. A checklist
including a list of requirements derived from the previous implementation instructions could have been used during the
Manage Quality process of the development of the current documentation to ensure it was complete.
A Perform a SWOT analysis

13/12/2018 Incorrect. SWOT analysis examines a project fromOnlineeach of the
Courses strengths,
- PMP weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
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(SWOT) perspectives. SWOT analysis is used in risk identification. The problem with the implementation
instructions is that they were incomplete, not a result of improper risk identification. Therefore, performing a SWOT
analysis would not have helped avoid the issue.
B Review the prompt list

Incorrect. A prompt list is a predetermined list of risk categories that may give rise to individual project risks or
overall project risk. The prompt list can be used by the project team to aid in idea generation during project risk
identification. The issue in this scenario is not related to risk. Therefore, reviewing the prompt list would not likely
help avoid the problem described in the scenario.
C Use a checklist
Correct. A checklist is a structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed or to check if
a list of requirements has been satisfied. Checklists can ensure consistency in frequently performed tasks. Since
this was the fourth product launch, a checklist could have been used during the Manage Quality process for the
development of the implementation instructions to ensure they were complete.
D Review the risk register

Incorrect. The risk register contains details of identified risks. A risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it
occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives. In this scenario, the incomplete
documentation does not fit the definition of risk. Therefore, reviewing the risk register would not have avoided the
issue described in the question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 292
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During an executive review meeting, the project manager is discussing the impact of various risk elements and presents
an S-curve to represent the range of uncertainty for the total project cost. One of the executives interrupts the
presentation with concerns that there is an 85% chance that the project will cost $2.45 million or greater, which is over
budget.
A Agree with the executive, but explain that this is what the risk model shows
B Explain that there is an 85% chance the project will cost $2.45 million or less
C Explain that there is an 85% chance the project will come in under budget
D Suggest that a change request be submitted to increase the project budget
J Question
13/12/2018 answered incorrectly Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Hint:
An S-curve is a cumulative probability distribution.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question describes an S-curve for a project where the range of uncertainty of the project costs is presented. An S-
curve is a cumulative probability distribution representing the probability of achieving any particular outcome or 'less'.
This curve can be created using a Monte Carlo simulation, which is an example of a data analysis technique used in the
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. In the scenario described, the executive apparently has misinterpreted the
S-curve chart by stating that there is an 85% chance that the project will cost $2.45 million or 'greater' while the idea
behind the S-curve is to show that the probability of achieving any particular outcome will be 'less' than as indicated by
the S-curve, i.e. $2.45 million or less. Therefore, saying that there is an 85% chance the project will be less than that cost
is what the project manager should explain to the executive.
A Agree with the executive, but explain that this is what the risk model shows
Incorrect. The executive has misinterpreted the chart. In this case, there is an 85% probability that the project will
cost $2.45 million or 'less', not 'greater'.
B Explain that there is an 85% chance the project will cost $2.45 million or less
13/12/2018 Correct. An S-curve is a cumulative probabilityOnline
distribution
Coursesrepresenting the probability of achieving any particular
- PMP Exam Simulator
outcome. In the graph, it is $2.45 million or 'less', not 'greater'.
C Explain that there is an 85% chance the project will come in under budget
Incorrect. The question indicates that $2.45 million is greater than the project budget but does not state the actual
project budget. In this scenario, there is an 85% probability that the project will cost $2.45 million or less, rather
than an 85% chance of the project coming in under budget.
D Suggest that a change request be submitted to increase the project budget

Incorrect. An approved change request is required to modify the project budget. However, this answer choice fails
to address the executive's misinterpretation of the chart.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 433
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The specifications call for a component to be 4.5 mm in thickness with specification limits set at 4 mm and 5 mm
respectively. After producing the first batch, the thickness of the parts is measured and recorded on a control chart.
Based on the chart below, what can be said about this process?
A In control since all of the measurements are between 4 mm and 5 mm
B Out of control based on the measurement of 4.1 mm, and corrective action should be taken
C Out of control based on the rule of seven, and corrective action should be taken
D In control because the average thickness is between 4.2 mm and 4.8 mm
Hint:
4.2 mm and 4.8 mm represent the upper and lower control limits for this process.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Control charts are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance. Upper and lower
specification limits are based on the requirements and reflect the maximum, and minimum values allowed. Upper and
lower control limits are different from specification limits. The control limits are determined using standard statistical
calculations and principles to establish the natural capability for a stable process. The project manager and appropriate
stakeholders may use the control limits to identify points at which corrective action should be taken to prevent
performance that remains outside the control limits. In this scenario, one of the parts has a thickness of 4.1 mm which is
below the lower control limit (LCL) of 4.2 mm; therefore, the process is out of control, and corrective action should be
taken.
While the topic of this question is only briefly mentioned in the PMBOK® Guide, the Project Management Professional
(PMP)® Examination Content Outline, June 2015, covers knowledge and skills with which PMP aspirants are expected to
be familiar. Various quality measurement tools and techniques are among these knowledge and skills.

Incorrect. The specification limits are set at 4 mm and 5 mm. However, the control limits indicated on the control
chart are set at 4.2 mm and 4.8 mm. While the thickness of all the parts meets the specification limits, the process
is out of control because one of the parts measured below the lower control limit (LCL) at 4.1 mm.
Correct. According to the chart provided in the question, the lower control limit (LCL) is set at 4.2 mm. Since one of
the parts is below the LCL with a thickness of 4.1 mm, the process is considered out of control, and corrective
action should be taken.
Incorrect. The rule of seven states that a process is considered out of control if seven consecutive data points fall
above or below the mean. In this case, the distribution around the mean of 4.5 mm appears random, and there are
not seven consecutive data points falling on one side of the mean.

Incorrect. A process is determined to be out of control if only one data point falls above the upper control limit
(UCL) or below the lower control limit (LCL). The fact that the average thickness falls within the LCL and UCL is
not relevant in determining if a process is in control.
Reference:
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
While performing monitoring and controlling activities, the project manager discovers inconsistencies between the project
management plan and the project's actual performance. She now needs to determine corrective actions to minimize the
impact of the inconsistencies on the project.
In what project document would she have documented the inconsistencies and would look at to review them?
A Quality report
B Change log
C Assumption log
D Issue log
Hint:
What are inconsistencies?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Inconsistencies are also known as issues. An issue log is a record of problems, gaps, inconsistencies, and conflicts that
require action, so they do not impact project performance. In this scenario, the project manager would have logged the
inconsistencies in the issue log, which she would then review to perform corrective action. The other answer choices can
be eliminated because inconsistencies are not changes or assumptions, and a quality report is an output of the Manage
Quality process, while the scenario states the project manager is performing monitoring and controlling activities.
A Quality report
Incorrect. Quality reports provide information that can be used by other processes and departments to take
corrective actions in order to achieve the project quality expectations. Quality reports are an output of the Manage
Quality process which belongs to the Executing Process Group, while the scenario states that the project manager
is performing monitoring and controlling activities. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
B
13/12/2018 Change log Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A change log is a comprehensive list of change requests submitted during the project and their current
status. The disposition of all change requests is recorded in the change log as a project document update. The
scenario describes inconsistencies (or 'issues') and not change requests, and therefore the change log is an
incorrect answer.
C Assumption log
Incorrect. An assumption log is first created as part of the Develop Project Charter process as a project document
used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle. Inconsistencies are not
assumptions, making this answer choice incorrect.
D Issue log
Correct. The issue log is a project document where all the issues are recorded and tracked. The issue log will help
the project manager effectively track and manage issues, ensuring that they are investigated and resolved. The
issue log is updated as a result of monitoring and controlling activities throughout the project's life cycle. Therefore,
the issue log is the document where the project manager would have documented the inconsistencies (or 'issues')
and would look at to review them, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A tanker with crude oil has run aground. Oil is being transferred to another ship, but the oil leaks into the ocean before
it's all transferred. The risk of a leak was documented. The team implements the risk response by deploying an oil
containment and recovery system to prevent the spread of the crude oil. So far, the system is keeping up with the rate of
oil leakage. The overall project risk has been dramatically reduced.
What should the project manager do with this information?
A Record the information in the issue log
B Update the lessons learned register
C Revise the risk report and share it with the stakeholders
D Update the overall project risk in the risk register
Hint:
Which project document may be updated to reflect changes in overall project risk?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question describes a situation where a previously identified risk was realized triggering the Implement Risk
Responses process. The risk report may be updated to reflect any changes to the previously agreed-upon risk responses
to overall project risk exposure that are subsequently made as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process. The
risk report is a project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management processes, which
summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk. All of the answer choices
represent project documents which may be updated as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process. However, the
question is specifically asking what should be done with the information regarding the reduction in overall project risk.
Only the risk report describes the level of overall project risk. Therefore, of the available choices, revising the risk report
to reflect the change in overall project risk is the best answer to the question asked.
A
13/12/2018 Record the information in the issue log Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The issue log is a project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored. Since
the oil leak was an identified risk already documented in the risk register, there is no need to capture it in the issue
log. While you can document the risk as an issue along with its final resolution in the issue log, the question is
specifically asking where to capture the information about the reduction in 'overall' project risk. The issue log does
not contain information on changes to overall project risk, making this choice an incorrect answer.

Incorrect. The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so
that it can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository. The knowledge gained
regarding the effectiveness of the risk response should be captured in the lessons learned register. However, the
question is asking about what the project manager should do with the information regarding the significantly
reduced overall project risk rather than how effective the risk response was.

Correct. The risk report may be updated to reflect any changes to the previously agreed-upon risk responses to
overall project risk exposure that are subsequently made as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process.

Incorrect. The risk register may be updated to reflect any changes to the previously agreed-upon risk responses for
individual project risks that are subsequently made as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process.
However, the risk register addresses individual risks and not overall project risk as asked by the question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 452
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Your company's project management office maintains checklists and forms for project management activities which are
stored in the corporate digital database and organized in folders with the following labels: verified deliverables, project
exit criteria, close procurements, administrative closure. You need guidelines on how to transfer ownership of the final
output of your project to the operations team.
Which folder will help you the most?
A Verified deliverables
B Project exit criteria
C Closed procurements
D Administrative closure
Hint:
What is a synonym for all the project management activities of the process group that this scenario is in?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario states that you need guidelines on how to transfer ownership of the final output of your project to the
operations team, which implies that you are performing administrative closure of the project. Of the choices provided,
only the file labeled 'administrative closure' most closely resembles the formal term of the administrative closure of the
project. All the other files describe activities carried out prior to closing.
A Verified deliverables
Incorrect. Verified deliverables is an output of the Control Quality process that is then used as input to the Validate
Scope process. Acknowledgment of the verified deliverables must, therefore, take place before the Validate Scope
process, and since the Validate Scope process is not part of project closing described in the scenario, this choice
is an incorrect answer.
B
13/12/2018 Project exit criteria Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Project exit criteria are typically included in the project charter to determine what conditions need to be
met in order to close or to cancel the project or phase. As a result, the project exit criteria would be established
during initiating processes, and since the scenario suggests the Close Project or Phase process is underway, this
answer choice is incorrect.
C Closed procurements
Incorrect. Closed procurements provide the seller with formal written notice that the contract has been completed.
First, there is no indication in the scenario that vendors worked on the project. Even if they did, closed
procurements is an output of the Control Procurements process in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Since the scenario implies the project is in closure, this answer choice can be eliminated.
D Administrative closure
Correct. The administrative closure covers all the processes and activities of the Closing Process Group, including
final results transition described in the scenario. Therefore, the folder labeled 'administrative closure' will help you
the most.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a project to renovate a faulty waste treatment facility, which will use the same waste disposal techniques
as those currently in place. However, legislation for more stringent waste disposal techniques will likely be voted on in the
near future.
How should you handle the legislation during the development of the project charter?
A Ignore the legislation as it is an enterprise environmental factor outside the project scope
B Assume that the legislation will not pass during construction and update the assumption log accordingly
C Consider the legislation a constraint of the project
D Identify the legislation as a high-level risk that should be documented
Hint:
Think of the differences between an assumption, constraint, and risk.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
If passed, the legislation described in the scenario will require the project to implement waste disposal techniques that
will be of more stringent standards than those currently planned for the project. The chance that legislation might pass
during construction presents a risk that if realized, could have major implications on project constraints and may have a
negative impact on the outcome of the project. Therefore, you should handle the legislation for more stringent waste
disposal techniques as a high-level project risk that should be documented during project initiation. Later on, during
project planning, the risk will be addressed by the processes of the Project Risk Management Knowledge Area where a
risk response plan can be put in place to address the issue if needed.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)
Onlineare internal
Courses or Exam
- PMP external conditions outside the control of the
Simulator
project team that influences a project. In this case, legislation for waste disposal techniques would be considered
an external EEF. However, ignoring the possible impact of legislation on the project would not be prudent.
Incorrect. An assumption is a factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain without
proof or demonstration. However, the question states that the legislation will likely be voted on in the near future.
Therefore, assuming that legislation would not pass during construction is irresponsible. If the legislation does
pass, and the implemented waste disposal techniques do not comply with the new regulations, the project could be
derailed.

Incorrect. A constraint is a limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process. First,
the legislation by itself is not a limiting factor. The limiting factor would be the new regulations if the legislation
passes, and since you do not know yet what the new regulations are, you cannot consider them a limiting factor
(i.e., a constraint) at this point. Therefore, this answer choice is not the best way to handle the legislation.

Correct. A risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more
project objectives. In this situation, the possibility of legislation passing during construction with more stringent
standards for the project deliverable is a risk that may be realized and should be documented early, so that the risk
can be planned for in later processes.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 31
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are managing a project to develop a new instrument. During planning, the number of design reviews was reduced.
This reduction in design reviews allowed a lower project budget and a shorter timeline. The analyzer has been
transitioned to operations, and unfortunately the support costs are significantly higher than expected as several field
modifications on the instrument are being performed.
What could you have done differently to help avoid this situation?
A Nothing. Limiting the number of design reviews will always increase the product's operating costs.
B Consider the impact of fewer project design reviews before deciding to reduce them
C Planned a better transition to operations
D Nothing, you are only responsible for the outcome of your project.
Hint:
Project Cost Management should consider more than the costs to complete project activities.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Project Cost Management should consider the effect of project decisions on the subsequent recurring cost of using,
maintaining, and supporting the product resulting from the project. In the scenario described, the number of design
reviews was limited allowing for a lower budget and a shorter timeline. However, the subsequent support costs are higher
than anticipated and could be a result of the reduction in the number of design reviews. Therefore, if you had considered
the impact of fewer project design reviews before deciding to reduce them, perhaps the higher support costs could have
been avoided.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Generally, the earlier errors are identified
Onlinein the project;
Courses the less
- PMP Exam expensive they are to correct. However,
Simulator
limiting the number of design reviews will not 'always' increase a product's operating costs. When choosing
answers, try to avoid options that contain absolutes, such as always, all, never, and none.
Correct. As the project manager, you are primarily concerned with the costs required to complete project activities.
However, Project Cost Management should also consider the effect of project decisions, such as limiting the
number of design reviews, on the subsequent recurring cost of using, maintaining, and supporting the product.
Generally, problems detected earlier in a project are less expensive to correct. The decision and impact of limiting
the number of design reviews should have been given greater attention and consideration by the team.

Incorrect. The scenario described does not include any information on the transition process, only that the support
costs are higher than anticipated. The higher support costs alone is not enough information to determine the
transition to operations was problematic; therefore, this is not the best answer to the question asked.
Incorrect. As the project manager, your primary concern is the cost of resources to complete project activities.
However, project decisions, such as limiting the number of design reviews, can affect the costs realized after
transitioning the product to operations or support. The effect on future recurring costs should be considered when
making project decisions. Therefore, this is not the best answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 233
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You and your project team have just completed the project management plan for your agile project. You have asked a
team member to schedule a meeting to present the finalized project management plan. The team member has asked
who should be invited to the meeting.
How should you respond?
A Invite the customer only because it is an agile project
B Research the organization process assets
C Invite only the project sponsor and the project team
D The project management plan is confidential and should only be shared with the project team
Hint:
The answer can be found in the planning domain of the Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content
Outline.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline contains a list of tasks for each domain, with
which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar. Task #11 of the planning domain states, "Present the project
management plan to the relevant stakeholders according to applicable policies and procedures in order to obtain
approval to proceed with project execution." The applicable policies and procedures should be included as part of the
organizational process assets. These documents should indicate, among other information, who should be invited to the
meeting to review and approve the project management plan. Therefore, of the available choices, researching the
organization process assets is the best response.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Regardless of the nature of the project, agile
Online or waterfall,
Courses theSimulator
- PMP Exam meeting attendees to review and approve
the project management plan are typically specified in the policies and procedures included in the organizational
process assets. Customers may or may not be specified among those who should be invited.

Correct. Task #11 of the planning domain of the Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content
Outline states, "Present the project management plan to the relevant stakeholders according to applicable policies
and procedures in order to obtain approval to proceed with project execution." Therefore, the project manager
should tell the team member to check the organizational process assets for policies and procedures that provide
relevant guidance on whom should be invited to the meeting to review and approve the project management plan.

Incorrect. While the project sponsor and the project team are important meeting attendees to review and approve
the project management plan, other relevant project stakeholders should attend this meeting. Pay attention,
choices that contain absolute statements such as ‘always’, ‘never’, ‘only’, etc., typically represent incorrect
answers.
Incorrect. The project management plan is not confidential to the extent that it should only be shared with the
project team. The project management plan should be shared with all relevant stakeholders in order for it to be
properly reviewed and approved.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 84; see also Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, Project
Management Institute Inc., June 2015, Domain 2, Task 11
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The company has been working on a needs assessment and economic feasibility study for several months regarding the
need to improve their web user interface. A business case has finally been approved. The project manager and the
sponsor worked together to develop the project charter, and the sponsor has approved the charter.
A Determine how to plan for each Knowledge Area
B Develop the stakeholder register
C Divide the project into phases
D Create measurable objectives
Hint:
Which choice is an output from a process in the Initiating Process Group?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In the scenario, the project manager has an approved project charter which means the project has been formally
authorized. The project charter is an output from the Develop Project Charter process in the Initiating Process Group.
Since the project manager has completed the Develop Project Charter process, she should move on to the next process
in the Initiating Process Group, Identify Stakeholders. An output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder
register. It is true that a list of key stakeholders is part of the project charter; however, the Identify Stakeholders process
results in a much more complete list of project stakeholders as well as relevant information such as stakeholders’
interests, involvement, influence, and potential impact on the project. This information is documented in the stakeholder
register and is then used to generate the stakeholder engagement plan, a component of the project management plan,
which develops approaches to involve stakeholders. Therefore, of the choices given, developing the stakeholder register
is the next step the project manager should take.
A
13/12/2018 Determine how to plan for each Knowledge Area
Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Determining how to plan for each Knowledge Area means developing the project management plan
which happens in project planning. The project manager should complete the processes in the Initiating Process
Group before moving into the Planning Process Group.

Correct. The project manager has completed the Develop Project Charter process which belongs to the Initiating
Process Group. The next process in that group is the Identify Stakeholders process where the stakeholder register
is developed. Since the stakeholder register is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process, developing the
stakeholder register is the next thing the project manager should do.

Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to determine if the project should be divided into phases.
Regardless, a decision on whether the project is divided into phases is documented in the project charter.
Therefore, since the approved project charter already exists, this decision would have already been made.

Incorrect. The project charter contains measurable project objectives and their related success criteria. Since the
project manager has an approved project charter, the creation of measurable objectives would have been
completed.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81, 507, 514
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are initiating a project to construct a potable water system for a developing country. You have reviewed the business
case, benefits management plan and the memorandum of understanding for the project. During a meeting with
stakeholders, the project's objectives, success criteria, and high-level requirements have been determined.
What else will assist you the most in completing this process?
A Understanding labor rules and regulations in the target country
B Creating a detailed description of the project deliverables
C Creating a document that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed
D Creating a document that describes how and when the benefits of the project will be delivered and how the
benefits will be measured
Hint:
Which of the answer choices represent enterprise environmental factors?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In the scenario described, you have reviewed the business case, benefits management plan, a memorandum of
understanding (MOU), as well as determined project objectives, success criteria, and high-level requirements. These
activities are performed during the Develop Project Charter process. Inputs to the Develop Project Charter process are
the business case, agreements (MOU is an agreement), enterprise environmental factors (EEF), and organizational
process assets. EEF refer to conditions, not under the control of the project team, that influence, constrain, or direct the
project. Labor rules and regulations in the target country can constrain the project and are not under the control of the
project team. Therefore, these rules and regulations are considered EEF. Understanding these components of the EEF is
likely to assist you the most in completing the Develop Project Charter process. Therefore, of the choices provided,
understanding rules and regulations in the target country is the best answer to the question asked.
A Understanding labor rules and regulations in the target country
Correct. The scenario suggests that you are performing the Develop Project Charter process and enterprise
environmental factors (EEF) are an input to that process. EEF refer to conditions, not under the control of the
project team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project. Labor rules and regulations in the target country can
constrain the project and are not under the control of the project team. Of the available choices, understanding
these rules and regulations is likely to assist you the most in completing the Develop Project Charter process.
B Creating a detailed description of the project deliverables

Incorrect. A detailed description of the project deliverables is created during project planning, as part of defining
the project scope. As implied by the scenario, you are conducting the Develop Project Charter process which is
part of project initiating, not project planning.
C Creating a document that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed
Incorrect. The requirements management plan describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and
managed. The requirements management plan is created during the Plan Scope Management process, not during
the Develop Project Charter process, which is described in the scenario.
D Creating a document that describes how and when the benefits of the project will be delivered and how the
benefits will be measured
Incorrect. The benefits management plan describes how and when the benefits of the project will be delivered and
how they will be measured. The question is asking what 'else' will assist you in completing the process described
in the scenario. Since, according to the scenario, you have already reviewed the benefits management plan, this
choice can be eliminated.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 77-81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
All requirements on a project were collected in detail during project planning, and the scope, cost, and schedule of the
project were well-defined. Despite this fact, due to several issues that have been encountered and logged during project
execution, there has been a significant increase in the number of changes requested by the client.
How should the project manager handle this situation?
A Enter the change requests into the change log, then add them to the issue log
B Capture the change requests in the issue log, then enter them into the change log
C Record the issues in the change log, and the change requests in the issue log
D Document the change requests in the change log
Hint:
Distinguish the difference between an issue and a change request.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
During the monitoring and controlling processes, issues arise which may spur proposed changes. The issues are first
recorded in the issue log. If after review of the issue log it is determined a change request is required, then the change
request is logged in the change log, and the change request goes through the Perform Integrated Change Control
process. Change requests may modify project policies or procedures, project or product scope, project cost or budget,
project schedule, or quality of the project or product results. The project manager should document all issues in the issue
log and all change requests in the change log. The question reads, "...issues that have been encountered and logged
during project execution..." This means the issues have been captured in the issue log. Therefore, among the choices
given, documenting the change requests in the change log is the best answer to the question asked.
Note, it may be a good idea to document the fact described in the scenario that there has been a significant increase in
the number of changes requested by the client. This situation should be documented as an issue in the issue log for
further investigation, and a recommendation of a corrective action that can later be documented in the lessons learned
register to be used during the remainder of the current project or on future projects. However, this option is not provided
among the answer choices.
Incorrect. Change requests should be captured in the change log. They do not need to be recorded in the issue
log.
log.
Incorrect. Issues are captured in the issue log, change requests - in the change log.

Correct. Change requests are captured in the change log. Among the choices provided, this response best
addresses the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96, 120
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A construction project has been broken down into overlapping phases including building design, site selection,
construction, and transition phases. Requirements for the first phase include architectural drawings, a scale model of the
building, and computer-animated virtual walkthrough. A project team completed the architectural drawings and the scale
model, which have been accepted, but the computer animation is being completed by a vendor and has been delayed by
several weeks.
A Have the project team work on the site selection phase
B Perform the Close Project or Phase process for the first phase
C Perform the Validate Scope process of the first phase
D Wait for the vendor to complete the computer animation before proceeding
Hint:
The four phases do not have to be performed sequentially.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A project phase is a collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more
deliverables. In this scenario, the deliverables for the first phase include architectural drawings, a scale model of the
building, and a computer-animated virtual walkthrough. Project phases may be sequential, iterative, or overlapping.
When the phases are to be performed sequentially, a phase must be completed before the subsequent phase can begin.
However, the question states that the phases in this scenario are overlapping. Therefore, the project manager can keep
the project moving forward by having the project team work on the site selection phase while the vendor completes work
on the final deliverable of the first phase.
A Have the project team work on the site selection phase

13/12/2018 Correct. The question indicates that the four phases are overlapping.
Online Courses - PMP ExamTherefore,
Simulator the project manager can keep the
project moving forward by having the project team work on the site selection phase.
B Perform the Close Project or Phase process for the first phase
Incorrect. Accepted deliverables serve as an input into the Close Project or Phase process. Therefore, the project
cannot move into the Close Project or Phase process until all of the deliverables including the computer animation
have been reviewed and accepted.
C Perform the Validate Scope process of the first phase

Incorrect. The question states that the deliverables have already been accepted for two of the three deliverables.
The remaining deliverable is incomplete and has yet to be verified, so that it can be passed through the Validate
Scope process. Therefore, there are no verified deliverables to trigger the Validate Scope process.
D Wait for the vendor to complete the computer animation before proceeding
Incorrect. The question states that the four phases are overlapping. This means that work may begin on the
second phase before the first phase is complete. In this scenario, there is no reason to idle the project team while
the vendor completes the final deliverable of the first phase.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 19, 20
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Before you begin project planning, at a high level, you want to ensure a common understanding of the key deliverables
among the stakeholders.
What is the best way for this to be accomplished?
A Share the project charter with the stakeholders
B Email a copy of the project scope statement to the stakeholders
C Refer the stakeholders to the project management plan
D Cannot be done yet as stakeholders have not been identified at this point in the project
Hint:
What project document is available after project initiation has been completed?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that project planning is about to begin which suggests that the processes of the Initiating Process
Group have been completed. The Initiating Process Group consists of two project management processes, Develop
Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders. Therefore, the project charter and a list of stakeholders are available prior to
project planning. At a high level, the project charter ensures a common understanding by the stakeholders of the key
deliverables, milestones, and the roles and responsibilities of everyone involved in the project.
A Share the project charter with the stakeholders

Correct. At a high level, the project charter ensures a common understanding by the stakeholders of the key
deliverables, milestones, and the roles and responsibilities of everyone involved in the project.
B Email a copy of the project scope statement to the stakeholders

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The project scope statement is an output
Onlineof the Define
Courses - PMP Scope process which is part of the Planning
Exam Simulator
Process Group. The question states that project planning has yet to begin; therefore, the project scope statement
is not available to share with stakeholders.
C Refer the stakeholders to the project management plan

Incorrect. The project management plan is created during the Planning Process Group. However, based on the
scenario described, project planning has not yet started. Therefore, the project management plan does not exist.
D Cannot be done yet as stakeholders have not been identified at this point in the project
Incorrect. Stakeholders are identified during the initiation stage of the project which is completed just before project
planning. The question states that project planning is about to begin which suggests that the processes of the
Initiating Process Group have been completed. Therefore, a list of stakeholders should be available.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81, 514
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
On a project to build a wireless network in a city that is nearing completion, an inspection at one of the sites reveals an
issue with the fiber optic cables. To resolve the issue, the team replaces the faulty cables. Before requesting customer
sign-off on the project, you want to verify that this issue hasn’t impacted other project sites and that the cables on those
sites comply with the project’s quality standards and requirements.
What should you do?
A Use the change control system
B Conduct root cause analysis
C Perform product testing
D Apply benchmarking
Hint:
An organized and constructed investigation conducted to provide objective information about the quality of a product or
service.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question implies you are performing the Control Quality process by measuring the completeness and compliance of
the product prior to customer acceptance and final delivery. Among the choices given, only root cause analysis and
product testing are tools and techniques of the Control Quality process. Root cause analysis can be eliminated because
the goal described in the scenario is not trying to identify the root cause of the faulty cables; rather, to verify that the
cables meet the project’s quality standards and requirements. Product testing helps to identify defects or
nonconformance problems and can be performed throughout the project to formally demonstrate, with reliable data, that
project requirements have been met. Therefore, of the choices provided, product testing is the best answer to the
question asked.
A
13/12/2018 Use the change control system Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The change control system is used to identify, document, and control changes to the project and the
project baselines. However, the project team is focused on quality control - verifying that the product conforms to
quality standards and meets project requirements.

Incorrect. Root cause analysis is a technique used in the Control Quality process to identify the source of defects.
In this scenario, however, the team has already identified a problem with the fiber optic cables and taken corrective
action, so presumably, root cause analysis has already been performed.

Correct. Testing is a technique of the Control Quality process used to provide objective information about the
quality of a product in accordance with the project requirements. The purpose of testing is to identify errors,
defects, bugs, or other nonconformance problems prior to final delivery of the product. Conducting tests on the
installed fiber optic cables would help you formally demonstrate, with reliable data, that the cables conform to
quality standards and that the project requirements have been met.
Incorrect. Benchmarking is the comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of
comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for
measuring performance. Since you want to verify that the product meets project requirements, benchmarking is not
applicable in this scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 303
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A business case for the proposed project has been developed and is being reviewed by a member of the project
management office (PMO). The PMO team member notices a problem with the business case, which needs to be
corrected.
Of the following choices, what is the most likely problem with the business case?
A Included an explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits
provided by the project
B Included the business needs with a determination of what is prompting the need for action
C Included an analysis of the situation with the identification of the root causes of the problem to be addressed
by the project
D Included a statement of the recommended option to pursue in the project
Hint:
The benefits management plan is not part of the business case.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The business case should include business needs, analysis of the situation, recommendation, and evaluation. The
benefits management plan is the documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and
sustaining the benefits provided by the project. The business case and the benefits management plan comprise the
business documents that are used to create the project charter. However, the benefits management plan is a separate
document that is not typically included in the business case. Therefore, the inclusion of this information in the business
case is most likely what the member of the PMO noticed and requested to correct.
A Included an explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided
by the project
13/12/2018 Correct. The benefits management plan is the Online
documented
Courses -explanation defining the processes for creating,
PMP Exam Simulator
maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by the project. The benefits management plan is a separate
document that is not typically included in the business case. Therefore, the inclusion of this information in the
business case is most likely what the member of the PMO noticed.
Incorrect. The business needs are one of the key aspects that should be included in the business case. Therefore,
this answer choice can be eliminated.
C Included an analysis of the situation with the identification of the root causes of the problem to be addressed by
the project
Incorrect. An analysis of the situation should be included in the business case, making this an incorrect answer.

Incorrect. The business case should include a recommendation. Therefore, this answer choice is incorrect.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 30-33
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and
requirements. Due to the sensitive nature of the project, there is a concern that some stakeholders will not provide
candid feedback unless confidentiality is maintained.
What is the project manager's best course of action?
A Use brainstorming to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project requirements
B Conduct interviews to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly
C Hold a focus group to learn about stakeholder expectations and attitudes about the project
D Use multicriteria decision analysis to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria
Hint:
Which data gathering technique is best to elicit confidential information?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of
determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. In support of
this process, the project manager will need to employ data gathering techniques to elicit feedback from the stakeholders
to determine their needs and requirements. The question suggests that the project manager needs to use a data
gathering technique where the responses will remain confidential. An interview is a formal or informal approach to elicit
information from stakeholders by talking to them directly. Of the available choices, conducting interviews is the best tool
for the project manager to use to obtain confidential information.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Brainstorming can be used during the Collect
Online Requirements
Courses process to generate and collect multiple
ideas related to project requirements. Brainstorming is conducted in a group setting; therefore, based on the
sensitive nature of the project described in the scenario, the project manager will not likely gather candid feedback
from the stakeholders in this situation.

Correct. An interview is a formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them
directly. Interviews can be useful for obtaining confidential information.
Incorrect. A focus group can be used to learn about stakeholder expectations and attitudes about a project.
However, a focus group is conducted in a group setting which does not maintain the confidentiality of participant
responses. Therefore, this is not the best answer choice of the available options.
Incorrect. Multicriteria decision analysis is a decision-making technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a
systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate
and rank many ideas. Multicriteria decision analysis is not a data gathering technique and, therefore, is not a
method of gathering requirements from stakeholders.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 142
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
After completing all the planning processes, acquiring the project team, and creating some of the deliverables, one of the
key project team members is injured in a car accident. The team member will not be available for the rest of the project.
A Do nothing. It is an issue that occurred and should be accepted.
B Ask the rest of the team members to work extra hours
C Terminate the project as the key project team member is missing
D Submit a change request
Hint:
There are no irreplaceable people.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project is in its executing phase. Loss of the key project team member during the project execution would negatively
affect the project performance, typically leading to the schedule to be extended or the budget to be exceeded. Ideally, the
project manager would want to immediately acquire another team member with the same level of skills and experience
as the one that became unavailable. However, this option is not given as an answer choice. Therefore, the only viable
alternative among the choices given is to submit a change request to update the project management plan, specifically
the Resource Management Plan and other project documents such as roles description and project staff assignments, to
reflect the changes in the staffing and propose a potential solution.

Incorrect. While a car accident can be considered an issue, doing nothing would be irresponsible.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Working extra hours may be acceptable forCourses
Online short periods of times.
- PMP Exam However, it is highly not
Simulator
recommended for the long run. Working extra hours may result in low motivation, decreased productivity, and
attrition to name but a few, and will cause even more damage to the project.

Incorrect. Project termination is a very severe response to this issue. Projects are typically not terminated when
one team member becomes unavailable.

Correct. Losing a key project team member at the beginning of the project execution is a significant roadblock. It's
unlikely that the project manager will be able to resolve this issue quickly enough and without impacting the project
management plan. A change request should be submitted to update the plan and other project documents as
needed.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 350
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The first phase of your project was completed successfully. However, during execution of the second phase, you receive
questions about the phase objectives, and there seems to be confusion surrounding stakeholder roles and
responsibilities. You have also noticed that the commitment level of the stakeholders has declined compared to the first
phase.
What strategy should have been used to avoid this situation?
A Conducting a kick-off meeting at the start of each phase
B Carrying out a team-building exercise with the project stakeholders
C Conducting the project in a single phase
D Assigning a different project manager for each phase of the project
Hint:
Most or all project activities are repeated for each phase of a multiphase project.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The purpose of a kick-off meeting is to communicate the objectives of the project, gain the commitment of the team for
the project, and explain the roles and responsibilities of each stakeholder. Multiphase projects will typically include a kick-
off meeting at the beginning of each phase. Had the project manager conducted a kick-off meeting at the start of the
second phase, the phase objectives would have been made clear to the stakeholders, and the confusion about
stakeholder roles and responsibilities could have been reduced or avoided.
A Conducting a kick-off meeting at the start of each phase

Correct. The purpose of a kick-off meeting is to communicate the objectives of the project, gain the commitment of
the team for the project, and explain the roles and responsibilities of each stakeholder. Multiphase projects will
typically include a kick-off meeting at the beginning of each phase. Had the project manager conducted a kick-off
13/12/2018 meeting at the start of the second phase, the problems described
Online Courses in theSimulator
- PMP Exam scenario would likely have been avoided.
B Carrying out a team-building exercise with the project stakeholders

Incorrect. The objective of team-building activities is to help individual team members work together effectively by
building trust and establishing good working relationships. While a team-building exercise may be helpful in raising
the commitment level of stakeholders, the team-building exercise is not typically used to provide information about
phase objectives and roles and responsibilities.
C Conducting the project in a single phase

Incorrect. Although conducting the project in a single phase could have avoided the situation from happening in the
first place, this answer choice does not address the issue at hand: a confusion among the project stakeholders
regarding the phase objectives and their roles and responsibilities on a project that has already entered its second
phase.
D Assigning a different project manager for each phase of the project

Incorrect. There is no information in the question which suggests that assigning a different project manager would
have avoided the problem outlined in the scenario. The question implies that an important step was overlooked
when dealing with a multiphase project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 86
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
While the first phase of a construction project was a success, one of the two lead architects suddenly had to resign from
her position due to a conflict of interest within the company.
What should the project manager do immediately to manage the team composition?
A Write a work performance report to generate awareness of the lead architect's departure
B Update the project organizational chart to reflect the team change
C Review the change management plan and submit a change request
D Use float on the critical path to prevent schedule slippage due to this new risk
Hint:
The size of your team may increase or decrease over time. You need to manage changes to it to optimize performance.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The change management plan is a subsidiary plan of the project management plan. It provides direction to manage the
change control process and documents the roles and responsibilities of the change control board (CCB) if one is used on
the project. The question describes a situation in which the project manager is in the Manage Team process. One of the
activities of this process involves managing team changes to optimize project performance. For example, staffing
changes, whether made by choice or by uncontrollable events, can disrupt the project team (and need to be managed).
To do so, the project manager may submit a change request to either replace team members who leave or outsource
some of the work.
A Write a work performance report to generate awareness of the lead architect's departure
Incorrect. Work performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information
which is intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness. The information from work performance reports
and related forecasts assist in determining future team resource requirements, recognition and rewards, and
13/12/2018 updates to the resource management plan. While it is
Online important
Courses - PMPtoExam
inform stakeholders of the change in team
Simulator
composition, it is not the immediate action a project manager should take in this situation.
B Update the project organizational chart to reflect the team change

Incorrect. A project organizational chart is a graphic display of project team members and their reporting
relationships, which is contained within the resource management plan. Since the resource management plan is a
controlled document, it cannot be updated at will by the project manager without an approved change request.
While this is a step to be performed eventually, of the choices provided, it is not the immediate action that a project
manager should take in this situation.
C Review the change management plan and submit a change request

Correct. Since a lead architect has been forced to leave due to a conflict of interest, the project manager must now
deal with the matter by submitting a change request and follow the process outlined in the change management
plan to replace the human resource. The change request may be to update the resource management plan to
reflect the change in team composition, to request an additional architect to replace the one that left, or possibly to
outsource the project work affected by the lead architect's departure. In any case, this is the best answer choice of
those provided to manage your team composition.
D Use float on the critical path to prevent schedule slippage due to this new risk
Incorrect. This answer choice is incorrect for several reasons. The first is that it describes using float on the critical
path to protect the schedule. This is a false statement as a critical path should not contain any float. Second, while
there is a potential risk of having only one project architect, this risk must first be analyzed, and a response
planned before any change can be made to the schedule (e.g., adding a time contingency reserve). Finally, this
answer choice does not directly answer the question of how to manage team composition. Per those reasons, this
is not the best answer choice of those provided.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 350
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is performing quality assurance. After producing ten units for product testing, three of the units fail to
achieve performance requirements.
A Review the quality management plan to determine what to do with the nonconforming products
B Perform the Plan Quality Management process
C Review the risk report to gain guidance on what corrective action should be implemented
D Submit a change request to repair the nonconforming products
Hint:
The correct answer is an input to the Manage Quality process.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The quality management plan defines the acceptable level of project and product quality and describes how to ensure
this level of quality in its deliverables and processes. The quality management plan also describes what to do with
nonconforming products and what corrective action to implement. Therefore, reviewing the quality management plan is
what the project manager should do next.
Correct. The quality management plan will provide guidance to determine what to do with the nonconforming
products and what action to implement.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The question states that the project is in the
Online execution
Courses - PMP stage which indicates that project planning,
Exam Simulator
including the Plan Quality Management process, has already been completed. Therefore, this answer choice can
be eliminated.
Incorrect. The risk report is used in the Manage Quality process to identify sources of overall project risk and the
most important drivers of overall risk exposure that can impact the quality objectives of the project. The risk report
does not provide guidance on how to handle nonconforming products, making this an incorrect response.

Incorrect. A change request may be required to repair the defective deliverable. However, one must first determine
the appropriate corrective action to take with a nonconforming product, which may or may not include defect repair.
Therefore, this is not the best answer of the available options.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 290
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During project execution, the team discovers that one of the product functions cannot be accessed from the remote
control as specified by the product requirements. A change request is submitted and approved to include new buttons on
the remote control.
Which of the following best describes this change request?
A Corrective action
B Preventive action
C Defect repair
D Gold plating
Hint:
An intentional activity to modify a non-conforming product or product component.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Approved change requests can be a corrective action, a preventive action, or a defect repair. The question reads, "one of
the functions cannot be accessed properly from the remote control as specified by the product requirements". This
scenario is an example of a defect repair since it involves taking immediate action to correct a defective product
component that does not meet product specifications. The performing organization is neither taking preventive action nor
addressing a deviation (corrective action) from the agreed-upon project baselines. Gold plating does not apply here since
the organization is adding extra buttons to the remote control unit not as a means of enhancing the product or making the
customer happy, but as a means of meeting product specifications.
A Corrective action
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Corrective actions are taken when a Online
project has deviated
Courses from
- PMP Exam the planned scope, schedule, cost, or
Simulator
quality requirements. The goal is to bring the project’s performance back into alignment with the project baselines.
Corrective actions can be thought of as steps taken to remove the causes of an existing, undesirable situation.
This scenario, however, does not involve any deviation from the planned scope, schedule, cost, or quality
requirements. The change request corresponds to a defect repair since the action being taken is to modify a
nonconforming product or product component (in this case, the remote control).
B Preventive action
Incorrect. As the name implies, preventive actions represent proactive steps taken to remove the causes of
potential undesirable situations and ensure that the future performance of the project work is aligned with the
project management plan. In this scenario, the undesirable situation (a non-conforming product component) has
already occurred and must be fixed, making this an example of defect repair.
C Defect repair
Correct. Defect repair is an intentional activity to modify a non-conforming product or product component. Defect
repairs are implemented when a product or deliverable does not meet the documented specification. Since the
company must modify the remote control unit (by either fixing the existing buttons, adding new ones, or applying
any other changes) to ensure the functionality works properly, this is an example of a defect repair.
D Gold plating
Incorrect. Gold plating refers to intentionally adding extra features or functions to a product beyond what is covered
by the requirements or product scope. In the context of project management, gold plating is something to be
generally avoided because it often leads to extra work not estimated or planned for that can adversely affect both
the budget and timeline for the project. In this scenario, the company may be adding extra buttons to the remote
control unit, but not as a means of further enhancing the product. The company has determined that the
functionality of the product does not work or meet product requirements unless they modify the remote control unit.
Since the company is fixing a defective product component to meet product requirements, this would be an
example of defect repair.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96, 93
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
On a project, two change requests were recently submitted for review and approval. One change request was submitted
to repair a defective system. The other change request was submitted to modify the terms and conditions of a contract
with one of the suppliers. Both of the change requests have been reviewed and approved by the change control board
(CCB).
Which of the following processes is least likely to be performed as a result of the approved change requests?
A Direct and Manage Project Work
B Control Quality
C Perform Integrated Change Control
D Control Procurements
Hint:
A change request is complete once it has been reviewed and approved. Note also that the question is asking to select
the 'least' likely process to be performed in this situation.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Approved change requests are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Once the change request
has been approved, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is complete, and there is nothing more that needs to
be done in this process pertaining to the approved change request. The approved change requests are then
implemented through the Direct and Manage Project Work process. In the case of a defect repair, once the repair has
been completed, the Control Quality process is performed to verify the repair has been correctly done. In case of the
modifications to the terms and conditions of the contract, the change request is implemented as part of the Control
Procurements process. Therefore, of the available choices, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is the least
likely to be conducted at this point in the scenario.
A
13/12/2018 Direct and Manage Project Work Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. An approved change request may serve as an input into the Direct and Manage Project Work process
and implemented by the project team as part of this process. Approved change requests may be a corrective
action, a preventive action, or a defect repair. Thus, the approved change request for defect repair should be
implemented through the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Therefore, the Direct and Manage Project
Work process will be performed in this situation, making this choice an incorrect answer.
B Control Quality
Incorrect. The approved change request for defect repair will serve as an input into the Control Quality process.
After the defect repair has been completed, the Control Quality process should be performed to confirm
completeness, retest, and certify the repair. Therefore, the Control Quality process should be performed in this
case.

Correct. Approved change requests are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Once the
change request has been approved, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is complete, and there is
nothing more that needs to be done in this process pertaining to the approved change request. Since the question
is asking to select the process that is least likely to be performed in this situation, this choice is the best answer to
the question asked.
Incorrect. Approved change requests, which may serve as an input to the Control Procurements process, can
include modifications to the terms and conditions of a contract. The approved change request to modify the
agreement is then implemented through the Control Procurements process. Therefore, the Control Procurements
process should be conducted in this scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 113, 496, 92-93, 301
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
In light of rising fuel costs, a car manufacturer is responding to market demand by initiating a project to increase the fuel
efficiency of their cars. The company executives aim to improve the market share and profitability of the company.
In this scenario, which of the following is not one of the four fundamental categories of factors that led to the initiation of
the project?
A Meet regulatory or legal requirements
B Create, improve, or fix products, processes, or services
C Satisfy stakeholder requests or needs
D Implement or change business or technological strategies
Hint:
Which of the answer choices is not related to market demand?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that the car manufacturer is responding to market demand and does not indicate that the project
would satisfy any legal requirements. Governments sometimes regulate the fuel efficiency of cars, but the question
specifically states that the project is in response to market demand rather than government requirements. Note, the
question is asking for the answer choice which is 'not' one of the four fundamental categories of factors that led to the
initiation of the project. Therefore, meeting regulatory, legal, or social requirements is the best answer.

Correct. The question states that the car manufacturer is responding to market demand and does not indicate that
the project would satisfy any legal requirements.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Increasing the fuel efficiency of the manufacturer's line of
Online Courses - PMP cars
Exam is an example of improving their product
Simulator
to make their cars more attractive to buyers in the marketplace.

Incorrect. The project is created in response to market demand and aims to satisfy the need of stakeholders (i.e.,
potential car buyers) who demand more fuel-efficient cars. Company stockholders and employees have a vested
interest in improving the company's market share and profitability.

Incorrect. Market demand may drive a company to change their business or technological strategies. For example,
rising fuel costs may change consumer interests to accept improved aerodynamics over styling to save fuel costs.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 9
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Following is an illustration of a project network activity node that includes some information about activity B.
Assuming that work starts on day one (not day zero) and given the information provided, what is the late start of activity
B?
A 35
B 36
C 37
D 39
Hint:
Since the current activity’s late finish date and duration are provided, you could use the backward pass formula to
compute the late start date. Or, since the early start date and total float are provided, you could use the relevant total
float formula.
Correct
13/12/2018 Answer: C Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Explanation:
To answer this question, the first step is to understand the meaning of the values displayed on the network activity node.
The accepted convention is shown below, where:
ES = early start
EF = early finish
LS = late start
LF = late finish
The next step is to select a formula that calculates the late start using the values provided in the question.
Option 1. The total float can be calculated using either one of the following formulas:
Total Float = LF - EF
Total Float = LS - ES
Since both early start and total float are provided, use the formula that has the late start variable:
Using basic math operations, the later start can be calculated as:
LS = Total Float + ES = 16 + 21 = 37
Option 2. Alternatively, we could use the relevant formula from the backward pass of the critical path method. Since both
late finish and duration are provided, we could use the late start formula, which takes the late finish, subtracts the
duration, and then adds 1 to account for work starting on day one.
LS = LF – D + 1 = 39 – 3 + 1 = 37
Here is the project schedule network activity node with late start filled in with the correct answer, 37:
A 35
Incorrect. You might get this answer if you misremembered the formula, and subtracted 1 instead of adding 1 for
the "start on day one" convention.
B 36
Incorrect. You might get this answer if you used the "start on day zero" formula, which fails to add 1 for the "start
on day 1" convention.
C 37
Correct. Based on the information given in the figure, you can use either of two formulas: LS = LF – D + 1 or LS -
ES = Total Float to get this answer.
D 39
Incorrect. 39 is the late finish value. If you use it as the late start, it does not properly account for the duration and
start on day one, nor does it account for the total float.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 210-211. See also PMI® Practice Standard for Scheduling – Second Edition
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The senior management has mandated that all the project managers show a 10% reduction in cost incurred while
executing their projects. You gather all the information on costs incurred on your project, and you realize that
transportation costs are the major area that contributes to the expense.
What should you do next?
A Perform root cause analysis
B Conduct trend analysis
C Carry out trend analysis
D Use decision tree analysis
Hint:
You would want to use a technique to identify the underlying reason and develop solutions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A root cause analysis can assist in identifying the root causes of a problem and solutions for change. In the scenario,
transportation expenses are the highest costs and therefore an excellent place to look for cost reductions. By using root
cause analysis, the underlying reason(s) for the high expenses can be determined, and a solution can be identified.

Correct. Root cause analysis is an analytic technique used to determine the underlying reason for a problem. This
technique will help you identify the causes of high transportation costs and develop a solution.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Trend analysis is used to forecast future performance
Online Courses - PMPbased on past results. According to the scenario,
Exam Simulator
the senior management has mandated that all the project managers show a 10% reduction in cost incurred while
executing their projects. Forecasting future performance is unlikely to help reducing project costs.

Incorrect. Trend analysis is used to forecast future performance based on past results and gives a project manager
an early warning if there may be problems. In this scenario, you already have a request to cut costs by 10%, so
you don't need an early warning. Since you need to decide how to reduce costs, not forecast future performance, a
trend analysis will not be helpful.

Incorrect. Decision trees are used to support the selection of the best of several alternative courses of action. At
this point in the scenario, you only know that transportation is the highest expense, you have not determined any
solutions to reduce costs. Therefore, decision tree analysis will not be useful until you have alternative ideas from
which to choose to reduce transportation costs.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 111
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A new program manager takes over a program and wants to review the original start dates as well as anticipated end
dates for all projects in the program.
What document should the program manager request from each project?
A Project scope statement
B Activity attributes
C Schedule management plan
D Project charter
Hint:
What document includes summary milestones?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A project charter is the main output of the Develop Project Charter process. This process is carried out during project
initiation where the information available about the project is typically scarce. The information is refined during project
planning resulting in changes to some of the originally planned aspects such as the project start and finish dates.
Therefore, the approved project charter is the only document from the options provided that would have the original start
date as well as the anticipated end date, typically in the form of summary milestones for the project, making project
charter the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. The project scope statement includes the description of the project scope, major deliverables,
assumptions, and constraints. The project scope statement does not typically contain project dates.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Activity attributes extend the description ofCourses
Online the activity
- PMPby identifying
Exam Simulatormultiple components associated
with each activity. Neither the original start date nor the anticipated end date of a project is part of activity
attributes.

Incorrect. The schedule management plan establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and
controlling the schedule. The schedule management plan does not contain specific dates.
D Project charter
Correct. The project charter formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with
the authority to use company resources. The project charter also documents high-level information, such as
summary milestones, which would give the 'original' start and anticipated end dates.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project manager conducting a team meeting to discuss communications management on your current project.
The project information is being managed and distributed using various tools including social media management,
electronic communications management, and electronic project management tools. These tools are used to ensure
stakeholders can easily access project information in a timely manner.
The project team is making use of which one of the tools or techniques associated with the Manage Communications
process?
A Project management information system (PMIS)
B Work performance information
C Communications management plan
D Project information technology system (PITS)
Hint:
Which of the choices is considered a tool or technique?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the tools and techniques associated with the Manage Communications process is the project management
information system (PMIS). The PMIS can be used to ensure that stakeholders can easily retrieve the information they
need in a timely manner. The tools associated with the PMIS include electronic project management tools, electronic
communications management, and social media management. The PMIS is the tool the team is using in this scenario.

Correct. Project management information systems (PMIS) ensure that stakeholders can easily retrieve the
information they need in a timely manner.
B
13/12/2018 Work performance information Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Work performance information is the data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison
with project management plan components, project documents, and other work performance information. Work
performance information is not one of the project management tools and techniques.

Incorrect. The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes
how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. The
communications management plan is not one of the project management tools and techniques.

Incorrect. ‘Project information technology system’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 385
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project manager has just received authorization to proceed with a new project and starts to create the stakeholder
register. A human resources department manager, who was identified as a key stakeholder, is about to leave for vacation
and asks the project manager what her role and responsibilities will be for the upcoming project.
What document should the project manager provide to her?
A Project team assignments
B Approved project charter
C Resource requirements
D Stakeholder register
Hint:
What document contains high-level information on roles and responsibilities?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the project manager has received authorization to proceed with the project, it can be inferred that he has the
approved project charter. The question also states that the project manager has just started to create the stakeholder
register implying the stakeholder register, which would clarify a stakeholder's role and responsibility on the project, is not
yet ready to be provided to the stakeholder. Given this information, the approved project charter would be the only
document available at this point in the project that has information on the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders
and would be the document the project manager should provide to the stakeholder.

Incorrect. Project team assignments is a project document that includes team member competencies and
experience, roles and responsibilities for the project and activity assignments. However, project team assignments
is an output of the Acquire Resources process, which is part of the Executing Process Group. The scenario
13/12/2018 describes a project in initiation, making this choice
Onlinean incorrect
Courses answer.

Correct. The approved project charter formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project
manager with the authority to use company resources. The approved project charter also includes high-level
information, such as the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders, and is the only document at this point in the
project life cycle that the project manager could provide the stakeholder.
Incorrect. Resource requirements is a project document that identifies the types and quantities of resources
required for each work package or activity in a work package. Resource requirements is an output of the Estimate
Activity Resources process in the Planning Process Group. In this scenario, project planning has not yet started,
so resource requirements documentation would not be available to provide to the stakeholder.
Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project document that includes identification, assessment, and classification
of project stakeholders. Roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders on the project are among the details
included in the stakeholder register. However, the question states that the project manager has just started to
create the stakeholder register. Therefore, it is possible but unlikely that the stakeholder register will already be
available for the stakeholder, making this answer choice not the best answer to the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As a project manager, you are leading a research and development project, and you always follow all project
management best practices. You have just completed project initiation, and you need to begin planning your project.
A Create the change management plan
C Have the project sponsor sign the project charter
D Produce the issue log
Hint:
Which of the answer choices represents an action that should occur as part of the Planning Process Group?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that you, as the project manager, have completed project initiation and are about to start planning
your project. The change management plan is created during the Develop Project Management Plan process which is
part of the Planning Process Group. The incorrect answer choices represent actions which should occur as part of the
project initiation or project execution. Of the available choices, only creating the change management plan is an activity
that should occur during project planning.

Correct. The question states that you, as the project manager, are about to start planning your project. The change
management plan is created during the Develop Project Management Plan process which is part of the Planning
Process Group.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder register is created as an output
Online Coursesof the Identify
- PMP Stakeholders process. The Identify
Exam Simulator
Stakeholders process is one of the processes included in the Initiating Process Group. According to the scenario
described, you have just completed project initiation, implying the stakeholder register has already been
developed.

Incorrect. The project charter is created and approved as part of the Develop Project Charter process which is part
of the Initiating Process Group. The question states that project initiation has been completed. Therefore, the
project charter has already been signed by the project sponsor in this scenario.

Incorrect. The issue log is first produced during the Direct and Manage Project Work process which occurs as part
of project execution. The project must be planned before it can be executed, making this choice an incorrect
answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 88
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Your project has been in execution for one month, and you have performed earned value analysis (EVA) to determine
how the project is performing compared to the cost baseline.
Which of the following is the result of your efforts?
A Work performance data
B Work performance reports
C Work performance information
D Performance measurement baseline
Hint:
Raw project data that has been analyzed in context is referred to as what?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario implies you have conducted the Control Costs process and used earned value analysis (EVA) as a tool to
determine how the project has been performing compared to the cost baseline. Work performance data such as AC, PV,
and BAC are used to generate work performance information such as cost variance (CV), the cost performance index
(CPI), or the estimated budget at completion (EAC). The resulting work performance information will assist the project
manager to determine how the project is performing compared to the cost baseline. Work performance information is
among the outputs of the Control Costs process.

Incorrect. Work performance data is the raw observations and measurements collected during the execution of
project work. The data used to produce the EVA results, such as actual costs (AC), planned value (PV), and total
budget (BAC) are examples of work performance data not work performance information.
B
13/12/2018 Work performance reports Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Work performance reports are a physical representation of the work performance information compiled in
a document. In this scenario, there is no mention of the EVA results, or work performance information being
organized into a report.

Correct. Work performance information is derived from the analysis of work performance data. In this scenario, the
work performance data such as AC, PV, and BAC are used in EVA and compared against the cost baseline to
determine if the project is performing as expected. Work performance data analyzed in context is work
performance information, making this choice the correct answer.

Incorrect. The performance measurement baseline integrates the scope, schedule, and cost baselines and is used
to determine how well the project is performing against the project plan. In the scenario described, you are
comparing work performance data to the cost baseline, i.e., you are producing work performance information, not
the performance measurement baseline.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 268, 261-263, 26
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Your company has been awarded a contract, which includes a 5% bonus if the work is completed early. Your company
wants to ensure they receive the incentive payment and have promised you, the project manager, a large bonus if you
can get the project completed early. To ensure both you and your company receive the promised bonuses, you have
assigned the most talented team to the project.
Which risk response strategy have you utilized?
A Exploit
B Escalate
C Enhance
D Share
Hint:
Which risk response strategy is appropriate when you want to ensure the opportunity definitely happens?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The Plan Risk Responses process involves devising strategies to realize opportunities, or positive risks, as well as
minimize threats, or negative risks. In this scenario, your company wants to ensure the bonus payment is collected,
thereby increasing the probability of this positive risk's occurrence to 100%. As the project manager, you have assigned
the company's most talented construction crew in order to exploit this opportunity.
A Exploit
Correct. This strategy seeks to capture the benefit associated with a particular opportunity by ensuring that it
definitely happens, increasing the probability of occurrence to 100%. Assigning your most talented construction
crew to the project is an example of exploiting this opportunity and therefore the correct answer.
B
13/12/2018 Escalate Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. This risk response strategy is appropriate when the project team or the project sponsor agrees that the
opportunity is outside the scope of the project or exceeds the project manager's authority. The project manager
communicates the details of the opportunity to the appropriate person or department. Once an opportunity is
escalated, the project manager takes no further action on the opportunity. Therefore, this is an incorrect answer.
C Enhance
Incorrect. The enhance strategy is used to increase the probability of an opportunity occurring. In this scenario, you
are using your best team to make sure the opportunity occurs, rather than trying to increase the likelihood of the
opportunity happening.
D Share
Incorrect. Sharing involves transferring ownership of an opportunity to a third party so that it shares some of the
benefits if the opportunity occurs. There is no mention of a third party in this scenario, making this choice an
incorrect answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 444
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A previously identified risk has been realized which triggered a risk response. The project team compares the amount of
the remaining budget within the cost baseline that was allocated for this risk to the amount of risk remaining in order to
determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. The result of the project team's analysis is captured in a burndown chart
which will be shared with various project stakeholders.
What type of analysis has the project team performed?
A SWOT analysis
B Regression analysis
C Contingency analysis
D Reserve analysis
Hint:
What data analysis technique is used during the Monitor Risks process to determine if the remaining contingency reserve
is adequate?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question suggests that the project team is carrying out the Monitor Risks process. The
budget within the cost baseline that was allocated for identified risks is known as contingency reserves. Reserve analysis
is a data analysis technique which may be used during the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis compares the
amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project in order to
determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. The project team is using reserve analysis and creating a burndown
chart to share with various stakeholders.
A SWOT analysis
13/12/2018 Incorrect. SWOT analysis is the analysis of strengths, weaknesses,
Online Courses opportunities,
- PMP Exam Simulator and threats of an organization,
project, or option. Based on the scenario described, the project team is performing the Monitor Risks process. A
SWOT analysis is a data analysis technique used in the Identify Risks process rather than in the Monitor Risks
process.
Incorrect. Regression analysis is an analytical technique where a series of input variables are examined in relation
to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship. The question
suggests that the project team is performing the Monitor Risks process. Regression analysis is a data analysis
technique used in the Close Project or Phase process rather than in the Monitor Risks process.
Incorrect. 'Contingency analysis' is a fake term made up for this question.
D Reserve analysis
Correct. Reserve analysis compares the amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk
remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. This may be
communicated using various graphical representations, including a burndown chart.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 456
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have been a member of several project meetings to discuss high-level items for your next project. Some of the items
that have been documented are a project description, a summary milestone schedule, and a list of stakeholders.
What document will result from these meetings?
A The project charter
B The stakeholder management plan
C The project management plan
D The schedule management plan
Hint:
What document contains high-level information?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter contains a great deal of information mostly at a high-level. It is used as an input to the various
management plans where the information becomes more detailed and specific. The project charter should be authored
by the sponsoring entity. Ideally, the project manager is identified early and able to participate in the development of the
project charter to obtain a foundational understanding of the project requirements. This understanding will better allow for
efficient resources allocation to project activities.

Correct. The project charter formally authorizes the existence of the project and contains mostly high-level
information.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder management plan isOnline
a subsidiary
Courses - plan of theSimulator
PMP Exam project management plan and identifies
the management strategies required to effectively engage stakeholders.

Incorrect. The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed,
monitored, and controlled.

Incorrect. The schedule management plan is a subsidiary of the project management plan that establishes the
criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have just received an e-mail message that four project team members are arguing over project roles and there is
confusion over who is in charge of what work. You decide that the team needs a way to clearly indicate project roles with
respect to project activities.
What is the best solution to this problem?
A Create a framework to help the team restrain, ascertain, constrain, and explain project roles.
B Determine who is responsible, who is accountable, who should be consulted, and who simply needs to be
informed about project activities.
C Let the team naturally decide who does what.
D The team should rate, allocate, correlate, and integrate project activities.
Hint:
What is a graphical tool used to clearly connect project members to project roles and activities?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question implies that the Plan Resource Management process is underway. Data representation techniques that can
be used for this process include but are not limited to charts. In this scenario, a RACI chart quickly and efficiently
identifies which team member or stakeholder is responsible or accountable for project activities and who should be
consulted or informed about project work.
A Create a framework to help the team restrain, ascertain, constrain, and explain project roles.
Incorrect. These are made-up terms.
B Determine who is responsible, who is accountable, who should be consulted, and who simply needs to be
informed about project activities.
13/12/2018 A RACI chart is a type of responsibility assignment
Onlinematrix.
CoursesThis document
- PMP will clearly outline team roles and
Exam Simulator
assignments to activities, so there is no confusion about who is in charge of which project activities.
C Let the team naturally decide who does what.

Incorrect. As the project manager, you are in charge of deciding the various roles for the team members and the
project activities to which that are assigned.
D The team should rate, allocate, correlate, and integrate project activities.
Incorrect. These are made-up terms. The project manager is responsible for project assignments.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 316-317.
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager has found that by issuing laptops to the development team and allowing them to work from home two
days per week, the developers are more productive and enjoy the extra time with their families.
What should the project manager do with this information to improve the performance of future projects?
A Share the information during the next iteration retrospective
B Update the lessons learned register with the knowledge gained
C Revise the issue log with the final resolution
D Submit a change request to update the lessons learned repository
Hint:
Where should knowledge gained during a project be recorded?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so that it can be
used in the current project. At the end of the project, the information contained in the lessons learned register is
transferred to an organizational process asset called the lessons learned repository, which is a store of historical
information about lessons learned from projects. Of the available options, the best way for the project manager to make
the information available for use on future projects is to update the lessons learned register with the knowledge gained.
A Share the information during the next iteration retrospective

Incorrect. An iteration retrospective is a scheduled review which occurs at the end of each iteration. An iteration
retrospective does provide an opportunity to share knowledge gained to improve project performance for future
iterations. However, sharing the information during an iteration retrospective will not make the information available
for use on future projects. One may argue that useful information shared at the retrospective can be recorded in
13/12/2018 the lessons learned register, enabling the information to be available
Online Courses forSimulator
- PMP Exam the current and future projects. However,
since updating the lessons learned register with the knowledge gained is explicitly reflected in another answer
choice, sharing the information during the next iteration retrospective is not the best answer to the question asked.
B Update the lessons learned register with the knowledge gained

Correct. Knowledge gained during the project should be recorded in the lessons learned register. At the end of the
project, the information captured in the lessons learned register is transferred to the lessons learned repository
where it will be available for use on future projects.
C Revise the issue log with the final resolution

Incorrect. The question does not state whether an issue was captured in the issue log in this scenario. Assuming
an issue was recorded in the issue log, it should be updated with the final resolution. However, capturing the
information in the issue log will not make the knowledge gained available for use on future projects.

Incorrect. Typically, the project management plan and baselines are placed under configuration control which
requires an approved change request to update. The project documents may be placed under configuration control
as well, but this is less likely. However, the lessons learned repository is an organizational process asset that exists
outside of the project. Therefore, submitting a change request is not an appropriate action to update the lessons
learned repository. Additionally, the action of submitting a change request is not the same as actually recording the
knowledge in the lessons learned repository to make it available for future projects.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 128, 225
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager combined and recorded work performance information. The project manager wants to share it with the
project stakeholders to raise awareness and generate decisions and actions.
Which of the following is the best course of action for the project manager to take to achieve this goal?
A Document this information in the lessons learned knowledge base
B Present this information at the kick-off meeting in front of the key project stakeholders
C Distribute this information in the form of work performance reports
D Send this information to the project sponsor and request their approval
Hint:
This is one of the outputs from the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Work performance reports are a physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in
project documents. Work performance reports are one of the outputs from the Monitor and Control Project Work process
as well as one of the inputs into several project management processes. Work performance reports are created by
combining and recording work performance information and then distributed by the project manager among the project
stakeholders. The main purpose of the work performance reports is to raise awareness and generate decisions and
actions. Therefore, distributing combined and recorded work performance information in the form of work performance
reports is the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. While there is nothing wrong in documenting this information in the lessons learned knowledge base as
a reference for future projects, distributing the information in the form of work performance reports would have a
higher chance of raising awareness and generating decisions and actions among the project stakeholders.
B
13/12/2018 Present this information at the kick-off meetingOnline
in front of the
Courses key Exam
- PMP project stakeholders
Simulator
Incorrect. A kick-off meeting typically takes place during project initiation or planning. Based on the information
provided in the question, the project is in its execution. Therefore it's reasonable to assume that the project kick-off
meeting has already occurred.

Correct. Work performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information
intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.
Incorrect. Although important, the project sponsor is not the only project stakeholder. The information should be
distributed among all, or part, of the project stakeholders as specified in the communications management plan.
Also, it is not clear what approval the project sponsor is expected to provide.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 112
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A key team member has left the project, and the planned risk response is implemented by replacing the team member
with an individual that is very capable and highly productive. However, the project manager now feels there is a risk that
the productivity of the team may suffer as a result of not having an established working relationship with the replacement
team member.
This new risk is an example of which type of risk?
A Residual risk
B Risk enhancement
C Secondary risk
D Reserve risk
Hint:
This new risk may become an issue as a direct result of implementing the risk response plan.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. The risk that the other team
members' productivity may decrease emerged as a result of implementing the risk response for the loss of the original
team member. So in this scenario, what is described by the question is a secondary risk.
A Residual risk
Incorrect. A residual risk is represented by the risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.
However, the risk created by replacing the team member is a new risk and is different from the original risk of
losing a key team member.
B Risk enhancement
13/12/2018 Incorrect. A risk can either be a threat or an opportunity. Risk
Online Courses enhancement
- PMP is a risk response strategy whereby the
Exam Simulator
project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity. The question is describing a
threat rather than an opportunity. Therefore, this option can be eliminated as a correct answer choice.
C Secondary risk
Correct. A secondary risk is a risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response. The risk that the
other team members' productivity may decrease arose as a result of implementing the risk response for the loss of
the original team member.
D Reserve risk
Incorrect. 'Reserve risk' is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 439, 446
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Nearing the end of the project, while reviewing the final invoices for payment, the project manager notices that one of the
sellers performed some change requests that were not approved. After several conversations, the project manager and
the seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the changes.
How should the project manager resolve this situation?
A Begin court litigation
B Engage a third-party to resolve the dispute
C Pay the outstanding invoice
D Get your project team's advice
Hint:
The project manager should try to resolve the dispute outside the courtroom.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Contested charges where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement are called claims. The contract usually has
terms to manage claims administration. The preferred way to resolve claims is through direct negotiation between the
involved parties. If the parties cannot resolve a claim themselves, it should be handled by alternative dispute resolution
(ADR), typically following the procedures in the contract. The scenario describes that direct negotiation has already taken
place unsuccessfully. The next step for the project manager to take is to identify some form of ADR which is typically
done with the help of a third party. Therefore, engaging third-party resolution is the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. In this scenario, the project manager and the seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for
some change requests. If direct negotiation between parties does not resolve the contested charges, as in this
scenario, alternative dispute resolution (ADR) procedures typically established in the contract should be followed.
13/12/2018 Using litigation is the last choice for settling any claims.
Online Since
Courses the Exam
- PMP project manager and the seller have not yet tried
Simulator
ADR, a lawsuit would be premature.

Correct. Contested charges on which a buyer and seller cannot agree are called claims. According to the scenario,
the project manager has tried to reach out to the seller to settle the claim but have been unsuccessful. When
parties cannot reach an agreement on a resolution of a claim, it should be handled by ADR which involves a third-
party to resolve the dispute through arbitration or mediation.

Incorrect. In this scenario, the project manager has tried to negotiate with the seller to no avail. As a project
manager, the project manager should be fiscally responsible and try another form of resolution to settle the
contested charges before paying the invoice. There are other methods to resolve contested charges, such as
ADR, that are typically included in the contract.

Incorrect. The dispute is between the project manager and the seller and does not involve the project team. While
there is nothing wrong with consulting the project team, their advice is unlikely to help in resolving the contested
charges, and therefore, is not the best answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is currently using data analysis techniques to develop work performance information to compare the
work performed so far against the project schedule.
Which of the following processes is the project manager currently carrying out?
A Control Schedule
B Estimate Activity Durations
C Develop Schedule
D Estimate Activity Resources
Hint:
Which is a process that should be performed throughout the project to maintain the schedule baseline?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Various data analysis techniques, such as earned value analysis, iteration burndown chart, trend analysis, etc. are used
in the Control Schedule process to conduct a comparison of work performed to the project schedule. Work performance
information, which is an output of the Control Schedule process, includes information on how the project work is
performing compared to the schedule baseline. In the scenario provided, the project manager is using data analysis
techniques to develop work performance information to compare the work performed so far against the project schedule.
These activities are best described by the Control Schedule process.
A Control Schedule
Correct. Control Schedule is the process that involves using various tools and techniques, such as data analysis
described in the question, to monitor the project performance, to update and manage the project schedule and the
schedule baseline.
B
13/12/2018 Estimate Activity Durations Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Estimate Activity Durations is the process of estimating the amount of time needed to complete individual
activities with the estimated resources. Based on the scenario described, the project is in execution implying that
the Estimate Activity Durations process has already been completed.
C Develop Schedule
Incorrect. Develop Schedule is the process involved in creating the project schedule model for project execution,
and monitoring and controlling. The question implies that this has already taken place since the work performed so
far will be compared to the schedule.

Incorrect. Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the resources needed and the type and
quantities of material, equipment, and supplies required to complete the project work. The question describes a
process that compares work performed to the project schedule which is not what is done during the Estimate
Activity Resources process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 222, 226-228
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager has submitted a change request which was reviewed and approved by the change control board
(CCB). However, the committee chairperson overrules the decision and denies the change request on the basis of its
budget and schedule impacts.
How can the project manager verify if the chairperson has this authority?
A Check the project team assignments
B Review the responsibility assignment matrix
C Research the work breakdown structure
D Examine the change management plan
Hint:
What document defines activities and roles to manage and control changes on a project?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project manager needs to verify whether or not the chairperson had the authority to overrule the CCB's decision on
the change request. The responsibility assignment matrix, work breakdown structure, and project team assignments
contain information about project roles and responsibilities, but not specifically about the change control process. For that
information, the project manager should consult the change management plan, which is specifically designed to provide
direction for managing the change control process and documenting the roles and responsibilities of the CCB. The
change management plan would specify the number of people needed to pass a vote, who has the authority to break ties
when voting on change requests, and who may have the ability to overrule the committee. Therefore, the change
management plan would be the best document to reference for verification of the chairperson's scope of authority.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Project team assignments is a project document
Online Coursesthat provides
- PMP information on the type of competencies
Exam Simulator
and experience available in the project and the knowledge that may be missing. The project manager needs a
document that will clarify the roles and responsibilities of the CCB. However, the project team assignments
document does not provide this information.

Incorrect. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a grid that shows the project resources assigned to each
work package. Since the CCB is responsible for managing the change control process rather than executing work
packages, the RAM is not designed to detail roles and responsibilities, as well as the rules and procedures, for the
change control process.

Incorrect. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is designed to show how project deliverables are broken down into
work packages and provide a way of showing high-level areas of responsibility. The WBS does not describe the
project’s change control process or the roles and responsibilities of CCB members.

Correct. The change management plan provides the direction for managing the change control process and
documents the roles and responsibilities of the CCB. Because the change management plan defines each
committee member’s role and level of authority within the group, and committee rules and procedures for decision-
making, it would also specify the number of people needed to pass a vote, who has the authority to break ties
when voting on change requests, and who may have the ability to overrule the committee in certain cases. For this
reason, the change management plan would be the best document for the project manager to reference for
clarification on the roles and responsibilities of CCB members and to verify if the chairperson has the authority to
make the decision described in the scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 116, 120
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
On a project, a team member thinks she has discovered a new approach that would yield better results than the original
approach. She has written up a change request to get additional material to conduct a small experiment and test her
hypothesis.
What should you do first?
A Have the change control board decide on the change request
B Update project documents affected using the configuration management plan
C Implement the change on the basis of life-saving ethical conduct
D Analyze the impact of the change request on project constraints
Hint:
Your research assistant may have found a better way to save lives. Think about what needs to happen first to make sure
this is possible.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A change request is a formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline. After a change request has been
written, it must be reviewed and analyzed using the Perform Integrated Change Control process as outlined in the
change management plan. This includes an analysis of the impact of the change request on project constraints such as
scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, etc. A change control board or authorized individual such as the project sponsor will
review, approve, postpone or deny change requests based on the results of this analysis. Since the question describes a
situation in which a team member has already drafted a change request, the next step is to begin the Perform Integrated
Change Control process and discover in what ways (if at all) the change request impacts the project and its constraints.
A Have the change control board decide on the change request
13/12/2018 Incorrect. A change request is a formal proposal to modify
Online Coursesa- document, deliverable, or baseline. After a change
PMP Exam Simulator
request has been written, an analysis must be carried out to determine the impact of the change request on project
constraints such as project scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, etc. Afterward, a change control board or authorized
individual, e.g., the project manager or a designated team member, may approve, postpone or deny the change
requests based on the results of the analysis. Based on the scenario described, the change request has not yet
been analyzed. Since a change control board typically makes a decision 'after' analysis of a change request has
been performed, this answer choice is not the best of those provided.
B Update project documents affected using the configuration management plan

Incorrect. The configuration management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes
configurable items for the project and identifies which items will be recorded and updated so that the product of the
project remains consistent and operable. Before any project documentation can be updated, a change request
must first be submitted and processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. If approved, the
configuration management plan would then be used to identify which project documents need updating as a result
of the change. A better answer choice would have been to receive an approved changed request and then update
the project documents affected, however, that option is not listed.
C Implement the change on the basis of life-saving ethical conduct

Incorrect. A change request is a formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline. Change requests
and the procedures used to analyze their impacts are part of a greater project change control system. While this
change request may result in a new vaccine that saves lives, proper change control is mandatory for every project
so as to prevent scope creep, or the uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to
time, cost, and resources. Without a controlled analysis of the impacts of this change request on the project, it is
possible greater schedule or budget issues could arise as a result of improper implementation and analysis. As
such, this answer choice is not the best of those provided.
D Analyze the impact of the change request on project constraints

Correct. Before a change request can be implemented, an analysis of its impacts to the project must be conducted
as part of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. This includes a thorough review of which project
constraints the change request will affect, and if the change request is in keeping with organizational objectives
laid out in the project management plan. Once this analysis is complete, an authorized individual or a group (such
as members of a change control board) will decide on the change request. As such, this answer choice is the best
of those provided.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A vendor on your project missed an important deadline and has not been responsive to quality issues. You want to
terminate the contract for cause and find another vendor to finish the work, but you learn that the vendor was paid in full
upon delivery of the materials to job site.
What could have been done differently to prevent the vendor from getting paid prematurely?
A Proceeding with claims administration
B Using a prequalified seller list
C The use of more appropriate contract terms
D Using a more appropriate contract type
Hint:
A project with payments tied to project output and deliverables rather than inputs has better controls.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
It is essential that compensation is linked to seller's progress as defined in the contract. A principal concern when making
payments is to ensure there is a close relationship of payments made to work accomplished. A contract with terms that
require payments linked to project output and deliverables rather than inputs has better controls. Of the available
choices, using contract terms that provide regular payments as the work is completed may have prevented the situation
described by the question. More importantly, paying only for the work that has been completed would mean that even if
the contract is terminated, the remaining funds are available to pay another vendor.

Incorrect. Claims administration provides possible remedies after one or both parties have failed to meet their
contractual obligations. Therefore, this is a reactive measure and would not likely have prevented the situation
from occurring.
B
13/12/2018 Using a prequalified seller list Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A prequalified seller list is a list of potential sellers that have been previously approved. However, using a
prequalified seller list would not have prevented the vendor from being paid in full upon delivery of the materials.

Correct. It is important that compensation is linked to seller's progress as defined in the contract. A contract with
terms that require payments tied to project output and deliverables rather than inputs has better controls.

Incorrect. The contract type can undoubtedly influence seller performance. For example, a fixed price incentive fee
(FPIF) contract might contain a monetary reward for completing the work ahead of schedule. However, the contract
type doesn't address the timing of payments to the vendor.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 494
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are managing a project and are in the process of finalizing the cost baseline.
Which of the following requires approval if it were to become a part of the cost baseline?
A Contingency reserves
B Management reserves
C Individual activity costs
D Resource costs
Hint:
There are two types of reserves. Contingency reserves are used for known risks, whereas management reserves are
used for unknown risks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The key to interpreting and correctly answering this question is to notice that the question asks, "Which of the following
requires approval if it were to become a part of the cost baseline?" Initially, the cost baseline does not contain
management reserves. Management reserves are added to the cost baseline to produce the overall project budget.
However, the cost baseline does not necessarily remain static; it changes according to project conditions and approved
changes. If there is a situation that requires the use of management reserves, the change control process is used to
obtain approval to move the applicable part of management reserve into the cost baseline.
Incorrect. The cost baseline is a summation of all the estimated costs plus any contingency reserves added to
account for cost uncertainty. Contingency reserves are the budget within the cost baseline allocated for identified
risks. Therefore, they are already a part of the cost baseline and do not require approval to be added.
Correct. Management reserves are added to the cost baseline to produce the project budget. As changes requiring
the use of management reserves arise, the change control process is used to obtain approval to move the
necessary management reserve funds into the cost baseline.

Incorrect. Individual activity costs are added up into their associated work package costs. The work package costs,
along with any contingency reserves make up the cost baseline. Therefore, individual activity costs are already a
portion of the cost baseline and do not require approval to be added.
D Resource costs
Incorrect. Resource costs are included in the cost estimates document which is an output of the Estimate Costs
process. The cost baseline is the summation of the cost estimates and the contingency reserve. Therefore, the
resource costs are already included as part of the cost baseline without requiring approval to be added.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 254
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is leading a large and complex project which requires the coordination of several different vendors.
With the project at the conclusion, what should the project manager do to find the requirements for formal procurement
closure?
A Review the procurement requirements register
B Check the requirements traceability matrix
C Examine the organizational process assets
D Look at the procurement management plan
Hint:
Think about a source that provides information on how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the
performing organization.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The requirements for procurement closure are usually defined in the terms and conditions of the contract and are
included in the procurement management plan. The procurement management plan is a component of the project or
program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the
performing organization. Of the available choices, the procurement management plan is the only option that may contain
the requirements for procurement closure.
A Review the procurement requirements register

Incorrect. 'Procurement requirements register' is a fake term made up for this question.
B Check the requirements traceability matrix
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix Online
is a grid that -links
Courses PMPproduct requirements from their origin to the
Exam Simulator
deliverables that satisfy them. The requirements traceability matrix does not have information on closing
procurements.
C Examine the organizational process assets

Incorrect. The organizational process assets may have guidelines or requirements regarding project closure in
general, but not specific to a particular project. The requirements for procurement closure of a particular project are
typically defined in the terms and conditions of the contract.
D Look at the procurement management plan

Correct. The requirements for procurement closure are usually defined in the terms and conditions of the contract
and are included in the procurement management plan.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 125
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During a meeting, it is apparent that the director of marketing was inadvertently left off the communication of a scope
change to the product under development. After the issue is resolved, the project manager wants to document how the
issue could have been avoided to prevent a recurrence.
What should the project manager update?
A Lessons learned register
B RACI chart
C Assumption log
D Best practices log
Hint:
Which project document contains details on issues encountered by the project team and their resolution?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
One output of the Manage Communications process can be updates to the lessons learned register. The lessons learned
register is updated with information on challenges encountered and how they could have been avoided as well as
approaches that worked well and did not work well for managing communications. The lessons learned register should
be updated to capture knowledge gained during a project which can be used to improve future performance.

Correct. The lessons learned register is updated with information on challenges encountered and how they could
have been avoided as well as approaches that worked well and did not work well for managing communications.
B RACI chart
13/12/2018 Incorrect. A RACI chart is a type of responsibility assignment
Online matrix
Courses - PMP Examwhich defines the involvement of stakeholders
Simulator
in project activities. It is not updated with lessons learned from managing communications.
C Assumption log
Incorrect. An assumption log is used to capture all assumptions and constraints throughout a project life cycle. It is
not updated with lessons learned from managing communications.

Incorrect. ‘Best practices log’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 387
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Due to a tight deadline, the director of the design team for the project requests approval for an additional team member
to be granted access to restricted and confidential materials. The project manager denies the request citing a
confidentiality agreement with the customer. The director insists on escalating the issue to the executive management
team.
Where can the director find the escalation process?
A Communications management plan
B Requirements traceability matrix
C Enterprise environmental factors
D Executive appeals process document
Hint:
What document describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and
disseminated?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The project manager is conducting the project management process of Manage Communications. One input to this
process is the communications management plan. The communications management plan describes how
communications will be planned, structured, monitored, and controlled. This is the best place to find information on the
escalation path.

Correct. The communication plan describes how communications will be planned, structured, monitored, and
controlled. This is the document that contains the escalation process.
B
13/12/2018 Requirements traceability matrix Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them. It does not have information regarding the escalation process.

Incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are conditions that are not under the immediate control of the team,
that influence, constrain, or direct the project. This is not the best place to find information regarding the escalation
process.

Incorrect. ‘Executive appeals process document’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 377
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Following is a table containing information about the activity durations in days and predecessor activities on a project
schedule.
What is the critical path?
A Start-A-D-G-I-Finish
B Start-A-B-C-G-Finish
C Start-D-E-F-G-Finish
D Start-D-H-I-Finish

Hint:
Determine network paths using the critical path method and calculate their durations.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The critical path is the sequence of activities that represents the longest path on a project, which also represents the
shortest possible duration of a project. Given the details of each activity's predecessor in the activity list shown, you can
use the precedence diagramming method to create a project schedule network diagram as shown below. The durations
from the activity list table included in the question are mapped to each activity node.
With practice, you can save time by just listing the paths that exist for the activities on the project. Following are paths for
this scenario with the sum of their durations.
Now that you know each of the project schedule network paths and their respective lengths, determining the critical path
is easy since you simply select the longest path. In the scenario provided, the longest path is Start-D-E-F-G-Finish with a
length of 17 days, making it the critical path.
Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you incorrectly sequenced the tasks for the project schedule
network diagram. Start-A-D-G-I-Finish is not a valid path given the predecessors in the activity list shown.
Incorrect. You may have chosen this if you picked the first path to draw on the project schedule network diagram,
or if you chose the path with neither the longest nor the shortest duration. But that does not define the critical path.
Correct. This path is the longest in duration. Therefore, it represents the critical path, making this choice the best
answer to the question asked.
Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you picked the shortest path. But the critical path is the longest in
duration.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 210-211; see also PMI® Practice Standard for Scheduling – Second Edition
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
To complete the project you are leading, you will need to acquire services from several different vendors. You are
concerned that research alone may not provide enough information to develop a procurement strategy without additional
input from the potential bidders.
What tool or technique would be most helpful in this situation?
A Source selection analysis
B Meetings
C Bidder conferences
D Make-or-buy analysis
Hint:
Which tool or technique facilitates interaction between the buyer and potential bidders?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario implies you are carrying out the Plan Procurement Management process. Research alone may not provide
specific information to formulate a procurement strategy without additional information interchange meetings with
potential bidders. By collaborating with potential bidders, the organization purchasing the material or services may
benefit while the seller can influence a mutually beneficial approach or product. Meetings can be used to determine the
strategy for managing and monitoring the procurement. Of the available answer choices, meetings would be the most
helpful tool to gain input from potential sellers.

Incorrect. Source selection analysis provides the evaluation methods to be used to select a vendor. Source
selection criteria are communicated to the potential bidders as part of the bid documents. However, the question is
asking about gaining input ‘from’ potential bidders rather than providing information ‘to’ them.
B Meetings
Correct. Research alone may not provide specific information to formulate a procurement strategy without
additional information interchange meetings with potential bidders. Meetings can be used to determine the strategy
for managing and monitoring the procurement.
Incorrect. Bidder conferences are among the tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process, while the
scenario implies you are carrying out the Plan Procurement Management process
Incorrect. Make-or-buy analysis is the process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and
analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product. The
question states that vendors will be needed to provide services for the project. Therefore, it is apparent that the
make-or-buy decision has already been made.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 474
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have just been named project manager for a new company initiative. The project sponsor asks you to provide a few
ways that the work can be carried out based on your understanding of the key deliverable. Meanwhile, the project
sponsor is working on completing the project charter. In order to prepare your proposals, you would like to be aware of
project risks that may have already been identified.
Of the following choices, which would be the best document to reference?
B Statement of work
C Project business case
D Project charter
Hint:
While the project charter is being developed, what document is a project usually based on?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The project business case is a documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a
selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project
management activities. The project sponsor is generally accountable for the development and maintenance of the project
business case. While the project charter is being developed, known risks are usually identified and documented in the
business case. Therefore, of the choices provided, referencing the project business case would be the best answer.

Incorrect. The project scope statement describes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and
constraints. The project scope statement is created during project planning, not project initiation as described in
the scenario, making this choice an incorrect answer.
B
13/12/2018 Statement of work Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A statement of work (SOW) defines the project scope for a seller to determine if they can carry out the
prescribed work. There is not enough information in the question to determine if there is a seller on the project.
Therefore, SOW is not the best answer.

Correct. The project business case is an economic feasibility study demonstrating the benefits of a project concept
and is used as the basis for further project management activities. The business case can include additional
information, such as known risks, making the project business case the best answer.
D Project charter
Incorrect. The project charter formally authorizes a project and provides the project manager with the authority to
use company resources for project activities. According to the scenario, the project charter has not been
completed yet, therefore referencing the project charter will unlikely help you in learning about project risks to
prepare your proposals.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 30-31
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As part of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, your project team created a project status report which included
burndown charts, earned value graphs, and other information. The information contained in the report is of vital
importance to several stakeholders who rely on the information to take appropriate action.
What should be done next?
A Disseminate the report through the Monitor and Control Project Work process
B Distribute the report as part of the Monitor Communications process
C Carry out the Manage Communications process to communicate the report
D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan before communicating the report
Hint:
Dissemination of work performance reports occurs as part of the Executing Process Group.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Work performance reports are the output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process. These reports are then
circulated to the project stakeholders through the Manage Communications process as defined in the communications
management plan. Examples of work performance reports include status reports and progress reports. Work
performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project
documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness. Work performance reports can contain earned value
graphs and information, trend lines and forecasts, reserve burndown charts, defect histograms, contract performance
information, and risk summaries. Note that the better answer to the question asked could have been communicating the
report by following the communications management plan, but that option was not provided as an answer choice.
Therefore, of the available choices, the next step in this scenario is to carry out the Manage Communications process to
communicate the project status report which implies following the communications management plan.
A
13/12/2018 Disseminate the report through the Monitor and Control
Online Project
Courses - PMPWork
Examprocess
Simulator
Incorrect. A project status report is an example of a work performance report. Work performance reports are the
output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Even though the work performance reports are generated
as part of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, they are disseminated according to the communications
management plan as part of the processes under the Executing Process Group. Since project status reports are
not disseminated through the Monitor and Control Project Work process, this answer choice cannot be the next
step.

Incorrect. Monitor Communications is the process of ensuring that the information needs of the project and its
stakeholders are met. Work performance reports, such as progress status reports, are produced as part of the
Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. However, the actual communication of those reports is conducted as
part of project execution with the Manage Communications process of the Executing Process Group. This answer
choice cannot be the next step since the communication of reports is not part of the Monitor Communications
process.

Correct. Work performance reports are the output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, and a project
status report described in the scenario is an example of a work performance report. These reports are then
circulated to the project stakeholders through the Manage Communications process as defined in the
communications management plan. Therefore, the next step in this scenario is to carry out the Manage
Communications process by communicating the project status report according to the communications
management plan.
Incorrect. Changes to the communications management plan require an approved change request. However, there
is no information in the scenario which suggests the communications management plan needs to be updated. The
communications management plan should be followed and not updated in this scenario. The next step in this
scenario is for you, as the project manager, to communicate the project status report according to the guidelines
outlined in the communications management plan, and this action does not require a change request.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 382
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A vendor did not perform as contracted, so you are withholding payment as permitted by the contract. The vendor started
using foul language and is calling you names. Your team members are furious, and some of them have responded
similarly. Even though you are angry as well, you stay calm and handle the situation with respect.
Which of the following have you demonstrated by responding to the situation in this way?
A Conducted yourself in a professional manner
B Proved to be loyal to the vendor
C Protected team members from the fight
D Boosted team morale
Hint:
What does the PMI Code of Ethics consider ethical behavior?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct describes the expectations that we have of ourselves and our fellow
practitioners in the global project management community. It articulates the ideals to which we aspire as well as the
behaviors that are mandatory in our professional and volunteer roles. There are four values identified as most important
to the project management community; these are responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty. Respect involves
conducting ourselves in a professional manner, even when it is not reciprocated. Respect is the primary behavior that
was demonstrated in this scenario.
A Conducted yourself in a professional manner

Correct. You did not engage the vendor nor did you allow the situation to escalate. You behaved as a professional
making this the correct answer.
B
13/12/2018 Proved to be loyal to the vendor Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. To be loyal to someone, you show the person constant support. You showed the vendor respect and
professionalism in the face of a conflict which is not the same as loyalty.
C Protected team members from the fight

Incorrect. Perhaps if you had allowed the vendor's attitude to affect your responses, there could have been a fight
involved, but that is speculation. There is no indication in the scenario that you protected your team members from
a fight.
D Boosted team morale

Incorrect. The scenario does not indicate that team morale was boosted.
Reference:
PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, Respect
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project manager is managing the research and development of a new cancer screening test. The project manager
would like to determine whether the processes currently in use in the project are effective in meeting the quality
requirements needed to satisfy the customer.
What does the project manager need to obtain first to make this determination?
A Quality control measurements
B Test and evaluation documents
C Quality metrics
D Acceptance of interim deliverables from the customer
Hint:
Which answer will produce an input to the Manage Quality process?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario implies that the project manager wants to perform Manage Quality which is the process of translating the
quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization’s quality policies into the
project. Ensuring that the processes used in the project are effective in meeting the quality requirements needed to
satisfy the customer is one of the goals of the Manage Quality process. However, to do this, the Manage Quality process
uses the quality control measurements gathered during the Control Quality process. Therefore, to determine whether the
processes currently in use in the project are effective in meeting the quality requirements needed to satisfy the customer,
the project manager first should obtain the quality control measurements. Note that typically outputs from the executing
processes become inputs to the monitoring and controlling processes. However, in this case, quality control
measurements are an output from the Control Quality process, a monitoring and controlling process, and an input to the
Manage Quality, an executing process.
A Quality control measurements
Correct. Quality control measurements, an output from the Control Quality process and an input to the Manage
Quality process, are used to analyze and evaluate the quality of the processes and whether they are meeting the
standards of the customer.
B Test and evaluation documents

Incorrect. Test and evaluation documents are used to evaluate the achievement of the quality objective. These
documents are an output from the Manage Quality process and do not provide information that may help the
project manager determine whether the processes currently in use in the project are effective in meeting the quality
requirements needed to satisfy the customer.
C Quality metrics
Incorrect. A quality metric describes a project or product attribute and how it will be verified. Quality metrics do not
assess whether the processes used in the project are effective in meeting the quality requirements needed to
satisfy the customer. Additionally, quality metrics are developed during the Plan Quality Management process. In
the scenario, the project is in execution; therefore, quality metrics would already have been developed.
D Acceptance of interim deliverables from the customer

Incorrect. Gaining acceptance of deliverables, interim or otherwise, is the outcome of the Validate Scope process.
This scenario is focused on processes rather than deliverables making this choice an incorrect answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 291, 305, 289, 298
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is in the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule
constraints.
What would be the most likely outcome of this process?
A Schedule register
B Gantt chart
C Schedule model
D Activity list
Hint:
Which of the following is the most likely output of the Develop Schedule process?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints is known as the Develop
Schedule process. The outcome of this process is the schedule model for project execution and monitoring and
controlling. Project scheduling provides a detailed plan that represents how and when the project will deliver the
products. The project schedule is an output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates,
durations, milestones, and resources. The schedule model is created when a scheduling method is selected, such as
critical path, and project-specific data, such as outputs from the Project Schedule Management processes are entered
into a scheduling tool, such as a project management information system. The schedule model includes all the data that
will be used to calculate the schedule, such as activities, duration estimates, dependencies, and leads and lags. The
project schedule is the output of the schedule model, and it consolidates all the schedule data.
A Schedule register
Incorrect. A 'schedule register' is a made-up term.
B
13/12/2018 Gantt chart Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A Gantt chart, a type of bar chart, is one of the formats that can be used to present a project schedule.
The project schedule is an output of the schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates,
durations, milestones, and resources. In the scenario described, the schedule model is just being created;
therefore, creating a Gantt chart would be premature since the schedule model precedes any type of project
schedule.
C Schedule model
Correct. Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints is the definition
of the Develop Schedule process. The outcome of this process is the schedule model for project execution and
monitoring and controlling.
D Activity list
Incorrect. An activity list is a project document that includes the schedule activities required on the project. The
activity list is an output of the Define Activities process that precedes the Develop Schedule process implied by the
scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 205, 175-176
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project manager is conducting a meeting to gain approval for the project management plan. The project sponsor
notices that a component that was always included in the project management plans of previous projects is missing from
the current plan and requests that the project manager add the component to the plan.
How should the project manager respond?
A Ignore the sponsor's request since the project management plan is the responsibility of the project manager
B Explain that the needs of the project determine which components of the project management plan are
included
C Update the plan as requested by the project sponsor since the plan's components are determined by the
sponsor
D Ask the meeting participants to vote for those components of the project management plan they think should
be included
Hint:
What determines which components of the project management plan are included in the plan?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The needs of the project determine which components of the project management plan are needed. Some projects may
not require all of the possible components of the project management plan, and their inclusion would be superfluous. In
these cases, the project manager should determine the needs of the project and build a project management plan with
the appropriate level of detail. Creating an overly elaborate project management plan is not an effective use of project
resources.
A Ignore the sponsor's request since the project management plan is the responsibility of the project manager
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Ignoring the sponsor's request is unlikely
Onlineto be the- PMP
Courses bestExam
course of action for the project manager. The
Simulator
project manager should explain to the sponsor that the contents of the project management plan may vary from
project to project and are determined according to the needs of the project.
B Explain that the needs of the project determine which components of the project management plan are
included
Correct. The needs of the project determine which components of the project management plan are needed. The
project manager should determine the needs of the project and build a project management plan with the
appropriate level of detail.
C Update the plan as requested by the project sponsor since the plan's components are determined by the
sponsor
Incorrect. The project sponsor may offer valuable feedback on the content of the project management plan which
should be taken into account. However, the needs of the project determine which components of the project
management plan are included. Creating an overly elaborate project management plan is not an effective use of
project resources. The project manager should explain to the sponsor why certain components have been
excluded from the plan.
D Ask the meeting participants to vote for those components of the project management plan they think should be
included
Incorrect. While voting is an appropriate technique to be used in meetings, the decision on what components
should be included in the project management plan is made based on the project needs rather than on voting.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 86, 83
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A first-time project manager is struggling with the implementation of the schedule management plan for a project to
create a new smartphone application. The product is being developed incrementally, and the project manager decided to
use an adaptive approach for this project.
What would be the best advice to provide to the first-time project manager?
A Since the product will be developed incrementally, an adaptive approach will not be appropriate for this
project
B Maximize work in progress by using a Kanban board
C Use pull-based scheduling by incorporating a Kanban board
D Focus on developing a highly detailed schedule of activities
Hint:
Adaptive approaches use short cycles to undertake work, review the results, and adapt as necessary.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Adaptive approaches use short cycles to undertake work, review the results, and adapt as necessary. These cycles
provide rapid feedback on the approaches and suitability of deliverables, and typically manifest as iterative schedule and
on-demand, pull-based scheduling. This approach, typically used in a Kanban system, is based on the theory-of-
constraints and pull-based scheduling concepts to limit a team's work in progress in order to balance demand against the
team's delivery throughput. A Kanban board provides a visual representation of the workflow. Rather than using a
previously developed schedule, activities to develop the product are captured on cards which are pulled through the
stages of the workflow represented by columns on the Kanban board. Therefore, of the available options, the best advice
to provide to the first-time project manager is to use pull-based scheduling by incorporating a Kanban board.
A Since the product will be developed incrementally, an adaptive approach will not be appropriate for this project
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Adaptive approaches use short cycles to undertake
Online work,
Courses - PMP review
Exam the results, and adapt as necessary. In
Simulator
this manner, the product is developed incrementally which is the opposite of what is described by this answer
choice, making it an incorrect answer.
B Maximize work in progress by using a Kanban board

Incorrect. A Kanban system is based on the theory-of-constraints and seeks to limit, not maximize, work in
progress in order to balance demand against the team's delivery throughput.
C Use pull-based scheduling by incorporating a Kanban board

Correct. A Kanban board provides a visual representation of the workflow. Rather than using a previously
developed schedule, activities to develop the product are captured on cards which are pulled through the stages of
the workflow represented by columns on the Kanban board.
D Focus on developing a highly detailed schedule of activities

Incorrect. An adaptive approach, as it applies to project scheduling, does not rely on a schedule that was
developed previously for the development of the product, but rather pulls work from a backlog as resources
become available.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 177-178
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
After reviewing the drawings submitted by the engineer on the project you are managing, you believe that the request
constitutes a minor change to the project scope, schedule, and budget, and should be approved without going to the
change control board.
A Approve the change request. As the project manager, you should use expert judgment to decide what is best
for the project.
B Meet with the change control board members individually and try to persuade them to approve the change
request.
C Review the change management plan and follow the established process for processing change requests.
D Submit the change request to the change control board and abide by their decision.
Hint:
Every project change requires that a formal change control procedure be followed.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Change requests should be processed according to the change management plan, which defines the process for
managing changes to the project, including the process for submitting, evaluating and implementing change requests.
Since one of the answer choices is for the project manager to abide by whatever is in the change management plan, you
can eliminate the other answer choices since those options may contradict the change management plan. For example,
in this scenario, if the change management plan grants authority to the project manager to authorize certain types of
change requests, then it would be unnecessary for the project manager to go through the change control board for
approval. However, to make this determination, the change management plan should be consulted. In order to answer
this question correctly, one needs to understand that project managers should handle change requests in accordance
with the change management plan.

A
13/12/2018 Approve the change request. As the project manager, you should
Online Courses use expert
- PMP Exam judgment to decide what is best
Simulator
for the project.
Incorrect. Change requests should be processed according to the change management plan. Depending on the
change management plan, you, as project manager, may or may not have the authority to make the final decision
on change requests, regardless of your expertise.
B Meet with the change control board members individually and try to persuade them to approve the change
request.
Incorrect. You should follow the process outlined in the change management plan. Assuming that you are not a
member of the change control board (CCB) in this scenario, it may be inappropriate for you to circumvent the
change control meetings process to try and influence their decision. The CCB should make the ultimate decision
as to what, if any, changes are to be made to the project based on their expert judgment and the information
presented in the actual change request.
C Review the change management plan and follow the established process for processing change requests.
Correct. Change requests should be processed according to the change management plan. Since the correct
procedure defined by the change management plan is unknown in this scenario, the other answer choices should
be eliminated, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
D Submit the change request to the change control board and abide by their decision.
Incorrect. You should follow the process outlined in the change management plan. However, since that process
was not given in the question, it is possible that the change management plan allows you, as project manager,
under certain conditions, to make the final decision. Since it cannot be assumed that every change request must
go through the change control board, this choice is not the best answer of those provided.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 120
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A new program manager takes over a program and wants to review the original start dates as well as anticipated end
dates for all projects in the program.
What document should the program manager request from each project?
D Project charter
Hint:
What document includes summary milestones?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A project charter is the main output of the Develop Project Charter process. This process is carried out during project
initiation where the information available about the project is typically scarce. The information is refined during project
planning resulting in changes to some of the originally planned aspects such as the project start and finish dates.
Therefore, the approved project charter is the only document from the options provided that would have the original start
date as well as the anticipated end date, typically in the form of summary milestones for the project, making project
charter the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. The project scope statement includes the description of the project scope, major deliverables,
assumptions, and constraints. The project scope statement does not typically contain project dates.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Activity attributes extend the description ofCourses
Online the activity
- PMPby identifying
Exam Simulatormultiple components associated
with each activity. Neither the original start date nor the anticipated end date of a project is part of activity
attributes.

Incorrect. The schedule management plan establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and
controlling the schedule. The schedule management plan does not contain specific dates.
D Project charter
Correct. The project charter formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with
the authority to use company resources. The project charter also documents high-level information, such as
summary milestones, which would give the 'original' start and anticipated end dates.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You and your project team have just completed the project management plan for your agile project. You have asked a
team member to schedule a meeting to present the finalized project management plan. The team member has asked
who should be invited to the meeting.
How should you respond?
Hint:
The answer can be found in the planning domain of the Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content
Outline.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar. Task #11 of the planning domain states, "Present the project
management plan to the relevant stakeholders according to applicable policies and procedures in order to obtain
approval to proceed with project execution." The applicable policies and procedures should be included as part of the
organizational process assets. These documents should indicate, among other information, who should be invited to the
meeting to review and approve the project management plan. Therefore, of the available choices, researching the
organization process assets is the best response.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Regardless of the nature of the project, agile
Online or waterfall,
Courses theSimulator
- PMP Exam meeting attendees to review and approve
the project management plan are typically specified in the policies and procedures included in the organizational
process assets. Customers may or may not be specified among those who should be invited.

Correct. Task #11 of the planning domain of the Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content
Outline states, "Present the project management plan to the relevant stakeholders according to applicable policies
and procedures in order to obtain approval to proceed with project execution." Therefore, the project manager
should tell the team member to check the organizational process assets for policies and procedures that provide
relevant guidance on whom should be invited to the meeting to review and approve the project management plan.

Incorrect. While the project sponsor and the project team are important meeting attendees to review and approve
the project management plan, other relevant project stakeholders should attend this meeting. Pay attention,
choices that contain absolute statements such as ‘always’, ‘never’, ‘only’, etc., typically represent incorrect
answers.
Incorrect. The project management plan is not confidential to the extent that it should only be shared with the
project team. The project management plan should be shared with all relevant stakeholders in order for it to be
properly reviewed and approved.
Reference:
Management Institute Inc., June 2015, Domain 2, Task 11
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager has submitted a change request which was reviewed and approved by the change control board
(CCB). However, the committee chairperson overrules the decision and denies the change request on the basis of its
budget and schedule impacts.
How can the project manager verify if the chairperson has this authority?
Hint:
What document defines activities and roles to manage and control changes on a project?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project manager needs to verify whether or not the chairperson had the authority to overrule the CCB's decision on
the change request. The responsibility assignment matrix, work breakdown structure, and project team assignments
contain information about project roles and responsibilities, but not specifically about the change control process. For that
information, the project manager should consult the change management plan, which is specifically designed to provide
direction for managing the change control process and documenting the roles and responsibilities of the CCB. The
change management plan would specify the number of people needed to pass a vote, who has the authority to break ties
when voting on change requests, and who may have the ability to overrule the committee. Therefore, the change
management plan would be the best document to reference for verification of the chairperson's scope of authority.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Project team assignments is a project document
Online Coursesthat provides
- PMP information on the type of competencies
Exam Simulator
and experience available in the project and the knowledge that may be missing. The project manager needs a
document that will clarify the roles and responsibilities of the CCB. However, the project team assignments
document does not provide this information.

Incorrect. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a grid that shows the project resources assigned to each
work package. Since the CCB is responsible for managing the change control process rather than executing work
packages, the RAM is not designed to detail roles and responsibilities, as well as the rules and procedures, for the
change control process.

Incorrect. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is designed to show how project deliverables are broken down into
work packages and provide a way of showing high-level areas of responsibility. The WBS does not describe the
project’s change control process or the roles and responsibilities of CCB members.

documents the roles and responsibilities of the CCB. Because the change management plan defines each
committee member’s role and level of authority within the group, and committee rules and procedures for decision-
making, it would also specify the number of people needed to pass a vote, who has the authority to break ties
when voting on change requests, and who may have the ability to overrule the committee in certain cases. For this
reason, the change management plan would be the best document for the project manager to reference for
clarification on the roles and responsibilities of CCB members and to verify if the chairperson has the authority to
make the decision described in the scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 116, 120
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
At a project closing meeting, the project manager declares the project closed because all the requirements have been
met and signed off by the customer. The customer representative raises a concern that one of the design components
that was supposed to be included in the scope was not delivered.
Which of the following should the project manager consult in order to verify the client representative's claim?
A Project charter
D Scope baseline
Hint:
Read the question carefully because it states that the client believes that one of the design components that was
'supposed' to be included in the scope was not delivered. Which of the answer choices would contain this information?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Many prospective PMP aspirants incorrectly answer this question selecting either requirements documentation or the
requirements traceability matrix as a correct answer. This mistake is common, and this explanation will attempt to clarify.
First of all, requirements and scope are not the same. A requirement is a condition or capability that is necessary to be
present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a business need. The scope is the sum of the products, services, and
results to be provided as a project. The question suggests that the Close Project or Phase process is being performed.
At least three answer choices, the project charter, requirements documentation, and the scope baseline are among the
inputs to this process. However, only the scope baseline (a component of the project management plan) which is
comprised of the approved scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary, can be used as a basis for comparison
between the scope that was planned to be delivered by the project and the scope that was actually delivered. In the
scenario described, the client representative is not saying that the requirements have not been met. Instead, the
representative is saying that a deliverable, one of the design components that was supposed to be included in the scope,
was not delivered. Therefore, of the choices provided, to verify the client representative's claim and understand if the
design component was indeed planned to be delivered, the project manager should review the scope baseline.
A Project charter
Incorrect. The purpose of the project charter is to authorize the existence of the project and provide the project
manager with the authority to start to utilize resources toward project activities. The project charter does not
contain the detailed scope to verify the client representative's claim.
Incorrect. Requirements documentation describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the
project. It does not contain the fully documented scope of the project but does contain product or service
specifications and the requirements collected as a part of project scope management. If the client representative
were claiming that a requirement of the system had not been met, then the requirements documentation would be
the best choice.

Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix links product or service requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them. However, it may not contain the fully documented scope of the project.
D Scope baseline
Correct. The scope baseline is the approved version of the project scope statement, work breakdown structure
(WBS), and it’s associated WBS dictionary. The scope baseline is used as a basis for comparison while performing
Validate Scope and Control Scope processes. Therefore, to verify the client representative's claim, the project
manager should consult the scope baseline.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123, 124, 147, 148
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is 20 weeks into a project that was planned to be completed in one year. From a schedule
perspective, half of the work has already been completed.
What are the earned schedule and schedule variance for the project?
Hint:
Schedule variance (SV) = earned schedule (ES) - actual time (AT)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Earned schedule (ES) is an extension of the theory and practice of earned value management (EVM) which is one of the
trends and emerging practices in project cost management. Earned schedule theory replaces the schedule variance
measures used in traditional EVM (where the schedule variance (SV) was calculated as earned value (EV) minus
planned value (PV)) with earned schedule (ES) and actual time (AT). The alternate equation for calculating schedule
variance is:
SV = ES - AT
In this scenario, the project was scheduled for one year. While the scenario does not specify the number of weeks in a
year, based on the answer choices provided and general project management practices, it can be reasonably assumed
that one year consists of 52 weeks. Therefore, half of the scheduled work that has been completed represents the
earned schedule (ES) of 26 weeks. The actual time (AT) is stated as 20 weeks. The schedule variance (SV) is the
earned schedule (ES) minus actual time (AT):
SV = 26 weeks - 20 weeks = 6 weeks
Therefore,
13/12/2018 in this case, the ES is 26 weeks, and the SV is Courses
Online 6 weeks. Even
- PMP though
Exam the question does not require to
Simulator
interpret these values, positive schedule variance of 6 weeks means that the project is ahead of schedule by 6 weeks.

Correct. The project was scheduled for one year (52 weeks), and half of the scheduled work has been completed
which represents the earned schedule (ES) of 26 weeks. The schedule variance is the earned schedule (ES)
minus actual time (AT) or SV = 26 - 20 = 6 weeks.

Incorrect. 20 weeks represents the actual time (AT) and not the earned schedule (ES).

Incorrect. 52 weeks represents the one year that the project was scheduled to take. 20 weeks is the actual time
(AT) and not the schedule variance (SV). The correct formula to calculate the schedule variance (SV) is earned
schedule (ES) minus actual time (AT).

Incorrect. The project was scheduled for one year (52 weeks), and half of the scheduled work has been completed
which means which represents the earned schedule (ES) of 26 weeks. However, 20 weeks represents the actual
time (AT) rather than the schedule variance (SV).
Reference:
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
In order to take advantage of the best talent available, a project manager recruits developers internationally rather than
just locally. She is delighted to have acquired such highly skilled individuals but now needs to develop them into a
cohesive team. Ideally, the project manager would like to bring everyone together at the home office, but the project
budget does not allow for travel expenses.
What is the best tool or technique for the project manager to use in this situation?
A Sensitivity analysis
B Recognition and rewards
C Virtual teams
D Colocation
Hint:
What is the best way to create a team atmosphere without bringing everyone together in the same physical space?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question suggests that the Develop Team process is being performed, and virtual teams is a tool that may be used
during this process. A virtual team can use technology to create an online team environment to build team cohesion. In
this way, the project manager can take advantage of a broader pool of candidates without paying travel expenses. The
use of a virtual team is the best tool that the project manager can use under the circumstances provided in the question.
A Sensitivity analysis
Incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is an analysis technique to determine which individual project risks have the most
potential impact on project outcomes. The question is asking about building team cohesion and not project risks.
B Recognition and rewards

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Recognition and rewards can be helpful inCourses
Online team development by recognizing and rewarding desirable
behavior. However, recognition and rewards are not the best tools for building team cohesion.
C Virtual teams
Correct. A virtual team can use technology to create an online team environment to build team cohesion. In this
way, the project manager can take advantage of a broader pool of candidates without paying travel expenses.
D Colocation
Incorrect. Colocation involves placing the project team members in the same physical location to enhance their
ability to perform as a team. Although this may be the best way to build team cohesion, the question states that
budget constraints prohibit this option.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 340
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The company has been working on a needs assessment and economic feasibility study for several months regarding the
need to improve their web user interface. A business case has finally been approved. The project manager and the
sponsor worked together to develop the project charter, and the sponsor has approved the charter.
A Determine how to plan for each Knowledge Area
Hint:
Which choice is an output from a process in the Initiating Process Group?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In the scenario, the project manager has an approved project charter which means the project has been formally
authorized. The project charter is an output from the Develop Project Charter process in the Initiating Process Group.
Since the project manager has completed the Develop Project Charter process, she should move on to the next process
in the Initiating Process Group, Identify Stakeholders. An output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder
register. It is true that a list of key stakeholders is part of the project charter; however, the Identify Stakeholders process
results in a much more complete list of project stakeholders as well as relevant information such as stakeholders’
interests, involvement, influence, and potential impact on the project. This information is documented in the stakeholder
register and is then used to generate the stakeholder engagement plan, a component of the project management plan,
which develops approaches to involve stakeholders. Therefore, of the choices given, developing the stakeholder register
is the next step the project manager should take.
A
13/12/2018 Determine how to plan for each Knowledge Area
Incorrect. Determining how to plan for each Knowledge Area means developing the project management plan
which happens in project planning. The project manager should complete the processes in the Initiating Process
Group before moving into the Planning Process Group.

Correct. The project manager has completed the Develop Project Charter process which belongs to the Initiating
Process Group. The next process in that group is the Identify Stakeholders process where the stakeholder register
is developed. Since the stakeholder register is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process, developing the
stakeholder register is the next thing the project manager should do.

Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to determine if the project should be divided into phases.
Regardless, a decision on whether the project is divided into phases is documented in the project charter.
Therefore, since the approved project charter already exists, this decision would have already been made.

Incorrect. The project charter contains measurable project objectives and their related success criteria. Since the
project manager has an approved project charter, the creation of measurable objectives would have been
completed.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81, 507, 514
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are working in a matrix environment, and your project team has recently been reduced by three team members. As a
result, you will need more time from a team member who only spends 50% of their time on your project.
Which of the following will have the most significant impact on your ability to acquire more of this employee's time?
A Decision making
B Issue log
C Training
D Influencing
Hint:
What skill does the project manager need in order to persuade others to see the project manager's point of view?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Depending on the type of organizational structure, the authority of project managers over project resources may vary
from little or none to high or almost total. When project managers have little or no direct authority over team members,
which is typical in the matrix organization described in the scenario, their ability to influence stakeholders on a timely
basis is critical to project success. Influencing skills include the ability to be persuasive, clearly articulate points, and
gather relevant information to address issues while maintaining mutual trust. In this scenario, you have lost three key
team members and need to utilize the resources that are still available. Influencing the employee's manager will have the
most significant impact on your ability to acquire more of this employee's time for your project.
A Decision making
Incorrect. Decision making will be used in this scenario, but it is not the best way to acquire more of the employee's
time. Since the employee is only partially allocated to your project, you will need to negotiate for additional time,
most likely with the employee's manager, by using your interpersonal skill of influence.
B
13/12/2018 Issue log Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The issue log is an internal document where issues that have arisen on the project are recorded. The
issue log could be used to document the problem described in the scenario, but it would not assist with acquiring
more of the employee's time on the project.
C Training
Incorrect. Training includes all activities that are used to enhance the competencies of the project team members.
In this scenario, there is nothing to indicate the employee lacks adequate training; therefore, this choice is
incorrect.
D Influencing
Correct. In a matrix environment, project managers often have little or no direct authority over team members.
Their ability to influence stakeholders on a timely basis is critical to project success. Influencing skills include the
ability to be persuasive, clearly articulate points, and gather relevant information to address issues all of which
would go the furthest in gaining more of the employee's time on your project. Typically, to acquire more of the
employee's time for the project, a project manager will have to work with the employee's manager trying to
influence them in favor of the project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 350
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project management plan specifies that the work for some of the project deliverables is contracted to vendors. The
stakeholder register lists the customer, the sponsor, the project team, additional internal stakeholders from the
performing organization, and the public who will use deliverables after the project is completed.
What is wrong with the stakeholder register?
A Nothing is wrong. The stakeholder register lists all the project stakeholders.
B The public is a very large group and therefore should not be listed as a stakeholder.
C The vendors are not included in the stakeholder register.
D Entities external to the project, such as a sponsor, should not be among the stakeholders.
Hint:
Some of the project deliverables are contracted to vendors.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Agreements are inputs into the Identify Stakeholders process. To properly perform the Identify Stakeholders process, a
project manager should review any agreements that exist. If a project is the result of a procurement activity or is based
on an established contract, the parties in that contract are key project stakeholders. The question describes a scenario
where some of the project deliverables are contracted to vendors. Therefore, contracts with those vendors for some
deliverables exist. Vendors are parties in the contract and therefore should be included in the stakeholder register.
A Nothing is wrong. The stakeholder register lists all the project stakeholders.
Incorrect. The vendors are not included in the stakeholder register, and therefore the stakeholder register is not
complete.
B The public is a very large group and therefore should not be listed as a stakeholder.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Regardless of its size, the public is aOnline
groupCourses
of people who
- PMP may
Exam be positively or negatively affected by the
Simulator
execution of or completion of the project. While there is no need to name every member of the group in the
register, the group itself should be listed among the project stakeholders.
C The vendors are not included in the stakeholder register.

Correct. Parties in the contracts are project stakeholders. Vendors are parties in the contract and therefore should
be included in the stakeholder register.
D Entities external to the project, such as a sponsor, should not be among the stakeholders.
Incorrect. The project sponsor whether external or internal to the project is one of the key project stakeholders and
therefore should be included in the stakeholder register.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 510
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project is supposed to roll out a new service to thousands of existing users. The project team wants to consider and
prepare for various possibilities and situations that may occur during rollout.
What technique can the project manager facilitate to help the team with their preparations?
B Critical path method
Hint:
How might the project team guess at what might happen?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
When developing the project schedule and faced with many potential scenarios, a what-if analysis enables the project
team to explore 'what' might happen 'if' something were to happen. Ideally, the team wants to consider many scenarios to
gather more data and improve considerations of many outcomes and perspectives. Questioning and considering
potential scenarios gets the project team to think more deeply about possibilities and question their assumptions. In this
scenario, the team is wrestling with the reaction to their rollout. Asking, "What if the situation represented by scenario X
happens?" is going to better empower the team to plan and prepare for various situations.

Correct. The what-if scenario analysis is an example of a data analysis technique that can be used as part of the
Develop Schedule process or Control Schedule process to evaluate various potential combinations and variables
to predict possible outcomes. Analyzing data based on hypothetical situations may provide some useful insights.
B
13/12/2018 Critical path method Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The critical path method is used to determine the longest path of activities on a schedule network path.
According to the scenario, the team knows the work; they don't know various possibilities and situations that may
occur during rollout. The critical path method cannot help answer the team's questions.

Incorrect. Fast tracking is a scheduling technique used to compress the schedule while retaining the same scope.
There is not enough information in the question to determine if schedule compression is required. Regardless, fast
tracking is not designed to prepare the team for various possibilities and situations that may occur during rollout.
Incorrect. Statistical sampling is an example of a data gathering technique that can be used during the Control
Quality process to inspect part of a population of interest. The Control Quality process is part of the Monitoring and
Controlling Process Group, while according to the scenario, the team is involved in planning.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 213
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During project execution, the team discovers that one of the product functions cannot be accessed from the remote
control as specified by the product requirements. A change request is submitted and approved to include new buttons on
the remote control.
Which of the following best describes this change request?
A Corrective action
B Preventive action
C Defect repair
D Gold plating
Hint:
An intentional activity to modify a non-conforming product or product component.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Approved change requests can be a corrective action, a preventive action, or a defect repair. The question reads, "one of
the functions cannot be accessed properly from the remote control as specified by the product requirements". This
scenario is an example of a defect repair since it involves taking immediate action to correct a defective product
component that does not meet product specifications. The performing organization is neither taking preventive action nor
addressing a deviation (corrective action) from the agreed-upon project baselines. Gold plating does not apply here since
the organization is adding extra buttons to the remote control unit not as a means of enhancing the product or making the
customer happy, but as a means of meeting product specifications.
A Corrective action
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Corrective actions are taken when a Online
project has deviated
Courses from
- PMP Exam the planned scope, schedule, cost, or
Simulator
quality requirements. The goal is to bring the project’s performance back into alignment with the project baselines.
Corrective actions can be thought of as steps taken to remove the causes of an existing, undesirable situation.
This scenario, however, does not involve any deviation from the planned scope, schedule, cost, or quality
requirements. The change request corresponds to a defect repair since the action being taken is to modify a
nonconforming product or product component (in this case, the remote control).
B Preventive action
Incorrect. As the name implies, preventive actions represent proactive steps taken to remove the causes of
potential undesirable situations and ensure that the future performance of the project work is aligned with the
project management plan. In this scenario, the undesirable situation (a non-conforming product component) has
already occurred and must be fixed, making this an example of defect repair.
C Defect repair
Correct. Defect repair is an intentional activity to modify a non-conforming product or product component. Defect
repairs are implemented when a product or deliverable does not meet the documented specification. Since the
company must modify the remote control unit (by either fixing the existing buttons, adding new ones, or applying
any other changes) to ensure the functionality works properly, this is an example of a defect repair.
D Gold plating
Incorrect. Gold plating refers to intentionally adding extra features or functions to a product beyond what is covered
by the requirements or product scope. In the context of project management, gold plating is something to be
generally avoided because it often leads to extra work not estimated or planned for that can adversely affect both
the budget and timeline for the project. In this scenario, the company may be adding extra buttons to the remote
control unit, but not as a means of further enhancing the product. The company has determined that the
functionality of the product does not work or meet product requirements unless they modify the remote control unit.
Since the company is fixing a defective product component to meet product requirements, this would be an
example of defect repair.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96, 93
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
On a project, two change requests were recently submitted for review and approval. One change request was submitted
to repair a defective system. The other change request was submitted to modify the terms and conditions of a contract
with one of the suppliers. Both of the change requests have been reviewed and approved by the change control board
(CCB).
Which of the following processes is least likely to be performed as a result of the approved change requests?
A Direct and Manage Project Work
B Control Quality
Hint:
A change request is complete once it has been reviewed and approved. Note also that the question is asking to select
the 'least' likely process to be performed in this situation.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Approved change requests are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Once the change request
has been approved, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is complete, and there is nothing more that needs to
be done in this process pertaining to the approved change request. The approved change requests are then
implemented through the Direct and Manage Project Work process. In the case of a defect repair, once the repair has
been completed, the Control Quality process is performed to verify the repair has been correctly done. In case of the
modifications to the terms and conditions of the contract, the change request is implemented as part of the Control
Procurements process. Therefore, of the available choices, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is the least
likely to be conducted at this point in the scenario.
A
13/12/2018 Direct and Manage Project Work Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. An approved change request may serve as an input into the Direct and Manage Project Work process
and implemented by the project team as part of this process. Approved change requests may be a corrective
action, a preventive action, or a defect repair. Thus, the approved change request for defect repair should be
implemented through the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Therefore, the Direct and Manage Project
Work process will be performed in this situation, making this choice an incorrect answer.
B Control Quality
Incorrect. The approved change request for defect repair will serve as an input into the Control Quality process.
After the defect repair has been completed, the Control Quality process should be performed to confirm
completeness, retest, and certify the repair. Therefore, the Control Quality process should be performed in this
case.

Correct. Approved change requests are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Once the
change request has been approved, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is complete, and there is
nothing more that needs to be done in this process pertaining to the approved change request. Since the question
is asking to select the process that is least likely to be performed in this situation, this choice is the best answer to
the question asked.
Incorrect. Approved change requests, which may serve as an input to the Control Procurements process, can
include modifications to the terms and conditions of a contract. The approved change request to modify the
agreement is then implemented through the Control Procurements process. Therefore, the Control Procurements
process should be conducted in this scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 113, 496, 92-93, 301
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are preparing the plan for the acquisition of the team, which will manufacture product prototypes. Given the highly
regulated nature of the work, you will need assistance in ensuring compliance with all the various government and union
regulations.
What tool or technique is most useful in this situation?
A Expert judgment
B Project management information systems (PMIS)
C Variance analysis
D Analogous estimating
Hint:
What tool or technique is exemplified by specialized knowledge?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question suggests that the Plan Resource Management process is underway, and expert judgment is one of the
tools and techniques that can be useful in this process. Expert judgment is judgment provided based upon expertise in
an applicable area of the activity being performed. Expertise should be considered from individuals or groups with
specialized knowledge or training in complying with the applicable government and union regulations. Of the available
answer choices, expert judgment is the most useful in the scenario described by the question.
A Expert judgment
Correct. Expert judgment is judgment provided based upon expertise in an applicable area of the activity being
performed. Expertise should be considered from individuals or groups with specialized knowledge or training in
complying with applicable government and union regulations.
B
13/12/2018 Project management information systems (PMIS)
Incorrect. The project management information system (PMIS) is an information system consisting of the tools and
techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. While the
PMIS is a useful tool for managing a project, it is not the best resource for insights into government and union
regulations.
C Variance analysis
baseline and actual performance. Variance analysis is unlikely to assist in ensuring compliance with all the various
government and union regulations.
D Analogous estimating
Incorrect. Analogous estimating is a technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using
historical data from a similar activity or project. The question is asking about government and union regulations
rather than cost estimates.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 315
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have begun evaluating sellers' progress in producing project deliverables to see if there have been any reported
issues with quality or availability as well as how the schedule and cost are comparing to the agreement with the vendor.
The activities you are performing can best be described by which of the following?
A Plan Procurement Management
B Conduct Procurements
C Performance measurements
D Performance reviews
Hint:
This set of activities is performed during Control Procurements.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The activities described in the scenario are part of a performance review, a data analysis technique used in the Control
Procurement process. Such reviews determine and document the vendor's progress in delivering the contracted
products within cost, on schedule, and of the quality required as compared to the contract.
A Plan Procurement Management

Incorrect. Plan Procurement Management is the process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying
the approach, and identifying potential sellers. In this scenario, you have already begun procuring the hardware
and software indicating the Plan Procurement Management process has been completed.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Conduct Procurements is the process of receiving
Online Courses - and
PMP evaluating seller proposals, selecting a seller, and
Exam Simulator
awarding a contract. The scenario describes you evaluating different aspects of the purchase of the hardware and
software thereby indicating you have already completed the Conduct Procurements process.
C Performance measurements
Incorrect. Performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of variation from a baseline. While
performance measurements can help you evaluate the schedule and cost variances, in the scenario described,
you are also evaluating the vendor's ability to supply their product, and how it compares to the contract that you
have with the vendor. In other words, you are doing more than just calculating performance measurements.
Another answer choice, performance reviews, more accurately describe the activities in the scenario.
D Performance reviews
Correct. A performance review is an evaluation of the seller's progress in delivering the contracted products within
cost, on schedule, and of the quality required as compared to the contract. In this scenario, the activities you are
performing are that of a performance review.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project manager has just received authorization to proceed with a new project and starts to create the stakeholder
register. A human resources department manager, who was identified as a key stakeholder, is about to leave for vacation
and asks the project manager what her role and responsibilities will be for the upcoming project.
What document should the project manager provide to her?
Hint:
What document contains high-level information on roles and responsibilities?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the project manager has received authorization to proceed with the project, it can be inferred that he has the
approved project charter. The question also states that the project manager has just started to create the stakeholder
register implying the stakeholder register, which would clarify a stakeholder's role and responsibility on the project, is not
yet ready to be provided to the stakeholder. Given this information, the approved project charter would be the only
document available at this point in the project that has information on the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders
and would be the document the project manager should provide to the stakeholder.

Incorrect. Project team assignments is a project document that includes team member competencies and
experience, roles and responsibilities for the project and activity assignments. However, project team assignments
is an output of the Acquire Resources process, which is part of the Executing Process Group. The scenario
13/12/2018 describes a project in initiation, making this choice
Onlinean incorrect
Courses answer.

Correct. The approved project charter formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project
manager with the authority to use company resources. The approved project charter also includes high-level
information, such as the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders, and is the only document at this point in the
project life cycle that the project manager could provide the stakeholder.
Incorrect. Resource requirements is a project document that identifies the types and quantities of resources
required for each work package or activity in a work package. Resource requirements is an output of the Estimate
Activity Resources process in the Planning Process Group. In this scenario, project planning has not yet started,
so resource requirements documentation would not be available to provide to the stakeholder.
Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project document that includes identification, assessment, and classification
of project stakeholders. Roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders on the project are among the details
included in the stakeholder register. However, the question states that the project manager has just started to
create the stakeholder register. Therefore, it is possible but unlikely that the stakeholder register will already be
available for the stakeholder, making this answer choice not the best answer to the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Which of the following is not part of the scope management plan?
A A process for how requirements will be prioritized
B A process for preparing the project scope statement
C A process that enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement
D A process that specifies how formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained
Hint:
One of the options should be included in the requirements management plan.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The scope management plan is a component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope
will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated. A requirements prioritization process is part of the
requirements management plan and not the scope management plan. The incorrect answer choices represent elements
that are typically included in the scope management plan.
A A process for how requirements will be prioritized

Correct. A requirements prioritization process is part of the requirements management plan and not the scope
management plan.
B A process for preparing the project scope statement

Incorrect. A process for preparing the project scope statement is a component of the scope management plan.
Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
C A process that enables the creation of the WBS from the detailed project scope statement
13/12/2018 Incorrect. A process that enables the creation of the Courses
Online WBS from the
- PMP detailed
Exam project scope statement is typically
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included in the scope management plan, making this an incorrect answer.
D A process that specifies how formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained
Incorrect. A process that specifies how formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be obtained
should be included in the scope management plan. Therefore, this answer is an incorrect option.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 137
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Nearing the end of the project, while reviewing the final invoices for payment, the project manager notices that one of the
sellers performed some change requests that were not approved. After several conversations, the project manager and
the seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the changes.
How should the project manager resolve this situation?
Hint:
The project manager should try to resolve the dispute outside the courtroom.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Contested charges where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement are called claims. The contract usually has
terms to manage claims administration. The preferred way to resolve claims is through direct negotiation between the
involved parties. If the parties cannot resolve a claim themselves, it should be handled by alternative dispute resolution
(ADR), typically following the procedures in the contract. The scenario describes that direct negotiation has already taken
place unsuccessfully. The next step for the project manager to take is to identify some form of ADR which is typically
done with the help of a third party. Therefore, engaging third-party resolution is the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. In this scenario, the project manager and the seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for
some change requests. If direct negotiation between parties does not resolve the contested charges, as in this
scenario, alternative dispute resolution (ADR) procedures typically established in the contract should be followed.
13/12/2018 Using litigation is the last choice for settling any claims.
Online Since
Courses the Exam
- PMP project manager and the seller have not yet tried
Simulator
ADR, a lawsuit would be premature.

Correct. Contested charges on which a buyer and seller cannot agree are called claims. According to the scenario,
the project manager has tried to reach out to the seller to settle the claim but have been unsuccessful. When
parties cannot reach an agreement on a resolution of a claim, it should be handled by ADR which involves a third-
party to resolve the dispute through arbitration or mediation.

Incorrect. In this scenario, the project manager has tried to negotiate with the seller to no avail. As a project
manager, the project manager should be fiscally responsible and try another form of resolution to settle the
contested charges before paying the invoice. There are other methods to resolve contested charges, such as
ADR, that are typically included in the contract.

Incorrect. The dispute is between the project manager and the seller and does not involve the project team. While
there is nothing wrong with consulting the project team, their advice is unlikely to help in resolving the contested
charges, and therefore, is not the best answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Due to changing requirements, the contingency funds for the project you are leading have been exhausted. Without
access to the management reserves, the project cannot be completed.
What should you do?
A Transfer the management reserves into the cost baseline
B Escalate the issue to the project sponsor
C Reject any changes to the requirements going forward
D Submit a change request to gain access to the management reserves
Hint:
Management reserves are not included in the cost baseline.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question describes a project with exhausted contingency funds and implies that the project objectives can still be
met with the use of the management reserves. Management reserves can be added to the cost baseline to address the
unknown unknowns that can affect the project. The management reserves are part of the project budget but are not
included in the cost baseline. Therefore, a change request first needs to be submitted and approved before the
management reserves can be transferred to the cost baseline.
A Transfer the management reserves into the cost baseline

Incorrect. The management reserves are part of the project budget but are not included in the cost baseline.
Therefore, a change request needs to be submitted and approved before the management reserves can be
transferred to the cost baseline.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. A project manager has the responsibility
Onlinefor the project
Courses and the
- PMP Exam authority to use the organization's
Simulator
resources to achieve the project objectives. There are steps that could be taken by the project manager prior to
escalating the issue to the project sponsor.
C Reject any changes to the requirements going forward

Incorrect. Change is inevitable. Changes should be managed rather than rejected. Some changes are necessary
to achieve the project objectives. Rejecting any changes without reviewing them may cause even more damage to
the project than allowing the changes to be implemented (assuming those changes are managed). Additionally,
rejecting changes going forward would not help address the issue of changing requirements that happened earlier
in the project.
D Submit a change request to gain access to the management reserves

Correct. Using the management reserves is likely to be the best option of those provided. However, any change to
a baseline first requires an approved change request. Therefore, submitting a change request to gain access to the
management reserves is what you should do in this situation.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 254-255
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Midway into project execution, the customer runs out of money and cannot pay for the project.
A Use management reserves
B Complete the project as planned
C Archive project information
D Take the customer to the court
Hint:
Regardless of how a project ends, it must go through the Close Project or Phase process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The project is not over when the product scope has been completed or if the project is terminated early; there is still one
more process to perform. The Close Project or Phase process includes activities necessary for the administrative closure
of the project. This process finalizes all activities across all process groups to formally close out the project. In the
scenario described, the customer has run out of money for the project, implying the project is terminated prematurely. No
matter the circumstances causing a project to end, the administrative closure should always be performed. One of the
activities conducted during the Close Project or Phase process is archiving project information for future use by the
organization, making this choice the best answer to the question asked. A better answer choice would probably be
starting the Close Project or Phase process; however, this option is not provided.
A Use management reserves

Incorrect. Management reserves are a specified amount of the project budget withheld for management control
purposes to cover unforeseen work that is added to the project. The scenario describes a project where work is
likely to stop rather being added.
B
13/12/2018 Complete the project as planned Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Completing the project as planned knowing the work would not be compensated by the customer makes
no sense.
C Archive project information

Correct. Archiving project information is one of the activities performed during the Close Project or Phase process.
This information can be used by the organization for future projects. No matter the circumstances under which a
project ends, the project must always go through the Close Project or Phase process.
D Take the customer to the court

Incorrect. Litigation in courts is part of the alternative dispute resolution technique considered the last resort and
the less preferable action that should be taken only after all other options have been exhausted. Those options are
typically specified in the contract. The scenario does not provide information as to whether or not the parties have
attempted to settle the dispute using other techniques, neither does the question clarify the terms of the contract.
Therefore, going to the courts is a premature action.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During a risk review meeting for project nearing completion, a new risk has been identified. This risk may affect the
project's schedule.
What should the project manager do first?
A Mitigate the risk
B Alert the project sponsor of the potential impact
C Implement the fallback plan
D Analyze the risk
Hint:
The procedure for handling identified risks is the same regardless of when the threat is recognized.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk reviews are performed during the Monitor Risks process to assess the effectiveness of the risk responses.
Sometimes risk review meetings result in the identification of new risks. When new risks are identified, further analysis
will determine the appropriate response. In this scenario, the newly identified risk 'may' affect the project schedule. There
is no indication that any further analysis has been done. Therefore, analyzing the risk is the first thing the project
manager should do.
A Mitigate the risk

Incorrect. Risk mitigation involves taking action to reduce the probability that the risk will occur and minimize its
impact. Before planning a response, the risk should be analyzed to determine how to proceed.
B Alert the project sponsor of the potential impact
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The risk 'may' affect the schedule. The project
Online manager
Courses will not
- PMP Exam know the effects of the threat until it is
Simulator
further analyzed. Alerting the sponsor, at this point, would be premature.

Incorrect. A fallback plan is an alternate set of actions to be implemented if the primary plan needs to be
abandoned. In this scenario, Andre is dealing with a new risk; therefore a primary plan for this risk does not exist
yet.
D Analyze the risk

Correct. Analyzing the risk first will help the project manager determine how to proceed with further planning for
this risk. Therefore, this is the best answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 457, 398
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During project execution, the sponsor informs the project manager that a new influential stakeholder has just joined the
organization and will be responsible for a few aspects of the project.
What should the project manager do first to engage this stakeholder effectively?
A Revise the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
B Submit a change request to update the stakeholder engagement plan
C Update the RACI chart with the responsibilities of the new stakeholder
D Schedule a meeting with the new project stakeholder
Hint:
What is the best way to learn the stakeholder's requirements and expectations?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is the process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet
their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster the appropriate stakeholder involvement. In order to effectively
manage the new stakeholder's level of engagement, the project manager must understand, among other things, the
stakeholder's requirements and expectations. Meeting with the stakeholder provides an opportunity for the project
manager to establish a relationship and gather the necessary information from the stakeholder to engage her effectively.
Therefore, of the available options, the first thing for the project manager to do is meet with the stakeholder to learn the
stakeholder's requirements and expectations for the project. The incorrect answer choices represent actions that may not
be necessary, or the project manager does not have enough information to perform at this point.
A Revise the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix -isPMP
Online Courses a matrix that compares current and desired
Exam Simulator
stakeholder engagement levels. This information is not known until the project manager has an opportunity to
make an assessment of the stakeholder's engagement level.
B Submit a change request to update the stakeholder engagement plan

Incorrect. An approved change request is required to update the stakeholder engagement plan. The addition of this
new stakeholder may or may not trigger the need for an update to the stakeholder engagement plan. However, the
project manager does not have enough information at this point to make that determination.
C Update the RACI chart with the responsibilities of the new stakeholder
Incorrect. A RACI chart is a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that uses responsible, accountable,
consult, and inform status to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities. At this point, the only
information available about the new stakeholder is that they have influence and will be responsible for a few
aspects of the project. The level of influence is not part of the RACI chart. Without knowing the exact
responsibilities of the stakeholder, updating the RACI chart is a premature action.
D Schedule a meeting with the new project stakeholder

Correct. Meeting with the stakeholder provides an opportunity for the project manager to gather the necessary
information from the stakeholder to foster the appropriate level of stakeholder involvement in the project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 527
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project manager conducting a meeting with your project team. The goal of the meeting is to improve the overall
team environment to enhance project performance. The meeting becomes contentious with team members interrupting
each other and being disrespectful to each other's suggestions. You attempt to return civility to the meeting by
establishing ground rules for acceptable behavior, but working relationships may already be damaged.
What might you have missed that could have prevented this situation?
A Sharing the team management plan with the project team
B Involving the project team in the creation of a team charter and gaining agreement with the content
C Allowing the team members to work independently and avoid interaction
D Making sure each team member has a copy of the project charter
Hint:
What project document records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
It can be inferred from the question that the Develop Team process is being performed, and one of the inputs into this
process is the team charter. The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating
guidelines, as well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. There is
not enough information in the question to discern if the team has or has not been involved in the creation of the team
charter. However, of the available choices, involving the project team in the creation of the charter and gaining
agreement to the content may have prevented the issue described by the question and, therefore, is the best answer to
the question asked.
A Sharing the team management plan with the project team
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The team management plan is the component of the
Online Courses resource
- PMP management plan that describes when
Exam Simulator
and how team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed. The team management plan does not
outline expectations of behavior by project team members.
B Involving the project team in the creation of a team charter and gaining agreement with the content
Correct. The team charter is a document that records the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines, as
well as establishing clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.
C Allowing the team members to work independently and avoid interaction

Incorrect. Team members should work together in order to accomplish the project goals. A cohesive team will be
far more productive than individuals contributing on their own.
D Making sure each team member has a copy of the project charter
Incorrect. The project charter contains high-level information about the project but does not provide guidelines for
the behavior of team members.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 319, 320, 339
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project team member on a project being managed by one of the senior project managers in your company. You
are responsible for quality management of the project. You have found that some of the planned quality testing
procedures are not consistently detecting the issues they were planned to detect. If these procedures are not corrected,
the project may end up failing or require a lot of rework.
What is the best way for you to deal with this situation?
A Do nothing as it's the project manager's responsibility to rectify problems
B Issue a change request for the recommended changes to the quality processes
C Talk to the project manager and ask her to rectify the situation
D Report your findings to the project sponsor
Hint:
You may not be the project manager for the entire project, but you are currently a project team member responsible for
the Manage Quality process.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario suggests you are in the Manage Quality process which focuses on whether the processes established in
the quality management plan are adequate in meeting the quality requirements needed to satisfy the customer. The
quality testing procedures described in the scenario that are providing inconsistent results are part of the quality
management plan. If corrective actions to some of the planned quality testing procedures are required to ensure the
project finishes successfully, then a change to the quality management plan is needed. Since the quality management
plan is a component of the project management plan, any modification first requires an approved change request.
Therefore, since you are responsible for quality management for the project, you should follow your company's change
control process by issuing a change request for corrective action to the procedures in question.
A
13/12/2018 Do nothing as it's the project manager's responsibility to rectify
Online Courses - PMPproblems
Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Although the project manager has accountability for the project, you are responsible for quality
management of the project. Therefore, doing nothing is not the best answer.
B Issue a change request for the recommended changes to the quality processes
Correct. The quality testing procedures are part of the quality management plan which describes activities
necessary to achieve the quality objectives set for the project. If corrective actions to some of the planned quality
testing procedures are required to ensure the project finishes successfully, then a change to the quality
management plan is needed. Any change to the quality management plan requires an approved change request.
Therefore, you should follow your company's change control process by issuing a change request for corrective
action to the procedures in question.
C Talk to the project manager and ask her to rectify the situation
Incorrect. While you might want to discuss the situation with the project manager and get her input, you are
responsible for quality management on the project. Therefore, you should issue a change request to correct the
procedures, not leave the responsibility to the project manager.
D Report your findings to the project sponsor

Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to suggest that reporting your findings to the project
sponsor is warranted. Based on the scenario described, it can be reasonably assumed that the correction of the
quality procedure is within the authority of the project team and the project manager and does not require the
involvement of the project sponsor at this point.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 296
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The senior management has mandated that all the project managers show a 10% reduction in cost incurred while
executing their projects. You gather all the information on costs incurred on your project, and you realize that
transportation costs are the major area that contributes to the expense.
Hint:
You would want to use a technique to identify the underlying reason and develop solutions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A root cause analysis can assist in identifying the root causes of a problem and solutions for change. In the scenario,
transportation expenses are the highest costs and therefore an excellent place to look for cost reductions. By using root
cause analysis, the underlying reason(s) for the high expenses can be determined, and a solution can be identified.

Correct. Root cause analysis is an analytic technique used to determine the underlying reason for a problem. This
technique will help you identify the causes of high transportation costs and develop a solution.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Trend analysis is used to forecast future performance
Online Courses - PMPbased on past results. According to the scenario,
Exam Simulator
the senior management has mandated that all the project managers show a 10% reduction in cost incurred while
executing their projects. Forecasting future performance is unlikely to help reducing project costs.

Incorrect. Trend analysis is used to forecast future performance based on past results and gives a project manager
an early warning if there may be problems. In this scenario, you already have a request to cut costs by 10%, so
you don't need an early warning. Since you need to decide how to reduce costs, not forecast future performance, a
trend analysis will not be helpful.

Incorrect. Decision trees are used to support the selection of the best of several alternative courses of action. At
this point in the scenario, you only know that transportation is the highest expense, you have not determined any
solutions to reduce costs. Therefore, decision tree analysis will not be useful until you have alternative ideas from
which to choose to reduce transportation costs.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 111
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
While executing a project to develop a new computer game, the project manager determines that support for the project
is waning among some of the key stakeholders. In order to recapture the stakeholders' initial enthusiasm, the project
manager arranges an event for the stakeholders to experience the components of the game that have already been
developed. Based on the feedback received, the event was an effective way to keep stakeholders engaged.
A Update the risk register
B Revise the communications management plan
C Record the information in the lessons learned register
Hint:
What should be updated to include effective or ineffective approaches to managing stakeholder engagement?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, and
updates to the lessons learned register is one of the outputs of this process. The lessons learned register should be
updated with effective or ineffective approaches to managing stakeholder engagement so that the knowledge gained can
be used in the current project or future projects. In this scenario, the project manager should capture the stakeholder
event as a best practice for use later in the current and future projects. Of the available choices, recording the
information in the lessons learned register is the best answer to the question asked.
A Update the risk register
13/12/2018 Incorrect. A risk register is a repository in which the outputs
Online Courses -of riskExam
PMP management
Simulator processes are recorded. If the risk
of waning support among the stakeholders was identified earlier in the project, then the results of the risk response
implementation should have been captured in the risk register. However, there is not enough information in the
question to determine if this risk has been identified and the response planned.
B Revise the communications management plan

Incorrect. The communications management plan describes the methods, formats, and technologies used for
stakeholder communication. The event described in the scenario was conducted by the project manager to
improve stakeholder engagement which is the main subject of the stakeholder engagement plan. Therefore, if any
plan should be revised after the event, it should be the stakeholder engagement plan rather than the
communications management plan.
C Record the information in the lessons learned register

Correct. The lessons learned register is updated with effective or ineffective approaches to managing stakeholder
engagement so that information can be used in the current project or future projects.

Incorrect. Lessons learned during the project are transferred from the lessons learned register to the lessons
learned repository at the end of the project, where the information can be used in future projects. Since the lessons
learned register is updated before the lessons learned repository, updating the lessons learned repository is not
what the project manager should do next. Additionally, a change request should not be necessary since the
lessons learned repository is an organizational process asset and not part of the project management plan or
baselines.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 529
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As a project manager, you are finalizing all of the activities related to your current project. As part of this process, you
have prepared a report which summarizes the project performance.
What should you do to determine how to disseminate this information to the relevant project stakeholders?
A Look in the final project report
B Send the report to all stakeholders
C Review the project management plan
D Read the stakeholder register
Hint:
Where should you find a description of how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and
disseminated?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar. Task #4 from the closing domain states, "Prepare and share the final
project report according to the communications management plan in order to document and convey project performance
and assist in project evaluation." The final project report is the report which summarizes the project performance. The
communications management plan describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be
administered and disseminated. However, the communications management plan is not listed as an answer choice. The
communications management plan is a subsidiary of the project management plan. Therefore, of the available choices,
the project management plan is the best source of information on how the report should be disseminated.
A Look in the final project report
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The final project report is a document which
Online provides
Courses a Exam
- PMP summary of project performance. The report
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described by the question is the final project report. This report does not provide guidance on how project
information is disseminated.
B Send the report to all stakeholders

Incorrect. The question describes the final project report and asks to determine how to distribute it to the ‘relevant’
project stakeholders. The information contained in the report will not be relevant to ‘all’ stakeholders as described
by this answer choice. Additionally, the report may contain confidential information which should not be shared with
a broader audience. Finally, the question is asking to determine ‘how’ to disseminate this information, while this
answer choice simply suggests ‘sending’ the report to all stakeholders. ‘Sending’ the report does not answer the
question of ‘how’ the report should be disseminated.
C Review the project management plan

Correct. The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan which describes
how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.
D Read the stakeholder register

Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project document which includes the identification, assessment, and
classification of project stakeholders. The stakeholder register may be helpful in creating a distribution list for the
report. However, this document does not describe how the report should be communicated.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 127-128, 377; see also Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline,
Project Management Institute Inc., June 2015, Domain 5, Task 4
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project manager preparing materials to be used for a status report that will be shared with senior management.
The communications management plan indicates that the status report should be sent to senior management on a
weekly basis. Included in the status report will be earned value graphs, forecasts, reserve burndown charts, defect
histograms, contract performance information, and risk summaries.
What type of reporting is being shared with senior management?
A Work performance reports
B Work performance data
D Work performance status
Hint:
What type of high-level reporting would be most relevant to senior management?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The project manager is conducting the project management process of Manage Communications. Work performance
reports are an input into the Manage Communications process. The key to answering this question correctly is
understanding the relationship between work performance data, work performance information, and work performance
reports. Work performance data is the raw data which is analyzed in context and becomes work performance
information. Work performance information can be organized into work performance reports which can be disseminated
to stakeholders.
A Work performance reports
13/12/2018 Correct. Work performance reports are disseminated to stakeholders
Online Courses - PMP Examas defined by the communications
Simulator
performance reports can contain earned value graphs, forecasts, reserve burndown charts, defect histograms,
contract performance information, and risk summaries.
B Work performance data

Incorrect. Work performance data are the raw observations and measurements identified during project work. This
type of unprocessed and out-of-context data is not typically shared as a status report.

Incorrect. Examples of work performance information are the status of deliverables, implementation status for
change requests, and forecast estimates to complete. Work performance information is not typically shared with
stakeholders as a status report. The physical or electronic representation of work performance information, known
as work performance reports, is what shared with the stakeholders.
D Work performance status

Incorrect. ‘Work performance status’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 26, 382
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is leading a project to renovate a large cargo ship. After some disassembly, it was discovered that the
corrosion is far worse than expected and compromised the structural integrity of the ship. As a result, the project can no
longer be completed according to the approved version of the schedule model. The project manager then followed the
formal change control procedures and received an approval.
A Terminate the project with the approval to complete the work as a new project
B Modify the business case to accommodate the approved changes
C Update the schedule baseline based on the approval of the change request
D Analyze alternative solutions against project constraints to determine the best course of action
Hint:
The schedule baseline is the approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal change control
procedures.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question indicates that the project can no longer be completed according to the approved version of the schedule
model. The approved version of the schedule model is the schedule baseline. A schedule baseline can only be changed
using formal change control procedures. According to the scenario, a change request was submitted and approved to
update the schedule baseline. Therefore, the next step for the project manager to take in this situation is to update the
schedule baseline. It is also possible that the approved changes included modifications to other baselines and/or
elements of the project management plan. However, there is no information presented by the question beyond a revision
to the schedule baseline. Therefore, of the available choices, updating the schedule baseline based on the approved
change request is the best answer to the question asked.
A
13/12/2018 Terminate the project with the approval to complete the work
Online Courses as aExam
- PMP newSimulator
project
Incorrect. Terminating the project is an overreaction. Since the formal request was reviewed and approved, the
existing project is still valid. Some of the project artifacts will be modified to account for the additional structural
repairs.
B Modify the business case to accommodate the approved changes

Incorrect. The business case is one of the project business documents that is created during pre-project work. The
business case is not a project document and is under the responsibility of the project sponsor and not the project
manager. An approved change request is not required for the project sponsor to revise the business case.
Additionally, there is not enough information in the question to determine if the corrosion found in the ship
invalidates the business case.
C Update the schedule baseline based on the approval of the change request
Correct. A schedule baseline is the approved version of a schedule model that can be changed using formal
change control procedures. Thus, in this scenario, a change request was submitted and approved to update the
schedule baseline.
D Analyze alternative solutions against project constraints to determine the best course of action
Incorrect. This answer choice describes an activity that is conducted as part of the Perform Integrated Change
Control process. The question suggests that this process has already been completed with the approval of the
change request.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 171
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
On a project to build a wireless network in a city that is nearing completion, an inspection at one of the sites reveals an
issue with the fiber optic cables. To resolve the issue, the team replaces the faulty cables. Before requesting customer
sign-off on the project, you want to verify that this issue hasn’t impacted other project sites and that the cables on those
sites comply with the project’s quality standards and requirements.
What should you do?
A Use the change control system
Hint:
An organized and constructed investigation conducted to provide objective information about the quality of a product or
service.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question implies you are performing the Control Quality process by measuring the completeness and compliance of
the product prior to customer acceptance and final delivery. Among the choices given, only root cause analysis and
product testing are tools and techniques of the Control Quality process. Root cause analysis can be eliminated because
the goal described in the scenario is not trying to identify the root cause of the faulty cables; rather, to verify that the
cables meet the project’s quality standards and requirements. Product testing helps to identify defects or
nonconformance problems and can be performed throughout the project to formally demonstrate, with reliable data, that
project requirements have been met. Therefore, of the choices provided, product testing is the best answer to the
question asked.
A
13/12/2018 Use the change control system Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The change control system is used to identify, document, and control changes to the project and the
project baselines. However, the project team is focused on quality control - verifying that the product conforms to
quality standards and meets project requirements.

Incorrect. Root cause analysis is a technique used in the Control Quality process to identify the source of defects.
In this scenario, however, the team has already identified a problem with the fiber optic cables and taken corrective
action, so presumably, root cause analysis has already been performed.

Correct. Testing is a technique of the Control Quality process used to provide objective information about the
quality of a product in accordance with the project requirements. The purpose of testing is to identify errors,
defects, bugs, or other nonconformance problems prior to final delivery of the product. Conducting tests on the
installed fiber optic cables would help you formally demonstrate, with reliable data, that the cables conform to
quality standards and that the project requirements have been met.
Incorrect. Benchmarking is the comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of
comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for
measuring performance. Since you want to verify that the product meets project requirements, benchmarking is not
applicable in this scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 303
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As a project manager, you just completed planning a corporate restructuring project. Before project execution can begin,
the project sponsor notifies you that the project is being terminated immediately. You are told that the organization has
just announced a merger which renders the project obsolete.
With the project canceled before the execution stage, what should you do next?
A Obtain financial and administrative closure of the project
B Stop all project work and release the project team
C Transfer ownership of deliverables to the appropriate stakeholders
D Place the project on hold until it can be reauthorized after the merger is finalized
Hint:
What process still needs to be completed when a project is terminated regardless of where the project is in the lifecycle?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that the project has been terminated. Even though at this stage of the project, only the project
management plan and project documents exist, there are still activities associated with the Close Project or Phase
process that must be performed. Therefore, the next action is to obtain financial and administrative closure of the project.
A Obtain financial and administrative closure of the project

Correct. The question states that the project has been terminated. Therefore, the next action to be taken by the
project manager and the team is to perform the Close Project or Phase process as suggested by this answer
choice.
B Stop all project work and release the project team

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Even though the project has been terminated, there
Online Courses areExam
- PMP still activities
Simulator which should be performed to
formally close the project. At least some of the project team will need to remain active on the project until the Close
Project or Phase process is complete.
C Transfer ownership of deliverables to the appropriate stakeholders

Incorrect. The question states that the project has been terminated prior to project execution. Although partial or
interim deliverables should be transferred to the appropriate stakeholders when a project is canceled, it is unlikely
that any deliverables or partial deliverables exist at this point in the project.
D Place the project on hold until it can be reauthorized after the merger is finalized
Incorrect. The question states that the project sponsor has terminated the project. Thus, the project is canceled,
and the activities associated with the Close Project or Phase process should be performed. If the project sponsor
wishes at some future point to restart the project, then it should be treated as a new project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The goal of the project is to construct chemical test boxes for two oil and gas exploration sites. Much of the equipment
used in this industry is standardized, and as a licensed chemical engineer, the project manager had produced similar
chemical apparatus before in her previous role.
How should the project manager best estimate the required project resources to be as efficient as possible with her
limited time?
A The project manager should not estimate anything until he has firm quotes from vendors in hand to present to
senior management.
B The project manager should take the best guess now and take corrective action as the project progresses.
C The project manager should ask senior management for their opinion.
D The project manager should use his own expert judgment as well as analogous estimating to estimate the
required resources.
Hint:
Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment, or
supplies required to perform each activity. What type of estimating is used if applying knowledge from previous projects
and expertise from the relevant field?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario suggests that the project manager is about to carry out the Estimate Activity Resources process. This
process relies on several tools and techniques to produce accurate estimates, such as expert judgment and analogous
estimating. There are various clues given in the question text: the project manager is licensed (which indicates a
standard for knowledge and expertise), has specific industry experience, and the equipment is standardized. In this case,
applying the project manager's expert judgment as well as analogous estimating are the most efficient use of time during
the planning stage of the project.

A
13/12/2018 The project manager should not estimate anything
Onlineuntil he has
Courses firm
- PMP quotes
Exam from vendors in hand to present to
Simulator
senior management.
Incorrect. Firm quotes for equipment should be used for actual costs during procurement and are not strictly
necessary for the purposes of estimating. Waiting for quotes will add unnecessary delays to the project. More
importantly, the project manager has the authority and, being a licensed engineer in the field, the expertise to
determine the type and quantity of resources needed for the project and does not need the approval of senior
management.
B The project manager should take the best guess now and take corrective action as the project progresses.
Incorrect. Making changes to the project plan is more difficult and costly as time goes on. Estimating poorly in the
beginning is not recommended, especially if other alternatives, such as analogous estimating and expert judgment,
can be used.
C The project manager should ask senior management for their opinion.
Incorrect. The project manager already has the technical expertise to provide an expert opinion. As a project
manager, he also has the authority to determine what equipment or other resources are needed for the project and
does not need the approval of senior management.
D The project manager should use his own expert judgment as well as analogous estimating to estimate the
required resources.
Correct. As an experienced and licensed engineer, the project manager should apply his own expert judgment and
use analogous estimating from his previous experience. In this application, the equipment is standardized;
therefore, for the purposes of estimating, the project requirements can be assumed to be accurate with respect to
materials, equipment, personnel, etc.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 324
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
After completing all the planning processes, acquiring the project team, and creating some of the deliverables, one of the
key project team members is injured in a car accident. The team member will not be available for the rest of the project.
Hint:
There are no irreplaceable people.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The project is in its executing phase. Loss of the key project team member during the project execution would negatively
affect the project performance, typically leading to the schedule to be extended or the budget to be exceeded. Ideally, the
project manager would want to immediately acquire another team member with the same level of skills and experience
as the one that became unavailable. However, this option is not given as an answer choice. Therefore, the only viable
alternative among the choices given is to submit a change request to update the project management plan, specifically
the Resource Management Plan and other project documents such as roles description and project staff assignments, to
reflect the changes in the staffing and propose a potential solution.

Incorrect. While a car accident can be considered an issue, doing nothing would be irresponsible.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Working extra hours may be acceptable forCourses
Online short periods of times.
- PMP Exam However, it is highly not
Simulator
recommended for the long run. Working extra hours may result in low motivation, decreased productivity, and
attrition to name but a few, and will cause even more damage to the project.

Incorrect. Project termination is a very severe response to this issue. Projects are typically not terminated when
one team member becomes unavailable.

Correct. Losing a key project team member at the beginning of the project execution is a significant roadblock. It's
unlikely that the project manager will be able to resolve this issue quickly enough and without impacting the project
management plan. A change request should be submitted to update the plan and other project documents as
needed.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 350
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager has just received a signed formalized document as an output from one of the initiation processes in
her project. This document was prepared by someone external to the project and will be utilized as a catalyst for the
project to move forward.
Which of the following describes this document?
A The business case
B The scope statement
C The project charter
D The approved project plan
Hint:
Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The project charter is a document developed during the Initiating Process Group that formally authorizes the existence of
a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. In
other words, the project charter is utilized as a catalyst for the project to move forward which is what is described in the
scenario. The project charter is typically developed by an entity external to the project, such as the project initiator or
sponsor, and is the primary output of the Develop Project Charter process. For these reasons, the project charter is the
best answer to the question asked.
A The business case

Incorrect. The business case is a feasibility study that determines whether the project is economically
advantageous to the company. The business case lists the reasons and objectives for project initiation and is an
input to the Develop Project Charter process. The development of the business case precedes the initiation
13/12/2018 process of a project and therefore cannot be an output
Online of an- PMP
Courses initiation
Examprocess.
Simulator
B The scope statement

Incorrect. The scope statement is a detailed description of the project and the product the project will deliver. As an
output of the Define Scope process, which is a planning process, the scope statement is developed by the project
team and not someone external to the project.
C The project charter

Correct. The project charter is a document developed during the Initiating Process Group that formally authorizes
the existence of a project. An output of the Develop Project Charter process, the project charter is issued by
someone external to the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational
resources to project activities. Therefore, the project charter is the correct answer to the question asked.
D The approved project plan

Incorrect. The term 'approved project plan' typically refers to the project management plan which defines the way a
project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed. The project management plan is developed during
the Planning Process Group by the project manager and the project team and, therefore, does not describe the
document mentioned in the scenario.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 75-78
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project manager assisting the project sponsor with pre-project work for a research and development project.
Based on the tasks of the initiating domain, what needs to be done in order to manage customer expectations and direct
the achievement of project goals?
A Identify high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints
B Perform stakeholder analysis using appropriate tools and techniques
C Identify key deliverables based on the business requirements
D Conduct benefits analysis with relevant stakeholders
Hint:
The correct answer is task #2 of the initiating domain.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar. Task #2 of the initiating domain states, "Identify key deliverables based
on the business requirements in order to manage customer expectations and direct the achievement of project goals."
Therefore, the choice that more accurately matches the description of this task is the best answer to the question asked.
One may argue that every answer is technically correct. While this is true, the question's focus is on customer
expectations and the achievement of project goals. From the customer perspective, your organization (in the scenario
described) is a vendor. The customer would likely less care about the stakeholder analysis that the vendor performs; the
customer would likely less care about benefits analysis performed by the vendor; same goes to the high-level risks,
assumptions, and constraints. However, the key deliverables that the vendor should deliver based on the customer's
business requirements are what likely be the main concern of the customer. Therefore, of the choices provided, to
manage customer expectations and direct the achievement of project goals, you, as the project manager of the
performing organization, should focus your efforts on identifying key deliverables based on the business requirements.

A
13/12/2018 Identify high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints
Incorrect. Task #4 of the initiating domain states, "Identify high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints based on
the current environment, organizational factors, historical data, and expert judgment, in order to propose an
implementation strategy." The correct answer is represented by a different task of the initiating domain.
B Perform stakeholder analysis using appropriate tools and techniques

Incorrect. Task #3 of the initiating domain states, "Perform stakeholder analysis using appropriate tools and
techniques in order to align expectations and gain support for the project." The correct answer is represented by a
different task of the initiating domain.
C Identify key deliverables based on the business requirements

Correct. Task #2 of the initiating domain states, "Identify key deliverables based on the business requirements in
order to manage customer expectations and direct the achievement of project goals." The question text and this
answer choice resemble the task #2 making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
D Conduct benefits analysis with relevant stakeholders

Incorrect. Task #7 of the initiating domain states, "Conduct benefit analysis with relevant stakeholders to validate
project alignment with organizational strategy and expected business value." The correct answer is represented by
a different task of the initiating domain.
Reference:
Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, Project Management Institute Inc., June 2015,
Domain I, Task 2
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager combined and recorded work performance information. The project manager wants to share it with the
project stakeholders to raise awareness and generate decisions and actions.
Which of the following is the best course of action for the project manager to take to achieve this goal?
B Present this information at the kick-off meeting in front of the key project stakeholders
Hint:
This is one of the outputs from the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Work performance reports are a physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in
project documents. Work performance reports are one of the outputs from the Monitor and Control Project Work process
as well as one of the inputs into several project management processes. Work performance reports are created by
combining and recording work performance information and then distributed by the project manager among the project
stakeholders. The main purpose of the work performance reports is to raise awareness and generate decisions and
actions. Therefore, distributing combined and recorded work performance information in the form of work performance
reports is the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. While there is nothing wrong in documenting this information in the lessons learned knowledge base as
a reference for future projects, distributing the information in the form of work performance reports would have a
higher chance of raising awareness and generating decisions and actions among the project stakeholders.
B
13/12/2018 Present this information at the kick-off meetingOnline
in front of the
Courses key Exam
- PMP project stakeholders
Simulator
Incorrect. A kick-off meeting typically takes place during project initiation or planning. Based on the information
provided in the question, the project is in its execution. Therefore it's reasonable to assume that the project kick-off
meeting has already occurred.

Correct. Work performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information
intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.
Incorrect. Although important, the project sponsor is not the only project stakeholder. The information should be
distributed among all, or part, of the project stakeholders as specified in the communications management plan.
Also, it is not clear what approval the project sponsor is expected to provide.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 112
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Some of your project stakeholders have become disengaged, and others have complained that they are not adequately
informed about project updates. You have pulled a strategy team together and have determined that the communications
management plan no longer addresses the stakeholders' needs. The strategy team has devised a new communication
process that you feel will better engage the stakeholders and meet their needs.
A Understand the communication channels of the organization
B Use expert judgment
C Perform a stakeholder analysis
Hint:
What is required before any changes can be made to the project management plan?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In this scenario, you are in the process of Monitor Stakeholder Engagement. The new communication process
recommended by the strategy team will require an update to the communications management plan. However, before
any component of the project management plan can be changed, a formal change request should be submitted. Then,
the change request should be handled as specified by the Perform Integrated Change Control process established on
the project. If the change is approved, the communications management plan can be updated. Therefore, of the choices
given, submitting a change request is the next step to be taken and is the best answer to the question asked.
A Understand the communication channels of the organization
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Communication channels refer to theOnline
way Courses
information
- PMPflows
Examwithin an organization and how many
Simulator
different ways there are for the information to flow. Understanding the communication channels of the organization
is important during the development of the communications management plan but is unlikely to be the next step
before the implementation of the revised communication process.
B Use expert judgment

Incorrect. Expert judgment utilizes individuals with specialized knowledge or training to provide information on their
area of expertise. The strategy team, described in the scenario, used their expert judgment to devise the new
process for communicating with the stakeholders. However, the question asks what the next step is before
implementing the revised communication process. Expert judgment is not the next step and is, therefore, an
incorrect answer to the question.
C Perform a stakeholder analysis

Incorrect. Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing information to determine
whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project. Based on the scenario, you are already
aware that some stakeholders are disengaged, and others are complaining about being uninformed. Therefore, a
stakeholder analysis has already been performed.

Correct. In this scenario, you have devised a new communication process that will improve stakeholder
communications. Any changes to the communications management plan will require the submission of a change
request that would be processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Therefore, submitting a
change request is the next step before implementing the revised communication process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 535-536
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
To address the issues related to a low level of stakeholder support for the project, the project manager submits a change
request to modify the stakeholder engagement plan. The change request is approved and implemented.
A Document the status of the change request in the change control register
B Record the improved level of the stakeholder support in the stakeholder register
C Update the organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D Update the change log and communicate the status to the stakeholders
Hint:
Where should change requests and their status be documented?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question implies that the Manager Stakeholder Engagement process was being performed which resulted in a
change request that was subsequently approved and implemented. Change requests and their status are documented in
the change log and communicated to the appropriate stakeholders which is what the project manager should do next in
this situation.
A Document the status of the change request in the change control register
Incorrect. 'Change control register' is a made-up term.
B Record the improved level of the stakeholder support in the stakeholder register
Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to determine if the actions taken by the project manager
in the scenario described improved the level of support of the stakeholders. The question only says that the
change request to modify the stakeholder engagement plan has been approved and implemented. It is unlikely that
13/12/2018 the level of support of the stakeholders has been improved
Online Courses by justExam
- PMP having the stakeholder engagement plan
Simulator
updated.
C Update the organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors

Incorrect. According to the scenario, the project manager is involved in the Manage Stakeholder Engagement
process. Updates to the organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors are not an output of
this process.
D Update the change log and communicate the status to the stakeholders
Correct. Changes may be requested during the execution of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process.
Change requests and their status are documented in the change log and communicated to the appropriate
stakeholders.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 529, 120
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have been assigned as a new project manager and have begun project planning. You are now in the process of
developing a detailed description of the project and product. You have reviewed the project charter, the project
management plan, and the organizational process assets.
What should you do next as part of this process?
A Review key project deliverables
B Check the scope management plan
C Use data analysis techniques
D Review files from previous projects
Hint:
What else should have been done to establish detailed project deliverables?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
By saying, "you are now in the process of developing a detailed description of the project and product" the question
implies you are carrying out the Define Scope process. According to the scenario, you have already reviewed the project
charter, the project management plan, and the organizational process assets. Those items are inputs to the Define
Scope process and cover three out of four answer choices, leaving only one choice as the correct answer to the question
asked: using data analysis techniques is what you should do next as part of this process.
A Review key project deliverables

Incorrect. The question states that the project charter has already been reviewed. Key project deliverables are an
element of the project charter. Therefore, the key deliverables have been reviewed, making this answer choice
incorrect.
B
13/12/2018 Check the scope management plan Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. According to the scenario, you have reviewed the project management plan. Since the scope
management plan is a component of the project management plan, it can be implied that the scope management
plan has already been reviewed.
C Use data analysis techniques

Correct. Data analysis can be used during the Define Scope process suggested by the scenario. Alternatives
analysis is an example of a data analysis technique that can be used as part of this process to evaluate ways to
meet the requirements and the objectives identified in the charter.
D Review files from previous projects

Incorrect. Project files from previous projects are part of the organizational process assets (OPAs). According to
the scenario, the OPAs have already been reviewed.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 152-153
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is working on the communications management plan. She has determined which stakeholders need
what information and how often she will distribute the various reports.
A Determine the information needs of the stakeholders
B Determine how the information will be transmitted
C Measure the effectiveness of the communications
D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan
Hint:
An effective communications management plan addresses 'who,' 'what,' 'when,' 'where,' and 'how' of project
communications.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
One way to plan communication management is to identify the 5Ws (Who, What, When, Where, Why) and 1H (How) of
communication:
Who needs the information;

What information needs to be communicated;
When should the information be communicated;
Where should the information be communicated;
Why communication of the information is essential; and
How the information needs to be transmitted.
The scenario states that the project manager had determined the 'who,' 'what,' and 'when' of communicating the project
information. The 'where,' 'why,' and 'how' are not mentioned. Among the choices provided, only 'Determine how the
information will be transmitted' addresses the 'how' which is one of the missing '5Ws' and '1H', and is, therefore, the best
A Determine the information needs of the stakeholders

Incorrect. According to the scenario, the project manager has determined which stakeholders need what
information and how often. Therefore, Kathy has already established the information needs of the stakeholders.
B Determine how the information will be transmitted

Correct. The project manager has determined the stakeholder communication requirements in that she knows the
'who,' 'what,' and 'when' of the project communications. However, she has not yet identified how the information will
be transmitted which would be the next necessary component of the communications management plan.
C Measure the effectiveness of the communications

Incorrect. The project manager is working on the communications management plan; therefore, she is most likely
in the Plan Communications Management process. Measuring the effectiveness of the communications is
performed in the Monitor Communications process which is carried out later in the project life cycle.
D Submit a change request to update the communications management plan

Incorrect. The scenario suggests the project is still in planning implying the project management plan has yet to be
approved. A change request is not required to update a component of the project management plan that has not
yet been approved.
Reference:
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are in the process of finalizing all activities for your project. As part of this process, you are preparing the final project
report which includes a summary of the project performance.
Once the final report is complete, what should you do next?
A Release the project team to start the next project
B Share the report according to the communications management plan
C Analyze how the final product of the project achieved the business needs identified in the business plan
D Capture any risks or issues encountered during the project and how they were addressed
Hint:
What is the next logical step once the final report has been completed?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline contains a list of tasks for each domain,
with which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar. Task #4 from the closing domain states, "Prepare and share the
final project report according to the communications management plan in order to document and convey project
performance and assist in project evaluation." Once the final report is complete, the next logical step is to share the
report according to the communications management plan.
A Release the project team to start the next project

Incorrect. The question suggests that the Close Project or Phase process is being performed. The project team is
released during this process, but the project team must complete all of the other activities associated with project
closure before they can all be released. Since there is not enough information in the question to determine if all
other closure activities have already been completed, releasing the project team is not the best answer to the
question asked.
B Share the report according to the communications management plan
Correct. Once the final project report has been completed, it should be shared with relevant stakeholders by
following the communications management plan. Once the final report is complete, the next logical step is to
communicate the report.
C Analyze how the final product of the project achieved the business needs identified in the business plan
Incorrect. This answer choice represents one of the elements that should be included in the final project report.
Since the question is asking what should be done next once the final report is complete, this action should have
already been completed.
D Capture any risks or issues encountered during the project and how they were addressed
Incorrect. A summary of the risks or issues encountered during the project and how they were addressed is an
element which is included in the final report. Therefore, this answer choice represents an activity that should
already be complete.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 127-128; see also Project Management Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, Project
Management Institute Inc., June 2015, Domain V, Task 4
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
After reviewing comments from a participant survey from a project kick-off meeting, it is clear that more frequent breaks
would have helped the participants maintain focus throughout the meeting.
Where should this information be captured?
Hint:
Where is information captured that may be useful later in the current project and in future projects?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Surveys are a popular method of gathering valuable feedback from meeting participants, which can be used to improve
the effectiveness of future meetings. The lessons learned gained from the feedback should be captured in the lessons
learned register. The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so
that it can be used in the current project. During the Close Project or Phase process, the lessons learned register is
archived as an organizational process asset for use on future projects. Therefore, of the choices given, capturing the
feedback in the lessons learned register is the best answer to the question asked.

Incorrect. Even though the project kick-off meeting is over, this information may be useful for future meetings with
the current project or future projects.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder register is a project Online
document which
Courses includes
- PMP the identification, assessment, and
Exam Simulator
classification of project stakeholders. However, the stakeholder register does not capture lessons learned during
project activities.

Correct. The lessons learned register is a project document used to record knowledge gained during a project so
that it can be used in the current project. During the Close Project or Phase process, the lessons learned register
is archived as an organizational process asset for use on future projects.

Incorrect. The lessons learned repository is an organizational process asset which serves as a store of historical
information about lessons learned in past projects. Since the scenario indicates that project execution is about to
begin, it is premature to capture this information in the lessons learned repository. The information should first be
captured in the lessons learned register and transferred to the lessons learned repository during the Close Project
or Phase process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 86, 104
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A tanker with crude oil has run aground. Oil is being transferred to another ship, but the oil leaks into the ocean before
it's all transferred. The risk of a leak was documented. The team implements the risk response by deploying an oil
containment and recovery system to prevent the spread of the crude oil. So far, the system is keeping up with the rate of
oil leakage. The overall project risk has been dramatically reduced.
What should the project manager do with this information?
A Record the information in the issue log
Hint:
Which project document may be updated to reflect changes in overall project risk?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question describes a situation where a previously identified risk was realized triggering the Implement Risk
Responses process. The risk report may be updated to reflect any changes to the previously agreed-upon risk responses
to overall project risk exposure that are subsequently made as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process. The
risk report is a project document developed progressively throughout the Project Risk Management processes, which
summarizes information on individual project risks and the level of overall project risk. All of the answer choices
represent project documents which may be updated as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process. However, the
question is specifically asking what should be done with the information regarding the reduction in overall project risk.
Only the risk report describes the level of overall project risk. Therefore, of the available choices, revising the risk report
to reflect the change in overall project risk is the best answer to the question asked.
A
13/12/2018 Record the information in the issue log Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The issue log is a project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored. Since
the oil leak was an identified risk already documented in the risk register, there is no need to capture it in the issue
log. While you can document the risk as an issue along with its final resolution in the issue log, the question is
specifically asking where to capture the information about the reduction in 'overall' project risk. The issue log does
not contain information on changes to overall project risk, making this choice an incorrect answer.

that it can be used in the current project and entered into the lessons learned repository. The knowledge gained
regarding the effectiveness of the risk response should be captured in the lessons learned register. However, the
question is asking about what the project manager should do with the information regarding the significantly
reduced overall project risk rather than how effective the risk response was.

Correct. The risk report may be updated to reflect any changes to the previously agreed-upon risk responses to
overall project risk exposure that are subsequently made as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process.

Incorrect. The risk register may be updated to reflect any changes to the previously agreed-upon risk responses for
individual project risks that are subsequently made as a result of the Implement Risk Responses process.
However, the risk register addresses individual risks and not overall project risk as asked by the question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 452
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During project execution of a high priority project, a previously identified risk is realized. The project manager sends an
email to the risk owner and receives an automated response indicating that this individual will be out of the country on
vacation for the next two weeks. The risk owner did not disclose a backup contact to use during the interim.
A Capture the problem in the issue resolution register
B Update the communications management plan
C Submit a change request
D Record the information in the issue log
Hint:
Where are problems encountered during a project tracked and monitored?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question implies that the project manager was carrying out the Implement Risk Responses process. An issue log is
one of the project documents that may be updated during that process. The issue log is a project document where all
issues are recorded and tracked. Data on issues may include the issue type, who raised the issue and when, description,
priority, who is assigned to the issue, target resolution date, status, and final resolution. The issue log will help the project
manager effectively track and manage issues, ensuring that they are investigated and resolved. Therefore, capturing this
issue in the issue log is what the project manager should do first.
A Capture the problem in the issue resolution register

Incorrect. 'Issue resolution register' is a fake term made up for this question.
B Update the communications management plan

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The communications management plan is Courses
Online a component of the
- PMP Exam project management plan that describes
Simulator
how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. It is not clear from
the description provided whether or not the communications management plan will need to be updated. However,
even if the communications management plan needs to be updated, the issue should first be captured in the issue
log, and then a change request would need to be submitted and approved before the communications
management plan can be updated.
C Submit a change request

Incorrect. There is not enough information provided by the question to determine if a change request is needed to
resolve the issue. The issue should first be captured in the issue log. The issue will then be assigned for follow up
where a determination can be made about the appropriate action to be taken which may or may not include a
change request.
D Record the information in the issue log

Correct. The issue log is a project document where all issues are recorded and tracked. The problem described by
the question should be recorded in the issue log along with other pertinent information including to whom the issue
is assigned. From there the issue should be monitored and tracked to ensure a resolution.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 452, 96
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
After applying various data gathering techniques to determine quality requirements on a bridge construction project, it
was determined that the concrete bridge members must have a compressive strength of at least 10,000 pounds per
square inch (PSI).
A Perform an inspection of the concrete bridge members
B Issue a change request
C Produce test and evaluation documents
D Plan test and inspection activities
Hint:
The quality management plan is developed during the Plan Quality Management process.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The quality management plan is created during the Plan Quality Management process. During the planning phase, the
project manager and project team determine how to test or inspect the project deliverables to meet the stakeholders'
needs and expectations, as well as how to meet the goal for the product's performance and reliability. The project team
will need to define the strength tests that will be used. Of the available options, only test and inspection activities are
determined during project planning, and the other options describe activities that are conducted during project execution
or monitoring and controlling.
A Perform an inspection of the concrete bridge members

Incorrect. An inspection is the examination of a work product to determine if it conforms to documented standards.
Inspection is conducted as part of the Control Quality process. The question implies that the Plan Quality
Management process is being conducted. Since the project is still in the planning stage, there are no project
13/12/2018 deliverables to test. Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
B Issue a change request

Incorrect. The scenario implies that the Plan Quality Management process is underway. Therefore, the project is
still in the planning stage, and the project management plan and baselines have yet to be finalized. As such, a
change request is not necessary.
C Produce test and evaluation documents

Incorrect. Test and evaluation documents are created during the Manage Quality process to evaluate the
achievement of quality objectives. The question states that the quality management plan is being developed, which
occurs during the Plan Quality Management process. Project planning must be completed before execution can
begin. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
D Plan test and inspection activities

Correct. During the planning phase, the project manager and project team determine how to test or inspect the
project deliverables to meet the stakeholders' needs and expectations, as well as how to meet the goal for the
product's performance and reliability. The project team will need to conduct inspection planning to determine the
strength tests that will be used.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 285
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Your project is running behind schedule because some of the project team members have been reassigned by their
functional managers to other projects.
Who would be the best person to help you resolve this issue?
A The customer for whom the project is performed
B The project sponsor
C The director of the human resources department
D The project management office
Hint:
Who is responsible for supporting the project and the project manager?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The project manager works with the project sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the
team or the viability or quality of the project. If a project is part of a program or a portfolio, then typically it is the program
or portfolio manager who should set priorities among the projects of the program/portfolio. However, it is not specified
anywhere in the question as to whether the project is part of a program or portfolio. Setting priorities or influencing how
the priorities of various projects are set falls under the responsibility of the project sponsor. Therefore, it would be best for
you, as the project manager, to escalate the issue to the project sponsor to render a decision about the priority of the
project you are managing.
A The customer for whom the project is performed

Incorrect. While the customer may have some influence on the performing organization, the issue described in the
scenario is internal to the organization and should not be exposed to the customer.
B The project sponsor
Correct. The project manager works with the project sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that
may impact the team or the viability or quality of the project.
C The director of the human resources department

Incorrect. The director of human resources, assuming this role exists in the performing organization, might be
helpful in hiring new personnel or locating individuals with the required skillset within the organization, but is not
likely to have the authority to prioritize projects.
D The project management office

Incorrect. A project management office (PMO) can play various roles in organizations. For example, a supportive
PMO provides a consultative role to projects by supplying templates, best practices, training, access to
information, and lessons learned from other projects. A supportive PMO would not be able to secure resources for
a project. A directive PMO directly manages the projects and would likely help resolve the issue. However, it is
unclear from the scenario, if there is a PMO or what role the PMO plays in the organization.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 55, 354, 358
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project is in execution, but your project team is unable to stop arguing about the project milestones and the risks
associated with them. This on-going conflict puts the project at risk of running behind schedule.
What would likely have helped avoid this conflict had it been properly created first?
A A graphical representation of the logical relationships among project activities
B An up-to-date hierarchical structure of the project's resource categories
C A hierarchical representation of project risks
D An adequate deliverables-oriented decomposition of project work
Hint:
Which answer choice describes a work breakdown structure?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The WBS is considered by many project managers to be the heart of the project since a WBS lists the total scope of
work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create required deliverables. The
milestone list is an output from the Define Activities process to which the WBS serves as an input (as part of the scope
baseline). The risk register is an output from the Identify Risks process to which the WBS serves as an input (as part of
the scope baseline) used as a framework to structure risk identification techniques. Had the project manager and the
team taken the time to create a proper WBS, it is likely the team would have had a more accurate milestone list and risk
register with which to finish their project management plan on time.
A A graphical representation of the logical relationships among project activities

Incorrect. This answer choice is referring to a project schedule network diagram, an output from the Sequence
Activities process. A project schedule network diagram includes information about network path convergence thus
helping in risk identification. However, the milestone list is created earlier in project planning and serves as an input
13/12/2018 to the Sequence Activities process. Therefore,Online
outputs of the- PMP
Courses process
Examthat is chronologically performed later in the
Simulator
project life cycle would not have helped avoid something that took place earlier.
B An up-to-date hierarchical structure of the project's resource categories

Incorrect. This answer choice is referring to a resource breakdown structure, which is contained in the resource
management plan. The resource breakdown structure lists the project human resources and other resources by
category and type. Although it may be used within the resource management plan as an input to the Identify Risks
process, a resource breakdown structure does not provide any information related to the project milestones and is
therefore not the best answer choice.
C A hierarchical representation of project risks

Incorrect. This answer choice is referring to a risk breakdown structure (RBS), which is contained in the risk
management plan. The RBS is typically used during the Identify Risks and Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
processes. While the RBS may help organize risks related to project milestones into the relevant category, the
information the RBS provides regarding project milestones is not sufficient enough to help avoid the conflict over
the project milestones and the risks associated with them.
D An adequate deliverables-oriented decomposition of project work

Correct. This answer choice is referring to a WBS. A WBS is part of the scope baseline and is a deliverables-
oriented decomposition of project work. It is used as an input to both the Define Activities and Identify Risks
processes, which in turn create the project risk register and milestone list respectively. Had the project manager
and team created an adequate WBS that decomposed the project scope, an accurate milestone list and risk
register could have been created. This likely would have helped prevent the arguments over the project milestones
and the risks associated with them.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 161, 405, 421
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A business case for the proposed project has been developed and is being reviewed by a member of the project
management office (PMO). The PMO team member notices a problem with the business case, which needs to be
corrected.
Of the following choices, what is the most likely problem with the business case?
A Included an explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits
provided by the project
C Included an analysis of the situation with the identification of the root causes of the problem to be addressed
by the project
Hint:
The benefits management plan is not part of the business case.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The business case should include business needs, analysis of the situation, recommendation, and evaluation. The
benefits management plan is the documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and
sustaining the benefits provided by the project. The business case and the benefits management plan comprise the
business documents that are used to create the project charter. However, the benefits management plan is a separate
document that is not typically included in the business case. Therefore, the inclusion of this information in the business
case is most likely what the member of the PMO noticed and requested to correct.
A Included an explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided
by the project
13/12/2018 Correct. The benefits management plan is the Online
documented
Courses -explanation defining the processes for creating,
PMP Exam Simulator
maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by the project. The benefits management plan is a separate
document that is not typically included in the business case. Therefore, the inclusion of this information in the
business case is most likely what the member of the PMO noticed.
Incorrect. The business needs are one of the key aspects that should be included in the business case. Therefore,
this answer choice can be eliminated.
C Included an analysis of the situation with the identification of the root causes of the problem to be addressed by
the project
Incorrect. An analysis of the situation should be included in the business case, making this an incorrect answer.

Incorrect. The business case should include a recommendation. Therefore, this answer choice is incorrect.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 30-33
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A previously identified risk has been realized which triggered a risk response. The project team compares the amount of
the remaining budget within the cost baseline that was allocated for this risk to the amount of risk remaining in order to
determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. The result of the project team's analysis is captured in a burndown chart
which will be shared with various project stakeholders.
What type of analysis has the project team performed?
A SWOT analysis
D Reserve analysis
Hint:
What data analysis technique is used during the Monitor Risks process to determine if the remaining contingency reserve
is adequate?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question suggests that the project team is carrying out the Monitor Risks process. The
budget within the cost baseline that was allocated for identified risks is known as contingency reserves. Reserve analysis
is a data analysis technique which may be used during the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis compares the
amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project in order to
determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. The project team is using reserve analysis and creating a burndown
chart to share with various stakeholders.
A SWOT analysis
13/12/2018 Incorrect. SWOT analysis is the analysis of strengths, weaknesses,
Online Courses opportunities,
- PMP Exam Simulator and threats of an organization,
project, or option. Based on the scenario described, the project team is performing the Monitor Risks process. A
SWOT analysis is a data analysis technique used in the Identify Risks process rather than in the Monitor Risks
process.
suggests that the project team is performing the Monitor Risks process. Regression analysis is a data analysis
technique used in the Close Project or Phase process rather than in the Monitor Risks process.
Incorrect. 'Contingency analysis' is a fake term made up for this question.
D Reserve analysis
remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. This may be
communicated using various graphical representations, including a burndown chart.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 456
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are conducting a meeting to update key stakeholders on the progress of your current project. One of the key
stakeholders states that the project no longer makes any business sense and should be terminated.
A Update the issue log
C Terminate the project
D Hold a meeting with the stakeholder
Hint:
Where is information about a situation that may have an impact on the project objectives captured?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
An issue can be described as a current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives. A key
stakeholder stating that the project no longer makes business sense is an issue which, at the very least, will impact
stakeholder engagement. The issue log documents all known issues related to the project and stakeholders. While it
could be just a subjective opinion of one stakeholder only, this opinion is an issue which affects this key stakeholder's
attitude toward the project and is, therefore, should be captured in the issue log, investigated, and if determined to be the
real problem, resolved, and its resolution monitored. Therefore, of the available choices, the first thing you, as the project
manager, should do is to update the issue log.
A Update the issue log

Correct. The issue log documents all known issues related to the project and stakeholders. An issue which affects
a key stakeholder's attitude toward the project should be captured in the issue log.
B
13/12/2018 Escalate the issue to the project sponsor Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The issue described in the question may or may not need to be escalated to the project sponsor. Before
escalating the issue with the project sponsor, you, as the project manager, should capture the issue in the issue log
and then find out from the stakeholder why they feel the project no longer makes any business sense.
C Terminate the project

Incorrect. Terminating the project is a premature action with such little information presented to you, as the project
manager. At this point in the scenario, all that is known is that a stakeholder believes the project should be
terminated. More information needs to be gathered from the stakeholder to understand what lead them to that
conclusion.
D Hold a meeting with the stakeholder

Incorrect. You will definitely need to meet with the stakeholder to get more information about why the stakeholder
feels that the project no longer makes any business sense and should be terminated. However, the first thing to be
done in this situation is capturing this issue in the issue log. Then, you can meet with the stakeholder, collect the
information, and update the issue with the information for further investigation and decision making.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 532, 536
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is leading a project in which quality will be a primary focus. Since only high-level requirements were
known at the beginning of the project, the scope will be evolving as the project work is carried out. To accommodate this
approach, an agile framework has been selected.
What is the best course of action for the project manager to ensure that the effectiveness of the quality process is
reviewed throughout the project life cycle?
A Assess quality management process as part of the project retrospective
B Include a quality review with each iteration retrospective
C Discuss quality during each daily standup meeting
D Include a quality section in the lessons learned register
Hint:
When are lessons learned recorded in an agile project?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Agile methods call for frequent quality and review steps built in throughout the project rather than just at the end of the
project. Recurring retrospectives regularly check on the effectiveness of the quality processes. They look for the root
cause of issues then suggest trials of new approaches to improve quality. Subsequent retrospectives evaluate any trial
processes to determine if they are working and should be continued, adjusted, or dropped from use. Therefore, of the
choices provided, to ensure that the effectiveness of the quality process is reviewed throughout the project life cycle,
including a quality review with each iteration retrospective is the best course of action for the project manager.
A Assess quality management process as part of the project retrospective
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The project retrospective is a reviewOnline
scheduled at- the
Courses PMPend ofSimulator
Exam the project to record lessons learned. The
question is asking how the effectiveness of the quality process can be reviewed throughout the project rather than
just at the conclusion of the project.
B Include a quality review with each iteration retrospective

Correct. An iteration retrospective is a scheduled review to record lessons learned at the end of each iteration.
Recurring retrospectives regularly check on the effectiveness of the quality process.
C Discuss quality during each daily standup meeting

Incorrect. A daily standup meeting is a brief timeboxed meeting in which the development team describes what
they have accomplished since the last stand up meeting, what they plan to achieve before the next standup
meeting, and any impediments to progress. Any discussion beyond those topics is beyond the scope of a daily
standup meeting.
D Include a quality section in the lessons learned register

Incorrect. While including a quality section in the lessons learned register is not a bad idea, this represents a
reactive measure. Just setting aside a designated section in the lessons learned register would not ensure that the
quality process is regularly reviewed.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 276
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is leading a large and complex project. During the execution stage, a serious problem occurs that
could threaten the successful completion of the project. The project manager checks the risk register and discovers that
this risk was not previously identified.
With the project at risk, what should the project manager do first?
A Execute the contingency plan
B Reevaluate the process of identifying project risks
D Create a workaround
Hint:
What should the project manager do when there are no response plans to a realized risk?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question suggests that the project manager was trying to carry out the Implement Risk Responses process.
However, the problem described in the scenario represents a previously unidentified risk which now threatens the
successful completion of the project. Since the risk was not previously identified, no response plans exist. The immediate
concern of the project manager should be to create a plan to address the realized risk that now threatens the project.
Workarounds are responses to problems that develop while the project is being worked that were never identified.
Ideally, when a new risk arises that has not been identified during project planning, several risk management processes
should be triggered to identify the risk, evaluate the risk, and develop an appropriate response. However, this option is
not provided as an answer choice. Therefore, of the available choices, the project manager should first create a
workaround to address the problem which threatens the project. Note, risks that have not been identified during project
planning are considered unknown-unknowns and should be addressed using management reserves. However, this
answer choice is not provided either.
While the topic of this question, workaround, is not included in the PMBOK® Guide, the Project Management
Professional (PMP)® Examination Content Outline, June 2015, covers cross-cutting knowledge and skills, such as
problem-solving tools and techniques, with which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar.
A Execute the contingency plan

Incorrect. During project planning, potential risks are identified that could pose a significant threat to the project if
they occur. Contingency plans are developed around those possible issues, and they are completed before the
threat takes place. The question states that the realized risk was not previously identified. Therefore, a contingency
plan does not exist.
B Reevaluate the process of identifying project risks

Incorrect. The question indicates that a significant risk has occurred which was not identified during project
planning. This situation suggests that there were deficiencies in the Identify Risks process to have missed a risk
which threatens the successful completion of the project. Although the deficiencies in the Identify Risks process
should be reviewed, this is not the first activity that should be undertaken. The issue which threatens the project
should be addressed first as this should be the immediate concern of the project manager.

Incorrect. As part of project planning, potential risks are identified that could pose a significant threat to the project.
Contingency plans (also known as fallback plans) are developed around those possible issues, and they are
completed before the threat takes place. The question states that the realized risk was not identified previously.
Therefore, a contingency or fallback plan does not exist.
D Create a workaround
Correct. Workarounds are responses to problems that develop while the project is being worked that were never
identified. The project manager should first create a workaround to address the problem which threatens the
project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 450, 439, 445; see also
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project manager leading your team to develop the stakeholder engagement plan for a software development
project.
Which of the following enterprise environmental factors might influence this process?
A Templates
B Lessons learned repository
C Software tools
D Stakeholder risk appetites
Hint:
Three answer choices represent organizational process assets rather than enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question states that the stakeholder engagement plan is being created which implies that the Plan Stakeholder
Engagement process is being performed. Stakeholder risk appetites can affect how stakeholders are engaged, and
stakeholder risk appetites are among the enterprise environmental factors that may influence the Plan Stakeholder
Engagement process. Of the available choices, only stakeholder risk appetites are considered solely as an enterprise
environment factor. All of the incorrect answer choices are examples of organizational process assets.
A Templates
Incorrect. A template may be used to develop the stakeholder engagement plan. However, templates are
considered organizational process assets and not enterprise environmental factors. Therefore, this answer choice
can be eliminated.
B Lessons learned repository

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The lessons learned repository may Online
have information
Courses - PMPabout
Exam the preferences, actions, and involvement of
Simulator
stakeholders. The lessons learned repository is considered an organizational process asset and not an enterprise
environmental factor, making it an incorrect response.
C Software tools
Incorrect. Software tools is not the best choice since it cannot solely be categorized as an enterprise environmental
factor. It may be used to support effective stakeholder engagement, as such software tools is also considered as
organizational process assets.
D Stakeholder risk appetites

Correct. Stakeholder risk appetites can influence how stakeholders are engaged. Stakeholder risk appetites are
among the enterprise environmental factors that may influence the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 519-520
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A new project manager is put in charge of a small project.
Which of the following choices represents the correct sequence of actions the project manager should take before project
execution starts?
A Perform stakeholder analysis, create stakeholder register, resolve issues raised by stakeholders
B Define Scope, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
C Plan Stakeholder Engagement, create power/interest grid, perform Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D Create the project charter, create stakeholder register, inform stakeholders of the approved project charter
Hint:
Communication is a critical skill of a project manager.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The sequence 'create the project charter, create stakeholder register, inform stakeholders of the approved project
charter' is the only option with the correct action sequence before project execution starts. It is important that the project
manager informs the stakeholders of the project charter once it is approved and before moving into planning processes
in order to ensure a common understanding of the key deliverables, milestones, and the roles and responsibilities of all
those involved in and impacted by the project.
A Perform stakeholder analysis, create stakeholder register, resolve issues raised by stakeholders
Incorrect. Although the sequence is correct, stakeholder issues are typically resolved as part of project execution in
the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process. Since the question requires a sequence of activities before project
execution starts, this choice is an incorrect answer.
B Define Scope, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The Collect Requirements process precedes the Define
Online Courses Scope
- PMP Exam process, making this sequence incorrect.
Simulator
C Plan Stakeholder Engagement, create power/interest grid, perform Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Incorrect. The creation of the power/interest grid is a done as part of the Identify Stakeholders process and is not
created after the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Additionally, Manage Stakeholder Engagement is an
executing process, while the question is asking to select a sequence that is completed before project execution
starts. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
D Create the project charter, create stakeholder register, inform stakeholders of the approved project charter
Correct. The first project management process is Develop Project Charter, followed by the Identify Stakeholders
process. Once the project charter is authorized, the stakeholders should be made aware of the approved project
charter before project planning begins to ensure all those impacted by the project understand the project
deliverables, milestones, and their roles and responsibilities.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81, 561
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
In the closure meeting for the first of four phases, you report that the project was delayed due to resource constraints.
You mention that you identified this threat as a project risk during project planning and then, during project execution,
successfully implemented the response planned for that risk.
Which of the following should you update to ensure the information about this risk is available for review on future
phases?
A Lesson learned repository
B Project closure documents
D Result transition document
Hint:
What project document is finalized to include final information on a phase?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the scenario, you are in the Close Project or Phase process. Updates to project documents, such as the
lessons learned register, are an output of this process. The project manager should ensure that all project documents are
updated and marked as final version as a result of project or phase closure. The lessons learned register is finalized to
include final information on phase closure. The final lessons learned register would include information on risk
management, such as identified risks and effective risk response plans. In future phases, the lessons learned register is
reviewed to determine whether similar risks might recur during the remainder of the project and how best to address
those risks by implementing responses that successfully worked in previous phases.
A Lesson learned repository
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The lessons learned repository includes the
Online final lessons
Courses learned
- PMP Exam for a completed project or phase. You
Simulator
are currently at the end of a phase and will update your lessons learned in the lessons learned register. One may
argue that at the end of a project or phase, the information is transferred to an organizational process asset called
a lessons learned repository, making this answer choice equally correct, on par with the lessons learned register.
However, if we compare the two, as long as the project/phase is not yet closed (which is the case in this scenario
that indicates that you are conducting a closure meeting for the first phase of the project), the lessons learned are
captured in the register. Only after the project/phase is formally closed, the lessons learned are transferred to the
repository. The reason being is that lessons can also be learned during project closure, so it is still beneficial to
record them in the lessons learned register before transferring them to the lessons learned repository. While
preparing for and taking the exam, when two answer choices look equally correct, always select the best choice of
those provided, even if it looks only slightly better than the other.
B Project closure documents

Incorrect. Project or phase closure documents consist of formal documentation that indicates completion of the
project or phase. Project or phase closure documents do not include information about risks and how they were
handled.

Correct. The lesson learned register is a project document which is updated throughout the course of the project
and as part of the Close Project or Phase process to include final information on a project or phase. The final
lesson learned register should include information on risks identified and the effective response plans from current
phases, so the information is available for future phases.
D Result transition document

Incorrect. ‘Result transition document’ is a made-up term.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 127
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
All requirements on a project were collected in detail during project planning, and the scope, cost, and schedule of the
project were well-defined. Despite this fact, due to several issues that have been encountered and logged during project
execution, there has been a significant increase in the number of changes requested by the client.
How should the project manager handle this situation?
Hint:
Distinguish the difference between an issue and a change request.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
During the monitoring and controlling processes, issues arise which may spur proposed changes. The issues are first
recorded in the issue log. If after review of the issue log it is determined a change request is required, then the change
request is logged in the change log, and the change request goes through the Perform Integrated Change Control
process. Change requests may modify project policies or procedures, project or product scope, project cost or budget,
project schedule, or quality of the project or product results. The project manager should document all issues in the issue
log and all change requests in the change log. The question reads, "...issues that have been encountered and logged
during project execution..." This means the issues have been captured in the issue log. Therefore, among the choices
given, documenting the change requests in the change log is the best answer to the question asked.
Note, it may be a good idea to document the fact described in the scenario that there has been a significant increase in
the number of changes requested by the client. This situation should be documented as an issue in the issue log for
further investigation, and a recommendation of a corrective action that can later be documented in the lessons learned
register to be used during the remainder of the current project or on future projects. However, this option is not provided
among the answer choices.
log.
log.
Incorrect. Issues are captured in the issue log, change requests - in the change log.

Correct. Change requests are captured in the change log. Among the choices provided, this response best
addresses the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96, 120
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is currently in the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and
requirements. Due to the sensitive nature of the project, there is a concern that some stakeholders will not provide
candid feedback unless confidentiality is maintained.
What is the project manager's best course of action?
Hint:
Which data gathering technique is best to elicit confidential information?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question suggests that the project manager is performing the Collect Requirements process, which is the process of
determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. In support of
this process, the project manager will need to employ data gathering techniques to elicit feedback from the stakeholders
to determine their needs and requirements. The question suggests that the project manager needs to use a data
gathering technique where the responses will remain confidential. An interview is a formal or informal approach to elicit
information from stakeholders by talking to them directly. Of the available choices, conducting interviews is the best tool
for the project manager to use to obtain confidential information.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Brainstorming can be used during the Collect
Online Requirements
Courses process to generate and collect multiple
ideas related to project requirements. Brainstorming is conducted in a group setting; therefore, based on the
sensitive nature of the project described in the scenario, the project manager will not likely gather candid feedback
from the stakeholders in this situation.

Correct. An interview is a formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them
directly. Interviews can be useful for obtaining confidential information.
Incorrect. A focus group can be used to learn about stakeholder expectations and attitudes about a project.
However, a focus group is conducted in a group setting which does not maintain the confidentiality of participant
responses. Therefore, this is not the best answer choice of the available options.
Incorrect. Multicriteria decision analysis is a decision-making technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a
systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate
and rank many ideas. Multicriteria decision analysis is not a data gathering technique and, therefore, is not a
method of gathering requirements from stakeholders.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 142
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A recently completed project cost more and took longer than it should have. A root cause analysis was performed, and it
was determined that the cost of quality exceeded what was optimal. Apparently, the quality management plan included
extensive and very costly testing to ensure that there were zero escaped defects in the product.
What might have prevented this situation?
A Conducting a sensitivity analysis
B A more thorough stakeholder analysis
C Performing a cost-benefit analysis
D Including a SWOT analysis
Hint:
What tool or technique associated with the Plan Quality Management process can be used to determine the optimal cost
of quality?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The optimal cost of quality is one that reflects the appropriate balance for investing in the cost of prevention and
appraisal to avoid failure costs. A cost-benefit analysis can be used to determine the point where investing in additional
prevention/appraisal costs is neither beneficial nor cost-effective. A cost-benefit analysis of each quality activity
compares the cost of the quality step to the expected benefits. This analysis can help the project manager determine if
the planned quality activities are cost-effective. Therefore, performing a cost-benefit analysis could have determined that
doing extensive testing to ensure zero escaped defects in the product would have caused the project to be over budget
and behind schedule and, therefore, might have prevented the problem from occurring.
A Conducting a sensitivity analysis
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is an analysis technique to determine
Online Courses which
- PMP Exam individual project risks or other sources
Simulator
of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project outcomes
with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model. Sensitivity analysis is not typically performed
during the Plan Quality Management process, nor is it useful in determining the optimal cost of quality.
B A more thorough stakeholder analysis

Incorrect. Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative
information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project. Stakeholder analysis
is unlikely to help in determining the optimal cost of quality.
C Performing a cost-benefit analysis

Correct. A cost-benefit analysis of each quality activity compares the cost of the quality step to the expected
benefits. A cost-benefit analysis will help the project manager determine if the planned quality activities are cost-
effective. Performing a cost-benefit analysis may have prevented the problem described in the scenario from
occurring.
D Including a SWOT analysis

Incorrect. SWOT analysis is useful for analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an
organization, project, or option. However, a SWOT analysis does not specifically compare costs to the benefits
received, as would have been required to prevent excessing testing.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 282
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project team has examined the degree of variance relative to the scope baseline. The project manager needs to know
if the variance has been improving or deteriorating as the project has progressed.
Hint:
What data analysis technique examines project performance over time?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question insinuates that the project team is performing the Control Scope process. Data analysis techniques used
during the Control Scope process include variance analysis and trend analysis. Trend analysis examines project
performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating. Trend analysis is the best tool or
technique for the project manager to use based on the description provided by the question, and this is what the project
manager should do next.

baseline and actual performance, but it does not examine project performance over time to see if it has been
improving or deteriorating.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Product analysis is a tool used to define scope.
Online Product
Courses analysis
- PMP Exam does not provide information regarding
Simulator
project performance.

Incorrect. Schedule network analysis is a technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late
finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project activities. Schedule network analysis is not useful in
determining project performance over time.

Correct. Trend analysis is a data analysis technique which examines project performance over time to determine if
performance is improving or deteriorating.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 170
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project requires the coordination of several vendors to produce the project deliverables. The new project manager
wants to ensure that the project continues without disruption from the change in project leadership and would like to
understand what communication technology and methods are being used in the project.
A Look in the project management plan
B Refer to the stakeholder engagement plan
C Speak with the company's communications manager
D Examine the procurement management plan
Hint:
Where might one find the communications management plan?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The communications management plan is the component of the project management plan that describes how, when, and
by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. Communication methods and
communication technology are among the tools and techniques that are used during the Manage Communications
process, and this type of information is included in the communications management plan. Note that the better answer to
the question asked is to review the communications management plan; however, that option is not listed among the
answer choices. Therefore, since the communications management plan is a component of the project management
plan, of the options presented, looking into the project management plan is the best answer to the question asked.
A Look in the project management plan
13/12/2018 Correct. The communications management plan is the
Online component
Courses of the
- PMP Exam project management plan that describes
Simulator
how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. Information such as
communication methods and technology should be included in the communications management plan. Therefore,
to understand what communication technology and methods are being used in the project, the project manager
should look into the project management plan.
B Refer to the stakeholder engagement plan

Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement plan is the component of the project management plan that identifies the
strategies and actions required to promote the productive involvement of stakeholders in project decision making
and execution. The stakeholder engagement plan does not specify what communication technology and methods
are being used in the project.
C Speak with the company's communications manager

Incorrect. The company's communications manager may or may not have some information regarding the project's
communications methods and technology. However, the project manager should use the resources that are readily
available which contain detailed information on the requested topic.
D Examine the procurement management plan

Incorrect. The procurement management plan is the component of the project or program management plan that
describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization. Even
though the question mentions that there are several vendors involved in the project and presumably these vendors
will be included in some of the communications, the procurement management plan does not specify what
communication technology and methods are being used in the project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 377, 379, 381, 383
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A company must decide between renovating an existing building or constructing a new one. Each approach would
require an initial investment of $250,000. The renovation has a payback period of 2.5 years whereas the new
construction has a payback period of 4.5 years. Your company president would need to make the final decision.
All else being equal, which approach should you recommend as the better investment?
A The construction of a new office building
B The renovation of the current office building
C There is not enough information to make a decision
D Both options are equal since the initial investment is the same
Hint:
What is the risk of having funds invested?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The payback period refers to the period of time required to recoup the funds expended in an investment or to reach the
break-even point. The shorter the payback period, the more attractive the project because the money is free to be used
elsewhere. In this scenario, renovating the current office building is the better investment because it has a shorter
payback period than building a new office building. Therefore, provided everything else is the same for both projects, the
full renovation of the current office building should be the approach you recommend.
A The construction of a new office building

Incorrect. A payback period is an estimate of the time it takes to recover the initial investment in a project. By
constructing a new office building, the company's funds invested in the construction would not be available for two
years longer than renovating the current office building. Therefore, constructing a new office building would not be
the better investment.
B The renovation of the current office building
Correct. A payback period is an estimate of the time it takes to recover the initial investment in a project. By
renovating the current office building, the company would recover their initial investment quicker, allowing them, for
example, to make other investments with the money sooner than the alternative, making the full renovation of the
current office building the better investment.
C There is not enough information to make a decision

Incorrect. All things being equal, one factor, the payback period, is different between the two options. Therefore,
the decision can be made in favor of the one that has a shorter payback period.
D Both options are equal since the initial investment is the same
Incorrect. By considering only the initial investment, the opportunity cost of the recouped money is not taken into
account. Renovating the existing building would be the better investment because it frees up money tied up in the
construction project in less time than building a new office building.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 34
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a project for a restaurant chain to reduce the average time a customer spends in the drive-through lanes.
As part of the development of the project charter, you compare your company's drive-through processes to three
competitors with the fastest drive-through lanes.
What technique are you using in this scenario?
A Brainstorming
B Questionnaires
C Focus groups
D Benchmarking
Hint:
A data-gathering technique used to compare actual processes to comparable organizations considered to be 'best in
class'.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Benchmarking involves comparing your processes to those of comparable organizations considered to be 'best in class'
and use the information to improve performance. While benchmarking is a data-gathering technique, it is not listed in the
PMBOK® Guide as one of the techniques used in the Develop Project Charter process described in the scenario.
However, the PMBOK® Guide lists the data-gathering techniques for the process and clarifies that the techniques
include, 'but are not limited' to brainstorming, focus groups, and interviews. In the scenario, you are managing a project
to find reasons for your slower drive-through lane times and propose a solution. By comparing your company's drive-
through lane processes to other fast food restaurants that have faster drive-through lanes, you can most likely find
reasons for your slower drive-through lane times.
A Brainstorming
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Brainstorming is a data-gathering technique used -to
Online Courses identify
PMP Exam a list of ideas in a short amount of time. It is
Simulator
conducted in a group environment. Brainstorming can be used to gather data or ideas from stakeholders when
developing the project charter. In this scenario, however, you compare actual processes to those of comparable
organizations. This process is the definition of benchmarking, not brainstorming.
B Questionnaires
Incorrect. Questionnaires are written sets of questions designed to quickly accumulate information from a large
number of respondents. The scenario does not mention written questions.
C Focus groups
Incorrect. Focus groups bring together stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations
for a project. While focus groups are a data-gathering technique that can be used in the Develop Project Charter
process, the scenario indicates you are doing the work alone.
D Benchmarking
Correct. Benchmarking involves comparing your processes to those of comparable organizations considered to be
'best in class' and use the information to improve performance. By comparing your company's drive-through lane
processes to other fast food restaurants that have faster drive-through lanes, you can generate ideas for high-level
requirements to be included in the project charter.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 143, 80
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is developing a plan that will describe how project communications will be planned, implemented, and
monitored.
What else should be included in this plan?
A Strategies and actions needed to involve stakeholders in decision making
B A list of potential risk responses
C Constraints derived from specific regulations, technology, or organizational policies
D Project team roles and responsibilities
Hint:
The project manager is working on the communications management plan.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario implies that the project manager is working on the communications management plan which describes the
way communications will be planned, structured, implemented, and monitored for effectiveness. The question is
essentially asking to select the answer choice which represents some of the information that should be included in the
communications management plan. Constraints such as organizational policies regarding the use of social media,
regulations related to confidential information, or the availability and reliability of certain types of technology will affect
how project communications are managed and, therefore, would be included in the communications management plan.
A Strategies and actions needed to involve stakeholders in decision making

Incorrect. Strategies and actions needed to involve stakeholders in decision making are described in the
stakeholder engagement plan. In the scenario, the project manager is working on the communications
management plan which outlines how communications will be handled, not how stakeholders will be engaged.
B
13/12/2018 A list of potential risk responses Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The scenario suggests that the project manager is developing the communications management plan,
which describes how communications will be handled during the project. A list of potential risk responses is
included in the risk register, not the communications management plan.
C Constraints derived from specific regulations, technology, or organizational policies

Correct. In the scenario, the project manager is working on the communications management plan. Constraints
such as organizational policies regarding the use of social media, regulations related to confidential information, or
the availability and reliability of certain types of technology will affect the way communication is planned and
implemented. These constraints will be included in the communications management plan.
D Project team roles and responsibilities

Incorrect. Project team roles and responsibilities are typically included in the resource management plan. In this
scenario, the project manager is working on the communications management plan not the resource management
plan.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 377
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have been a member of several project meetings to discuss high-level items for your next project. Some of the items
that have been documented are a project description, a summary milestone schedule, and a list of stakeholders.
What document will result from these meetings?
Hint:
What document contains high-level information?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter contains a great deal of information mostly at a high-level. It is used as an input to the various
management plans where the information becomes more detailed and specific. The project charter should be authored
by the sponsoring entity. Ideally, the project manager is identified early and able to participate in the development of the
project charter to obtain a foundational understanding of the project requirements. This understanding will better allow for
efficient resources allocation to project activities.

Correct. The project charter formally authorizes the existence of the project and contains mostly high-level
information.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder management plan isOnline
a subsidiary
Courses - plan of theSimulator
PMP Exam project management plan and identifies
the management strategies required to effectively engage stakeholders.

Incorrect. The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed,
monitored, and controlled.

Incorrect. The schedule management plan is a subsidiary of the project management plan that establishes the
criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project to redesign a website has gone through several rounds of usability testing with customers and has finally
received formal acceptance of the deliverables. To close out the project, the project manager gathers the key
stakeholders in a room to demonstrate the website before it goes live.
What is the project manager seeking to gain from this demonstration?
A Obtaining formal acceptance of project deliverables from stakeholders
B Verification of the redesign deliverables
C Confirmation that the product scope and deliverables were achieved
D Feedback for design improvements
Hint:
A necessary action to satisfy project completion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario implies the project has entered its final stage, closure, where processes of the Closing Process Group are
performed. To adequately complete and close a project, it is necessary for the project manager to obtain 'confirmation'
from the customer that the project deliverables have been formally accepted. 'Confirming' the acceptance of the project
deliverables during the Close Project or Phase process is different from 'obtaining' formal acceptance of the deliverables
during the Validate Scope process. This is a subtle distinction, and many PMP aspirants struggle with this concept.
Based on the feedback from people who took and passed their exam, the Closing Domain was frequently the most
challenging, and their marks were either at or below target. Therefore, we recommend taking extra time to study topics
related to project closure.
This question is a good example of what you will see on your real exam – two answer choices arguably being correct
answers. The main lesson to take from this question is to be ready during the real exam to face ambiguous questions
with answer choices extremely close to one another and always select the answer choice you think is the best of those
provided. It will not always be the ideal answer or the answer you would like to see as the correct one, but it should be
better than the others. Unfortunately, on the real exam, you will never know the actual correct answer to a particular
question. You will only see your final result and will be unable to contact the PMI and argue with them on the correctness
of their
13/12/2018 answers. Therefore, the best advice we can provide you while
Online Courses - PMPyou areSimulator
Exam preparing for and taking your exam is to
make reasonable assumptions based on all available information in the scenario and, of the choices given, select the
‘best’ answer to the question asked.
A Obtaining formal acceptance of project deliverables from stakeholders

Incorrect. While this answer choice sounds like a plausible option, the formal acceptance of project deliverables
should be obtained from the customer, not from the stakeholders. Additionally, the process of 'obtaining' the formal
acceptance happens prior to project closure, as part of the Validate Scope process. The Close Project or Phase
process described in the scenario is concerned with 'confirming' the delivery and formal acceptance not with
'obtaining' formal acceptance.
B Verification of the redesign deliverables

Incorrect. Verified deliverables are produced during project execution as an output of the Control Quality process
and then used as input into the Validate Scope process. The question states the project manager is seeking to
close out the project implying the project is in closure. Verification of the redesign deliverables would have already
taken place.
C Confirmation that the product scope and deliverables were achieved

Correct. An action necessary to satisfy completion of a project is obtaining final acceptance of deliverables by the
customer. In this scenario, the project manager is fulfilling this requirement by showcasing the final redesign that
has already received formal acceptance during the Validate Scope process.
D Feedback for design improvements

Incorrect. Obtaining feedback for design improvements would have occurred prior to performing closing processes,
and therefore this answer choice is not the correct answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 123
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The quality management plan specifies the use of a data representation technique to show the strength of relationships
between four factors.
Which of the following tools or techniques should be used to comply with the plan?
A Affinity diagram
B Matrix diagram
C Scatter diagram
D Quality diagram
Hint:
This diagram organizes factors into rows and columns.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships among factors, causes, and objectives that exist between
the rows and columns that form the matrix. Depending on how many factors may be compared, the project manager can
use different shapes of matrix diagrams; for example, L, T, Y, X, C, and roof-shaped. An X-shaped matrix can display four
factors for comparison which is what required by the question, making the matrix diagram the best answer of those
provided.
A Affinity diagram
Incorrect. An affinity diagram can be used to organize potential causes of defects (factors) into groups showing
areas that should be focused on the most. However, the affinity diagram does not show the strength of the
relationships between the factors. Therefore, this is not the correct answer.
B Matrix diagram
13/12/2018 Correct. A matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships
Online Courses - PMP Examamong factors, causes, and objectives that
Simulator
exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix. For example, an X-shaped matrix can display four
factors for comparison and is, therefore, the best tool to use in the scenario described.
C Scatter diagram
Incorrect. A scatter diagram is a graph that shows the relationship between two variables. Whereas, the question
specifies that four factors are being compared, making this an incorrect response.
D Quality diagram
Incorrect. A 'quality diagram' is a made-up term.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 293, 284; see also
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As you execute the quality management plan for a project to develop a new autopilot feature for a vehicle, you have
created the diagram below, which compares the vehicle speed with uncommanded lane departures.
What can be said about this diagram?
A Affinity diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures
B Scatter diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures
C Affinity diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures
D Scatter diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures
Hint:
The diagram presented by the question is a graph that shows the relationship between two variables.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question
13/12/2018 states that the project manager is executing
Online the quality
Courses management
- PMP plan, which indicates that the Manage
Exam Simulator
Quality process is being performed. A scatter diagram is a data representation technique that may be used during the
Manage Quality process. A scatter diagram, as presented in the question, is a graph that shows the relationship between
two variables. The diagram shown in the question demonstrates very close proximity between the data points and the
trendline, which indicates a strong correlation between the two variables. Therefore, we can surmise that the defect rate
(lane departures) increases as speed increases.
A Affinity diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures
Incorrect. An affinity diagram organizes potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be
focused on the most. The diagram presented by the question shows the relationship between two variables.
Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
B Scatter diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures
Correct. The diagram presented by the question is a scatter diagram. This diagram demonstrates very close
proximity between the data points and the trendline, which indicates a strong correlation between the two
variables.
C Affinity diagram, which shows a strong correlation between the speed and lane departures
Incorrect. The diagram from the question shows the relationship between two variables. An affinity diagram
organizes potential causes of defects into groups showing areas that should be focused on the most, making this
an incorrect response.
D Scatter diagram, which shows a weak correlation between the speed and lane departures
Incorrect. The diagram demonstrates very close proximity between the data points and the trendline, which
indicates a strong, not weak, correlation between the two variables. Therefore, this response is incorrect.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 293
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As part of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, the project manager has just finalized the stakeholder
engagement plan.
A Create the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
B Submit a change request to update the project management plan
C Create the stakeholder register
D Finalize the project management plan and have it approved
Hint:
The stakeholder engagement plan is the only output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The stakeholder engagement plan is the only output from the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Once the
stakeholder engagement plan has been completed, the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process is complete. With some
exceptions, there are no strict guidelines on when chronologically each planning process should take place. However,
typically, Plan Stakeholder Engagement is the last process of the Planning Process Group to be performed. Thus, of the
choices provided, finalizing the project management plan and having it approved is the most logical next step for the
project manager to take and is, therefore, the best answer to the question asked. The other choices represent actions
that would have been completed previously or are unnecessary at this point in the project.
A Create the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a matrix that compares current and desired
stakeholder engagement levels. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a data representation
technique that is used to create the stakeholder engagement plan. Since the stakeholder engagement plan has
13/12/2018 just been finalized in this scenario, creating theOnline
stakeholder
Courses -engagement assessment matrix is not what should be
PMP Exam Simulator
done next.
B Submit a change request to update the project management plan

Incorrect. The question indicates that project planning is still underway with the stakeholder engagement plan
having just been finalized. A change request is not required until the project management plan is finalized and
approved. Therefore, this is an incorrect response.
C Create the stakeholder register

Incorrect. The stakeholder register is created as a result of the Identify Stakeholders process which is part of the
Initiating Process Group. The stakeholder register is then used as an input to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement
process. Therefore, the stakeholder register would have been created previously in this scenario, making this an
incorrect answer choice.
D Finalize the project management plan and have it approved

Correct. The stakeholder engagement plan is the only output from the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.
While with some exceptions, there is no strict order of the sequence in which the planning processes are executed,
Plan Stakeholder Engagement is typically the last process of the Planning Process Group to be carried out.
Therefore, once the stakeholder engagement plan has been finalized, the next step of the answer choices
provided is to complete the project management plan and have it approved.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 522
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project team is reviewing proposals submitted by several qualified different vendors. One project team member
suggests selecting the vendor with the lowest cost since the project is over budget. Another project team member is
advocating for the vendor with the most expertise since quality is an important factor.
What is the best course of action for the project manager?
A Review the source selection criteria
B Select the lowest cost vendor
C Review the requirements traceability matrix
D Select the vendor with the most expertise
Hint:
What document should the project manager review first?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question implies the project team is performing the Conduct Procurements process. The
source selection criteria is an output of the Plan Procurement Management process which then becomes an input to the
Conduct Procurements process. The project manager should understand the established selection criteria before making
a decision regarding a vendor.
A Review the source selection criteria

Correct. The source selection criteria should be used to rate or score the seller proposals.
B Select the lowest cost vendor

Incorrect. The cost is just one factor that should be considered.
C
13/12/2018 Review the requirements traceability matrix Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix is a document that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them. Unlike the requirements traceability matrix, the source selection criteria describe the
criteria which will be used to evaluate bidder proposals.
D Select the vendor with the most expertise

Incorrect. The expertise of the vendor is just one factor that should be considered.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 485
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are managing a project to develop a new instrument. During planning, the number of design reviews was reduced.
This reduction in design reviews allowed a lower project budget and a shorter timeline. The analyzer has been
transitioned to operations, and unfortunately the support costs are significantly higher than expected as several field
modifications on the instrument are being performed.
What could you have done differently to help avoid this situation?
Hint:
Project Cost Management should consider more than the costs to complete project activities.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Project Cost Management should consider the effect of project decisions on the subsequent recurring cost of using,
maintaining, and supporting the product resulting from the project. In the scenario described, the number of design
reviews was limited allowing for a lower budget and a shorter timeline. However, the subsequent support costs are higher
than anticipated and could be a result of the reduction in the number of design reviews. Therefore, if you had considered
the impact of fewer project design reviews before deciding to reduce them, perhaps the higher support costs could have
been avoided.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Generally, the earlier errors are identified
Onlinein the project;
Courses the less
- PMP Exam expensive they are to correct. However,
Simulator
limiting the number of design reviews will not 'always' increase a product's operating costs. When choosing
answers, try to avoid options that contain absolutes, such as always, all, never, and none.
Correct. As the project manager, you are primarily concerned with the costs required to complete project activities.
However, Project Cost Management should also consider the effect of project decisions, such as limiting the
number of design reviews, on the subsequent recurring cost of using, maintaining, and supporting the product.
Generally, problems detected earlier in a project are less expensive to correct. The decision and impact of limiting
the number of design reviews should have been given greater attention and consideration by the team.

Incorrect. The scenario described does not include any information on the transition process, only that the support
costs are higher than anticipated. The higher support costs alone is not enough information to determine the
transition to operations was problematic; therefore, this is not the best answer to the question asked.
Incorrect. As the project manager, your primary concern is the cost of resources to complete project activities.
However, project decisions, such as limiting the number of design reviews, can affect the costs realized after
transitioning the product to operations or support. The effect on future recurring costs should be considered when
making project decisions. Therefore, this is not the best answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 233
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
On a project where drywall work is about to be performed, the weather forecast suggests that it will be too cold for the
drywall mud to dry properly. The risk response plan calls for the use of large portable propane heaters to maintain the
required temperature. You want to find out how successful this response was on previous projects.
What should you do?
A Examine the organizational process assets
B Check in the lessons learned register
C Consult with those who worked on previous projects
D Review the risk response repository
Hint:
Where can you find a store of historical information about the lessons learned from past projects?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question suggests that the Implement Risk Responses process is being performed. The lessons learned repository
is the input to the Implement Risk Responses process which serves as a store of historical information about lessons
learned from past projects. The lessons learned repository is an organizational process asset. Ideally, the best answer to
the question asked would be to review the lessons learned repository, but that option is not listed among the choices.
Therefore, of the available options, reviewing the organizational process assets, which contains the lessons learned
repository, is the best way to learn about the effectiveness of a particular response plan from previous projects, assuming
the response was documented.
A Examine the organizational process assets
13/12/2018 Correct. The lessons learned repository is an organizational
Online Courses - process
PMP Examasset that serves as a store of historical
Simulator
information about lessons learned from past projects. If the heaters were used on those projects, the information
about their effectiveness would have been recorded in the lessons learned repository.
B Check in the lessons learned register

that it can be used in the current project. The lessons learned register does not have information on past projects
as asked by the question.
C Consult with those who worked on previous projects

Incorrect. While those who worked on previous projects (if they are still around and accessible) may have the
knowledge you are looking for, their opinion may not have the whole spectrum of information reflecting the
effectiveness of particular risk response.
D Review the risk response repository

Incorrect. 'Risk response repository' is a made-up term.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 450
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You and your team are currently developing the stakeholder engagement plan. A project team member has already
created the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix below.
Which answer choice represents the most important element to be included in the stakeholder engagement plan?
A A plan to improve Marie Smith's engagement level
B An engagement level improvement plan for Todd Young
C A strategy to address the engagement level of John Snow
D A strategy to improve the engagement level of Tonya Stewart
Hint:
Which engagement level suggests that the stakeholder is vital to the project success?
Correct
13/12/2018 Answer: D Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Explanation:
A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix supports comparison between the current (C) engagement levels of
stakeholders and the desired (D) engagement levels required for successful project delivery. Tonya Stewart has been
identified as currently resistant to the project with a goal of having this stakeholder be a project leader. This stakeholder
has the widest gap between the current state and desired state. Additionally, the fact that the desired state is to have this
person with a leading engagement level suggests her commitment to the success of the project is vital. Therefore, of the
available choices, the most important element to include in the stakeholder engagement plan is a strategy to improve the
engagement level of Tonya Stewart.
A A plan to improve Marie Smith's engagement level

Incorrect. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix indicates that the engagement level of Marie Smith is
currently at the desired level. Therefore, it is not necessary to include a plan to improve this stakeholder's
engagement level.
B An engagement level improvement plan for Todd Young

Incorrect. Todd Young is currently supportive of the project with the desired level of neutral. Therefore, there is no
reason to develop a plan to improve this stakeholder's level of engagement at this point in the project.
C A strategy to address the engagement level of John Snow

Incorrect. John Snow is currently unaware of the project with the goal of having him at least neutral on the project.
Although the stakeholder engagement plan should address this stakeholder's engagement level, the fact that the
project only needs him to be neutral suggests that his involvement will not be a critical factor in the success of the
project. Therefore, of the available choices, this is not the best answer.
D A strategy to improve the engagement level of Tonya Stewart

Correct. Tonya Stewart has been identified as currently resistant to the project with the desired engagement level
with a goal of having this stakeholder be a project leader. This stakeholder has the widest gap between the current
state and the desired state. Additionally, the fact that the desired state is to have this person with a leading
engagement level suggests her commitment to the success of the project is vital.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 521-522
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
According to the original plan, the first two activities (Select Site and Negotiate Lease) should have been 100% complete,
and the third activity (Perform Civil Works) should have been 50% complete at this point in the project. However, only the
first two activities have been completed, and no work has been done on the third activity.
Assuming that the future cost performance will remain the same for the remainder of the project's duration, what would
be the project's forecasted EAC?
A $54,167
B $78,313
C $65,000
D $77,000
Hint:
The formula for EAC when CPI is expected to remain the same is EAC = BAC / CPI.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question is asking for the estimate at completion (EAC) for the project if the cost performance is not expected to
change. Therefore, the correct formula to use in this case is estimate at completion (EAC) = budget at completion (BAC)
divided by cost performance index (CPI), or EAC = BAC / CPI. The project's BAC is the sum of the planned values of
each project activity which is presented in the chart as $65,000. The CPI is calculated by taking the earned value (EV)
divided by the actual cost (AC). The EV is the sum of the earned values for each activity and can be calculated by
multiplying the planned value (PV) by the percentage complete.
EV for
13/12/2018 activity #1 (Select Site) = PV x % complete = $5,000 x 100%
Online Courses = $5,000
EV for activity #2 (Negotiate Lease) = PV x % complete = $5,000 x 100% = $5,000
Total EV = EV for activity #1 + EV for activity #2 = $5,000 + $5,000 = $10,000
AC is the sum of the actual costs for each activity = $6,000 + $6,000 = $12,000.
CPI can now be calculated from EV / AC = $10,000 / $12,000 = 0.83 (rounded to two digits)
Plugging in the values in the EAC formula provides EAC = BAC / CPI = $65,000 / 0.83 = $78,313
Note: Depending on how the answer for the CPI calculation is rounded, the EAC may change slightly. On the actual
exam, the PMP aspirant should choose the answer that is the closest to the value calculated, as a slight discrepancy
may be explained as a difference in rounding.
One may argue, that no rounding is required if the formulas are used in a different way. For example, using simple
mathematical manipulations, the EAC can be expressed as:
EAC = BAC / CPI = BAC / (EV / AC) = BAC * AC / EV = 65,000 * 12,000 / 10,000 = 780,000,000 / 10,000 = $78,000
This result, $78,000, is not reflected by any answer choice. However, as noted above, select the answer choice that is
the closest to the value calculated. Of the choices available, $78,313 is still the closest value and is, therefore, the best
A $54,167
Incorrect. This answer choice represents a miscalculation of the estimate at completion. If the numerator and
denominator used in the calculation of the cost performance index (CPI) are transposed, the result is $54,167.
B $78,313
Correct. The correct formula to use in this case is estimate at completion (EAC) = budget at completion (BAC)
divided by cost performance index (CPI). The CPI is calculated as earned value (EV) divided by actual cost (AC).
The CPI is $10,000 / $12,000 = 0.83. The EAC can now be calculated as EAC = BAC / CPI = $65,000 / 0.83 =
$78,313.
C $65,000
Incorrect. This answer choice represents the budget at completion (BAC) rather than the estimate at completion
(EAC).
D $77,000
Incorrect. This answer choice represents the sum of the budget at completion (BAC) and the actual costs (AC) for
the project rather than the estimate at completion (EAC).
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 263-265; see also
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A senior officer has asked you to manage the development of a new product that the company has found to be
economically feasible. You prepare a document outlining the key project objectives, high-level requirements, high-level
project and product descriptions, and present it to a committee of senior officers for approval to start the project.
Which of the following documents describes the document that was written?
A Business case
B Project charter
C Project scope statement
D Strategic business management plan
Hint:
The document provides a project manager with the authority to proceed with the project.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The PMBOK® Guide defines a project charter as "the document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally
authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to provide organizational
resources to project activities." The charter authorizes both the project and the project manager, and at a high-level,
ensures a joint understanding by the stakeholders of the key deliverables, milestones, and the roles and responsibilities
of everyone involved in the project. The document described in the scenario is approved by a committee of senior
officers resulting in a document that authorizes the project and the project manager and provides high-level information
on what the project is intended to satisfy. Therefore, the document is best described as a project charter.
A Business case
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The business case documents the economic feasibility
Online Courses studySimulator
- PMP Exam of the proposed project and provides
information from a business perspective to determine whether the expected outcomes of the project justify the
required investment. The question states that the company has found the project to be economically feasible.
Therefore, the business case has already been developed, making this choice an incorrect answer.
B Project charter
Correct. The project charter is the document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the
project manager with the authority to proceed with the project. The project charter documents high-level
information on the project and on the product, service, or result the project is intended to satisfy. Based on the
scenario described, the document has the same information as the project charter, making project charter the best
C Project scope statement

Incorrect. The project scope statement describes the deliverables of a project in detail as well as documenting
assumptions and constraints. In the scenario, the document you have written describes project objectives, high-
level requirements, and high-level project and product descriptions. A fundamental characteristic of the project
charter is that the descriptions are high-level whereas the project scope statement gives detailed descriptions.
Another reason to eliminate this answer choice is that the question describes a project in very early stages, likely
initiation, whereas the project scope statement is developed during project planning.
D Strategic business management plan

Incorrect. 'Strategic business management plan' is a made-up term not specified in the PMBOK® Guide.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 75-77, 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is currently using data analysis techniques to develop work performance information to compare the
work performed so far against the project schedule.
Which of the following processes is the project manager currently carrying out?
A Control Schedule
B Estimate Activity Durations
C Develop Schedule
Hint:
Which is a process that should be performed throughout the project to maintain the schedule baseline?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Various data analysis techniques, such as earned value analysis, iteration burndown chart, trend analysis, etc. are used
in the Control Schedule process to conduct a comparison of work performed to the project schedule. Work performance
information, which is an output of the Control Schedule process, includes information on how the project work is
performing compared to the schedule baseline. In the scenario provided, the project manager is using data analysis
techniques to develop work performance information to compare the work performed so far against the project schedule.
These activities are best described by the Control Schedule process.
A Control Schedule
Correct. Control Schedule is the process that involves using various tools and techniques, such as data analysis
described in the question, to monitor the project performance, to update and manage the project schedule and the
schedule baseline.
B
13/12/2018 Estimate Activity Durations Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Estimate Activity Durations is the process of estimating the amount of time needed to complete individual
activities with the estimated resources. Based on the scenario described, the project is in execution implying that
the Estimate Activity Durations process has already been completed.
C Develop Schedule
Incorrect. Develop Schedule is the process involved in creating the project schedule model for project execution,
and monitoring and controlling. The question implies that this has already taken place since the work performed so
far will be compared to the schedule.

Incorrect. Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the resources needed and the type and
quantities of material, equipment, and supplies required to complete the project work. The question describes a
process that compares work performed to the project schedule which is not what is done during the Estimate
Activity Resources process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 222, 226-228
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have just been assigned to a project with a tight deadline. The preapproved financial resources have already been
established for the project, but you have not been authorized to spend any money.
A Since the project has a tight deadline, begin work on project activities that do not incur costs
B Begin planning the project but do not start project execution until authorized
C Spend the money as necessary since an assigned project manager has authority over preapproved financial
resources
D Have the project sponsor sign the charter
Hint:
The project charter provides a project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question states that pre-approved financial resources have already been established, but you, as the project
manager, have not been authorized to spend any money on the project. This situation suggests that the project charter
has been created but has yet to be approved. An approved project charter is required to provide a project manager with
the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. By having the project sponsor sign the project
sponsor, you will then have the authority to begin work on project activities. Therefore, of the available choices, you
should first have the project sponsor sign the project charter.
A Since the project has a tight deadline, begin work on project activities that do not incur costs
Incorrect. An approved project charter provides a project manager with the authority to apply organizational
resources to project activities. Organizational resources include, but are not limited to, funds or money. The project
charter should be approved before work begins on project activities.
B
13/12/2018 Begin planning the project but do not start project execution
Online Courses - until authorized
PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A project manager should have an approved project charter for authorization to apply organizational
resources before work begins on project activities. These activities include project planning. Therefore, project
planning should not begin until the project has been formally authorized.
C Spend the money as necessary since an assigned project manager has authority over preapproved financial
resources
Incorrect. An approved project charter provides a project manager with the authority to apply organizational
resources to project activities. A project manager can be assigned to a project before the project charter has been
approved.
D Have the project sponsor sign the charter

Correct. An approved project charter is required to provide a project manager with the authority to apply
organizational resources to project activities.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 81
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are managing a project with a team of junior engineers. You understand that a high-performance team will increase
the likelihood of meeting project objectives. To grow a successful project team, you implement activities such as training
and team building.
Which of the following will help you the most to evaluate the effectiveness of your efforts to develop a successful team?
A The team charter
B Team performance assessments
C Project performance assessments
D Individual and team assessments
Hint:
You want to evaluate how well the team is performing as a whole giving you insight into how to improve their
effectiveness.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Team building activities are tools used to develop a project team that will work together interdependently and
cooperatively to accomplish the project work. A successful team needs to work well together and be effective. By
conducting evaluations of the team's overall performance, the project manager can identify specific training, coaching,
mentoring, or changes required to improve the team's performance. This is done by team performance assessments.
A The team charter

Incorrect. A team charter is a document that establishes the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines for
the team. It can aid in team building but does not evaluate how well the team is performing on the project.
B Team performance assessments

13/12/2018 Correct. Team performance assessments are an output
Online of the
Courses Develop
- PMP Team process. As a result of conducting an
Exam Simulator
evaluation of the team's overall performance, the project manager can identify the specific training, coaching,
mentoring, assistance, or changes required to improve the team's performance.
C Project performance assessments

Incorrect. Project performance assessments is a made up term for this question.
D Individual and team assessments

Incorrect. Individual and team assessments are a tool used in the Develop Team process. Various tools are
available such as attitudinal surveys, structured interviews, and ability tests. These tools can assist with team
building, but will not evaluate how well the team is performing on the project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 343
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
One of your developers resigned, which caused the project to fall behind schedule. Fortunately, you have a new
developer starting next week. You are preparing for an important meeting with key stakeholders at the end of the week,
and you strongly believe that you can bring the project back on track within the next three weeks. However, if you report
that the project is behind schedule, you are concerned that the project may be canceled and your reputation damaged.
What will you do?
A Report that the project is currently behind schedule
B Cancel the meeting and reschedule it in three weeks when the project should be back on schedule
C Leave the schedule information out of the report and only provide it if asked
D Report that you are confident that the project will be completed on time
Hint:
What does the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct say about the value of honesty?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario describes a situation in which you, as the project manager, must decide if and when to disclose potentially
damaging information about project performance. At a minimum, you must accurately report that the project is currently
behind schedule. This information is vital to the progress of the project and should be disclosed to the stakeholders. The
PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct states, "We provide accurate information in a timely manner." Withholding,
delaying, or minimizing the significance of project status is inconsistent with the value of honesty outlined in the PMI
Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. In addition to reporting the current status of the project schedule, it would be
entirely appropriate to express your belief that you are confident in your ability to complete the project on time supported
by relevant facts. However, first of all, you must report that the project is currently behind schedule.
A Report that the project is currently behind schedule

13/12/2018 Correct. At a minimum, you must accurately report
Onlinethat the project
Courses is currently
- PMP Exam Simulatorbehind schedule. This information is
vital to the progress of the project and should be disclosed to the stakeholders in order for them to make informed
decisions. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct states, "We provide accurate information in a timely
manner."
B Cancel the meeting and reschedule it in three weeks when the project should be back on schedule
Incorrect. Cancelling and rescheduling the meeting in order to avoid reporting bad news is essentially withholding
important information from the key stakeholders. Withholding information is inconsistent with the aspirational
standard of honesty stated in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Additionally, it is only your belief
(no matter how strong it is) that you can bring the project back on track within the next three weeks. If you
reschedule the meeting and still don't meet the schedule, the implications for the company and your reputation
could be even more severe.
C Leave the schedule information out of the report and only provide it if asked
Incorrect. Avoiding the disclosure of important information is inconsistent with the aspirational standard of honesty
stated in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, "We provide accurate information in a timely manner."
D Report that you are confident that the project will be completed on time
Incorrect. While reporting that you are confident that the project will be completed on time may be appropriate, it is
also incomplete. You must also report that the project is currently behind schedule. Failing to report the current
status of the project is withholding important information from the stakeholders which is inconsistent with the
aspirational standard of honesty stated in the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 3; see also The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, Honesty
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Following is a table containing information about the activity durations in days and predecessor activities on a project
schedule.
What is the critical path?

Hint:
Determine network paths using the critical path method and calculate their durations.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The critical path is the sequence of activities that represents the longest path on a project, which also represents the
shortest possible duration of a project. Given the details of each activity's predecessor in the activity list shown, you can
use the precedence diagramming method to create a project schedule network diagram as shown below. The durations
from the activity list table included in the question are mapped to each activity node.
With practice, you can save time by just listing the paths that exist for the activities on the project. Following are paths for
this scenario with the sum of their durations.
Now that you know each of the project schedule network paths and their respective lengths, determining the critical path
is easy since you simply select the longest path. In the scenario provided, the longest path is Start-D-E-F-G-Finish with a
length of 17 days, making it the critical path.
Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you incorrectly sequenced the tasks for the project schedule
network diagram. Start-A-D-G-I-Finish is not a valid path given the predecessors in the activity list shown.
Incorrect. You may have chosen this if you picked the first path to draw on the project schedule network diagram,
or if you chose the path with neither the longest nor the shortest duration. But that does not define the critical path.
Correct. This path is the longest in duration. Therefore, it represents the critical path, making this choice the best
Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you picked the shortest path. But the critical path is the longest in
duration.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 210-211; see also PMI® Practice Standard for Scheduling – Second Edition
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Which of the following best describes interviews when they are used as part of the Plan Quality Management process?
A Should be conducted in an environment of trust and confidentiality
B Useful for comparing the project's quality standards to those of comparable projects
C Can be used to gather data creatively from a group of participants
D Will be helpful in determining if planned quality activities are cost-effective
Hint:
What is the best way to encourage honest and unbiased contributions?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Interviews are an example of a data gathering technique that can be used during the Plan Quality Management process
to collect project and product quality needs and expectations. Project and product quality needs and expectations,
implicit and explicit, formal and informal, can be identified by interviewing experienced project participants, stakeholders,
and subject matter experts. Interviews should be conducted in an environment of trust and confidentiality to encourage
honest and unbiased contributions. The incorrect answer choices describe characteristics of other tools and techniques
associated with the Plan Quality Management process.
Note, interviews should be conducted in an environment of trust and confidentiality regardless of the process in which
they are to be used.
A Should be conducted in an environment of trust and confidentiality

Correct. Interviews should be conducted in an environment of trust and confidentiality to encourage honest and
unbiased contributions.
B Useful for comparing the project's quality standards to those of comparable projects
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Benchmarking, not interviews, involves comparing
Online the project's
Courses - PMP quality standards to those of comparable
Exam Simulator
projects to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis for measuring performance.
C Can be used to gather data creatively from a group of participants

Incorrect. Brainstorming, rather than interviews, can be used to gather data creatively from a group of team
members or subject matter experts.
D Will be helpful in determining if planned quality activities are cost-effective

Incorrect. A cost-benefit analysis, as opposed to interviews, will help the project manager determine if the planned
quality activities are cost-effective.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 281-282
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project has a fixed cost and schedule but has some flexibility in terms of scope. A request for proposal (RFP) is sent
to a list of potential sellers. The RFP discloses the intent of the company to select the highest-ranking technical proposal
within the stated budget. Because the sellers are subject to a cost constraint, they will have to adapt the scope and
quality of their offer to that budget.
Which source selection method is the most appropriate for this situation?
A Least cost
B Fixed budget
C Quality and cost-based
D Qualifications only
Hint:
What is the most appropriate selection method when costs are fixed?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question describes a situation where the cost of a procurement contract is fixed. The fixed-budget method can be
used when the cost is fixed, and the vendors will compete for the contract based on scope and quality. The fixed-budget
method requires disclosing the available budget to the invited sellers in the RFP and selecting the highest-ranking
technical proposal within the stated budget. Of the possible choices, a fixed budget is the most appropriate method to
use with a fixed cost procurement.
A Least cost
Incorrect. The least cost method may be appropriate for procurements of a standard or routine nature, which can
be executed at different costs. The question states that the cost is fixed and therefore this answer choice can be
eliminated.
B Fixed budget
Correct. The fixed-budget method can be used when the cost is fixed, and the vendors will compete for the
contract based on scope and quality. The fixed-budget method requires disclosing the available budget to the
invited sellers in the RFP and selecting the highest-ranking technical proposal within the stated budget.
C Quality and cost-based

Incorrect. The quality and cost-based method will allow cost to be included as a factor in the seller selection
process. The question states that the cost will be fixed, and therefore cost is not a differentiating factor in the
selection process.
D Qualifications only
Incorrect. The qualifications only selection method applies when the time and cost of a full selection process would
not make sense because the value of the procurement is relatively small. There is not enough information in the
question to determine the value of the procurement. Therefore, it is unclear if qualifications only are the most
appropriate source selection method for this situation.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 473-474
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
While performing monitoring and controlling activities, the project manager discovers inconsistencies between the project
management plan and the project's actual performance. She now needs to determine corrective actions to minimize the
impact of the inconsistencies on the project.
In what project document would she have documented the inconsistencies and would look at to review them?
A Quality report
B Change log
C Assumption log
D Issue log
Hint:
What are inconsistencies?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Inconsistencies are also known as issues. An issue log is a record of problems, gaps, inconsistencies, and conflicts that
require action, so they do not impact project performance. In this scenario, the project manager would have logged the
inconsistencies in the issue log, which she would then review to perform corrective action. The other answer choices can
be eliminated because inconsistencies are not changes or assumptions, and a quality report is an output of the Manage
Quality process, while the scenario states the project manager is performing monitoring and controlling activities.
A Quality report
Incorrect. Quality reports provide information that can be used by other processes and departments to take
corrective actions in order to achieve the project quality expectations. Quality reports are an output of the Manage
Quality process which belongs to the Executing Process Group, while the scenario states that the project manager
is performing monitoring and controlling activities. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
B
13/12/2018 Change log Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A change log is a comprehensive list of change requests submitted during the project and their current
status. The disposition of all change requests is recorded in the change log as a project document update. The
scenario describes inconsistencies (or 'issues') and not change requests, and therefore the change log is an
incorrect answer.
C Assumption log
Incorrect. An assumption log is first created as part of the Develop Project Charter process as a project document
used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle. Inconsistencies are not
assumptions, making this answer choice incorrect.
D Issue log
Correct. The issue log is a project document where all the issues are recorded and tracked. The issue log will help
the project manager effectively track and manage issues, ensuring that they are investigated and resolved. The
issue log is updated as a result of monitoring and controlling activities throughout the project's life cycle. Therefore,
the issue log is the document where the project manager would have documented the inconsistencies (or 'issues')
and would look at to review them, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
In the middle of the project to build an e-commerce website, the customer asks the project manager to create a mobile
application in addition to the website. This opportunity was identified by the project sponsor early in the project, and then
discussed, and documented by the project team during project planning.
A Ask the team to begin work on the mobile application
B Implement the risk response plan as specified in the risk register
C Discuss the opportunity with the project sponsor
D Submit a change request to expand the project scope
Hint:
Risks may include threats as well as opportunities.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
It is important to remember that risks may include threats as well as opportunities. Therefore, to make sure an
organization takes advantage of opportunities, the project should be planned in a way that the opportunities are
maximized when they arise. Implement Risk Responses, which is the process the project manager is about to carry out
in the scenario described, ensures that agreed-upon risk responses are executed as planned in order to address overall
project risk exposure, minimize individual project threats, and maximize individual project opportunities. The question
states that the opportunity described by the question was identified and analyzed during project planning, which suggests
it was recorded in the risk register. The risk register will contain the agreed-upon risk response plan (both threats and
opportunities) for each individual risk along with the risk owner. The response plan might include submitting a change
request to take advantage of the opportunity as an element. Therefore, of the available choices, a review of the risk
register and the implementation of the risk response plan is what should be done next.
One may argue that submitting a change request is a better answer choice. Well, indeed, this could be a plausible
correct answer since the scope baseline will have to be updated to reflect the scope change. This question is a good
example of what you will see on your real exam – two answer choices which could be equally correct. Both submitting a
change request and reviewing the risk register and implementing the risk response plan are plausible next steps a
project manager could take in this situation. We have selected reviewing the risk register just because we could not mark 1/2
https://www.project-management-prepcast.com/index.php?option=com_joomla_lms&task=show_quiz&id=6&quiz_id=124&Itemid=1248&tmpl=quiz
two choices
13/12/2018 being correct answers. The main lessonOnline
to take from -this
Courses PMP question is to be ready during the real exam to
Exam Simulator
face ambiguous questions with answer choices extremely close to one another and always select the answer choice you
think is the best of those provided. It will not always be the ideal answer or the answer you would like to see as the
correct one, but it should be better than the others. Unfortunately, on the real exam, you will never know what the actual
correct answer to a particular question was. You will only see your final result and will be unable to contact the PMI to
argue with them on the correctness of their answers. Therefore, the best advice we can provide you while you are
preparing for and taking your exam is to make reasonable assumptions based on all available information in the scenario
and, of the choices given, select the ‘best’ answer to the question asked.
A Ask the team to begin work on the mobile application

Incorrect. This action is premature as several steps need to be taken before the project team can begin work on
the mobile application. Specifically, the risk register must be reviewed, risk owner notified, implementation of the
risk response, and submission and approval of a change request. Therefore, asking the project team to begin work
on the mobile application is not what should be done next in this scenario.
B Implement the risk response plan as specified in the risk register

Correct. The question states that the opportunity described by the question was identified and addressed during
project planning, which suggests it was recorded in the risk register. The risk register will contain the agreed-upon
risk response plan (both threats and opportunities) for each individual risk along with the risk owner. Therefore, of
the available options, a review of the risk register and implementation of the risk response plan is what should be
done next.
C Discuss the opportunity with the project sponsor

Incorrect. The fact that the opportunity has been identified by the project sponsor does not imply that discussing
the opportunity with the project sponsor should be done next. It is not known from the question what involvement
will be required by the project sponsor. Relevant information such as the roles and responsibilities for risk
responses is contained in the risk register. Therefore, the risk register should be reviewed first followed by the
implementation of the agreed-upon risk response plan (which may or may not include discussions with the project
sponsor). While it is reasonable to assume that the project sponsor will have to be notified about this important
opportunity at some point, the question is asking to select the ‘next’ step to be taken in this situation. Discussing
the opportunity with the project sponsor is not what should be done next.
D Submit a change request to expand the project scope

Incorrect. The submission and approval of a change request will be necessary if the project scope is expanded, i.e.
the scope baseline is modified, to take advantage of the opportunity described by the question. However, the
relevant information from the risk register should be reviewed first followed by the implementation of the agreed-
upon response plan. The response plan may include the submission of a change request as an element.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 449-450
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project team is in the process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs and
expectations. In support of this process, the project team is consulting individuals with specialized knowledge of the
process the team is carrying out.
Which of the following provides the least value to the team to complete the process?
A Knowledge from previous projects of the characteristics of stakeholders
B Expertise in the claims administration process
C Familiarity with the politics and power structures in the organization
D Expertise in the means of communication and strategies
Hint:
Which form of expert judgment is not used during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The question implies that the project team is carrying out the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process to develop the
stakeholder engagement plan. In addition, the scenario states that the team is consulting with individuals that have
specialized knowledge, suggesting the team is using expert judgment. Expert judgment is one of the tools and
techniques that may be used during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Claims administration is associated with
the Control Procurements process and not the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Therefore, expertise in the claims
administration process provides the least value to the team in completing the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process,
thus making expertise in the claims administration process the best answer to the question asked.
A Knowledge from previous projects of the characteristics of stakeholders

Incorrect. Knowledge from previous projects of the characteristics of stakeholders should be considered during the
Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Therefore, this answer choice can be eliminated.
13/12/2018
B Expertise in the claims administration processOnline Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Correct. Claims administration is associated with the Control Procurements process and not the Plan Stakeholder
Engagement process. Therefore, expertise in the claims administration process provides the least value in this
scenario, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
C Familiarity with the politics and power structures in the organization

Incorrect. Expertise in the politics and power structures in the organization may be helpful with the development of
the stakeholder engagement plan, making this an incorrect response.
D Expertise in the means of communication and strategies

Incorrect. Expertise in the means of communication and strategies should be considered during the development
of the stakeholder engagement plan. Thus, this answer is incorrect.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 520
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a research and development project where knowledge in specific areas is essential to project success.
You want to understand what knowledge your team possesses as a group and what knowledge is missing.
What should you do?
A Review the resource breakdown structure
B Examine the project knowledge register
C Review the lessons learned repository
D Check project management information system
Hint:
Which of the following is an input to the Manage Project Knowledge process?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the scenario, you are performing the Manage Project Knowledge process. The resource breakdown
structure is one of the inputs to this process. The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of
resources by category and type. This document includes information on the composition of the team and may help
understand what knowledge is available as a group and what knowledge is missing.
A Review the resource breakdown structure

Correct. The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type. This
document includes information on the composition of the team and may help understand what knowledge is
available as a group and what knowledge is missing, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
B Examine the project knowledge register

Incorrect. 'The project knowledge register' is a made-up term.
C
13/12/2018 Review the lessons learned repository Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The lessons learned repository is a store of historical information about lessons learned from projects. It
is unlikely that this document will specify what knowledge your current team possesses (either individually or as a
group).
D Check project management information system

Incorrect. The project management information system (PMIS) is a set of tools and techniques used to gather,
integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. The PMIS does not contain information
on team members and the knowledge they have.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 101
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A senior project manager is in the process of developing the change management plan for a bridge construction project.
One of the project team members assisting with the planning of the project has only worked on agile projects and is not
familiar with how the change management process is handled in a project with a traditional waterfall framework.
What might the senior project manager state regarding the purpose of developing a change management plan?
A To avoid gold plating by developers during project execution
B To prevent changes from occurring on the project
C To provide direction for managing the change control process
D To streamline the approval of all change requests
Hint:
In addition to establishing the roles and responsibilities of the change control board (CCB), what else does the change
management plan provide?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The change management plan is created as part of the Develop Project Management Plan process. While a change
management plan may not even be used for agile projects, it is a critical component when utilizing a traditional waterfall
framework. The purpose of a change management plan is that it provides direction for managing the change control
process and documents the roles and responsibilities of the change control board (CCB).
A To avoid gold plating by developers during project execution

Incorrect. Gold plating can be described as the addition of features or functionality that is not included in the project
scope without following the established change control process. For example, a software developer might create
additional functionality that was not requested by the customer but which the developer believes would provide
extra benefit to the customer. Gold plating can occur on a project with or without a change management plan
13/12/2018 because the developer, in this example, does not even
Online submit
Courses a change
- PMP request to add the functionality. Since gold
Exam Simulator
plating occurs outside of the change control process, a change management plan is not likely to prevent gold
plating.
B To prevent changes from occurring on the project

Incorrect. One purpose of a change management plan is to prevent 'unnecessary' changes from occurring on the
project. It is not realistic, or in the best interest of the project, to try and prevent any changes from occurring on
projects.
C To provide direction for managing the change control process

documents the roles and responsibilities of the change control board (CCB).
D To streamline the approval of all change requests

Incorrect. Effective change control on projects means avoiding unnecessary changes to projects. Some change
requests may be denied or deferred in the best interest of achieving the project objectives. Approving all changes
requests does not represent an effective change control system.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 88, 116
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is performing quality assurance. After producing ten units for product testing, three of the units fail to
achieve performance requirements.
Hint:
The correct answer is an input to the Manage Quality process.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The quality management plan defines the acceptable level of project and product quality and describes how to ensure
this level of quality in its deliverables and processes. The quality management plan also describes what to do with
nonconforming products and what corrective action to implement. Therefore, reviewing the quality management plan is
what the project manager should do next.
Correct. The quality management plan will provide guidance to determine what to do with the nonconforming
products and what action to implement.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The question states that the project is in the
Online execution
Courses - PMP stage which indicates that project planning,
Exam Simulator
including the Plan Quality Management process, has already been completed. Therefore, this answer choice can
be eliminated.
Incorrect. The risk report is used in the Manage Quality process to identify sources of overall project risk and the
most important drivers of overall risk exposure that can impact the quality objectives of the project. The risk report
does not provide guidance on how to handle nonconforming products, making this an incorrect response.

Incorrect. A change request may be required to repair the defective deliverable. However, one must first determine
the appropriate corrective action to take with a nonconforming product, which may or may not include defect repair.
Therefore, this is not the best answer of the available options.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 290
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The specifications call for a component to be 4.5 mm in thickness with specification limits set at 4 mm and 5 mm
respectively. After producing the first batch, the thickness of the parts is measured and recorded on a control chart.
Based on the chart below, what can be said about this process?
Hint:
4.2 mm and 4.8 mm represent the upper and lower control limits for this process.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Control charts are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance. Upper and lower
specification limits are based on the requirements and reflect the maximum, and minimum values allowed. Upper and
lower control limits are different from specification limits. The control limits are determined using standard statistical
calculations and principles to establish the natural capability for a stable process. The project manager and appropriate
stakeholders may use the control limits to identify points at which corrective action should be taken to prevent
performance that remains outside the control limits. In this scenario, one of the parts has a thickness of 4.1 mm which is
below the lower control limit (LCL) of 4.2 mm; therefore, the process is out of control, and corrective action should be
taken.
While the topic of this question is only briefly mentioned in the PMBOK® Guide, the Project Management Professional
(PMP)® Examination Content Outline, June 2015, covers knowledge and skills with which PMP aspirants are expected to
be familiar. Various quality measurement tools and techniques are among these knowledge and skills.

Incorrect. The specification limits are set at 4 mm and 5 mm. However, the control limits indicated on the control
chart are set at 4.2 mm and 4.8 mm. While the thickness of all the parts meets the specification limits, the process
is out of control because one of the parts measured below the lower control limit (LCL) at 4.1 mm.
Correct. According to the chart provided in the question, the lower control limit (LCL) is set at 4.2 mm. Since one of
the parts is below the LCL with a thickness of 4.1 mm, the process is considered out of control, and corrective
action should be taken.
Incorrect. The rule of seven states that a process is considered out of control if seven consecutive data points fall
above or below the mean. In this case, the distribution around the mean of 4.5 mm appears random, and there are
not seven consecutive data points falling on one side of the mean.

Incorrect. A process is determined to be out of control if only one data point falls above the upper control limit
(UCL) or below the lower control limit (LCL). The fact that the average thickness falls within the LCL and UCL is
not relevant in determining if a process is in control.
Reference:
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project team discovered a significant safety issue in their prototype deliverable. Resolving the issue would require two
weeks of additional work. The project manager is concerned that with that timeframe, the testing lab and some team
members would already be committed to other projects.
A Review the resource requirements document for resource availability
B Ask the project sponsor for additional resources
C Check resource availability in the resource calendar
D Submit a change request to update the schedule baseline
Hint:
What project document contains information regarding resource availability?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Resource calendars document the time periods that each resource needed for the project is available for the project.
Among the available answer choices, checking the resource calendar for the availability of the testing lab and design
engineers is what the project manager should do first.
A Review the resource requirements document for resource availability

Incorrect. The resource requirements document contains the types and quantities of resources required for each
activity in a work package but does not provide insight into the availability of those resources.
B Ask the project sponsor for additional resources

Incorrect. It is not known from the information provided by the question if additional resources are needed. The
project manager should first check and see if the existing resources are available.
C Check resource availability in the resource calendar
Correct. Resource calendars document the time periods that each resource needed for the project is available for
the project. Checking the resource calendar for the availability of the testing lab and design engineers is what the
project manager should do first among the available answer choices.
D Submit a change request to update the schedule baseline

Incorrect. There is no information from the question that indicates a change request is necessary. It is possible that
a risk response already exists to address this issue without delaying the project timeline. Lacking further
information from the question, submitting a change request is a premature action.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 331
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have just taken over a project that has experienced high turnover, which has created a division in the team between
the new and original team members. You observe that the project team is exhibiting signs of frustration, and team
members are not performing to the required standards.
Your observations and investigation of the team's dynamics can best be recorded in which of the following documents?
B Resource requirements
C Team performance assessments
D Work performance information
Hint:
What is an output of the Develop Team process that provides information on the project team's effectiveness?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
While it cannot be unequivocally determined what process is described in the question, it is reasonable to assume that
the observations and investigation you performed in the scenario can help you, as a project manager, develop strategies
for improving the team performance. This information is documented as team performance assessments which are an
output of the Develop Team process. These assessments are instrumental in providing information to the project
manager as to where internal problems are impacting the team's ability to be effective. The evaluation of the team's
effectiveness may include indicators such as team member skills and competencies, the ability to perform as a team,
staff turnover, and team cohesiveness. As a result of evaluating the team's overall performance, the project manager can
identify specific training, coaching, or mentoring to improve the team's effectiveness.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Project team assignments documentOnline
rolesCourses
and responsibilities for each of the project team members. In
the scenario provided, your observations and investigation of the team describe an assessment of the project
team; not team assignments.
B Resource requirements
Incorrect. Resource requirements identify the types and quantities of resources required for each activity within the
project. The actions described in the scenario represent an assessment of your team, not an identification of
resources necessary for the project.
C Team performance assessments

Correct. Team performance assessments are the results of an informal or formal evaluation of a team's
effectiveness. In this scenario, you have determined your team has some issues that may be affecting their
performance. By documenting your findings in a team performance assessment, you can identify specific training,
coaching, or mentoring necessary to improve your team's effectiveness.
D Work performance information

Incorrect. Raw observations and measurements, also called work performance data, collected from executing
processes is analyzed in context to become work performance information. The work performance information
provides the details for monitoring and controlling processes. The scenario describes evaluation and observation
of the project team, not an analysis of work performance data.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 343
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
In light of rising fuel costs, a car manufacturer is responding to market demand by initiating a project to increase the fuel
efficiency of their cars. The company executives aim to improve the market share and profitability of the company.
In this scenario, which of the following is not one of the four fundamental categories of factors that led to the initiation of
the project?
Hint:
Which of the answer choices is not related to market demand?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that the car manufacturer is responding to market demand and does not indicate that the project
would satisfy any legal requirements. Governments sometimes regulate the fuel efficiency of cars, but the question
specifically states that the project is in response to market demand rather than government requirements. Note, the
question is asking for the answer choice which is 'not' one of the four fundamental categories of factors that led to the
initiation of the project. Therefore, meeting regulatory, legal, or social requirements is the best answer.

Correct. The question states that the car manufacturer is responding to market demand and does not indicate that
the project would satisfy any legal requirements.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. Increasing the fuel efficiency of the manufacturer's line of
Online Courses - PMP cars
Exam is an example of improving their product
Simulator
to make their cars more attractive to buyers in the marketplace.

Incorrect. The project is created in response to market demand and aims to satisfy the need of stakeholders (i.e.,
potential car buyers) who demand more fuel-efficient cars. Company stockholders and employees have a vested
interest in improving the company's market share and profitability.

Incorrect. Market demand may drive a company to change their business or technological strategies. For example,
rising fuel costs may change consumer interests to accept improved aerodynamics over styling to save fuel costs.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 9
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Your project has been in execution for one month, and you have performed earned value analysis (EVA) to determine
how the project is performing compared to the cost baseline.
Which of the following is the result of your efforts?
B Work performance reports
Hint:
Raw project data that has been analyzed in context is referred to as what?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario implies you have conducted the Control Costs process and used earned value analysis (EVA) as a tool to
determine how the project has been performing compared to the cost baseline. Work performance data such as AC, PV,
and BAC are used to generate work performance information such as cost variance (CV), the cost performance index
(CPI), or the estimated budget at completion (EAC). The resulting work performance information will assist the project
manager to determine how the project is performing compared to the cost baseline. Work performance information is
among the outputs of the Control Costs process.

Incorrect. Work performance data is the raw observations and measurements collected during the execution of
project work. The data used to produce the EVA results, such as actual costs (AC), planned value (PV), and total
budget (BAC) are examples of work performance data not work performance information.
B
13/12/2018 Work performance reports Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Work performance reports are a physical representation of the work performance information compiled in
a document. In this scenario, there is no mention of the EVA results, or work performance information being
organized into a report.

Correct. Work performance information is derived from the analysis of work performance data. In this scenario, the
work performance data such as AC, PV, and BAC are used in EVA and compared against the cost baseline to
determine if the project is performing as expected. Work performance data analyzed in context is work
performance information, making this choice the correct answer.

Incorrect. The performance measurement baseline integrates the scope, schedule, and cost baselines and is used
to determine how well the project is performing against the project plan. In the scenario described, you are
comparing work performance data to the cost baseline, i.e., you are producing work performance information, not
the performance measurement baseline.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 268, 261-263, 26
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have just been named project manager for a new company initiative. The project sponsor asks you to provide a few
ways that the work can be carried out based on your understanding of the key deliverable. Meanwhile, the project
sponsor is working on completing the project charter. In order to prepare your proposals, you would like to be aware of
project risks that may have already been identified.
Of the following choices, which would be the best document to reference?
B Statement of work
D Project charter
Hint:
While the project charter is being developed, what document is a project usually based on?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The project business case is a documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a
selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project
management activities. The project sponsor is generally accountable for the development and maintenance of the project
business case. While the project charter is being developed, known risks are usually identified and documented in the
business case. Therefore, of the choices provided, referencing the project business case would be the best answer.

Incorrect. The project scope statement describes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and
constraints. The project scope statement is created during project planning, not project initiation as described in
the scenario, making this choice an incorrect answer.
B
13/12/2018 Statement of work Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A statement of work (SOW) defines the project scope for a seller to determine if they can carry out the
prescribed work. There is not enough information in the question to determine if there is a seller on the project.
Therefore, SOW is not the best answer.

Correct. The project business case is an economic feasibility study demonstrating the benefits of a project concept
and is used as the basis for further project management activities. The business case can include additional
information, such as known risks, making the project business case the best answer.
D Project charter
Incorrect. The project charter formally authorizes a project and provides the project manager with the authority to
use company resources for project activities. According to the scenario, the project charter has not been
completed yet, therefore referencing the project charter will unlikely help you in learning about project risks to
prepare your proposals.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 30-31
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have been tasked to lead a large and high priority project for your organization. You have been pre-assigned a
number of project team members from different functional units within the organization. You are currently working on the
processes necessary to acquire goods and services needed from outside the organization. The project sponsor has
indicated that a very large number of stakeholders will be involved in the project.
In which Project Management Knowledge Area are you currently working?
A Conduct Procurements
B Project Procurement Management
C Control Procurements
D Project Stakeholder Management
Hint:
The answer involves how a project manager might obtain needed resources from outside the organization.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The definition of Project Procurement Management as specified in the PMBOK® Guide is included in the question;
however, it is surrounded by extraneous information. It is important to identify and separate information that is only
relevant to the actual question being asked. This question indicates that the project manager is working to acquire goods
and services needed from outside the organization, which is the only information relevant to the question asked.
A Conduct Procurements
Incorrect. Conduct Procurements refers to the process of selecting qualified sellers and implementing a legal
contract for the delivery of services or goods. Conduct Procurements is not a knowledge area but instead is a
process that is included in the Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area and therefore, is not the correct
answer.
B Project Procurement Management
Correct. Project Procurement Management is a set of activities that include the processes necessary to purchase
or acquire products, services, or results (or goods and services) needed from outside the project team. This
definition is included in the question and is the best answer to the question asked.
Incorrect. Control Procurements is not a knowledge area, it is a process involving procurement relationship
management, contract performance monitoring, making contract modifications as appropriate, and closing out
contracts.
D Project Stakeholder Management

Incorrect. Project Stakeholder Management is concerned with identifying the people, groups, or organizations that
could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze their expectations and impact on the project, and
developing appropriate management strategies for effectively engaging them in project decisions and execution.
Even though the project sponsor anticipates a large number of stakeholders to be involved in the project, the
activities you are currently performing are best described by the Project Procurement Management Knowledge
Area and not the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 24, 459, 717
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The director of new business development has assigned you as the project manager and other staff to work on your
team. You want to know more about the project, but all you have received so far was an email from your department
manager with little detail about the project.
In order to learn more about the project, which of the following options would be your best course of action in this
situation?
Hint:
A project manager should first seek to understand a situation.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
It is your duty as project manager to thoroughly understand the project purpose, objective, its alignment with company
strategy, and the conditions you will be operating under so that you can effectively manage the project. The director of
new business development who initiated the project appears to be the project sponsor. During project initiation, project
sponsors typically possess the most knowledge about the project. A conversation with the project sponsor would most
likely provide you with the information you need at this point to understand the project on a high level. Therefore, of the
choices provided, interviewing the director of new business development is the best course of action in this situation.
13/12/2018 Correct. Interviews, an example of a data gathering
Online technique of the
Courses - PMP Develop
Exam SimulatorProject Charter process, can be used
to obtain information on high-level requirements, assumptions or constraints, approval criteria and other
information from stakeholders by talking to them directly. Although, the question does not suggest you have
already started to develop the project charter, in this situation, since you know nearly nothing about the project, to
better understand the essence of the project, interviewing the director of new business development is the best
course of action among the choices given.

Incorrect. Brainstorming sessions are used to create new ideas for analysis in a group environment in a short
period of time. Since you know very little about the project, holding a brainstorming session with team members
would not be the best course of action nor a good use of resources at this stage of the project.

Incorrect. This answer is not the best course of action in this situation because you would need to understand
more about the project and its objectives in order to best identify those who would be impacted by the project (i.e.,
stakeholders). Identifying the stakeholders without knowing the gist of the project would be unproductive.
Incorrect. The PMO may indeed have organizational process assets (OPAs) relevant to the project. However,
OPAs alone would not provide the details about the current project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 80
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is in the execution stage of a construction project. Poor weather conditions that have hampered
progress on the project caused the project to fall behind schedule. Additionally, two of the vendors have been unable to
perform as contracted. The project manager now needs to implement the responses planned for these risks.
What tool or technique will be most valuable to the project manager in this scenario?
A Influencing to encourage risk owners to take necessary action
B Facilitation to improve the effectiveness of risk responses
C Reserve analysis to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate to implement the risk responses
D Probability and impact matrix to assess the odds that the risk responses will be successful
Hint:
Which tool or technique is most likely to be used during the Implement Risk Responses process?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question indicates that previously identified and analyzed risks have been realized, and response plans need to be
implemented, which implies that the Implement Risk Responses process needs to be performed. Some response actions
may be owned by people outside the immediate project team or who have competing demands. The project manager
may need to exercise influencing to encourage nominated risk owners to take necessary action where required. The
incorrect answer choices represent tools and techniques which are more likely to be used during other processes in the
Project Risk Management Knowledge Area. Therefore, of the available choices, influencing will be the most valuable tool
or technique to the project manager in this scenario.
A Influencing to encourage risk owners to take necessary action
13/12/2018 Correct. The question implies that the risks described in the-scenario
Online Courses PMP Examwere identified during project planning and
Simulator
appropriate response plans were developed. Since the risks have been realized, the response plans need to be
implemented. Some response actions may be owned by people outside the immediate project team or who have
competing demands. The project manager may need to exercise influencing to encourage nominated risk owners
to take necessary action where required.
B Facilitation to improve the effectiveness of risk responses

Incorrect. Facilitation is an interpersonal and team skill that is used as a tool or technique in many project
management processes. In the context of risk management, facilitation is used during the Plan Risk Responses
process to improve the effectiveness of developing risk responses. Based on the scenario described, the project is
already in execution, and the project manager is about to start the Implement Risk Responses process. Therefore,
facilitation will not be the most valuable tool for the project manager to use in this situation.
C Reserve analysis to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate to implement the risk responses
Incorrect. Reserve analysis may be used during the Monitor Risks process to determine if the remaining reserve is
adequate to address the amount of risk remaining in the project. However, the question implies that the project
manager is about to carry out the Implement Risk Responses process. Reserve analysis is not used during this
process and, therefore will not be helpful in this scenario.
D Probability and impact matrix to assess the odds that the risk responses will be successful
Incorrect. The probability and impact matrix is not used to assess the odds that risk responses will be successful.
The probability and impact matrix is a data representation technique which may be used during the Perform
Qualitative Risk Analysis process to prioritize risks for further analysis based on the probability of occurrence for
each risk and its impact on project objectives. The question implies that the risks that need to be addressed have
already been identified and analyzed, and risk responses planned. Therefore, the probability and impact matrix is
unnecessary and not the most valuable tool or technique in this situation.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 451
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
To complete the project you are leading, you will need to acquire services from several different vendors. You are
concerned that research alone may not provide enough information to develop a procurement strategy without additional
input from the potential bidders.
What tool or technique would be most helpful in this situation?
B Meetings
Hint:
Which tool or technique facilitates interaction between the buyer and potential bidders?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario implies you are carrying out the Plan Procurement Management process. Research alone may not provide
specific information to formulate a procurement strategy without additional information interchange meetings with
potential bidders. By collaborating with potential bidders, the organization purchasing the material or services may
benefit while the seller can influence a mutually beneficial approach or product. Meetings can be used to determine the
strategy for managing and monitoring the procurement. Of the available answer choices, meetings would be the most
helpful tool to gain input from potential sellers.

Incorrect. Source selection analysis provides the evaluation methods to be used to select a vendor. Source
selection criteria are communicated to the potential bidders as part of the bid documents. However, the question is
asking about gaining input ‘from’ potential bidders rather than providing information ‘to’ them.
B Meetings
Correct. Research alone may not provide specific information to formulate a procurement strategy without
additional information interchange meetings with potential bidders. Meetings can be used to determine the strategy
for managing and monitoring the procurement.
Incorrect. Bidder conferences are among the tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process, while the
scenario implies you are carrying out the Plan Procurement Management process
Incorrect. Make-or-buy analysis is the process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and
analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product. The
question states that vendors will be needed to provide services for the project. Therefore, it is apparent that the
make-or-buy decision has already been made.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 474
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
When reviewing the issue log, the project manager finds a new entry indicating that additional fencing is needed to
address ground security risks on the project. After reviewing the risk register, she finds ground security among the risks
identified during project planning. She wants to address the risk but is not sure if the project has enough funds to cover it.
Which data analysis technique can be used to make this determination?
A Technical performance analysis
B Reserve analysis
D Risk audit
Hint:
These funds are part of the cost baseline and are allocated for identified risks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
It is reasonable to assume that the scenario describes the Monitor Risks process. Reserve analysis is an example of the
data analysis technique that can be used in this process. Reserve analysis compares the amount of the contingency
reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining
reserve is adequate. The question states that the ground security risk has been identified during project planning
implying the response was planned for this risk including security fund allocation. The project manager would need to
find out if the security risk response plan included enough funds that would cover the additional fencing. This
determination can be made by performing a reserve analysis, making a reserve analysis the best answer, of the available
choices, to the question asked.
A Technical performance analysis
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Technical performance analysis compares technical
Online Courses accomplishments
- PMP Exam Simulator during project execution to the
schedule of technical achievement. Technical performance analysis is not used to determine if the project has
enough funds to cover any particular risk.
B Reserve analysis
remaining at any time in the project to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. In the scenario, the project
manager should use reserve analysis to determine if the extra fencing can be covered with the reserve security
funds.
Incorrect. 'Contingency analysis' is a made-up term.
D Risk audit
Incorrect. Risk audits are a type of audit that may be used to consider the effectiveness of the risk management
process. A risk audit is not a data analysis technique and, therefore, an incorrect answer choice.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 456
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are preparing to start the process of estimating the costs associated with your new project when a key stakeholder
calls you and asks for an estimation of project costs. You provide the stakeholder with an estimate of $1 million with a
range of $750,000 to $1.75 million and inform her that you will be able to narrow down the estimate once you are finished
with your cost analysis.
What have you provided to the stakeholder?
A Analogous estimate
B Cost baseline
C Bottom-up estimate
D ROM estimate
Hint:
What estimate is expressed as a range of -25% to +75%?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question indicates that the Estimate Costs process is just getting started. Therefore, any cost estimate will lack
precision and may need to be expressed as a wide range. The rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate provides a
range of -25% to +75% and is typically available during project initiation and early in the planning process until the range
can be narrowed once the Estimate Costs process is complete. The question provides an estimate of $1 million with a
range of $750,000 to $1.75 million, which is a range of -25% to +75% and meets the definition of the ROM estimate.
A Analogous estimate
Incorrect. Analogous estimating is a technique for estimating the cost of a project using historical data from a
similar activity or project. There is no indication from the question that the estimate was derived from a past
project.
B
13/12/2018 Cost baseline Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any
management reserves. The question indicates that the Estimate Costs process is just getting started which means
the project budget has yet to be developed. Therefore, the cost baseline can be eliminated as a correct answer
choice.
C Bottom-up estimate
Incorrect. Bottom-up estimating is a method used during the Estimate Costs process to develop a cost estimate.
This technique is used to estimate individual work packages or activities to the greatest level of specified detail. It
is unlikely when the Estimate Costs process is just getting started that the project manager will already have
estimates at the level of detail required for a bottom-up cost estimate.
D ROM estimate
Correct. A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate provides a range of -25% to +75%. The question provides an
estimate of $1 million with a range of $750,000 to $1.75 million, which is a range of -25% to +75%.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 241
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project manager reviews the issue log at the end of each day. One issue she recorded in the issue log stems from
delays in the delivery of material from a contracted supplier.
What tool should the project manager use to determine if corrective action is necessary?
A Inspection
B Audit
C Independent estimate
D Claims administration
Hint:
Think process versus product.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario suggests the Control Procurements process is underway. Audits are among the tools and techniques of this
process and are typically used to evaluate a documented procedure to ensure the procedure is being carried out
according to plan and analyzed for improvements. In this situation, an audit can be used to review the schedule for the
delivery of material per the contract. The audit results inform the project manager whether changes need to be made to
the schedule. If the seller is delinquent in delivering the material, the audit results will also allow the project manager to
determine what, if any, corrective action should be taken.
A Inspection
Incorrect. As it pertains to procurements, an inspection is a structured review of the work being performed by the
contractor. This may involve a simple review of the deliverables or an actual physical review of the work itself.
Although an inspection of work output is sometimes called an 'audit,' there is no inspection of a process. In this
case, the procurement process is audited, not inspected.
B Audit
Correct. An audit, as a tool of the Control Procurements process, is how contract performance is monitored via a
structured review of the procurement process. The project manager would conduct an audit to compare the
supplier's obligations to deliver material as outlined in the contract versus their actual performance. Results of the
audit would determine if corrective action needs to be taken.
C Independent estimate
Incorrect. An independent estimate is an estimate provided by a third party to support the prediction of cost,
schedule, or other items. An independent estimate does not evaluate a seller's performance.
D Claims administration
Incorrect. Claims administration is the process outlined in the contract on how to settle disagreements between the
buyer and seller. Claims administration is not a tool to evaluate a seller's performance.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A vendor on your project missed an important deadline and has not been responsive to quality issues. You want to
terminate the contract for cause and find another vendor to finish the work, but you learn that the vendor was paid in full
upon delivery of the materials to job site.
What could have been done differently to prevent the vendor from getting paid prematurely?
B Using a prequalified seller list
Hint:
A project with payments tied to project output and deliverables rather than inputs has better controls.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
It is essential that compensation is linked to seller's progress as defined in the contract. A principal concern when making
payments is to ensure there is a close relationship of payments made to work accomplished. A contract with terms that
require payments linked to project output and deliverables rather than inputs has better controls. Of the available
choices, using contract terms that provide regular payments as the work is completed may have prevented the situation
described by the question. More importantly, paying only for the work that has been completed would mean that even if
the contract is terminated, the remaining funds are available to pay another vendor.

Incorrect. Claims administration provides possible remedies after one or both parties have failed to meet their
contractual obligations. Therefore, this is a reactive measure and would not likely have prevented the situation
from occurring.
B
13/12/2018 Using a prequalified seller list Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A prequalified seller list is a list of potential sellers that have been previously approved. However, using a
prequalified seller list would not have prevented the vendor from being paid in full upon delivery of the materials.

Correct. It is important that compensation is linked to seller's progress as defined in the contract. A contract with
terms that require payments tied to project output and deliverables rather than inputs has better controls.

Incorrect. The contract type can undoubtedly influence seller performance. For example, a fixed price incentive fee
(FPIF) contract might contain a monetary reward for completing the work ahead of schedule. However, the contract
type doesn't address the timing of payments to the vendor.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 494
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager needs to secure a vendor to supply the avionics for a new line of small aircraft. There are only two
vendors that are capable of meeting the requirements based on the procurement statement of work, and only one of the
vendors has responded to a request for proposal (RFP). The project manager needs to evaluate the vendor’s proposal.
Which procurement document would provide a reasonableness check against the proposal submitted by the vendor?
A Bid documents
B Proxy estimates
C Independent cost estimates
D Bidder conference
Hint:
What would provide an estimate that could be used to compare with the vendor proposal?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question indicates the project manager only received one proposal. With only one proposal
it will be difficult to determine if the proposal is reasonable to produce the requirements from the procurement statement
of work. In this scenario, an independent cost estimate would be of value to compare against the proposal. The
independent cost estimate will also be helpful when conducting negotiations with the vendor.
A Bid documents
Incorrect. Bid documents are sent to the vendors so they can develop a bid response. In this scenario, the vendor
has already submitted a proposal.
B Proxy estimates
Incorrect. 'Proxy estimates' is a fake term made up for this question.
C Independent cost estimates
Correct. Independent cost estimates provide a reasonableness check against bidder proposals. This would serve
as a benchmark when evaluating proposals.
D Bidder conference
Incorrect. A bidder conference is conducted prior to the submittal of a bid or proposal. In this scenario, the vendor
has already responded to the RFP.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 485
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You have been assigned to lead the second phase of a software implementation project. You want to see what worked
well in the previous phase of the project and what can be improved.
What is your best course of action?
A Meet with the outgoing project manager
B Take a project management training class
C Review the lessons learned register
D Check the phase closure documents
Hint:
You are looking for the best answer. Where would you find information about past projects?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
All answers choices would provide you with information, techniques or knowledge that may help you improve your
chances of project success. However, as always, we are looking for the best answer of the choices available. Updates to
the lessons learned register is one of the outputs from the Close Project or Phase process and is an input to many
project management processes. The lessons learned register is a project document that contains the knowledge gained
throughout the previous project phase and learnings that you can apply for the second phase of your project. Lessons
learned register contains the information about what worked well in the previous phase of the project and what can be
improved and should be reviewed by any project manager when starting a new phase to improve chances of project
success. Therefore, of the available choices, reviewing the lessons learned register is the best answer to the question
asked.
A Meet with the outgoing project manager
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Although meeting with the outgoing manager is a -good
Online Courses idea to
PMP Exam get information relevant to the project and
Simulator
the past phase, it will only provide you feedback and perspective from one person.
B Take a project management training class

Incorrect. Taking a project management training class may help you to learn the fundamentals and practices of
project management; however, such class will not provide you with the specific information about the previous
phase of your project.
C Review the lessons learned register

Correct. The lessons learned register is a project document that contains information about risks, tools,
techniques, and learnings about past phases of the project. Reviewing the lessons learned register would help you
avoid making the same mistakes and learn from what worked well.
D Check the phase closure documents

Incorrect. The project or phase closure documents consist of formal documentation that indicates the completion of
the project or phase. Although it may be beneficial for the new project manager to review project phase closure
documents to see what deliverables were completed, it would not provide a comprehensive look at what worked
well in the last phase.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 127
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a project in a highly regulated industry to develop a new four-person aircraft for use in general aviation.
The project has a change control board (CCB) to review and decide on change requests. A key project stakeholder has
submitted a request to change the battery type from lead-acid that have been the industry standard for decades to
lithium-ion. The change is supposed to save weight without affecting the cost or schedule baselines.
What should the CCB do next?
A Approve the request since the cost or schedule baselines would not be affected
B Defer the request to consult with a regulatory affairs professional
C Reject the request since lead-acid batteries have been the industry standard for decades
D Defer the request to consult with the project team members
Hint:
How should regulatory considerations be evaluated?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Aviation, as indicated by the question, is a highly regulated industry, and It cannot be determined from the question if the
proposed change will conflict with any existing regulations. Expert judgment should be sought to understand the
regulatory implications of the proposed change. Consulting with a regulatory affairs professional is an example of expert
judgment. Therefore, of the available options, deferring the request to consult with a regulatory affairs professional is the
best answer to the question asked. Note that there are other aspects of the change which should also be considered
such as the reliability, safety, and availability of the new battery type, which are not covered by the question and are not
required to select the correct answer.
A Approve the request since the cost or schedule baselines would not be affected
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Saving weight is highly advantageous in aircraft
Online Coursesdesign especially
- PMP Exam in light of the fact that, in this scenario,
Simulator
the cost and schedule baselines will not be negatively impacted. However, aviation, as indicated in the question, is
a highly regulated industry. The request should not be approved until it can be assured that the change will not
conflict with any existing government regulations.
B Defer the request to consult with a regulatory affairs professional

Correct. Consulting with a regulatory affairs professional is an example of expert judgment. Before deciding on the
change request, expert judgment should be sought to understand the regulatory constraints regarding the battery
types.
C Reject the request since lead-acid batteries have been the industry standard for decades
Incorrect. The question states that the change would save weight which is highly advantageous in aircraft design.
Additionally, in this scenario, the change can be made without affecting the cost or schedule baselines, making this
change an attractive alternative that should be explored. The request should not be rejected just because older
technology has been used for decades.
D Defer the request to consult with the project team members

Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to determine if the project team members have the
required knowledge to understand the regulatory constraints regarding the battery types. Since there is another
answer choice that better addresses the question asked, consulting with the team members is unlikely to be the
next step for the CCB to take.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 118
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are a project manager conducting a team meeting to discuss communications management on your current project.
The project information is being managed and distributed using various tools including social media management,
electronic communications management, and electronic project management tools. These tools are used to ensure
stakeholders can easily access project information in a timely manner.
The project team is making use of which one of the tools or techniques associated with the Manage Communications
process?
B Work performance information
Hint:
Which of the choices is considered a tool or technique?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the tools and techniques associated with the Manage Communications process is the project management
information system (PMIS). The PMIS can be used to ensure that stakeholders can easily retrieve the information they
need in a timely manner. The tools associated with the PMIS include electronic project management tools, electronic
communications management, and social media management. The PMIS is the tool the team is using in this scenario.

Correct. Project management information systems (PMIS) ensure that stakeholders can easily retrieve the
information they need in a timely manner.
B
13/12/2018 Work performance information Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Work performance information is the data collected from controlling processes, analyzed in comparison
with project management plan components, project documents, and other work performance information. Work
performance information is not one of the project management tools and techniques.

Incorrect. The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes
how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. The
communications management plan is not one of the project management tools and techniques.

Incorrect. ‘Project information technology system’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 385
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As a project manager, you have a project that is running behind schedule. To bring the timeline back into alignment with
the project management plan, you need some of your project team members to work extra hours. In order to motivate
your team, you offer each team member two tickets to a popular sporting event if they work a weekend shift.
What type of power are you using in this situation?
A Managerial
B Charismatic
C Persuasive
D Reward-oriented
Hint:
What type of power is derived from the ability to provide monetary or other desired items?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
There are numerous forms of power at the project manager's disposal that can be used to achieve project objectives.
The question describes a situation where a reward is offered as an incentive for team members to work extra hours.
Reward-oriented power is derived from the ability to provide monetary or other desired items.
A Managerial
Incorrect. Managerial is a personality characteristic rather than a type of power.
B Charismatic
Incorrect. Charismatic is a leadership style and not a form of power.
C Persuasive
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Persuasive power is the ability to provide
Online arguments that
Courses - PMP move
Exam people to a desired course of action. The
Simulator
question describes a situation where a reward is being used rather than the power of persuasion.
D Reward-oriented
Correct. Reward-oriented power is derived from the ability to provide monetary or other desired items. In the
scenario described by the question, reward-oriented power is being used to motivate team members to work a
weekend shift.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 63, 341
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are managing a project and are in the process of finalizing the cost baseline.
Which of the following requires approval if it were to become a part of the cost baseline?
D Resource costs
Hint:
There are two types of reserves. Contingency reserves are used for known risks, whereas management reserves are
used for unknown risks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The key to interpreting and correctly answering this question is to notice that the question asks, "Which of the following
requires approval if it were to become a part of the cost baseline?" Initially, the cost baseline does not contain
management reserves. Management reserves are added to the cost baseline to produce the overall project budget.
However, the cost baseline does not necessarily remain static; it changes according to project conditions and approved
changes. If there is a situation that requires the use of management reserves, the change control process is used to
obtain approval to move the applicable part of management reserve into the cost baseline.
Incorrect. The cost baseline is a summation of all the estimated costs plus any contingency reserves added to
account for cost uncertainty. Contingency reserves are the budget within the cost baseline allocated for identified
risks. Therefore, they are already a part of the cost baseline and do not require approval to be added.
Correct. Management reserves are added to the cost baseline to produce the project budget. As changes requiring
the use of management reserves arise, the change control process is used to obtain approval to move the
necessary management reserve funds into the cost baseline.

Incorrect. Individual activity costs are added up into their associated work package costs. The work package costs,
along with any contingency reserves make up the cost baseline. Therefore, individual activity costs are already a
portion of the cost baseline and do not require approval to be added.
D Resource costs
Incorrect. Resource costs are included in the cost estimates document which is an output of the Estimate Costs
process. The cost baseline is the summation of the cost estimates and the contingency reserve. Therefore, the
resource costs are already included as part of the cost baseline without requiring approval to be added.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 254
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager has resigned from her position right after the execution processes of the project she managed
have been completed. You have been asked to close the project. You want to find project closure guidelines that
establish the protocols for the transfer of ownership and knowledge.
Where would you find this information?
A Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)
B Project closure register (PCR)
C Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)
D The project charter
Hint:
What can be used to execute and govern a project?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Project closure guidelines can be stipulated in company organizational process assets (OPAs). OPAs include any
artifact, practice, or knowledge from any and all of the performing organizations involved in the project that can be used
to execute or govern the project.
A Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)

Incorrect. EEFs are internal and external conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence,
constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio. The project closure guidelines are not EEFs, but the assets of
the company that the project team has access to and can use for their projects.
B Project closure register (PCR)

Incorrect. 'Project closure register' is a made-up term.
C Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)
Correct. OPAs are plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by
the performing organization. The project closure guidelines or requirements are OPAs that include, but not limited
to final project audits, project evaluations, deliverable acceptance, contract closure, resource reassignment, and
knowledge transfer. Project closure guidelines can be found among the OPAs, making this choice the best answer
to the question asked,
D The project charter

Incorrect. The project charter is a document that authorizes the project and the project manager as well provides
high-level information about the project. However, the project charter would not be the source of the information
you are looking for.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 41, 126
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are assigned to a research and development project as a project manager. Since the scope of the project cannot be
well defined, you have used a cost-reimbursable contract with a vendor to produce some of the deliverables for your
project. A recent audit has uncovered an expense that appears unrelated to your project has been submitted for payment
by the vendor.
A Share the audit results with the vendor's representative
B Proceed with claims administration
C Instruct the accounts payable department to stop all payments to the vendor
D Begin litigation to recover any funds disbursed based on fraudulent invoices
Hint:
How can you best understand the vendor's justification for the charge?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Audits are a structured review of the procurement process. Resulting audit observations should be brought to the
attention of the buyer's project manager and the seller's representative for adjustments to the project, when necessary.
Except for sharing the audit results with the vendor, all of the answer choices represent actions which are premature at
this point. The vendor may have simply charged the invoices to the wrong account, or perhaps there is some legitimate
justification for the charge that is not understood.
A Share the audit results with the vendor's representative

Correct. Audits are a structured review of the procurement process. Resulting audit observations should be
brought to the attention of the buyer's project manager and the seller's representative for adjustments to the
project, when necessary.
B
13/12/2018 Proceed with claims administration Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. It is not clear from the question if a claim is justified. You should involve the vendor to get a clear
understanding of the issue before taking any action.
C Instruct the accounts payable department to stop all payments to the vendor
Incorrect. There is not enough information in the question to determine if stopping all payments to the vendor is the
action specified in the contract to deal with situations such as the one described in the scenario. It is reasonable to
assume that it is not the case. Unless specified by the contract, stopping all payments to the vendor is an
overreaction and is unwarranted at this point. You should seek clarification from the vendor first.
D Begin litigation to recover any funds disbursed based on fraudulent invoices

Incorrect. Litigation is a premature action. The vendor may have just charged the invoice to the wrong account, or
perhaps there is some legitimate justification for the charge that is not understood. The vendor should be notified
of the audit results before taking any legal action.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is leading a process improvement project for a manufacturing company with a goal of improving the
quality of the goods produced and reducing waste. The project manager wants to take a proactive approach to
continuous improvement.
In addition to using a lessons learned register, what else might the project manager do to achieve the project goals?
A Conduct a sensitivity analysis during the Control Quality process
B Create an iteration burndown chart for the project
C Implement the Deming cycle with the project team
D Tighten the specification limits of the existing production process
Hint:
The correct answer choice is sometimes called a plan-do-check-act cycle.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question implies that the project manager is carrying out the processes of the Project Quality Management
Knowledge Area. A lessons learned register is used as an input to and an output from many of those processes. The
lessons learned register captures knowledge gained during the project so that it can be used in the current project and
entered into the lessons learned repository. According to the scenario described, in addition to using the lessons learned
register, the project manager is looking for further options to achieve the project goals of improving the quality of the
goods manufactured by the company and reducing waste produced during the manufacturing process. The Deming cycle
(also known as the plan-do-check-act cycle) takes an iterative and incremental approach to quality management which
can reduce variations in a process (such as the manufacturing process). Additionally, with reduced variations in the
goods produced, fewer of the finished goods will fall outside of the specification limits which will reduce waste from the
scrapping of rejected goods. Thus, to achieve the project objectives, of the available choices, the implementation of the
Deming cycle will have the greatest positive impact on improving quality and reducing waste and is, therefore, the best

A
13/12/2018 Conduct a sensitivity analysis during the Control Quality
Online process
Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A sensitivity analysis is an analysis technique to determine which individual project risks or other sources
of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project outcomes
with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model. Sensitivity analysis is helpful in monitoring project
risks but is not applicable to improving quality.
B Create an iteration burndown chart for the project

Incorrect. An iteration burndown chart tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog. An
iteration burndown chart is typically used to control schedule but would not be particularly useful in improving
quality. Additionally, an iteration burndown chart is created, as the name implies, for an iteration, not for a project.
C Implement the Deming cycle with the project team

Correct. The Deming cycle is also known as the plan-do-check-act cycle. The Deming cycle takes an iterative and
incremental approach to quality management which can reduce variations in a process, thus improving quality and
reducing waste.
D Tighten the specification limits of the existing production process

Incorrect. Tightening the specification limits will improve the quality of the goods produced by reducing variations
for the products that meet the higher quality standards. However, taking this action alone will increase waste as
more products will fail to meet the quality standards. The question is asking about continuous improvement and a
reduction of waste which should be addressed at the process level.
Reference:
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project experiences unexpected delays and cost overruns. The project manager compares the cost and schedule
forecasts to the project plan and determine that the scope of the project needs to be curtailed in order to meet the
deadline.
In what process did the project manager determine that the scope of the project should be reduced?
A Manage Communications
B Perform Integrated Change Control
C Control Costs
D Monitor and Control Project Work
Hint:
In what process is work performance information collected and analyzed?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Work performance data is generated in the Executing Process Group and used as an input to the control processes.
Then processes in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group generate work performance information used as an
input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Then in the Monitor and Control Project Work process, the work
performance information is analyzed and used to generate work performance reports, such as progress or status reports,
which can be used to compare the plan against actual performance. It is at this juncture, in the Monitor and Control
Project Work process, that a project manager would have the information to determine whether to cut back on the scope
to meet the cost and schedule constraints. If the decision requires a change in scope, then a change request should be
created and managed using the Perform Integrated Change Control process, and if needed, submitted to the change
control board (CCB) for a review. It will be up to the CCB whether to approve, reject, or make any other decision
regarding this change.
A
13/12/2018 Manage Communications Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The Manage Communications process describes how project information will be managed and
distributed. This process does not deal with managing project scope.
B Perform Integrated Change Control

Incorrect. If changes to scope are requested, the Perform Integrated Change Control process is where these
changes will be evaluated and either approved or rejected. However, it is the Monitor and Control Project Work
process, not the Perform Integrated Control process, where the project manager determined that the scope of the
project should be reduced.
C Control Costs
Incorrect. A large part of the Control Costs process is analyzing the spending of funds against the work being
accomplished for the expenditures. It is not the process where changes to the project's scope are evaluated.
D Monitor and Control Project Work

Correct. In the Monitor and Control Project Work process, determinations on corrective or preventive actions or
replanning are made. It is the process where work performance information is analyzed, and informed decisions
about the project are made, including the determination that scope would need to be reduced, making this choice
the best answer to the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 107
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As a project manager, you are leading a research and development project, and you always follow all project
management best practices. You have just completed project initiation, and you need to begin planning your project.
Hint:
Which of the answer choices represents an action that should occur as part of the Planning Process Group?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question states that you, as the project manager, have completed project initiation and are about to start planning
your project. The change management plan is created during the Develop Project Management Plan process which is
part of the Planning Process Group. The incorrect answer choices represent actions which should occur as part of the
project initiation or project execution. Of the available choices, only creating the change management plan is an activity
that should occur during project planning.

Correct. The question states that you, as the project manager, are about to start planning your project. The change
management plan is created during the Develop Project Management Plan process which is part of the Planning
Process Group.

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The stakeholder register is created as an output
Online Coursesof the Identify
- PMP Stakeholders process. The Identify
Exam Simulator
Stakeholders process is one of the processes included in the Initiating Process Group. According to the scenario
described, you have just completed project initiation, implying the stakeholder register has already been
developed.

Incorrect. The project charter is created and approved as part of the Develop Project Charter process which is part
of the Initiating Process Group. The question states that project initiation has been completed. Therefore, the
project charter has already been signed by the project sponsor in this scenario.

Incorrect. The issue log is first produced during the Direct and Manage Project Work process which occurs as part
of project execution. The project must be planned before it can be executed, making this choice an incorrect
answer.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 88
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a road construction project. Increasing crude oil prices have driven up the cost of asphalt for your project
by 25%. This risk was identified and analyzed during project planning with funds set aside in case the risk is realized.
The cost baseline is safe for now, but you feel additional price increases may be incurred before the project is completed.
A Perform reserve analysis
B Submit a change request to move the applicable management reserves into the cost baseline
C Notify the project sponsor of the situation
D Tap into the management reserves at your discretion if needed
Hint:
How would you determine if the remaining contingency reserves are adequate?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question indicates that an identified risk has been realized and suggests that contingency reserves were set aside
for this risk. With this identified risk now realized, some or all of the contingency reserves have been depleted. The next
logical step for you, as the project manager, is to perform a reserve analysis. Reserve analysis is an example of data
analysis tools and techniques that can be used during the Monitor Risks process described in the scenario. Reserve
analysis compares the amount of contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining at any time in the
project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. Therefore, of the available choices, performing a
reserve analysis is the best answer to the question asked.
A Perform reserve analysis
13/12/2018 Correct. Reserve analysis compares the amount of contingency
Online Courses - PMPreserves remaining to the amount of risk
Exam Simulator
remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate. Performing reserve
analysis will help you, as the project manager, to determine if any additional action is required to address the risk
of further asphalt price increases.
B Submit a change request to move the applicable management reserves into the cost baseline
Incorrect. As changes warranting the use of management reserves arise, the change control process is used to
obtain approval to move the applicable management reserve funds into the cost baseline. However, the project
manager should first perform reserve analysis to determine if the remaining contingency reserves are adequate for
the risk remaining.
C Notify the project sponsor of the situation

Incorrect. The communications management plan should provide guidance on the circumstances requiring the
notification of the project sponsor, which is not known from the question. Even if such notification is required, the
project manager should first perform reserve analysis so the project manager can provide the project sponsor with
more meaningful information.
D Tap into the management reserves at your discretion if needed

Incorrect. The project manager has direct control over the contingency reserves but not the management reserves.
An approved change request is required to move the necessary management reserve funds into the cost baseline.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 456
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During project execution, a major supplier went bankrupt due to a shortage of raw materials. After doing research and
exploring various options, the team decides to hire another supplier, even though it will raise costs. After the new supplier
delivers on contract, the team reviews project performance information to determine if the project's resource needs have
been met.
Which of the following best describes the technique being employed in this scenario?
A Root cause analysis
B Supplier analysis
C Problem solving
D Alternatives analysis
Hint:
Which technique used in the Control Resources process uses methodical steps?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the project manager is using the problem-solving technique to resolve the issue with the supplier. The
methodical steps often used in problem solving include: identifying, investigating, and analyzing the problem; choosing a
solution; and checking the solution to determine if the problem has been fixed. In the scenario, the team does research,
explores various options, selects a solution, and reviews the results. Those actions are the essence of the problem-
solving technique associated with the Control Resources process described by the scenario. While the other answer
choices do have merit, problem solving most closely describes the actions being performed in this scenario and is,
therefore, the best answer to the question asked.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Although the project team did identifyOnline
a root cause- PMP
Courses of their
Examproblem (a global shortage of raw materials),
Simulator
the project team did more than just identify root causes. The project team also identified a solution and monitored
project performance data to determine if the problem had been fixed, which more closely resembles the definition
of problem solving.
B Supplier analysis
Incorrect. 'Supplier analysis' is a made-up term.
C Problem solving
Correct. Problem solving involves taking methodical steps to deal with a problem. Those steps include: identifying,
investigating, and analyzing the problem; choosing a solution; and checking the solution to determine if the
problem has been fixed. While the other answer choices do have merit, problem solving most closely describes the
actions being performed in this scenario.
D Alternatives analysis
Incorrect. Although there is merit to this answer choice, since part of the action taken by the project team included
analyzing different options, the collective actions being described in this scenario closely match the definition of
problem solving.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 356
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project sponsor is reviewing a draft of a project charter, which was created by the project manager. The project
sponsor notices that a key element is missing from the charter.
Which of the following tasks might have the project manager overlooked during the pre-project work?
A Identification of detailed requirements
B Identification of subjective project objectives
C Identification of key deliverables
D Development of a project scope statement
Hint:
Detailed information is not yet available during project initiation.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
which PMP aspirants are expected to be familiar. Task #2 of the initiating domain states, "Identify key deliverables based
on the business requirements in order to manage customer expectations and direct the achievement of project goals."
The identified key deliverables are then included as an element of the project charter, such as the new product, service,
or result that the project is intended to satisfy. Of the available options, only key deliverables is an element of the project
charter. Therefore, of the choices provided, it is reasonable to assume that identification of the key deliverables is what
the project manager might have overlooked during the pre-project work.
A Identification of detailed requirements

Incorrect. During project initiation, only high-level requirements are identified. Detailed requirements are
determined as part of the Collect Requirements process during project planning.
B
13/12/2018 Identification of subjective project objectives Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. Measurable project objectives is an element of the project charter. The project objectives must be
measurable, not subjective, in order to determine if the project successfully achieves its objectives.
C Identification of key deliverables

Correct. The identification of key deliverables is performed during pre-project work and is an element of the project
charter.
D Development of a project scope statement

Incorrect. The project scope statement is created during the Define Scope process. The Define Scope process is
performed during project planning and not during pre-project work.
Reference:
Management Institute Inc., June 2015, Domain I, Task 2
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Several critical parts were chrome plated by a vendor instead of zinc plated as specified in the contract. The vendor
states that zinc plating the parts would not offer the required corrosion resistance to meet project requirements and
insists on a significant increase in payment.
After the dispute is resolved and all contracts have been closed out, what is the best way to minimize the chance of this
problem recurring in the future?
A Update the lessons learned register
B Ensure the knowledge gained is archived in the lessons learned repository
C Remove the vendor from the preapproved seller list
D Accept the fact that disputes are inevitable and move on to your next project
Hint:
Where are lessons learned stored so they may be used on future projects?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In this scenario, a dispute has arisen with a vendor which is eventually resolved. It is vital that any lessons learned from
this experience are captured to minimize the chance of the problem recurring. Since all of the contracts have been
closed out at this point, the knowledge gained will only be of value to future projects. The lessons learned repository is a
store of historical information about lessons learned from projects that can be used to improve performance for future
projects. While documenting the lessons learned in the current project’s lessons learned register could be done as part of
the Control Procurements process described in the scenario, ensuring that the knowledge gained is archived in the
lessons learned repository is the best way to minimize the chance of the problem recurring in the future.
A reasonable argument can be made that the knowledge gained should be captured in the lessons learned register, as
the information recorded in the lessons learned register would then be transferred to the lessons learned repository.
However, the question is asking to select an answer choice that describes the 'best' way to minimize the chance of the
problem recurring and not the 'first' thing to do. It is important to read the questions carefully. With the all of the contracts
closed out, the lessons learned in this situation will only be of value to future projects. Ensuring the knowledge gained is
archived
13/12/2018 in the lessons learned repository avoids even theCourses
Online possibility
- PMPthat theSimulator
Exam information will be lost in the transition.
Therefore, ensuring that the knowledge gained is archived in the lessons learned repository is the 'best' answer to the
question asked.
A Update the lessons learned register

that it can be used later in the current project. However, in this scenario, the dispute is eventually resolved and all
contracts have already been closed out. So while capturing the information in the lessons learned register could be
done as part of the Control Procurements process described in the scenario, the information would be of low value
unless the knowledge gained is archived in the lessons learned repository for use on future projects.
B Ensure the knowledge gained is archived in the lessons learned repository

Correct. The lessons learned repository is a store of historical information about lessons learned from projects that
can be used to improve performance for future projects. Ensuring that the knowledge gained is archived in the
lessons learned repository is the best way to minimize the chance of the problem recurring in the future.
C Remove the vendor from the preapproved seller list

Incorrect. While removing the vendor from the preapproved seller list may or may not be necessary, this will not
ensure that the knowledge gained is available for use on future projects. Even if the vendor pursuing the claim is
never used again, this action will not prevent a similar issue from occurring with a different vendor.
D Accept the fact that disputes are inevitable and move on to your next project
Incorrect. Disputes are always a possibility when working with vendors. However, every reasonable action should
be taken to avoid disputes from occurring in the first place. Any knowledge gained that might prevent a dispute
should be used on future projects.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 498, 500
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a large project with multiple teams. You want to have a graphical representation of your project
organization in detail.
What of the following would best address your needs?
A Organizational breakdown structure
B Flowchart
C Project organization chart
D Responsibility assignment matrix
Hint:
Which of the following displays reporting relationships for the project organization?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario suggests you are carrying out the Plan Resource Management process and looking for a document that
can graphically present the entire project organization and its reporting relationships in order to assemble a very large
project team. The project organization chart is designed specifically for this purpose and can be expanded to include as
much detail as needed, which is typically a requirement for large project organizations. And although the organizational
breakdown structure is similar, it is used to document existing organizations rather than project teams.
A Organizational breakdown structure

Incorrect. The organizational breakdown structure documents an organization's existing structure, along with
project activities assigned to each department or unit. It does not detail the project organization.
B Flowchart
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Flowcharts illustrate process relationships, flows, -and
Online Courses PMPlogical branching possibilities. They do not display
Exam Simulator
project organizations or reporting relationships.
C Project organization chart

Correct. The project organization chart is a graphical display of project team members and their reporting
relationships. It is a flexible format that can be easily adapted to large organizations with complex documentation
needs.
D Responsibility assignment matrix

Incorrect. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows the project resources assigned to each work package
and can be used to illustrate connections between activities and resources. RAM, however, does not document the
project's reporting relationships.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 319
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Following is an illustration of a project network activity node that includes some information about activity B.
Assuming that work starts on day one (not day zero) and given the information provided, what is the late start of activity
B?
A 35
B 36
C 37
D 39
Hint:
Since the current activity’s late finish date and duration are provided, you could use the backward pass formula to
compute the late start date. Or, since the early start date and total float are provided, you could use the relevant total
float formula.
Correct
13/12/2018 Answer: C Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Explanation:
To answer this question, the first step is to understand the meaning of the values displayed on the network activity node.
The accepted convention is shown below, where:
ES = early start
EF = early finish
LS = late start
LF = late finish
The next step is to select a formula that calculates the late start using the values provided in the question.
Option 1. The total float can be calculated using either one of the following formulas:
Total Float = LF - EF
Since both early start and total float are provided, use the formula that has the late start variable:
Using basic math operations, the later start can be calculated as:
LS = Total Float + ES = 16 + 21 = 37
Option 2. Alternatively, we could use the relevant formula from the backward pass of the critical path method. Since both
late finish and duration are provided, we could use the late start formula, which takes the late finish, subtracts the
duration, and then adds 1 to account for work starting on day one.
LS = LF – D + 1 = 39 – 3 + 1 = 37
Here is the project schedule network activity node with late start filled in with the correct answer, 37:
A 35
Incorrect. You might get this answer if you misremembered the formula, and subtracted 1 instead of adding 1 for
the "start on day one" convention.
B 36
Incorrect. You might get this answer if you used the "start on day zero" formula, which fails to add 1 for the "start
on day 1" convention.
C 37
Correct. Based on the information given in the figure, you can use either of two formulas: LS = LF – D + 1 or LS -
ES = Total Float to get this answer.
D 39
Incorrect. 39 is the late finish value. If you use it as the late start, it does not properly account for the duration and
start on day one, nor does it account for the total float.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 210-211. See also PMI® Practice Standard for Scheduling – Second Edition
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is leading a research and development project. The value of the work completed on the project thus
far is $450,000, and the cost baseline is $2,000,000. At this point in the project, you have spent 22% of the budget at
completion (BAC). The value of work planned to be completed at this point is $475,000.
Based on this information, which of the following is not true?
A The SPI is 0.95
B The CPI is 1.02
C The SV is $25,000
D The CV is $10,000
Hint:
SPI = EV / PV CPI = EV / AC SV = EV - PV CV = EV - AC BAC = the cost baseline Note, the question is asking to select
a false statement.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to answer the question correctly, the schedule performance index (SPI), cost performance index (CPI), schedule
variance (SV), and cost variance (CV) must be accurately calculated based on the information provided. The earned
value (EV) is stated as $450,000. The planned value (PV) is stated as $475,000. The actual cost (AC) is 22% of the
budget at completion (BAC), which is 22% of $2,000,000 or $440,000. Note that the BAC is represented by the cost
baseline. The formulas and calculations for each of the earned value measurements are as follows:
SPI = EV / PV = $450,000 / $475,000 = 0.95
CPI = EV / AC = $450,000 / $440,000 = 1.02
SV = EV - PV = $450,000 - $475,000 = -$25,000
CV = EV - AC = $450,000 - $440,000 = $10,000
Note,
13/12/2018the question is asking select an answer choiceOnline
that represents a false
Courses - PMP Exam statement.
Simulator In this case, three out of four
choices are correct. The exception is the schedule variance which is displayed as $25,000 while the correct value is
-$25,000. Therefore, the schedule variance (SV) is calculated incorrectly making it the correct answer choice.
A The SPI is 0.95

Incorrect. The schedule performance index (SPI) is the earned value (EV) divided by the planned value (PV) which
is $450,000 / $475,000 = 0.95.
B The CPI is 1.02

Incorrect. The cost performance index (CPI) is the earned value (EV) divided by the actual cost (AC) which is
$450,000 / $440,000 = 1.02.
C The SV is $25,000
Correct. The schedule variance (SV) is the earned value (EV) minus the planned value (PV) which is $450,000 -
$475,000 = -$25,000. The question is asking which response is 'not' true. Since the SV is -$25,000 and not
$25,000, this choice is the best answer to the question asked.
D The CV is $10,000
Incorrect. The cost variance (CV) is the earned value (EV) minus the actual cost (AC) which is $450,000 -
$440,000 = $10,000.
Reference:
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager is informed by a project stakeholder that the newest project team member has, on more than one
occasion, arrived to work more than 30 minutes late. This news comes as a surprise as you haven't had any similar
issues with the project team previously.
What may have prevented this situation?
A Training for the project team on cultural awareness
B Conflict management training for the project team members
C Capturing the issue in the issue log
D Reviewing the team charter periodically
Hint:
Where should one find a set of ground rules which set the expected behavior for project team members?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question describes a situation where a project team member is demonstrating unacceptable behavior by arriving to
work more than 30 minutes late on more than one occasion. The team charter establishes clear expectations regarding
acceptable behavior by project team members. Ground rules, defined in the team charter set the expected behavior for
project team members, as well as other stakeholders, with regard to stakeholder engagement. The team charter can be
reviewed and updated periodically to ensure a continued understanding of the team and ground rules and to orient and
integrate new team members. Had the team charter been reviewed periodically, the newest project team member would
have had a clear understanding of acceptable and unacceptable behavior. While establishing standards of behavior does
not necessarily mean that the project team member would have adhered to those standards, of the available choices,
only reviewing the team charter directly addresses behavioral expectations. Therefore, reviewing the team charter is the
Note that a valid argument can be made to support cultural awareness training as a correct answer in this scenario.
Although not described by the question, it is possible that the newest team member has a cultural perspective that does
not value punctuality. It is also possible that cultural awareness training may have been beneficial, assuming that cultural
differences did exist. There are questions on the actual PMP exam which will have more than one correct answer, and
the PMP aspirant must choose the 'best' answer even if the question does not specifically ask for the 'best' response. In 1/2
https://www.project-management-prepcast.com/index.php?option=com_joomla_lms&task=show_quiz&id=6&quiz_id=124&Itemid=1248&tmpl=quiz
this case,
13/12/2018 the team charter directly addresses acceptableOnlineand unacceptable
Courses - PMP Exam behavior
Simulator by the project team members
which should include punctuality. While cultural awareness training may or may not have been beneficial in this case, it
does not directly establish standards of behavior. Even if the cultural differences did exist, reviewing the team charter
should address the issue by setting the standards of behavior regardless of cultural values. Additionally, the fact that the
issue occurred with the "newest team member" is a hint that this individual may not have been exposed to the team
charter previously if it was only covered at the start of the project and before this person joined the team.
A Training for the project team on cultural awareness

Incorrect. Although not described by the question, it is possible that the newest team member has a cultural
perspective that does not value punctuality. It is also possible that cultural awareness training may have been
beneficial, assuming that cultural differences did exist. However, there is another answer choice which more
accurately addresses issues regarding the behavior of project team members, which is a better answer to the
question asked.
B Conflict management training for the project team members

Incorrect. The scenario does not indicate whether or not there was a conflict among the project team members.
The question describes undesirable behavior demonstrated by the team member. While it is not clear whether or
not conflict management training would have been helpful in this situation, there is another answer choice which
better addresses behavioral issues on the part of the project team members.
C Capturing the issue in the issue log

Incorrect. The question states that you, as the project manager, have not had any similar issues with the project
team previously. Since this appears to be the first instance of this problem on the project, it could not have been
captured previously in the issue log. Although the issue should now be recorded in the issue log, this action will be
done after the fact and, therefore, would not have prevented the issue from occurring in the first place.
D Reviewing the team charter periodically

Correct. Ground rules, defined in the team charter set the expected behavior for project team members, as well as
other stakeholders. The team charter can be reviewed and updated periodically to ensure a continued
understanding of the team and ground rules and to orient and integrate new team members.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 319, 528
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager wants to incorporate continuous improvement approach throughout project execution.
Which of the following actions is the project manager least likely to take?
A Holding a retrospective meeting at the end of the project
B Setting up a plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle
C Including a certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt on the project team
D Encouraging the team to use a Deming cycle
Hint:
Continuous improvement for the current project cannot take place only at the end of the project.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle is the basis for quality improvement as defined by Shewhart and modified by
Deming. In addition, quality improvement initiatives such as total quality management (TQM), Six Sigma, and Lean Six
Sigma may improve both the quality of project management as well as the quality of the end product, service, or result. A
project retrospective is conducted at the end of the project to learn what can be improved upon for future projects. Since
the project retrospective does not occur until the end of the project, it will not be beneficial in establishing continuous
improvement for the current project. Note, the question is asking for the action which is 'least' likely to be beneficial in
improving project performance throughout project execution. Therefore, of the available choices, holding a retrospective
meeting at the end of the project is the best answer to the question asked.
A Holding a retrospective meeting at the end of the project

Correct. A project retrospective is conducted at the end of the project to learn what can be improved upon for
future projects. Since the project retrospective does not occur until the end of the project, it will not be beneficial in
establishing continuous improvement for the current project.
B
13/12/2018 Setting up a plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle is a methodology which establishes an iterative process to improve
performance. The PDCA cycle is a common approach to continuous improvement.
C Including a certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt on the project team
Incorrect. A six sigma process is one in which 99.99966% of the results of a process are free of defects. A Lean
Six Sixma Black Belt is an individual that has been trained and certified in the Lean Six Sigma methodology. Both
are used to continuously improve the quality of project management, as well as the quality of the end product,
service, or result.
D Encouraging the team to use a Deming cycle

Incorrect. A Deming cycle is also known as a plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle. A Deming cycle is a common
approach to continuous improvement which establishes an iterative process to support performance improvement.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 275
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
The project team has completed a prototype. Product testing has revealed that a component of the machine does not
have the longevity required by project objectives. A change request has been submitted and approved to replace the part
with a more durable component.
Once the implementation of the approved change request is complete, what should the project manager do next?
A Update the lessons learned register with the situation encountered and its resolution
B Update the risk register to reflect that the risk no longer exists
C Update the scope baseline to indicate that the actual scope is aligned with the planned one
D Update the issue log with the final status of the issue
Hint:
What project document is updated to reflect the final solution of a problem encountered during the project?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The issue log is a project document where all the issues encountered during a project are recorded and tracked. A
problem as significant as that described by the question should have been captured in the issue log when it occurred.
Once the approved change request has been successfully implemented, the issue log should be updated to reflect the
final solution. Therefore, of the available choices, the issue log should be updated next to document the fact that the
issue has been resolved.
A Update the lessons learned register with the situation encountered and its resolution
Incorrect. The lessons learned register is a project document that captures descriptions of situations encountered
throughout the project life cycle and proposed actions associated with the situations. While the issue described in
the scenario may or may not be a candidate to be captured in the lessons learned register, updating the lessons
13/12/2018 learned register is unlikely to be the next step for theCourses
Online project- manager
PMP Exam to take. It is more important to update the
Simulator
issue log with the final status of the issue. The lessons learned register could be updated later, as necessary.
B Update the risk register to reflect that the risk no longer exists
Incorrect. The risk register is a project document that captures details of identified project risks, along with their
status, as risk management processes are carried out during the project. However, there is not enough information
in the question to determine if the issue described in the scenario was identified as a risk during project planning
and recorded in the risk register. Therefore, updating the risk register with the information about a risk that might
not even exist in that document is not the best answer to the question asked.
C Update the scope baseline to indicate that the actual scope is aligned with the planned one
Incorrect. The scope baseline is the approved version of a scope statement, WBS, and its associated WBS
dictionary. According to the scenario, the issue has been resolved implying the actual scope is aligned with the
planned one. Updates to the scope baseline are required only when the actual scope differs from the planned one.
D Update the issue log with the final status of the issue
Correct. The issue log is a project document where all the issues encountered during a project are recorded and
tracked. In this scenario, the issue log should be updated next to document the fact that the problem described by
the question has been resolved. While the question does not explicitly state that the problem has been
documented in the issue log, it can be implied that such a significant drawback in the functionality of the prototype
would have been defined as an issue and captured in the issue log.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 96
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
To smooth the onboarding process for a group of new hires, a project manager would like his team to impart their
working knowledge of the internal client culture and unwritten rules to the new staff. Thus, a training meeting was
conducted, but the team did not actively participate in sharing information, raising concerns, or asking questions.
What is the most likely reason?
A Meetings are not an efficient way to transfer knowledge
B With the addition of the new hires, the team has not yet built trusting relationships such that the team feels
free to ask questions, express concerns, or share their knowledge
C The new hires are likely younger professionals who are accustomed to more interactive and entertaining
training meetings
D Relying on discussions instead of having the team members document their knowledge in a lessons learned
register
Hint:
The correct answer refers to an essential part of establishing relationships between team members.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The project manager is wise to be concerned with knowledge management on the team, and training meetings can be an
effective way of getting team members to share information with each other. However, given that some of the team
members are new hires, this suggests that the team members may not feel comfortable participating in discussions to
exchange knowledge. The most important part of knowledge management is creating an atmosphere of trust so that
people are motivated to share their knowledge and to pay attention to what others know. Since the project manager has
recently hired new staff, he may need to work on team-building before managing project knowledge. Once trusting
relationships have been established, future training meetings will likely be more successful.
A
13/12/2018 Meetings are not an efficient way to transfer knowledge
Incorrect. Meetings, particularly face-to-face meetings, can be an effective tool for connecting people so they can
work together to share tacit knowledge, create new knowledge, and integrate the knowledge of diverse team
members.
B With the addition of the new hires, the team has not yet built trusting relationships such that the team feels free
to ask questions, express concerns, or share their knowledge
Correct. The most important part of knowledge management is creating an atmosphere of trust so that people are
motivated to share their knowledge or to pay attention to what others know. The project manager has recently
hired new staff, so he may need to work on team-building first before managing project knowledge. Once trusting
relationships have been established, future training meetings will likely be more successful.
C The new hires are likely younger professionals who are accustomed to more interactive and entertaining
training meetings
Incorrect. Be sure to avoid answer choices that make generalizations about people and cannot be supported by
the information provided.
D Relying on discussions instead of having the team members document their knowledge in a lessons learned
register
Incorrect. It is a common misconception that managing knowledge involves just documenting it so it can be shared.
It is difficult to document tacit knowledge (knowledge that is personal and difficult to express, such as beliefs,
insights, experience, and 'know-how') in the same way as codified explicit knowledge; therefore, a lessons learned
register might not be an effective tool for to use in this situation. Face-to-face discussions can be a highly effective
way to share tacit knowledge, but in this scenario, the organization (or project team) needs to create an
atmosphere of trust so that the employees are motivated to share their knowledge.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 100, 102-103
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are taking over a project after your predecessor was terminated for using templates from a former employer to
develop the project management plan as those templates were the intellectual property of the former employer. You now
have to rewrite the previously approved project management plan based on your organization's project repository.
After the change request is approved, in what process group will you implement this change?
A Initiating, because rewriting the project management plan essentially means starting the project over.
B Planning, because you are rewriting the project management plan and are going to obtain new approval.
C Executing, because you are implementing an approved change request to rewrite the project management
plan.
D Closing, because you have to terminate activities that were executed based on an invalid project
management plan.
Hint:
There are only three processes where approved change requests are an input, and two of them are in the Monitoring and
Controlling Process Group which is not listed as an option.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Change requests can be initiated throughout the project and then either approved, deferred, or rejected as part of the
Perform Integrated Change Control process. There are only three processes where the resulting approved change
requests are an input: Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality, and Control Procurements. However, it is during
the Direct and Manage Project Work process, part of the Executing Process Group, where the approved change
requests are implemented. The two other processes that have approved change requests as an input, Control Quality,
and Control Procurements, are carried out for the purpose of verifying that the changes were implemented effectively.
However, the implementation itself is not part of these two processes.
While the violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is not related to the selection of the correct
answer, that part of the question refers to the value of Responsibility, which reads, "We protect proprietary or confidential
information that is entrusted to us." We do not take or abuse the property of others, including intellectual property.
A Initiating, because rewriting the project management plan essentially means starting the project over.
Incorrect. Rewriting the project management plan does not mean starting the project over. The project has already
been authorized as part of the Initiating Process Group. Approved change requests are not implemented during
project initiation.
B Planning, because you are rewriting the project management plan and are going to obtain new approval.
Incorrect. The processes of the Planning Process Group are carried out to establish the scope and course of
action to achieve project objectives. In the scenario provided, however, the task is to rewrite the project
management plan based on the organization's repository rather than establish the scope and course of action,
making this choice an incorrect answer.
C Executing, because you are implementing an approved change request to rewrite the project management
plan.
Correct. The processes of the Executing Process Group are performed to complete the project work to satisfy
requirements, including compliance with ethical standards as well as operational guidelines. Approved change
requests are implemented during the Direct and Manage Project Work process, which is part of the Executing
Process Group, making this choice the best answer to the question asked.
D Closing, because you have to terminate activities that were executed based on an invalid project management
plan.
Incorrect. The processes of the Closing Process Group are performed to formally close (or terminate) the project,
phase, or contract. Even if the decision to terminate activities that have been executed based on the invalid project
management plan is made, the task in the scenario described is not to close or terminate the project or phase, but
to ensure the work is being done according to a set of plans that do not violate intellectual property rights.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 23, 93; see also PMI Code of Ethics & Professional Conduct, Responsibility; see also
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During a meeting, it is apparent that the director of marketing was inadvertently left off the communication of a scope
change to the product under development. After the issue is resolved, the project manager wants to document how the
issue could have been avoided to prevent a recurrence.
What should the project manager update?
B RACI chart
C Assumption log
Hint:
Which project document contains details on issues encountered by the project team and their resolution?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
One output of the Manage Communications process can be updates to the lessons learned register. The lessons learned
register is updated with information on challenges encountered and how they could have been avoided as well as
approaches that worked well and did not work well for managing communications. The lessons learned register should
be updated to capture knowledge gained during a project which can be used to improve future performance.

Correct. The lessons learned register is updated with information on challenges encountered and how they could
have been avoided as well as approaches that worked well and did not work well for managing communications.
B RACI chart
13/12/2018 Incorrect. A RACI chart is a type of responsibility assignment
Online matrix
Courses - PMP Examwhich defines the involvement of stakeholders
Simulator
in project activities. It is not updated with lessons learned from managing communications.
C Assumption log
Incorrect. An assumption log is used to capture all assumptions and constraints throughout a project life cycle. It is
not updated with lessons learned from managing communications.

Incorrect. ‘Best practices log’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 387
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a project to renovate a faulty waste treatment facility, which will use the same waste disposal techniques
as those currently in place. However, legislation for more stringent waste disposal techniques will likely be voted on in the
near future.
How should you handle the legislation during the development of the project charter?
Hint:
Think of the differences between an assumption, constraint, and risk.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
If passed, the legislation described in the scenario will require the project to implement waste disposal techniques that
will be of more stringent standards than those currently planned for the project. The chance that legislation might pass
during construction presents a risk that if realized, could have major implications on project constraints and may have a
negative impact on the outcome of the project. Therefore, you should handle the legislation for more stringent waste
disposal techniques as a high-level project risk that should be documented during project initiation. Later on, during
project planning, the risk will be addressed by the processes of the Project Risk Management Knowledge Area where a
risk response plan can be put in place to address the issue if needed.
13/12/2018 Incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)
Onlineare internal
Courses or Exam
- PMP external conditions outside the control of the
Simulator
project team that influences a project. In this case, legislation for waste disposal techniques would be considered
an external EEF. However, ignoring the possible impact of legislation on the project would not be prudent.
Incorrect. An assumption is a factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain without
proof or demonstration. However, the question states that the legislation will likely be voted on in the near future.
Therefore, assuming that legislation would not pass during construction is irresponsible. If the legislation does
pass, and the implemented waste disposal techniques do not comply with the new regulations, the project could be
derailed.

Incorrect. A constraint is a limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process. First,
the legislation by itself is not a limiting factor. The limiting factor would be the new regulations if the legislation
passes, and since you do not know yet what the new regulations are, you cannot consider them a limiting factor
(i.e., a constraint) at this point. Therefore, this answer choice is not the best way to handle the legislation.

Correct. A risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more
project objectives. In this situation, the possibility of legislation passing during construction with more stringent
standards for the project deliverable is a risk that may be realized and should be documented early, so that the risk
can be planned for in later processes.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 31
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Your sponsor has committed to building a high-speed rail from one major inland city, Azules, to the coast. You have two
possible routes, either Brazos or Corazon. You draw a decision tree that considers each route's costs, odds, and rewards
of high demand and low demand. At this point, you do not want to calculate the expected monetary value. Rather, you
want to find the net path value of each route to Brazos.
How would you quantify the two net path values of the route to Brazos?
A 22 billion and 16 billion
B 2 billion and -4 billion
C 9.6 billion and 1.2 billion
D 1.6 billion and 0.8 billion
Hint:
The net path value is an important calculation in quantifying the expected monetary value when performing decision tree
analysis as part of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Note, the calculation of net path value is different
from this of expected monetary value (EMV).
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The net path value is an important calculation in quantifying the expected monetary value when performing decision tree
analysis as part of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Note, the net path value is different from the expected
monetary value (EMV). The calculation of the EMV takes into account the probabilities of each branch, while the net path
value simply sums the investment (as a negative value) and the value of the note (as a positive value). The net path
value is used in the formula for estimated monetary value for each decision. Also note, the net path value is not to be
confused with the net present value.
Remember: when you net something, you should consider both positive and negative flows. In a decision tree, the
formula to compute net path value is to subtract the path reward minus the cost of the decision.
Below
13/12/2018is the completed decision tree with all the net Online
path values
Coursesand theExam
- PMP resulting expected monetary value of each
Simulator
choice. Since the path with the largest expected monetary value is the Brazos route at 0.8 billion, that is the best choice.
A 22 billion and 16 billion

Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you merely added the cost of the Brazos decision with the rewards
for high demand and low demand, respectively. However, the net path value is not calculated this way.
B 2 billion and -4 billion

Correct. We calculate 2 billion as the path reward (12 billion) minus the cost of its decision (the Brazos route costs
10 billion), and -4 billion as the path reward (6 billion) minus the cost of the Brazos route (10 billion).
C 9.6 billion and 1.2 billion

Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you merely multiplied the probability for each path by its reward.
However, the net path value is not calculated this way.
D 1.6 billion and 0.8 billion

Incorrect. You might have chosen this answer if you found the net path value for each path by subtracting its
reward minus the cost of its decision but then incorrectly multiplied the result by the probability for that path.
However, multiplying probability is not a valid step to compute net path value.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 435
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
During project execution, a vendor is not able to deliver on their contract. Before executing on the previously planned risk
response of contacting a secondary vendor, the risk owner goes on vacation and delegates the finalization of the
procurement to a project team member. Unfortunately, the project team member forgets to complete the procurement
process.
Who is accountable for ensuring the implementation of the risk response plan in this situation?
A Risk owner
B Project manager
C Project sponsor
D Team member
Hint:
Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring project objectives are met?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
As is common with PMP exam questions, there may be more than one correct answer. However, only one answer choice
can be selected. Always look for the 'best' answer even when the question does not explicitly ask for this. In the scenario
described, the project manager, risk owner, and project team member all share responsibility for the failure to complete
the execution of the risk response. However, even though others share responsibility, the project manager is ‘ultimately’
responsible, or, in other words, accountable, for the achievement of the project objectives. The project manager can
delegate tasks and assignments but cannot delegate the accountability for ensuring that those tasks and assignments
are completed. Therefore, of the available choices, saying that the project manager is accountable for ensuring the
implementation of the risk response plan is the best answer to the question asked.
A Risk owner
13/12/2018 Incorrect. The risk owner certainly shares some of the
Online blame- PMP
Courses for the lack
Exam of execution of the risk response plan.
Simulator
However, the project manager and not the risk owner is ultimately responsible, or accountable, for all aspects of
the project including the implementation of risk responses. Even though the risk owner was assigned responsibility
for implementing the risk response, it is the project manager's responsibility to ensure that assigned tasks are
completed.
B Project manager
Correct. Even though others share responsibility for the lack of execution on the implementation of the risk
response, the project manager is ultimately responsible, or accountable, for the achievement of the project
objectives.
C Project sponsor
Incorrect. It is unknown from the question whether or not the project sponsor was informed of the issue or the
steps being taken in response. Even if the project sponsor was aware, it is not the responsibility nor the
accountability of the project sponsor to implement response plans (unless the sponsor is the identified risk owner
which is unlikely to be the case) or ensure that the others involved in the project perform their assigned tasks.
Rather, the project sponsor is responsible for the project funding and supporting the project manager when issues
cannot be handled with the authority of the project manager.
D Team member
Incorrect. Even though the project team member was asked to complete the procurement process for the risk
owner, it is the project manager's responsibility to ensure that assigned tasks are completed. While the project
team member shares responsibility for the failure to complete this task, the project manager is ultimately
responsible, or accountable, for ensuring project activities are completed by those involved in the project.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 72, 51-52, 451; see also
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
In a meeting with your team, you discuss the importance of a process that ensures that both your company and the
contractors meet procurement requirements. You explain that this process is key to managing the contract relationship,
monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections as appropriate.
Which of the following are you describing to the team member?
A Project procurement management
D Request management
Hint:
This question involves oversight and management of buyer/seller relationships and performance on a project.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question describes a process that ensures that both your company and the contractors meet the procurement
requirements according to the terms of the legal agreement and why it is necessary to the project. These are key
elements of the Control Procurements process, which is defined as the process of managing procurement relationships,
monitoring seller performance, amending contracts as needed, and closing contracts. Though other options may seem
plausible, Control Procurements is the process described in the scenario and is, therefore, the best answer to the
question asked.
A Project procurement management

Incorrect. Project procurement management is a set of activities that include the processes necessary to purchase
or acquire products, services, or results (or goods and services) needed from outside the project team. While the
Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area covers the points you explain to the team, another answer
13/12/2018 choice, Control Procurements, more accuratelyOnline
addresses
Coursesthe question
- PMP asked. Therefore, Project Procurement
Exam Simulator
Management is not the best answer to the question asked.
Incorrect. Conduct Procurements references the process of selecting qualified sellers and implementing a legal
contract for the delivery of services or goods. The Conduct Procurements process is performed before the process
you describe to the project team members is carried out and is, therefore, not the correct answer.
Correct. Control Procurements is the process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring seller
performance, amending contracts as needed, and closing contracts. The explanation you give to the team
members closely matches the definition of the Control Procurements process, making Control Procurements the
D Request management
Incorrect. 'Request management' is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 492
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You and your project team are developing a comprehensive list of individual project risks and sources of overall project
risk. The team is performing data analysis to identify threats by starting with a problem statement and exploring which
threats might result in the problem occurring. The project team is finding that the use of a why-why diagram is especially
useful for this analysis.
Which data analysis technique is being used by the project team?
B Sensitivity analysis
C Regression analysis
D Reserve analysis
Hint:
Which data analysis technique is an input to the Identify Risks process and can be used to discover the underlying
causes that lead to a problem, and develop preventive action?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question implies that the project team is performing the project management process of Identify Risks. Root cause
analysis is a data analysis technique that is used in the Identify Risks process. Root cause analysis is typically used to
discover the underlying causes that lead to a problem and develop preventive action. It can be used to identify threats by
starting with a problem statement and exploring which threats might result in that problem occurring. Root cause analysis
is the data analysis technique the project team is using in this situation.
13/12/2018 Correct. Root cause analysis is typically used to discover
Online the
Courses underlying
- PMP causes that lead to a problem and
Exam Simulator
develop preventive action. It can be used to identify threats by starting with a problem statement and exploring
which threats might result in that problem occurring. Root cause analysis is the data analysis technique the project
team is using in this situation.
B Sensitivity analysis
Incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is an analysis technique used to determine which individual project risks or other
sources of uncertainty have the most potential impact on project outcomes, by correlating variations in project
outcomes with variations in elements of a quantitative risk analysis model. The question implies that the project
team is performing the project management process of Identify Risks. Sensitivity analysis is a data analysis
technique used in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process rather than the Identify Risks process.
C Regression analysis
implies that the project team is performing the project management process of Identify Risks. Regression analysis
is a data analysis technique associated with the Close Project or Phase process rather than the Identify Risks
process.
D Reserve analysis
Incorrect. Reserve analysis is an analytical technique used to determine the essential features and relationships of
components in the project management plan to establish a reserve for the schedule duration, budget, estimated
cost, or funds for a project. The question implies that the project team is performing the project management
process of Identify Risks. Reserve analysis is a data analysis technique associated with various project
management processes but not the Identify Risks process.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 293, 415
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project sponsor has asked you to draft the project charter for a product development project. To start the process, you
want to gather inputs from individuals and groups with specialized knowledge.
What is your best course of action?
A Interview someone with technical knowledge of the product to be developed
B Speak with someone who specializes in the project scheduling software
C Meet with a group of quality assurance experts
D Talk with the individual in charge of the organization's communications technology
Hint:
Which form of expert judgment is associated with the Develop Project Charter process?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The question is asking for the form of expert judgment that might be beneficial in the development of the project charter.
All of the answer choices describe forms of expert judgment. However, only technical knowledge of the industry and
focus area of the project is relevant to the Develop Project Charter process. All of the incorrect answer choices describe
forms of expert judgment for use in other project management processes. Therefore, of the available options,
interviewing someone with technical knowledge of the product to be developed is the best answer to the question asked.
A Interview someone with technical knowledge of the product to be developed

Correct. This answer choice best describes expert judgment in technical knowledge of the industry and focus area
of the project. This form of expert judgment may be beneficial in the creation of the project charter.
B Speak with someone who specializes in the project scheduling software

13/12/2018 Incorrect. The project charter may include a summary milestone
Online Courses - PMPschedule but not at the level of detail that is
Exam Simulator
provided by project scheduling software. This form of expert judgment may be necessary during the Develop
Schedule process, but not the Develop Project Charter process.
C Meet with a group of quality assurance experts

Incorrect. A meeting with a group of quality assurance experts may be beneficial in the development of the quality
management plan. However, the quality management plan is not created until later in the project during project
planning.
D Talk with the individual in charge of the organization's communications technology

Incorrect. Expert judgment in the organization's communications technologies may be useful in the development of
the communications management plan, but this level of detail is not necessary for the creation of the project
charter.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 79
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
You are leading a project in which a contractor appears to be off to a slow start. The contractor insists that they will
complete on time, but you are still concerned. It is your first time to work with her, but she on the project management
office (PMO)'s preapproved sellers list.
What is the best way to learn about the past performance history with the contractor?
A Look in the lessons learned register
B Review the risk response plan in the risk register
C Check with the PMO and see what information they have on vendor
D Discuss your concerns with the project sponsor
Hint:
Where might you find lessons learned from past (not current) projects?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The question suggests that you, as the project manager, are conducting the Control Procurements process, and you are
seeking information about a contractor's performance from past projects. Even though you do not have any history with
this contractor, the fact that the PMO has listed this contractor as a preapproved seller suggests that the contractor may
have been used on past projects. It is possible that this contractor is known for starting slow and consistently finishing
ahead of schedule. This information might give you more confidence in the contractor's ability to deliver as contracted.
Ideally, you would review the lessons learned repository which is an organizational process asset that contains
knowledge gained from past projects. However, reviewing the lesson's learned repository is not listed as an answer
choice. The PMO should be able to provide best practices, access to information, and lessons learned from past
projects. Of the available options, the best source of information regarding the contractor's performance on past projects
is the PMO particularly since the contractor is a preapproved seller.
Note that neither the lessons learned repository nor the PMO is listed as an input to the Control Procurements process,
but the wording of the PMBOK® Guide always states "including but not limited to" when referencing inputs, outputs, or
tools and techniques. Therefore, sometimes the PMP aspirant must look beyond what is specifically listed in the
PMBOK® Guide and select the option that best answers the question asked.
A Look in the lessons learned register

that it can be used in the current project. The question indicates that you, as the project manager, do not have any
prior experience with the contractor on the current project. Therefore, it is not likely that any knowledge has been
gained regarding this contractor in the project.
B Review the risk response plan in the risk register

Incorrect. The risk that the contractor r may not finish on time should be captured in the risk register along with a
planned risk response. However, the question is asked where you might find more information regarding the
performance of this contractor, and the risk register is not likely to have this information.
C Check with the PMO and see what information they have on vendor
Correct. A PMO may be able to provide best practices, access to information, and lessons learned from past
projects. Even though you, as the project manager, do not have any prior experience with this contractor, the fact
that the PMO had them listed as a preapproved seller suggests that the contractor may have been used on past
projects.
D Discuss your concerns with the project sponsor

Incorrect. While there is nothing wrong in discussing your concerns with the project sponsor, the project sponsor
may or may not have the information about the past performance of the vendor, making this choice, of those
provided, not the best answer to the question asked.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 48, 492
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
A project manager for a matrix organization is focused on the Develop Team process. The project team has experienced
an increase in the staff turnover rate and a lack of team cohesiveness. The project manager conducts an evaluation of
the project team’s overall performance in order to identify specific training, coaching, mentoring, assistance, or changes
required to improve team effectiveness.
Where should the project manager document the assessment of the project team’s effectiveness?
A Test and evaluation documents
B RACI chart
C Individual performance appraisals
D Team performance assessments
Hint:
Think about evaluating the overall team performance versus individual performance
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question relates to the Develop Team project management process. One output of the
Develop Team process is team performance assessments. These assessments are formal or informal assessments of
the project team’s effectiveness. The project manager can use the team performance assessments to identify specific
training, coaching, mentoring, assistance, or changes required to improve team effectiveness.
A Test and evaluation documents

Incorrect. Test and evaluation documents are project documents that describe the activities used to determine if
the product meets the quality objectives stated in the quality management plan. These documents are unrelated to
the Develop Team process.
B
13/12/2018 RACI chart Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. A RACI chart is a type of responsibility assignment matrix. It is unrelated to the Develop Team process.
C Individual performance appraisals

Incorrect. Individual performance appraisals are specific and unique to the individual team member as opposed to
the overall team. Additionally, in a matrix organization, the functional manager is responsible for individual
performance appraisals rather than the project manager.
D Team performance assessments

Correct. Team performance assessments are an output of the Develop Team process. These assessments are
formal or informal assessments of the project team’s effectiveness. Indicators of a team’s effectiveness may
include staff turnover rates and team cohesiveness among others.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 343
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
As part of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, your project team created a project status report which included
burndown charts, earned value graphs, and other information. The information contained in the report is of vital
importance to several stakeholders who rely on the information to take appropriate action.
A Disseminate the report through the Monitor and Control Project Work process
Hint:
Dissemination of work performance reports occurs as part of the Executing Process Group.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Work performance reports are the output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process. These reports are then
circulated to the project stakeholders through the Manage Communications process as defined in the communications
performance reports are the physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project
documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness. Work performance reports can contain earned value
graphs and information, trend lines and forecasts, reserve burndown charts, defect histograms, contract performance
information, and risk summaries. Note that the better answer to the question asked could have been communicating the
report by following the communications management plan, but that option was not provided as an answer choice.
Therefore, of the available choices, the next step in this scenario is to carry out the Manage Communications process to
communicate the project status report which implies following the communications management plan.
A
13/12/2018 Disseminate the report through the Monitor and Control
Online Project
Courses - PMPWork
Examprocess
Simulator
Incorrect. A project status report is an example of a work performance report. Work performance reports are the
output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Even though the work performance reports are generated
as part of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, they are disseminated according to the communications
management plan as part of the processes under the Executing Process Group. Since project status reports are
not disseminated through the Monitor and Control Project Work process, this answer choice cannot be the next
step.

Incorrect. Monitor Communications is the process of ensuring that the information needs of the project and its
stakeholders are met. Work performance reports, such as progress status reports, are produced as part of the
Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. However, the actual communication of those reports is conducted as
part of project execution with the Manage Communications process of the Executing Process Group. This answer
choice cannot be the next step since the communication of reports is not part of the Monitor Communications
process.

Correct. Work performance reports are the output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, and a project
status report described in the scenario is an example of a work performance report. These reports are then
circulated to the project stakeholders through the Manage Communications process as defined in the
communications management plan. Therefore, the next step in this scenario is to carry out the Manage
Communications process by communicating the project status report according to the communications
management plan.
Incorrect. Changes to the communications management plan require an approved change request. However, there
is no information in the scenario which suggests the communications management plan needs to be updated. The
communications management plan should be followed and not updated in this scenario. The next step in this
scenario is for you, as the project manager, to communicate the project status report according to the guidelines
outlined in the communications management plan, and this action does not require a change request.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 382
PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam 3
Due to a tight deadline, the director of the design team for the project requests approval for an additional team member
to be granted access to restricted and confidential materials. The project manager denies the request citing a
confidentiality agreement with the customer. The director insists on escalating the issue to the executive management
team.
Where can the director find the escalation process?
B Requirements traceability matrix
Hint:
What document describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and
disseminated?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The project manager is conducting the project management process of Manage Communications. One input to this
process is the communications management plan. The communications management plan describes how
communications will be planned, structured, monitored, and controlled. This is the best place to find information on the
escalation path.

Correct. The communication plan describes how communications will be planned, structured, monitored, and
controlled. This is the document that contains the escalation process.
B
13/12/2018 Requirements traceability matrix Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator
Incorrect. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them. It does not have information regarding the escalation process.

Incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are conditions that are not under the immediate control of the team,
that influence, constrain, or direct the project. This is not the best place to find information regarding the escalation
process.

Incorrect. ‘Executive appeals process document’ is a fake term made up for this question.
Reference:
Inc., 2017, Page(s) 377

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13/12/2018 Online Courses - PMP Exam Simulator

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 1 of 200 Question ID: 612727

C Requirements traceability matrix

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

C Requirements traceability matrix

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 2 of 200 Question ID: 612406

Where should this information be captured?

A The kick-off meeting is over, so this information is no longer relevant

C Lessons learned register

D Lessons learned repository

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

A The kick-off meeting is over, so this information is no longer relevant

C Lessons learned register

D Lessons learned repository

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 3 of 200 Question ID: 651398

A What-if scenario analysis

B Critical path method

C Fast tracking technique

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

A What-if scenario analysis

C Fast tracking technique

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 4 of 200 Question ID: 625068

A 26 weeks and 6 weeks

B 20 weeks and 6 weeks

C 52 weeks and 20 weeks

D 26 weeks and 20 weeks

J Question answered incorrectly

SV = 26 weeks - 20 weeks = 6 weeks

Details for Each Option:

A 26 weeks and 6 weeks

B 20 weeks and 6 weeks

C 52 weeks and 20 weeks

D 26 weeks and 20 weeks

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 5 of 200 Question ID: 612457

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 6 of 200 Question ID: 613621

What should the project manager do next?

A Perform variance analysis

B Conduct product analysis

C Complete a schedule network analysis

D Perform a trend analysis

J Question answered incorrectly

Details for Each Option:

A Perform variance analysis

B Conduct product analysis

C Complete a schedule network analysis

D Perform a trend analysis

PMP Exam Simulator

Question 7 of 200 Question ID: 612782

What should the project manager do?