ALE 2014 Animal Science Autosaved - Docx 2003409664

AGRICULTURISTS
LICENSURE EXAMINATION
(ALE)
REVIEW QUESTIONS
ANIMAL SCIENCE
Contributors
Dr. Mary Joy S. Cañolas

Dr. Josephine R. Migalbin
Mr. Jurhamid C. Imlan
Mr. Vic Lawrence P. Oliva
Ms. Dynah Jane L. Macalolot
May 2014
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ANIMAL SCIENCE
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF FARM ANIMALS

(Genetics, Breeding and Reproduction)
1. Muscle that is largely found in visceral structures associated with the

digestive system, urogenital system, respiratory system and vascular
system.
a. skeletal muscle c. smooth muscle
b. cardiac muscle d. striated muscle
2. This kind of muscle is composed of cells that appear to be spindle-

shaped contractile unit with a centrally located nucleus.
b. cardiac muscle d. none of the above
3. The filaments in this muscle are also present as actin and myosin
molecules however; there are no orderly arrangements to form
striations.
4. Nerve stimulation is not required for the normal contraction of this

kind of muscle. Stimuli such as distention, chemical or hormonal
influences, or myogenic self excitation can bring about contraction.
5. It is the wave of involuntary muscle contractions that transport food,

waste matter, or other contents through a tube-shaped organ such as
the intestine.
a. peristalsis c. rhythmic contraction
b. pulse d. heart beat
6. A mineral that is responsible for producing muscle tension,

contraction, and relaxation.
a. calcium c. iron
b. potassium d. magnesium
7. The most striking characteristic of this kind of muscle is the tendency

of the muscle fibers to join, forming a network.
8. Plenty of blood supply is needed in this kind of muscle because it

started its rhythmic contraction from early fetal life continuously until
death of the animal.
9. It does not require nerve stimulation. It has the ability to generate

action potentials rhythmically, which is done by a pacemaker.
234 | P a g e
10. This pacemaker depolarizes faster than any other part of the heart
muscle
a. Sino-atrial node c. purkinje system
b. Atrio-ventricular node d. bundle of His
11. It is a muscle that is attached to the skeleton, also called flesh of the
animals
a. voluntary striated muscle c. beef
b. involuntary striated muscle d. smooth muscle
12. It is composed of multinucleated cell with cross striations.
13. It is a connective tissue which attaches muscles to bones

a. tendon c. fascia
b. ligament d. adipose
14. These are tiny fibers arranged parallel to the long axis of the muscle
fiber. It contains thousands of myosin and actin filaments
a. myofilaments c. myofibrils
b. skeletal muscles d. muscle fiber
15. It is a cytoplasm of the muscle cell, within are delicate tubules called
the
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
a. cytoplasm c. protoplasm
b. sarcoplasm d. cytosol
16. Generally, males have larger muscle fibers than female animals.
a. true c. maybe
b. false d. not sure
17. Contraction is the primary function of muscle fibers, but only about
one-fourth of the energy used is available for actual work, the rest of
the energy is dissipated as heat.
a. true c. maybe
18. It is a spasmodic contraction of muscles to produce enough heat to

maintain normal body temperature whenever environmental
temperature is much below the normal body temperature.
a. shivering c. flexion
b. spasms d. rigor mortis
19. The skin is consisting of two layers: a superficial covering of stratified

squamous epithelium, the epidermis, and a deeper layer dense of
irregular connective tissue, the dermis which is also known as the
____.
a. derma c. blister
b. adipose d. corium
20. The following are modified epidermal structures, except

a. hair c. ergots
b. horns d. callus
235 | P a g e
21. Arteries, veins, capillaries and lymphatics are concentrated in this
part of the skin.
a. epidermis c. hypodermis
b. dermis d. undercoat
22. It is formed when there is considerable wear, irritation or pressure

applied in the deeper layers of the epidermis.
a. callus c. excessive hair growth
b. blister d. footpad
23. Sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and arrector pili muscles are found
in this part of the skin.
a. epidermis c. hypodermis
b. dermis d. Undercoat
24. The color of the skin is due to the presence of pigment granules
within the cytoplasm of the pigment cells. The pigment is called
a. melanosomes c. melanin
b. melanocytes d. MSH
25. The dark color skin result from the dispersion of melanin granules
into the cell cytoplasmic processes of surrounding tissues.
a. true c. maybe
26. When melanin granules are concentrated near the nucleus, it will
result to light color skin.
a. true c. maybe
27. Absence of pigment in the skin

a. albino c. white skin
b. albinism d. white hair
28. Partial or total albinism is dangerous because it makes the animal

more susceptible to the effects of sunlight.
a. true c. maybe
29. MSH or melanocyte-stimulating hormone enables lower form of
animals to change rapidly their skin color, but higher vertebrates do
not have this ability.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. not sure
30. A condition in animals in which the unpigmented areas of the skin

become edematous (filled with fluid) and may even slough off.
a. swelling c. allergies
b. greenstick d. photosensitization
31. An areolar connective tissue that permits movement of the skin

without tearing.
a. fascia c. panniculus adiposus
b. subcutaneous d. none of the above
236 | P a g e
32. This is classified as holocrine glands because of their oily secretory
product, sebum.
a. sudoriferous glands c. endocrine gland
b. sebaceous glands d. salivary gland
33. It forms the fleece of the sheep.

a. mohair c. mane
b. hide d. wool
34. It is a hair coat composed of dark hairs mixed evenly with white hairs
over most of the body.
a. roan c. black
b. paint d. bay
35. It consists of an approximately equal mixture of white and black

hairs.
a. chestnut c. dun
b. palomino d. gray
36. Its a color of the horse which has irregular white areas alternated
with colored areas.
a. black c. pinto
b. red bay d. dun
37. A condition in which both skin and hair lack pigment.

a. true albino c. albino
b. white horse d. albinism
38. It is a product of sebaceous glands of sheep

a. mineral oil c. sebum
b. lanolin d. cerumin
39. The following animals have sweat glands in their entire bodies,
however, only one of them sweats readily.
a. horse c. sheep
b. cow d. pig
40. It is the insensitive cornified layer of epidermis covering the distal

end of the digit.
a. hair c. spur
b. horn d. hoof
41. It is formed over the horn process, a bony core that projects from the
frontal bone of the skull.
a. horn c. claw
b. beak d. comb
42. These are horn-like growths on the medial sides of horse’s legs.
a. chestnuts b. ergots
b. dew claw d. spur
43. These are small projections of cornified epithelium in the center of

the caudal part of the fetlock of the horse.
a. ergots b. chestnuts
b. hoof c. dew claw
237 | P a g e
44. It is one of the most vital requirements of animals. Without it life is
measure in minutes.
a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide
b. water d. food
45. The primary function of the respiratory system is

a. supplying oxygen to the blood and removing carbon dioxide from the
blood
b. regulation of the acidity of the extracellular fluids of the body
c. assistance in temperature control
d. elimination of water and phonation (voice production)
46. It is a passage way which connects from the mouth into the stomach
a. pharynx c. esophagus
b. larynx d. trachea
47. Food can be swallowed at the same time air is inspired.

a. true c. maybe
48. It is called as the voice box, which controls inspiration and expiration
of air, prevents inhalation of foreign objects, and is essential for voice
production.
a. pharynx c. epiglottis
49. A smooth serous membrane which covers the lungs.

a. pleura c. pericardium
b. peritoneum d. meninges
50. It is the movement of air out of the lungs.

a. expiration c. sneezing
b. inspiration d. cough
51. The inflow of air into the lungs is known as

a. tidal volume c. total lung capacity
b. expiration d. inspiration
52. The pleura that lines the thorax is known as

a. parietal c. visceral
b. occipital d. distal
53. During respiration, some carbon dioxide chemically combines with

hemoglobin in the erythrocytes to form
a. saturated hemoglobin c. carbaminohemoglobin
b. carbonic anhydrase d. calcium carbonate
54. It refers to the normal quiet respiration.

a. eupnea c. hypoxia
b. dyspnea d. panting
238 | P a g e
55. A condition in which carbon dioxide accumulates in the blood
because the respiratory system cannot remove it and the blood pH
falls.
a. respiratory acidosis c. respiratory alkalosis
b. CO2 saturation d. Hering-Breuer reflex
56. Apnea means

a. increase depth or rate of breathing
b. absence or cessation of respiration
c. rapid shallow breathing
d. none of the above
57. It refers to volume of air inspired or expired during normal

respiration. It increases during excitement and activity.
a. Tidal volume c. vital capacity
b. Total lung capacity d. inspiratory reserve volume
58. The amount of air that can be inspired above and beyond that which
is inspired during a normal quiet inspiration
a. total lung volume c. inspiratory reserve volume
b. dead space d. vital capacity
59. It is the space occupied by air at the end of expiration.

a. dead space c. anatomic dead space
b. total lung volume d. tidal volume
60. Which of the following animals have lobulated shape kidneys

a. cattle and chicken c. pig and dogs
b. horse and cow d. chicken and horse
61. It is a muscular tube that conveys urine from the pelvis of the kidney
to the bladder.
a. glomerulus c. distal tubules
b. ureter d. loop of Henle
62. It is a hollow muscular organ that varies in size and position with the
amount of urine it contains.
a. urinary bladder c. pelvis
b. collecting tubules d. ureters
63. It is the basic unit of structure and function of the kidney.

a. bowman’s capsule c. nephron
b. proximal tubules d. urethra
64. It is a tuft of a capillaries interposed on the course of an arteriole.

a. glomerulus c. renal capsule
b. bowman’s capsule d. loop of Henle
65. It is a process in which unicellular organisms get their O 2 from the

fluid surrounding them and eliminate CO2 in the same way.
a. facilitated transport c. osmosis
b. active transport d. diffusion
239 | P a g e
66. It is a special system of air tubes that pipe air directly into many
regions of the body of insects, so that distance O2 diffuses to reach
tissue cells.
a. pharynx c. trachea
b. cell membrane d. respiratory apparatus
67. A system in which one of its functions is to carry to and from the
tissue cells large quantities of O2 and CO2, with the help of
hemoglobin
a. circulatory system c. respiratory system
b. endocrine system d. excretory system
68. A gas exchanger, air saturated with water vapor is drawn into
intimate contact with the blood flowing through the pulmonary
capillaries, and gases are exchanged. This system is called ____.
a. cardiovascular system c. excretory system
b. respiratory system d. endocrine system
69. The respiratory surfaces of this animal specie are folded within the
body to prevent drying of the delicate membranes.
a. grasshoppers c. amoeba
b. horse d. tuna
70. Also known as the windpipe.

a. throat c. larynx
b. bronchi d. trachea
71. It keeps the trachea always open.

a. rings of cartilage c. membranes
b. celia d. muscles and membranes
72. It divided into the right and left bronchi in the lower respiratory tract.
a. kidneys c. trachea
b. alveolar sacs d. terminal bronchioles
73. These are blind pouches located at the end of each terminal tube,
here gas exchange occurs.
a. terminal bronchioles c. lungs
b. bronchioles d. alveolar sacs
74. The number of alveoli in the two lungs of man is about

a. 300,000,000 c. 4 million
b. 700,000 d. 100 million
75. The interior portion of this organ is in free communication with the
outside air through the respiratory passages. It is also regarded as two
elastic membranous sac.
a. air sacs c. lungs
b. visceral pleura d. larynx
76. It is a reflex activity stimulated by stretch receptors in the bladder

wall that respond to distention of the urinary bladder created by the
constant inflow of urine by way of the ureters.
a. pissing c. transition
b. urination d. micturition
240 | P a g e
77. It is a composite organ that consists of thousands to millions of
similar microscopic functional units, the nephrons.
a. lungs c. ovaries
b. kidneys d. adrenal glands
78. The following are processes involve in urine formation, except

a. glomerular filtration c. selective tubular secretion
b. selective tubular reabsorption d. selective tubular collection
79. It is the fluid and fluid constituents that pass from the blood plasma
in the glomerulus into the urinary space of Bowman’s capsule.
a. urine c. plasma dilute
b. bicarbonate solution d. glomerular filtrate
80. It is the longest of the tubules found in the kidneys that make up
most of the renal cortex. Its tubule cells are cuboidal, with a luminal
border that is modified with microvilli (brush border).
a. proximal tubule c. distal tubule
b. loop of Henle d. collecting tubule
81. It is an accessory organ of the male reproductive system which is

divided into a head, a body and a tail.
a. ductus deferens c. urethra
b. epididymis d. penis
82. Embryologically, the male reproductive system is closely related to

a. nervous system c. digestive system
b. urinary system d. circulatory system
83. Testosterone is the male sex hormone produce by the

a. scrotum c. testis
b. leydig cells d. sertoli cells
84. It provides a favorable environment for the production and

maturation of spermatozoa.
a. scrotum c. testis
b. penis d. all of the above
85. The following are the accessory sex glands which provided the
spermatozoa a condition conducive to fertilization of the ovum, except
a. epididymis c. vesicular glands
b. ampullary glands d. prostate
86. A period in which immature spermatozoa must undergo of

maturation within the epididymis before they are capable of fertilizing
ova.
a. 5-7 days c. 10-15 days
b. 3-5 days d. 9 days
87. It is a layer of fibroelastic tissue mixed with smooth muscle fibers

that lies immediately under the skin of the scrotum. During exposure
to cold, its muscles contract and assist in holding the testes against
the abdominal wall.
a. vaginal tunic c. tunica dartos
b. scrotum d. spermatic cord
241 | P a g e
88. The relatively high temperature of the abdomen does not interfere
with the production of testosterone, so the cryptorchid animal has all
the behaviors and appearance of a normal male, except that no testes
are evident and no normal spermatozoa are produced.
a. true c. maybe
89. It is used as a passage for both the urinary system and the male
reproductive system.
a. glans penis c. testes
b. urethra d. ureter
90. Testicles of farm animals do not vary as far as shape, size and
location are concerned.
a. true c. maybe
91. It is a long, convoluted tube that connects the vasa efferentia of the
testis with the vas deferens.
a. reste testis c. epididymis
b. tunica vaginalis d. scrotum
92. It serves as a place for spermatozoa to mature prior to the time they
are expelled by ejaculation.
a. seminiferous tubules c. urethra
b. epididymis d. seminal vesicles
93. It is a muscular tube which at the time of ejaculation, propels the

spermatozoa from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct in the
prostatic urethra.
a. epididymis c. ductus deferens
b. vasa efferentia d. seminal vesicles
94. It is a passage from the abdominal cavity to the exterior that extends
from the internal inguinal ring to the external inguinal ring.
a. spermatic cord c. inguinal tube
b. inguinal canal d. spermatic outlet
95. Castration is a term usually applied to the removal of the testes of

the male, what technical term is used to the removal of ovaries in
female?
a. ovarectomy c. caponizing
b. spaying d. none of the above
96. It is practiced to prevent animals with inferior blood lines from

reproducing.
a. slaughtering c. selection
b. culling d. castration
97. The following are terms used for castrates of the different farm
animal species, except.
a. horses: geldings c. cattle: steers
b. sheep: capons d. swine: barrows
242 | P a g e
98. A process of removal of a section of each of the ductus derefentia to
prevent the passage of spermatozoa from the epididymis, but has no
effect on the libido of the animal.
a. castration c. vasectomy
b. chyptorchidism d. spaying
99. The male accessory sex glands include the following, except
a. ampullae c. prostate gland
b. seminal vesicles d. glans penis
100. Glandular enlargements of the terminal parts of the ductus

deferentia which are well developed in the stallion, bull, and ram but
absent in the boar.
a. prostate gland c. bulbourethral glands
b. ampullae d. vesicular glands
101. It is an unpaired gland that more or less completely surrounds the

pelvic urethra. It produces an alkaline secretion that helps give
semen its characteristic odor.
a. prostate gland c. ampullae
b. cowper’s glands d. none of the above
102. It is the male organ of copulation.

a. testes c. penis
b. seminiferous tubules d. scrotum
103. A muscle which pulls the testis up against the external inguinal
ring, particularly in cold weather.
a. urethral muscle c. external cremaster muscle
b. internal cremaster muscle d. none of the above
104. It is an increased in the turgidity of the organ caused by a greater

inflow than outflow of blood, with resultant increase in pressure
within the penis.
a. erection c. spermatogenesis
b. ejaculation d. none of the above
105. It is a reflex emptying of the epididymis, urethra, and accessory sex

glands of the male.
a. erection c. ejaculation
b. libido d. flexion
106. Lack of libido (sex drive) and inability to produce offspring are two
of the most obvious effects of castration and the resultant lack of this
hormone.
a. epinephrine c. prostaglandin
b. testosterone d. androgen
107. Spermatogenesis is initiated by FSH from the anterior pituitary

gland, but completed by this hormone.
a. inhibin c. testosterone
b. LH d. prolactin
108. In mammals, an embryo with XX chromosomes will become a

a. male c. dog
b. female d. chicken
243 | P a g e
109. A female calf that develops in the same uterus with a normal male
twin.
a. calf c. freemartin
b. Barr body d. heifer
110. It is a process by which primary sex cells in the testis produce

spermatozoa
a. spermatogenesis c. meiosis
b. sperm production d. none of the above
111. These are generalized cells at the periphery of seminiferous

tubules, they increase in number by mitosis.
a. spermatozoa c. primary spermatocytes
b. spermatogonia d. secondary spermatocytes
112. Acrosome is found at what part of the sperm cell?

a. head c. tail
b. midpiece or neck d. end piece
113. Enzymes present in mammalian spermatozoa, necessary during

penetration of the ovum by the sperm cell during fertilization.
a. prostaglandin c. acrosin and hyaluronidase
b. FSH and LH d. testosterone and estrogen
114. A hormone necessary in the development of the ductile system of

the mammary gland at each estrus period and all through pregnancy.
a. FSH c. estrogen
b. LH d. progesterone
115. Together with estrogen this hormone is necessary for full alveolar
growth of the mammary system.
a. prolactin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. testosterone
116. At parturition, the circulating titers of ovarian and placental steroid

hormones fall which resulted in involution of the corpus luterum thus
lactogenesis occurs.
a. true c. maybe
117. The following are the hormones essential for the initiation of
lactation, except
a. prolactin c. adrenal corticoids
b. growth hormone d. aldosterone
118. Feeding a high calorie diet to cows during their life before their first
calf will generally reduce their milk yield.
a. true c. maybe
119. It is a systemic reflex in which sensory nerves from the mammary

glands carry impulses that reach the hypothalamus and initiate the
release of posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin.
a. reflex arc c. milk let-down
b. milk secretion d. lactogenesis
244 | P a g e
120. The usual stimulus for the milk let-down reflex is
a. sounds of pail c. massaging of the udder
b. suckling d. feeding
121. The following are disturbing stimuli that inhibit milk ejection reflex,
except
a. dogs barking c. sight of the calf
b. excess muscular activity d. pain
122. A hormone that blocks the normal milk ejection reflex associated
with disturbing stimuli.
a. epinephrine c. thyroxine
b. acetylcholine d. growth hormone
123. A period in which the milk let-down effect ends, which is attributed
to either inactivation or dissipation of the oxytocin in the
bloodstream.
a. 5 minutes c. 15 minutes
b. 10 minutes d. 20 minutes
124. The recommended interval between milking of cows to yield the

greatest milk volume is
a. every 8 – 12 hours c. every 6 – 8 hours
b. every 10 – 12 hours d. every 12 – 15 hours
125. It is the first milk produced upon delivery of the newborn. Besides
containing lymphocytes and monocytes that protect against
exposure to infection, it contains a greatly increased amount of
protein, especially albumins and globulins, plus high levels of
vitamins A, E, carotene and riboflavin.
a. whey c. colostrum
b. evaporated milk d. whole milk
126. Studies show that supplemental lighting (about 16 hours of light

each day) stimulates both lactation and growth rate in cattle and
sheep. This finding suggests that:
a. Light has a stimulatory effect on development and function of
the gonads
which is apparently mediated through the pineal gland.
b. Light increased the concentration of prolactin in the blood.
c. The concentrations of LH also varied with light exposure
d. All of the above
127. The following are low in colostrum compared to normal milk, except
a. lactose c. iron
b. vitamin E d. vitamin D
128. This is where the young animals obtain a passive immunity against
certain diseases until they can develop their own antibodies.
a. vaccination c. colostrum intake
b. mild infection d. exposure to certain pathogen
129. Too long milk feeding of calves will result to a condition called
a. hypocalcemia c. osteomalacia
b. tetany d. hypomagnesemia
245 | P a g e
130. It is the principal carbohydrate of milk; it is derived from blood
glucose and synthesized in the mammary gland.
a. cellulose c. maltose
b. lactose d. galactose
131. In any case that lowers or elevates the concentration of glucose in

the blood, the lactose content of milk remains constant.
a. true c. maybe
132. Galactose synthesis can also take place in other tissues of the
animal’s body besides the mammary gland.
a. true c. maybe
133. A volatile fatty acid (VFA) which is readily used in the synthesis of
lactose by way of gluconeogenesis.
a. acetic acid c. propionic acid
b. butyric acid d. hydrochloric acid
134. It is a disaccharide which is normally found only in the mammary

gland or in the milk.
a. sucrose c. maltose
b. lactose d. celliobiose
135. Cow’s milk proteins that are found in relatively large quantities.
a. casein c. proteose-peptone fraction
b. lactalbumin d. all of the above
136. The major protein in milk is

a. immunoglobins c. casein
b. lactoglobulin d. lactalbumin
137. Urea, uric acid, creatine, creatinine and ammonia; all are waste
products from cellular metabolism are also found in milk as
nonprotein nitrogen (NPN) compounds.
a. true c. maybe
138. The composition of milk differs from one species to another;

however no differences can be noted between breeds within the
same species.
a. true c. maybe
139. Among the following cattle breeds, this has the highest milk fat
content
a. Guernsey c. Jersey
b. Ayshire d. Brown Swiss
140. Among the following cattle breeds, this has the highest milk protein
content
a. Shorthorn c. Ayshire
b. Brown Swiss d. Jersey
246 | P a g e
141. Among the following cattle breeds, this has the highest lactose
content
a. Brown Swiss c. Ayshire
b. Jersey d. Guernsey
142. Among the following animal species, this has the highest milk fat
content
a. cattle c. sheep
b. goat d. swine
143. Nonruminant mammary glands utilize glucose for both energy and
as the source of carbon for lipogenesis while ruminants depend on
_______ for fatty acid synthesis.
a. acetate c. bile
b. butyric acid d. orotic acid
144. The normal decrease in lactation is due to

a. hormonal changes that result from changes in neurohumoral
stimuli
associated with suckling
b. gradual decrease in number of active alveoli
c. increase of connective tissue stroma
d. all of them
145. The ovaries are the primary organs of reproduction in the female; it
may be considered to be both endocrine and cytogenic (cell
producing).
a. true c. maybe
146. Ovaries are somewhat almond-shaped in most animal species,

however in the mare it is
a. heart shape c. bean shape
b. lobulated d. oval shape
147. Animals not bearing litters normally have only one offspring per
gestation.
a. polytocous c. polyestrus
b. prolific d. monotocous animals
148. In polytocous animals, usually several follicles rupture at

approximately at the same time, the ova may all come from one
ovary, or some may come from each ovary, a polytocous animal is
a. swine c. horse
b. cattle d. goat
149. The corpus luteum has a yellow color in the mare and cow but in
the ewe and sow it is
a. pinkish c. brownish
b. grayish white d. reddish blue
150. It is a paired, convoluted tubes that conduct the ova from each
ovary to the respective horn of the uterus, it also serve as the usual
site for fertilization of ova by spermatozoa.
a. infundibulum c. vagina
b. oviducts d. vulva
247 | P a g e
151. It is the fringe-like margin of the infundibulum which appears to
have an active part in ovulation, directing the ovum into the
abdominal opening of the uterine tube.
a. theca externa c. antrum
b. fimbria d. tunica albuginea
152. The following are parts of the uterus of the domestic mammal,
except
a. labia c. cornua
b. corpus d. neck
153. These are mushroom like projections from the inner surface of the
uteri of ruminants that give attachment to the fetal membranes
during gestation.
a. cervix c. caruncles
b. mesometrium d. fornix
154. It is considered as the neck of the uterus that in reality, it is a

heavy, smooth-muscle sphincter that is tightly closed except during
estrus or at parturition.
a. horn of the uterus c. vagina
b. cervix d. urethra
155. Part of the broad ligament which supports the ovary

a. mesovarium c. mesometrium
b. mesosalpinx d. none of the above
156. It is a portion of the birth canal which serves as a sheath for

acceptance of the penis of the male during copulation.
a. uterus c. vagina
b. cervix d. vulva
157. It is located in the ventral commissure of the vulva, which has the
same embryonic origin as the penis in the male. It consists of two
crura, a body and a glans.
a. penis c. vulva
b. clitoris d. none of the above
158. It is the period during which reproductive organs first become

functional.
a. estrus c. puberty
b. oogenesis d. poverty
159. The onset of puberty varies within species depending on the

following, except
a. climatic conditions c. levels of hormones released
b. level of nutrition d. level of management
160. Ovarian developments associated with sexual maturity include the

following, except
a. oogenesis c. capacitation
b. ovulation d. formation of corpora lutea
161. It refers to the female reproductive cell

a. spermatozoa c. ootid
b. polocyte d. graafian follicle
248 | P a g e
162. It refers to the rudimentary cells (usually three) as a result of cell
division of female sex cell
a. somatic cell c. oogonium
b. polocytes d. corpus luteum
163. In most animals, the first polar body is given off in the ovary. The
second polar body is given off after ovulation occurs, when will be
the third polar body be released resulting to only one mature ovum.
a. during estrus c. during fertilization
b. after estrus d. after fertilization
164. The ovarian follicle increases in size, due primarily to the large
amount of fluid produced, it exerts pressure on the surface of the
ovary resulting in a definite bulging and consequent thinning of the
surface of the ovary, in much the same way an abscess “points”
toward the surface of the body and eventually ruptures. The
statement above describes the process of
a. rupture of an abscess c. release of the follicle
b. oviposition d. ovulation
165. In most mammals, ovulation is closely associated with estrus,

because the surge of large amount of estrogen into the bloodstream
is just prior to ovulation.
a. true c. maybe
166. A hormone necessary in the formation of the corpus luteum.

a. follicle stimulating hormone c. estrogen
b. luteinizing hormone d. progesterone
167. It is a sac filled with fluid which has the feel of a blister during
palpation.
a. graafian follicle c. corpus luteum
b. ovary d. ovarian cyst
168. An endocrine gland that produces progesterone, a hormone

necessary for maintenance of pregnancy.
a. pancreas c. ovary
b. corpus luteum d. anterior pituitary gland
169. It is an important cause of temporary infertility in dairy cattle,

because the corpus luteum of estrus fails to regress and the animal
does not come in heat.
a. retained placenta c. gestating
b. lactating d. retained corpus luteum
170. A cystic condition of the ovary may also cause sterility because of
an abnormally large number of follicles developing at the same time
without rupturing or regressing which causes the animal to be in
heat much of the time. An animal suffering from cystic ovaries may
be called
a. henny c. nymphomaniac
b. horny d. nymphies
249 | P a g e
171. It is the interval from the beginning of one heat period to the
beginning of the next.
a. estrus cycle c. puberty
b. estrus period d. estrus
172. It is a period of sexual receptivity in the female, which is determined

largely by circulating estrogen level.
a. proestrus c. estrus
b. metestrus d. diestrus
173. Follicular rupture occurs spontaneously in most animal species,

however, in the cat, rabbit, mink and ferret, rupture is possible only
if copulation occurs. Thus these animals are called
a. spontaneous ovulators c. copulation induced ovulators
b. reflex-ovulators d. none of the above
174. If coitus does not occur in reflex-ovulator animals, the follicle with
enclosed ovum regresses. A sterile mating frequently is followed by
a. estrus c. pregnancy
b. ovulation d. pseudopregnancy
175. It is the postovulatory phase during which the corpus luteum

functions. The length of this period may depend on the length of
time LTH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
a. estrus c. metestrus
b. proestrus d. anestrus
176. During metestrus, the cavity left by the rupturing of the follicle
begins to reorganize. The lining of the ruptured follicle begins to
grow inward as the blood vascular supply increases within the
cavity. The cells lining the cavity that have not been expelled
increase in size, multiply, and become laden with fat droplets. The
newly reorganized structure is called
a. corpus luteum c. yellow body
b. corpura lutea d. all of the above
177. It has a strong inhibitory effect on FSH production by the anterior

pituitary gland, thus prevents further development of follicles and
hence prevents the occurrence of further estrous periods.
a. LH c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. prolactin
178. It refers to the long period of inactivity between sexual seasons.

a. diestrus c. pregnancy
b. anestrus d. pseudopregnancy
179. It is the period of build-up during which follicles increase in size,

vaginal wall thickens, and uterine vascularity increases.
a. proestrus c. metestrus
b. estrus d. diestrus
180. It is a short period of inactivity before the next proestrus period

during the breeding season of polyestrus animals.
a. metestrus c. proestrus
b. diestrus d. estrus
250 | P a g e
181. It is a period of successive estrous cycles.
a. estrus season c. breeding season
b. monoestrus d. sheep and dogs
182. Changes in the body may occur similar to pregnancy, but no

embryo or fetus is present
a. sterile c. trial pregnancy
b. pseudopregnancy d. return to estrus
183. The average length of the estrous period in the mare is

approximately
a. 5 days c. 7 days
b. 6 days d. 8 days
184. How many hours when ovulation mostly occurs following the end of
estrus in the cow?
a. 30-40 hours c. 10-15 hours
b. 6-7 hours d. 18-24 hours
185. This animal is seasonally polyestrus, with a long period of anestrus

followed by a breeding season that may vary from 1 to 20
consecutive estrous cycles.
a. sheep c. cattle
b. goats d. horse
186. Many sows exhibit a nonfertile estrus one to three days following
parturition. In nearly all of these animals, ovulation does not occur.
Thus breeding is not advisable. This phenomenon is called
a. nonfertile heat c. lactation heat
b. heat or estrus d. postpartum heat
187. Ovulation in sows occurs during the latter part of estrus about the
second day of the cycle. At each period, the average egg being shed
is
a. 20 c. 16
b. 18 d. 14
188. It refers to the sex drive associated with receptivity to the male by
the female in heat.
a. standing heat c. sex drive
b. libido d. puberty
189. The following has the right combinations, except

a. estrogens : follicle c. progesterone : corpus luteum
b. testosterone : leydig cells d. prostaglandin : placenta
190. The term estrogen refers to any of a group of compounds that act as
female sex hormones and stimulate female accessory sex glands.
The following are natural estrogens produced by the mammalian
ovary or placenta, what is the synthetic one?
a. estrone c. diethylstilbestrol
b. estradiol d. estriol
251 | P a g e
191. This is the most common synthetic estrogens, which was used to
produce abortion in some domestic animals; however it was banned
by the Food and Drug Administration as feed additive for fattening
animals.
a. estriol c. estradiol
b. estrone d. diethylstilbestrol
192. In addition to ovary, the following organs are also natural sources of
estrogens in the mammal, except
a. adrenal cortex c. testes
b. placenta d. pancreas
193. The following are the effects of estrogens in the female animal,
except
a. muscular activity of the uterine tubes and uterus
b. increases cellular water content
c. mild hemorrhages in the vaginal and vulval lining
d. protein synthesis
194. Progesterone is known as the hormone of pregnancy, it is produced

mainly by the corpus luteum, but is also found in the following,
except
a. testes c. adrenal cortex
b. thyroid gland d. placenta
195. It is the smallest unit of inheritance, found as segments or DNA on

a chromosome
a. DNA c. gene
b. chromosome d. alleles
196. During pregnancy, this hormone suspends ovulation by a feedback

inhibition of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.
a. estrogen c. insulin
b. progesterone d. thyroxine
197. It promotes complete development of the alveoli of the mammary

gland.
a. oxytocin c. luteotrophic hormone
b. estrogen d. progesterone
198. It acts on the tissues that have been primed or prepared by

estrogen.
a. aldosterone c. progesterone
b. epinephrine d. somatotropin
199. It causes the endometrium to thicken and to develop the uterine

glands prior to implantation of the fertilized ovum.
a. prostaglandin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. cortisol
200. A raise in body temperature is used in human as an indicator to

determine the time of ovulation. A temperature rise is correlated
with ovulation and the release of _____________ from the corpus
luteum.
a. prolactin c. progesterone
b. estrogen d. oxytocin
252 | P a g e
201. It is a water-soluble, nonsteroid polypeptide hormone that is formed
by the ovaries.
a. estrogen c. progesterone
b. relaxin d. inhibin
202. Relaxin can also be produced in some other organs and glands,
except in
a. corpus luteum c. placenta
b. adrenal cortex d. endometrium
203. It causes relaxation of the pelvic ligaments and the cervix at

parturition
a. estrogen c. oxytocin
b. relaxin d. testosterone
204. Human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) is a gonadotrophin that

serves as the basis for pregnancy test in human. It is secreted by
a. ovary c. fetus
b. corpus luteum d. trophoblastic cells
205. It is a glycoprotein hormone secreted by the trophoblastic cells of

the implanted developing zygote membranes.
a. relaxin c. prostaglandin
b. chorionic gonadotrophin d. progesterone
206. It functions like luteinizing hormone in the human, but in the mare
it functions more like FSH.
a. vitamin A c. chorionic gonadotrophin
b. progesterone d. prolactin
207. It inhibits the production of prolactin by the adenohypophysis

during pregnancy.
a. oxytocin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. chorionic gonadotrophin
208. It causes to continue the release of prolactin in the blood stream, to
replenish the milk supply as needed.
a. nursing c. hot compress
b. massaging of the udder d. feeding
209. It refers to the condition of a female while young are developing

within her uterus.
a. parturition c. gestation
b. lactation d. puberty
210. A mare was bred on February 27, 2012 and after a month she was
diagnosed to be pregnant, when foaling will most likely to happen?
a. December 6, 2012 c. December 31, 2012
b. January 28, 2013 d. January 4, 2013
211. A pregnancy diagnosis was conducted by a farm veterinarian on

October 19, 2012 to determine which animals are conceiving. Cow
number 204 was diagnosed to be four months pregnant, however
three months later the cow delivered a calf. When was time the cow
was bred if it delivered on January 22, 2013?
a. April 14, 2012 c. April 16, 2012
b. April 15, 2012 d. April 17, 2012
253 | P a g e
212. The sow was bred on August 7, 2012; 24 days after that, the sow
did not show signs of heat, thus it was reported that the sow was
pregnant, but the owner would like to be certain and so another
observation will be done on
a. the next 18 days c. the next 24 hours
b. the next 42 days d. the next 90 days
213. All the breedable female carabaos in Brgy. Ginatilan was artificially
inseminated by an A.I. Technician from the Philippine Carabao
Center. Since 40% is the acceptable conception rate using A.I., it
was expected that only eight will conceive however, a year later it
was reported that 12 of them successfully delivered their calves.
How many breedable female carabaos were inseminated by the
technician?
a. 30 c. 12
b. 20 d. 40
214. It is a process which involves a partial breakdown of the outer

acrosome and plasma membranes of the sperm, so that acrosomal
enzymes can be released; the enzymes in turn, can penetrate the
zona pellucida.
a. fertilization c. penetration
b. attachment d. capacitation
215. It activates the metabolic activity of the sperm cell by increasing the
cell’s rate of glycolysis and increasing its oxidative metabolism.
a. sperm migration c. capacitation
b. fertilization d. fusion
216. Capacitation of the spermatozoa begins in the __________ and is

completed in the oviduct.
a. vagina c. uterus
b. cervix d. oviduct
217. Upon ovulation the ovum enters the infundibulum of the uterine
tube and is then transported down the oviduct into the uterus. The
ovum remains viable in the oviduct for about _____ hours.
a. 24 hours c. 36 hours
b. 12 hours d. 6 hours
218. The union of gametes or fertilization normally takes place in the

_________ of the oviduct.
a. ampulla c. body
b. horn d. tail
219. It refers to the cell membrane of the ovum

a. zona pellucida c. vitelline membrane
b. corona radiata d. none of the above
220. It is the process whereby the new embryo becomes established at a

developmental site on the endometrium in the uterus.
a. capacitation c. attachment
b. fertilization d. implantation
254 | P a g e
221. It refers to the fertilized ovum by the spermatozoon.
a. zygote c. morula
b. blastocyst d. embryo
222. It consists of an arrangement of membranes such that nutrition

from the dam can reach the fetus, and in turn, waste products from
the fetus can be excreted by the dam. It is known as the
a. umbilical cord c. placenta
b. water bag d. fetal membranes
223. It is the study of bones that make up the skeleton, or framework of

the body.
a. myology c. cardiology
b. osteology d. dermatology
224. The heart and lungs are protected by the

a. pelvis c. vertebral column
b. skull d. rib cage
225. These are bones that are cuboid, or approximately equal in all
dimensions. No marrow cavity, but the interior is composed of
spongy bone filled with marrow spaces.
a. long bones c. flat bones
b. short bones d. sesamoid bones
226. These are unpaired bones on the median plane, they do not fit well
into any other descriptive classification. They feature prominent
processes and offer protection, support, and muscular attachment.
a. sesamoid bone c. flat bones
b. long bones d. irregular bones
227. It consists of a relatively cylindrical shaft and two extremities. It

functions chiefly as levers and aid in support, locomotion, and
prehension.
a. long bones c. irregular bones
b. flat bones d. short bones
228. Flat bones consist of two plates of compact bone, the lamina
externa and lamina interna, separated by spongy material called
diploë. Below are flatbones, except
a. scapula c. skull
b. pelvis d. patella
229. It contains air spaces or sinuses that communicate with the

atmosphere. This is the characteristics of avian bone in which it
communicates with the respiratory system.
a. flat bones c. skull
b. pneumatic bones d. sesamoid bones
230. These are bones that are attached to the midline (axis) of the body.
a. ribs c. axial skeleton
b. radius and ulna d. sternum
231. The following are bones that comprised the axial skeleton, except
a. vertebral column c. ribs
b. femur d. skull
255 | P a g e
232. It protects the brain, supports many of the sense organs, and forms
passages for entry to the digestive and respiratory systems.
a. skull c. short bones
b. fibula d. patella
233. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. cranium : braincase c. tibia : leg
b. nasal : nose bridge d. hyoid : tongue
234. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. cervical : neck region c. lumbar : loin
b. thoracic : tail d. sacral : pelvis
235. It is the first cervical vertebra in which the spinous process is

absent.
a. axis c. axle
b. atlas d. atlantic
236. The pelvic girdle is consists of three bones on each side, which are
fused to form two irregular bones, the os coxae. Which of the three
bones is the smallest?
a. ischium c. pubis
b. ilium d. ileum
237. It is largest sesamoid bone in the body.

a. paella c. pansit
b. patel d. patella
238. These are mature bone cells that have lost their ability to divide.
a. osteocytes c. osteoblasts
b. osteoclasts d. osteogens
239. It is the formation of true bone by the deposition of calcium salts in

a matrix of osteoid tissue.
a. calcification c. ostentification
b. ossification d. magnification
240. It is the deposition of calcium salts in any tissue.

a. siltation c. petrology
b. ossification d. calcification
241. Joints are classified based on their structure and the material that
unites them, such as the following, except
a. fibrous joints c. synovial joints
b. cartilaginous joints d. membranous joints
242. It refers to the junction between bones of the skull which are
united by fibrous tissue early in life but may ossify after maturity.
a. gomphosis c. suture
b. meniscus d. joint capsure
243. It is the fluid which lubricates the normal joint.

a. cerebrospinal fluid c. interstitial fluid
b. synovial fluid d. arthrial fluid
256 | P a g e
244. These are connective tissue bands that extend from bone to bone.
Their names are derived from their location in relation to the joint
capsule.
a. tendon c. parietal membrane
b. ligament d. visceral membrane
245. A true joint can exhibit one or more movements such as gliding or
sliding, flexion, extension, hyperextension, rotation, adduction,
abduction, and circumduction.
a. true c. maybe
246. The functions of the blood include the following, excluding

a. carries nutrients made available by the digestive tract to body
tissues
b. hormones are carried from endocrine glands to other organs of
the body.
c. eliminates excess water
d. carries carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs
247. Which of the following are not considered as typical cells?

a. red blood cells and white blood cells
b. red blood cells and platelets
c. white blood cells and platelets
d. white blood cells
248. These cells are specialized in the transportation of oxygen.
a. white blood cells c. platelets
b. red blood cells d. plasma
249. A process in which soluble plasma protein fibrinogen is converted

into insoluble protein fibrin.
a. oxygenation c. glycogenolysis
b. blood clotting d. impulse conduction
250. It is an organ in the mediastinum enclosed with a pericardial sac.

a. pancreas c. heart
b. pituitary gland d. lymph node
251. Neurons which transmit impulses from effector organ to the spinal
cord or brain
a. efferent (motor) neurons c. interneurons
b. afferent (sensory) neurons d. none of the above
252. The threadlike extensions from the nerve cell body of sensory
neurons are often called nerve fibers. The distal ends are called
receptors because they receive the stimuli that initiate the
conduction of impulses to the cell body of the neuron.
a. axon c. myelin sheath
b. dendrites d. cell body
253. It is a hormone that lowers calcium level in the blood by preventing

bone resorption through the activation of the osteoblast cells which
stimulate bone formation. It also increases calcium excretion in the
urine, thus contributing to the lowering of blood calcium level.
a. parathyroid hormone c. insulin
b. calcitonin d. triodothyronine
257 | P a g e
254. Which of the following types of cells that is associated with bone
formation?
a. osteoblast c. osteoclast
b. osteocyte d. all of the above
255. The following are components of the respiratory system, except

a. nasal cavity c. bronchi
b. esophagus d. larynx
256. A substance released by the platelets which is responsible for local

vasoconstriction in the injured site.
a. serotonin c. thromboplastin
b. hormone d. acetylcholine
257. It carries unoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
a. superior vena cava c. aorta
b. pulmonary artery d. pulmonary vein
258. It is a small gap between neurons about 200 Angstrom. It is where

nerve impulses are transmitted from one nerve cell to another.
a. cleft c. synapse
b. hill d. space
259. Which of the following do not match?

a. vision : eye c. hearing : ear
b. taste : tongue d. nose : smell
260. It is an air pump which draws fresh air through the air tubes to
small air sacs.
a. respiratory system b. endocrine system
c. excretory system d. circulatory system
261. It separates the thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity.

a. nasal septum c. ventricular septum
b. diaphragm d. ribs
262. The inspiratory muscles are composed of

a. diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
b. diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
c. internal intercostal muscles and muscles of anterior abdominal wall
d. external intercostal muscles and muscles of anterior abdominal wall
263. The contraction of the heart is simply called

a. contraction c. blood pressure
b. diastole d. systole
264. Function in controlling the activities of the skeletal and involuntary

smooth muscles of the body in response to stimuli in their
environment. Information about the internal and external is
transmitted by variety of sensory receptors.
a. CNS
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Somatic Nervous System
d. Symphathetic Nervous System
258 | P a g e
265. This part of the nervous system brings about quick adjustments of
the muscles to changes in the environment in the form of reflex arc.
Adjustments of this type can be made with remarkable speed. Some
nerve impulses of this type travel at a rate of about 40 meters per
second.
a. CNS c. Somatic Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System d. Symphathetic Nervous System
266. The following are the major parts of the respiratory center, except
a. medullary center c. pneumotaxic center
b. cortex center d. apneustic center
267. It is the amount of air that moves into the lungs with each
inspiration or the amount of air that moves out with each expiration.
a. inspiratory reserve volume c. residual volume
b. respiratory dead space d. tidal volume
268. The heart normally beats in an orderly sequence. First is the

contraction of the ventricles (ventricular systole) and is followed by
the contraction of the atria (atrial systole) and followed by diastole.
a. true c. maybe
269. The contraction of the heart is spontaneous and is initiated by the

depolarization of the Sino-atrial node (the pacemaker).
a. true c. maybe
270. Which of the following organ:effect is an outcome of sympathetic

stimulation?
a. Eyes : Dilatation of pupils
b. Salivary glands : Vasodilation
c. Lungs : Contracts muscles of bronchioles
d. G.I. tract : excites motility, relaxes sphincters
271. What is the effect of symphathetic stimulation to the liver?

a. contracts parenchyma c. relaxes capsule
b. glycogenolysis d. constricts arterioles
272. It is the greatest amount of air that can be expired after a maximum
inspiratory effort, it is frequently measured clinically as an index of
pulmonary function.
a. tidal volume c. vital capacity
b. IRV d. Expiratory reserved volume
273. It is an active process, in which during contraction of the

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles spends energy.
a. inspiration c. vomiting
b. expiration d. swallowing
274. A response of the respiratory center due to irritation on the walls of

the trachea or bronchi, which begins with a deep inspiration
followed by forced expiration against a closed glottis.
a. sneezing c. gagging
b. laughing d. coughing
259 | P a g e
275. Blood vessel that carries unoxygenated blood
a. vein c. lymph vessel
b. artery d. neuron
276. It is the basic unit of the lungs, made up of single layer of
respiratory epithelium. This layer of cells that form a wall is in
contact with blood capillaries, and estimated to be 70 square meters
in man.
a. lungs c. pleura
b. alveoli d. capillaries
277. The kidneys play a prominent role in regulating the following,

except
a. concentration of metabolic wastes
b. osmotic pressure
c. blood pressure
d. fluid volume
278. It is a part of a nephron which is formed by the invagination of a

tuft of capillaries into the dilated, blind end of the nephron called
the Bowman’s capsule.
a. loop of henle c. proximal tubule
b. calyxes d. glomerulus
279. It is a temperature range which is a few degrees cooler than the

body temperature which is required for normal spermatogenesis.
a. 9-12 oC c. 6–9oF
b. 3–5oF d. 1-8oC
280. The two thermoregulatory muscles of the testes are the following
a. prostate and cowpers glands
b. cremaster and dartos muscles
c. scrotum and smooth muscle
d. mesometrium and mesosalpinx
281. It is a part of systemic circulation that supplies blood to the heart

itself
a. splanchnic circulation c. renal circulation
b. hepatic circulation d. coronary circulation
282. The following are accessory glands which help in the digestion of
food, except
a. salivary glands c. liver
b. cowper’s glands d. pancreas
283. It is the organ of prehension in cattle and horses

a. lips and cheeks c. lips and tongue
b. jaws and palates d. tonsils and pharynx
284. It is the common passage for food and air, lined by mucous
membrane and surrounded by muscles.
a. esophagus c. pharynx
285. The nonruminant stomach is subdivided into the following, except

a. cardia c. pylorus
b. fundus d. rumen
260 | P a g e
286. The following are known as the forestomach of ruminants, except
a. rumen c. omasum
b. reticulum d. abomasum
287. It is a large muscular sac that extends from the diaphragm to the
pelvis and almost entirely fills the left side of the abdominal cavity of
ruminant.
a. rumen c. pylorus
b. reticulum d. fundus
288. It is a spherical organ which function to absorb water, thus its

content is drier compared to the other compartments.
a. rumen c. abomasum
b. omasum d. reticulum
289. It refers to the movement that tends to propel the ingesta along the
intestine in a direction toward the anus. This is an inherent property
of any tube of syncytial smooth muscle and is normally initiated by
distention.
a. beat c. peristalsis
b. swallowing d. bowel movement
290. Rumination in cattle averages about

a. four hours c. eight hours
b. six hours d. twelve hours
291. It is a process that permits an animal to forage and ingest food

rapidly, then complete the chewing at a later time.
a. regurgitation c. rumination
b. remastication d. none of the above
292. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the process of

rumination
a. ingestion – remastication – reswallowing – regurgitation –
resalivation
b. ingestion – resalivation – remastication – regurgitation –
reswallowing
c. ingestion – regurgitation – reswallowing – remastication –
resalivation
d. ingestion – regurgitation – remastication – resalivation –
reswallowing
293. It secretes hydrochloric acid and pepsin

a. rumen c. reticulum
b. abomasum d. omasum
294. It is a compound tubulo-alveolar gland that has both endocrine and

exocrine portions. Its exocrine portion produces NaHCO3 and
digestive enzymes, which pass through the pancreatic duct to empty
into the duodenum close to the opening of the bile duct.
a. salivary glands c. liver
b. pancreas d. adrenal glands
261 | P a g e
295. The islets of langerhans of the pancreas secrete hormones such as
insulin and glucagon, which pass directly into the bloodstream. The
target organ of glucagons is
a. no specific target organ c. liver
b. bones d. kidneys
296. It is a gland located at the base of the brain in the sella turcica. It
consists of an anterior, intermediate, and a posterior lobe.
a. kidneys c. pineal gland
b. pituitary gland d. hypothalamus
297. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the

neurohypophysis
a. growth hormone c. luteinizing hormone
b. melanophore stimulating hormone d. oxytocin
298. It stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormones

a. LTH c. TSH
b. GnRH d. oxytocin
299. As the name implies, it causes follicles in the ovary to develop and
enlarge, with the resultant elaboration of estrogen from the follicle.
What is this hormone?
a. ACTH c. LH
b. FSH d. estrogen
300. This hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of

langerhans, which is necessary to prevent diabetes mellitus.
a. glucagon c. insulin
b. thyroxine d. parathyroid hormone
301. A fracture in which one of the bone is broken or splintered and the
other side only bent. This type of fracture is found only in young
animals.
a. simple fracture c. compound fracture
b. greenstick fracture d. complete fracture
302. The study of articulations (unions) between bones is called

a. articulogy c. arthrology
b. jointilogy d. all of the above
303. Which of following can be considered as one of the functions of

genes?
a. to replicate when new cells are produced
b. control several structural genes in an off-on manner
c. carry genetic code for the formation of polypeptide chain of a
protein
d. all of the above
304. These are genes occupying corresponding loci on homologous

chromosomes that affect the same trait but in a different way.
a. gene c. DNA
b. Chromosomes d. alleles
262 | P a g e
305. A statistical technique for apportioning variance to its sources. In
genetics and animal breeding it is used to determine relative
influences of heredity and environment on variation in traits.
a. t-test c. analysis of variance
b. regression – correlation analysis d. none of the above
306. An animal of a previous generation that has passed on genes

through a line of descent.
a. pedigree c. grandparents
b. ancestor d. parents
307. Introduction of sperm into the reproductive tract of the female by

mechanical means rather than by natural mating.
a. Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer
b. artificial insemination
c. multiple ovulation
d. in vitro fertilization
308. Chromosome pairs which are alike in both sexes.

a. autosomes c. blastocyst
b. alleles d. ZZ
309. It is the application of biological and engineering technology to

animals, plants, and microorganisms. On occasion used in the
narrower sense of genetic engineering.
a. genetic engineering c. artificial insemination
b. engineering technology d. biotechnology
310. An early embryonic stage beginning about the seventh day after
fertilization when cell division has formed a circular hollow ball of
cells.
a. blastocyst c. fetus
b. morula d. diploid
311. Group of animals having a common origin and identifying

characters that distinguish them as belonging to a breeding group.
a. breeders c. flock
b. breed d. herd
312. It is the genetic worth of an animal’s genotype for a specific trait

a. breeding value c. economic worth
b. heritability estimate d. heritability trait
313. The basic functional unit of all higher living organisms

a. life c. cell
b. water d. oxygen
314. A mathematical test for goodness of fit of experimental data to

expectation; used in genetics to determine the probability of
deviations from expected distributions of phenotypes in offspring
being due to chance.
a. t-test c. MacNemar change test
b. chi-square d. Analysis of variance
263 | P a g e
315. Darkly staining bodies in cell nuclei which carry the hereditary
material. They occur in pairs in somatic cells with the number of
pairs being characteristic of the species.
a. gene c. chromosomes
b. alleles d. cistron
316. The process of producing many copies of a single ancestral gene or

DNA sequence. In animals and plants it is also the replication of cell
lines, tissues, or organisms from somatic or nonreproductive tissue.
a. in vitro fertilization c. artificial insemination
b. cloning d. embryo transfer
317. A three-letter (three nucleotide) unit that is part of the genetic code.
The codon starts or terminates the series of linked amino acids that
constitute a protein molecule and specifies the addition of a
particular amino acid at a specific location in the molecule.
a. codon c. chromosome
b. nucleotide d. amino acids
318. An animal produced by crossing two or more pure breeds.

a. crossbreeding c. crisscrossing
b. two way cross d. crossbred
319. Genes which in either the homozygous or heterozygous state have

undesirable effects on an individual’s viability or usefulness.
a. dominant genes c. deleterious genes
b. diploid d. recessive genes
320. Cells with two members of each pair of chromosomes. This is

termed the 2n condition and is characteristic of body cells of all
higher animals.
a. homozygous c. heterozygous
b. diploid d. cloned
321. A new individual following fertilization to approximately the time at

which organ formation is completed.
a. blastocyts c. morula
b. fetus d. embryo
322. An artificial transfer of the embryo from the natural mother to a

recipient female by mechanical means.
a. artificial insemination c. embryo transplant
b. embryo transfer d. artificial embryo transfer
323. All the external factors within which an animal’s genotype acts to
determine its phenotypic traits.
a. environment c. management
b. nutrition d. diseases
324. Genetic effects due to interactions among two or more pairs (or
series) of nonallelic genes
a. additive gene action c. epistasis
b. dominance d. over dominance
264 | P a g e
325. The transfer of the genetic message from the DNA in a gene to the
messenger RNA that forms the DNA template. It is the first step in
transferring the information in the DNA to a cellular protein.
a. stallion c. translation
b. transcription d. triploid
-End-
265 | P a g e
ANSWER KEY
1. C 56. B 111. B 166. B 231. B 286. D

2. C 57. A 112. A 167. A 232. A 287. A
3. C 58. C 113. C 168. B 233. D 288. B
4. C 59. D 114. C 169. D 234. B 289. C
5. A 60. A 115. B 170. C 235. B 290. C
6. A 61. B 116. A 171. A 236. C 291. C
7. B 62. A 117. D 172. C 237. D 292. D
8. B 63. C 118. A 173. B 238. A 293. B
9. A 64. A 119. C 174. D 239. B 294. B
10. A 65. D 120. B 175. C 240. D 295. C
11.A 66. C 121. C 176. D 241. D 296. B
12. A 67. A 122. A 177. B 242. C 297. D
13. A 68. B 123. C 178. B 243. B 298. C
14. C 69. B 124. A 179. A 244. B 299. B
15. B 70. D 125. C 180. B 245. A 300. C
16. A 71. A 126. D 181. C 246. C 301. B
17. A 72. C 127. B 182. B 247. B 302. C
18. A 73. D 128. C 183. B 248. B 303. D
19. D 74. A 129 D 184. C 249. B 304. D
20. D 75. C 130. B 185. A 250. C 305. C
21. B 76. D 131. B 186. D 251. B 306. B
22. A 77. B 132. A 187. C 252. B 307. B
23. B 78. D 133. C 188. B 253. B 308. A
24. C 79. D 134. B 189. D 254. A 309. D
25. A 80. A 135. D 190. C 255. B 310. A
26. A 81. B 136. C 191. D 256. A 311. B
27. B 82. B 137. A 192. D 257. B 312. A
28. A 83. B 138. B 193. C 258. C 313. C
29. A 84. A 139. C 194. B 259. D 314. B
30. D 85. A 140. D 195. C 260. A 315. C
31. A 86. C 141. A 196. B 261. B 316. B
32. B 87. C 142. C 197. D 262. A 317. A
33. D 88. A 143. A 198. C 263. D 318. D
34. A 89. B 144. D 199. B 264. A 319. C
35. D 90. B 145. A 200. C 265. C 320. B
36. C 91. C 146. C 201. B 266. B 321. D
37. A 92. B 147. D 202. B 267. D 322. C
38. B 93. C 148. A 203. B 268. B 323. A
39. A 94. B 149. B 204. D 269. A 324. C
40. D 95. B 150. B 205. B 270. A 325. B
41. A 96. D 151. B 206. C 271. B
42. A 97. B 152. A 207. B 272. C
43. A 98. C 153. C 208. A 273. A
44. A 99. D 154. B 209. C 274. D
45. A 100. B 155. A 220. B 275. A
46. C 101. A 156. C 221. A 276. B
47. B 102. C 157. B 222. A 277. C
48. B 103. C 158. C 223. B 278. D
49. A 104. A 159. D 224. D 279. C
50. A 105. C 160. C 225. B 280. B
51. D 106. B 161. C 226. D 281. D
52. A 107. C 162. B 227. A 282. B
53. C 108. B 163. C 228. D 283. C
54. A 109. C 164. D 229. B 284. C
55. A 110. A 165. A 230. C 285. D
266 | P a g e
ANIMAL SCIENCE
Poultry Production 1
1. The breed belonging to this class is characterized by their

comparably small size, they lay white eggs, very active and nervous
in temperament and non-sitters.
a. Meat class c. general purpose class
b. Egg class d. fighting class
2. This class belongs to the breeds that are large, slow in movement,
quit and gentle in disposition.
a. General purpose c. meat class
b. Egg class d. fancy class
3. The breeds under this class may be characterized as possessing

desired beauty of plumage or form of having a rare unusual
appearance; they are raised as ornamental or pest.
a. General purpose class c. meat class
b. Egg class d. fancy class
4. This method involves the synchronous raising of several age

groups of chickens for the purpose of achieving a sustained
turnover of products.
a. All- in-all-out c. multiple-stocking
b. Two-stage stocking d. three-stage stocking
5. The most popular breed of chicken for egg production:

a. Leghorn c. Rhode Island Red
b. New Hampshire d. Cornish
6. A male turkey, a tom is also called

a. Cock c. rooster
b. Gobbler d. drake
7. What is the recommended floor space requirement for a nine week

old laying age chicken?
a. 15 sq. inch c. 50-60 sq.cm
b. 30 sq. inch d. 75 sq.cm
8. Chicken are transferred to the laying house at the age of

a. 6-8 weeks c. 16-18 weeks
b. 8-16 weeks d. 26-28 weeks
c.
9. Chicken will start laying eggs when they are___ weeks old
a. 20-22 weeks c.28-30 weeks
b. 24-28 weeks d. 30-34 weeks
267 | P a g e
10. The maximum egg production of chicken is reached between
the age of___
b. 36-40 weeks d. 52 weeks and above
11. The main method of controlling sexual maturity in pullets.

a. Light c. drug inclusion in feed
b. Feed intake d. force molting
12. The allowable mortality rate in raising broiler is_____%

a. 10 c.5
b. 8 d. 4
13. The daily water requirement of 100 bird in moderate

temperature
a. 3-4 gal c. 7-9 gal.
b. 5-7 gal. d. 9-11 gal.
14. It is virus infection characterized by the formation of

yellowish membranous plaques on the mucous membrane of the
oral pharyngeal cavity
a. Infectious c. avian pest
b. Marek’s disease d. fowl pox
15. It is characterized by swelling of the face and wattles and

discharge from nostril, which is watery and become sticky and
with foul odor as the disease progresses
a. Avian pest c. infectious coryza
b. Fowl pox d. avian influenza
16. In breeding meat breeds of chicken, the ratio of male to

female is
a. 1:8-10 c. 1:15-20
b. 1:10-15 d. 1:5-12
17. It is mating of two or more with a group of female in the

same pen
a. Stud mating c. pen mating
b. Mass or flock mating d. cock mating
18. A term when domestics birds lay eggs on successive days.

a. Oviposition c. clutches
b. Ovulation d. double ovulation
19. Hatching eggs can be kept longer if they are stored in a room
with a humidity of 75-80% and a temperature of___ oc.
a. 12.8-15.5 c. 20-25
b. 18-20 d. 2-4
268 | P a g e
20. To minimize the effect of stress on birds during
deworming ,transferring, vaccination, debeaking, etc, an anti-
stress formula should be given:
a. 3-5 days before the onset of stress c. a and b
b. 3-5 days after onset of stress d. do not give anti-stress formula
21. The annual egg production of a native chicken is

a. 50-60 c. 200-20
b. 100-150 d. 260-280
22. A problem in which the funnel of the oviduct fails to pick up

or catches the yolk or ova.
a. Soft-shelled eggs c. double yolk eggs
b. Yolkless eggs d. internal layer
23. The removal of the comb and wattles of a male to make the
head smooth.
a. Clipping c. debeaking
b. Dubbing d . candling
24. It is a collective term for a group of ostrich.

a. Flock c. cub
b. Game d. harem
25. A collective term for the other bird species like emu, rhea,
cassowary, kiwi,
a. Domestic c. ratites
b. Exotic d. game
26. The popularity of chicken raising could be attribute to the

fact that among the different poultry species they are
a. Fast multiplier c. efficient feed converter
b. Quick grower d. all of the above
27. Avian influence virus is Hs Ni what is the scientific name of

the virus?
a. Flu virus c. contagious ecthyma virus
b. Orthomyxovirus d. pasteurella
28. Old hen past its usefulness for commercial egg production
a. Spent hen c. cull
b. Capon d. a and c
29. The act of laying eggs in poultry is called

a. Ovulation c. deposition
b. Oviposition d. collection
30. The color of the eggshell is due to___

a. Breed c. bloom
b. Porphyrins d. cuticle
269 | P a g e
31. The popularity of chicken raising could be attribute to the
fact that among the different poultry species they are
a. Fast multiplier c. quick grower
b. Relatively efficient converter to meat eggs d. all of the above
32. Cannibalism is a common management problem in raising

chicken. It is caused by overcrowding, unbalanced ration, too
much light, etc. it could be ultimately prevented by
a. Growing birds in individual cages c. ad libitum feed
b. Debeaking d. all of the above
33. Debeaking or break trimming is done to prevent cannibalism.

This is recommended for
a. Broiler c. ducks
b. Egg type chicken d. all of three above
34. Dunk ranks second in popularity among the poultry species

in the Philippines. The popularity of ducks enterprises is attribute
to high demand for processed duck egg production such as:
a. Balut c. century eggs
b. Salted eggs d. all of the above
35. The high cost of production for raising commercial strains of

chicken is due mainly to the high cost of inputs such as:
a. Labor c. feeds
b. Electricity d. all of the above
36. The process where fully developed embryo (chicks) beaks out
of egg
a. Breaking c. hatching
b. Incubating d. brooding
37. The most common root design adopted by commercial

chicken producer
a. Shed c. semi monitor/monitor
b. Gable d. all of the above
38. A collective term for al domestics birds rendering economics

services to man. Can also refer to dressed carcass of fowls.
a. Poultry c. chickens
b. Broilers d. all of the above
39. An egg-type or dual type female bird that layer egg

a. Ready to pullet c. hen
b. Layer d. b&c
40. A male fowl one year old over
a. Cockerel c. rooster
b. Capon d. all of the above
270 | P a g e
41. A young female fowl 4 months of age raised for egg
production
a. Hen c. pullet
b. Layer d. all of the above
42. A meat type of chicken commonly raised up to 35-42 days

and weighs 1.5-2.0 kg.
a. Broiler c. cull
b. Spent hens d. b & c
43. Old hens that had past their usefulness for commercial egg
production
a. Capon c. cull
b. spent hens d. b & c
44. the projecting mouth part of a chicken and turkey

a. beak c. bill
b. bile d. none of the above
45. place where young chicks/ducking are cared for after

hatching until they have grown to point where they will not need
any more additional heat
a. pen c. brooder
b. cage d. incubation
46. the period where embryonic development takes place outside

the body of the hen.
a. Gestation c. brooder
b. Incubation d. all of the above
47. The act of laying egg.

a. Ovulation c. deposition
b. Oviposition d. none of the above
48. Group of eggs laid for successive days

a. Clutch c. fertile egg
b. Collection d. none of the above
49. Male of the duck family.

a. Rooster c. drake
b. Cockerel d. gander
50. The scientific name of quail.

a. Coturnix coturnix japonica c. virginia colinianus
b. Cortunix cortunix japonica d. olor virginianus
51. The incubation period for chicken egg

a. 18 days c. 28 days
b. 21 days d. 24 days
271 | P a g e
52. Incubation period of ostrich.
b. 22 days d. 31 day
53. Incubation of mallard ducks

54. The recommended number of ours for layer to stimulate egg
production
a. 8-10 c. 14-16
b. 12-13 d. 24
55. What is the feed conversion efficiency (FCE) of a broiler

having average final body weight of 2kg after consuming 3.75 kg of
feed for 42 days
a. 1.9 c. 1.88
b. 1.8 d. 0.53
56. Which broiler farm is the most efficient given the following
FCE values?
a. 1.88 c. 1.6
b. 2.5 d. 3.0
57. If the dressing percentage for chicken is 70%, what should

be dressing recovery of broilers weighing 2.0 kg live weight?
a. 1.4 kg c. 1.6 kg
b. 1.5 kg d. 1.75 kg
58. The scientific name of chicken.

a. Gallus gallus Linn. c. Meleagris gallopavo
b. Anas bochas d. Anas platyrynchos
59. The incubation period for quail eggs.

a. 14-16 days c. 16-19 days
b. 18-21 days d. 21-23 days
60. A brooder device whose major function is to keep chicks from

going astray.
a. Curtains c brooder guard
b. Feeders d. paper matting
61. An occasional job done during the growing & laying stage to
reduce boarders and ensure efficiency of production.
a. Flock replacement c. cleaning and disinfection
b. Culling d. none of the above
272 | P a g e
62. Recommended male to female ratio for egg type chicken
breeders.
a. 1:10-12 c. 1:5
b. 1:8 d. 1:12-15
63. Recommended brooding temperature for chicken at 1st week

of age
a. 32-35oc c. 30-32oc
b. 35-38oc d. 28-30oc
64. Floor space requirement for broiler up to market age

a. 1 sq. meter/ bird c. 2 sq. ft/bird
b. 1sq ft/bird d. none of the above
65. Recommended length of light hours for growing chicken to

delay sexual maturity
a. 10 hrs/day c. 14-16 hrs/day
b. 12-14 hrs/day d. 24 hrs/day
66. Commercial broiler strains available in the market except

a. Pilch c. h&n
b. Hybro d. starcross
67. The common type of housing intended for broiler contract

growing is
a. Litter floor c. range
b. Slat floor d. battery cages
68. In brooding chicks, old newspaper are used as bedding to

a. Serve as litter to absorb moisture of mature
b. Teach birds to recognized picture
c. Improve the walking stance of chicks for better growth
d. Conserve heat for brooding as insular
69. In raising 200 broiler in litter flooring, how many feeding

troughs of 1 meter length on both sides are required if the feeding
space is 4cm/bird
a. 3 c. 4
b. 5 d. 6
70. The removal of feather s in a processing plant.

a. Molting c. scalding
b. Plucking d. evisceration
71. The crude protein requirement for broiler parent stock.

a. 12-14%CP c. 17-18%CP
b. 16-17%CP d.18-20%CP
273 | P a g e
72. Gumboro disease is also known as.
a. Avian fox c. infectious bursal disease
b. Fowl fox d. mark’s disease
73. The limiting constraint why broilers cannot be intensively

raised in rural areas.
a. Disease and parasites c. labor requirement
b. Feeds d. marketing and distribution
74. The disease commonly observed in brooding with moist litter

or wet litter causing brooder pneumonia.
a. Coccidiosis c .avian pasteurellosis
b. Asergillosis d. mycoplasmosis
75. The average weight of modern broilers now is about_______ a

35-37 days
a. 2.0 kg c. 1.7 kg
b. 1.4 kg d. 1.0 kg
76. when the FCE of broiler is 1.9 it means

a. broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to produced 1.9 kg
bodyweight
b. feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce 1kg of broiler
c. the total feed intake of 1.9 kg
d. bodyweight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by the feeding only 1kg
77. broiler can be raised anytime of the year for about ______ per
year if the duration of one cycle is 38 days, selling of 14 days and
chick order of 7 days
a. 5 batches c. 9 batches
b. 7 batches d. 3 batches
78. The highest cost expenses aside from feed in broiler

production
a. Labor cost c. chicken cost
b. depreciation d. light heat and water
79. The world-wide number of breeds of fowls

a. More than 300 c. more than 200
b. More than 100 d. more than 400
80. Population of small number of birds isolated within the breed
that is responsible with the breed that is responsible with specific
characteristics
a. Breed c. cross
b. Strain d. inbred
81. The plumage color of leghorn.

a. White c. silver
b. Black d. all of the above
274 | P a g e
82. Annual egg production of native chicken
a. 50-60 eggs c. 200-240 eggs
b. 100-150 eggs d. 260-280 eggs
83. Term applied to designated mature domestics cock and hens

a. Poultry c. chicken
b. Fowl d. chicks
84. Young domestics ostrich in the downy stage

a. Chick c. keet
b. Poult d. gosling
85. Unsexed female fowl is known as

a. Capon c. poulard
b. Pullet d. poult
86. The incubation period of Muscovy duck

87. The incubation period of quails

a. 16-18 days c. 26-28 days
b. 30-34 days d. 22-24 days
88. The egg weight of geese is

a. 58-60 g c. 85-89 g
b. 70-80 g d. 130-200 g
89. The weight of guinea fowl is

a. 40-48 g c.55-61 g
b. 13-15 g d. 17-18 g
90. The incubation period of turkey

91. The mineral needed as macroelement in poultry

a. Iodine c. selenium
b. Iron d. phosphorus
92. Poultry eat a daily amount of feed that is equivalent to

approximately____ percent of their body weight
a. 5% d. 15%
b. 10% d. 3%
93. The percent crude protein of quail starter should be

a. 23-27%cp c.10-14%cp
b. 18-22%cp d. 20-22%cp
275 | P a g e
94. The site of bacterial fermentation of undigested food in
poultry
a. Small intestine c. cloaca
b. Large intestine d. ceca
95. Method of feeding grain to broiler parent stock

a. Placed in hopper c. ad libitum feeding
b. Broadcast in litter d. hand feeding
96. Most practical way to feed broiler.

a. Ad libitum c. restricted feeding
b. Skip-a-day d. phase feeding
97. The diseases of poultry known as avian pest

a. Gumboro diseases c. fowl pox
b. New castle diseases d. lymphoid leucosis
98. Bacterial diseases of poultry caused mycoplasma

gallisepticum
a. Avian leukosis c. chronic respiratory diseases
b. Infection coryza d. fowl cholera
99. The reason why layer have poor quality eggs

a. Poor designed of nest c. high temperature
b. age of birds d. all of the above
100. a chicken can be resistant or immunologically adult at

a. 3 months c. 3 weeks
b. 9 months d. 6 months
276 | P a g e
ANSWER KEY
(Poultry Production)
1. B 26. D 51. B 76. B
2. C 27. B 52. C 77. A
3. D 28. D 53. D 78. C
4. C 29. B 54. C 79. A
5. A 30. B 55. C 80. B
6. B 31. D 56. C 81. D
7. B 32. B 57. A 82. B
8. C 33. B 58. A 83. B
9. A 34. D 59. A 84. C
10. A 35. C 60. C 85. B
11. A 36. C 61. B 86. A
12. D 37. C 62. A 87. A
13. B 38. A 63. A 88. D
14. C 39. D 64. B 89. A
15. C 40. C 65. A 90. B
16. A 41. C 66. D 91. D
17. B 42. A 67. B 92. C
18. C 43. D 68. A 93. D
19. A 44. A 69. B 94. D
20. C 45. C 70. B 95. D
21. B 46. B 71. C 96. A
22. B 47. B 72. C 97. B
23. B 48. A 73. C 98. C
24. D 49. C 74. B 99. D
25. C 50. A 75. C 100. B
277 | P a g e
ANIMAL SCIENCE
POULTRY MANAGEMENT AND PRODUCTION 2
1. The popularity of raising poultry could be attributed to the fact that

they are:
a. fast multipliers c. efficient converters of feed to meat and egg
b. quick growers d. all of the above
2. Among the various species of poultry, chicken is the most popular

while duck ranks the second. These two are a very good source of meat
and eggs. Duck eggs were processed into balut, salted egg and century
egg. The third most popular species of poultry in the Philippines which is
also noted for its eggs is what?
a. geeses c. pigeon
b. quail d. turkey
3. This poultry species could be grown away from lake or bodies of water.
They are fed with formulated feed but sometimes can be provided with
shrimps/ snails, as well as fish and palay as protein source.
a. Duck c. pigeon
b. geese d. quail
4. A poultry species which are mainly raised because of the high demand
for embryonated eggs and other processed egg products. Furthermore,
this poultry species has the ability to adapt to a wide range of
environmental conditions.
a. Duck c. pigeon
b. geese d. quail
5. Among the various poultry species, Ostrich has the longest incubation
period of 42 days. It produces eggs which weigh approximately about
how many grams?
a. 1400g c. 1.7 kg
b. 570g d. 380g
6. There are two common species of ducks, the mallard duck (Anas
platyrhynchos) or commonly called itik, which are raised mainly for its
eggs and muscovy duck (Cairina muschata), the bibi. If mallard duck
produces an egg that weighs 60 g what is the incubation period in days
produced by the Muscovy ducks.
a. 70 hrs c. 35 days
b. 28 days d. 28 hrs
7. A poultry species, scientifically known as Olor columbianus, produces

an egg which weighs 285g and has an incubation period of 35 days. Olor
columbianus is commonly called___.
a. peafowl c. swamp
b. ostrich d. swan
8. Chicken is the most exploited species of poultry which is utilized for

food production in the whole world. In the Philippines, chickens rank
first, while______ ranks the second, In economic importance as source of
meat and eggs.
a. ostrich c. turkey
b. quail d. duck
278 | P a g e
9. The present breeds of chickens are believed to have descended from a
common origin: the Red Jungle Fowl (Gallus gallus), which a native of:
a. Northern India c. USA
b. China d. Southern Asia
10. A group of chicken possessing certain conformation or shape of the

body that distinguish them from other chickens.
a. Breed c. variety
b. strain d. types
11. A group of chicken within of a breed which possesses the same

plumage color and a type of comb
a. Breed c. variety
b. strain d. types
12. The breed belonging to this class is characterized by their

comparatively small size. They lay large white shelled eggs, very active
and nervous temperament. The breeds belonging to this class includes:
a. leghorn c. White Rocks
b. Cochin d. Brahmas
13. The meat class of chickens has these characteristics except:

a. Large and slow in movement c. Quiet but produces large
number of eggs
b. Relatively slow maturing d. lay brown eggs
14. A Hog raiser wants to shift from backyard hog raising and invest in
Poultry farming. He wants hit both products of eggs and meat in one
kind of breed. But later He finds out that breed purpose is the better goal
for more efficient production. What is the best class of chicken that this
hog raiser must first focus to attain His goal.
a. Fighting class c. meat class
b. General purpose d. egg class
15. Egg production is the older scheme of poultry production engaged in

by many raisers. Formerly an egg farmer is also a breeder but recent
development in the industry make the egg farmer raise chickens just for
table egg production. In egg farming all females egg-type are obtained
from a reputable hatchery. In this type of poultry farming the presence of
male chicken is necessary. This statement is:
a. True c. maybe
b. Incorrect d. not sure
16. A type of poultry farming that focuses on growing of meat-type

chicken essentially for meat production.
a. Broiler farming c. Breeding farm
b. Egg farming d. All of the above
17. A broiler raiser depends on the supply of chicks from a franchised

hatchery in the category of a breeder farm. Both male and female are
utilized for growing broilers. This statement is
a. correct c. maybe
b. incorrect d. not sure
279 | P a g e
18. Brooding starts as soon as the chicks are placed in the brooder area
here heat is supplied until the chicks have grown to the point where they
no longer need additional heat to keep them comfortable. This period
lasts for approximately how many weeks?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 6 d. 2
19. Although brooding involves many factors together to obtain

successful results, its major requirement is the provision of proper
temperature. What is the temperature requirement of day old chick?
a. 32.2-35 c c. 40 c
b. 28-30 c d. 85-90 c
20. Chicks physiological reaction to existing environmental temperature

will indicate whether the temperature is right, too low or too high. This
statement is :
a. True c. maybe
b. not true d. not sure
21. In brooding management, space requirement is also one of the

important that must be considered. What is the space requirement of a
meat-type day old chick?
a. 0.5sq ft/bird c. 1.5sq ft/bird
b. 0.3sq ft/bird d. 1.0 sq ft/bird
22. If a day old to 3 weeks egg-type chicken has a space requirements of

0.3 sq ft/bird, What is the space requirement of a meat-type 2 weeks old
chicken?
a. 2.0 sq ft/bird c. 0.5 sq ft/bird
b. 1.5 sq ft/bird d. 0.3 sq ft/birds
23. After 12 weeks, the floor space requirement of growing pullets varies
according to the systems of housing used. What are its floor space
requirements if it uses a litter floor?
a. 0.75-10 sq ft/bird b. 1.5-2.0sq ft/bird
c. 2.0-2.5 sq ft/bird d. 0.3-0.8 sqft/bird
24. Light management is very important in the development of new

layers. During the first few days of brooding, lighting the chicks
throughout the night is favorable for growth because of these reasons
a. it enables the birds to eat more as long as the feed is available
b. the light will encourage the birds to keep close to source of heat,
feed and water.
c. a and b
d. only b is correct
25. One cardinal rule to follow in the light management of poultry

intended for egg production is – never increase light during growing
period and never decrease light during the laying period. Increasing the
day length during the growing period causes:
a. the birds to flock resulting to cannibalism
b. hastens sexual maturity
c. development of soft shelled eggs
d. none of the above
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26. One of the common problems encountered in raising pullets is
feather picking which always results to more serious problems-
cannibalism. This is cause by some factors such as:
a. Imbalance ration, and overcrowding
b. poor ventilation, excessive heat and too much light
c. only a is correct
d. both a and b is correct
27. This is a bad habit developed by some growing birds which usually
starts from feather or toe picking which may result to serious wounding.
a. toe picking c. cannibalism
b. flock fighting d. wrestling
28. A system of rearing growing management of poultry that requires

more land area. This system commonly practiced by native chicken
growers and by duck raisers.
a. Intensive system c. Range system
b. semi-confinement system d. Complete confinement
29. This is a system of raising poultry where the birds are provided with
shed or housing and an area to graze or pasture.
a. Intensive system c. Range system
b. semi-confinement system d. Complete confinement
30. The percent protein requirement of growing pullets at 6-14 weeks is

a.15% c. 16%
b. 14% d. 18%
31. A pullet developer ration that is required in feeding growing pullets at

14-20 weeks has a percent CP of :
a. 15% c. 16%
b. 14% d. 18%
32. After 16 weeks of age, the reproductive organs of pullets will start to
develop in preparation for reproduction (egg production). This is
manifested by the change in appearance of the secondary sex character.
Signs of sexual maturity in pullets include:
a. the comb and wattles increase in size and the color becomes red
b. pullets becomes friendly and cackle
c. pullets become aggressive and not easily managed
d. vent and abdomen becomes enlarged
33. In chicken the surest sign of sexual maturity is what?

a. enlargement of the vent
b. comb and wattles increases in size
c. instinctively looks for nest
d. laying of the first egg
34. The age at which the first egg is laid depends upon the breed or
strain and the kind of management. In egg-type breeds production
should come when they are ____.
a. 18 weeks c. 4 months
b. 22 weeks d. 3 months
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35. Before the pullets start laying eggs they must be transferred to the
laying house to minimized the development of egg eating habit. This
should be done at approximately how many weeks before laying.
b. 20-22 weeks d. 24weeks
36. Drinking water must be available to the layers at all times. One
hundred layers can consume about how many gallons of water during a
normal day?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
37. Egg production rate will never decline even though layers are
deprived with water for as long as feed is available.
a. correct c. maybe
38. Why broilers should not be kept longer than 8 weeks?
a. Broilers become oversized, not easily marketed or saleable and
price is lower per unit weight.
b. Feed conversion becomes poorer as the broiler becomes older
c. a and b are incorrect
d. a and b are correct
39. It is the biggest item in the operational cost of growing broilers.

a. feeds c. replacement chicks
b. housing d. labor
40. This is a type of broiler operation system where only broilers of one
age are being raised and all of them are sold at the same time.
a. Two stage operation c. all-in-all-out
b. multiple stage operation d. none of the above
41. The disadvantages of two stage operation system includes, except.

a. Two separate houses must be constructed
b. Transferring of broiler from the brooder to the grower house can
be stressful
c. more labor is required
d. more frequent intervals of selling broilers
42. The projecting mouthpart of the chicken and turkey, consisting of the
upper and lower mandibles.
a. bill c. snout
b. beak d. clutch
43. This refers to the male fowl less than one year old.
a. clutches c. pullet
b. cock d. cockerel
44. A young domestic chicken while in the downy stage is referred to as

a. clutch c. pullet
b. cock d. chick
45. An outgrowth which is found on top of the fowls head that serves as
an ornament, signs of status of the male chicken and is important in
heat dissipation.
a. wattle c. comb
b. caruncle d. culls
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46. As the first covering of a chick, this is also important in insulation
thus protecting the chick.
a. feather c. wings
b. down d. hairs
47. A period where embryonic development takes place outside the body
of the hen. This could be in both artificial and natural way.
a. Oviposition c. Incubation
b. Ovulation d. acclimatization
48. This is the longest feather of a wing, growing between the pinions
and secondaries, hidden when wing is folded and otherwise known as
flight feathers.
a. Plumage c. Clutches
b. Primaries d. down
49. In a poultry farm, the caretaker counted the number of chickens that
have produces eggs that are soft shelled and heads that are stiffed-neck.
All in all, he concluded that almost half of the population was afflicted
with a disease. The caretaker is recording the ________ of the farm.
a. Mortality rate c. prevalence rate
b. disease index d. morbidity rate
50. Cutting of the comb, wattles, or earlobes were usually done among
poultry species so as to leave the head smooth. This procedure is known
as.
a. dubbing c. notching
b. docking d. duckling
51. In poultry, this is usually done to minimize if not prevent

cannibalism. This is accomplished using an electrically controlled
cauterizing blade having a temperature of 815 c to destroy the tissue
responsible to generate beak growth. This is referred to as
a. dubbing c. debeaking
b. docking d. notching
52. Mortality rate is

a. the number of chicken alive minus the number of chicken that
have died from diseases
b. The number of dead chicken minus the number of chicken alive,
divided by the total number of chicken raised
c. The number of dead chicken minus the total number of chicken raised
d. Total number of dead chicken minus the total number of
chicken that were raised divided by the total number of chicken
raised
53. The pendant growth at the sides and base of the beak
a. wattle c. mandible
b. caruncle d. comb
54. This refers to the flat portion of a feather, made up of series of barbs
on either side of the shaft.
a. caruncle c. secondaries
b. web d. web of the wing
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55. A young pigeon of either sex
a. cock c. squab
b. pullet d. quill
56. A young guinea fowl is known as

a. keet c. keat
b. quill d. down
57. Not usually observed in egg-type chickens, this refers to the desire of
the female birds to sit on eggs.
a. oviposition c. broodiness
b. incubation d. nesting
58. The percentage of a given number of eggs set from which viable
young hatch sometimes calculated specifically from the number of fertile
eggs set.
a. brooding quality c. hatchability
b. harvest quality d. egg rate
59. This refers to the mature male turkey for breeding

a. turkey cock c. tom
b. poult d. drake
60. The scientific name of emu is
a. cynopsis emuides c. Dromiceius novaehollantiae
b. Struthio camelus d. Coturnix coturnix
61. Poultry breeding is simply defined as the process of mating a flock for
the purpose of improving it. Its goal is to modify the chicken species to
better fit the needs of man. What is the mating ratio of male to female
ducks?
a. 1:10-15 c. 1:10
b. 1:15-25 d. 1:20
62. In poultry farming, good selection of farm site and layer stock is very
important. The following are some of the factors to consider in selecting a
farm site except:
a. Topography of the area c. nearness to residential houses
b. Peace and order situation d. land availability and cost
63. For small laying house, the recommended type of roofing is gable,
while the ______type is preferred by commercial layer house owners for
larger house unit because this roof type can provide sufficient air vents.
a. gable c. hipped roof
b. lean to roof d. monitor
64. This type of poultry house is used in rearing very young chickens
from day old to 4 weeks of age. It is designed to provide additional heat
because the temperature –regulating mechanism of chickens does not
become functional until they are about 4 weeks old.
a. layer house c. brooder house
b. pullet house d. slat floor pen
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65. The behavior of the chicks in the brooder can be used as guide for
the correct brooding temperature. When the temperature is low, this is
the possible behavior of the chick.
a. They will make known their discomfort by chirping
b. The chicks will spread out their wings
c. The chicks will remain inactive
d. They will stay away from the heater
66. In rearing growing stocks, if separate grower house is used, chicks

are transferred to the growing house or pens at 6 to 8 weeks old. Then,
they are kept in these quarters until they are how many weeks old at
which time they are transferred to the grower house.
a. 13-14 c. 16-18
b. 14-15 d. 18-20
67. During hot summer days, the appetite of the birds diminishes, which
leads to poorer feed conversion rate. If this happens what is the best
remedy to restore the bird’s appetite?
a. Provide clean fresh water
b. wet mash feeding
c. provide measures to lower house temperature
d. sprinkle roof with water
68. This is the prime factor to consider before transferring the pullets to
the laying house.
a. Availability of the feeder and waterers
b. Health condition of the pullet
c. Cleanliness and dryness of the layer house
d. stress factors
69. This animal has a very poor sense of taste

a. pig b. cow c. goat d. chicken
70. Debeaking is the removal of the part of the end of the beak to prevent
cannibalism. This is usually done at_____days old pullet.
a. 1-10days c. an hour after hatching
b. 3 weeks d. 14 weeks
71. Using an electric debeaker, cut about 1/3 of the upper beak, and the
lower beak can be cut back after cutting the upper beak. The lower beak
should not be 1/8-1/4 inch longer than the upper beak. This statement is
a. correct c. maybe
72. A breed of duck that has a distinctively black and brown color
pattern. It is a non-sitter and is mainly raised for the production of balut.
a. mallard c. Indian runner
b. Muscovy d. Tsaiya
73. The average weight of an adult drake is 1.75 kg while the duck hen is
1.50kg. Under traditional management practices, a duck can lay how
many eggs in 250 days if it lays 200 eggs in 365 days?
a. 120 eggs c. 80
b. 95 d. 75
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74. Cherry valley is the first egg-type hybrid duck that originated from
cherry valley farms in England. This duck could lay 265 eggs up to 72
weeks of age. Its eggs has a characteristic color of either white
or________?
a. yellow c. brown
b. orange d. greenish
75. This breed of duck is a native of china. It has a large round head,
with white body, and orange bill and legs. They are also hardy and
resistant to most diseases.
a. tsaiya c. Cherry Valley
b. Pekin d. Indian runner
76. Drakes and ducks should be raised separately, and they are put
together only when ready for mating. What is the male to female ratio of
ducks?
a. 1:6-10 c. 2:15-20
b. 2:8-15 d. 1:4-8
77. The following differentiates mammal from birds reproductively except

a. Testes of birds located inside the body cavity
b. A well-defined estrous cycle
c. Has sperm host gland in the oviduct
d. No intromission during copulation
78. This is responsible why sperm stored in the oviduct of birds are
capable of fertilizing the eggs for about 10 days in chickens or up to 30
days in turkey.
a. oviposition c. broodiness
b. prolactin d. sperm host gland
79. In poultry, this is defined as the process of losing or dropping of the

feathers, after the bird has been in production.
a. bleaching c. shedding
b. molting d. feathering
80. Caponizing in poultry is usually done at______ weeks of age where a

single slit incisions is made on one side of the bird and both testes are
removed.
b. 2-4 d. 1-2 weeks
80. Xanthophyll pigments or yellow pigments in yellow-skinned pigment

in chickens were lost as more eggs are laid. These may serve as an
indicator of the number of eggs laid and the pattern of the hen’s egg
production. It occurs in a definite order as laying progresses. Which part
of the chicken is most rapidly bleached by the time the first egg is laid?
a. shanks c. beak
b. comb d. vent
81. The known causative agent of brooder pneumonia

a. Aspergillus fumigatus c. Klebsilla
b. Pasteurella multocida d. Penicillum notatum
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82. Approximate and average dressing % of broilers.
a. 70 c. 76
b. 60 d. 80
83. Approximate and average dressing percentage of turkey

a. 70 c. 76
b. 60 d. 80
84. Approximate and average dressing percentage of ducks

a. 71 c. 76
b. 60 d. 80
85. A glandular stomach of poultry where the first significant amount of

digestive juices are added.
a. Cloaca c. ventriculus
b. gizzard d. Proventriculus
86. A drug of choice for coccidiosis in poultry

a. amprolium c. vetracin
b. tetracycline d. v 22
87. It is characterized by swelling of the face and wattles and discharge

from nostril, which is watery and become sticky and with foul odor as the
disease progresses
a. Avian pest c. infectious coryza
b. Fowl pox d. avian influenza
88. What is the feed conversion efficiency (FCE) of a broiler having

average final body weight of 2kg after consuming 3.75 kg of feed for 42
days
a. 1.9 c. 1.88
b. 1.8 d. 0.53
89. An occasional job done during the growing & laying stage to reduce
boarders and ensure efficiency of production.
a. Flock replacement c. Culling
b. cleaning and disinfection d. none of the above
90. The floor space requirement of growing pullets varies according to the
systems of housing used. Mr. Castro wants to transfer his chickens to a
much larger rearing area, if he has 35 heads of 12 weeks old, what do
you think is the floor size if you will recommend him to use a litter floor
type of housing.
a. 70 sq. ft c. 35 sq. ft
d. 17 sq. ft. d. 20 sq. ft.
91. In brooding chicks, old newspapers are used as bedding to:

a. Serve as litter to absorb moisture of mature
b. Teach birds to recognized pictures
c. Improve the walking stance of chicks for better growth
d. For easy collection of the manure
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92. The light in the brooder will encourage the birds to keep close to
source of heat, feed and water. But providing the chicks with high
protein ration will stimulate early maturity. What is the best thing to do
to delay sexual maturity among growing chicks?
a. decrease light
b. ensure proper ventilation
c. dilute high protein ration with rice hull
d. do restricted feeding
93. The removal of feathers in a processing plant

a. molting b. plucking c. bleaching d. flaying
94. When the FCE of broiler is 2, it means

a. broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to produced 2.0 kg bodyweight
b. the total feed intake of 2.0 kg
c. bodyweight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by the feeding only 1kg
d. feeding 2.0 kg feed to produce 1kg of broiler
95. The reason why layer have poor quality eggs

a. poor designed of nest c. high temperature
b. improper feeding d. all of the above
96. Native chickens are popular because people

a. maintenance cost are low
b. people prefer its tough meat
c. People like the eggs of native chicken
d. It can easily be raised in rural areas
97. This organ has thick glandular mucous membrane that secretes HCL
and pepsinogen
a. proventriculus c. gizzard
b. cloaca d. stomach
98. In a flock of 150 heads, a bird was observed to be suffering from

incoordination, sneezing and difficulty in breathing. Manure on the
ground was also found with mixtures of blood. If you are a good poultry
raiser, what action will you eventually do to the bird?
a. isolate bird c. vaccinate the bird
b. kill the bird and bury it d. all of the above
99. Too much feed consumption during the rearing period can be due to
a. feed wastage c. feeds eaten by rodents
b. poor quality feed d. all of the above
100. Toxin produced from secondary metabolites of molds.

a. aflatoxin c. toxoid
b. autotoxin d. endotoxin
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ANSWER KEY
Animal Science
Poultry Management and Production 2
1. A 6. C 11. C 16. A 21. B 26. D 31. B 36. C 41. D 46. B

2. B 7. D 12. A 17. A 22. D 27. C 32. C 37. B 42. B 47. A
3. A 8. D 13. C 18. A 23.C 28. C 33. D 38. D 43. D 48. B
4. A 9. D 14. B 19. A 24. C 29. B 34. B 39. A 44. D 49. D
5. A 10. A 15. A 20. A 25. B 30. C 35. A 40. C 45. C 50. A
51. C 56. A 61.A 66. C 71. A 76.C 81. A 86. A 91.D 96.C
52. D 57. C 62.A 67. B 72. A 77.B 82. C 87. C 91. C 97. A
53. A 58. C 63. A 68. C 73. A 78. D 83. D 88. A 93.B 98. B
54. B 59. C 64. C 69. D 74. D 79. B 84. D 89. C 94. D 99. A
55. C 60. C 65. A 70. B 75. C 80. A 85. D 90. A 95.D 100. A
ANIMAL SCIENCE
(Animal Production Processing)
1. The term that refers to the meat coming from cattle of less
than one year of age
a. Beef c. chevon
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b. Veal d. mutton e. none of the above
2. The term refer to the act of slaughtering animals dead of

some cause prior to the time of slaughter
a. Fabrication c. cold slaughter
b. Hot slaughter d. double killing e. none of the
above
3. The process of heating food stuff, usually a liquid for a

definite temperature and time, and thereafter cooling it
immediately
a. Pasteurization c. clarification
b. Homogenization d. curing e. none of the above
4. Milk product where the butterfat is replace with vegetables

fat such as coconut fat oil
a. Full cream milk c. condensed milk
b. Flavored milk d. skim milk e. none of the
above
5. The following are considered essential amino acids to human

diet except
a. Phenylalanine c. alanine e. none of the above
b. Methionine d. all of the obove
6. The meat is considered deficient in this mineral

a. Iron c. calcium e. none of the above
b. Manganese d. all of the above
7. The considered most variable components of meat because

its proportion to the meat is greatly affected by several
factors such as nutrition, age, exercise and other physiology
factors
a. Bone c. fat e. none of the above
b. Lean d. connective tissue
8. What is the averages amount of water in fresh whole milk?

a. 87% c.70% e. none of the above
b. 95% d. 80%
9. What is recommended temperature for chilling meat?
a. -15 to 0oc c. 5 to 10oc e. none of the above
b. 10 to 15oc d. 2 to 4oc
10. The following are the conditions that would warrant
animals to be denied for slaughter except.
a. The animals is pregnant
b. The animals is sick
c. The animals shows lameness
d. The animals is newly injected with antibiotic
e. None of the above
290 | P a g e
11. Which of the following statement is (are) true?
a. Meat or carcasses contaminated with urine should
automatically be condemned
b. The “boar taint” odor is not perceptible in meat when
the boar is slaughtered one week after castration
c. The “ boar taint” odor is manifested only upon sexual
maturity of uncast rated male pig.
d. All of the above statement are true
e. B and c only
12. The term refers to meat coming from an illegal source

a. Hot meat c. cold meat e. red meat
b. Short meat d. green meat
13. The term refers to the process of wrapping the carcass

with cheesecloth previously soaked in lukewarm water
a. Evisceration c. shrouding e. none of the above
b. Chilling d. singeing
14. The normal freezing point of fresh milk
a. -0.5450c c. 0.545oc e. 454oc
b. -0.4540c d. 0.4540c
15. The test used to determine the fat content of the milk
a. Babcock c. lactometer e. kjeldahl method
b. Sediment d. walker method
16. Which of the following is an example of processed

product from milk fat?
a. Cheese c. ice cream e. none of the above
b. Butter d. yoghurt
17. Lactose is a complex disaccharide made up of?

a. Glucose + glucose c. glucose + fructose
b. Glucose+ galactose d. galactose + galactose
e. fructose + galactose
18. The following are basic ingredients in curing meat,

except
a. Salt c. spices e. c and d only
b. Sugar d. nitrite
19. Which of the following is (are) not step (s) in

slaughtering of hogs?
a. Scalding c. flaying e. splitting
b. Evisceration d. scraping
20. Which of the following statements is(are) true about

meat preservation
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a. Meat even in the absence of microorganism may self-
decomposition because of some endogeneous enzyms
present on it.
b. The principle of meat curing can be view as a race
between penetration of curing ingredients and
proliferation of microorganisms, which even comes
first will give the result.
c. The type of microorganism in meat is equally
important as the number of microbial cells present on
it.
d. All of the above statement are true.
e. Only A and B are true
21. Which of the following condition is (are) related to

fasting of animals before slaughtering?
a. Ease of cleaning and evisceration
b. Through bleeding resulting to a bright colored carcass
c. Low pH of the resulting meat
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
22. The cholesterol in egg can be found in its component

(s) namely
a. Yolk c. shell e. none of the above
b. Albumen d. A and B only
23. The animal welfare law is promulgated under what

Republic Act?
a. R A 711 c. R A 8485 e. R A 712
b. R A 8584 d. R A 710
24. The following are approved stunning method for hogs except
a. Use stunning gun c. use of electric stunner
b. Use of carbon dioxide chamber d. none of the above
e. Band C only
25. Carbohydrates are stored in the animal body in the

form of
a. Starch c. glycogen e. none of the above
b. Fructose d. lactose
26. Which of the following bacteria can cause food

intoxication?
a. Salmonella typhi c. pediococcos cereviaseae
b. Clostridium botulinum d. acedobacter aceti
c. e. listena monocytogenes
27. the following is (are) chemical component (s) of meat

except
292 | P a g e
a. water c. crude fat e. none of the above
b. crude protein d. crude fiber
28. which of the following statement is (s) true about milk

a. milk is a good source of calcium
b. protein and fats are the principal constituents of fresh
milk, which are about 87% of the milk when combined
c. the nitrogenous substances present in milk are
composed of 95% proteins and 5% non-proteins
d. all of the above statements are true
e. A and C only
29. When a particular hog is severely stressed just prior or

during slaughter, which condition is more prevalent to
happen?
a. Dark, firm and dry meat c. normal appearance of
meat
b. Pale, soft and exudative meat d. bright colored meat
c. e. none of the above
30. after the death of the animal, the pH of the meat drops
due to conversation of glycogen reserve into
a. pyruvic acid c. glutamic acid e. none of the above
b. acetic acid d. protonic acid
c.
31. Some foreign materials on the meat are removed in the
process of?
a. Straining c. pasteurization e. all of the above
b. Homogenization d. separation
32. The total solid milk is determined using?

a. Spectrophotometer c. penetrometer
b. Lactometer d. ohm meter
e. none of the above
33. Which of the following statement is (are) true about

selecting animals for slaughter?
a. Any age or class of animal can be slaughtered for fresh
meat retailing in the market as long as they are in the
market weight
b. Culled sows are good source of meat materials for
processing of Christmas hams.
c. In general trend, as the animals within species gets
bigger, the dressing yield gets higher
293 | P a g e
d. All of the statement above are true
e. All of the statement above are false
34. The following are necessary management practices that

should be done prior to slaughter of animal except
a. Fasting c. letting the animals relax
b. Cleaning of the animals &facilities
c. letting the animals relax
d. handling the animals gently
e. branding
35. The following factors to consider in slaughtering of the

animals except.
a. The cleanliness of the meat produced as well as the
health of the animals.
b. Efficiency of meat inspection
c. Adequacy of meat preservation
d. Hygiene production
36. In range chicken dressing operation, stunning may

also be employed before the bleeding process. Which of the
following stunning procedures is commonly used in stunning
of chicken?
a.Use of stunning gun
b. Microwave stunner
c. use of the electric stunner
d. use sledge hammer
e. none of the above
37. The average proportion of albumen in chicken eggs

a. 45% c.69% e.75%
b. 59% d. 85%
38. Board taint odor becomes apparent ay what age of the

boars?
a. Around 5 months c. around 12 months
b. Around 7 months d. around 15 months
39. The meat characteristics of steer are more similar to

the meat of
a. Stages c. bulls
b. Cows d. heifer
40. The term___ in animals refer to

a. Uncastrated male animals
b. Castrated male animals
c. Female animals which has not yet given birth
d. None of the above
294 | P a g e
41. Generally, meat from young animals are more____ and
___ than old animals
a. Tender and darker c. tougher and darker
b. Tender lighter d. tougher and lighter
42. What is the acceptable amount of fat intact meat

preparations?
a. 0-3% b.5-7% c. 8-12% d.10-40%
43. When the glycogen reserve at the muscle of the

animals is depleted before slaughtering, which is more likely
to occur in the resulting meat?
a. The meat would have high pH and therefore, pale soft,
and exudative
b. The meat would have high pH and therefore ,dark,
firm, and dry.
c. The meat would have low pH and therefore, pale soft,
and exudative
d. The meat would have low pH and therefore ,dark, firm
and dry
e. None of the above may happen
44. During bleeding or sticking, the main blood vessel that

is cut aside from carotid artery is
a. Pulmonary vein c. pulmonary artery e. coccygeal
artery
b. Jugular artery d. femoral artery
45. In scalding hogs and poultry, the temperature of the

scalding bath should be in the range of_____ effective
removal of scurf, hairs or feathers
a. 100-1500c c. 130-1800c e.80-1000c
b. 100-1500f d. 130-180of
46. During post-morterm inspection of meat or carcass, at

what temperature the meat must be heated for 30 minutes if
it is adjudged as passed for fertilization?
a. 1040c c. 1150c e. none of the above
b. 120 c
0
d. 114 c0
47. The following are the reason for chilling carcasses prior
to fabrication, except
a. To allow the rigor mortis to pass
b. To make the meat more tender and flavorful
c. To form up the meat prior to fabrication
d. None of the above
295 | P a g e
48. Which of the following carcasses is not recommended
for aging?
a. Pork c. Chevon e. None of the
above
b. Beef d. Carabeef
49. The basic ingredients in curing used to overcome

saltiness and counteract the toughening of salt
a. Phosphate c. sugar e. none of the above
b. Ascorbates d. nitrate
50. The ingredients in meat processing used to increased

water holding capacity
a. Phosphates c. monosodium glutamate
b. Nitrates d. Ascorbates e. none of the above
51. The following are examples of comminuted meat

products EXCEPT
a. Fresh sausage c. hotdog e. B and C only
b. Hamburger d. none of the above
52. The method used to determine the amount of casein in
milk.
a. Babcock method c. Kjeldahl method e. none of the above
b. Walker method d. Bromthymol-blue test
53. Milk is deficient in sulfur containing amino acid such

as
a. Methionine c. cystene e. none of the above
b. Phenylalanine d. all of the above
54. Milk should be cooled ____or lower as soon as it milk

out to minimize microbial growth
a. 50of c. 50oc
b. 20f d. 20c
55. At HTST method of pasteurization, milk is heated at

what temperature?
a. 165-1800f c. 135-14300f e. none of the above
b. 192-1940f d. 145-150of
56. Which of the following statement is (are) NOT TRUE

about candling characteristics of eggs?
a. Bubbly air cell is an indication of staleness and a week
shell membrane or of tough handling
b. A normal yolk moves freely and casts darker shadow
c. High quality table egg has no germ development
d. An air cell that moves feely to any part of the egg
indicates broken inner membrane
296 | P a g e
57. The process of forcing milk through small opening

under high pressure to reduce fat particle size.
a. Pasteurization c. homogenization e. clanification
b. Filtration d. straining
58. The form of milk wherein fat or cream is removed

a. Filled milk c. homogenization e. none of the above
b. Skim milk d. condensed milk
59. The milk wherein fat globules are reduced to smaller

size
a. Filled milk c. homogenization e. none of the above
b. Skim milk d. condensed milk
60. The type of marketing system wherein the farmer or

traders bring
a. Barrio agent system c. city dealer system
b. Livestock market system d. all of the above
e. A and B only
61. It refers to the edible by-products from the

slaughterhouse.
a. Meat by- products c. meat specialties
b. Variety meat d. all of the above
e. A and B only
62. The meat coming from sheep is called
a. Chevon c. v eal e. lamb
b. Venison d. mutton
63. It refers to fresh milk with high purity to be delivered

to the customer within 36 hours. the number of bacteria is
10,000 or less per ml.
a. Purified milk c. clarified milk e. none of the above
b. Certified milk d. clarified milk
64. The form of calcium found on eggs.
a. CaCO3 c.Ca2 PO4
b. CaCI2 d. none of the above
65. The following are minerals found on egg shell. EXCEPT

a. Calcium c. phosphorus e. none of the above
b. Manganese d. magnesium
66. The nitrogenous component of milk are made up of

a. 90% protein and 10% non-protein
b. 80% protein and 20% non-protein
c. 100% protein and 0% non-protein
d. 85% protein and 15% non-protein
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67. Around 78.5% of the protein in milk is made up of

a. Casein c. milk serum protein e. none of the above
b. Lactose d. whey protein
68. The averages amount of lactose in human milk
a. 1% c. 7% e. 15%
b. 3% d. 12%
69. The cheese can be processed from

a. Milk cream b. butter milk
c. skim milk d. whey e. none of the above
70. A livestock marketing system wherein a mother

company takes the animals produced and takes care of the
processing before the final sale to the consumers.
a. Livestock market scheme c. barrio agent scheme
b. Contract growing scheme d. city dealer scheme
71. The curing ingredients that causes withdrawal of water

from the meat and cause plassmolysis of bacteria cells
a. Salt c. spices e. ascorbates
b. Sugar d. phosphates
72. The curing ingredients used to develop cured color and
flavor
a. Salt c. spices e. none of the above
b. Sugar d. nitrites
73. The maximum safe amount of nitrite residue in

finished sausages.
a. 100ppm c. 250ppm e. 275ppm
b. 200ppm d.300ppm
74. The recommended temperature for conventional aging

of meat
a. 0 to 2.00c c.-5.0 to1.50c e. 5.0 to 7.50c
b. 1.5 to 3.00c d.5.0 to 10oc
75. Which of the following is not a step in slaughtering

cattle?
a. Stunning c. bleeding e. none of the above
b. Flaying d. splitting
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ANSWER KEY
(Animal Products Processing)
1. B 26. C 51. D
2. C 27. D 52. B
3. A 28. E 53. E
4. E 29. B 54. A
5. C 30. E 55. A
6. C 31. A 56. B
299 | P a g e
7. C 32. B 57. D
8. A 33. C 58. D
9. D 34. B 59. D
10. C 35. E 60. C
11. C 36. D 61. D
12. A 37. B 62. D
13. C 38. B 63. C
14. A 39. E 64. A
15. A 40. A 65. B
16. B 41. A 66. E
17. B 42. C 67. A
18. C 43. B 68. C
19. C 44. E 69. C
20. D 45. D 70. B
21. D 46. A 71. A
22. A 47. B 72. D
23. C 48. A 73. B
24. D 49. C 74. B
25. C 50. A 75. E
ANIMAL SCIENCE
(Ruminant Production)
1. These are commonly used floors for cattle and buffaloes/carabaos

except
a. Slatted c. concrete floors
b. Solid floors d. clay floors
2. Type of milking parlor where cows stand side by side in a stall

having a gate in the front and a chain at the rear.
a. Herringbone c. abreast
b. Chute d. side opening or gate type
300 | P a g e
3. Cows are connected in a head-to-tail manner and enter each side
of the parlor as a group.
a. Herringbone c. abreast
b. Chute d. side opening or gate type
4. A helpful equipment in restraining animals while being treated,

immunized or groomed.
a. Cart c. pasteurizer
b. Foot bath d. holding chute
c.
5. It is used in holding cattle for dehorning, branding, castration or
other cattle working operations.
a. Corral c. squeeze chute
b. Loading chute d. none of the above
6. A storage structure in which green and moist forage is ensiled.

a. Feed troughs or bunks c. feed rack
b. Self-feeders d. silos
7. Fresh forage/grass cut and fed to the animals in the barn or

stable.
a. Silage c. straw
b. Soilage d. hay
8. Dried plant by-products from which the flowers or fruits have been
removed.
a. Silage c. fodder
b. soilage d. straw/stover
9. A system of feeding ruminants by allowing them to graze in a large

tract of land, hilly or rolling, a good fencing is necessary to keep
the animals.
a. Range c. cut and carry
b. Tethering d. all of the above
10. It is the largest dairy breed developed in Northern

Netherlands, black and white, and noted for its milk production.
a. Jersey c. Holstein Friesian
b. Brown Swiss d. Ayrshire
11. The Philippine carabao has a chromosome number (2n=48),

light gray, and under what type?
a. Swamp c. grades
b. River d. buffalo
12. A dairy breed of goat

a. Boer c. Saanen
b. Phil. Native d. Jumnapari
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13. A meat type goat
a. Boer c. Saanen
b. Alpine d. Anglo-Nubian
14. Goats with long and pendulous ears with Roman Nose,
weighing about 100-140 kgs
a. La Mancha c. Toggenburg
b. Anglo-nubian d. Alpine
15. Heifers weighing 220 to 250 kgs are best to breed at the age
of
a. 18-20 years c. 2 ½ years
b. 2 years d. 3 years
16. On the average mature cattle consume ___ gallons of

water/head/day.
a. 12 c. 15
b. 8 d. 20
17. The Philippine dairy farming sector produces___ of the

country’s milk supply.
a. 10% c. 100%
b. 0.10% d. <1%
18. It is most popular type of cattle raising in the Philippines.

The growers are raised by grazing or cut carry feeding and then
confined until market.
a. Breeder farm operation c. range
b. Cow-calf operation d. tethering
19. A system of feeding ruminants to avoid infective stage of

internal parasites particularly liverfluke.
a. Tethering c. range
b. Rotational grazing d. all of the above
20. Which of the following should be observed in the vaccination

of animals?
a. Do not vaccinate pregnant animals
b. Vaccinate sick animals
c. Vaccinate during hot or wet weather
d. Do not burn containers and unused portion of vaccines
21. The other name for sore mouth in goats, which is

characterized by scabby lesions in the lips, muzzle and eyelids,
etc.
a. Contagious ophthalmai c. infectious arthritis
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b. Contagious ecthyma/orf d. pink mouth
22. The voluntary release of milk from the udder of lactating

females.
a. Washing and wiping of mammary gland
b. Milk let-down
c. Closing of the thumb and first finger
d. Milk release
23. A burdizzo is an instrument used for ____ animals.

a. Dehorning c. castrating
b. branding d. identifying
24. What is the moisture content of an air-dried feed?

a. 3% c. 10%
b. 5% d. 14%
25. A male sheep castrated while young (usually at 1-weeks olds)

a. Ram c. wether
b. Shearling d. stag
26. The breed of cattle consisting of 5/8 Shorthorn + 3/8

Brahman, developed in Kind Rand Texas.
a. Sta. Gertrudis c. angus
b. Hereford d. Charolais
27. The breed of the cattle consisting of ¼ Shorthorn + ½

Brahman and ¼ Hereford blood.
a. Sta. Gertrudis c. angus
b. Hereford d. Charolais
28. The type of foot and mouth disease virus identified in the
Philippines
a. A, B and C c. A, O and D
b. A, O and C d. none of the above
There are seven FMDV serotypes: A, O, C, SAT 1, SAT 2, SAT 3 and Asia
1 belonging to the species FMDV, and two non-FMDV serotypes, the
species Bovine rthnitis B virus (BRBV) and Equine rthnitis A virus (ERAV)
29. It is smallest of the dairy cattle breeds; its milk contains the
highest milk fat.
a. Brown Swiss c. Jersey
b. Guersey d. Holsteain Freisian
30. The causative agent of foot and mouth disease

a. Aphthovirus c. Pastuerella multocida
b. Clostridium tetani d. orthomyxovirus
303 | P a g e
31. Characteristics of breeder animals that must not be culled
a. A cow which calves every year
b. Produces large amount of milk
c. Heifers which comes to heat
d. All of the above
32. Young animal of cattle, usually under one year of age

a. Calf c. kid
b. piglet d. all of the above
33. a female of cattle under 3 years old which has not produce a
calf
a. gilt c. heifer
b. cow d. none of the above
34. a term used to denote the average length of time in days

between successive calvings
a. Calving interval c. Gestation period
b. Estrus cycle d. none of the above
35. General term of any class of animals of the bonive family,

genus Bos
a. Cattle c. Bull none of the above
b. Cow d. none of the above
36. A mating system where the bull is brought in and let loose
with the herd of breeding heifers and cows during breeding season.
a. Pasture mating c. Crossbreeding
b. Hand mating d. Inbreeding
37. Mature female of cattle that has given birth.

a. Heifers c. Cow
b. Gilts d. Does
38. The major beef production system in the Philippines.

a. Backyard cattle raising c. feedlot fattening
b. Ranching d. all of the above
39. Any number of cattle under one management, maintained in

one premise, and allowed to associate or come in contact with one
another.
a. Cows c. herd
b. Breed d. ranch
40. A system of feeding where feeds are brought to the animals.

a. Hand feeding c. cut and carry
b. Grazing d. A and C
304 | P a g e
41. Act of giving birth in cattle.
a. Kidding c. farrowing
b. Calving d. laying
42. Sexually mature male cattle.

a. Cow c. bull
b. Boar d. buck
43. Restraining an animal with a rope or chain to allow limited

movement.
a. Grazing c. cut and carry
b. Tethering d. all of the above
44. The sexual period in females when they are receptive to

mating.
a. Heat period c. gestation period
b. Estrus period d. A and B
45. One to two year old cattle of either sex

a. Yearling c. cow
b. Calf d. sow
46. A mating system where an in-heat cow is brought to the bull

or vice-versa.
a. Inbreeding c. pasture mating
b. Crossbreeding d. handmating
47. Average gestation period in cow is about ____ days.

48. Properly grown bulls on the range should be allowed to breed

at _____ years of age.
a. One year c. three years
b. Two years d. four years
49. Estrus normally lasts for ____ hours for indigenous and Zebu
grades.
a. 2-4 hours c. 10-12 hours
b. 6-8 hours d. 14-16 hours
50. Important aspects of the general disease prevention

procedure.
a. Strict quarantine program
b. Sanitation
c. Process of early diagnosis of disease
d. All of the above
51. A young cattle castrated after reaching the breeding age.

305 | P a g e
a. Steer c. heifer
b. Stag d. bull
52. Common name of Gliricidia sepium

a. Makahiya c. ipil-ipil
b. Kakawate d. none of the above
53. A burdizzo is used for:

a. Branding c. castration
b. Dehorning d. all of the above
54. The scientific name of Aurochs is

a. Bos auros c. Bos taurus
b. Bos Iongifrons d. Bos premigenius
55. The meat per capita consumption in the Philippines.

a. 43.1 kg c. 30 kg
b. 50 kg d. 41.3 kg
56. The Beef Cattle production systems are composed of

a. Backyard c. Semi-commercial
b. Commercial d. all of the above
57. There are at least ___ accredited feedlots in the Philippines.

a. 18 c. 280
b. 180 d. 80
58. The largest feedlot in the Philippines at present is

a. Monterey c. El Rancho
b. Dealco d. Del Monte
59. The 997,000 hectares of the Philippines’ pasture land can

support
a. 500,000 A.U. c. 500 A. U.
b. 5,000 A.U. d. none of the above
60. The commercial cow-calf operations of the country are

located in
a. Pangasinan c. Bukidnon
b. Masbate d. all of the above
61. The total agricultural lands devoted to crops of the country

like the Riceland, comland, coconut farming, etc. can support
a. 10 M A.U. c. 11 M A.U.
b. 12 M A.U. d. none of the above
62. Herd division is merely grouping the cattle/buffalo according

to
a. Age c. size
306 | P a g e
b. Purpose d. all of the above
63. The A.U. equivalent of a heifer is

a. 0.75 c. 0.25
b. 0.50 d. 1.0
64. The total A.U. yearlings in the herd is

a. 1.5 c. 3.5
b. 2.5 d. 4.5
65. The daily dry matter requirement if a 300 kg feedlot cattle is

a. 7.5 kg c. 6.0 kg
b. 6.5 kg d. 9.0 kg
66. The roughage dry matter requirement of a 400 kg mature

cattle with a roughage to concentrate ratio of 80:20
a. 64.kg c. 7.4 kg
b. 8.4 kg d. none of the above
67. What is the total number of vegetative planting materials

needed for 1 ha If the distance between furrows is 0.75 m and 0.5
m between hills
a. 20,000 c. 20,666
b. 25,000 d. 26,666
68. What is the total daily soilage requirement of a 180 young

cattle if soilage contains 20% DM?
a. 27 kg c. 25 kg
b. 20 kg d. 30 kg
69. This ensures the appropriate nutrition of the various age

groups of the herd
a. Herd division c. nutritional
requirement
b. Herd management d. none of the above
70. The most common and legal means of identifying beef cattle
ownership
a. Hide branding c. earnotching
b. Horn branding d. tattooing
71. Bullock is usually a stag that is used for

a. Milk c. meat
b. draft d. fattering
72. beef cattle are common in trocal countries are

a. Bos Taurus c. Bos bubalus
b. Bos indicus d. Bos aurochs
307 | P a g e
73. The largest part of the cattle digestive system and serves as
fermentation chamber
a. Omasum c. small intestine
b. Reticulum d. rumen
74. The fresh forage cut to feed animals tethered or kept in

sheds.
a. Soilage c. silo
b. Silage d. none of the above
75. The organ in the female animal that secretes milk.

a. Teats c. udder
b. Breasts d. none of the above
76. The mature female carabao that has already dropped a calf.
a. Carabull c. Caracow
b. caracalf d. none of the above
77. the scientific name of goat

a. Carpa aries c. Capra circus
b. Ovies hircus d. Capra hircus
78. The heat cycle of goat

79. The matured weight of a native goat is

a. 20-25 kg c. 20-30 kg
b. 15-20 kg d. 30-40 kg
80. The chromosome number of goat is

a. 54 c. 64
b. 60 d. 74
81. The chromosome number of sheep is

a. 64 c. 54
b. 44 d. 72
82. The latest breed of goat in the Philippines is

a. Anglo-Nubian c. Boer
b. Saanen k. Kiko
83. The term for female goat is

a. Boe b. doe c. sow d. dam
84. The term for male goat is

a. Buck b. boar c. ram d. stag
308 | P a g e
85. The term foe female sheep is
a. Doe b. dam c. ewe d. mare
86. The term for male sheep is

a. Ram b. buck c. stag d. steer
87. The term for mother goat or sheep is

a. Dam b. doe c. ewe d. stallion
88. The term for young goat is

a. Kid b. nanny c. billy d. gouty
89. The act of parturition in goat is

a. Goating b. kidding c. lambing d. farrowing
90. The act of parturition in sheep is

a. Sheeping b. lambing c. darling d. ewing
91. The goat is said to be a

a. Grazer b. browser c. growser d. boer
92. The sheep is said to be a

a. Grazer b. grower d. browser d. bowser
93. The first milk of goat is called

a. Colostrums c. non-allergenic milk
b. Fresh milk d. skim milk
94. The queen of dairy goat is

a. Queery c. Saanen
b. Alpine d. Kiko
95. The meat of goat is called

a. Lapan c. mutton
b. Chevrons d. chevon
96. The meat of sheep is called
a. Lapan c. mutton
b. Chevrons d. chevon
97. The prehensile organ of a goat is

a. Lips b. mouth c. tongue d. teeth
98. The matured goat consumes _______ of clean water a day

a. 1.5 liters c. 2.5 liters
b. 2 liters d. 3 liters
99. The other term for a female goat is

a. Nanny b. jenny c. Kelly d. golly
309 | P a g e
100. The other term for a male goat is
a. Billy b. dilly c. timmy d. jonny
ANSWER KEY
(RUMINANT PRODUCTION)
1. A 26. A 51. B 76. C

2. C 27. B 52. B 77. D
3. B 28. B 53. C 78. B
4. D 29. C 54. D 79. A
5. C 30. A 55. A 80. B
6. D 31. D 56. D 81. C
7. B 32. A 57. B 82. C
8. D 33. C 58. D 83. B
9. A 34. A 59. A 84. A
10. C 35. A 60. D 85. C
310 | P a g e
11. A 36. A 61. C 86. A
12. C 37. C 62. D 87. A
13. A 38. A 63. A 88. A
14. B 39. C 64. B 89. B
15. A 40. C 65. C 90. B
16. D 41. B 66. A 91. B
17. D 42. C 67. D 92. A
18. C 43. B 68. A 93. A
19. B 44. D 69. A 94. C
20. A 45. A 70. A 95. D
21. B 46. D 71. B 96. C
22. B 47. A 72. B 97. A
23. D 48. A 73. D 98. D
24. D 49. C 74. A 99. A
25. C 50. D 75. C 100. A
ANIMAL SCIENCE
(Swine Production)
1. What is the conception rate of sows per breeding period?

a. 50% c. 70%
b. 60% d. 80%
2. The acceptable farrowing index per year in swine is

a. 1.8 c. 2.5-2.65
b. 2.0-2.5 d. 2.7-2.8
3. The rearing period of litter pigs is

a. 7-10 days c. 30-42 days
b. 20-30days d. 50-days
311 | P a g e
4. The CP content of starter ration for pigs is
a. 18% c. 22%
b. 20% d. 24%
5. The normal duration of heat/estrus in sows

a. 1 day c. 1-2 days
b. 10 days d. 2-5days
6. The acceptable days interval between two consecutive farrowings

in swine
7. A 230 consumed by 90 kg liveweight with an initial weight of 15

kg. what is the FCR?
a. 2.5 c. 3
b. 2.8 d. 3.5
8. Gilts for breeding are selected at the age of

a. 6 months c. 9 months
b. 8 months d. one year
9. Castration of healthy piglets is recommended at the age of

a. 1 week before weaning c. 14-21 days
b. 1-10 days d. 30 days
10. The quarantine period on newly acquired pigs.

a. One week c. three weeks
b. One month d. 60 days
11. What is the litter number of sow number 25 given an
information date born on August 10, 2009 production life – 5.2
years, total number of litters – 12, total number of piglets born –
175?
a. 1.8 c. 2.3
b. 14.58 d.33.6
12. The average weight of 10 piglets is 1.5 kg at birth. At

weaning (30 days), the total weight of weaners is 100 kilos. What is
the average daily gain per weaner?
a. 283 g c. 250 g
b. 300 g d. 275 g
13. A white-colored meat type pig with medium, erect ears,

curved back, and body inclining forward.
a. Hampshire c. Large White
b. Landrace d. Berkshire
14. A very meaty type of pig with spotted black white color
a. Hampshire c. Berkshire
b. Duroc d. Pietrain
15. Over-fatness as a result of overfeeding of sows after breeding

a. Wasteful feeding
b. Reduced embryo survival or number of pigs farrowed
c. Sows are prone to suffer from farrowing complications
d. All of the above
312 | P a g e
16. A pregnant gilt or sow should be fed with a brood sow ration
containing 3,300 of digestible energy (DE) and crude protein
content of
a. 14 % c. 18 %
b. 16 % d. 20 %
17. The ideal net increase in weight of a pregnant sow

a. 10 kgs c. 20 days
b. 15 kgs d. 40 kgs
18. The average pregnancy period of sows

19. Lactating sows require a ration containing 2,300 kcal of DE,

0.6% Ca, 0.4% P, and CP content of:
a. 14% c. 17%
b. 15 % d. 18%
20. A creep ration containing 20% CP, 3,500 kcal of DE, Ca and
P, fortified with vitamins and minerals is provided to what group of
swine?
a. Weaners c. one week old
b. Two months old d. one month old
21. A concrete floor is constructed 50 to 70 cm from the floor,

recommended for weanling (pigs)
a. The pig pen c. litter type
b. The flat deck d. gestating stall
22. The birth weight of piglets is a vital element in piglet survival.

a. 900 g to 1 kg c. 1.3-1.5 kg
b. 1-1.2 kg d. none of the above
23. The average feed consumption/day of ad libitum – fed

fatteners
a. 1.9-2.1 kg c. 1.5-1.7 kg
b. 1.7-2.0 kg d. none of the above
24. The average consumption/day for restricted fed fatteners
a. 1-9-2.1 kg c. 1.5-1.7 kg
b. 1.7-2.0 kg d. none of the above
25. The pye of flooring that allows animal wastes to drop or to be

forced through the slats
a. Concrete c. flat deck
b. Slatted floors d. all of the above
26. Brooder temperature which is essential to create a

microclimate to enhance piglet survival.
a. 24-26 0C c. 30-32 0C
b. 27-28 0C d. 33-35 0C
27. Management method wherein a group of fattering pigs enters
the unit at the time and leaves together at a certain period once
they reached the market or slaughter weight.
a. All-in-all-out c. multiple
313 | P a g e
b. individual d.two-stage
28. A decrease in the amount of milk secreted by the sow is a

condition called
a. Metritis c. agalactia
b. Mastitis d. hypogalactia
29. Areas regularly visited by outsiders should be situated near

the gate.
a. Feed store c. fatteners’ pen/house
b. Office d. all of the above
30. Feeding gilt high-energy rations before breeding is called

a. Full feeding c. Flushing
b. Ad libitum d. all of the above
31. Early weaning of pigs is done at:

a. 6 weeks of age c. 10 weeks of age
b. 8 weeks of age d. 4 weeks of age
32. The process of choosing best boars and gilts from the herd.
Like the parent of the next generation.
a. Culling c. weaning
b. selection d. A & B
33. The process of choosing best boars and gilts from a litter of
one sow to another sow is called:
a. Transferring c. parenting
b. Fostering d. all of the above
34. Baby pig anemia is brought about by a deficiency of:

a. Ca c. Fe
b. P d. none of the above
35. Pigs are born with 4 pairs of sharp teeth called:

a. Baby teeth c. needle teeth
b. Milk teeth d. permanent teeth
36. Swine herd can be maintained at high level of efficiency by:

a. Culling c. selling
b. Breeding d. none of the above
37. How many equally spaced rudimentary teats must a good gilt
possess?
a. At least 4 pairs c. at least 6 pairs
b. At least 5 pairs d. none of the above
38. Young female swine that has not given birth and usually
kept for breeding.
a. Cow c. sow
b. Gilt d. heifer
39. A common method used for swine which consist of piercing

outlines of desirable numbers of figures on the skin inside the ear.
a. Tattooing c. Berkshire
b. Branching d. none of the above
314 | P a g e
40. The longest breed of pig because of its extra rib is
a. Duroc c. Berkshire
b. Large white d. none of the above
41. To give birth to young pigs
a. Calving c. farrowing
b. Kidding d. pigletting
42. Tattooing of piglets is done on what part of the pig?

a. Snout c. ear
b. Hindleg d. switch
43. Recommended age of castrating is

a. 3 days c. 3 weeks
b. 2 weeks d. 8 weeks
44. A castrated pig after sexual maturity is called

a. Stud c. barrow
b. Boar d. Stag
45. When is the recommended age to offer creep feed?

46. Breed of pig known as the “Red Power”

a. Duroc c. Tamworth
b. Berkshire d. Pietrain
47. White breeds of pigs

a. Duroc c. Hampshire
b. Yorkshire d. none of the above
48. If the daily gain weight of the animals is 500 grams per day,
how long will it take a 15-kg pig reach 85 kgs.
49. If a sow farrowed on July 18, when it bred?

a. March 25 c. March 12
b. November 9 d. November 20
50. Method(s) of identifying piglets

a. Hot iron branding c. Earnotching
b. Wing web band d. Tail docking
51. Breed of swine with six distinct white points in its body
a. Pietrain c. Duroc
b. Poland china d. None of the above
52. Reasons for castrating pigs:

a. Fast growth rate c. to remove the boar taint
b. Better feed efficiency d. Thinner back fat
53. The physical characteristic of a replacement boar should be
315 | P a g e
a. Two big testicles c. long body
b. Strong legs d. all of the above
54. Which of the following is an important management practice

to prevent navel ill?
a. Cut needle teeth c. inject iron dextran
b. Cut umbilical cord d. brooding
55. Which of the following is an important management practice

to prevent chilling and hypoglycemia?
a. Cut needle teeth c. give creep feed
b. Cut umbilical cord d. brooding
56. Refers to the number of litters a sow or gilt has had.

a. Litter size c. litter mate
b. Panty d. litter interval
57. Recommended age for iron dextran injection

58. Weight gain of gilt and young sows during pregnancy

a. 15 kg c. 21 kg
b. 60 kg d. 41 kg
59. Hogs belong to class

a. Animalia c. Suidae
b. Chordate d. Mammalia
60. Measurement of gestating stalls

a. 0.5 m x 2.13 m c. 0.5 ft x 1.85 ft
b. 0.5 ft x 2.13 ft d. 0.5 m x 1.85 m
ANSWER KEY
(SWINE PRODUCTION)
1. D 31. D
2. B 32. B
3. B 33. B
4. A 34. C
5. D 35. C
6. D 36. A
316 | P a g e
7. C 37. D
8. A 38. B
9. B 39. A
10. B 40. D
11. C 41. C
12. A 42. C
13. C 43. D
14. D 44. D
15. E 45. A
16. A 46. A
17. C 47. B
18. A 48. A
19. B 49. A
20. C 50. C
21. B 51. B
22. C 52. C
23. A 53. D
24. B 54. B
25. B 55. D
26. C 56. B
27. A 57. A
28. D 58. D
29. D 59. D
30. C 60. A
317 | P a g e

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AGRICULTURISTS

Dr. Mary Joy S. Cañolas

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF FARM ANIMALS

1. Muscle that is largely found in visceral structures associated with the

2. This kind of muscle is composed of cells that appear to be spindle-

4. Nerve stimulation is not required for the normal contraction of this

5. It is the wave of involuntary muscle contractions that transport food,

6. A mineral that is responsible for producing muscle tension,

7. The most striking characteristic of this kind of muscle is the tendency

8. Plenty of blood supply is needed in this kind of muscle because it

9. It does not require nerve stimulation. It has the ability to generate

13. It is a connective tissue which attaches muscles to bones

18. It is a spasmodic contraction of muscles to produce enough heat to

19. The skin is consisting of two layers: a superficial covering of stratified

20. The following are modified epidermal structures, except

22. It is formed when there is considerable wear, irritation or pressure

27. Absence of pigment in the skin

28. Partial or total albinism is dangerous because it makes the animal

30. A condition in animals in which the unpigmented areas of the skin

31. An areolar connective tissue that permits movement of the skin

33. It forms the fleece of the sheep.

35. It consists of an approximately equal mixture of white and black

37. A condition in which both skin and hair lack pigment.

38. It is a product of sebaceous glands of sheep

40. It is the insensitive cornified layer of epidermis covering the distal

43. These are small projections of cornified epithelium in the center of

45. The primary function of the respiratory system is

47. Food can be swallowed at the same time air is inspired.

49. A smooth serous membrane which covers the lungs.

50. It is the movement of air out of the lungs.

51. The inflow of air into the lungs is known as

52. The pleura that lines the thorax is known as

53. During respiration, some carbon dioxide chemically combines with

54. It refers to the normal quiet respiration.

56. Apnea means

57. It refers to volume of air inspired or expired during normal

59. It is the space occupied by air at the end of expiration.

60. Which of the following animals have lobulated shape kidneys

63. It is the basic unit of structure and function of the kidney.

64. It is a tuft of a capillaries interposed on the course of an arteriole.

65. It is a process in which unicellular organisms get their O 2 from the

70. Also known as the windpipe.

71. It keeps the trachea always open.

74. The number of alveoli in the two lungs of man is about

76. It is a reflex activity stimulated by stretch receptors in the bladder

78. The following are processes involve in urine formation, except

81. It is an accessory organ of the male reproductive system which is

82. Embryologically, the male reproductive system is closely related to

83. Testosterone is the male sex hormone produce by the

84. It provides a favorable environment for the production and

86. A period in which immature spermatozoa must undergo of

87. It is a layer of fibroelastic tissue mixed with smooth muscle fibers

93. It is a muscular tube which at the time of ejaculation, propels the

95. Castration is a term usually applied to the removal of the testes of

96. It is practiced to prevent animals with inferior blood lines from

100. Glandular enlargements of the terminal parts of the ductus

101. It is an unpaired gland that more or less completely surrounds the

102. It is the male organ of copulation.