#Prepare_with_eKuhipath

APSC
CCE Prelims 2021
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Model Question Paper

Discussion (Part-1)
With Additional Facts and Explanations
1. Consider the following pairs: International Associated event in news Country
1. Colourful Revolution : Singapore
2. Umbrella Revolution : Egypt
3. Velvet Revolution : Armenia
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Ans: (b) 3 only (Velvet Revolution : Armenia)

• In 2018, a peaceful anti-govt revolution was led by member of parliament Nikol Pashinyan in opposition to
the nomination of Serzh Sargsyan as Prime Minister of Armenia, who had previously served as both President
of Armenia and prime minister, eliminating term limits which would have otherwise prevented his 2018
nomination. It was named ‘Velvet Revolution’ by Pashinyan himself.
• In 2016, analysts of the protests against President of Macedonia Gjorge Ivanov and the Macedonian
government refer the protests as "colourful Revolution", due to the demonstrators throwing paint balls of
different colours at government buildings in Skopje, the capital.
• The Umbrella Revolution was a political movement that emerged during the Hong Kong democracy protests
of 2014. Its name arose from the use of umbrellas as a tool for passive resistance to the Hong Kong Police's
use of pepper spray to disperse the crowd during a 79-day occupation of the city demanding more transparent
elections.
2. ISROSENE, recently seen in news is a/an:
(a) Eco-friendly kerosene-based rocket fuel.
(b) Communication Satellite recently launched by ISRO in association
with NASA.
(c) Earth Observation Satellite launched through GSLV-Mk-III.
(d) Initiative by Govt of India to spread awareness about ISRO
missions.

Ans: A
ISRO has successfully developed ISROSENE, which is a rocket grade
version of kerosene as an alternative to conventional hydrazine rocket fuel.
3. With reference to the ‘Cool Coalition’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a global effort led by the UN Environment.
2. It aims to inspire ambition and accelerate action on the transition to clean and efficient
cooling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2
Note: ‘Cool Coalition’ is a global network of governments, cities, international organisations,
academia, civil society and the private sector, led by UN Environment, the Climate and Clean Air
Coalition, the Kigali Cooling Efficiency Program (K-CEP), and Sustainable Energy for All
(SEforALL). It is a unified front that links action across the Kigali Amendment, Paris Agreement
and Sustainable Development Goals.
Objective: It is expected to inspire ambition, identify solutions, and mobilise action to accelerate
progress towards clean and efficient cooling.
4. Which of the following events in Indian history happened earliest?
(a) Emergence of the Sultanate of Golconda
(b) Conquest of Goa by the Portuguese
(c) Establishment of the Bahmani kingdom
(d) Establishment of the Mughal Empire by Babur

Ans: (C) The Bahmani Kingdom was founded by Alauddin Bahman Shah in
the 1347 AD.
• The Qutb Shahi dynasty ruled the Golconda Sultanate in south India from
1518 AD to 1687 AD.
• The Portuguese conquest of Goa occurred when the governor of Portuguese
India Afonso de Albuquerque captured the city in 1510.
• Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526 CE and
founded the Mughal empire
5. Hiuen Tsang visited during the reign of which of the following rulers?
(a) Harsha
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Ashoka
(d) Kanishka

Ans: (a) Harsha

• Harsha (c. 590–647 CE), also known as Harshavardhana, was an Indian

emperor who ruled North India from 606 to 647 CE. He was a member of the
Vardhana dynasty. Hiuen Tsang was the Chinese traveler who visited India in
Ancient Times between AD 627-643. . He set out his journey to see the land of
Buddha and collect manuscripts of Buddhist literature.
6. With reference to British India’s history, William Adam’s report in the 1830s was related to:
(a) Conditions of peasants in Deccan region.
(b) Progress of education in the local schools of Bengal region.
(c) Sati system in Bengal.
(d) Indianisation of civil services.

Ans: B

In 1830s William Adam, a Scottish missionary, was given the charge by the company to tour the
districts of Bengal and Bihar. He was asked to report on the progress of education in local schools.

His report was one of the finest report on Indian Education including that of Indigenous schooling
system. In fact, it is the Adam’s report wherein the functioning and funding of Indian school system
were officially documented.

However, unfortunately, the report was discarded and Macaulay's Minute supporting Anglicist school
of thought came out. It is also noteworthy that the much propagated Downward Filtration Theory by
Macaulay was an epic failure.
7. Consider the following statements regarding Himalayas:
1. Himalayas are parallel ranges which have emerged in three different phases.
2. Main Frontal Thrust separates the Himalayas from Tibet plateau.
3. Indus is the only antecedent river in the Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: A

• The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges, the Greater Himalayas known as the Himadri, the Lesser
Himalayas called the Himachal, and the Shiwalik hills, which comprise the foothills.

• The Main Frontal Thrust [MFT] is the southernmost thrust of the Himalayan system, so it does not separate
Himalayas from the Tibet plateau. In fact, it is associated with the Shiwalik ranges and it marks the tectonic and
physiographic boundary between the Siwaliks and the IGAP.

• Indus not the sole antecedent river in the Himalayas. Other such rivers are Sutlej, Brahmaputra and other
Himalayan rivers that are older than the Himalayas themselves.

• Note: An antecedent stream is a stream that maintains its original course and pattern despite the changes in
underlying rock topography. This rivers existed well-before the upheaval of the Himalayas and cut their courses
southward by making gorges in the mountains.
8. Puducherry enclaves lie in which of the following states?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• The Union Territory of Puducherry lies in the southern part of the Indian Peninsula.
The areas of Puducherry district and Karaikal district are bound by the state of Tamil
Nadu, while Yanam district and Mahe district are enclosed by the states of Andhra
Pradesh and Kerala respectively.
9. The phrase ‘unity and integrity’ is mentioned under which of the following parts of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Preamble
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only

• The original Constitution didn’t have the word integrity, and was added to the Preamble by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment (1976) along with the other two words: Secular and Socialist.

• Article 51A clause c has the following line as one of the fundamental duties:
“It shall be the duty of every citizen of India---‘to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and
integrity of India”

• Fundamental Duties were also incorporated in our Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment
following the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee.
10. Which of the following can be considered as legal entities?
1. Union of India
2. Hindu temple deity
3. Public Sector Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b) 1 and 3 only

A legal entity is any company or organization that has legal rights and responsibilities, including tax filings. It is a business
that can enter into contracts either as a vendor or a supplier and can sue or be sued in a court of law.

While in the case of Union of India and PSUs there is no ambiguity as to whether they are legal entities or not, confusion arises
in the case of Hindu Temple deities. The apex court has, at times, recognized some Hindu Temple deities as legal entities
considering them as a Juristic person, although without fundamental rights. The underlying principle for such recognition
had been spelled out in the ‘Yogendra Nath Naskar vs Commissioner Of Income-Tax (1969)’ case. It follows as below:
“It is not all idols that will qualify for being ‘juristic person’ but only when it is consecrated and installed at a public place
for the public at large.”

Similarly, on March 20, 2017, the Uttarakhand High Court declared that the Ganga and Yamuna would be legally treated as
“living people” and enjoy “all corresponding rights, duties and liabilities of a living person”. However, the SC had the order
stayed saying that it raised several legal questions and administrative issues.

THANK YOU
11. Which of the following proposed a ‘Dominion Status’ for India?
1. August Offer
2. Cripps Proposals
3. Nehru Report
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a) 2 and 3

Note: The Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, issued a statement from Simla on 8 August 1940 in the response of when
congress formally ask England to affirm its adherence to the goal of Independence for India which is popularly
known August Offer.
The Cripps Mission was sent by the British government to India in March 1942 to obtain Indian cooperation for the
British war efforts in the 2nd World War. The Cripps Mission of 1942 proposed the further devolution of powers,
within Dominion status, to the political leadership of British India.
The Nehru Report of 28 August 1928 was a memorandum to appeal for a new dominion status and a federal set-up
of government for the constitution of India. It also proposed for the Joint Electorates with reservation of seats for
minorities in the legislatures.
12. With reference to civil services in India, consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution, the members of civil services of the Centre and the All-India Services hold office
during the pleasure of the President.
2. The Constitution provides that a civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed except after an inquiry in which he
has been given an opportunity of being heard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Both 1 and 2
Note: Article 310 in The Constitution Of India 1949 reads that
The members of civil services of the Centre and the All-India Services hold office during the pleasure of the
President.
Article 311 in The Constitution Of India 1949 reads that
A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed except after an inquiry in which he has been given an opportunity of
being heard.
13. Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the North Eastern Council (NEC)?
1. It is a constitutional body mandated to function as a regional planning body for the northeastern region of
India.
2. The Governors and Chief Ministers of all the North Eastern States are its member.
3. The Union Home Minister acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the NEC.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) 2 and 3 only
North Eastern Council (NEC) is a statutory advisory body constituted under the NEC Act 1971 and came into being
on 7 November 1972 at Shillong. The eight States of Northeast India viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, are members of the council, with their respective Chief
Ministers and Governors representing them. Sikkim was added to the council in the year 2002. The headquarters
of the council is situated in Shillong and functions under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
(DONER) of the Government of India.
14. An increase in the tax expenditure in the economy may lead to:
(a) Increase in the Tax-to-GDP ratio.
(b) Decrease in indirect subsidies given by the government.
(c) Increase in personal disposable income.
(d) Decrease in public debt.
Ans: (a) Increase in the Tax-to-GDP ratio

15. Which of the following measures can not be used to reduce inflation?
(a) Increasing Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(b) Increasing Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(c) Reducing fiscal deficit.
(d) Reducing Reverse Repo Rate
Ans: (d) Reducing Reverse Repo Rate
Note: CRR is the percentage of money, which a bank has to keep with RBI in the form of cash.
SLR is the proportion of liquid assets to time and demand liabilities.
CRR is purely a liquid or a cash component that the banks have to maintain with RBI, under the SLR requirement
apart from cash, other assets such as gold and government securities viz. Central and State government
securities are required to be parked with the regulator.
The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as fiscal deficit.
Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows funds from the commercial banks in
the country.
16. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to SEBI (Security and Exchange Board
of India) and RBI (Reserve Bank of India)?
1. RBI is a statutory authority while SEBI is a non-statutory authority.
2. Commercial Banks are regulated by RBI, while securities markets are regulated by SEBI.
3. Both RBI and SEBI can have regulatory jurisdictions over Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (d) 2 and 3

Note: The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve
Bank of India Act, 193 since nationalization in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
RBI implements and monitors the monetary policy and ensures price stability while keeping in mind the objective
of growth
SEBI is a statutory body established on April 12, 1992 in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and
Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
The basic functions of the SEBI is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the
securities market.
17. Which of the following best describes the ‘Global Forest Watch’?
(a) It is a biennial report published by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) about the global forest
degradation.
(b) It is a dynamic online forest monitoring and alert system that empowers people everywhere to better manage
forests.
(c) It is a framework developed by Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) for assessing forest
degradation.
(d) It is a civil society organisation under the aegis of United Nations aimed at protection of forests and their
resources.

Ans: (b) It is a dynamic online forest monitoring and alert system that empowers people everywhere to better
manage forests.
Note: Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time.
GFW is an initiative of the World Resources Institute (WRI), with partners including Google, USAID, the University
of Maryland (UMD), Esri, Vizzuality and many other academic, non-profit, public, and private organizations.
Global Forest Watch originally began in 1997 as an initiative to establish a global forest monitoring network,
convened by the World Resources Institute and partners.
18. Which of the following is/are correct with reference to the Kaziranga National Part?
1. It is located on the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot.
2. It is recognised as a world heritage site by UNESCO.
3. It is recognized as an ‘Important Bird’ by Birdlife International.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Note: Kaziranga is located on the edge of Eastern Himalayan Biodiversity Hotspot. It
is recognized as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985. It is also recognized as an Important
Bird Area by BirdLife International.
19. Consider the following statements regarding International Fund for Animal Welfare (IIFAW):
1. It is a global fund under the aegis of World Wildlife Fund for protecting animals and their habitats.
2. It is one of the members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note: The International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW) is one of the largest animal welfare and conservation
charities in the world. The organization works to rescue individual animals, safeguard populations, preserve habitat,
and advocate for greater protections. Brian Davies founded IFAW. Founded in 1969, New Brunswick, Canada.
Headquarters in Washington, D.C., United States.
IFAW works to protect animals in more than 40 countries.
20. Consider the following statements:
1. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority can cap the prices of both drugs and medical devices in India.
2. There are no rules defining bulk drugs in India.
3. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is responsible for the conduct of clinical trials in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) 2 and 3 only
Note: The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is a government regulatory agency that controls the prices
of pharmaceutical drugs in India. It was constituted vide Government of India Resolution dated 29th August, 1997 as
an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers as an
independent Regulator for pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable
prices.
A bulk drug, also called an active pharmaceutical ingredient (API), is the key ingredient of a drug or medicine, which
lends it the desired therapeutic effect or produces the intended pharmacological activity.

CDCSO are responsible for approval of New Drugs, Clinical Trials in the country, laying down the standards for Drugs,
control over the quality of imported Drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and
providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
21. Consider the following statements with reference to Heavy water and Hard water:
1. Though the molecular composition of both Heavy water and Hard water are same, they differ in their mineral
composition.
2. Heavy water is radioactive and Hard water is not.
3. Only Hard water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None
22. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Viruses can infect
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Plants
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of
Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard
to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of
decline.
25. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State
Governments
(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April,
2004
27. Consider the following pairs:
Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
1. Lipstick - Lead
2. Soft drinks – Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast – Monosodium food glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange
reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the
near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
29. Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-
selections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/merges of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
30. Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2