Oau Past Questions Sci 11 15

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Years: 2011 - 2015
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2015 OAU POST UTME ENGLISH QUESTIONS
Fill out the gaps in the Choose the option nearest in

passage below with the meaning to the italicize words
correct option from the list in the following sentences.
provided in brackets in front
of the gaps. 7. He cannot hide his aversion for
Kemi s unrepentant behaviour.
1. (A. jargon B.
vernacular C. dialects D. Wazobia) A. abhorrence
is specialized language that B. sadness
appears in a non-specialized C. ignominy
context, thus giving a 2._ D. moodiness
(A. generalized B. technical C.
restricted D. straightforward) 8. The investments in stocks
flavour to statements that would seemed to have gone down the
be better 3. (A. addressed drain with this meltdown in the
B. written C. expressed D. banking sector.
spoken) in everyday words. When
you are writing a 4._ (A. A. businesses
paper B. document C. treatise D. B. capital
pamphlet) in, say, economics, C. surplus
anthropology, or psychology, you D. dividends
can and should use terms that are
meaningful within the 5. (A. 9. My efforts at making her to see
pool B. conundrum C. register D. my point were rebuffed.
field) cash flow, kinship structure,
paranoid, and so forth. But those A. embraced
same terms become jargon when B. antagonized
used out of 6. (A. place B. C. snubbed
meaning C. contest D. context). D. dividends
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10. He is a lout and can’t be relied A. stealthy
upon at all. B. sloppy
C. snaky
A. vagabond D. succulent
B. thug
C. unserious Choose the most appropriate
D. liar option to complete the gaps in
the following sentences.
11. The undisputed boxer was
quite a mouthful for his opponent. 14. The new inspector General of
Police will be alleged that
A. not a match terrorists had the rank and file of
B. undefeated the force.
C. evenly match
D. boastful A. proliferated
B. conquered
12. Such stories are difficult to C. infiltrated
believe because they are make- D. insulated
belief.
15. He lay awake, his whole body
A. lies sleep.
B. vituperations
C. genuine A. acting for
D. fantasy B. looking for
C. drumming for
13. All those who mistook D. aching for
President Buhari’s demeanour for
cowardice will soon know him for 16. Please think everything and
who he actually is. let me have your answer
tomorrow.
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A. thoroughly to travel this month.
B. through
C. around A. propelled
D. on B. restricted
C. disturbed
17. I asked you . D. hoodwinked
A. when you are going to get 20. The criminal s answers to the
marry questions during interrogation
B. the time when you are going to were evasive.
get marry
C. at what point you are getting A. harsh
married B. outspoken
D. when you were going to get C. clever
married D. direct
Choose from the options A-D Read the passage below and
the word opposite in meaning answer the questions under
to the underlined word(s). it.
18. I guess he is indifferent to our Among his papers, there is the

plans to rid Nigeria of societal ills. farewell lecture given in 1925
when he retired from his
A. interested in Copenhagen chair at the age of
B. opposed to 65 protesting himself ‘an old
C. bothered fogey’, though English studies
D. not interested in were fortunate that so
youthfully creative a ‘fogey’
19. The increase in transportation was to go on writing for almost
cost imperilled my sister s plant a further two decades. In the
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splendid apologia, he himself to expounding
explained that for him linguistic history for its own
‘linguistic investigation’ sake, he sees his work as
involved primarily 'combating mark’ of which ‘is
‘understanding the texts….to antipathy’, disdain, finally
penetrate into the innermost hatred’. ‘Especially now since
thoughts of the best men arid the World-war this is a task of
women.’ ‘Speech is the noblest the greatest importance, since
instrument to bind man to it is necessary that the wounds
man, and… it is by speech as of this gruesome time should
by literature, or best by both be healed.’ Thus, he spoke to
combined, that one comes to his students in 1925. Sadly,
understanding the people from this noble friend of mankind
whom they emanated.’ First was to see a still more
and foremost, of course, a gruesome manifestation of
student of language, he nationalism and to die in 1943
insisted on studying language when his country had already
at its best and in that way, he suffered for some years the
hoped, he says, ‘to have horrors of the Nazi occupation,
imparted to my hearers some of when there was little
my own enthusiasm for the opportunity ‘to diffuse
great poets. knowledge and love of what is
best in other peoples’.
My greatest enjoyment, and no
doubt that of my hearers as 21. Another word used in the
well, has been in my Chaucer passage that can serve as a
classes, partly because synonym to ‘ghastly’ is
Chaucer has such a wonderful
power of describing human A. expanding
beings.’ So far from confining B. essential
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C. splendid human beings
D. gruesome
24. According to the writer, he
22. The figure of speech used by derived greatest enjoyment in
the writer in ‘though English
studies were fortunate that so A. Chaucer, the great
youthfully creative a 'fogey ' was personality he befriended when he
to go on writing for almost a was in school
further two decades’ in describing B. the profound ideas
the person being talked about is . expounded by his teachers while
he was in school
A. hyperbole C. series of lectures he received
B. irony about Chaucer and his writings
C. innuendo D. the wonderful ways his
D. sarcasm teacher described human beings
in many of his lectures
23. The writer believes that .
25. We can categorically pinpoint
A. human beings are best on the passage that the writer
understood by what they say or was talking about .
by what is written about them
B. human beings are very difficult A. a former student of his who is
to penetrate in a linguistics intelligent
investigation B. disturbing trend in linguistic
C. the innermost thoughts of all study
men and women are the major C. distinguished scholar who had
preoccupations of linguistic impacted positively on the field of
D. literature and language are discussion
combined in any worthwhile D. the ghastly malady of our time,
linguistic enquiry to understand nationalism’, 'the essential mark '
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of which ‘is antipathy, disdain,
finally hatred.’
ANSWERS TO 2015 ENGLISH

LANGUAGE
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. A 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. A
14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A
19. A 20. D 21. D 22. D 23. D
24. C 25. C
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EXERCISE: 1. We can infer from the passage

ENGLISH LANGUAGE above that
Read the passage and use it to A. the effort of international

answer question 1-4 businessmen were commended by
the writer for their contribution to
As we both fed our eyes wistfully Nigeria’s economy
at the used under-wear section, B. the writer believes that
Vivian noticed a heap of women’s Nigerian government has not
underwear, a mixture of braziers been doing enough to encourage
of various sizes and designs, importers of goods to remain in
panties, G-strings and tongs, business and recoup money they
underskirts, lingerie of different have invested in their business
colours, all heaped and scattered C. The writer makes comic
on a big bedspread like a pile of comments on the porous Nigerian
rubbish. Some were quite ancient borders through which contraband
and threadbare, while a few goods are imported into the
appeared not to have suffered country
much oppression in the hands and D. the writer subtly castigates
private parts of their previous and derides the patronage of
owners. It was apparent that the substandard goods that dots the
international businessman who Nigerian market in the name of
imported such inglorious imported goods
assortment had agent with
prongs, long enough to dip deep 2. “…all heaped and scattered on
into deepest and farthermost a big bedspread like a pile of
refuse bins and dumps of Europe rubbish” The figure of speech
to be able meet the demand back used in that quotation is
home.
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A. metaphor Choose the most appropriate
B. simile option from A to D to complete
C. hyperbole the gaps in the following
D. pun sentences.
3. It was apparent that the 5. While the host community

international businessman who was condemned roundly by their
imported such inglorious hostility, the visiting contingent
assortment had agents with was applauded for their
prongs, long farthermost refuse
bins and dumps of Europe to be A. friendliness
able to meet the demand back B. hospitality
home. From the quotation above, C. dexterity
it is apparent that the writer is D. methodology
being
6. It is hard to quantify the
A. metaphorical that the abducted Chibok girls
B. categorical would have gone through since
C. sarcastic they were taken away by the
D. specific dreaded Boko Haram insurgents.
4. Another word that means the A. rape

same as the word 'threadbare ' as B. trauma
it is used in the passage is C. isolation
D. insecurity
A. worn-out
B. dirty 7. The high-profile witness has
C. expensive been discredited having been
D. cheap accused of being with the truth
in his testimony.
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A. biological kept.
B. geographical
C. circumventing A. pilfered
D. economical B. missed
C. lost
8. The jailed businessman has D. robbed
left his family in due to
the confiscation of his property by 11. I was waving frantically but
the government. you drove me.
A. bliss A. past
B. quandary B. pass
C. opulence C. passed
D. Eldorado D. passing
9. The Federal Government has 12. The driver was reckless, the
expressed the fear that the road was slippery due to the early
violent activity of the insurgents morning downpour, and there
may if powerful was a crash that claimed two
foreign assistance is not received lives.
soon.
A. frantically
A. extrapolate B. subsequently
B. proliferate C. constantly
C. metamorphose D. unequivocally
D. escalate
13. Did you know we were very
10. I am sure that if you probe fortunate to run for the newly
further, the accused person will elected president of the country
reveal where the ____ money was when he was campaigning for the
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office? D. origin
A. errant For question 16-19, Fill out

B. errands the gap with the correct
C. an errand option.
D. around
16. The man told him point blank
For question 14-15, Choose that his argument was bereft
the option nearest in meaning sound reasoning.
to the italicized words in the
sentences below A. with
B. of
14. The erratic power supply C. in
these days has caused a lot of D. off
damage to household items that
use electricity. 17. The workers expressed their
heartfelt thanks _the
A. lackadaisical management for the notable
B. regular improvement to their conditions
C. uneven of service
D. high-voltage
A. toward
15. “You need to go and study the B. with
etymology of the underlined C. towards
words in the returned essay,” the D. to
lecturer told the student.
18. He won the elections but
A. meaning many people were killed by his
B. technicality thugs, and thus many said his
C. originality was a
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A. Philistine victory use terms that are meaningful
B. pyrrhic victory within the _24 cash flow, kinship
C. crocodile victory structure, paranoid, and so forth.
D. pseudo victory But those same terms become
jargon when used out of _25 _.
19. The aspirant for the highest
office in the coming elections has 20. A. jargon
started distributing live cows to B. Vernacular
each electorate in his ward; but C. Dialects
some rejected it because they D. Wazobia
considered it a .
21. A. Generalized
A. an Eldorado gift B. Technical
B. Grievous gift C. Restricted
C. Greece gift D. straightforward
D. Greek gift
22. A. Addressed
Fill out the gap in the passage B. Written
below with the correct option C. Expressed
from the list provided in D. Spoken
brackets in front of the gaps.
23. A. Paper
20. is specialized language, B. Document
that appears in a non- specialized C. Treaties
context, thus giving a 21_ flavour D. Pamphlet
to statements that would be
better _22_ in everyday words. 24. A. Pool
When you are writing _23_ in, B. Conundrum
say, economics, anthropology, or C. Register
psychology, you can and should D. Field
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25. A. Place
B. Meaning
C. Contest
D. Context.
ANSWERS TO 2014 POST-

UTME EXERCISE ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. D 13.
B 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. D
19. B 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. A
24. D 25. D
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE birth-rate to go on taking nature’s

course. We must consciously try
Passage: to establish equilibrium or, sooner
or later, famine will stalk abroad
All over the world till lately, and in again.
most of the world still today,
mankind has been following the Now answer the following
course of nature that is to say, it questions.
has been breeding up to the
maximum. 1. The author observes that
To let nature, take her A. war, pestilence and famine

extravagant course in the were caused by the extravagance
reproduction of the human race of nature
may have made sense in an age B. it was wise at a time when
in which we were also letting her mankind did not interfere with
take her course in decimating normal production
mankind by the casualties of war, C. nature is heartless and
pestilence, and famine. Being senseless
human, we have at last revolted D. there was a time when
against that senseless waste. We uncontrolled birth made sense.
have started to impose on
nature’s heartless play a humane 2. Which of these statements
new order of our own. But when does not express the opinion of
once man has begun to interfere the author?
with nature, he cannot afford to
stop half way. We cannot, with A. many people had died in the
impunity, cut down the death rate past through want and disease
and at the same time allow the B. mankind should not have the
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maximum number of children B. man should control the birth-
possible rate
C. mankind has started to C. man should change nature’s
interfere with the work of nature course gradually
D. Man’s present relationship D. pestilence causes more deaths
with nature in matters of birth than war.
and death is a happy one.
In each of questions 6- 8,
3. ‘humane’ as used in the choose the option nearest in
passage means meaning to the word(s) or
phrase in italics.
A. wise
B. human 6. Nobody could say precisely
C. benevolent when the landlord became a
D. sensible recluse
4. We must consciously try to A. loner

establish an equilibrium’, in the B. drunkard
passage implies that mankind C. nincompoop
must D. cantankerous
A. strive not to be wasteful 7. If I had known his delicate

B. realistically find an equation. state of mind, I would not have
C. purposely find a balance broached the matter
D. deliberately try to fight nature
A. told them
5. The main idea of this passage B. divulged
is that C. brought up
D. cancelled
A. nature is heartless
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8. Don’t talk like that; you know 11. She devoted too much time to
the Professor will not entertain the peripheral aspects
such vituperative remarks
A. superficial
A. irresponsible B. minor
B. insulting C. main
C. angry D. real
D. illiterate
In each 4 questions 12-16, fill
In each of questions 9-11, each gap with the most
choose the most appropriate appropriate option from the
option opposite in meaning to list provided.
the word or phrases in Italics.
12. My daughter would become if
9. He has been advised to beware I paid no attention to her
of political jobbers if he hopes to behaviour
succeed
A. rhascally
A. neophytes B. rhapsodically
B. masquerades C. rascally
C. stockbrokers D. rascality
D. masterminds
13. When the soldiers saw that
10. What a tangled web we resistance was they stopped
weave, when we try to deceive! fighting
A. complicated A. inadvertent
B. crooked B. futile
C. simple C. inappropriate
D. loose D. insurmountable
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14. The last time the man saw his For question 17, choose the
ex-wife, she letter which contains the
correct phonetic symbol in the
A. was thinking of a proposal of underlined sounds below.
starting a new business
B. was intending to start a new 17. Women
business
C. intended to start a new A. /l/
business B. /e/
D. was going to start a new C. /ou/
business. D. /u/
15. Two days before the For question 18, choose the
execution, the robber was taken word which contains the
to the place where he would be correct sound as given in each
With doleful eyes, he looked of the sound below.
at the spot where his execution
18. /v/
A. hunged/was to be taken place
B. hanging/shall take place A. off
C. hung/would take place B. fan
D. hanged/was to take place C. of
D. four
16. Don’t !, said the leader, I
want a decision now In each of questions 19 and
20, choose the option that
A. prevaricate best completes the gap(s)
B. predicate
C. precipitate 19. The car owner does not think
D. be pejorative about the …………. of his vehicle
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and other payments involved in A. few
owning it B. little
C. only a little
A. transportation D. a few
B. depreciation
C. calculation Fill in the gaps in the following
D. appreciation sentences with appropriate
preposition
20. We shall offer a good job to a
………….. to register guests in the 23. Lawrence did not win the
Central Hotel. contract ……….. the long run
A. waiter A. at
B. watchman B. in
C. cashier C. on
D. receptionist D. to
In questions 21 and 22, fill in 24. Memuna was careful not to

the right word or phrase fall ……….. Ameen’s tricks
21. There is not ... sense in what A. into

that politician has just said. B. for
C. in
A. many D. with
B. plenty
C. lot of 25. The Commander had placed
D. much his troop ………….. alert
22. I’m sorry I can’t give you any A. in

of the oranges, I have left. B. on
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C. at
D. over
ANSWERS TO ENGLISH
LANGUAGE 2013
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. D
14. B 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. C
19. B 20. D 21. D 22. D 23. B
24. B 25. B
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE B. Infinitive Clause

C. Adjectival Clause
Choose the correct options to D. Relational Clause
fill the gaps in the three
questions below. Choose from the options A-D
the word or phrase that is
1. I don’t understand what nearest in meaning to the
exactly you were saying. What is word underlined.
the name of the subordinate
clause in this sentence? 4. My efforts at making her to see
my point were rebuffed.
A. Adverbial Clause
B. Nominal Clause A. embraced
C. Adjectival Clause B. antagonized
D. Interrogative Clause C. snubbed
D. successful
2. Are you going to Lagos your
car? 5. He is a lout and can’t be relied
upon at all.
A. with
B. in A. shifty
C. through B. thug
D. by C. unserious
D. liar
3. Another name for a relative
clause is 6. The speech was delivered with
great trepidation.
A. Adverbial clause
A. fear
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B. dexterity C. clever
C. power D. direct
D. creativity
10. I guess he is indifferent to our
7. He cannot hide his aversion for plans to rid Nigeria of societal ills.
Kemi’s unrepentant behaviour.
A. interested in
A. Abhorrence B. bothered
B. sadness C. opposed to
C. ignominy D. not interested in
D. moodiness
11. The girl is very sombre in her
8. My sister is known by style of dressing.
everybody to be scurrilous.
A. solemn
A. pleasant B. pleasant
B. vituperative C. provocative
C. active D. exposing
D. inactive
Select from the options A-D
Choose from the options A-D the correct meaning of the
the word opposite in meaning idiom underlined.
to the underlined word.
12. The manager behaved as if he
9. The criminal’s answers to the had bats in the belfry.
questions during interrogation
were evasive. A. he was pleasant
B. he had strange ideas
A. harsh C. he was speechless
B. outspoken D. he was angry
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13. I learnt Agnes was off colour 15. A. law
this morning. She was not in B. document
class. C. war
D. ruling
A. busy somewhere else
B. not able to wake up early 16. A. quarrel
enough B. law
C. not in her right mind C. matter
D. not in good health D. case
Fill in the spaces in the 17. A. plaintiff

passage below with the B. defendant
appropriate words. C. accused
D. criminal
One needs to observe the 14 of
the 15 to appreciate how 18. A. arrested
interesting it can be. I witnessed B. sued
a land 16 many years back. The C. fought
17 had 18 those who sold him a D. prosecuted
piece of land to court for 19 on
his land. Appearing for the 19. A. trespassing
defendants the 20 argued that the B. claiming
land had been lying untouched for C. building
over thirty years and had become D. working
a hideout for social miscreants.
20. A. legal luminary
14. A. work B. plaintiff
B. proceeding C. defense counsel
C. Hearing D. criminal
D. Working
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Choose from the options A-D Choose from the options A-D
the appropriate verb that best the correct spelling.
completes the following
sentences. 4. A. embaras
B. embarrass
21. Although she suffered a lot C. embarrass
of hardship she still D. embarrass
A. gloated 5. A. conterfit
B. glowed B. contertiet
C. flowed C. counterfeit
D. splashed D. counterteet
22. Our plane down at Aminu ANSWERS TO ENGLISH

Kano international Airport at LANGUAGE 2012
exactly 12 midnight.
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. A
A. landed 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. B 13.
B. descended C 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. B
C. got 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. C
D. touched 24. D 25. C
23. The disease was____very

rapidly in the community.
A. widening
B. catching people
C. spreading
D. raging
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USE OF ENGLISH are considered as heirlooms to

the stool; he may have used the
Passage 1 oath unreasonably; he may have
cursed people. All these crimes
The privilege of blackening one’s can deprive a chief of his regal
stool is not granted to every dead powers. Once this happens, he
chief or queen- mother without becomes, in the eyes of the
conditions. The honour is merited people, more insignificant than a
only on the fulfilment of certain commoner who has no right
conditions on the part of the whatever to be a chief.
occupant of a stool. The
blackening of a king’s stool is However, a chief may ‘die on the
regarded as the greatest honour stool’, and yet not have his stool
that could be conferred on a blackened. This is so because one
ruler; thus, in many Akan states must die a ‘good death’.
only the stools of kings who
proved to be true leaders are Sudden death through an accident
blackened. destroys the right to have one’s
stool blackened. So does death
No royal person’s stool is reserved through an unusual disease like
unless he died while still a ruler. A leprosy, lunacy, epilepsy and
destooled chief is the last person dropsy — which, if discovered in
whose memory anybody wants to time, are causes for destoolment.
keep fresh. He must have broken The only exception here is death
a taboo or committed a serious in war which magnifies one’s fame
crime to merit his degradation. He and dignity. But even here, if it is
may have committed adultery found out that one fell when
with his servants’ wives; he may retreating, or running away, from
have bought and sold slaves, who the enemy, one is regarded as a
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treacherous and infamous leader D. it depends entirely on
who should be erased from all people’s opinion of him during his
historical memory. lifetime
A chief who suffered from an 2. A destooled chief can be

unclean disease, but got cured correctly defined as
before dying, is said to have been
engaged in a personal difficult war A. a chief who has committed
with the disease and emerged crimes
triumphant. Such a chief is B. a chief who was removed
worthy of respect. Suicide is, during his reign
perhaps, one of the worst deaths C. a chief who has broken taboos
a chief could undergo. Under no D. a chief who is more
condition whatever will the stool insignificant than a commoner
of a ‘fetish’ be consecrated
3. What is meant by ‘die on the
Answer the following stool’?
questions on the passage
A. dying a miserable and
1. Which of the following is true unworthy death
according to the passage? B. dying as a reigning ruler
C. dying while on stool in the
A. it is entirely up to the chief palace
whether or not his stool will D. dying after a disease of
eventually be blackened stooling
B. it is partly up to him, partly
due to circumstances beyond his 4. Which of the following is the
control most suitable title for the
C. it is entirely due to passage?
circumstances beyond his control
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A. reasons for destoolment C. respect
B. how to live a worthy life by an D. tolerance.
Akan ruler
C. an aspect of traditional custom 7. Femi was very open about his
of the Akan people ambition
D. stool blackening by the royal
personages A. silent
B. withdrawn
5. The most basic condition that C. closed
qualifies anybody for stool D. secretive.
darkening is
8. Angela is very indolent.
A. dying a worthy death
B. having being crowned as a A. perfect
ruler B. devoted
C. being a ruler with tangible C. diligent
achievements D. trustworthy.
D. having respect for traditional
customs 9. Rather than support the
chairman, Olu slept off.
In the following sentences,
choose the option that is most A. deny
nearly opposite to the B. oppose
underlined word C. doubt
D. back.
6. In any group there are people
who display apathy 10. Ngozi’s beauty is natural
A. enthusiasm A. unnatural
B. patience B. artificial
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C. awkward We have to make sure that they
D. fake. are paid their salaries 18 so that
they could play the game of their
Passage 2 lives. The government has done
very well, but it will be a big
The passage below has gaps morale 19 to get paid for them to
numbered 11 to 20. go out there and play. Siasia
Immediately following each informed MTNFootball.com that
gap, four options are Heartland plan to employ the
provided, Choose the most counter 20 to get a result in
appropriate option for each Cairo.
gap.
11. A. leftover
Coach Samson Siasia has asked B. outstanding
that Heartland be paid their 11 C. owed
salaries and 12 so as to 13 them D. late
to victory against Al-Ahly of Egypt
in Sunday’s all-important CAF 12. match bonuses
Championships League match. B. match payments
Heartland are third in Group B C. match wages
with four points 14 as many D. match fees
matches and need to 15 defeat at
second-placed Al-Ahly to stay in 13. A. push
the 16 for a place in the semi- B. instigate
final of Africa’s most prestigious C. spur
club competition. Siasia told D. move
MTNFootball.com that the team
would be better motivated if they 14. A. from
at least receive their August B. in
salaries before the Al- Athly 17. C. at
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D. which D. goal
15. afford For questions 21 -23, choose

B. annul the best options from letters A
C. avoid – D that best summarises the
D. afford information contained in the
underlined sentence.
16. A. focus
B. centre 21. In an answer to the question
C. running as to how life is treating him, the
D. front politician said it never rains but it
pours.
17. A. show
B. showdown A. things are getting decidedly
C. show up worse.
D. blow out B. his financial status is
deteriorating.
18. to time C. the blessings of life shower on
B. for time him like a heavy rain.
C. as due D. he is contented with improved
D. as and when due fortunes.
19. A. boomer 22. Camilla waited for her friend

B. inspirer in the library for a good hour.
C. booster
D. pusher A. Camilla enjoyed the sixty
minutes she waited for her friend
20. A. attack B. When Camilla was waiting,
B. attacker she spent the time in a profitable
C. getter way.
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C. Camilla waited for her friend 25. Women
rather more than sixty minutes.
D. It was good for Camilla to A. /I/
wait an hour for her friend B. /e/
C. /ou/
23. This is your instruction and I D. /u/
have had no hand in it. From this
sentence we know that the writer ANSWERS TO ENGLISH
LANGUAGE 2011
A. does not support the
instruction 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. D
B. is refusing to obey the 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. C
instruction 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. D
C. dislikes the person that issues 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. B 23. A
the instruction 24. A 25. A
D. is somehow happy with the
instruction
For questions 24 and 25,

choose the letter which
contains the correct phonetic
symbol in the underlined
sounds below.
24. Plumb
A. /m/
B. /b/
C. /ph/
D. /p/
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2015 OAU POST UTME MATHEMATICS QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS independent, then P(A and B) is
1. The probability of an event A A. P(A Ռ B)

given by P(A) is a number B. (A Ս B)
between …………. C. P(A)
D. P(B)
A. -1 and 1
B. 0 and ½ 5. Simplify
C. 0 and 1
D. -1 and 0
A. -9
B. 9
2. Noting that, sin2Ѳ + cos2Ѳ =1,
C. 10
Ѳ
simplify D. -10
Ѳ
A. 6. Noting that, cos = (90 - ),

Ѳ
find y in terms of x in the
B.
Ѳ
equation =
C.
Ѳ
D.
Ѳ
A. y =
B. y =
3. A circle has an eccentricity of
….. C.
D.
A. < 1
B. 1
7. For what values of x is x – 1 <
C. > 1
-1?
D. 0
A. 0 < x < 1
4. If two elements A and B are
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B. x < -1, x > 0 D.
C. x > 1, x < 0
D. -1 < x < 0
11. Given that the sum of infinity
S∞ = a + ar2 + … = to what
8. In how many ways can the
sum does the infinity series 1 -
letters of the word NWAFOR be
permuted? + - + … coverage.
A. 7200 A.
B. 72
B.
C. 720
C.
D. 72000
D.
9. If are the roots of equation
18 + 15x – 3x2 = 0, find - 12. What is the value of x for
which x2 – 5x + 6 is minimum?
A. 11 A.
B. -11
B.
C. 10
C. 3
D. -10
D. -3
10. Resolve into partial

13. Integrate 5x4 + e-x with
fractions
respect to x
A. - A. –e-x + 5x + k
B. + B. e-x + x5 + k
C. –e-x – x-5 + k
C. +
D. –e-x + x4 + k
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14. If X = {2, 3, 6, 7, 8} and Y = C. 400ϖ sq. units
{6, 7, 10, 3, 17}, find Y –{X Ո Y} D. 100ϖ sq. units
A. {22, 32, 11} 18. Let the mean of x, y-1, z5 be 6

B. {10, 17} find the mean of 10, y-1, x z5.
C. {2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 10, 17}
D. {3, 6, 7} A. 7
B. 8
15. Find the angle in the line y C. 9

D. 10
– x = 0 makes the positive y-axis
19. What is the addition of y and

A. 30⁰
x- intercepts of the line
B. 60⁰
C. 0⁰
D. 45⁰
16. Find the value of P which A. -19.5
satisfies the equation B. 19.5

C. 20.5
D. -20.5
A. 4
B. -4
20. Given that h(x) = 3 + 2x and
C. 9
f(x) = 1 – x, find h(-f(x)).
D. -9
A. 1 – 2x
17. Find the area of circle
B. 1 + 2x
4x2 + 4y2 – 400 = 0
C. 2x – 1
D. -1 – 2x
A. 10ϖ sq. units
B. 40ϖ sq. units
21. Find the value of k in the
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equation
A. 4/3
B. ¾
C. -3/4
D. -4/3
22. Evaluate
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
ANSWERS TO 2015
MATHEMATICS QUESTIONS
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A
14. B 15. A 16. C 17. D 18. B
19. A 20. B 21. C 22. D
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MATHEMATICS A. x – x2 + k
B. x + x2 + k
C. –x – x-2 + k
1. Evaluate +
D. x – x-2 + k
A. 8
5. If and β are the roots of the
B. 10
equation cx2 – ax + b = 0, find
C. 9
β
D. 6
A.
2. Find the remainder when
x4 – 11x + 2 is divided by x B.
C.
A. 2 D.
B. 6
C. -2
6. The binary expression ⊗ is
D. 5
divided by a⊗ b is defined by a⊗
b = 2a – 1. Find 3⊗ (2⊗ 1)
3. If cos A = and A is an acute
angle, find (1 + tan2A) A. 3

B. 4
A. C. 5
B. D. 6
C.
7. Two coins are tossed, find the
D. probability of at least having two
heads
4. Integrate the function 1 – 2x.
A. ½
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B. ¾ 11. If equation 6 – kx + 2x2 = 0
C. ¼ has equal roots , find k2 + 4
D. 1
A. 48
8. If x is a real number and x + B. 52
11 < 0, evaluate C. 44
D. 96
A. 0
B. -1 12. Simplify
C. 1
D. 2 A.
B.
9. If P is directly proportional to
C.
P = 20 when Q = 4, find Q
D.
when P = 100
13. Obtain the centre of the circle

A. 200
7(y2 + 10y) + 7x2 =
B. 300
C. 100
A. (0, 5)
D. 400
B. (-5, 0)
C. (0, -5)
10. Find the angle in degree
D. (5, 0)
which the line x – = 0 makes
the positive y-axis
14. Given , find
the value of the constant a

A. 30⁰
B. 90⁰
A. 8
C. 60⁰
B. 6
D. 180⁰
C. 7
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D. 9 A. a cos (2 – ax)
B. –a sin (2 – ax)
15. Evaluate C. –a cos (2 – ax)

D. –a sin (2 – ax)
A. 3 cos 3x
B. 3 tan 3x 19. Simplify
C.
D. 3 sin 3x A. 128n3m-1
B. 8n3m-1
16. Find the equation of a line C. 8n3m
which passes through a point D. 8n4m
(-2, 3) and makes an angle 45⁰
with positive x-axis. 20. Solve the equation
A. y – x – 5 = 0 21. Simplify:
B. y + x = 0
C. x – y – 5 = 0
A.
D. y – x + 5 = 0
B.
C.
17. Find the sum of the infinity of
D.
the sequence: 1, -1, 1, -1, 1, -1,..
22. If m is the gradient of the line

A. 2
B. -1/2 pq – px – qy = 0 and q 0, find
C. 1
D. ½ A.
B.
18. Differentiate 2 – sin(2 – ax)
C.
with respect to x
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D.
ANSWERS TO 2014
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. C
14. C 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. A
19. B 20. A 21. B 22. C
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MATHEMATICS 4. Find the point of intersection of

the lines 3x – 2y = 5 and 2x + 5y
1. If the probability of success in = -7
an event is . What is the
probability of failure? A. x = ,y=
B. x = ,y=
A.
C. x = ,y=
B.
D. x = ,y=
C.
D. 5. Solve 4x2 + 20x – 24 = 0
2. What is the circumference of A. 1, 6
the circle x2 + y2 = 2 B. -1, -6

C. 6, -1
D. -6, 1
A. 16 units
B. 14 units
6. What is the 15th term of the
C. 15 units
sequence -3, 2, 7, …?
D. 15 units
A. 65
B. 66
3. Find the diameter of the circle
C. 68
2x2 + 2y2 – 50 = 0
D. 67
A. -10 units
7. What is the distance between
B. 14 units
the points (-1, 5) and (-7, -3)
C. 25 units
D. -25 units
A. 9
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B. 10 B. 1
C. 11 C. 0
D. 12 D. 2
8. Evaluate 12. Resolve into partial
fractions
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.
9. What is the remainder when

x3 + 5x2 – 6x + 1 is divided by 13. Solve the equation
x-1
A. -4, 2
A. -1 B. -4, -2
B. 2 C. 4, -2
C. -2 D. 4, 2
D. 1
14. Evaluate
10. Giving that –x2 + 5x + 6 = 0.
Find β+ +β A. 28
B. 31
11. What is the value of y for C. 29
which the function is D. 32
undefined?
15. Integrate
A. -1
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A. In x + x4 + k 19. Solve the equation 3x+1 =271-x
B. x-1 + x4 + k
C. 12x2 – x-2 + k A.
D. x5 + x-2 + k B.
C.
16. If X = {2, 3, 6, 7, 8} and Y =
D.
{6, 7, 10, 3, 17}, find X Ո Y
A. {} 20. Given f(x) = 3 + x and g(x)
B. {3, 6, 7} =3 – x, find f(f(x)).
C. {2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 10, 17}

D. {6, 3, 7} A. 6
B. x
17. What is the coordinate of the C. –x
centre of the circle D. 0
x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y = 10
21. Differentiate sin (2x – 5) with
A. (-1, -2) respect to x.
B. (1, 2)
C. (-1, 2) A. cos(2x – 5)
D. (1, -2) B. –cos(2x – 5)

C. 2cos(2x – 5)
18. Simplify D. -2cos(2x – 5)
A. 4x 22. If δ λ are the roots of the

equation x2 – 5x + 7 = 0, find the
B.
value of δ2 + λ2
C. 4 + x
D.
A. 25
B. -25
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C. -11
D. 11
ANSWERS TO 2013
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. D 13.
C 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. C
19. A 20. C 21. A 22. D
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MATHEMATICS and 1012
1. What is the highest possible A. 1111002
value of If 0 ≤ x ≤ 3 B. 1101002
C. 22205
A. 8 D. 11447
B. 4
C. 2 5. Simplify
D. 16
A. 128n3m-1
2. The fifth term in the
B. 8n3m-1
progression 9, 27, 81, … is
C. 8n4m
D. 8n3m
A. 243
B. 37
The universal sets U consists of all
C. 729
integers subsets of U are defined
D. 38
as
A = {y: y ≤ 3}
3. The interior angles of an
B. = {y: -5 < y < 12}
hexagon are 120⁰, 100⁰, 80⁰,
C. = {y: -2 ≤ y < 5}
150⁰, x⁰ and 130⁰. The value of x
is
Use the information above to
answer question 6
A. 170⁰
B. 20⁰
6. A Ո(B Ս C)’ is ………..
C. 120⁰
D. 140⁰
A. {y < -4}
B. ø
3. Obtain the product of 11002
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C. {y < 0} A. x2 – 3x – 4
D. {-4 ≤ y ≤ 3} B. x2 + 9x + 9
C. 2x2 + 2x + 2
7. Make k the subject of the D. x2 + 2x + 1
formula
11. Integrate
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.
D. C.
D.
8. Evaluate
12. Obtain the centre of the circle

A. 19 3y2 + 3(x + 5)2 = 17
B. 48
C. 13/3 A. (0, 5)
D. 6 B. (-5, 0)
C. (0, -5)
9. Find the value of y if D. (5, 0)
A. 9 13. If , find f(2)

B. 18
C. 9/2 A. 5/8
D. 81 B. 2
C. ¼
10. Which of the following is a D. 1
perfect square?
14. The quadratic equation whose
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roots are (x – 3) and (x + ) is ….. A. sin ax
B. sin ax
A. x2 + –1=0 C. –a sin ax
B. x2 – 2x – 3 = 0 D. sin ax
C. x2 - -1=0
D. x2 – 3 = 0 18. Obtain the values of x in
15. If the bearing of a town B

A. 25
from A is 145⁰, the bearing of A
B. -7
from B is …………
C. 25, -7
D. -25, 7
A. 305⁰
B. 325⁰
19. Which of these numbers is an
C. 35⁰
irrational number?
D. 145⁰
A. sin 0⁰
16. A number is selected at
B. sin 30⁰
random from a set of integers 1
C. sin 60⁰
to 30 inclusive. The probability
D. sin 90⁰
that the number is prime is ………
20. Given , find

A.
the value of the constant a
B.
C. A. 8
D. B. 6
C. 7
17. Differentiate cos ax with D. 9
respect to x(a)
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21. Which of these lines is a right ANSWERS TO 2012
angle with the line x = -7 MATHEMATICS QUESTIONS
A. 2x + y = -1 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. B
B. 2x – y = 1 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. B 13.
C. y = 0 B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. C
D. x = 49 19. C 20. C 21. C 22. B
The scores of students in a

class test are shown in the
table below. Use the
information to answer
question 22
Scores 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Students 1 1 3 5 3 4 2 0
22. The modal of the score is

……….
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
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MATHEMATICS D.
1. If the universal set

5. Integrate
U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
M = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9}
A. not defined
N = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
B. 0
Which of the following is equal to C.
(M Ս N)’? D.
A. (M Ո N)’ 6. A die is tossed twice. What is

B. M’ Ս N’ the probability of obtaining a total
C. M’ Ո N’ of 6 if both numbers are odd?
D. M Ո N
A.
2. cos(180 – θ) is equivalent to …
B.
A. cos(θ – 180) C.
B. cos θ D.
C. –cos θ
D. –cos (180 + θ) 7. If the mean of the numbers a,
b, c, d, e is x, find the mean of
3. Find , if y = the numbers a + k, b + 2k, c – k,
d – 2k, e.
A.
A. x
B.
B. x + k
C. C. x – k
D. 2x
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8. Factorize: C.
D.
2
A. 2a
B. 2a(a – b)
12. The speed of 30 kilometres
C. 2a(a + b)
per minute, expressed in
D. 2b(b – a)
centimetre per second is ………
9. Let and β be the roots of

A. 5
quadratic equation x2 + 2x – 3 =
B. 50
0, then β is ………….
C. 500
D. 5000
A. -3
B. -2
13. Evaluate x if
C. 2
3=2
D. 6
A. 3 or -3
10. Convert 6910 to a number in
B. 5 or -5
base two
C. 5 or -3
D. 3 or -5
A. 10011012
B. 10100012
14. Given that a =
C. 10001012
D. 1001012 find the value of a2 + b2
A.
11. The reciprocal of
B. 7
C. 14 +
A. D. 14
B.
15. If the binary operation * is
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defined as x * y = 2, find 2*(4*5) A. (0, ) and 2
B. (0, ) and 1
A. 4
C. ( , 0) and 2
B. 5
C. -5 D. (0, ) and 1
D. 2
19. The line perpendicular to the
16. Find the value of straight line y + has the
gradient
A.
A. -2 B.
B. 2 C. 3
C. 6 D.
D. 3
20. Find x if 2x2 = 4(x+4)

17. Find the value of
2cos2xdx A. 2 or 4
B. -2 or 2
A. C. -4 or 4
B. D. -4 or 2
C.
D. 21. Express in partial fraction
18. The circle

Then A and B respectively is ……
has centre and radius respectively
as … A. -3, 3
B. ,
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C.
D.
22. A square has ap perimeter of

40cm. What is its area in cm
square?
A. 80
B. 1600
C. 100
D. 160
ANSWERS TO 2011
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. A
8. C 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. – 13. B
14. D 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. D
19. D 20. A 21. D 22. C
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2014 OAU POST UTME CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
CHEMISTRY acid,
1. When CuSO4 solution is

treated with ammonia solution
drop by drop till it is added in A. Butan-1-ol
excess, a precipitate is first B. 2-methylpropan-2-ol
formed which then dissolves in C. 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
excess to give a deep blue D. Propane-2-ol
solution. The deep blue solution is

4. The name of CH3-OCOC2H5 is
A. Cu(OH)2
B. [Cu(NH3)4](OH)2
C. CuSO4 A. methoxyethane
B. methyl propanoate
D. [Cu(NH3)2]SO4
C. ethyl ethanoate
D. propyl methanoate
2. If 7.0 g of ethane at s.t.p
occupy 5.6 dm3, what volume will
5. Which of these elements has
7.5 g of ethane at the same
the highest first ionization
condition occupy? (C = 12; H =1;
energy?
GMV at s.t.p = 22.4 dm3)
A. Rb
A. 6.0 dm3
B. Li
B. 5.6 dm3
C. Na
C. 5.2 dm3 D. K
D. 9.4 dm3
6. Which of the following is
3. Which of the alcohol below is responsible for the conduction of
likely to be oxidized to give the electricity in a gas enclosed in a
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glass tube containing two A. CH3CH2CHO
electrodes at a reduced pressure B. CH3COCH3
and to which a high voltage is C. CH3COOH3
applied? D. CH3CH2COOH
A. Cations and anions 10. Which of the following will

B. Cations change the equilibrium constant
C. Electrons of the reaction CO(g) + H2O
D. Cations and electron CO2(g) + H2(g) ?
7. The type of reaction an A. Increase of temperature

alkanoic acid cannot undergo is B. Increase of concentration of CO
C. Removal of CO2 from the
A. Oxidation mixture
B. Combustion D. Decrease of pressure
C. Decomposition
D. Esterification
11. M(S) + xH2SO4(aq) ⟶
M(SO4)x(aq) + xH2(g). Which of
8. What is the pH of 2.5 x 10-2 the following elements will not
mol dm-3 barium hydroxide undergo the above reaction?
solution?
A. Zn
A. 11.5 B. Na
B. 11.6 C. Cu
C. 11.7 D. Ca
D. 11.8
12. A physical change is
9. The complete oxidation of exemplified by the
proan-1-ol yields
A. burning of bush
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B. rusting of a metal reactants
C. dissolution of calcium in water C. The temperature of the
D. heating of ammonium chloride reaction
D. The concentration of reactants
13. The number of neutrons in the
deuterium atom is/are 16. An ideal gas changing volume
as temperature rises can be
A. 0 represented by the diagram
B. 1 below:
C. 2
D. 3
14. Which of these is correct

A. -273 K
about methyl orange?
B. 273 K
C. 273˚C
A. Yellow in excess aqueous
D. -100 K
hydrogen ions
B. Pink in excess aqueous
17. How many isomeric
hydrogen ions
dichlorobenzenes are obtainable?
C. Orange in excess aqueous
hydrogen ions
A. 1
D. Colourless in excess aqueous
B. 2
hydrogen ions
C. 3
D. 4
15. Which of these does not affect
the rate of a particular chemical
18. By accurate description,
reaction?
ozone in the reaction, O3(g) +
A. The order of the reaction H2O2(l) ⟶ H2O(l) + 2O2(g)
B. The size of the particle of the
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A. displace to form oxygen ANSWERS TO 2014
B. decomposed to form oxygen CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS
C. oxidized to oxygen
D. reduced to oxygen 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. B. 11. D 12. C 13.
19. 150 cm3 of nitrogen II oxide C 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. C
19. D
were sparked with 100 cm3 of
oxygen, what volume of nitrogen
IV oxide will be produced at s.t.p?
A. 100 cm3
B. 75 cm3
C. 50 cm3
D. 150 cm3
20. Which of the following ions

will interact with water to give a
solution of pH <7?
A. Na+
B. NH4+
C. CN-
D. HCOO-
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CHEMISTRY C. 15.1%
D. 13.3%
1. A motor truck releases an
average of 5.0g CO into air for 3. Given the half-redox reaction
every km covered. How many O2 + 4H+ 4e− ⟶ 2H2O, how
molecules of CO will be emitted many moles of electron will be
into the air if the truck travels 8
required produce 3.0 x 1022
km?[C = 12;O = 16; NA = 6.02 x
molecules of water
23
10 ]
A. 0.05
A. 4.32 x 1022 B. 0.10
B. 2.48 x 1022 C. 0.15
C. 8.6 x 1023 D. 2.0
D. 6.82 x 1021
4. The quantum number l in an
atom defines
2. A sample of an organic
compound was weighed to 0.250g
A. the shell K, L, M
and subjected to Kjeldahl
B. orbitals
treatment. The ammonia
C. multiplicity
produced was neutralized by
D. degeneracy of orbitals
27.0cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 HCI.
What is the percentage of
5. The hybridization of the
nitrogen in the compound? [H =
central atom in a molecule
1; N = 14]
A. dictates the shape of the

A. 18.4%
molecule
B. 17.8%
B. shortens the sigma bond in the
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molecule D. ethyne
C. distorts the shape of the
molecule 9. 100cm3 of ethyne was mixed
D. serves to explain the shape of
with 240cm3 of oxygen in a
the molecule.
combustion chamber. What
volume of carbon (iv) oxide is
6. Lithium with atomic number of
produced?
3 is a
A. 100cm3
A. Strong reducing agent
B. 24cm3
B. Strong oxidizing agent
C. Weak reducing agent C. 138cm3
D. Weak oxidizing agent D. 192cm3
7. The correct name for 10. Uranium-235 explodes when

HCOOC2H5 is bombarded with a slow-moving
neutron according to the equation
A methylethanoate below:
235 1 94
B. ethylethanoate + ⟶ + Ba + 31
C. ethylmethanoate
D. propylethanoate The atomic number and mass of
Ba respectively are
8. When CaC2 reacts with
water, the organic product formed A. 46 and 126
is B. 36 and 116
C. 56 and 139
A. ethanol D. 66 and 146
B. ethanoic acid
C. ethane 11. The reduction potential of
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two electrodes are 0.98gcm-3?
X2+ + 2e- ⟶ X , E0 = 0.042V Y+
+ e− ⟶ Y , E0 = 0.012V A. 2.04 x 10-3 m3

Calculate the free energy change B. 2.04 x 10-6 m3
for the cell that is made up of the
C. 2.04 x 10-9 m3
electrodes [F = 96500 Coulomb
D. 2.04 x 10-4 m3
mol -1]
14. What is the pH of 500cm3 of

A. 4.20Kj
0.02 mol dm−3 tetraoxosulphate
B. 5.79Kj
(VI) acid?
C. 6.86Kj
D. 10.55kJ
A. 1.456
B. 1.333
12. Which of SF4, SiH4, CO2,
C. 1.455
ICl, CH2Cl2, SO2 and XeO3 will
D. 1.699
not show the property of
permanent dipole?
15. The main product of
electrophilic addition of HCl to 2-
A. CO2 and SiH4 only
methylpropene is
B. SF4 and SIH4 only
C. CO2, SiH4 and XeO3 only
A. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
D. SF4, SiH4, CO2 and ICI
B. 2-chloro-2-methylbutene
C. 2-methyl-2-chloropropene
13. A sample of water weighs
D. 2-chloro-2- methylpropane
200.00g at 298K. What is the
volume of this quantity of water
16. Which of the following
in cubic meters given that the
compounds would you 2 expect to
density of water at 298K is
show positive iodoform test?
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I. Butanone A. 55
II. Propanoic acid B. 48
III. Ethanol C. 45
IV. Benzaldehyde D. 42 6
V. But-2-one
19. Consider the following-
A. I and II reactions
B. I and III
C. IV and V I. LiOH + CO2 ⟶ Li2CO3 + H2O
D. II and III II. 2H2 + O2 ⟶ 2H2O
III. 2Cu + O2 ⟶ 2CuO
17. The complete combustion of IV. HCl + AgNO3 ⟶ AgCl + HNO3
one mole of an alkanol is shown
below CnH2n+1CHO + xO2 ⟶ Which of these reactions are
yCO2 + 2H2O. What is the value redox reactions?
of x in terms of n?
A. I and III only
A. B. I, II and III only
B. C. II and IV only
C. D. II and III only
D.
20. Which of the following metals
18. An ion has a charge of +3. cannot displace 8 hydrogen from
The nucleus of the ion has a mass steam?
of 120. The number of neutrons in
the nucleus is 1.50 times that of A. Copper
the number of protons. How many B. Iron
electrons are in the ion? C. Strontium
D. Lithium
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21. Consider the exothermic 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. A
reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⟶
SO3(g). If the temperature of the
reaction is reduced from 600°C to
300°C and no other changes take
place then
A. the reaction rate increases

B. concentration of SO3
decreases
C. concentration of SO3 increases
D. SO2 gas becomes unreactive
21. The molarity of 5% by weight

of aqueous 1 solution of
tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid
[molecular weight = 98] is
A. 0.537moldm-3
B. 0.208moldm-3
C. 0.551moldm-3
D. 0.333moldm-3
SOLUTION TO CHEMISTRY
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. D 13.
D 14. - 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. C
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CHEMISTRY moldm-3 in the solution is
1. During the electrolysis of A. 1.5

dilute tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid B. 4.5
solution, 0.05 mole of electrons C. 2.0
were passed. What volume of gas D. 3.5
was produced at the anode?
4. The reaction, Y ⟶ Product is

A. 2.24dm3 of first order with the initial
B. 0.560dm3 concentration of = 3.55 × 10−3
C. 0.280dm3 moldm3 and the rate constant of
D. 0.224dm3 5.25 × 10−3 −1

. What is the half-
life of the reaction?
2. What volume of 0.750moldm3
Na2CO3 solution could be diluted A. 350s
to 250cm3 to reduce the B. 215s
concentration of 0.025moldm3? C. 132s

D. 615s
A. 16.8cm3
5. Given the half-cell reaction,
B. 14.2 cm3
2Br ⟶ Br2, how many moles of
C. 10.4 cm3
electron will be required to
D. 8.3 cm3
produce 0.56dm3 of bromine at
s.t.p.? [molar volume of gas at
3 3
3. When 70cm of 3.0 moldm
3
s.t.p 22.4 dm3]
Na2CO3 is added to 30cm of
1.0moldm3 NaHCO3, the
+
A. 0.05
concentration of ions in
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B. 0.10 isotopes 20 and 10 present in
C. 020 ratio 2:3. The relative atomic
D. 1.00 mass of B is
6. The equilibrium constant, Kc A. 20.5
for the reaction, O( ) + 1 O2(g) B. 21.2
→ O (g), is 35.2. What is the value C. 23.4
of K for the reaction O2( ) → O D. 25.0
(g) + ½ O2
9. What quantity of current is
A. 35.2 required to deposit 2.4g of copper
B. 17.6 in a period of 750 seconds during

an electrolytic deposition process?
C. 2.84 x 10-2
[Cu 64, IF = 96500C mol -1]
D. 1.24 x 103
A. 9.65A
7. An atom has a core and
B. 10.81A
outside the core an electron
C. 12.33A
occupies an orbital for which the
D. 15.54A
principal quantum number = 4,
ℒ = 0, = 0 and = + 1
or – 1.
10. Platinum electrodes are
The atom is likely to be
dipped into copper sulphate
solution in a voltammeter. The
A. boron
solution left after electrolysis is
B. sodium
C. potassium
A. clear
D. fluorine
B. blue
C. pale
8. An element B, has two
D. sky blue
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11. What volume of water is 13. The main organic product
produced when a mixture of named when bromine water is
150cm3 of hydrogen and 100cm3 added to but-1-ene is
of oxygen is exploded in a
eudiometer? A. 1-bromobutane
B. 2-bromobutane-1-ol
C. 1-bromobutan-2-ol
A. 250cm3
D. 2-bromobutan-2-ol
B. 150cm3
C. 100cm3
14. The standard reduction
D. 50cm3 potentials for the following half-
cell reactions are, 2 2O( ) → O2( )
12. A chloroform solution of pure +4 + o
= −1.23 2 2O2 →
( ) +4
organic What is the value of K for
2O2(g) + 4 +
+4 = −0.68
the reaction,
O฀2( ) ฀ → 1 O
( ) + 2(g)2 A. -0.66V
compound was spotted at a B. -1.23V
distance 0.80cm from the base of C. +0.554V
a 20cm long chromatoplate. If the D. +1.91V
compound has the value of 0.505
and moves half way up the 20cm 15. Bonding in ammonium
long plate, which is the distance chloride is
of the solvent front from the top
of the plate upon elution? A. ionic, covalent and dative
B. ionic and covalent
A. 0.80cm C. covalent and dative
B. 1.0cm D. ionic
C. 1.2cm
D. 1.4cm 16. Valence shell electron pair
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theory through hybridization forming the products
predicts that boron trichloride is C. concentrations of the
reactants and products remain
A. Arrhenius acid unchanged
B. Lewis base D. reactants in the system are
C. Lewis acid completely transformed to
D. Lowry-Bronsted base products
17. The basic tenet of valence 19. Oxygen is extracted from

bond electron pair repulsion water by
theory is that the pairs of
electrons making the sigma bonds A. displacement reaction
dictate the shape of molecules. B. oxidation reaction
The pi-bonds often encounter in C. reduction reaction
some molecules serve to D. decomposition reaction
A. distort the shape of molecules 20. Excess ethanol was soaked

B. alter the angle between the with 3g of pure oxygen in a
atoms in molecules combustion chamber. How many
C. shorten the sigma bonds in molecules of CO2 are produced?
molecules [N = 6.02 x 1023 molecules mol -
D. explain the shape of molecules. 1]
18. A chemical equilibrium is

A. 6.02 x 1023
established when
B. 3.01 x 1023
A. concentration of the reactants C. 3.76 x 1022
and products are equal D. 2.84 x 1021

B. reactants in the system stop
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21. Forty (40) grams of sodium A. 146
nitrate were added to 50cm3 of B. -540
water to give a saturated solution C. 682
at 298K. If the solubility of the D. 398
salt is 10.50 mol dm3 at the same

temperature, what percentage of
2012
the salt is left undissolved? [Na =
23, N = 14 and O = 16]
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C
8. B 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. C
A. 11.56%
14. C 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. C
B. 2.55%
19. B 20. C 21. - 22. C.
C. 5.88%
D. 12.45%
22. The energy for the

dissociation of molecule AB in kJ
in the diagram of energy against
the reaction coordinate shown
below is
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+ +
CHEMISTRY B. + ⟶ +
+ +
C. + ⟶ +
+ +
1. What condition favours the D. + ⟶ +
formation of the product for the
endothermic reaction, 2O4( ) ⟶ 4. An element, Y has the
2 O2( ) electronic configuration of
1s22s22p63s23p3,
A. A decrease in pressure
B. A decrease in volume A. Y is a period III element
C. An increase in pressure B. Y contains three electrons in
D. A constant volume the outer shell
C. Y is a transition metal
2. What is the percentage yield D. Y can engage in bonding with
of water if 0.90g of water is the s and p orbitals
obtained when 29.0g of butane is
burned in excess oxygen? 5. Which of the following is NOT
implicated as a major cause of
A. 0.02% global warming?
B. 0.20%
C. 2.0% . A. NO2
D. 10.0% B. CO2
C. CFCl 3
3. The order of reactivity of five D. CF2Cl 2
metals is P>Q > R> S>T. Which
of the following reactions can 6. Which of the following shows
occur spontaneously? little or no net reaction when the
volume of the system is
+ +
A. + ⟶ + decreased?
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A. 2O3( ) ⇌ 3O2( ) be represented by the equation, r
B. 2 O2( ) ⇌ 2O4( ) = k[A][B], k in this equation is
C. 2 + 2( ) ⇌ 2 ( )
D. 5( ) ⇌ 3( ) + 2( )
A. proportionality constant
7. A solution of 0.20 mole of B. rate constant
NaBr and 0.20 mole of MgBr2 in C. equilibrium constant
2.0 dm3 of water is to be D. Boltzmann constant
analysed. How many moles of

Pb(NO3)2 as insoluble PbBr2? 10. The reaction that takes place
in Daniel cell is
A. 0.30 mol
B. 0.10 mol A. Zn/Zn2+//Cu2+/Cu
C. 0.20 mol B. Zn/Zn2+//Cu/Cu2+
D. 0.40 mol C. Zn2+/Zn//Cu2+/Cu
D. Zn2+/Zn//Cu/Cu2+
8. A given volume of methane
diffuses in 20s. How long will it
11. Which of the followings is
take the same volume of sulphur
composed of the elements, H, O,
(IV) oxide to diffuse under the
Al, and Si?
same conditions? [C = 12, H = 1,
S = 32, O = 16].
A. Urea
B. Silica
A. 5s
C. Bauxite
B. 20s
D. Bauxite
C. 40s
E. Clay
D. 60s
12. Which of the followings is not

9. The reaction, + ⟶ , can
a chemical reaction?
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A. Burning of bush A. It achieves an inert
B. Rusting of iron configuration
C. Decay of bitter leaves B. It transfers two electrons in the
D. dissolution of potassium process
hydroxide pellets. C. It accepts one electron in the
process
13. 100.0g of KClO3 was added D. It gets oxidized in the process
to 40.0 cm3 of water to give a
saturated solution at 298K. If the 16. An electron described by the
solubility of the salt is 20.0 mol quantum number, n = 4, = 3 can
dm-3 at 298K, what percentage be located in what orbital?
of the salt is left undissolved?

[K = 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16] A. 4f
B. 3s
A. 80% C. 3d
B. 60% D. 4p
C. 5%
D. 2% 17. An aqueous solution of a
crystalline salt reacts with dilute
14. A tertiary amine is HCl to give a yellow precipitate

and a gas that turned dichromate
A. ethylamine paper green. The crystalline salt
B. diethylamine may be?
C. triethylamine
D. tetraethylarnine A. 2 2O3. 5 2O.
B. 2 2O3. 10 2O
15. Which of the following C. 2 .
statements is true when sulphur D. 3

atom forms its ion?
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18. The oxidation states of B. 260 cm3
nitrogen in ammonium nitrate are
C. 400 cm3
D. 450 cm3
A. -3, +3
21. 226 ⟶88 + − . What is
B. +3, +5 88
the value of x in the nuclear

C. +3, -5
reaction?
D. -3, +4
A. 226
19. Which of these reagents can
B. 220
confirm the presence of a triple
C. 222
bond?
D. 174
A. Hypochlorous acid
22. In the electrolysis of copper
B. Bromine water
(II) sulphate using copper
C. Acidified KMnO4
electrodes, the processes that
D. Copper I chloride
occur at the anode and cathode
respectively are
20. An excess 0.10 mol dm3 HCl
was poured into a big beaker
A. dissolution and evolution
containing 2g of limestone. The
B. dissolution and deposition
unreacted acid required 25cm3 of
C. deposition and evolution
0.10moldm-3 potassium D. evolution and deposition
carbonate to neutralize it. What
was the original volume of the
acid? [Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16]
A. 250 cm3
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2011
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. D 13.
D 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. B
19. D 20. D 21. C 22. C 23. B
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2015 OAU POST UTME BIOLOGY QUESTIONS
BIOLOGY D. schizocarp.
1. Which of the following is not 4. One of these features is not

present in RNA? typical of most animals
A. Adenine A. heterotrophic
B. Guanine B. multicellular
C. Cytosine C. sessile
D. Thymine D. motile at some stage of life
cycle.
2. In the evolutionary trend, in
which phylum do we begin to see 5. The cnidarians use their
a complete digest tract? nematocysts only for
A. Ctenophora A. capturing prey

B. Platyhelminthes B. courtship
C. Nematoda C. gas exchange
D. Mollusca D. sensing chemicals.
3. The picture below is an example 6. The lack of special supportive

of a structures in bryophytes restricts
them to one of the following types
of growth.
A. lateral growth
A. capsule B. upward growth
B. follicle C. downward growth
C. legume D. aerial growth.
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7. Which type of placentation D. holozoic mode of nutrition
does the diagram below can be seen in animals,
represent? carnivorous plants and some
protists.
A. parietal
B. axial 10. In which biome would you
C. marginal expect to have the shortest
D. free-central. growing season?
8. One of these is not a unique A. tropical rain forest

feature of meiosis B. guinea savanna
C. Sudan savanna
A. synapsis D. deserts.
B. homologous recombination
C. reduction division 11. The concept of tropic
D. cytokinesis. structure of a community
emphasizes
9. One of the following is not true
A. the dominant form of
A. saprophytic nutrition involves vegetation
feeding on a soluble organic B. the main predator
material from inorganic C. the feeding relationship within
substances a community
B. symbiosis is a nutritional D. the richness of species in the
relationship in which both community.
organisms involved derive benefit
C. a parasite causes injuries to 12. If a human skin cell with 46
its host in the course of getting its chromosomes divide by mitosis,
food how many chromosomes will each
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daughter cell have? A. the presence of villi
B. its length
A. 23
B. 12 C. its thin walls
C. 46 D. all the above.
D. 92. 16. One of these is an agency
responsible for conserving natural
13. Example of genetic diseases resources in Nigeria
include any of the following
except A. PDP
B. NCF
A. diabetes C. ACC
B. cystic fibrosis D. NEMA
C. hepatitis
D. epilepsy. 17. Which of these statements
about succession is incorrect?
14. In his theory of evolution,
Darwin identified as the main A. succession is a change of
cause of natural selection species composition, community
structure and function over time
A. physiological pressure and space
B. ecological pressure B. succession is usually set in
C. environmental pressure motion by some sort of
D. biological pressure. disturbance
C. succession is both directional
15. Absorption is maximum in and predictable
the small intestine because of D. succession begins only on a
bare ground
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18. What happens to a tadpole A. genotype
after 45 days old? B. phenotype
C. allele
A. It becomes fully, mouth D. locus.
becomes wider, horny jaw 21. One of these organisms is
disappears completely not an Autotroph
B. it becomes fully grown,
mouth becomes wider, tail A. spirogyra
disappears completely B. zea mays
C. it becomes fully grown, C. rhizobium
mouth becomes wider, external D. mushroom.
gill disappears completely
D. it becomes fully grown, 22. In the diagram below, the
mouth becomes wider, slit part labeled “a” is
disappears partially.
19. Effect of air pollutant does

not include
A. formation of carboxyl
A. apex
haemoglobin
B. fruit
B. displacement of digested food
C. apical meristem
C. lowering plant yield
D. flower.
D. damage breathing organs.
23. The condition in the diagram

20. Physical observable
below is?
characteristics of an organism is
called
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C. synthesis of ATP
D. contraction.
ANSWERS TO BIOLOGY 2015
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C 13.
A. hypermetropia
C 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. C
B. astigmatism
19. B 20. B 21. D 22. C 23. A
C. myopia
24. D 25. B
D. cataract
24. In man, abnormality with

chromosome 21 often lead to a
genetic problem called
A. respiratory syndrome
B. carcinoma syndrome
C. Klinefelter
D. down syndrome.
25. The presence of extensive

amounts of rough endoplasmic
reticulum in a cell is an indication
that the cell in involved in
A. synthesis and metabolism of

CH2O3
B. synthesis and secretion of
proteins
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BIOLOGY A. They are diploblastic animals.

B. Body is sac-shaped with three
1. What type of lens is used in openings
the spectacles of the people with C. They are bilaterally
this eye defect? symmetrical.
D. They are triploblastic animals
with two openings.
4. Which of these biological

A. concave lens statements is incorrect?
B. convex lens
C. all of the options A. Reflex action are also known
D. none of the options as involuntary actions
B. The forebrain consists of the
2. Which of these components of cerebrum and the olfactory lobes
the phloem has its cytoplasm C. The right hemisphere of the
pushed to the sides while also brain controls the right half of the
lacking nucleus? body
D. The outer part of the human
A. Companion cell, cerebrum is made up of grey
B. Sieve tube elements matter
C. Sieve plate
D. Parenchyma 5. The best-known plant species
that occur in fresh water swamp
3. Which of the following vegetation is
statements about phylum Cnidaria
is correct? A. Rhizophora racemosa
B. Acrostichum aureum
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C. Mitragyna ciliate B. the non-living parts of an
D. Triplochiton scleroxylon ecosystem.
C. all component of an ecosystem
6. Bacteria that live in the D. all the members of a single
human intestine assist in the species in a habitat
digestion and feed on nutrients
the human consumed. This 9. Muscles fatigue is caused by
relationship might best be
described as A. Accumulation of ethanol in
the muscle cells
A. Commensalism B. Accumulation of methanol in
B. Ectoparasitism the muscle’s cells
C. Endoparasitism C. Accumulation of lactic acid in
D. Mutualism the muscle cells
D. Accumulation of pyruvic acid
7. The xylem elements perform in the muscle
the function of transport but they
also help to support plants 10. At what stag of the meiotic
because they prophase do the homologous
chromosomes attract each other
A. are internally located and then pair up?
B. are lobular
C. have rigid thick wall A. Leptotene
D. Constantly absorb water B. Pachytene
C. Zygotene
8. Biosphere is best described as D. Diplotene
A. all parts of the earth where life 11. Which of the organelles is
exists. not directly connected to cell
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division process? 14. The mechanisms of opening
and closing the stomata is
A. centromere associated with the
B. microtubules.
C. Golgi bodies A. guard cells
D. spindle apparatus B. stoma
C. lenticels
12. During the light dependent D. air spaces
reaction
15. Holozoic is seen in
A. glucose is formed
B. carbon IV oxide is fixed A. Animals, carnivorous plants
C. NADPH and ATP are and protozoans
synthesized using electron B. Animals, protists and
released from water. carnivorous plants.
D. water is split and the electrons C. Animals, carnivorous plants
produced are used for glucose and fungi
synthesis. D. Animals, fungi and protists
13. Meiosis II is similar to 16. The part of the tooth that

mitosis in that: contains blood vessels and nerve
fibres is
A. Homologous chromosome
synapse A. Root
B. Sister chromatids separate B. Enamel
during anaphase C. Dentine
C. The chromosome number is D. Pulp cavity
reduce
D. The daughter cells are diploid 17. The food substances that are
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stored in readiness for time of blood vessels
food shortages are
20. Which of these is not a
A. Carbohydrates water-soluble vitamin?
B. Fats and Oils
C. Proteins A. Thiamine
D. Vitamins B. Riboflavin
C. Folic Acid
18. Which of these is the role of D. Calciferol
the liver in digestion?
21. Which of these following
A. Synthesis of lipase biomes is currently being ravaged
B. Secretion of trypsin by desertification?
C. Secretion of bile and
bicarbonate for emulsification of A. Derived savanna
fats. B. southern Guinea savanna
D. Storage of bile for hydrolyses C. Northern Guinea savanna
of starch. D. Sudan savanna
19. Respiratory surfaces 22. Which is the largest of the

generally have the following middle ear ossicles?
characteristics with the exception
of A. Anvil
B. Stipe
A. it must be thick but permeable. C. Hammer
B. it must be moist D. Incus
C. it must possess a large surface
area 23. The process by which plants
D. it must be richly supplied with and animals are modified in
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structure, physiology and ANSWERS TO 2014 BIOLOGY
behaviour in order to survive is QUESTIONS
known as
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. D
A. Evolution 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. C
B. Adaptation 14. A 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. C
C. Succession 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. C 23. C
D. Aggregation 24. A 25. A
24. Which of these plants can
withstand extreme dryness?
A. Cactus dryness?
B. Cactus
C. Raphia palm
D. Triplochiton scleroxylon
E. Parkie biglobosa
25. Animals that do not allow

their body temperature to vary
with the ambient are called?
A. Homoiothermic
B. Poikilothermic
C. Amphibians
D. Reptiles.
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BIOLOGY D. Blood and lymph
1. Which of these statements 4. Gaseous exchange through

with respect to “individual the lungs is called
organism” is most correct?
A. cutaneous breathing
A. It refers to animals only B. buccal breathing
B. It refers to either the plants or C. pulmonary breathing
animals D. larynxial breathing
C. Its ecology can be carried out
in zoo only 5. In saprophytic mode of nutrition
D. It is used in reference to plant
only. A. organisms feed on insoluble
organic material
2. One of these is not a major B. decomposition is not possible
biome in West Africa at all
C. nutrient recycling is possible
A. Rain forest D. no animal is involved
B. Savanna
C. Coniferous forest 6. A macro element which is not
D. Mangrove directly connected with formation
of chlorophyll is
3. The media of transportation
in living things include all but A. nitrogen
B. iron
A. Cytoplasm C. magnesium
B. Water D. sulphur
C. Eosin
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7. During the light dependent the organism
reaction C. The first trophic level is
occupied by the autotrophs
A. glucose is formed D. There are few numbers of
B. carbon IV oxide is fixed organisms at the start of a food
C. NADPH and ATP are chain.
synthesized using electron
released from water 10. All these statements about
D. water is split and the electrons plants succession are correct
produced are used for glucose except
synthesis.
A. Plant succession is the
8. Eutrophication refers to growth process of community change at
of one place over time
B. Plant succession is usually
A. Bacteria measured over the course of
B. Fungi several years to hundred years
C. Protophytes C. Succession proceeds from
D. Algae pioneer to climax phases
D. Succession is often not
9. All the following statements directional and so difficult to
are consistent with the concept of predict
trophic structure except
11. Which of the followings is not
A. At every feeding stage some true about finger print?
energy is wasted from the chain
B. The nearer the organism to A. It is useful in detecting crime
the beginning of a food chain, the B. No two individuals have the
greater the available energy of same finger print
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C. It is a heritable character gene on a chromosome
D. It is environmentally induced D. number of chromosomes in the
gamete
12. The factors for two pairs of
contrasting characters are 15. One of these statements
inherited independent of each about sympathetic Nervous
other. This is system is untrue
A. Mendel’s first aw of inheritance A. It stimulates many parts of

B. Mendel’s second law of the body in times of danger
inheritance B. It stimulates the heart beat
C. Mendel’s law of segregation of C. It functions like the adrenal
germinal units glands
A. Mendel’s law of independent D. It lowers the blood pressure
pairing of germinal units
16. One of the following
13. All of the following green elements is not associated with
algae are colonial forms except? leaf chlorosis
A. Gonium A. Nitrogen
B. Volvox B. Iron
C. Pandorina C. Calcium
D. Anabaena D. Magnesium
14. Allele is 17. Characteristics of continuous

variation include all of the
A. an alternate form of a gene following except
B. a unit of inheritance
C. the position or location of the A. Produced by many genes
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B. Influenced by the environment in response to the stimulus
C. Occurs in a normal distribution received from the motor nerves
curve D. efferent neurons
D. most of the organisms in the
population fall at the tail ends of 20. The mechanism of opening
the range and closing the stomata is
associated with the
18. Homeostasis is defined as
A. guard cells
A. Regulation of both external B. stoma
and internal conditions of C. lenticels
organisms D. air spaces
B. Maintenance of internal
environment of an organism 21. The part of the kidney where
C. Maintenance of internal and each tubule begins is called
external environment of an
organism A. Capsule
D. Regulation of the chemical B. Cortex
environment of an organism C. Glomerulus
D. Ureter
19. Effectors are
22. The number of cranial nerves
A. muscles which work in that connect the brain to various
response to the stimulus received parts of the body is
from the motor nerves
B. glands which work in A. 10 pairs
response to the stimulus received B. 11 pairs
from the motor nerves C. 12 pairs
C. muscles or glands which work D. 13 pairs
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23. The following pair of ions is ANSWERS TO BIOLOGY 2013
involved in transmission of
impulses by neurons: 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. B 13.
A. K and Na ions D 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. B
B. Na and Mg ions 19. C 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. A
C. K and Cl ions 24. C 25. C
D. K and Ca ions
24. The probability of producing

a heterozygote progeny in a cross
between two heterozygotes
individuals of pea plant is
A. 1/3
B. ¼
C. ½
D. 2/3
25. One of these does not

protect the body from harmful
effect of disease-causing micro-
organisms
A. Anti-toxin
B. Phagocytes
C. Antigens
D. Antibodies
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BIOLOGY 3. Sister chromatids are:
1. One of the groups of A. two identical copies of a

organisms below is critical in the single chromosome produced
entire process of nutrient cycling during s-phase
B. pairs of chromosomes
A. Aves C. points of attachments of
B. Nematoda centromeres to the chromosomes
C. Mammalia D. chromosomes found in cells
D. Fungi of sisters
2. Hierarchical organization of 4. In a monohybrid cross

living organisms is in one of the between round seed and wrinkled
following orders: seed, given that round is
dominant over wrinkled, what is
A. Atoms, molecules, compound, the number of wrinkled seeds that
cells, tissues, organs, systems, would be formed at F2 if the total
organism number is 7324?
B. Atoms, molecules, organelles,
cells, tissues, organs, systems, A. 456
organism B. 786
C. Atoms, elements, molecules, C. 686
cells, tissues, organs, systems, D. 860
organism
D. atoms, molecules, elements, 5. Steepness of slope generally
cells, tissues, organs, organ affect
systems, organism
A. Rainfall
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B. Drainage 9. This tissue is made up of
C. Sunlight tracheids, vessels, fibres and
D. All of the options parenchyma. What is it?
6. Bacteria differ from A. Phloem

eukaryotic forms of life in that B. sclerenchyma
they: C. xylem
D. ground tissue
A. are causes of all infectious
diseases 10. The important processes
B. have no nuclear membrane which bring about recycling of
C. reproduce by binary fission carbon dioxide between the biotic
D. have a thick cell-wall and abiotic components of an
ecosystem are all of the following
7. One of the following except
organisms exhibits a closed and
single circulatory system A. photosynthesis
B. respiration
A. Insect C. decay
B. Earthworm D. burning of fossil fuels
C. Fishes
D. Mammals 11. When a cut is made on the
trunks of certain trees, the milky
8. Coelomates are animals with fluid exuded is called
A. no body cavity A. rubber

B. true body cavity B. resin
C. false body cavity C. alkaloid
D. two gin layers D. latex
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12. The system of membrane- ordination
lined sacs that forms channels D. are not produced in specific
throughout the cytoplasm and glands.
whose membrane is continuous
with the nuclear membrane is the 15. If 80 grasshoppers are found
in a field with a total area of
A. Mitochondrion 100m2 what is the population
B. Ribosomes density of grasshopper in the
C. Endoplasmic reticulum field?
D. Golgi apparatus
A. 0.08 per m2
13. The type of Farming which
B. 0.8m2
involves raising livestock only is
C. 80m2
called
D. 100 m2
A. Mixed farming
B. Subsistence farming 16. Which of the following is part
C. Pastoral farming of the axial skeleton in a
D. Monoculture mammal?
14. Which of the following A. Phalange
statements is NOT correct? B. Tarsal
Hormones C. Sacrum
D. Patella
A. are circulated by blood and

lymph 17. Fruits that develop without
B. have their effect on target fertilization and are seedless are
organs known as
C. complement nervous co-
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A. Parthenocarpic fruits Arachnids
B. Aggregate fruits B. In Annelids, body consists of
C. Simple fruits similar segments unlike in
D. Epicarpic fruits Arachnids
C. In Arachnids, the
18. Grasping fingers and toes as cephalothorax is not distinct
well as eyes positioned in front of unlike in Arachnids
the head are features of D. In Annelids, the
A. Cretaceans cephalothorax is distinct unlike in
B. Carnivores arachnids
C. Rodents
D. Primates 21. The process in which the
internal environment of an
19. One of the major differences organism is maintained is called
between DNA and RNA is that
A. Co- ordination
A. DNA is made of ribose sugars B. Homeostasis
and double stranded unlike RNA C. Excretion
B. DNA is made of ribose sugar D. Metabolism
and single stranded unlike RNA
C. RNA is made of ribose sugar 22. Which of the following is the
and double stranded like DNA hardest material in the body of
D. RNA is made of ribose sugar animals?
and single stranded unlike DNA
A. Cartilage
20. A major difference between B. Bone
Arachnids and Annelids is that.... C. Enamel
A. In Annelids, body consists of D. Dentine
dissimilar segments unlike in
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23. One of these statements is ANSWERS TO BIOLOGY 2012
true of caryopsis
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. - 5. D 6. B 7. C
A. Pericarp and seed coat are 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. C 13.
fused C 14. D 15. - 16. C 17. A 18. D
B. Pericarp is free from seed coat 19. D 20. B 21. B 22. C 23. A
C. pericarp splits open 24. A 25. C
D. pericarp with a superior ovary
24. A biological species must
possess the following
characteristics except
A. Live only in one place

B. Must interbreed
C. Must produce fertile offspring
D. The mating between members
must be free
24. Nerve endings are located in

which part of the tooth
A. crown
B. Cement
C. Pulp cavity
D. Gum
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BIOLOGY C. Sudan savanna

D. deserts.
1. Which of these groups of
animals rivals mammals in the 4. Which of the following is an
display of parental care features? incorrect statement about
savanna?
A. Birds
B. Reptiles. A. It occupies about 80% of the
C. Pisces. land surface of Nigeria
D. None of the above B. It has no woody species.
C. It is usually burnt annually
2. An assemblage of populations D. It is a closed or nearly closed
of different species which interact cover of grasses.
through trophic and spatial
relationship is best described as 5. Which of the following
an habitats cannot be used for the
study of succession?
A. City
B. Community A. abandoned farmland
C. Ecosystem B. a pond
D. Niche C. savanna grassland
D. well cultivated farmland
3. In which biome would you
expect to have the shortest 6. In which of these associations
growing season? is much harm done to one of the
partners?
A. tropical rain forest
B. guinea savanna A. symbiosis
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B. commensalisms 9. Which of the following phyla
C. parasitism has been found to be the most
D. mutualism successful in the animal kingdom?
7. Effect of air pollutant does not A. phylum Annelida

include: B. phylum Arthropoda
C. phylum Chordata
A. formation of carboxyl D. phylum Mollusca
haemoglobin
B. displacement of digested food 10. In the tropical rainforest,
C. lowering plant yield there is little or no litter on the
D. damage breathing organs forest floor because of high
7. A typical feature of a plant A. rainfall

cell is the presence of B. temperature
C. light intensity
A. chromosome in nucleus D. rate of decomposition
B. cellulose cell wall.
C. mitochondria 11. Adaptive features of plants
D. membrane around the nucleus to desert conditions include
8. Non seed plants are found in A. thick barks, succulent stems

and sunken stomata
A. desert and arctic regions only. B. thin barks, succulent stems
B. all environments. and sunken stomata
C. cold mountain areas and hot C. thin barks, air floats on stems
springs and sunken stomata
D. tropical and subtropical regions D. air spaces on tissues,
only adventitious roots and thin barks
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12. The distribution of plants in B. cell wall and chloroplast
rainforest is governed mainly by C. cell membrane and cytoplasm.
D. cell membrane and chloroplast
A. Vegetation.
B. soil types 16. Workers in deep mines
C. amount of rainfall usually suffer from dehydration
D. rainfall pattern because
13. The greatest influence on a A. water is lost due to evaporation

stable ecosystem in nature is B. water is lost due to defecation
C. water is lost in the form of
A. man sweat
B. pollution D. water is lost along with salts in
C. animal the form of sweat
D. rainfall
17. Glucose is reabsorbed in the
14. Which of the following is the kidney mainly by
basic unit of classification?
A. Bowman’s capsule
A. genus. B. Loop of Henle
B. species. C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
C. phylum. D. Distal Convoluted Tubule
D. kingdom.
18. The most common substrate
15. Which two structures are of respiration is
present in a palisade cell but not
in a liver? A. Fats
B. Amino acids
A. cell wall and cytoplasm C. Glucose
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D. Sucrose direction of growth and
development of the organism.
19. The rate of heart beat in an
adult human being is A. The nucleus
B. The DNA
A. 71 beats per minute C. The neuron
B. 72 beats per minute D. The RNA
C. 73 beats per minute
D. 74 beats per minute 22. The chromosome number in
man is
20. One of the following is not
true A. 46
B. 23
A. Saprophytic nutrition involves C. 92
feeding on soluble organic D. 58
material from inorganic
substances 23. Effectors are
B. Symbiosis is a nutritional
relationship in which both A. muscles which work in
organisms involved derive benefit response to the stimulus received
C. A parasite causes injuries to from the motor nerves.
its host in the course of getting its B. glands which work in
food response to the stimulus received
D. Holozoic mode of nutrition from the motor nerves.
can be seen in animals, C. muscles or glands which work
carnivorous plants and some in response to the stimulus
protists received from the motor nerves.
D. efferent neurons.
21. is responsible for the
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24. The following are formed in
the bone marrow except
A. platelets
B. basophils
C. granulocytes
D. lymphocytes
ANSWERS TO BIOLOGY 2011
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C
14. A 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. C
19. C 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. A
24. C 25. D
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2014 OAU POST UTME PHYSICS QUESTIONS
PHYSICS at rest and an object in motion

continues in motion with a
1. Which of the following constant velocity.
statement is not true about the D. If two objects interact, the
properties of pressure in a liquid? force ℱ12 exerted by object 1 on
Pressure object
A. at any point in a liquid is at 3. A force of 20N is applied to a

right angle in all directions. spring of elastic spring constant of
B. is the same at all points on 200N/m. Calculate the energy
the same horizontal plane in a stored in the spring.
liquid
C. decreases with height, and A. 2.50J
independent of shape and volume B. 0.25 J
of the container. C. 400 J
D. is dependent on the shape D. 40.0 J
and volume of the container
4. Which of the following is not a
2. Which of the following is not a self- luminous object?
Newton’s law of motion?
A. glow-worm
A. The time rate of change of B. star
linear momentum is directly C. moon
proportional to the external force D. sun
applied and it takes place in the
direction of the force. 5. Which of the following is not
B. In the absence of external an application of Total internal
forces, an object at rest remains Reflection?
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A. Mirage 8.
B. Binoculars
C. Optical Fibres
D. Driving mirror
6. The reading on ADE Calculate the acceleration of the

temperature scale at the ice system (in terms of the
melting point is 400A and 800A at acceleration due to gravity, (g),
the Celsius scale equivalent to when it is released.
500A
A. 0.38g
A. 250C B. 0.13 g
C. 0.15 g
B. 400C
D. 0.39g
C. 450C
D.600C
9. A train starting from rest
accelerates at the rate of 6 m/s2

7. Calculate the heat required to
for 20 seconds to attain a
convert 10g of ice at -100C to
constant speed and it further
water at 500C . The specific heat travelled for another 20 seconds
capacity of ice and water are
and decelerates at rate of 3 m/s2
2100 J/kgK and 4200 J/kgK
for 20 seconds. Calculate the total
respectively. The latent heat of
distance (in Kilometre) travelled
Fusion of ice is 3.4 x 105JK-1 by the train.
A. 2.10 Kj A. 4.0km
B. 4.20 Kj B. 4.4 km
C. 3.21 kJ C. 4.8 km
D. 5.71 kJ D. 3.6 km
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10. Anomalous behaviour of 12. Which of the following is the
water refers to function of a p-n junction
semiconductor device?
A. Boiling of water at 1000C

A. It transforms a direct voltage
B. Freezing of water 00C
to AC voltage
C. Contraction of water when it is
B. It steps up an AC voltage
heated between 00C and 40C
C. It steps down an AC voltage
D. Evaporation of water at
D. It transform AC voltage to
ambient temperature.
direct voltage

13. Five 2 Ω resistors were
statements is true about collision
connected in two ways, in series
event?
and parallel. What is the ratio of
the series equivalent resistance to
A. Inelastic collision, both linear
parallel equivalent resistance?
momentum and kinetic energy
are conserved
A. 1:50
B. In elastic collision, linear
B. 2:5
momentum is conserved but the
C. 1:1/25
kinetic energy is not conserved
D. 5:6
but the kinetic energy is not
conserved
14. The surface tension of water
C. In elastic collision, both linear
can be reduced by adding the
momentum and kinetic energy are
following except
conserved
D. In elastic collision, kinetic
A. detergent
energy is conserved but the linear
B. oil
momentum is not conserved.
C. grease
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D. sand A. 6C/11
B. C/6
15. Which of the following is not C. 17C/6
an eye defect? D. 6C
A. Astigmatism 18. A material of threshold

B. Hypermetropia frequency 4.5 x 10-19 Hz was
C. Presbyopia bombarded with Photons of
D. Malaopia
frequency 8.0 x 1015 Hz. What is
the kinetic energy of the emitted
16. Calculate the energy stored
photoelectrons (in eV)? (h = 6.60
in a capacitor of capacitance 50
x 10-3 Js, 1, eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J)
F when a voltage of 220 V is
applied to its terminals.
A. 2.81 Ev
B. 2.19 eV
A. 2.0 Joule
C. 5.00 eV
B. 1.21 Joule
D. None of the above
C. 3.0 Joule
D. 4.0 Joule 17.
combinations of factors do not
17.
affect evaporation?
i. Temperature
ii. nature of liquid exposed
iii. Impurities
Calculate the equivalent iv. Pressure
capacitance between the v. Humidity
terminals. vi. Drought
vii. linear expansivity
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viii. electro negativity
A. (vii) and (viii)

B. (i), (ii), (iii)
C. (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
D. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
20. A solid is said to sublime if it

changes from
A. solid to liquid state

B. solid to molten state
C. solid to gaseous state
D. solid to solid state
SOLUTION TO PHYSICS 2014
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. B 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C
14. D 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D
19. D 20. C
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PHYSICS an example of rotational motion?
1. Adeoye moves a distance of A. rotation of electric fan blades

4.0km from a point, A, on a B. movement of car wheels
bearing of N30O E to a point, B C. rotation of the earth about its
and then a distance of 3.0km on a axis

D. movement of a loaded spring
bearing of S60O E to a point, C.
about its equilibrium position
Calculate Adeoye’s resultant
displacement from point A.
4. An object of mass, 5kg placed
on an inclined plane (which is at
A. 10km, N 60o E
an angle of 30° to the horizontal)
B. 5km, N 67o E
is attached to a 10 kg mass
C. 3km, S30o E through a pulley, with the 10 kg
D. 4km, S60o E hanging vertically. Calculate the
acceleration of the mass-system
2. Which of the following in terms of the acceleration due
statements is true? to gravity, g, if there is no friction
between the 5kg mass and the
A. The unit of mass is Newton (N) plane.
B. Weight of an object is a scalar
quantity A. 2⁄5 g
C. The weight of an object varies B. 3⁄5 g
from one place to another C. 1⁄2 g
D. The dimensions of weight are D. 3⁄4 g
M-2 LT-2
5. Which of the following is not
3. Which of the following is not true about the mechanical energy
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of a system in a conservative of 60%. If the machine applied a
field? force of 2000N to overcome a
load of 5000N, calculate the
A. total energy is zero velocity ratio of the machine
B. total energy is the sum of the
kinetic energy and the potential A. 2.4
energy B. 3.3
C. total energy is equal to the C. 4.2
maximum value of kinetic energy D. 5.5
D. total energy is equal to the
maximum value of potential 8. Which of the following
energy. statements is true about the
hydrostatic pressure?
6. Surface tension is the
I. Pressure increases with height
A. pressure per unit length on II. Pressure is independent of the
either side of the imaginary line shape and volume of the vessel
drawn on the liquid surface at rest III. Pressure is the same at all
B. force per unit length on either points on the same horizontal
side of the imaginary line drawn plane in a fluid
on the liquid surface at rest IV. Pressure is independent of the
C. current per unit length on surface area in contact
either side of the imaginary line
drawn on the liquid surface at rest A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D. area per unit length on either B. (i), (ii), and (iii) only
side of the imaginary line drawn C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
on the liquid surface at rest D. (i), (ii), and (iv) only
7. A machine has an efficiency 9. The resistance of a platinum
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resistance thermometer is 160.5Ω 11. Which of the following is not
at steam point and 60.5Ω at the an application of expansion of
melting point of ice. Calculate the solids?
resistance of the thermometer at
70oC A. Rivets
B. Bimetal strips
A. 160.5Ω C. Fitting of wheels on rims in
B. 165.5Ω Railway Coaches
C. 130.5Ω D. Regelation.
D. 170.5Ω
12. Which of the following is true
10. The wall separating a Bakery about melting point of a liquid?
Oven and its environment is of h,

10m; breadth, 10m; and A. The presence of dissolved
thickness, 25cm. If the rate of impurities increases the melting
heat exchange between the Oven of a pure solid
and its environment is 1000watt B. An increase in pressure
and the temperature of the decreases the melting point of a

substance that contracts in
environment is 27oC , calculate
volume on freezing, more than
the temperature of the Oven,
the one that expands in volume
given that the Coefficient of
C. The melting point is not the
thermal conductivity of the wall is
same as the solidification of a
0.054Wm-1K-1
substance
D. The presence of the dissolved
A. 27.3oC
impurities does not change the
B. -40.2oC melting point of a pure solid.
C. 40.2oC
D. 73.3oC 13. A boy preparing to have his
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bath mixed 50kg of water at a A. 6.0cm
temperature of 80oC with 70kg of B. 2.0cm

C. 3.0cm
water at a temperature of 20oC .
D. 4.0cm
What is the temperature of the
water mixture?
16. A boy stands at a distance, x
from a wall. When he shouted,
A. 45Oc
the echo was heard 2 seconds
B. 75Oc
later. Calculate the distance from
C. 65Oc the wall, given that the speed of
D. 35oC light is 330m/s.
14. Which of the following is not A. 500m

a property of sound wave? B. 340m
C. 250m
A. Reflection D. 495m
B. Diffraction
C. Polarization 17. In a 60 prism of refractive
D. Refraction index, 1.5, calculate the angle of
minimum deviation when light is
15. A pin at the bottom of a refracted through the prism
beaker filled with water appeared
to be elevated when viewed from A. 40.2o
the top of the beaker. Calculate
B. 37.5o
the displacement of the pin from
C. 37.2o
the bottom of the beaker, if the
D. 40.5o
beaker is filled to 8.0cm height
and the refractive index of water
18. Calculate the resultant
is 3⁄4
capacitance of the capacitor
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network, if each capacitor has a winding is 10:3.
capacitance of 2μf
A. 10A
B. 3A
C. 4A
A. 2.0m 2μf D. 5A
B. 1.0m 2μf
C. 2.5m 2μf 21. All the following properties
D. 2.3m 2μf are characteristics of X rays
except
19. A cell of e.m.f 4.0V is
connected in series to two A. they have short wavelength
resistors 2Ω and 4Ω, which are B. they have no charge
connected in parallel. Calculate C. they are electromagnetic in
the current which flows through nature
the 4Ω resistor D. they do not affect photographic
plates
A. 1.0A
B. 2.0A 22. 238 ⟶ 234
ℎ + X. What
C. 3.0A particle is 92 90 emitted in
D. 4.0A radioactive decay process
shown above?
20. A step-down transformer is
energized by a 220V a.c supply A. β particle
and supplied a current of 10A to B. X-ray
the secondary winding. Calculate C. α particle
the current which flows through D. γ ray
the primary winding if the ratio of
the primary winding to secondary
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1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C
8. C 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. B 13.
A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B
19. A 20. B 21. D 22. C
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PHYSICS D. 3.12 × 104N/m2
1. A uniform meter rule AB has 3. A ship sinks to the bottom of

a mass 15g. A 30g mass is a 250m deep lake. The
suspended at the 10.0cm mark, atmospheric pressure over the
and another 5g mass is
lake is 1.03 × 105Pa. Taking the
suspended at the 65.0cm mark.
density of water in the lake to be
Calculate the position of the
1000 kg/m3,calculate the
fulcrum that will keep the meter
pressure exerted on the boat
rule balanced horizontally.
[acceleration due to gravity 10
m/s2]
A. 50.0cm
B. 32.0cm
C. 27.5cm A. 2.60 × 106Pa
D. 17.9cm B. 2.50 × 106Pa
C. 2.60 × 105Pa
2. A rectangular block measures D. 1.03× 105Pa
40cm x 25cm x 5cm and is made
of a material of density 4. Three knives made of steel,
7800kg/m3. Calculate the plastic and fiat wood respectively
pressure the block exerts on the is placed on a table for an equal
floor when it stands on the amount of time. The steel knife
smallest of its surfaces. feels coldest to touch because
A. 312 × 103N/m2
B. 3.90 × 103N/m2 A. The steel knife has the lowest

temperature
C. 1.95 × 104N/m2
B. The plastic and wooden
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knives have absorbed more heat A. 0.5π seconds
from the environment than the B. π seconds
steel knife C. 2π seconds
C. Both wooden and plastic D. 4π seconds
knives have lower densities than
the steel knife 7. The coefficient of linear
D. The steel knife conducts heat expansion of aluminium is 23 x
faster from the finger than the 10-6 K-1. If the volume of a pot
wooden and plastic knives. made with aluminium at
temperature To is Vo, what will be
5. Two plane mirrors are inclined the change in temperature
at angle 45o one to another. A resulting in a decrease of 0.20%
ray of light has incident angle 20° in volume of the pot?
at the surface of the first mirror.
The reflected ray is then incident A. -87oC
on the second mirror. Calculate B. +87°C
the angle of C. +29°C
D. -29°C
A. 65°
B. 45° 8. A resonance tube is 40cm
C. 25° long. The second resonance is
D. 20° heard when the tube is three-
quarter full. What is the frequency
6. When the length of the string of the tuning fork placed near the
of a simple pendulum is L, its mouth of the tube? [velocity of
period is 0.5π seconds. The period sound in air is 334 m/s]
when the length is increased to 4L
will be A. 2511 Hz
B. 1670Hz
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C. 835 Hz under a velocity-time graph?
D. 345 Hz
A. Acceleration
9. A coin is at the bottom of a B. distance travelled
bucket tilled with a liquid whose C. Average velocity of motion
refractive index is 1.35. The coin D. total time taken.
appears to be 12.0cm below the
surface of the liquid. Calculate the 12. A 25 N force pulls a 2.0kg
depth of the liquid. body up a 30° inclined plane. If
the force is parallel to the plane
A. 16.2cm and the body moves up the plane
B. 13.4cm at constant velocity, calculate the
C. 8.9cm magnitude of the frictional force
D. 5.4cm between the body and the plane
[g = 10m/s2]
10. A car accelerates at 5.0
m/s2 for 6s, the travels at the A. 35N
speed attained for 20s, and B. 25N
comes to rest after another 4.0s. C. 20N
Calculate the average velocity of D. 15N
the car during the motion.

A. 25.0m/s features is used to minimize heat
B. 20.0m/s loss due to conduction in a
C. 1.25m/s thermo flask?
D. 0.16m/s
A. The space between the two
11. Which of the following watts of the vacuum flask is
quantities is equal to the area evacuated
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B. The vacuum flask is of the object.
separated from the outer wall
with corks A. 3.0cm
C. The surfaces of the vacuum B. 6.0cm
flask are silvered C. 12.0cm
D. The inner and outer walls of D. 24.0cm
the flask are made of steel.
17. Five 100-Watt bulbs are put
14. Which of the following on for 45 days during which the
quantities is a scalar quantity? home-owner is on vacation. If
1kW-hour of electricity costs
A. Electric field ₦7.50, how much does it cost the
B. Coulomb force home- owner?
C. Electric potential
D. Acceleration due to gravity A. ₦168.75
B. ₦90.00
15. The process by which a solid C. ₦4050.00
changes directly to vapour is D. ₦810.00
called
18. To convert an a.c. generator
A. Evaporation to a d.c. generator, one needs to
B. Fusion
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation A. Remove the brush touching the
slip rings
16. A 3.0cm object is placed B. Laminate the armature
12.0cm in front of a bi-convex C. Replace the permanent
tens of focal length 8.0cm. magnets with soft iron-core
Calculate the height of the image armature
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D. Replace the slip rings with split D. 9⁄2
rings.
21. Two 2µF capacitors are
19. To use a multi-ammeter to connected in parallel. The
measure current up to 10A, what combination is connected in series
connection needs to be made? with a 6µF capacitor. What is the
equivalent capacitor for the
A. A small resistance must be combination?
connected in series with the milli-
ammeter A. 10.0µF
B. A small resistance must be B. 8.0µF
connected in parallel with the C. 1.5µF
milli-ammeter D. 2.4µF
C. A high resistance must be
connected in parallel with the 22. A student afraid that the
milli-ammeter substance near him is radioactive
D. The milli-ammeter must be places his lecture note between
disconnected from the circuit. him and the substance. If truly
the substance is radioactive,
20. Two resistors A and B are which of the following radiations
made of the same material. The can the notebook shield him
radius of A is three times that of B from?
and the length of A is half of B.
The ratio of the resistance of A to A. Gamma rays
that of B is B. Neutrons
C. Alpha particles
A. 3⁄2 D. Energetic beta ray
B. 2⁄3
C. 2⁄9
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1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. B
14. C 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D
19. B 20. - 21. D 22. C
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PHYSICS 10g of dry ice at 0°C. What is the

final temperature if the container
1. A body of mass m slides down has a heat capacity of 20 J/K?
an inclined plane with a constant [specific heat of water = 4200
velocity. If the angle of the incline J/kg. K, latent heat of fusion of
is θ, the coefficient of kinetic ice = 3.33 x 105 J/kg]
friction between the body and the
plane is A. 142.9°C
B. 63.6°C
A. cot θ C. 43.0°C
B. cos θ D. 0°C
C. tan θ
D. sin θ 4. A sample of radioactive
substance, whose half-life is 16
2. The density of sea water is days, registers 32 decays per
1030 kg/m3. What is the pressure second. How long will it take for
at a depth of 80 m below sea the rate of decay to reduce to 2
surface? Atmospheric pressure is decays per second?
1.013 x 105 Pa and acceleration

A. 80 days
due to gravity is 10 m/s2.
B. 64 days
C. 48 days
A. 9.25 x 105 Pa
D. 32 days
B. 8.24 x 105 Pa
C. 7.23 x 105 Pa 5. When white light passes

D. 8.34 x 109 Pa through a triangular prism, the
emerging rays of light arranged in
3. 6000 J of heat is delivered to order of decreasing angle of
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deviation are D. 800 N
A. Red, orange, yellow, green 8. When a 2 kg body is at a

B. Blue, green, orange, yellow, height 5 m above the floor, its
C. Red, green, yellow, blue velocity is 4 m/s. What is its total
D. Blue, green, yellow, orange energy at this height?
[acceleration due to gravity = 10
6. The electric field between two m/s2]
parallel plates is E. A particle of
mass m and carrying charge q is A. 80 J
released at a point half the B. 100 J
distance between the plates. The C. 116 J
velocity of the particle t seconds D. 180 J
after its
9. An airplane increases its

A. qEt/m speed from 36 km/h to 360 km/h
B. qEt2/2m in 20.0 s. How far does it travel
C. mqt2/2E while accelerating?
D. mqt/2E
A. 4.4km
7. The velocity of a 500 kg car B. 1.1km
moving along a straight road, C. 2.3 km
changes from 12 m/s to 20 m/s in D. 1.0km
5sec. calculate the average force

moving the car. 10. In the simple circuit shown
in Fig.1, E is a 24 V battery.
A. 2000 N Calculate the current I.
B. 1600 N
C. 1200 N A. 0.1A
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B. 2.0A efficiency of the system?
C. 5⁄6 A
D. 2.0A A. 40%
B. 50%
11. An object is said to be in C. 20%
simple harmonic motion (SHM) if D. 10%
A. the acceleration is directly 13. The term “Viscosity” is used

proportional to the displacement to describe
and is directed toward the
equilibrium position of the object. A. surface tension in fluids
B. the acceleration is inversely B. friction in fluids
proportional to the displacement C. surface tension in solids
and directed toward the D. moment in solids
equilibrium position of the object.
C. the displacement is directly 14. A particle is in equilibrium
proportional to the momentum under the action of three forces.
and directed toward the One force is 40N towards the west
equilibrium position of the object. and another is 30N towards the
D. the momentum is directly south. What is the third force
proportional to the displacement acting on the body?
and directed toward the
equilibrium position of the object. A. 40N, N53°E
B. 50 N, N37°E
12. A wheel and axle is used to C. 50N, N53°E
raise a weight of 600N with an D. 40 N, N37°E
effort of 300 N. If the radii of the
wheel and axle are 50cm and 15. A hydraulic press works on
10cm respectively, what is the the principle of transmission of
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A. Thermocouple
B. Pyrometer
A. force C. Hydrometer
B. Energy D. Platinum resistance
C. volume thermometer
D. pressure.
19. Dry air of column length
16. A cigarette lighter in a car is a 10cm is trapped by a pellet of
resistor that, when activated, is mercury of length 15 cm, with the
connected across the 12V battery. open end uppermost. When the
If the lighter dissipates 33W of capillary tube is inverted the
power, find the resistance of the length of the air column increased
lighter. to 25 cm while that of mercury
remained constant. Calculate the
A. 9.90Ω atmospheric pressure (in cm of
B. 6.60Ω Hg).
C. 4.36Ω
D.17.50Ω A. 35cmHg
B. l5cmHg
17. A p-n junction can act as C. 20cmHg
D. 10cmHg
A. an amplifier 20. Sound waves were sent out

B. a rectifier from a source and after being
C. an inductor reflected from an obstacle were
D. a capacitor received by a sensor placed
beside the source. If the waves
18. Which of the following is not were received 10 seconds after
a thermometer? they were sent out, calculate the
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distance between the source and emitted. [1eV = 1.6 x 10-19J, h =
the obstacle. [speed of sound =
6.6 x 10-34Js]
330m/s]
A. 6.35Ev
A. 990m
B. 8.25eV
B. 660m
C. 14.60eV
C. 1320m
D. 2.30Ev
D. 1750m.
21. Which of the following is not
true about a chemical cell?
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. D
A. In primary cells the process
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B
through which current is
14. B 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. C
generated is irreversible.
19. A 20. – 21. D 22. –
B. Secondary cells can be
recharged after they run down by
passing a current into the cell in
the reverse direction
C. Positive ions are attracted to
the positive electrode where they
become neutralized by acquiring
electrons.
D. Primary cells can be
recharged.
22. Calcium has a work function

of 19 eV with a wavelength of 150
nm. Calculate the maximum
energy of a photo electron
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DISCLAIMER
These are NOT expo questions for OAU post
UTME but past questions of previous years.
You are advised to study these past questions
and know how each correct answer was gotten
to be well-prepared for your Post UTME paper.
Speaking of which,
Would you like to download OAU past questions
with step-by-step explanation for each correct
answer?
Click on the link below...
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Obafemi Awolowo University

Years: 2011 - 2015

Subjects: English Mathematics

Biology Physics Chemistry

NOT FOR SALE

Our Post UTME past questions (PDF) are provided

Fill out the gaps in the Choose the option nearest in

18. I guess he is indifferent to our Among his papers, there is the

ANSWERS TO 2015 ENGLISH

EXERCISE: 1. We can infer from the passage

Read the passage and use it to A. the effort of international

3. It was apparent that the 5. While the host community

4. Another word that means the A. rape

A. errant For question 16-19, Fill out

ANSWERS TO 2014 POST-

ENGLISH LANGUAGE birth-rate to go on taking nature’s

To let nature, take her A. war, pestilence and famine

4. We must consciously try to A. loner

A. strive not to be wasteful 7. If I had known his delicate

In questions 21 and 22, fill in 24. Memuna was careful not to

21. There is not ... sense in what A. into

22. I’m sorry I can’t give you any A. in

ENGLISH LANGUAGE B. Infinitive Clause

Fill in the spaces in the 17. A. plaintiff

22. Our plane down at Aminu ANSWERS TO ENGLISH

23. The disease was____very

USE OF ENGLISH are considered as heirlooms to

A chief who suffered from an 2. A destooled chief can be

15. afford For questions 21 -23, choose

19. A. boomer 22. Camilla waited for her friend

For questions 24 and 25,

MATHEMATICS independent, then P(A and B) is

1. The probability of an event A A. P(A Ռ B)

A. 6. Noting that, cos = (90 - ),

10. Resolve into partial

A. {22, 32, 11} 18. Let the mean of x, y-1, z5 be 6

15. Find the angle in the line y C. 9

19. What is the addition of y and

16. Find the value of P which A. -19.5

satisfies the equation B. 19.5

angle, find (1 + tan2A) A. 3

13. Obtain the centre of the circle

the value of the constant a

15. Evaluate C. –a cos (2 – ax)

22. If m is the gradient of the line

MATHEMATICS 4. Find the point of intersection of

probability of failure? A. x = ,y=

D. 5. Solve 4x2 + 20x – 24 = 0

2. What is the circumference of A. 1, 6

the circle x2 + y2 = 2 B. -1, -6

8. Evaluate 12. Resolve into partial

9. What is the remainder when

which the function is D. 32

A. {} 20. Given f(x) = 3 + x and g(x)

B. {3, 6, 7} =3 – x, find f(f(x)).

C. {2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 10, 17}

17. What is the coordinate of the C. –x

centre of the circle D. 0

A. (-1, -2) respect to x.

D. (1, -2) B. –cos(2x – 5)