Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A

1
Biology Yearly Benchmark Assessment
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which of these characteristics is shared by all
living things?
a. They are made up of one or more cells.
b. They make their own chemical energy.
c. They have similar responses to light.
d. They reproduce when one cell divides into two.
2. The cell theory states that all organisms are made of
cells; cells are the most basic unit of life; and
a. all existing cells form by free-cell formation.
b. all cells are eukaryotic.
c. all existing cells are produced by other living
cells.
d. all cells have a nucleus.
3. Which of the following is a major principle upon
which cell theory is based?
a. All cells form by free-cell formation.
b. All cells have DNA.
c. All organisms are made of cells.
d. All cells are eukaryotic.
4. Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is
a. rough endoplasmic reticulum.
b. a Golgi apparatus.
c. a mitochondrion.
d. the nucleus.
5. Which of the following does a plant cell have that
an animal cell does not?
a. cytoplasm
b. centriole
c. nucleus
d. chloroplasts
6. Organelles used in photosynthesis are
a. chloroplasts.
b. mitochondria.
c. lysosomes.
d. ribosomes.
7. Cells can be separated into two main categories,
eukaryotic and prokaryotic, based on their
a. type of DNA.
b. cell membranes.
c. enzymes.
d. internal structures.
8. Which of the following are one-celled prokaryotes?
a. viruses
b. bacteria
c. prions
d. viroids
9. Identify the type of cell shown in Figure 3.1.
a. prokaryotic
b. eukaryotic
c. bacterial
d. animal
10. Which sequence shows the progression from least
complex structure to most complex structure?
a. cell organ tissue organ system
b. cell tissue organ organ system
c. organ system tissue organ cell
d. organ system organ tissue cell
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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11. A kidney cell is an example of which type of cell?
a. sex cell
b. germ cell
c. somatic cell
d. haploid cell
12. If an organism's cells all contain the same DNA,
why does one cell become bone while another cell
becomes lung tissue?
a. The DNA undergoes a series of mutations
during early development.
b. When DNA is copied, different strands get
different instructions.
c. Cells differentiate between genes and use only
certain ones.
d. Mitosis results in cells that are different from
one another.
13. Organisms rely on both negative feedback
processes and behavior to maintain
a. homeostasis.
b. adaptations.
c. ecosystems.
d. evolution.
14. Which process is occurring when a vesicle fuses
with the cell membrane and releases its contents
outside the cell?
a. endocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. exocytosis
d. osmosis
15. Water enters a cell when the solution surrounding
the cell is
a. concentrated.
b. hypotonic to the cell.
c. weak.
d. hypertonic to the cell.
16. The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an
average cells life is
a. G
1
.
b. mitosis.
c. G
2
.
d. S.
17. cell growth : G
1
::
a. mitosis : cytokinesis
b. mitosis : meiosis
c. mitochondria replication : synthesis phase
d. DNA copying : synthesis phase
18.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a. A, B, C, D c. B, A, C, D
b. C, B, A, D d. A, C, B, D
19. A protein that detects a signal molecule and
performs an action in response is called a
a. receptor.
b. ligand.
c. vesicle.
d. proton.
20. A ligand produces a response in a cell if it finds the
right kind of
a. carbohydrate.
b. hormone.
c. membrane.
d. receptor.
21. Which phrase best describes cancer?
a. absence of cyclins
b. multiple gene mutations
c. uncontrolled cell growth
d. presence of genetic defects
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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22. Enzymes
a. are able to heat up molecules so that they can
react.
b. always provide carbon dioxide for chemical
reactions.
c. hold substrate molecules in the correct
alignment.
d. absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at
low temperatures.
23. A cell contains
a. thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each
assisting in a different chemical reaction.
b. one kind of enzyme that assists in thousands of
different chemical reactions.
c. approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each
assisting in a different chemical reaction.
d. one enzyme that assists in reactions involving
protein substrates and one enzyme that assists
in reactions involving substrates that are not
proteins.
24. Changes in temperature and pH can decrease an
enzyme's activity by breaking
a. hydrogen bonds
b. peptide bonds
c. amino acids
d. sulfur-sulfur bonds
25. Which of the following statements best describes
the process of photosynthesis?
a. Plants use oxygen to make simple sugars.
b. Chlorophyll builds sugars in the thylakoid
membrane.
c. Light breaks down water molecules and
releases carbon dioxide.
d. Chloroplasts absorb sunlight and store chemical
energy.
26. Which of the following is a reactant in
photosynthesis?
a. O
2
b. C
6
H
12
O
6
c. CO
2
d. COOH
27. Which chemical equation best represents the
process of photosynthesis?
a. 6CO
2
+6O
2
C
6
H
12
O
6
+6O
2
b. C
6
H
12
O
6
+6H
2
O C
6
H
12
O
6
+6O
2
c. 6CO
2
+6H
2
O C
6
H
12
O
6
+6O
2
d. C
6
H
12
O
6
+6O
2
6CO
2
+6H
2
O
28. Which of the following statements best describes
cellular respiration?
a. Sunlight and carbon dioxide are used to make
ATP.
b. ATP and oxygen are used to make sugars and
starches.
c. Carbon-based molecules from food and oxygen
are used to make ATP.
d. ATP and carbon dioxide are used to make ADP
and water.
29. photosynthesis : oxygen ::
a. oxygen : carbon dioxide
b. cellular respiration : carbon dioxide
c. cellular respiration : oxygen
d. cellular respiration : enzymes
30. The process of cellular respiration
a. is performed only by organisms that are
incapable of photosynthesis.
b. breaks down food molecules to release stored
energy.
c. occurs before plants are able to continue
photosynthesis.
d. occurs only in animals.
31. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy in the
bonds between its
a. hydrogen atoms.
b. carbon atoms.
c. nucleotides.
d. phosphate groups.
32. Energy is released from an ATP molecule for
cellular processes when it
a. has a phosphate group removed.
b. stores an extra phosphate group.
c. converts a phosphate group to ADP.
d. produces a sugar molecule.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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33. ATP is composed of a nitrogenous base, a sugar,
and
a. one phosphate group.
b. two phosphate groups.
c. three phosphate groups.
d. four phosphate groups.
34. Long chains of amino acids are found in
a. carbohydrates.
b. lipids.
c. proteins.
d. sugars.
35. Lipids are
a. soluble in water.
b. made of chains of amino acids.
c. linked together with peptide bonds.
d. used by the body for storing energy.

Molecule A Molecule B
36. Refer to the illustration above. Molecule A is a
a. carbohydrate.
b. lipid.
c. nucleic acid.
d. protein.
37. Which of the following molecules are classified as
carbohydrates?
a. amino acids
b. fats
c. nucleotides
d. sugars
38. Which category of carbon-based molecules
includes sugars and starches?
a. unsaturated fatty acids
b. phospholipids
c. proteins
d. carbohydrates
39. Which of the following molecules found in the food
we eat is most commonly broken down to make
ATP?
a. carbohydrates
b. lipids
c. proteins
d. vitamins
40. Which of the following is the source of energy used
in chemosynthesis?
a. sunlight
b. heat from hydrothermal vents
c. chemical compounds
d. amino acids
41. Food webs are models that show
a. one sequence of producers and consumers.
b. networks of feeding relationships.
c. stored energy in food chains.
d. only primary consumers in an ecosystem.
42. Each level in a food chain contains less energy than
the one below it because some energy is
a. added to the system.
b. lost as heat.
c. consumed by carnivores.
d. incorporated into biomass.
43. RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a. is double-stranded.
b. contains deoxyribose.
c. contains the nitrogen base uracil.
d. does not contain adenine.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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44. RNA is chemically similar to DNA except that the
sugar in RNA has an additional
a. oxygen atom.
b. phosphate group.
c. nitrogen base.
d. carbon atom.
45. DNA and RNA are two types of
a. proteins.
b. nucleic acids.
c. lipids.
d. carbohydrates.
46. Chromatids are
a. dense patches within the nucleus.
b. bacterial chromosomes.
c. joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d. prokaryotic nuclei.
47. Chromosomes determine all inherited traits because
they are made up of
a. DNA.
b. ATP.
c. centromeres.
d. phospholipids.
48. Homologous chromosomes are pairs of
chromosomes containing genes that code for
a. different traits.
b. the same traits.
c. DNA.
d. sex.
49. The two strands of a DNA molecule are held
together by
a. ionic bonds.
b. covalent bonds.
c. hydrogen bonds.
d. peptide bonds.
50. Which of the following DNA sequences is
complementary to the base sequence ACCGTAT?
a. GTTACGC
b. UCCGTAT
c. TGGCATA
d. CAATGCG
51. The genetic code is shared by
a. fruit flies and pea plants.
b. eukaryotes only.
c. all organisms.
d. bacteria and yeasts.
52. During transcription, the genetic information for
making a protein is rewritten as a molecule of
a. messenger RNA.
b. ribosomal RNA.
c. transfer RNA.
d. translation RNA.
53. Which of the following does not affect the final
outcome of gene expression?
a. the environment of the cells
b. the number of amino acids in the protein being
produced
c. the presence of other cells
d. the timing of gene expression
54. The function of rRNA is to
a. synthesize DNA.
b. synthesize mRNA.
c. form ribosomes.
d. transfer amino acids to ribosomes.
55. Which phrase best describes meiosis I?
a. duplication of paired chromosomes
b. fusion of sister chromatids
c. division of homologous chromosomes
d. creation of two diploid cells
56. In the stages depicted in Figure 6.1, what must
happen before a cell can enter prophase?
a. Chromosomes must be copied.
b. Spindle fibers must appear.
c. Chromatids must separate.
d. Chromosomes must line up.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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57. Which of the following phrases best describes the
function of meiosis?
a. conserves chromosome number, produces
genetically identical cells
b. conserves chromosome number, produces
haploid cells
c. reduces chromosome number by half, produces
diploid cells
d. reduces chromosome number by half, produces
gametes
58. Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic
disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the
chance that any of their children will inherit the
disorder?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
59. The Punnett square in Figure 7.1 shows a cross
between two parents who are heterozygous for an
autosomal genetic disorder caused by a recessive
allele. People with which genotype will have the
disorder?
a. Ss parent
b. Ss offspring
c. SS offspring
d. ss offspring
60. Mendels law of segregation states that
a. pairs of alleles are dependent on one another
when separation occurs during gamete
formation.
b. pairs of alleles separate independently of one
another after gamete formation.
c. each pair of alleles remains together when
gametes are formed.
d. the two alleles for a trait segregate
independently when gametes are formed.
61. Which phrase best describes the process of crossing
over?
a. Pairs of homologous chromosomes exchange
segments.
b. Pairs of sister chromatids exchange segments.
c. Pairs of homologous chromosomes become
linked.
d. Pairs of sister chromatids become linked.
62. If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is
found on
a. a sex chromosome.
b. an autosome.
c. a linked chromosome.
d. an allele.
63. Genes that are close together on a single
chromosome are considered to be
a. alleles.
b. homozygous.
c. independent.
d. linked.
64. If nondisjunction occurs,
a. there will be too many gametes produced.
b. no gametes will be produced.
c. a gamete will receive too many or too few
copies of a chromosome.
d. mitosis cannot take place.
65. Cells must control gene expression so that
a. their genes will be expressed only when
needed.
b. their genes will always be expressed.
c. their genes will never be expressed.
d. genetic disorders can be corrected.
66. Trisomy is a mutation that results in a cell having
an extra
a. nitrogen base.
b. codon.
c. chromosome.
d. gene.
67. How are viruses used in gene therapy?
a. to attack the immune system
b. to carry new genes into cells
c. to infect disease-causing bacteria
d. to kill cancer cells that have "suicide genes"
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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68. Which factor has so far kept gene therapy from
becoming an effective treatment for genetic
disorders?
a. the difficulty of getting new genes to become
part of a cell's DNA
b. the complexity of sequencing the entire human
genome
c. the lack of success in finding genes that are
responsible for genetic disorders
d. the ethical questions about making transgenic
humans
69. Selective breeding, DNA testing, and genetically
modifying crop plants are all applications of
a. DNA replication.
b. genetic mutations.
c. biotechnology.
d. environment-genotype interactions.
70. Which of the following describes natural selection?
a. It acts on genetic material directly.
b. It acts on existing physical traits.
c. It forms new traits.
d. It forms new genetic material.
71. Which of the following lists the four main
principles of the theory of natural selection?
a. adaptation, inheritance of acquired
characteristics, overproduction, variation
b. adaptation, inheritance of acquired
characteristics, heritability, variation
c. adaptation, descent with modification,
heritability, variation
d. adaptation, descent with modification,
overproduction, variation
72. Natural selection is the process by which
a. change occurs in the genetic characteristics of
individuals that live together in an environment
from one generation to another.
b. organisms with traits well-suited to their
environment reproduce at a greater rate than
less well-adapted organisms in the same
environment.
c. use and disuse of a characteristic leads to
evolutionary change.
d. baseball players pass on the trait for strong arm
muscles to children.
73. If two species have similar DNA sequences, it
would indicate that they
a. share a common ancestor.
b. are not closely related.
c. will have similar fitness.
d. have no evolutionary relationship.
74. We identify organisms as belonging to the same
species if they are capable of
a. inhabiting similar habitats.
b. having the same life expectancies.
c. producing fertile offspring.
d. evolving comparable adaptations.
75. What are two main sources of genetic variation?
a. mutations and extinction
b. recombination and extinction
c. recombination and reproduction
d. mutations and recombination
76. What is the term for a feature that allows an
organism to survive better in its environment?
a. variation
b. adaptation
c. homologous structure
d. vestigial structure
77. As an environment changes, and some organisms
have a higher fitness than others, natural selection
acts directly on
a. existing variations.
b. genetic material.
c. acquired traits.
d. individual organisms.
78. What does the biodiversity on Earth indicate about
its organisms?
a. They share many common structures and
functions.
b. They are adapted to live in a variety of
environments.
c. They have not changed over the course of
Earth's history.
d. They cannot tolerate extreme environments.
79. The more genetic variation a population has, the
more likely it is that some individuals will
a. evolve.
b. migrate.
c. survive.
d. mutate.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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80. The five factors that can lead to evolution are gene
flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection, and
a. sexual selection.
b. controlled mating.
c. emigration.
d. immigration.
81. When individuals from two populations of squirrels
can no longer successfully mate with one another,
the chance that speciation will occur
a. decreases.
b. becomes zero.
c. stays the same.
d. increases
82. What is suggested by the similarity of early
embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a. no evolutionary relationship between the
groups
b. recent common ancestry
c. similar environments in the past
d. evolution from a distant common ancestor
83. Some organisms that share a common ancestor
have features that have different functions, but
similar structures. These are known as
a. vestigial structures.
b. analogous structures.
c. homologous structures.
d. fossil structures.
84. What do scientists estimate as the age of Earth?
a. 100 million years old
b. 4.6 billion years old
c. 10 billion years old
d. 3.8 million years old
85. Which of the following statements is the best
summary of the importance of the Miller-Urey
experiments?
a. They showed that organic compounds can form
from chemical reactions of inorganic gases in a
certain kind of environment.
b. They helped scientists eliminate the possibility
that early building blocks of life could have
formed naturally on the early Earth.
c. They proved that the atmosphere on the early
Earth consisted of the same mixture of gases
that was used in their experiment.
d. They are the only experiments that were
conducted to test possible explanations of the
origin of organic compounds on Earth.
86. What do molecular clocks use to measure
evolutionary time?
a. dichotomous keys
b. mutation rates
c. physical characteristics
d. binomial nomenclature
87. The best molecular clock for comparing closely
related species is
a. mitochondrial DNA.
b. ribosomal RNA.
c. nuclear DNA.
d. protein.
88. One limitation of the Linnaean classification
system is that it
a. allows scientists to discuss organisms.
b. is based on physical characteristics alone.
c. organizes organisms into groups.
d. does not use organisms' common names.
89. Which of the following lists the three domains
accepted by most scientists?
a. Bacteria, Protista, and Eukarya
b. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protista
c. Eukarya, Archaea , and Bacteria
d. Archaea, Prokaryote, and Eukaryote
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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90. In the cladogram below, what represents the
common ancestor of all the included species?
a. the line farthest left in section A
b. the line farthest right in section A
c. the lowest node on the cladogram
d. the highest node on the cladogram
91. Aphids eat the sap from plants and excrete sticky
waste that ants eat. The ants protect the aphids from
predators. This type of interaction is called
a. parasitism.
b. mutualism.
c. commensalism.
d. competition.
92. An oak tree provides a sparrow a place to build a
nest. The nest neither benefits nor harms the tree.
What is the name for this type of relationship?
a. mutualism
b. commensalism
c. predation
d. parasitism
93. Two robins eating worms on the same lawn is an
example of
a. mutualism.
b. commensalism.
c. competition.
d. parasitism.
94. A group of organisms of the same species that live
in the same area is called a(n)
a. community.
b. population.
c. biome.
d. ecosystem.
95. Which of the following parts of Figure 13.2 is an
example of a biotic factor?
a. sunlight
b. soil
c. deer
d. river
96. Diseases may spread more rapidly when an area is
crowded, so disease is considered to be a
a. type I survivorship curve
b. population crasher.
c. density-dependent limiting factor.
d. requirement for logistic growth.
97.
Refer to the illustration above. The process shown
in the diagram is known as
a. competitive exclusion.
b. succession.
c. symbiosis.
d. oligotrophy.
98. Pioneer species are the first
a. trees to grow in an area that has been disturbed.
b. trees that replace the original trees after a forest
fire.
c. organisms to live in previously uninhabited
areas.
d. organisms to live in a forest canopy.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
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99. Succession occurs
a. as one generation of organisms replaces the
previous one.
b. as a previously existing community is replaced.
c. after a new food web is established.
d. only after a glacier retreat.
100. The water cycle, in which water moves from the
atmosphere, to the surface, below ground, and back,
is also called the
a. biogeochemical cycle.
b. oxygen cycle.
c. hydrologic cycle.
d. nitrogen cycle.
101. What happens during the process of nitrogen
fixation?
a. Bacteria change ammonium into nitrate.
b. Bacteria grow on nodules on plant roots.
c. Bacteria absorb ammonia and excrete
ammonium.
d. Bacteria convert gaseous nitrogen into
ammonia.
102. Which two processes in the carbon cycle are also
parts of the oxygen cycle?
a. combustion and respiration
b. photosynthesis and decay
c. combustion and decay
d. photosynthesis and respiration
103. Precipitation that percolates into the soil becomes
a. runoff.
b. groundwater.
c. water vapor.
d. lakes.
104. Ozone in the atmosphere
a. leads to formation of acid precipitation.
b. combines readily with water vapor.
c. absorbs harmful radiation from the sun.
d. is a renewable resource.
105. Topsoil
a. is not affected by human activities.
b. is formed from the remains of plants and
animals.
c. forms at the rate of 1 cm each growing season.
d. forms by the action of water and wind.
106. Trees on Easter Island were cut faster than they
could grow, so they became a
a. renewable resource.
b. nonrenewable resource.
c. resource for future generations.
d. waste product.
107. Which statement best describes Earth's human
carrying capacity? It is
a. a fixed number that we will soon exceed.
b. increasing due to improved technology and
medicine.
c. decreasing due to increasing population.
d. decreasing due to decreasing death rates.
108. Why is firewood considered to be a renewable
resource?
a. It can be replenished over time.
b. It is used up faster than it can form.
c. It is made from coal.
d. It can be made synthetically.