ID question option_1 option_2 option_3 option_4

1. The temperature of the gases within the Be constant. Decrease. Increase. Follow Charles's Law.
cylinder of a four stroke engine during the
power stroke will:
2. The number of revolutions of the crankshaft 6 4 2 8
required to complete a full cycle in a four
stroke engine is:
3. Hydraulic valve tappets are used on some Eliminate valve bounce. Eliminate constant Give a more positive Give a more positive
engines to: valve adjustment and closing action. opening action.
checks.
4. A normally aspirated engine is one which: Has four cylinders. Is not supercharged. Is never air cooled. Is all of the above.
5. Volumetric efficiency may be defined as: The ratio of the volume The ratio of the volume The ratio of the volume The efficiency with
of the mixture drawn of air and the volume of of one of the cylinders which the air and fuel
into the cylinder during fuel drawn into the to the volume of all of mix together in the
normal engine working, cylinder. the cylinders in cylinder.
to the volume of the
mixture which would be
required to fill the
cylinder under normal
temperatures and
pressures.
6. The ratio of the power produced by an specific fuel Indicated horse power. Volumetric efficiency. Thermal efficiency.
engine to the power available in the fuel is consumption.
known as the:
7. Weakening the mixture below the best Decrease. Increase initially, but Increase. Be unaffected by
fuel/air ratio will cause the engine power to: decrease below take off altitude increase.
power.
8. Because of the reduction in the density of The mixture control must The throttle must close The mixture must be The octane rating of
the atmosphere associated with an increase be moved towards the progressively to progressively richened the fuel must be
in altitude: weak position. maintain the best to compensate for the increased.
air/fuel ratio. power loss.
9. A chemically correct mixture is: 15:1 (fuel : air) 15:1 (air: fuel) 13:1 (fuel : air) 13:1 (air: fuel)
10. While weakening the mixture from the Increase Decrease Decrease then increase Increase then decrease
chemically correct mixture the EGT will
11. Excessive cylinder head temperatures are The prolonged use of The ignition timing The prolonged use of The ignition being too
caused by: weak mixtures. being too far advanced. rich mixtures. far retarded.
12. The mixture supplied by the carburettor to The proportion of air in The proportion of air in A grade of fuel lower There is insufficient
the engine is said to be weak when: the mixture is insufficient the mixture is greater than that specified for power in the engine for
to allow full combustion than that needed for full the engine is used. take off.
of the fuel. combustion of the full .
13. In an attempt to maintain the correct The valve timing can be An accelerator pump A mixture control is A diffuser is fitted.
air/fuel ratio while climbing into the changed. can be fitted. used.
decreased density air of higher altitude:
14. The greater the weight of combustible The weaker is the The more the power The lower the cylinder The greater the power
mixture in the cylinders: mixture. decreases. head temperature will developed by the
be. engine.
15. A rich mixture is supplied to the cylinders at To give greater thermal To cool the charge To increase the To give excess power.
take off and climb: efficiency. temperature and volumetric efficiency.
prevent detonation.
16. The method of priming an engine not fitted Activate the mixture Turn the engine over Pump the throttle Position the throttle
with a priming pump is to: control lever several several times on the several times. lever midway between
times. starter motor before open and close.
selecting the ignition on.
17. A possible cause of the engine backfiring An exhaust valve sticking A broken push rod. A blocked float A sticking inlet valve.
could be: open. chamber.
18. An overly rich mixture at slow running could The priming pump being Low fuel pressure. The float chamber level A partially blocked
be caused by: left open. being too low. main jet.
19. The engine driven fuel pump supplies: The exact amount of fuel More fuel than is The exact amount of More fuel than is
required for all running required by the engine; fuel required for all required by the engine,
conditions. the excess fuel is running and starting the excess being used
recycled. conditions. as priming fuel.
20. When an engine is fitted with a fuel injection It does not require A separate priming A separate priming Priming fuel originates
system: priming. system must be fitted. system is not required. from the excess
supplied from the
engine driven pump.
21. The mixture control on an engine fitted with Automatic. Operated by a Hydro-pneumatically Necessary.
fuel injection is: pneumatic plunger operated.
system.
22. The Fuel Manifold Valve: Meters the amount of Distributes fuel to each Distributes fuel Is kept entirely
fuel delivered to the cylinder in the correct continuously to all of separate from the
engine in proportion to firing order. the cylinders priming system.
the amount of air being continuously.
delivered to the engine.
23. An engine which is fitted with fuel injection: Will never encounter Will not suffer from Cannot be started by Does not require
hydraulicing. refrigeration icing. swinging the propeller. priming.
24. The fuel control unit will sense the following engine RPM compressor inlet air throttle movement all the above are
to meter the fuel flow to the combustion pressure/temperature correct
chamber: -
25. The blade angle of a propeller is the angle The root chord and the The chord and the The chord of the The propeller chord
between: tip chord of the airflow relative to the propeller and the and the plane of
propeller. propeller. longitudinal axis of the rotation of the
aircraft. propeller.
26. The thrust force of a propeller producing Tends to bend the Tends to bend the Tends to bend the Causes a tension load
forward thrust: propeller tips forward. propeller tips backward. propeller in its plane of in the propeller.
rotation.
27. To counteract the effect of slipstream The fin may be reduced A "T" tail may be The fin may be off-set. The wings may have
rotation on a single engine aircraft: in size. employed. washout.
28. The gyroscopic effect of a right hand A yawing moment to the A yawing moment to A nose-up pitch when A yaw to the right
propeller will give: left whenever the engine the left when the the aircraft yaws to the when the aircraft
is running. aircraft rolls to the right. right. pitches nose up.
29. The alpha range of a variable pitch propeller Feather and flight fine Feather and ground fine Flight fine pitch stop Ground fine pitch and
is between: pitch stop. pitch stop. and reverse stop. reverse stop.
30. The CSU incorporates an oil pump. Its To provide pressure to To provide pressure to To increase the engine To ensure adequate
purpose is: feather the propeller. unfeather the propeller. oil pressure to a higher lubrication of the CSU.
pressure to operate the
propeller pitch
31. A propeller blade is twisted along its length: To compensate for the To maintain a constant To increase the thrust To maintain constant
Centrifugal Twisting angle of attack from given by the tip. thrust from root to tip.
 Moment. root to tip of the blade.
32. The motive force used to drive the turbo- Torque from the Torque from the Energy from the Energy from the
charger is: crankshaft via a spring accessory gearbox. exhaust that would reduction gearbox.
drive unit. otherwise have been
wasted.
33. The power increase that occurs with initial The reduced weight of The decreasing density The reducing exhausts The increasing charge
increase in altitude when an engine has an mixture being passed to of the atmosphere. back pressure. temperature.
internal supercharger fitted, is due to: the engine.
supercharger fitted, is due to:
34. Rated Altitude is: The height at which the A comparison between The maximum altitude The altitude at which
boost pressure ceases to the boost pressure at at which Rated Boost the waste gate
be effective with a sea level and that at a can be maintained with becomes fully shut.
specific R.P.M. set. given altitude. a specific R. P.M. set.
35. The speed of the turbine of a turbo-charger The diversion of exhaust Controlling the exit of The use of a variable An automatic gearbox
is controlled by: gases. the exhaust gas passing controller. positioned between
out of the eye of the the turbine and the
impeller. impeller.
36. The automatic boost pressure control Atmospheric pressure. Carburettor inlet Boost pressure. Cabin pressure
capsules are made sensitive to: pressure. differential.
37. In order to maintain a constant boost Holds the throttle valve Progressively opens the Progressively closes the Progressively closes the
pressure with increasing altitude, the A.B.C : at a constant position. throttle valve. waste gate. throttle valve.
38. Boost pressure is the: Inlet manifold pressure in Absolute pressure in Absolute pressure in Inlet manifold pressure
pounds per square inch the inlet manifold the inlet manifold in pounds per square
above or below standard measured in inches of measured in millibars. inch above or below
mean sea level pressure. mercury. atmospheric pressure.
39. Full Throttle Height is: The height at which the The maximum height at The height at which the The cruising height for
engine is at Rated Boost. which a specified boost waste gate is fully any specific boost.
can be maintained at a closed.
specified R. P.M.
40. The purpose of an intercooler is: To minimise the risk of To increase the volume To decrease the density To prevent overheating
detonation. of the charge. of the charge. of the exhaust
manifold.
41. The function of a diffuser in a supercharger To decrease the To increase the velocity To decrease the To decrease the
is: temperature and and decrease the velocity and decrease velocity and increase
increase the velocity of pressure of the charge. the pressure of the the pressure of the
the charge. charge. charge.
42. Air enters the compressor of a turbo- At the tip and passes At the diffuser and exits At the eye and passes At the eye and passes
supercharger: across the impeller at the impeller. across the diffuser across the impeller
blades to exit at the eye. blades before exiting at blades to exit at the tip.
the impeller tip.
43. The waste gate of a turbo-supercharger is In the turbine by-pass. In the inlet manifold. To maximise exhaust In series with the
fitted: back pressure. turbine.
44. The waste gate is operated by: The automatic boost The waste gate Inlet manifold pressure. Exhaust gas
control unit. actuator. temperature.
45. With a turbo-charger installed on the Remains the same. Is decreased. Is increased. Decreases in the climb.
engine, its exhaust back pressure:
46. A high performance supercharger may Between the At the carburettor Between each cylinder. Between the engine
require an intercooler to be placed: supercharger and the intake. block and the exhaust
inlet valve. manifold.
47. Maximum Continuous Power (M.C.P ) is: Unrestricted, but only if The maximum power Given a 5 minute Unrestricted.
economical cruising the engine will give at limitation.
power is set. any time.
48. The primary purpose of a supercharger is to: Raise the temperature of Increase the mass of Improve the engine's Allow the use of high
the charge entering the the charge entering the exhaust scavenging octane fuel.
cylinder. cylinder. capability, and hence
increase its power
output.
49. An internal supercharger is one which: Is driven by exhaust Compresses the air. Compresses the Compresses the
gases. exhaust gases. mixture.
50. If the waste gate of a turbo-charged engine Engine power will be Engine power will rise Reducing back pressure Engine power will fall
seizes in the climb before critical altitude has automatically adjusted by approximately 10%. will compensate for any as the climb continues.
been reached: by the A.B.C. loss in power.
51. To prevent large acceleration loads on the Prohibit "slam" Incorporate a spring Rely on the inertia Use a Vernier drive
compressor and the drive shaft of an acceleration. drive mechanism in the absorbing qualities of coupling.
internal supercharger, it is usual to: driving gears. the exhaust gases.
52. The rotational speed of the turbo-charger of Between minimum and Maximum. Controlled by the A.B.C. Minimum.
an engine which is at full throttle at low maximum.
altitude is:
53. Maintaining a constant manifold pressure in The exhaust gas The waste gate to open. The waste gate to The diffuser rotational
a turbo-charged engine during the climb will temperature to decrease progressively close. speed to increase.
cause: due to a decrease in
exhaust back pressure.
54. Over boosting an engine fitted with a turbo- An automatic boost A manifold pressure A waste gate pressure A suck in flap.
charger is prevented by the installation of: control unit. gauge. controller.
55. A turbo-charger which is designed to An altitude-boosted A turbo-supercharger. An internal A ground boosted
maintain sea level pressure at altitude is turbo-charger. supercharger. turbo-charger.
termed:
56. With the power lever opened for take off Fully open. In a choked position. Partially open. Fully closed.
power at sea level, the throttle butterfly of
an engine fitted with an internal
supercharger would be:
57. "static Boost" is the manifold pressure The engine is stopped. The engine is running at The engine is running at The manifold gauge
indicated on the boost pressure gauge the manufacturer's its rated power. needle is opposite the
when: recommended idle lubber line.
speed.
58. The limit of the amount of supercharging Maximum R.P.M. is The engine is at its Maximum boost The engine starts to
that an engine can tolerate is reached when: reached. rated altitude. pressure is obtained. suffer from detonation.
59. The rotational speed of a turbo-charger is Engine R.P.M. and waste Engine R.P.M. only. Throttle position only. Propeller pitch and
dependant upon: gate position. altitude.
60. The inlet manifold pressure of a turbo- Increase to full throttle Increase to critical Remain constant to Decrease to critical
charged engine in an aircraft which is height and then fall. height and then remain critical altitude and then altitude and then
climbing will: constant. fall. remain constant.
61. The type of compressor normally used in a An axial compressor. A Rootes compressor. A centrifugal A reciprocating thrunge
supercharger is: compressor. compressor.
62. The compressor output pressure of an The same as manifold Greater than the sometimes greater, Less than the manifold
internal supercharger is: pressure manifold pressure. sometimes less than the pressure.
manifold pressure.
63. The position of the waste gate in a turbo- In the inlet manifold. Downstream of the In parallel with the In parallel with the
 charged engine is: turbine. turbine. compressor.
64. The maximum engine Brake Horse Power Maximum Power. Take Off Power. Critical Power. Rated Power.
with a specified R.P.M and manifold
pressure set which permits continuous safe
operation is termed:
65. The compressor output of a turbo-charger The same as the manifold Greater than the sometimes greater, Less than manifold
unit is: pressure. manifold pressure. sometimes less than the pressure.
manifold pressure.
66. Within the compressor of a turbo-charger: The pressure increases Both the pressure and Both the pressure and The pressure increases
and the temperature the temperature the temperature and the temperature
decreases. increase. decrease. remains constant.
67. The type of compressor normally fitted to Axially. Co-axially. In the diffuser only. Centrifugally.
turbo-chargers and superchargers would
compress the air:
68. If the waste gate of a turbo-charged engine Remain constant. Decrease. Increase. Initially increase and
seizes during the climb, the manifold then decrease.
pressure will:
69. To maintain the Rated Boost of a The throttle valve must The waste gate must be The waste gate must be The throttle valve must
supercharged engine while reducing the be opened. closed. opened. be closed.
R.P.M :
70. The effect of selecting Rated Boost, but less The Rated Altitude would The Full Throttle Height The Rated Altitude The Full Throttle Height
than Rated R.P.M on the climb, would be be lower. would be less. would be higher. would be higher.
that:
71. The Automatic Boost Control Unit operates: The Boost Control Lever. The waste gate. The throttle butterfly. The R.P.M. gauge and
the manifold pressure
gauge.
72. The boost pressure of a turbo-charged Adjusting the throttle Varying the speed of The A.B.C. Changing engine R.P.M.
engine is controlled by: position. the turbo-charger.
73. In a supercharger, the mixture: Enters through the eye of Enters at the periphery Enters through the Enters through the
the impeller and leaves and leaves through the turbine and leaves compressor and leaves
at the periphery. eye. through the through the turbine.
compressor.
74. The thrust horse power is related to forward THP = (ThrustxMPH)/350 THP = (ThrustxMPH)/3 THP = THP =
speed as:- 75 (ThrustxMPH)/550 (ThrustxMPH)/750
75. What is the preferred direction for aircraft Tail into wind. Nose into wind. 15` engine to be Facing towards the
parking prior to start-up? started on windward duty runway threshold
side. to enable easy taxi-out.
76. should over-priming cause a fire to start in Evacuate the aircraft and shut down the engine. Keep the engine select weak mixture on
the engine's carburettor during starting, make a "flash" call to the The fire will extinguish turning on the starter the mixture control and
what is the best immediate action? airport fire services. itself. motor and select "idle rapidly increase RPM.
cut-off'. The fire should
be drawn through the
engine.
77. When is the "Reference RPM" of an engine Before the first flight of During engine warm- By the engine's When the engine is
established? the day. up. manufacturer during first installed in an
"Type Testing". aircraft.
78. When is "static Boost" noted? Before engine start. Just after engine start, It is permanently It must be calculated
while warming up. marked on the boost from the airfield QNH.
gauge.
79. At what RPM is a Magneto "dead cut" check At ground warm-up At Reference RPM. At Take-off RPM. During the "Mag.
carried out? RPM. drop" check.
80. If, during a "Mag drop" check the engine Immediately switch to select the other The engine must be Decrease RPM to idle
cuts, what action must be taken? "Both" and recheck. magneto, increase RPM stopped. for no more than 1
to burn off the plug minute. Reselect
fouling and recheck. reference RPM and
recheck.
81. When cruising in a fixed-pitch propeller Decrease in RPM, Loss of Increase in manifold Increase in engine All of the above
equipped aircraft, what would be the airspeed and Loss of temperature, Decrease temperature, Loss of
symptoms of carburettor icing? altitude. in RPM and Increase in altitude and Increase in
RPM. RPM.
82. What is the main danger from using a weak Low cylinder head Low fuel pressure. Pre-ignition. Detonation.
mixture at a high power setting? temperature.
83. What are the most likely effects on an Engine over-speeding Engine overcooling and Engine overheating and High oil temperature
engine of a low power, high speed descent? and consequent damage. carburettor icing. oil cooler coring. and piston ring
gumming up.
84. What problem is prevented by the use of spark plug fouling. Oil cooler coring. Very high rate of piston Over high
the correct running down procedure? ring wear. temperatures on next
start-up.
85. What is the correct way to shut down an switch off both switch off the fuel Move the mixture Feather the propeller
engine? magnetos together. booster pump. control to ICO. when at idle RPM.
86. What are the two main symptoms of an Loss of power and a Gain in power and a Loss of power and a Gain in power and a
excessively rich mixture? drop in cylinder head drop in cylinder head rise in cylinder head rise in cylinder head
temperature. temperature. temperature. temperature.
87. When gases pass through a convergent duct Velocity and temperature Their velocity increases Their velocity decreases They expand
their: increase and their and their temperature and their temperature adiabatically.
pressure decreases. and pressure decrease. and pressure increase.
88. Select the correct order of best propulsive High by-pass ratio turbo Low by-pass ratio Pure turbojet, Turbo- Turbo-prop, High by-
efficiency, from low to high airspeed jet, Low by-pass ratio turbojet, Pure turbojet, prop, High by-pass ratio pass ratio turbojet, Low
turbojet, Pure turbojet, Turbo-prop, High by- turbojet, Low by-pass by-pass ratio turbojet,
Turbo-prop. pass ratio turbojet. ratio turbojet. Pure turbo jet.
89. The highest pressure in a gas turbine engine Between the compressor In the combustion In the jet pipe. At the P 1 probe.
occurs: and the combustion chamber.
chamber.
90. In a turbo-fan engine, the fan speed is A reduction gear. A waste gate. The turbine. Varying the pitch.
controlled by:
91. In a high ratio by-pass engine: All of the air goes Not all the air goes Not all the air goes All the air goes through
through both the low and through the high through the low the high pressure
high pressure pressure compressor. pressure compressor. compressor.
compressors.
92. Modular construction: Is only used on turbo- Cannot be used on high Has a weight saving Enables malfunctioning
prop engines. ratio engines. function. sections of the engine
to be changed without
changing the whole
engine.
93. Gas turbine engine efficiency increases with: An increase in volumetric An increase in ambient A decrease in ambient A decrease in ambient
efficiency. temperature. temperature. air pressure.
94. On a cold day, the idle speed of a gas Is unaffected by Will increase. Will decrease. Will increase by no
turbine engine which has no fuel control temperature. more than 4%.
 unit compensation:
95. The By-Pass Ratio of an engine is the ratio Primary air to tertiary air. Cold stream air to that Exhaust gas pressure to Primary air to
of: flowing through the hot air intake pressure. secondary air.
core of the engine.
96. The Gas Turbine Engine uses the principle Newton's Third Law of Creating thrust equal to Expelling air at the The fluid flywheel.
of: motion. the weight of the same speed as that of
aircraft. the aircraft.
97. The addition of heat in a combustion Large expansion at a Large expansion at a Large expansion at a Minimum expansion at
chamber allows a: substantially constant constant volume. decreasing static a constant volume.
pressure. pressure.
98. In a divergent duct: The pressure decreases The pressure, velocity The pressure The pressure
and the temperature and and temperature temperature increases decreases, the
velocity increases. increases. and the velocity temperature increases
decreases. and the velocity
remains constant.
99. In a twin spool engine: The L.P. compressor is The H.P. turbine is The L.P. turbine is The H.P. turbine is
connected to the H.P. connected to the L.P. connected to the L.P. connected to the L.P.
compressor. compressor, the L.P. compressor, the H.P. turbine, the H.P.
turbine is connected to turbine is connected to compressor is
the HP. compressor. the H.P. compressor. connected to the L.P.
compressor.
100. A By-Pass Ratio of 5:1 means that: 5 pounds of air is by- 5 pounds of goes 10 pounds of air goes 5 pounds of air is by-
passed for every 10 through the H.P. through the by-pass for passed for every 1
pounds entering the compressor for every 10 every 5 pounds that pound that goes
engine intake. pounds that enters the enters the intake. through the hot core of
intake. the engine.
101. Aft of the compressor: The velocity of the The velocity of the The velocity increases The air pressure
airflow remains the airflow decreases before before the combustion decreases before the
same. the combustion chamber. combustion chamber.
chamber.
102. The fan in a ducted fan engine, is driven by: The high pressure The rearmost turbine. The intermediate All of the above.
turbine. pressure turbine.
103. In a by-pass engine, the by-pass air: Increases the air mass Cools the combustion Reduces the air mass Increases the air mass
flow and therefore chamber and therefore flow and therefore flow and therefore
increases the propulsive increases the thermal increases the propulsive reduces the propulsive
efficiency. efficiency. efficiency. efficiency.
104. The majority of the thrust of a: Turbo-fan engine comes Turbo-prop engine Turbo-shaft engine Turbo-fan engine
from the turbine exhaust. comes from the turbine comes from the free comes from the by-
exhaust. power turbine exhaust. pass air.
105. A Pure Turbo-Jet engine gives: A small acceleration to a A large acceleration to a A small acceleration to A large acceleration to
large mass of air. large mass of air. a small mass of air. a small mass of air.
106. During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes Continuously. Once every revolution. Once every other Only during the start
place: revolution. cycle.
107. The net thrust of a gas turbine engine is Higher exhaust gas Higher air density High fuel flow Forward speed of the
lower than static thrust because of: velocity engine
108. Thrust produced by a turbine engine: increase with increase with decrease with decrease with
temperature and temperature and also temperature and temperature and also
decrease with pressure increase with pressure decrease with pressure increase with pressure
109. The propulsive efficiency of a gas turbine aircraft forward speed exhaust gas velocity ambient temperature both (a) and b) are
engine does not depend on: correct
110. The purpose of the holes in the combustion allow secondary cooling allow the primary to propagate the flame both (a) and b) are
chamber is to : air for mixing cooling air for initial from one can to other correct
ignition
111. The thrust of a turbine engine may increase aircraft forward motion the difference between less air density both (a) and b) are
during cruise because of: fitid ram recovery the exhaust gas velocity correct
and inlet air velocity is
decreased
112. The thrust of an engine is increased by water decreases air water increases air alcohol increases alcohol decreases
injecting water/methanol because:- density density freezing point freezing point
113. The propulsive efficiency of an aircraft flying 85.7% 75% 70% 87.5%
with a speed of 300 miles/hour and the jet
speed is 400 miles/hour will be:-
114. In a high by-pass engine with a `pitot' intake, same greater less 14.7psi
with the engine running and the brakes on,
what will P1 be in relation to PO?
115. A pitot intake forms a duct the fan to ensure convergent before divergent after slows divergent before speeds divergent before slows
that the airflow to and achieves a speeds up subsonic down subsonic pressure up sonic pressure drop down subsonic
pressure rise rise pressure rise
116. What effect will severe icing in the intake The axial velocity of the The axial velocity of the The axial velocity of the The axial velocity of
have on a high by-pass engine? air will increase with a air will decrease with a air will decrease with an the air will increase
reduction in the angle of reduction in the angle of increase in the angle with an increase in the
attack of the airflow with attack of the airflow that the resultant angle of attack of the
the compressor blades with the compressor airflow forms with the airflow with the
and a possible stall. blades and a possible compressor blades compressor blades and
stall. chord line and a possible a possible stall.
stall.
117. Which of the following would be classed as Only carry out engine Fit debris guards when Only do ground runs on Only do ground runs
prudent when carrying out Engine Ground runs with a tail wind running Tarmac on concrete
Runs?
118. With an `S' type intake, if the pilot selects The angle, which the The angle, which the The angle which the The angle, which the
max RPM while standing still, there is a relative airflow forms relative airflow forms relative airflow forms relative airflow forms
strong possibility that: with the compressor with the compressor with the compressor with the compressor
blades, will become too blades, will become too blades will become too blades, will become too
small, which will cause small, which will cause large, which will cause large, which will cause
the engine to stall and the engine to surge then the engine to stall and the engine to surge
surge. stall. surge. then stall.
119. Secondary air inlet doors are utilised: When an aircraft is in When the aircraft is When the rpm of the When the rpm of the
the cruise near its maximum IAS. engine is low while engine is high when
stationary. stationary.
120. What is the purpose of the supersonic Final reduction in Interim reduction in Interim reduction in Increase in velocity
diffuser in the variable throat intake? velocity prior to velocity to below Mach velocity to below Mach prior to compressor
compressor face. 1 prior to a further .5 prior to a further face.
reduction in the reduction in the
subsonic diffuser. subsonic diffuser.
121. The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a turbulent free face low turbulent face low turbulent free rear low turbulent free face
relatively supply of air to the of the pressure pressure pressure high pressure
compressor
122. The effect on EPR with an iced up P1 probe EPR would decrease. No change. EPR would momentarily EPR would increase.
 with the RPM of the engine increasing decrease then increase.
123. The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine Equal to the number of The ratio between The ratio between Never greater than 5
compressor is: compression stages. compressor outlet and exhaust inlet and to 1.
compressor inlet exhaust outlet pressure.
pressure.
124. The compressor idling speed of a gas turbine At higher ambient With higher than sea At altitudes lower than At lower ambient
engine will increase: temperature. level density. sea level. temperature.
125. One stage of an axial flow compressor One rotor assembly and One stator assembly One rotor and one One impeller and one
consists of one row of stator vanes. and one row of guide impeller assembly. diffuser assembly.
vanes.
126. The pressure rise across each stage of an Greater than that of a Between 3 and 5 to Twice the inlet pressure. Between 1.1 and 1.2 to
axial flow compressor is: centrifugal compressor. one. one.
127. The ring of blades which sometimes precede The first stage stator The inlet guides vanes. First stage diffuser Nozzle guide vanes.
the first rotor stage of an axial flow blades. blades.
compressor are called:
128. As air passes through an axial flow The impeller and the The rotor blades only. Both the rotor blades The stator vanes only.
compressor, a pressure rise takes place in: diffuser. and the stator vanes.
129. In the event of a surge occurring the correct To close the throttle To close the throttle To open the throttle To close the LP fuel
action to be taken is: quickly. slowly. fully. valve.
130. Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed to: Prevent tip turbulence. Ensure adequate Minimise vibration. Prevent tip losses.
cooling.
131. The cross sectional area of the air annulus is To maintain the volume To prevent an increase To maintain the speed To allow longer blades
reduced as it approaches the combustion of the air under rising of the velocity of the air of the air entering the to be used in the latter
chamber: pressure. under rising pressure. engine. stages of the
compressor.
132. The attachment of blades to the compressor Allows slight movement Is rigid. Prevents them being Allows slight
disc: to relieve stress contaminated by the movement because of
concentration. atmosphere. the different expansion
rates of the blades and
the disc which would
otherwise cause center
line closure.
133. Compressor blades are designed to produce: A given pressure and A constant flow over A steady velocity with a Turbulent flow into the
velocity rise. the engine speed range. pressure rise over the combustion chamber.
engine speed range.
134. A compressor blade will stall when: The air axial velocity and The mass air flow and The speed of the gas The compression ratio
rotational speed speed relationship is flow through the turbine exceeds 10 to 1.
relationship is disturbed. constant. falls below 0.4 Mach.
135. Compressor surge will occur when: All stages are at All stages are at There is a partial All stages have stalled.
maximum efficiency. maximum RPM. breakdown of airflow
through the
compressor.
136. Cascade vanes are fitted in which part of the The air inlet The outlet elbow The impeller The diffuser
centrifugal compressor?
137. The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a Increase the charge Convert pressure Increase the air velocity. Convert kinetic energy
centrifugal compressor is to: temperature. energy into kinetic into pressure energy.
energy.
138. The pressure rise across a centrifugal Occurs in the impeller Occurs in the diffuser Is shared almost equally Is always greater in the
compressor: only. only. by the impeller and the diffuser than in the
diffuser. impeller.
139. To gain a greater pressure ratio than 4:1: Two centrifugal The compressor The cascade vanes must Two centrifugal
compressors can be diameter must be be convergent. compressors can be
placed in parallel. reduced. placed in series with
each other.
140. The major disadvantage of a centrifugal It cannot cope with a It cannot be used for a A larger turbine must be It is more prone to
compressor is that: large mass flow of air. turbojet engine. used. damage than the axial
flow compressor
141. The purpose of cascade vanes is to: Increase the velocity of Turn the air smoothly Remove swirl from the Swirl the air, ready for
the airflow prior to it through 90 degrees and airflow. the next compression
entering the combustion complete diffusion. stage.
chambers.
142. The type of compressor used to create radial Positive displacement. Axial. Centrifugal. Constant volume.
airflow would be:
143. Under ideal conditions the pressure rise 1.1 or 1.2 to 1. Not more than 4 to 1. 1.5 to 1. 30 to 1.
across a centrifugal compressor can be:
144. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is Dynamically balanced. More robust and is Unaffected by Able to handle a larger
that it is: easier to develop and turbulence. mass of air than an
manufacture. axial flow compressor.
145. A compressor stall causes: The vibration level to An increase in the The rotation of the The airflow through
increase with a decrease turbine gas temperature engine to stop suddenly. the engine to stop
in the turbine gas and the vibration level. suddenly.
temperature.
146. Air passing through a convergent duct A decrease in An increase in An increase in Adiabatic expansion.
experiences: temperature and temperature and temperature and
pressure with an increase velocity with a decrease pressure with a velocity
in velocity. in pressure. decrease.
147. Fuel is regulated on rapid engine To prevent detonation in Because the rapid Because the cooling To prevent inducing a
acceleration: the combustion response of the effect of too much fuel compressor stall and
chambers. compressor might cause would cause a drop in surge.
a flame out. pressure in the
combustion chamber.
148. A compressor stall: Is overcome by Is a complete May only affect one Is mechanical failure of
increasing the fuel flow. breakdown of the stage or several stages the compressor.
airflow through the of a compressor.
compressor.
149. Compressor blades increase in size: From the root to the tip From the high pressure From the low-pressure From the tip to the
to increase the section of the section of the root to decrease the
temperature. compressor to the low- compressor to the high- temperature.
pressure section. pressure section to
maintain a constant
airflow velocity.
150. The occurrence of compressor stalls is Bleed valves. Nozzle guide vanes. Swirl vanes. Cascade vanes.
limited by:
151. Bleed valves are automatically opened: At maximum R.P.M. to At low R.P.M. to During engine At low engine RRM to
prevent compressor stall. prevent the turbine acceleration to prevent prevent the
stalling. turbine surge. compressor stalling.
152. To prevent compressor stall at the rear of At the rear stages of the At the front stages of At the mid stages of the At the intake of the
the compressor, bleed valves must be compressor. the compressor. compressor. engine.
 positioned:
153. A complete breakdown of airflow through a Compressor turbulence. Compressor buffet. Compressor surge. Compressor seizure.
compressor is known as:
154. One indication that a compressor bleed Possible compressor An inability to achieve That bleed air is That the engine will
valve has stuck closed at low R P M is: stall. full power. reduced. stop.
155. Within the compressor: Bleed valves are set to Pressure decreases. Temperature decreases. Temperature
open at high R.P.M. increases.
156. Bleeding compressor air for anti-icing will An increase in T.G.T., a A decrease in T.G.T., an An increase in R.P.M. An increase in R.P.M.
cause: decrease in thrust and an increase in thrust and a and fuel flow. and a decrease in fuel
increase in S.F.C. decrease in S.F.C. flow.
157. Variable inlet guide vanes: Deflect air past the Prevent compressor Deflect air past the Induce air into a
compressor. stall. turbine. centrifugal compressor.
158. Compressor blades are twisted from root to To decrease the To maintain a correct To reduce the relative To give added rigidity
tip: pressure. angle of attack. airflow. to the blade structure.
159. In a compressor: The air temperature is The air temperature The drop in air The air temperature
steady with a pressure falls with a pressure rise. temperature is inversely rises with a pressure
rise. proportional to the rise.
pressure rise.
160. A stall in a gas turbine engine is most likely High Front High Back Low Back Low Front
to occur with :Pressure Ratio Location in
Compressor
161. Contamination of the compressor: Is not likely to prove a Will not decrease the Can seriously reduce the Can be reduced by
problem if the aircraft is performance of the efficiency of the engine. periodically flying
not flown at low level engine if the fuel through
over the sea. sulphur content does thunderstorms.
not exceed.001 %.
162. The low pressure compressor of a high ratio Is driven by the high Rotates faster than the Is always a centrifugal Is driven by the
by-pass engine: pressure turbine. high-pressure compressor. rearmost turbine.
compressor.
163. The high pressure compressor surge can be variable inlet guide vane variable nozzle guide increasing rpm ' increasing air flow
prevented by:- vane
164. The pressure energy of air flow through a converted to kinetic converted to heat unchanged at nozzle increased at nozzle
 gas turbine engine will be:- energy at nozzle guide energy at nozzle guide guide vanes guide vanes
vanes vanes
165. The axial flow compressor surge may be twin spool arrangement single spool fan bypass all the above are
prevented by arrangement arrangement correct
166. The disadvantage of an axial flow high Starting power is less expensive and light weight large frontal area
compressor is:- required complex
167. An axial flow compressor engine may stall:- during acceleration at high rpm at low rpm all the above are
correct
168. The purpose of the inlet guide vanes in to increase the pressure to circulate hot air to increase the none of the above is
front of the compressor is :- of the gases before through IGV to prevent pressure of the gases correct
entering the compressor ice formation and direct it to the face
of the compressor.
169. The passage through the impeller vanes of a convergent divergent parallel convergent divergent
centrifugal compressor is>
170. The principle of operation of a compressor decreasing, incoming air imparting KE to the imparting KE of all the above are
of turbine engine is:- velocity to increase incoming air then incoming air correct
change to pressure
energy
171. The ratio of air to kerosene to give the 45 : 1. 130: 1. 12.5: 1. 15 : 1.
greatest heat release during combustion is:
172. One advantage of an annular combustion The diameter of the There is unrestricted There are no flame The air casing area is
chamber system is that: engine is reduced. airflow at maximum propagation problems. greater.
r.p.m.
173. Of the total airflow entering the combustion 10% 40% 20% 60%
chamber the percentage that is mixed with
the fuel and burnt is:
174. The combustion chamber drain valve is By combustion chamber By a return spring. By 12th stage During a blow out
closed: gas pressure. compressor air pressure. cycle.
175. A cannular combustion system is: A set of flame tubes, A set of flame tubes One common flame Superior to the
each of which is mounted enclosed in a common tube enclosed in a annular system
in a separate air casing. air casing. common air casing. because it only
requires one igniter.
176. It is necessary to have a combustion drain To prevent pressure To allow moisture To allow any unburnt To prevent the igniters
system: build up in the content in the fuel to fuel to drain after shut becoming wetted by
combustion chamber. drain away. down or a wet start. excess fuel.
177. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created Reduce the gas Form a toroidal vortex, Reduce the gas Ensure complete
in the combustion chamber is to: temperature and cool which anchors and temperature and cool combustion of the fuel.
the flame tube. stabilises the flame. the burner head.
178. A re-light envelope: Shows the flame stability Shows airspeed and Shows fuel / air mixture Contains the in flight
limits. altitude limitations for limitations for an in- re-start igniter plugs.
an in-flight restart. flight restart.
179. Swirl vanes in the combustion chamber: Increase the velocity of Reduce the velocity of Prevent compressor Help to stabilize
the airflow. the airflow. stall. combustion.
180. The air entering the combustion chamber is Is syphoned off for Is used only for cooling Is used to reduce the oil Is used to cool both
divided; a small percentage is used in airframe anti-icing the gases before they temperature and cool the gases exiting the
combustion, the rest: purposes. exit the combustion the turbine blades. chamber and the walls
chamber. of the air casing.
181. The can type combustion chamber have the less length and less less structural strength less stable flame more temperature and
disadvantage of:- engine diameter pressure loss
182. One of the following statement is not true carbon formation must there must be all air passing through there must be high
for requirement of the combustion chamber be kept to a minimum minimum loss of the take part in combustion efficiency
:- temperature and combustion
pressure throughout the
chamber
183. Mostly the combustion section is provided safety, in case of one efficient ignition by better burning of the both (a) and (b) are
with two sparking plugs for : sparking plug goes both the plugs at a time mixture in the correct
unserviceable combustion chamber
184. The effect on the temperature and pressure Their temperature Both their temperature Both their temperature Their temperature
of the gases as they pass across the turbine decreases and their and pressure increase. and pressure decrease. increases and their
is: pressure rises. pressure falls.
185. Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before the To increase the velocity To decrease the To increase the velocity To increase the
turbine: of the airflow. velocity of the gas flow of the gas flow temperature of the gas
therefore increasing its therefore reducing its flow.
pressure. pressure.
186. One reason for shrouding turbine blades is: To reduce "creep" which To improve efficiency To enable thinner To minimise blade end
 may occur in the blades. and reduce vibration. blades to be used. erosion.
187. The blades are usually attached to the By the action of By thermal expansion By blade compression By torque loading and
turbine disc by a "Fir Tree" root A tight fit is centrifugal force. of the disc. loads and thermal thermal expansion.
ensured during operation: expansion.
188. The main contributory factors which cause High temperature and High rpm and torque High rpm and high gas High temperature and
creep in turbine blades are: tensile loading. loading. speeds. high gas speeds.
189. A free power turbine: Has a clutch between Has no mechanical Has a direct drive with a Comes free with every
the compressor and the connection with the free wheel unit. 2,000 gallons of
power output shaft. other turbine or AVTUR.
compressor shafts.
190. The mixture of impulse and reaction blade The inner half is impulse The inner half is The leading edge is The trailing edge is
shape in the average turbine blade is such and the outer half is reaction and the outer reaction and the trailing reaction and the
that: reaction. half is impulse. edge is impulse. leading edge is
impulse.
191. Blade creep is: Movement of the Temporary expansion Temporary elongation Permanent elongation
turbine blades around due to temperature due to centrifugal due to heat and
the turbine disc. change. forces. centrifugal force.
192. The net operating temperature of a gas The materials from The amount of fuel The ability of the The materials from
turbine engine is limited by: which the combustion which can be fed into compressor to pass which the nozzle guide
chamber is constructed. the combustion sufficient air rearwards. vanes and the turbine
chamber. blades are constructed.
193. The impulse-reaction blade is twisted along There is a greater angle The gas flow is The gas does equal work The gas flow is
its length so that: at the base than at the accelerated through the along the whole of its decelerated through
tip. turbine. length. the nozzle guide vanes.
194. The velocity of the gases in the exhaust unit 0.5 Mach to minimise 0.75 Mach to optimise 0.85 Mach to maximise Mach 1 to maximise
is held to: turbulence. the pressure thrust. acceleration.
distribution.
195. The exhaust cone: Straightens the gas flow Prevents the hot gases Increases the velocity of Decreases the
before it goes into the flowing across the rear the gases. pressure of the gas.
turbine assembly. turbine face.
196. The propelling nozzle is designed to: Increase the velocity and Decrease the velocity To increase the velocity To decrease the
decrease the pressure of and increase the and the pressure of the velocity and the
the gas stream. pressure of the gas gas stream. pressure of the gas
 stream. stream.
197. A nozzle is said to be "choked" when: The gas flow through it is The gas flow through it The gas temperature The gas flow through it
subsonic. reaches its sonic value. rises. is supersonic.
198. A choked nozzle: Decreases thrust. Gives additional Has no effect on thrust. Implies that no further
pressure without the increase in velocity can
addition of heat. be obtained without
the increase of heat.
199. The exhaust gasses pass to atmosphere via Is a convergent duct, Converts kinetic energy Is a divergent duct, thus Is a divergent nozzle,
the propelling nozzle which: thus it increases the gas into pressure energy. it increases the gas thus it increases the
velocity. velocity. gas pressure.
200. The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe Heat insulation A cooling air jacket. A combination of Semi-conducting
by: materials. cooling air and geodetic structures.
insulating material.
201. The noise from a high ratio by-pass engine: Is created mainly in the Is high in the exhaust Is predominantly from Is greater than that
exhaust section. section because of the the fan and the turbine. from a turbo-jet engine
high velocity gas flow. of comparable power
output.
202. The shape of the volume within the jet pipe Is convergent to Is divergent to Is convergent to Is divergent to reduce
casing immediately to the rear of the accelerate the gases accelerate the gases increase the pressure of the velocity of the
turbine: towards the propelling away from the turbine the gases in the jet gases leaving the
nozzle. blades. pipes. turbine.
203. The turbine rear support struts: Add swirl to the gases Prevent the hot gases Allow entry of the by- Straighten out any
before they travel down flowing across the rear pass air into the exhaust residual whirl in the gas
the jet pipe. face of the rear turbine system. stream.
bearing.
204. An exhaust nozzle is said to be choked when Mach.5. Below Mach 1. At Mach 1. Above Mach 1.
the velocity at the throat is:
205. If the length of the exhaust nozzle is too gas velocity will be it will create laminar frictional loss will be all the above are
large: insufficient boundary layer more correct
206. If the diameter of the exhaust nozzle is too choking increased gas velocity increased back all the above are
small the result will be: pressure through the correct
engine
207. The purpose of the exhaust system in a gas increase the gas provide the resultant pass the turbine both b) and (c) are
turbine engine is to:- temperature thrust by decreasing jet discharge gases to correct
velocity atmosphere
208. Use of reverse thrust below the Over stressing of the gear Ingestion of the exhaust More fuel to be The T.G.T. limit to be
recommended speed may cause: oleos. gases and foreign provided to the burners. exceeded, in which
objects. case the reverse thrust
lever will return to the
forward thrust
position.
209. A big fan engine gets reverse thrust by: Reversing the direction Deflecting the exhaust Blocking the by-pass air. Reversing the hot
of rotation of the gases. stream gases.
compressor.
210. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the Pulled back to idle Positioned to reverse Put back to the reverser Positioned to reverse
forward thrust lever must be: power. minimum power. deploy position. maximum power.
211. An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust Direct the gas flow Block the flow of Absorb any change in Change the direction of
reversal to: rearwards. exhaust gas. thrust. the exhaust gas.
212. A Reverse Thrust Warning Light illuminates: Only when the reverser When the reverser When the reverser Whenever reverse
doors are fully deployed doors are stowed in the doors are not stowed in thrust is selected.
in the reverse thrust forward thrust position. the forward thrust
position. position.
213. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, Forward thrust from the Forward thrust from Reverse thrust from the TGT will increase.
with an increase in RPM, which of the hot gases would the hot gases would blocked air would
following statements would be incorrect? increase. decrease. increase.
214. EPR is a Ratio between ambient Ratio between Ratio between intake Ratio between
pressure and exhaust ambient pressure and pressure and exhaust pressure and
pressure. fan pressure. compressor delivery intake pressure.
pressure.
215. In a high by pass engine whose fan max rpm 25% take off thrust. 50% take off thrust 5% take off thrust 15% take off thrust.
is 20000rpm, when turning at 5000rpm will
develop approx
216. With an increase in altitude which of the Temperature and Fuel consumption will Fuel consumption will Temperature and
following statements are correct for a jet pressure reduce with a increase and Specific decrease and Specific pressure will reduce,
aircraft with constant engine speed for a resulting drop in thrust fuel consumption stays fuel consumption will resulting in an increase
 fixed throttle setting? and Fuel consumption relatively the same. increase. in thrust.
will decrease.
217. The maximum thrust that a jet engine can Take off thrust. Go around thrust. Max climb thrust. Max Static Thrust.
develop will be:
218. As temperature ________air density decreases decreases increases decreases decreases increases increases decreases
________and the mass of air for given increases increases less decreases increases increasesincreases more increases decreases
engine speed ____therefore slow down more slow down slow down less speed up
thrust________. To maintain the
compressor speed however _______fuel
must be added or the compressor will
_________.
219. From a standing start with an increase in increase. stay the same. decrease. decrease then recover
forward speed jet thrust will: but will never achieve
its initial setting.
220. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial increase shaft horse- decrease shaft horse- decrease shaft horse- decrease shaft horse-
flow compressor while climbing it will power increase jet thrust power decrease jet power increase jet power decrease jet
experience: increase fuel thrust decrease fuel thrust decrease fuel thrust increase fuel
consumption consumption consumption consumption
221. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial Increase shaft horse- Decrease shaft horse- Decrease shaft horse- Increase shaft horse-
flow compressor while increasing forward power increase jet thrust power decrease jet power increase jet power decrease jet
speed,it will experience: thrust thrust thrust
222. On a part throttled engine, take off thrust Later than normal due Later than normal due Earlier than normal. Later than normal due
would be achieved: to pressure in the to the EPR being low. to the EPR being high.
compressor being low.
223. In a gas turbine engine: Ram pressure is Ram pressure is Thrust is unaffected by Thrust is maximum
maximum at the start of unaffected by airspeed. the aircraft's forward and ram pressure at
the take off run. speed. minimum at the start
of the take off run.
224. The reason of noise of jet engines is:- mixing of hot exhaust mixing of high velocity Both (a) and (b) are High velocity of the
with colder ambient air air with ambient air correct aircraft
225. The higher ram pressure will:- decrease the thrust by decrease the turbine increase the decrease the thrust by
putting more load on efficiency compressor efficiency increasing compressor
compressor efficiency
226. When after burning the jet pipe will: Close to allow for the Open to allow for the Remain the same Remain the same until
decreased volume of gas increased volume of gas. the temperature
reaches 1700°C then
open.
227. When does the variable nozzle open? When the exhaust Automatic when after Automatic on take off. Automatic when
temperature reaches burning selected. approaching Mach l.
1700°C
228. When leaving the turbine the gas stream: Increases velocity Is diffused to ensure Goes through a Goes through a
immediately to maximise the afterburning flame is convergent duct to divergent duct to
thrust. stabilised. ensure the after-burning maximise thrust.
flame is stabilised.
229. Which of the following statements are Fuel consumption Fuel consumption Thrust decreases , Fuel EGT increases,
correct with regard to after-burning? increases, Pressure decreases, Thrust consumption increases, Pressure thrust
thrust decreases , Thrust increases, Pressure Pressure thrust increases, Thrust
increases, EGT increases thrust increases, EGT increases, EGT increases , Fuel
increases decreases consumption increases
230. On a turbojet aircraft which of the following Power can be restored Power can be restored Power can be restored Power can be
statements would be correct with the up to its flat rated 100% up to its flat rated 100% up to its flat rated 100% augmented above
introduction of a water into the combustion only, and is prevented only, due to a pressure only, due to a pressure 100% due to the
chamber? from exceeding its sensor at the sensor in the exhaust. denser mixture
limitations due to a combustion chamber impinging on the
pressure sensor at the outlet. turbine, which
high pressure outlet. consequently drives
the compressor
quicker.
231. In a turboprop aircraft with water methanol SHP can be re- SHP can be increased SHP can be increased SHP can be increased
injection in the combustion chamber, which established up to 100% beyond 100% by beyond 100% by beyond 100% by
of the following statements would be only, when operating in maintaining the RPM increasing RPM and maintaining RPM and
correct? warmer climates. and increasing the blade decreasing the blade decreasing the blade
angle. angle. angle
232. Water Methanol is injected into an engine A substantial power A substantial power A substantial power An increase in power
so that the combustion chamber inlet decrease. increase with no increase which is due output solely due to
temperature is reduced and there is: increase in fuel flow. solely to the combustion the increased fuel flow,
 of methanol. since methanol does
not burn.
233. When methanol is added to a water It is an important source It is an anti-freeze. It is an important source The temperature of
injection system: of fuel. of fuel and an anti- combustion remains
freeze. the same.
234. Water injection is used for take off: To cool the combustion To cool the turbine Only at high altitude At airfields with an
chambers. blades. airfields where the ambient temperature
prevailing temperature above 30°F
is high.
235. An inter-stage air seal is used where: Engine sections are Engine sections are It is more convenient. It is difficult to obtain
operating at different subjected to pressures access during routine
pressures. of the same value. servicing.
236. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would The oil temperature to The EGT to be closely The engine power to be The engine to be shut
necessitate: be closely monitored. monitored. reduced to idle. down.
237. Turbine blades are cooled by: H.P. compressor air H.P. air tapped from Air ducted from just Intermediate pressure
internally ducted through the combustion before the intake guide air taken from the
the blades. chambers. vanes. bleed valves.
238. Bleed air for engine anti-icing is provided by: The bleed valves. The turbine stages. The compressor. The combustion
chambers.
239. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal The fuel pressure. Compressor bleed air The engine compression The engine oil
depends on its mechanical design and: pressure. ratio. pressure.
240. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect decrease fuel decrease specific fuel increase specific fuel specific fuel
of selecting `on' while maintaining thrust consumption. consumption. consumption. consumption will
will: remain the same.
241. Which of the following ice removal methods Hot air. Rubber boots. Electrical thermal FPD freezing point
does a modern jet aircraft normally utilize? blankets. depressant fluid.
242. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect EGT will decrease. EGT will increase. EGT will remain the The ratio between
of selecting `on' will have what effect? same. exhaust pressure and
intake pressure will
increase.
243. The air obtained from the engine for air high pressure low high pressure high low pressure low low pressure high
conditioning is essentially: volume volume volume volume
244. The effect of modifying a Gas Turbine engine Increase in specific fuel Decrease in specific fuel Decrease in RPM. Increase in EGT.
to include one further hydraulic pump will consumption. consumption.
result in:
245. The drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps is LP fan. Intermediate HP compressor. HP turbine
normally taken from compressor.
246. The low energy ignition system would be Only for starting the During take off from For re-light at high During a blow out
used: engine on the ground. wet runways. altitude. (motoring over) cycle.
247. A typical APU can provide: Air for air conditioning Air for engine starting. Electrical power for All of the above.
on the ground. ground or in flight use.
248. The advantage of an air starter system is It is safer in operation It is light, simple and It provides a more rapid It is totally self
that: than other systems, and economical. start. contained and needs
no fire risk. no external source of
power.
249. A "Hung Start" is indicated by: high E.G.T. - high fuel low E.G.T. - idle fuel low E.G.T. - high fuel high E.G.T. - idle fuel
flow - low R.P.M. flow - low R.P.M. flow - high R.P.M. flow - low R.P.M.
250. If a gas turbine engine fails to light up within It must be motored over The fuel system must No further attempt to It must be motored
the specified time: with the H.P. fuel cock be drained. start may be made until over with the H.P. fuel
shut. the fuel has evaporated. cock shut and no
igniters selected.
251. A Re-light is: The action of re-starting What occurs when the The initiation of the What must be
a flamed out engine, engine drain valve is after-burning system. prevented after a "wet
usually while airborne. stuck open. start".
252. Precautionary use of igniters may be Flight through heavy Ground running. Flight through sandy Flight through very dry
necessary during: tropical rainstorm. conditions. air.
253. A "Hung Start" occurs when: The engine accelerates The engine stabilises The engine lights up but There is a double
but does not light up. above self sustaining does not accelerate to igniter failure.
speed. self sustaining speed.
254. After engine start, the engine igniters are An electric interlock A speed switch. The time switch. Centrifugal force.
normally deactivated by: system.
255. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by: The failure of the engine Low R.P.M. fuel flow T.G.T. increasing but no No R.P.M. and no
to turn and no T.G.T. indication, and no T.G.T. R.P.M. T.G.T.
256. The term "Self Sustaining Speed" means The aircraft can roll The speed from which The engine will run The speed from which
that: forward with no further the engine can independently of the engine can
 opening of the throttles. accelerate to full power external help. accelerate to idle
within 5 seconds. without the help of the
starter motor.
257. A high energy ignition system works on the Obtaining power from a Magneto static Fleming's Right Hand Obtaining energy from
principle of: step up transformer from induction. Rule. the discharge of a
the aircraft's A.C. power capacitor.
system.
258. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut The compressor must be The Low-Pressure The Low Pressure fuel The Low Pressure
off valve during the engine start: turning at the correct compressor must be cock must be shut. compressor must be
RPM in the right stationary. rotating faster than the
direction. High-Pressure
compressor.
259. A gas turbine engine which has both high Engine starting High High altitude relighting Take off from snowy Take off from flooded
and low energy ignition systems uses the altitude relighting Take off from runways Engine start runways Take off from
high energy system for (i), and the low contaminated runways snowy runways.
energy system for (ii):(i) (ii)
260. The air supply to operate an air starter An external installation. storage bottles carried The auxiliary power A cross bleed start.
usually comes from: in the aircraft. unit.
261. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the discharge Allow sufficient energy Protects the unit from Allow the capacitor to Prolong the discharge.
resistors: to be stored in the excessive voltages. discharge when the unit
capacitor to provide re- is switched off.
light facilities up to 55
000 ft.
262. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the choke: Protects the unit from Prolongs the discharge Prolongs the life of the Protects the unit from
excessive voltages. to the plug. igniter excessive current.
263. The rate of discharge of a High Energy 60 - 100 times per 4 discharges per 60 - 100 per second. Governed by the
Ignition Unit is: minute. revolution. resistance of the igniter
plug.
264. The air supply for an air start system is: At a relatively low Filtered to prevent Preheated to avoid icing At a high pressure but
pressure, but high damage to the starter in the starter nozzle low volume.
volume. motor. guide vanes.
265. The starter motor is disengaged from the As soon as the engine Just above self- At 26% H.P. R.P.M. Just below self-
engine start system: lights up. sustaining speed. sustaining speed.
266. The power supply for the spark in the low volts high current low volts low current high volts low current high volts high current
combustion chamber is:
267. In a twin spool engine self sustaining speed 60% N2 60% N1 30% N2 30% N1
is normally reached at:
268. In a twin spool engine the typical idle 60% N2 25%N1 25% N2 60%N 1 40% N2 30% N 1 80% N2 45% N1
speeds are:
269. The sequence of starting of a gas turbine fuel, ignition and ignition, fuel and compressor rotation, compressor rotation,
engine is:- compressor rotation compressor rotation ignition and fuel fuel and ignition
270. A starter motor is used during starting a gas adequate air mass to the adequate air mass in initial rotation to the All of the above
turbine engine to provide: combustion chamber the compressor engine
271. Which of the following statements would be APU's provide emergency APU's provide electrical, APU's provide APU's provide
more correct with regard to an APU? hydraulics power for the pneumatic and hydraulic electrical, pneumatic electrical, pneumatic
brakes only. power for ground use and hydraulic power for and hydraulic power
only. air use only and can for ground and air use
provide an amount of and can provide an
thrust. amount of thrust.
272. In the event of a fire in an APU: will need to be shut will shut down will shut down will need to be shut
down immediately. immediately. immediately and if the down immediately and
fire persists the fire the fire bottles will be
bottles will required to be fired
automatically be fired. immediately.
273. Which of the following would result in a 1236 1246 2356 2346
automatic shut down of an APU?
1) overspeed of compressor
2) over-temp of lubrication system
3) turbine over-temp
4) combustion chamber over-temp
5) Compressor outlet pressure exceeded
6) low pressure of lubricantion system
274. A Ram Air Turbine is used to provide: Emergency hydraulic Emergency hydraulic Emergency hydraulic Emergency hydraulic
power for the flaps and power for the power for the elevator, power for the brakes
slats only. undercarriage. rudder and ailerons along with possible
along with possible emergency electrical
 emergency electrical power.
power.
275. The power to start an APU comes from: Ground power unit. Aircraft main DC Aircraft main engine Aircraft main AC
battery. generator. battery.
276. With an increase in altitude the boiling point stay the same. Increase. Decrease. Increase up to FL80
of fuel will: then remain the same.
277. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are By air from the engine By air from the air By ram air to prevent By ram air to stabilise
pressurised: compressor to prevent conditioning system to cavitation. the boiling point.
cavitation. prevent cavitation.
278. Fuel is heated from which of the following? Air conditioning air. Air from the Air from the Bootstrap. Air from the turbine.
compressor.
279. Fuel is heated to: Prevent waxing. Ensure vapour losses Make it more viscous. Make it easier to flow
are minimised. under all conditions.
280. Fuel booster pumps are situated in: The fuel tanks. In the line between the Low pressure side of the High-pressure side of
main fuel tanks and the engine. the engine.
engine.
281. In a fuel cooled oil cooler the ----------- is fuel pressure higher oil oil pressure lower fuel fuel pressure same oil oil pressure higher fuel
maintained ------------ than the ----------------- pressure pressure pressure
282. In a high by pass engine fuel pumps are high pressure turbine. high pressure low pressure Intermediate
driven by: compressor. compressor. compressor.
283. The effect of the high pressure compressor Pressure sensor input to Pressure sensor input Pressure sensor input to Pressure sensor input
outlet pressure exceeding its maximum fuel control unit (FCU) to fuel control unit fuel control unit (FCU). to fuel control unit
value would be: FCU reduce fuel, reduce (FCU) FCU increase fuel, Bleed valve open, bleed (FCU). Bleed valve
RPM increase RPM off excess volume of air. open, bleed off excess
pressure.
284. Which of the following is a normal stopping LP shut off valve close. Fuel tank booster HP shut off valve close. Isolate electrics from
device for a gas turbine? pumps select off. engine.
285. Which of the following is a correct When an engine is When an engine is When the engine is shut When the engine is
statement? running, the combustion running, the combustion down the drains tank shut down, residual
chamber drain is closed chamber drains tank is closes to minimise fuel fuel is syphoned
by a pressure operated opened by a pressure losses. directly back to the fuel
NRV. operated NRV. tanks to minimise fuel
losses.
286. The fuel flow-meter is situated: Between LP pump and Between LP pump and Just after FCU. Between HP shut off
the FCOC. HP pump. valve and fuel nozzles.
287. An overheat in the turbine will result in: An electrical signal from An electrical signal Pilot observing overheat Pilot observing
the thermocouple sent from the thermocouple on temperature gauge overheat on
directly to the FCU and amplified then sent then subsequently temperature gauge
fuel being reduced. directly to the FCU and throttling back the then subsequently
fuel being reduced. engine, therefore increasing RPM to
reducing fuel. increase airflow, to
increase cooling air, to
decrease turbine
temperature.
288. Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster The engine would close The LP pump will draw The LP pump will draw The LP pump will draw
pumps feeding the engine cease to work: down immediately. fuel from the tank, but fuel from the tank, but fuel from the tank, but
there may be a there may be a there may be a
possibility of cavitation possibility of cavitation possibility of cavitation
due to the low pressure due to the low pressure due to the higher
and low boiling point of and higher boiling point pressure and higher
the fuel. of the fuel. boiling point of the
fuel.
289. The fuel cooled oil cooler: Heats the oil and cools Heats the fuel only. Cools the oil only. Heats the fuel and
the fuel. cools the oil.
290. The engine fuel system includes:- fuel tank LP fuel valve HP fuel valve all the above are
correct
291. In general a gas turbine engine fuel should:- have high flash point have less fire hazard have high calorific value all the above are
correct
292. Water in the fuel tanks is: Added with fuel when Is a consequence of Is a consequence of Is a consequence of
refueling. atmospheric air entering atmospheric air entering atmospheric air
the tanks through the the tanks through the entering the tanks
engine. vent system. through the feeder
box.
293. Water in the fuel tank is removed: Via a drain valve at the Via a drain tank at the Via a scoop at the top Every major servicing
lowest point in the tank. base of the engine. of the tank. only.
294. The flash point of Avtur is: -38.7°C 38.7°C 40°C 35°C
295. When using which of the following fuels can Avtur Jet B Wide cut Jet A1
refueling be carried out with passengers on
board?
296. A centrifugal breather is used on a gas To circulate the oil To minimise oil loss. To emulsify the oil and To allow oxidisation of
turbine engine: smoothly. air mixture for greater the oil.
viscosity.
297. A high oil temperature would indicate that: The oil pressure was The exhaust gas The oil filter was The air intake of the oil
high. temperature (E.G.T.) blocked. cooler was blocked.
was high.
298. Oil seals are pressurised: To ensure oil is forced To ensure minimum oil To ensure that the oil is To minimise heat loss
into the bearings. loss. prevented from leaving in the bearing housing.
the bearing housing.
299. In the event that damage occurs to the A pressure-maintaining The fuel pressure is A differential pressure The oil by-pass valve
matrix of the fuel cooled oil cooler: valve ensures that the oil always kept higher than switch will illuminate a will prevent a complete
pressure is always higher the oil pressure to light in the cockpit. loss of oil pressure.
than the fuel pressure. ensure that the fuel will
leak into the oil system.
300. The bearing chambers of a gas turbine Via the auxiliary gear Via the centrifugal Via the air seals, into the To prevent oil loss.
engine are vented: box drive. breather. gas stream.
301. The main bearings in an axial flow gas Compressor by-pass air. Air at intake pressure . Air from an Gas from the second
turbine engine are normally pressuised by: intermediate stage of stage turbine section.
the compressor.
302. Magnetic Chip Detectors are fitted in the To facilitate early To facilitate early To provide a warning of To prevent a build up
engine: detection of cracks in the warning of cracks in the impending failure in the of starch in the
compressor blades. turbine blades. engine bearings. scavenge oil filter.
303. An inter-stage air seal is used where: Engine sections are Engine sections are It is more convenient. It is difficult to obtain
operating at different subjected to pressures access during routine
pressures. of the same value. servicing.
304. If engine run down time is short, coupled Compressor blade rub. Incorrect relief valve Excessive sealing air Bearing chamber
with high oil consumption, the most setting. pressure. labryinth seal rubbing.
probable cause is:
305. Gas turbines use for lubrication: Mineral oil with Mineral oil straight. Multi-grade 20/50. synthetic oil.
additives (compound).
306. For a pressure relief lubricating system, The flow and pressure The pressure relief The pressure remains The relief valve opens
select the correct statement: change with engine valve is fitted in series the same for all engine when pressure has
speed. with the pump. operating parameters. reached the required
pressure. Any excess
flow is returned by a
dedicated line to the
base of the engine for
scavenging.
307. If the engine oil pump ceases to function the Will continue to operate should be shut down. Will be unaffected should be monitored
engine: at a lower RPM because because the scavenge for a period of time to
the engine will be able to pumps have a larger record oil temperature.
suck the oil from the operating capacity than
reservoir and be the pressure pumps and
sufficiently lubricated. will ensure the engine is
lubricated sufficiently.
308. In a Gas Turbine engine oil temperature is As it leaves the fuel Before entering the Immediately after In the engine.
measured: cooled oil cooler (FCOC). engine. leaving the engine.
309. In a Gas Turbine engine oil pressure is In the engine. In the return line. After the pressure In the FCOC to ensure
measured: pump. oil pressure is always
above fuel pressure.
310. The magnetic chip detectors are fitted in: The pressure line suction line between Return line between the Return line after the
between the pressure the reservoir and the engine and the scavenge FCOC.
pump and the engine. pressure pump. pump.
311. Gas Turbines use: Wet sump and mineral Dry sump and synthetic Wet sump and synthetic Dry sump and mineral
oil. oil. oil. oil.
312. The Purpose of the lubricating system is to cool down the moving cleaning the moving reduce the friction all the above are
parts parts between two moving correct
parts
313. The temperature is sensed at the turbine for Thermocouple. Ballast resistor. Outside Air NTC resistor.
the EGT indication system by a: Temperature gauge.
314. The engine anti-icing system should be Above +10° C. -10° C and below when Below 0° C. +10°C and below when
selected when the temperature is: there is visible moisture there is visible
present. moisture present.
315. Spool down time or run down time is: The time taken for the The time taken for the The time taken for the The time take for the
engine to decelerate engine to stop after the engine to slow from full engine to run down to
from full power to flight H.P. fuel shut off valve is power to 30% power. ground idle from flight
idle. closed. idle.
316. The L P compressor of a twin spool engine Faster than the H.P. sometimes faster, slower than the H.P. At the same speed as
rotates: compressor. sometimes slower than compressor. the H.P. compressor.
the H.P. compressor.
317. Foreign matter: Never adheres to the Cannot adhere to the May adhere to the Will adhere to both
compressor blades. turbine blades because turbine blades and the turbine and
of the temperature and cause corrosion. compressor blades and
velocity of the gases can significantly impair
flowing over them. engine performance.
318. The idle fan speed of a high by-pass ratio Remain substantially the Vary with air density Be controlled by the Be proportional to air
engine with an uncompensated fuel system same, irrespective of air changes. barometric pressure density changes.
will: density changes. controller.
319. An A.P.U is: An Actuator Powered A constant speed, self- A source of standby self contained but with
Undercarriage. contained gas turbine power. a separate thrust
engine. selector.
320. The efficiency of a gas turbine engine will A decrease in ambient An increase in ambient An increase in ambient A decrease in ambient
increase with: air temperature. air pressure. air temperature. air pressure.
321. To alter the speed of rotation of a gas The amounts of fuel and The amounts of fuel The fuel flow only. The volume of the
turbine engine, the pilot adjusts: air by weight. and air by volume. airflow only.
322. The principle of operation of firewire is Positive coefficient of Positive coefficient of Positive coefficient of Positive coefficient of
impedance, negative resistance, negative inductance, negative capacitance, negative
coefficient of inductance coefficient of coefficient of coefficient of
capacitance impedance resistance
323. What type of fire extinguisher would be foam water dry powder sand
used on a propane fire
324. On what principle do smoke detectors work Resistance and Ionisation and Optical and ionisation Inductance and light
capacitance impedance diffraction
325. An ion detector detects smoke and fire smoke overheat light
326. If an artificial feel unit is fitted it would be In parallel with the In series with the In series with the In parallel with the
connected primary controls primary controls secondary controls secondary controls
327. In a twin jet fuel system what is the function Equally distribute the Prevent pump Feed fuel to the Control the amount of
of a feeder box fuel to each tank during cavitation volumetric top-off unit fuel remaining during
refueling fuel dumping
328. A twin jet aircraft would normally be Overwing refueling Suction refueling Open line refueling Pressure refueling
refueled by which of the following methods
329. The fuel tanks of a modern passenger Gravity Fuel is sucked in by the Fuel is pumped in by The VTO system
airliner are filled by aircraft pumps the fuel truck
330. The purpose of a refueling volumetric top To keep the feeder box To close the fuelling To close the surge To close the tank vent
off unit (VTO) is: full of fuel at all times valve when the tank is check valves in the system when the tank
full outboard tanks to keep is full
the tank full until the
centre tank fuel has
been used
331. Fuel tank booster pumps are: - Spur gear pumps - high Centrifugal pumps - Spur gear pumps - low Centrifugal pumps -
pressure high pressure pressure Low pressure
332. The advantage of a float type fuel gauging Reads fuel quantity by Compensates for Simple & measuring Simple & Reads fuel
system is mass & Compensates for variations of SG & Reads volume by varying quantity by mass
change of aircraft fuel quantity by mass resistance.
attitude
333. The function of the baffles in a fuel tank is To prevent movement of To prevent fuel surge To prevent pump Both `a’ & `b’ are
fuel to the wingtip (or sloshing) during cavitation correct
manoeuvring
334. A magneto is switched off by Open circuiting the Grounding the Open circuiting the Grounding the primary
primary circuit secondary circuit secondary circuit circuit
335. An impulse coupling in a magneto is Generate high voltage Increase the energy to Generate high voltage Allows a low energy
provided to and advance the spark the spark plug as the and retard the spark for value when
for starting RPM increases. starting `continuous ignition' is
selected
336. EPR is measured by the ratio of Turbine pressure to High pressure Low pressure exhaust pressure to
combustion chamber compressor inlet compressor inlet low pressure
inlet pressure pressure to exhaust pressure to high compressor inlet
pressure pressure compressor pressure
outlet pressure
337. Where is EGT measured In the jet pipe HP or LP turbine outlet HP compressor outlet Combustion chamber
338. In a bootstrap air conditioning system what goes through the goes through the goes through the goes through the
is the first thing the air does? primary heat exchanger, compressor, turbine, turbine, compressor and compressor, secondary
turbine and compressor secondary heat secondary heat heat exchanger,
exchanger exchanger turbine
339. How are the loads on an aircraft busbar are in series so that are in parallel so that are in parallel so that are in series so that
connected current reduces through voltage reduces through current reduces through voltage reduces
the busbar as loads are the busbar as loads are the busbar as loads are through the busbar as
switched off switched off switched off loads are switched off
340. In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid synthetic mineral mineral/alchohol vegetable
used
341. How are escape slides inflated Fed from bleed air Self contained gas bottle Hand pumped by cabin Using the oral inflation
system crew adaptor
342. The correct extinguisher to use on a brake foam dry powder CO2 water
fire would be
343. If a aircraft has a maximum seating One on the flight deck One on the flight deck Two on the flight deck One on the flight deck
configuration of less than 200 but more than only and one in the and one in the fwd and two in the
9 a crash axe or crowbar must be carried passenger cabin cargo hold passenger cabin
344. The passenger oxygen drop-down mask By a lanyard operated by Mechanically Electrically for chemical Manually by the cabin
stowage doors are released a barometric capsule oxygen generators and crew
pneumatically for
gaseous systems
345. In a centrifugal compressor The air enters the eye The air enters the The air enters the eye The air enters the
tangentially and leaves periphery axially and radially and leaves the impeller axially at the
the periphery axially leaves the eye tip tangentially eye and leaves at the
tangentially periphery tangentially.
346. What happens to pressure, temperature and Velocity increase, Velocity decrease, Velocity, pressure and Velocity, pressure and
velocity of the air in the diffuser of a pressure and pressure and temperature increase. temperature decrease.
centrifugal compressor temperature decrease. temperature increase.
347. The type of smoke detection system fitted optical and ionisation chemical electrical magnetic
to aircraft is
348. The flight deck warning on activation of an warning bell gear warning warning light and warning light
engine fire detection system is warning bell
349. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by Ram air in flight only Separate helium gas Air from Pneumatic Engine bleed air from
system system or bleed air turbine engine
supply system
350. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to allow the parking brake allow a reduced prevent over- prevent loss of system
to remain on overnight if pressure to the wheel pressurising the fluid if the pipeline to a
required brake system to avoid reservoir as altitude brake unit should
locking the wheels increases rupture
351. A shuttle valve will Allow the accumulator Reduce pump loading Automatically switch to Operate on a rising
to be emptied after when normal system a more appropriate pressure, higher than
engine shut down pressure is reached source of hydraulic the Full Flow relief
supply valve
352. In the event that an emergency decent The outward relief valve The outflow valve will The inward relief valve The safety valve will
causes the cabin pressure to decrease below will open close will open close
ambient pressure
353. The purpose of a ditching control valve is close the outflow valves open outflow valves to allow rapid to dump the toilet
depressurisation water after landing
354. In a bleed air anti icing system the areas that the whole of the wing wing leading edge slats wing leading edges and trailing edge flaps
are heated are and flaps slats
355. On a modern turbo prop aircraft the method fluid pneumatic boots electrical heater mats hot air bled from the
of anti-icing/de-icing the wings is ? engines
356. If an aircraft maximum operating altitude is The maximum positive The maximum positive The maximum number The maximum zero
limited by the pressure cabin, this limit is pressure differential at pressure differential at of pressurisation cycles fuel mass at maximum
due to maximum operating maximum cabin altitude pressure altitude
ceiling
357. An undercarriage leg is considered to be It is down The amber light is on Mechanically locked by The actuating cylinder
locked when: an 'over-centre' is at the end of its
mechanism travel
358. An underinflated tyre on a dry runway Increases wear on the Increases wear on the Increases viscous Will cause the tyre
shoulder crown aquaplaning speed temperature to reduce
359. Kreuger flaps are positioned Towards the wing tip At the wing inner Along the whole At the wing trailing
leading edge leading edge edge
360. What are flaperons Combined spoiler and Combined elevators Combined ailerons and Combined flap and
flap and flaps elevators ailerons
361. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons To reduce wing bending To reduce wing twist at To reduce wing Both `a’ `b’ are correct
at high speed high speed bending at low speed
362. What is the purpose of trim tabs To reduce stick forces in To reduce stick holding To increase control To reduce control
manoeuvres forces to zero effectiveness effectiveness
363. Smoke hoods protect full face and provide a mouth and nose and full face and provide mouth and nose and
continuous flow of provide a continuous oxygen on demand provide oxygen on
oxygen flow of oxygen demand
364. oxygen supplied to the flight deck is Gaseous, diluted with Chemically generated Gaseous, diluted with Chemically generated,
ambient air if required and diluted with cabin cabin /cockpit air if diluted with ambient
air if required required air if required
365. If during pressurised flight the outflow valve Skin will be overstressed Safety valve opens The inward relief valve ECS packs are
closes fully due to a fault in the pressure and could rupture. when the differential will open to prevent automatically closed
controller the: pressure reaches excessive negative down.
structural max diff differential.
366. In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is internal mass airflow external mass airflow internal mass airflow mass fuel flow divided
divided by external mass divided by internal mass divided by mass fuel by mass fuel flow
airflow airflow flow
367. The thrust reverser light illuminates on the Thrust reverser doors Thrust reverser doors Thrust reverser doors Thrust reverser doors
flight deck annunciator when the have moved to the have been selected but are locked are unlocked
reverse thrust position the doors haven't
moved
368. In a four stroke engine, when the piston is at Closed Closed Open Open Open Closed Closed Open
BDC at the end of the power stroke the
position of the valves is
Inlet Exhaust
369. What is the effect on EGT and EPR if a bleed Increase, increase Decrease, decrease Decrease, increase Increase, decrease
valve is opened
370. In a modern turbofan engine - where is fuel In the Fuel tank In LP fuel supply system In HP fuel supply Both b and c are
flow measured ? of Engine system of Engine correct
371. Where is torque measured in a turboprop Accessory gearbox Reduction gearbox At the turbine At the constant speed
engine unit oil pump
372. Propeller blade angle is The angle between the The angle between the Dependent upon RPM The difference
blade chord and the relative airflow and the and TAS between effective pitch
 plane of rotation chord and geometric pitch
373. Why is a propeller blade twisted To reduce the thrust at To prevent the blade To reduce the tip To even out the thrust
the root of the blade from fully feathering speed force along the length
of the blade
374. For calculating resistances in parallel the 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 - RT =R1 +R2 +R3 RT = R1xR2xR3 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 +
formula is 1/R3 1/R3
375. When a fuse operates it ------------- is And High current low Low current high Non re-settable re- Re-settable non re-
when a circuit breaker operates it is ----------- current current settable settable.
--
376. A hot busbar is one that Supplies galley power Is permanently Carries all of the non Is connected to the
connected to the essential loads battery in an
battery emergency
377. In an AC distribution system what is the Maintains constant Connects the load Controls generator Connects a generator
purpose of the GCB frequency busbar to the field excitation output to its load
synchronizing busbar busbar
378. An aircraft which uses DC as the primary CSDU rectifier Inverter TRU
source of power, AC for the instruments
may be obtained from:
379. The state of charge of an aircraft battery on On load Off load With the battery By monitoring the
an aircraft with a voltmeter would be negative terminal electrolyte resistance
checked disconnected
380. In a paralleled AC distribution system what Torque from the CSDU Field excitation from Synchronising circuits in A potentiometer on
regulates the real load (CSD) the voltage regulator the BTB the Flight Engineers
panel
381. If the oil temperature gauge of the CSD is in Throttle back and allow Auto disconnect Manually disconnect Disconnect, then when
the red what would action is required to cool down and reconnect on the cooled reconnect
ground
382. What is a transistorised static inverter in a Convert AC to DC Provide field excitation Provide AC for To supply power to the
DC circuit used for current instruments emergency lights
383. Incorrect bonding of the aircraft structure Corrosion at skin joints CB trips Static on the radio VOR interference
could cause
384. The frequency of an AC generator is The RPM of the rotor The number of poles in The RPM and number The number of poles in
 dependent upon the rotor of poles in the rotor the rotor and the
number of phase
windings in the stator.
385. With an almost discharged battery there will a decrease of voltage increase of current decrease of current increase of voltage
be: with increasing load with decrease of voltage with increasing load with increasing load
386. When is an engine overheat firewire system When an overheat is When an overheat When an overheat is When an overheat
activated detected all along the affects one detector detected all along the affects both detector
length of both firewire loop at a point length of one firewire loops at a point
loops anywhere along its loop anywhere along their
length length.
387. In an air cycle air conditioning system what To re-circulate air To draw cooling air To blow air into the To draw cooling air
is the function of the ground-cooling fan through the mix manifold over the turbine compressor over the heat
exchangers
388. How do you control power in a jet engine By controlling the By controlling the fuel By controlling the By controlling the
mixture ratio flow airflow bleed valves
389. In a normally aspirated piston engine Between 0°C and -10°C At more than + 10°C Only at less than + 10°C Only above 5000 ft
carburettor icing can occur: if there is visible
moisture
390. In a gas turbine engine fuel system why is To prevent `waxing' To help vaporization of To prevent water in the To prevent the fuel
the fuel heater before the filter the fuel fuel freezing and from freezing and
blocking the filter blocking the filter
391. What is the purpose of the FCOC (Fuel To maintain the oil at To heat the fuel and To heat the oil and cool To by-pass oil to the
Cooled Oil Cooler) the correct temperature cool the oil the fuel engine if the oil
pressure filter becomes
blocked
392. What is the purpose of the torque links in a To prevent the wheel To prevent shimmy To transfer the brake To position the wheels
landing gear leg rotating around the leg torque to the wheel in the correct attitude
prior to landing
393. An artificial feel system is needed in the Airplane has a variable Elevators are Elevator is controlled Elevators are
pitch channel if incidence tailplane controlled through a through a servo tab controlled through an
reversible servo system irreversible servo
system
394. Auto brakes are disengaged : When the ground When the speed falls On the landing roll By the pilot
 spoilers are retracted below 20 kts when the autopilot is
disengaged
395. A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is: aircraft is overweight the tyre pressures are the aircraft is a torque link is worn or
too high incorrectly loaded damaged.
396. In an aircraft with a fuel dunping system it Down to a Down to unusable To leave 15 gallons in Down to maximum
will allow fuel to be dumped predetermined safe valve value each tank landing weight
397. What does ‘octane rating’ when applied to The waxing point of the The ability of the fuel The anti-knock value of The volatility of the
AVGAS refer to – fuel to disperse water the fuel fuel
398. How are modern passenger jet aircraft fuel By nitrogen from a By ram air through the By bleed air from the By a volumetric top off
tanks pressurized storage cylinder vent system pneumatic system unit
399. Fuel tank vent system is installed to: pressurize the fuel tank remove the fuel vapour equalize the tank both (b) and (c) are
Pressure with ambient correct
400. In which of the following areas would an Fuel tank Cabin Tyres Wheel/Undercarriage
overheat/fire warning be provided bay
401. When does the Low Pressure fuel shut off When the fire handle is When the engine fuel When flight idle is After a booster pump
valve close pulled switch is selected `on' selected failure
during engine start
402. In a vapour cycle cooling system what is the To remove moisture To convert the To convert the To raise the pressure
purpose of the condenser from the air by refrigerant from a liquid refrigerant from a gas to of the gas to allow
centrifugal action to a gas a liquid efficient cooling
403. What voltage is supplied to booster pumps 115v AC single phase 200v AC three phase 28v DC froth an 12v DC frorn the
on a modern jet airliner inverter battery
404. An engine having a `Free turbine' There is a mechanical There is no mechanical There is a mechanical Air enters via
connection between the connection between the connection between the compressor inlet on
power output shaft and power output shaft and compressor and the the turbine
the turbine the turbine propeller shaft
405. If the pressure controller malfunctions Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin ROC Decrease, Cabin ROC Increase, Cabin ROC Increase,
during the cruise and the outflow valve Cabin Alt Decrease, Cabin Alt Increase, Cabin Alt Increase, Cabin Alt Increase,
opens what happens: Differential pressure Differential pressure Differential pressure Differential pressure
Decrease Decrease Decrease Increase
406. What controls cabin pressurization ECS pack mass flow Outflow valve Engine bleed valve Inflow valve
controller
407. If the fire handle is pulled in an aeroplane Exciter control relay and GCB and BTB BTB and GCU Exciter control relay
with an AC generator system what GCB only
disconnects.
408. Which components constitute a crank Crankshaft, camshaft, Crankcase, crankshaft, Crankshaft, pistons and Propeller, crankshaft,
assembly valve springs pistons and connecting connecting rods connecting rods
rods
409. One stage of an axial compressor Comprises a row of Has a compression Comprises a rotor disc Has a compression
stators followed by a ratio of 2:1 followed by a row of ratio of 0.8
rotor disc stators
410. If a CSD overheat warning is shown The CSD can be The pilot must throttle The CSD can be The CSD can be
disconnected and the back to reduce the load disconnected then disconnected but not
pilot must control the on the alternator reconnected later when used for the rest of the
alternator himself the temperature has flight
reduced
411. A new tyre with wear on the tread and Can be repaired once Can be repaired several Can never be repaired is fit for use only on a
parallel grooves only times nose-wheel
412. An emergency exit assisted escape device 8ft with the aircraft on 8ft with the aircraft on 6ft with the aircraft on 6ft with the aircraft on
must be fitted if the door sill height is above: the landing gear with the the landing gear with the landing gear with the landing gear with
nosewheel extended the nosewheel collapsed the nosewheel extended the nosewheel
collapsed
413. In a compensated capacitance fuel contents decreases by 5% increases by 5% remains the same increases by 5% for
system what happens to a fuel weight of every degree rise in
80001bs if its volume increases by 5% temperature
414. How do aircraft spoilers work lower surfaces only, lower surfaces only, upper surfaces only, upper surfaces only,
symmetrical and symmetrical operation symmetrical and symmetrical operation
asymmetrical operation asymmetrical operation
415. What is the total volume in the cylinder of a A value equal to the swept volume minus volume between TDC swept volume plus
four stroke engine cubic capacity clearance volume and BDC clearance volume
416. After the power stroke on a piston engine exhaust valve opens, exhaust valve closes, inlet valve opens, inlet valve closes,
the poppet valve sequence is inlet valve opens, inlet valve opens, exhaust valve closes, exhaust valve closes,
exhaust valve closes exhaust valve opens inlet valve closes inlet valve opens
417. What speed does the LP compressor run at ? the speed of the LP the speed of the HP half the engine speed constant speed
turbine turbine
418. What happens to the angle of attack of a increases decreases remains the same blade angle changes to
fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft compensate for
accelerates down the runway forward speed
419. What happens to the AoA of a VP propeller blade angle remains increases decreases remains the same
with increasing TAS if the RPM and throttle constant to compensate
levers are not moved for forward speed
420. Where are smoke detectors fitted'? toilets toilets and cargo all cargo toilets and cargo
compartments A,B,C,D,E compartments compartments B,C,E
421. What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a Purple Red Yellow Pink
modern jet airliner ?
422. On what principle does a fuel flow meter Volume and viscosity Quantity of movement Capacitive dielectric Pressure and
work temperature
423. What is engine pressure ratio ? The ratio of turbine The ratio of turbine Turbine outlet pressure Compressor inlet
outlet pressure to inlet pressure to x compressor outlet pressure divided by
compressor inlet compressor inlet pressure turbine outlet pressure
pressure pressure
424. On what principle does the fuel contents Capacity affected by Capacity affected by Changes in dielectric Change in dielectric
gauging system work on a modern large dielectric therefore dielectric therefore causes changes in causes change in
aircraft ? changing EMF of system changing resistivity of capacitance distance between
system plates and therefore
changes capacitance
425. What are the advantages of a nicad battery more compact, higher longer shelf life, higher more compact, longer more compact, longer
? voltage than lead acid voltage than lead acid shelf life, higher voltage shelf life, even voltage
type type than lead acid type over total range before
rapid discharge
426. What would happen if the waste gate of a Compressor will Blow the turbine MAP may exceed its RPM may exceed its
turbocharged engine seized in the descent? overspeed blades off maximum permitted maximum permitted
value in the induction value
manifold
427. When is spark plug fouling most likely to In the climb if you have Cruise power In the descent if you Max take-off power
occur? not adjusted the mixture have not adjusted the
mixture
428. Why, in the bootstrap system, is the air To provide a constant To ensure maximum To ensure most rapid To provide a constant
 compressed before it enters the heat mass flow to the cabin pressure and cooling through the heat temperature air flow to
exchanger? temperature drop exchanger the cabin
across the turbine
429. What is a ram air turbine (RAT) which drives Nose wheel steering Flap extension Landing gear extension Flight controls in case
a hydraulic pump used for? if the normal system of failure of the engine
fails driven system
430. As altitude increases what does the mixture increases flow due to increases flow due to reduces flow due to reduces flow due to
control do to the fuel flow reduced air density increased air density reduced air density increased air density
431. What is the purpose of the diluter demand To supply air only when To dilute oxygen with To dilute oxygen with To supply oxygen only
valve in the emergency oxygen system ? inhaling air in crew oxygen air in passenger oxygen when inhaling
system system
432. What limits the max temperature in a gas Temperature in the Temperature at the Temperature at the Temperature entering
turbine engine ? combustion chamber exhaust turbine the combustion
chamber
433. What is the purpose of a surge box inside a Collect sediment at the Ventilate the tank Allow movement of Prevent sloshing of
fuel tank bottom of the tank during high pressure fuel between tanks fuel away from pump
refuelling while refueling inlet during abnormal
manoeuvres
434. Emergency oxygen is provided by: One system for both Two independent Two systems each Three systems, one for
flight deck and cabin systems, one for flight capable of supplying the the flight deck, one for
deck, one for cabin flight deck and cabin the passengers and one
for the cabin crew.
435. An aircraft planning to fly at FL330 with 120 At least one passenger No first aid oxygen is At least 3 passengers At least one passenger
seats fitted and 42 passengers on board for the duration of the necessary for the duration of the for the duration of the
must provide first aid oxygen for: flight above 8000ft. flight above 15000ft. flight above 14000ft
436. A 12 volt lead acid battery has a broken Provides 1/12th less Provides 1/12th less Is unserviceable Will suffer from
connection in a cell, the battery: voltage for the same voltage for 1/12th less thermal runaway
time time
437. A changeover relay Allows an APU to Allows a GPU to Allows connection of Allows an alternate
connect to its busbar connect to its busbar AC to an unserviceable source to supply an
generator's busbar essential busbar.
438. A relay is A motorway breakdown A mechanically An electrically Another name for a
service operated switch operated switch solenoid
439. Fuel heaters are fitted In the wing fuel tanks In the fuselage fuel In the engine fuel All of the above
tanks system mounted on the
engine
440. The engine fire extinguisher system is After the engine has Automatically when a By the pilot when Automatically after a
activated: been shut down fire warning is sensed required time delay to allow the
engine to stop
441. An unpressurised aircraft is flying above FL Both pilots immediately Both pilots only Both Pilots and all Both pilots
100 and therefore must have sufficient and the cabin crew plus passengers immediately and the
oxygen for: all passengers after 30 cabin crew plus some
minutes above FL 100 passengers after 30
but below FL 130 minutes above FL 100
but below FL 130
442. An aircraft entrance door is fitted with an The door cannot be If the door is opened If the door is opened Entrance to the
automatic escape slide, the door is `armed' opened from the outside from the outside the from the outside the aircraft from outside
from the inside by the cabin crew: slide will remain stowed slide will deploy and must be made through
inflate the `break in' panel
443. Aircraft above a certain capacity must carry Cut through the aircraft Enable access behind Cut firewood in a Restrain disorderly
a crash axe, it is provided to fuselage to allow escape panels and survival situation passengers
soundproofing to aid
fire fighting
444. The function of stringers in the construction To withstand shear To provide an To provide support for To provide an
of the fuselage is: stress attachment for the skin and to absorb alternate load path in
insulation some of the the event of the failure
pressurization strain as of a frame.
tensile loading
445. The type of refrigerant used in a vapour Argon Freon Helium BCF
cycle cooling system is
446. The requirement for an aircraft to have a All aircraft in the All aircraft Aircraft whose All aircraft with a
fuel dumping system is: Transport Category manufactured after maximum landing mass seating capacity of 250
having a maximum take 1997 having a MTOM of (MLM) is significantly or more
off mass (MTOM) of 7500kg or more lower than its maximum
75000kg or greater take off mass (MTOM)
447. At what height is it mandatory for one of the 25,000 ft 32,000 ft 37,000 ft 41,000 ft
 flight deck crew to wear an oxygen mask
448. A Volumetric Top-Off Unit (VTO) , is Vent the tank to Allow a main feed tank Allow the main tank to Prevent too much fuel
provided in a fuel system to atmosphere when its full to be maintained at a automatically maintain a from being dumped
predetermine level predetermined fuel
automatically , while pressure
being fed from an
auxiliary tank
449. The type of engine layout shown is : Two spool Turbo fan Free turbine Prop fan
450. The precautions to be taken during refueling GPU may not be running All earthing of aircraft Passengers may be No radar or HF radios
are during refueling parts to ground boarded ( traversing the under test within 10
equipment must be refueling zone ) metres
completed before filler
caps are removed
451. What prevents an impulse coupling Electro-magnetic Hydraulic clutch Centrifugal force On/Off switch
operating at speeds above start speed , indication
considering that it has flyweights
452. A shuttle valve is used to restrict the rate of select the most allow two supplies to to allow a constant
operation of a system suitable system pressure be available to a service volume pump to idle
453. The temperature of hydraulic fluid is after the cooler in the reservoir at the actuator at the pumps
measured
454. Electrical heating devices consume little power are used for preventing are used for de-icing can de-ice large areas
ice on small areas (e.g small areas because there is a large
pitot head, windscreen excess of electrical
only) power available
455. Reverse thrust lights come on when reverser doors are when reverse power when reverse thrust is when the doors move
unlocked above idle is selected selected in flight towards the stowed
position inadvertently
456. The magnetos are switched off and the a wire from the magneto hotspots existing in carbon deposits on grounding wire from
engine continues to run normally. The cause coming in contact with cylinder spark plug magneto being broken
of this fault is the metal aircraft skin
457. An aircraft is to fly at 29000ft When should before 10000ft. before 14000ft. at 20000ft before take-off
the oxygen briefing take place
458. What is the purpose of the magneto impulse to give a retarded spark reduce the rate of advance the ignition automatically
coupling during starting rotation of the magneto and give a hotter spark increases spark rate at
during starting high engine speeds
459. The excess cabin altitude alerting system 8000ft 10000ft 13000ft 14000ft
must operate to warn the crew at
460. A device in a hydraulic system which acts in restrictor valve sequence valve fuse one way check valve
the same way as a diode in an electrical
circuit is a
461. What does three green lights represent the gear is down the gear is down and the gear and doors are the gear is travelling
when the landing gear is selected down locked down and locked between up and down
462. Which is the correct statement regarding a the outboard ailerons the outboard ailerons the inboard ailerons the inboard ailerons
large aircraft fitted with both inboard and are used only when the are used only when the are used only when the are only used when the
outboard ailerons landing gear is selected landing gear is retracted flaps are retracted flaps are extended
down
463. How do differential ailerons work Increase lift on down increase drag on up equalise the drag on up equalise the lift on up
going wing and decrease going wing and decrease going and down going going and down going
lift on up going wing drag on down going wings wings
wing
464. What is the effect of heating flight deck to demist the interior of to protect the windows to protect the windows to protect the
windows the window if normal against bird strike against ice formation windows against bird
demist does not function strike and ice
correctly formation
465. If an aircraft suffers a decompression what VSI up, altimeter up, VSI , altimeter, VSI down , altimeter VSI up, altimeter
happens to the indications on a cabin VSI, differential pressure differential pressure up, differential pressure down, differential
cabin altimeter and differential pressure gauge down gauge all unchanged gauge down pressure gauge down
gauge
466. What happens if a gaseous oxygen cylinder a pressure relief valve a bursting disc vents a pressure regulator a pressure relief valve
is over pressurized vents the excess pressure the complete contents will prevent the excess vents the excess
into the atmosphere of the cylinder(s) to pressure damaging the pressure into the
atmosphere system fuselage
467. Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most secure the filler cap drain the tank at the fill the tank after each drain the water before
practical way to limit this in an aircraft flown tightly and plug the end of each day flight flight
daily is to: drains
468. How much fuel can be jettisoned a specific amount the captain decides all a specified amount
must remain
469. The DLL of a transport aircraft is 1.5g 2.5g 3.4g 3.75g
470. A current limiter fuse will rupture below fault has a high melting is not used in TRU has a low melting
conditions point so carrying a protection point so will rupture
considerable current quickly if a current
overload before overload occurs
rupturing
471. What type of electrical motor is used as a series shunt compound induction
starter motor
472. The power for LP fuel pumps is 28v DC 28v AC 115v DC 200vAC
473. What is a relay solenoid valve magnetic switch converts electrical used in starter motor
energy into heat energy circuit
474. An aircraft is in straight and level flight at a crew should begin a cabin altitude will cabin altitude will cabin altitude will
constant cabin altitude when the crew climb to regain cabin increase to outside descend to, and increase to, and
notice the rate of climb indicator reads - altitude atmospheric pressure continue beyond normal continue beyond
200ft/min. What will be the sequence of max. diff, at which point normal max. diff, at
events the safety valves will which point the safety
open. valves will open.
475. What is the frequency band for ADF hectometric metric centimetric decimetric
476. The angle formed between plane of rotation angle of attack angle of advance pitch blade angle
and relative airflow is called:-
477. The advantages of a turbo jet engine are:- high propulsive lowest thrust specific efficient at high speed both (a) and b) are
efficiency fuel consumption operation correct
478. One of main difference between piston and gas turbine engine is piston engine is called gas turbine engine is piston engine is not
gas turbine engine is :- called constant volume constant pressure called constant pressure suitable for aircraft
engine engine engine operation
479. The jet engine operated by using a principle pulse jet ramjet rocket all above
combustion without air is known as:-
480. In impulse turbine the gas velocity increases inlet guide vanes turbine blades nozzle guide vanes both (b) and (c) are
at:- correct
481. A good thrust reverser should : be mechanically strong have small backward assist the basic engine all the above are
 thrust operation correct
482. Higher specific gravity fuel is better for gas lower freezing point high calorific valve lower flash point higher boiling point
turbine engine because:-
483. The index of fire hazard of a gas turbine fuel flash point vapour point cloud point viscosity
is
484. If the gas turbine engine is supplied with the compressor may the exhaust gas the engine may flame none of the above is
lean mixture of fuel and air:- surge temperature may out correct
increase
485. An after burner engine is basically a:- rocket motor attached pulse jet attached to ramj et attached to the none of the above are
to the turbine exhaust the. turbine exhaust turbine exhaust case of correct
case of a jet engine arise of a jet engine a j et engine
486. The lubricating oil used in gas turbine engine have low volatility have low viscosity have low flash point all of the above are
should :- correct
487. Differential ailerons work by Increasing lift on down increasing drag on up equalising the drag on equalising the lift on up
going wing and going wing and up going and down going and down going
decreasing lift on up decreasing drag on going wings wings
going wing down going wing
488. An artificial feel system is connected in series with connected in parallel connected in parallel connected in series
an irreversible servo with an irreversible with a reversible servo with a reversible servo
system servo system system system
489. Why are two longitudinal trim switches there are two trim fast trimming at low as a safety precaution to prevent both pilots
fitted to the control column motors altitude and a slower to reduce the possibility operating the trim at
rate at higher altitudes of trim runaway the same time
490. On a modern jet transport the hydraulic by a separate helium gas by air from the air by engine bleed air in flight only
reservoirs are normally pressurized supply conditioning system
491. A ram air turbine may be used to provide landing gear extension flight controls nose wheel steering leading edge flap
emergency hydraulic power for extension only
492. An under inflated tyre on a dry runway decreases viscous causes the tyre increases wear on the increases wear on the
hydroplaning speed temperature to fall shoulder crown
493. What is the purpose of the ground cooling to draw cooling air over to draw cooling air to blow air onto the to re-circulate air
fan in a boot strap air cycle conditioning the turbine over the heat compressor through the mixing
system exchangers manifold
494. If the outflow valves failed closed in flight to damage the aircraft to increase cabin to increase cabin to shut down the air
the effect would be skin pressure to max altitude conditioning system
differential
495. Modern transport aircraft fuel booster centrifugal and powered centrifugal and spur gear and powered spur gear and powered
pumps are generally by do induction motors powered by ac induction by do induction motors by ac induction motors
motors
496. Modern passenger aircraft fuel tanks are low pressure bleed air low pressure inert gas the air discharged by ram air through the
pressurised by system the air conditioning vent system
system
497. Where are the fuel heaters fitted on jet in each tank on the engine they are not required centre tank only
aircraft
498. The fuel cross feed system enables fuel to be supplied to the outboard transferred from the supplied to any engine supplied to any engine
engines from any centre tank to the wing mounted on a wing from any tank
outboard tank tanks only from any tank within
that wing
499. The areas that heated by a bleed air system leading edges of all leading edges of all leading edges of all upper surfaces of the
on a modern jet passenger transport are aerofoil surfaces aerofoil surfaces aerofoil surfaces wings only
including flaps including slats (where
fitted)
500. The principle upon which the vibrating inferential accretion ice removal evaporation
probe (Rosemount) ice detector is based is
501. Which one of the following ice protection mechanical electrical chemical thermal
systems can only be used as a de-icing
system
502. The stators of a three phase alternator are 60 degrees 90 degrees 120 degrees 180 degrees
separated by
503. If a CSDU overheat warning occurs, the CSDU can be the pilot must throttle CSDU can be CSDU must be
disconnected and not back the effected engine disconnected and then disconnected and the
used for the rest of the re-connected when it alternator is controlled
flight has cooled down directly by the pilot
504. What is disconnected if the fire handle is generator control relay GCB BTB Generator control
pulled in an aircraft with an AC generator (exciter control relay) relay (exciter control
system and GCB relay) and BTB
505. A generator that produces 400Hz at 6000 12 8 6 4
rpm has how many pole pairs
506. If a 12 volt, 6 cell battery has one dead cell it cannot be used it can be used but the it can be used but the it can be used but the
output voltage is output voltage and output capacity is
reduced by 1/12 capacity are reduced by reduced by 1/12
1/,Z
507. `Earth Return' system means that: both battery and earth battery positive and battery negative battery and generator
tenninals are connected generator negative terminal is connected to negative tenninals are
to the voltage regulators' terminals are connected the generator negative connected to the
shunt field. to a/c structure terminal with low aircraft structure
resistance cable
508. The frequency of an AC generator is poles only poles and rpm rpm only load
dependent upon
509. In an aircraft which uses DC as the primary a rectifier the AC busbar a TRU an inverter
source of power, AC for the instruments
may be obtained from
510. The wavelength of a VOR is metric decimetric hectometric centimetric
511. What is the wavelength that corresponds to 246m 2.46cm 2.46m 24.6m
the frequency 121.95 MHz
512. Skip distance is longest by (1) .................. day low day high night low night high
and with a (2) .................. frequency
513. The skip zone of an HF transmission will an increase in frequency an increase in an decrease in an decrease in
increase with and an increase in height frequency and an frequency and an frequency and a
of the reflective decrease in height of the increase in height of the decrease in height of
(refractive) layer reflective (refractive) reflective (refractive) the reflective
layer layer (refractive) layer
514. How are the loads on an aircraft busbar in parallel so that the in parallel so that the in series so that the in series so that the
connected current reduces through voltage reduces through current reduces through voltage reduces
the busbar as loads are the busbar as loads are the busbar as loads are through the busbar as
switched off switched off switched off loads are switched off
515. Hot or vital busbars are heated by bleed air connected directly to connected directly to connected directly to
the battery the DC generator the AC generator
516. A static inverter is a transistorised unit that transistorised unit that fixed unit that changes fixed unit that changes
converts AC to DC converts DC to AC DC voltages AC voltages
517. If AC generators are connected in parallel frequency torque of the CSDU energising current voltage
the reactive loads are balanced by adjusting
the
518. The voltage regulator of a DC generator is series with the armature parallel with the series with the parallel with the
connected in and parallel with the armature and parallel armature and series armature and series
shunt field with the shunt field with the shunt field with the shunt field
519. If the frequency of a series capacitve circuit it increases it decreases it stays the same it increases or
increases, what happens to the current decreases
520. Which is the correct statement(s) with at all times when the at all times when the in no case less than 30 all of the above
regard to flight crew oxygen requirements cabin pressure altitude cabin pressure altitude mins. If certificated
for a pressurised aircraft exceeds 13000ft is between 10000ft and below 25000ft and in
13000ft except for the no case less than 2
first 30 mins hours if certificated
above 25000ft
521. What is the minimum number of BCF 2 3 4 5
extinguishers required on an aircraft with a
seating capacity of 62 passengers
522. The advantages of a chemical oxygen it is a self contained it can be filled from the flow of oxygen can all of the above
generator system are system, it is relatively outside the pressure be regulated, it can be
light hull , it can be turned off turned off
523. An aircraft operating at FL 350 must have 13000 ft in 30 minutes 15000 ft in 4 minutes 15000 ft in 10 minutes 10000 ft in 4 minutes
sufficient supplementary oxygen available
for 100% of passengers for a descent from
its maximum certificated operating altitude
to allow a descent to
524. The passenger oxygen drop down mask barometrically operated electrically for chemical electrically for gaseous by the cabin crew
stowage doors are released latch generator systems and systems and
pneumatically for pneumatically for
gaseous systems chemical generator
systems
525. A turbo propeller aircraft has 60 persons on 60 lifejackets 60 lifejackets and three 60 lifejackets and two two 30 man liferafts
 board and is flying at 240 knots two hours 30 man liferafts 30 man liferafts
away from the nearest landfall. It has a
minimum requirement of
526. How many crash axes and crow bars must a a crash axe and crowbar a crash axe or crowbar a crash axe and a crash axe or crowbar
46 seat aircraft of 10000kg weight on board on the flight deck on the flight deck and a crowbar on the flight on the flight deck
crash axe or crowbar in deck and a crash axe
the cabin and crowbar in the
cabin
527. The fire extinguisher system for an engine is automatically automatically once the by the pilot by the pilot once the
activated immediately a fire is engine has been shut immediately a fire is engine has been shut
sensed down detected down
528. The flight deck warning of an engine fire is individual warning lights a common light and aural warning only individual warning
and bells common aural warning lights and a common
aural warning
529. High cylinder head temperatures on a piston mass ratio of 1:15 cruise mixture setting a weak mixture a rich mixture
engine are associated with
530. In a gas turbine the maximum gas in the combustion at the turbine exit across the turbine in the cooling air
temperature is reached chamber around the turbine
531. When TAS increases the pitch angle of a increases decreases remains constant decreases and then
constant speed propeller returns to its original
angle
532. Select the conditions for highest engine low temperature, low low temperature, high high pressure, high low temperature, low
performance humidity, high humidity, high pressure temperature, high humidity, high pressure
temperature humidity
533. A torque meter is situated between the engine and on the auxiliary between the turbine in the spinner housing
propeller gearbox and the gearbox
534. A reverse thrust door warning light is the reverser doors are the thrust levers are the reverse thrust asymmetric reverse
illuminated when unlocked lifted beyond ground mechanism is not thrust has been
idle operating correctly selected
535. Adjusting the mixture of piston engines as increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to increase fuel flow to decrease fuel flow to
aircraft altitude increases is necessary to compensate for compensate for compensate for compensate for
decreasing air density decreasing air density increasing air density increasing air density
536. The power output of a piston engine can be force by distance work by velocity pressure by moment torque by RPM
 calculated by multiplying arm
537. When high pressure bleed valves open they reduce the EPR increase the fuel flow reduce the EGT increase the thrust
538. The fan stage of ducted fan engine is driven LP turbine IP turbine HP turbine HP compressor
by the through reduction
gearing
539. In a four stroke engine, ignition occurs before TDC every 2nd at TDC every 2nd after TDC every 2nd before TDC every
rotation of the crankshaft rotation of the rotation of the rotation of the
crankshaft crankshaft crankshaft
540. A fixed pitch propeller blade has wash-out keep the local angle of keep the pitch angle keep the local angle of decrease the blade
from root to tip in order to attack constant along the constant along the blade attack at its optimum tangential speed from
blade length length value along the blade root to tip
length
541. The alpha range of a variable pitch propeller feather and flight fine feather and ground flight fine pitch stop ground fine pitch stop
is between pitch stop fine pitch stop and reverse stop and reverse stop
542. With the CSU governor in the underspeed increase the blade angle decrease the blade decrease the rpm open the throttle valve
condition, oil will be directed to angle
543. In a fan jet engine the by-pass ratio is internal mass airflow external mass airflow internal mass airflow mass fuel flow divided
divided by external mass divided by internal mass divided by mass fuel by internal mass
airflow airflow flow airflow
544. In a normally aspirated piston engine between 0 °C and -10 ° C at more than + 10 ° C only at less than + 10 ° above 5000ft only
carburator icing can occur C if there is visible
moisture
545. At what speed does the LP compressor run the speed of the LP the speed of the IP the speed of the HP constant speed
turbine turbine turbine
546. The volume of the scavenge pump(s) in an prevent cavitation of the ensure heat is compensate for ensure that the engine
engine lubrication system is greater than oil system feedlines dissipated more thermal expansion of sump remains dry
that of the pressure pump(s) in order to efficiently the lubricating fluid
547. Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to gas increase the mass flow prevent a compressor prevent a compressor decelerate the flow
turbine engines to at high speeds stall at low engine speed stall at high engine into the compressor
speeds
548. The theoretically correct air to fuel ratio for 5:1 15:1 25:1 40:1
efficient combustion in a gas turbine under
 constant speed conditions is
549. A gas turbine engine power change is fuel supplied and the fuel supplied air supplied fuel supplied and the
achieved by adjusting the amount of amount of air entering amount of air entering
the compressor the turbine
550. What happens to the pressure and velocity both remain constant both increase velocity increases, velocity decreases,
of the gas stream from root to tip across the pressure decreases pressure increases
nozzle guide vanes
551. What is a crank assembly crankcase, crankshaft, crankshaft, pistons and propeller, crankshaft camshaft, pistons and
pistons and connecting connecting rods and connecting rods connecting rods
rods
552. The effect of climbing at rated rpm but less increase full throttle reduce full throttle produce no change to reduce the time to full
than rated boost is to height height the full throttle height throttle height.
553. The basic classifications of gas turbine is: Impulse, Reaction, Impulse, Reaction and Axial flow and Single stage and two
Impulse-reaction & Ram Impulse-reaction centrifugal flow stage
554. A pitot head is used to measure: dynamic minus static static plus dynamic static pressure. dynamic pressure.
pressure. pressure.
555. A static vent is used to measure: dynamic pressure minus dynamic pressure plus atmospheric pressure. pitot excess pressure.
pitot excess. pitot excess.
556. A pressure head is subject to the following position, manoeuvre position, manoeuvre position, manoeuvre position, manoeuvre
errors: induced, temperature. induced. induced, density. induced, instrument.
557. Turbulent flow around a pressure head will density error. 95% increase in an increase in the 95% of pressure error.
cause: manoeuvre induced dynamic pressure.
error.
558. Manoeuvre induced error: is caused by transient is likely to be greatest is combined with lasts for only a short
pressure changes at when yawing after instrument and position time at high altitude.
static vents. engine failure. error on a correction
card.
559. Position error: may be reduced by the will usually decrease will depend solely on will usually decrease as
fitting of static vents. with an increase in the attitude of the the aircraft approaches
altitude. aircraft. the speed of sound.
560. Pressure heads supply data to the following air data computers, standby instruments altimeters, ASI's, VSI's, all the above plus air
instruments: compasses, altimeters, only, when air data machmeters, air data driven gyros.
 and ASI's. computers fitted. computers.
561. Static vents are usually fitted to both sides reduce the position balance out errors require a calibration enable a greater
of the aircraft fuselage. This will: error. caused by side slipping card for each static vent. number of instruments
or yawing. to be fitted.
562. Which of the following instruments require airspeed indicator, airspeed indicator, airspeed indicator only. airspeed indicator and
inputs of both pitot and static pressure: machmeter and vertical vertical speed indicator, machmeter.
speed indicator. altimeter.
563. Where an alternate static source is fitted, a temporary increase in a lower pressure error an increase in position no change in position
use of this source usually leads to: lag error. than with normal error. error.
sources.
564. Converted into degrees Celsius - 40°F is: -56.5°C -40°C -20°C -108°C
565. In an aircraft thermometer with an electrical plutonium platinum potassium beryllium copper
resistance sensor to measure the air
temperature, the resistance wire element is
probably:
566. Flying at high speed at high altitude, the likely to be less than due to adiabatic due to adiabatic proportional to the
difference between ram air temperature when flying low and cooling. warming. square of the absolute
and static air temperature is: slow. temperature.
567. Aircraft air temperature thermometers are solar radiation. accidental physical airframe icing. kinetic heating.
shielded to protect them from: damage on the ground
or hailstones in flight.
568. At a true airspeed of 500 knots, a ram rise of 50 degrees Celsius 25 degrees Celsius 5 degrees Celsius 16 degrees Celsius
air temperature can be expected of:
569. An air temperature probe may be aspirated prevent icing. measure air compensate for thermal reduce the effect of
in order to: temperature on the soaking at the ramp solar radiation.
ground. position.
570. Total Air Temperature is: the maximum the temperature the static air the recovery factor
temperature attainable indicated on the air temperature minus the plus the ram rise.
by the air when brought temperature recovery factor.
to rest, adiabatically. thermometer plus the
ram rise.
571. The difference between static air corrected outside air the ram rise. the recovery factor. hot ramp radiation.
 temperature and total air temperature is temperature.
known as:
572. A direct reading aircraft thermometer difference in electrical increase in pressure as increase in adiabatic different coefficients
usually consists of a bimetallic helix resistance of the two airspeed increases. cooling as airspeed of expansion of the two
protruding into the airstream. Movement of metals. increases. metals.
the pointer over the temperature scale will
depend upon:
573. A remote reading thermometer depends change of electrical change of electrical change of electrical change of electrical
upon …………………… to indicate changes in resistance of the two resistance with resistance with change capacitance with
temperature: metals. temperature. in pressure. change in temperature.
574. If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally decrease, no matter increase, no matter progressively under stick at the airspeed
blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will: what the actual airspeed what the actual airspeed indicate the value of the showing at the
is. is. airspeed. moment of blockage.
575. Compressibility error: causes overreading of causes overreading of is calibrated out of the is calibrated out of the
the ASI at all levels the ASI whenever CAS ASI at MSL ISA ASI at MSL ISA
whenever TAS exceeds exceeds 300 kt. conditions and only conditions and only
300 kt. causes overreading causes overreading
when air density is when air density is
decreased and CAS decreased and TAS
exceeds 300 kt. exceeds 300 kt.
576. If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked overreading, this underreading, this underreading, this overreading, this
during a long descent, a dangerous situation indicated speed falsely indicated speed falsely indicated speed possibly indicated speed
could arise due to the ASI: showing the aircraft to showing the aircraft to leading to the operation possibly leading to the
be further from the be closer to the stalling of flaps and/or landing operation of flaps
stalling speed than it speed than it actually is. gear at speeds in excess and/or landing gear at
actually is. of safety speeds. speeds in excess of
safety speeds.
577. The airspeed indicator is calibrated to: conditions of the conditions of the an air density of indicate correctly in
International Standard International Standard 1013.25 gms/m3 any atmosphere.
Atmosphere. Atmosphere at MSL.
578. Dynamic pressure is equal to: ½ vp2 ½ pv2 (½ pv)2 ½ (pv)2
579. Excluding blockages, the full list of errors of instrument error, instrument error, instrument error, instrument error,
the ASI is: position error, density position error, position error, position error, density
 error, manoeuvre temperature error, barometric error, error, compressibility
induced error. compressibility error, temperature error, lag, error, manoeuvre
manoeuvre induced manoeuvre induced induced error.
error. error.
580. Some ASIs have coloured arcs and lines cautionary range and flap operating speed cautionary range and flap operating speed
marked on their dials. A yellow arc and a normal operating range. range and normal flap operating speed range and cautionary
white arc indicate: operating range. range. range.
581. What will be the TAS if cruising altitude is 39 388 kt 380 kt 364 kt 370 kt
000 ft, temperature is ISA +5 and CAS 200 kt:
582. If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked increase, no matter what progressively under progressively over stick at the airspeed
during a climb, the ASI reading will: the actual airspeed is. indicate the value of indicate the value of showing at the
airspeed. airspeed. moment of blockage.
pitot pressure inlet, air inlet, temperature static pressure inlet, static pressure inlet,
linkage mechanism, compensator, leaf partially evacuated partially evacuated
bellows, quadrant. spring, linkage capsule, linkage capsule, leaf spring,
mechanism. mechanism, subscale linkage mechanism.
setting device.
583. In the International Standard Atmosphere, 1225 mb; 2°C per 1000 ft; 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1013.25 mb; 1.98°C per 1225 mb; 1.98°C per
the mean sea level pressure is ............., the 37 000 ft; 66 000 ft. 1000 ft; 36 090 ft; 65 1000 ft; 36 090 ft; 104 1000 ft; 36 090 ft; 104
lapse rate of temperature ............. between 617 ft. 987 ft. 987 ft.
MSL and ............. and is isothermal up to
............. The numbers missing are:
584. When flying from low pressure to high read the true altitude, overread the true indicate a higher underread the true
pressure, the barometric error of an providing a correction is altitude of the aircraft. altitude than the correct altitude of the aircraft.
altimeter will cause the instrument to: made for temperature. one.
585. The errors affecting the pressure altimeter instrument position, instrument, pressure, instrument, position, instrument, pressure,
are: manoeuvre induced, manoeuvre induced, manoeuvre induced, lag, barometric,
density, temperature, density, temperature, temperature, temperature,
lag. lag. barometric, lag. compressibility.
586. An altimeter with set on the subscale will 1013; pressure altitude; QNE; pressure altitude; QFE; height above the QNH; height above
indicate , but with set, the altimeter will QNH; height above mean QNH; height above airfield datum; touch down; 1013;
show sea level. airfield datum. 1013;height amsl. height amsl.
587. An aircraft has one altimeter set to QFE and 300 ft; zero; 2610 ft zero; 300 ft; 3390 ft zero; 300 ft; 3690 ft zero; 300 ft; 2610 ft
 one to aerodrome QNH 1000 mb If the
airfield elevation is 300 ft, immediately
before take-off the altimeter with QFE set
will read and the other If the QFE altimeter
is set to 1013 when passing through the
transition altitude 3000 ft, it will read
(Assume 1 mb = 30 ft)
588. cam mechanism, mechanical drive, servo cam mechanism, E-I bar, amplifier, servo
amplifier, servo motor, motor, amplifier, AC amplifier, E-1 bar, motor, AC exciter,
mechanical drive. exciter. mechanical drive. mechanical drive.
589. During a missed approach and go-around the altimeter, artificial the airspeed indicator, the machmeter, the vertical speed
procedure the change of aircraft attitude horizon and vertical machmeter and vertical airspeed indicator, indicator, airspeed
plus raising of the landing gear and changing speed indicator. speed indicator. altimeter and vertical indicator and altimeter.
of flap settings can cause short term speed indicator.
unpredictable errors in certain instruments
The instruments most likely to be affected in
this case are:
590. The vertical speed indicator indications may a combination of time a combination of manoeuvre induced a combination of time
be in error for some seconds after starting lag and manoeuvre position error and errors only. lag and instrument
or finishing a climb or descent The error is a induced errors. manoeuvre induced error.
result of errors.
591. The advantage of having the VSI dial at low rates of climb or readings are a greater range of rates the internal
presentation in logarithmic spacing rather descent the pointer instantaneous. of climb and descent is mechanism is
than in linear spacing is that: movement is much larger shown. simplified by deletion
and so is more easily of the calibration
read. choke.
592. In the IVSI, lag error: is overcome by feeding a is virtually overcome by is overcome by the use is only overcome when
sample of static pressure using a special dashpot of logarithmic initiating a climb or
to the case and delaying accelerometer presentation. descent.
it to the capsule. assembly.
593. Because the VSI measures rates of change of never affects VSI may cause errors in the may cause errors in VSI may cause errors in VSI
static pressure and not actual values of indications. VSI during the take-off indications whenever indications whenever
static pressure, position error: run. airspeed is changed, if at airspeed is changed,
 the same time there is a even if there is no
change in position error. change in position
error.
594. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely no change in altitude. a slight clim a slight descent. a slight descent at high
to show: airspeed only.
595. If the static vent becomes blocked during a the VSI will stop at the the VSI will indicate a the VSI will return to the VSI will indicate an
climb: rate of climb of the decreasing rate of clim zero. increasing rate of
aircraft at the time of climb.
blockage.
596. In conditions of clear air turbulence: the standard VSI is more the IVSI is more both types will react the the vertical
sensitive. sensitive. same. acceleration pump will
not be affected.
597. Change of temperature as an aircraft climbs will affect VSI readings is compensated at the has no effect on the VSI may be allowed for by
or descends: whenever temperature metering unit by means as only static pressure is use of tables or
lapse rate differs from of a capillary and orifice. used in this instrument. computer.
standard conditions.
598. Permissible limits of accuracy of the VSI are ± 250 fpm, on the ± 200 fpm, at any ± 250 fpm, at any + 200 fpm, on the
when within a temperature range of and ground, -20°C to +50°C, height, -20°C to +30°C, height, -20°C to +50°C, ground, -20°C to
outside this range ± 300 fpm + 300-fpm + 300 fpm +50°C, + 300 fpm
599. The red pole of a freely suspended magnet the nose of the aircraft, the north magnetic the nearest pole, the north magnetic
will point towards and at latitude 60 °N will downwards, deviation. pole, downwards, downwards, pole, downwards,
point at an angle known as the angle of variation. declination. dip.
600. If the total force of the earth's field at a H = T sin dip H = Z tan dip H = T cos dip H = T tan dip
point is T and the horizontal and vertical
components H and Z, the value of H is found
by the formula:
601. 025° 015° 020° 335° 035° 020° 335° 340° 035° 025° 015° 340°
602. The directive force of the earth's magnetic varies with the heading increases as the increases as magnetic is greatest at the
field: of the aircraft. magnetic variation latitude increases. magnetic equator.
increases.
603. The slow change in the earth's magnetic annual, westerly diurnal, easterly secular, westerly annual, sunspot
variation is known as the change and is movement of the movement of the movement of the activity.
caused by magnetic pole. magnetic pole. magnetic pole.
604. Soft iron is comparatively to magnetise easy; difficult. easy; easy. difficult; easy. difficult; difficult.
whilst hard iron is to demagnetise
605. Which of the following materials are classed iron, steel, carbon-fibre. nickel, iron, steel. copper, iron, carbon iron, cobalt steel,
as ferromagnetic: steel. chromium steel.
606. The magnetic moment of a magnet: is the product of pole varies inversely as the varies directly as the decreases as the
strength and effective square of the distance square of the distance magnet length
length. between the poles. between the poles. increases.
607. In a standby direct reading compass there is: a non-pendulously a single pendulously a circular magnet or pair a low magnetic
mounted magnet system. mounted bar magnet. of bar magnets moment system, either
pendulously mounted. of circular or bar
configuration.
608. The main requirements of a direct reading horizontal, sensitive, easily read, floating in a positioned directly in aperiodic, horizontal,
magnetic compass are that it should be: periodic. transparent liquid, quick front of the pilot, easily sensitive.
to react to change in corrected for magnetic
aircraft heading. deviation, aperiodic.
609. For a position in the southern hemisphere, 180°(C) and 360°(C) 045°(C) and 225°(C) 135°( and 315°( 090°(C) and 270°(C)
the effect of acceleration errors are greatest
on headings:
610. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is more; increase less; increase more; decrease less; decrease
turning from a heading of 045° (C) to 315°
(C) using a DGI At the end of the turn the
compass will read than 315° and liquid swirl
will this effect
611. In a standby compass the magnet system is increase sensitivity, increase sensitivity, increase sensitivity at increase sensitivity,
immersed in a transparent liquid The increase aperiodicity. decrease aperiodicity. high latitudes, lubricate reduce liquid swirl.
purpose of this liquid is to: bearings.
612. To improve the horizontality of a compass, on the centre line of the below the centre of above the centre of varying with magnetic
the magnet assembly is suspended from a magnet. gravity. gravity. latitude.
point:
613. The magnitude, and sense, of turning error the design of the the direction of the turn which hemisphere the all of the above.
shown by a direct reading compass varies compass and the amount and the rate of turn. aircraft is in and the
with: of dip at the aircraft's heading of the aircraft.
latitude.
614. During a sustained turn the nearer magnetic away from; increase. towards; not affect. away from; not affect. towards; increase.
pole, the effect of liquid swirl will Compass
turning error
615. When carrying out a turn at the magnetic no turning error. a tendency to a tendency to no turning error when
equator there will be: underread turns underread turns due to turning through east or
through south and liquid swirl. west only.
overread turns through
north.
616. Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on: weight, disturbing rate of precession and weight, rate of mass, radius of
couple and speed of disturbing couple. precession and speed of gyration and speed of
rotation. rotation. rotation.
617. A constant disturbing couple is applied to remain as before. increase. decrease. cease altogether.
deflect a gyroscope If the RPM of the gyro is
then doubled the precession rate will:
618. In gyroscopic theory the term 'topple' is real wander only, in the real wander only, in wander, real or wander, real or
defined as: horizontal plane. the vertical plane. apparent, in the vertical apparent, in the
plane. horizontal plane.
619. A force applied to the spinning axis of a through 90° in the through 90° in the through 270° in the at a rate proportional
rotor is precessed: direction of spin of the direction of spin of the direction of spin of the to the speed of
rotor. rotor in the northern rotor. rotation of the gyro.
hemisphere through 90°
in the opposite direction
in the southern
hemisphere.
620. In gyroscopic theory the term 'drift' is real wander only, in the wander, real or apparent wander only, wander, real or
defined as: horizontal plane. apparent, in the vertical in the horizontal plane. apparent, in the
plane. horizontal plane.
621. Real wander of a gyro can be caused by: asymmetrical friction at rotation of the earth. increasing the RPM of moving the gyro north
the spinning axis. the rotor. or south of its present
position.
622. A gyro with only two axes of freedom is tied gyro. earth gyro. space gyro. rate gyro.
known as a:
623. A perfectly balanced space gyro at the true east direction. true west direction. true north direction. true south direction.
 equator has its spin axis aligned with true
north After 6 hours the axis will be aligned
with:
624. The main advantage of electric gyros are: light weight, high RPM, high RPM, only require high RPM, high moment sealed casing, constant
constant speed, low voltage DC, constant of inertia, rapid build-up speed, high precession
inexpensive. speed, sealed casing. of speed, constant RPM. rate, low cost.
625. Apparent wander of a gyro is caused by: rotation of the earth. clear air turbulence. gymbal friction. external torque.
626. A directional gyro indicator is basically a: horizontal axis earth horizontal axis tied vertical axis earth gyro. vertical axis tied gyro.
gyro. gyro.
627. Apparent wander may be corrected in a DGI causing the gyro to attaching a bias weight correcting wander by attaching a bias weight
by: precess in a clockwise to the inner gimbal means of air jets. to the inner gimbal
direction (in the northern which makes the gyro which makes the gyro
hemisphere). precess in azimuth in precess in azimuth in
the same direction as the opposite direction
apparent wander. to apparent wander.
628. An air driven DGI is corrected for apparent when flying north from when flying east from when flying south from when flying west from
wander at 56°N If the aircraft is maintaining 56°N the true heading of 56°N the true heading 56°N the true heading 56°N the true heading
constant DGI readings: the aircraft will decrease. will decrease. will decrease. will increase.
629. The formula used to calculate apparent +15 sine latitude in +15 sine latitude in -15 sine latitude in 15 sine latitude in
wander of a directional gyro in the northern degrees for the time of degrees per hour. degrees per hour. degrees per hour
hemisphere is: running. increasing.
630. Errors of the directional gyro are: acceleration error, gimballing error, gimballing error, transport wander,
turning error, altitude random wander, looping error, rolling apparent wander,
error, transport wander, apparent wander, rotor error, rotor speed error, latitude error, turning
rotor speed error. speed error, transport transport wander. error, acceleration
wander. error.
631. The spin axis of a directional gyro is the horizontal plane; air the vertical plane; air the yawing plane; air the yawing plane; air
maintained in by means of in an air driven jets; wedge plate. jets; torque motor. jets; torque motor. jets; wedge plate.
gyro and by means of a in an electrically
driven gyro:
632. The purpose of the caging knob is: to prevent the gyro to reset the heading. to reset the heading to prevent apparent
toppling. and to prevent toppling. wander.
633. In an air driven directional gyro the air jets the inner gimbal. the outer gimbal. the instrument casing. the rotor axis.
are attached to:
634. The limits of pitch and roll for a modern 55' and 85' 85' and 55' 55' and 55' 85' and 85'
directional gyro are respectively:
635. Gimballing error: will disappear after a will remain until the will only occur during a will be zero on only
turn is completed. gyro is reset. 360° turn. two headings during a
360° turn.
636. An artificial horizon utilises (i) to show (ii) in an earth gyro position a space gyro attitude an earth gyro latitude an earth gyro attitude
(iii) and (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) latitude longitude degrees minutes pitch roll pitch roll
637. During the take-off run an air driven artificial nose up and incorrect a false descending turn increased nose up a false climbing turn to
horizon will usually indicate: left bank. to the right. attitude and right wing the left.
low.
638. False nose-up attitude displayed on air the high pendulosity of the lag of the lateral the linear acceleration incorrect rotor speed
driven artificial horizon during the take-off the rotor pendulous vanes cut out
run is caused by:
639. The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is tied four pendulous vanes the roll cut out the low centre of gravity two mercury level
to the earth's vertical by: of the rotor housing switches and two
torque motors
640. False right wing low attitude shown on an air the lag of the base of the the logitudinal the roll cut-out high rotor speed
driven artificial horizon during an rotor housing pendulous vanes
acceleration is caused by:
641. Inside an artificial horizon: the inner gimbal ring is the inner gimbal ring is the rotor axis is kept there is only one
pivoted laterally inside tied to the vertical by a level by a calibrated gimbal ring
the outer gimbal ring and control system spring attached to the
the outer gimbal ring is outer gimbal ring and
pivoted longitudinally the instrument case
inside the case
642. When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted it should be checked at it should be set to the it should be rendered it should be set to 15°
to an artificial horizon in light aircraft: regular intervals central position and left inoperative
there
643. An electrically driven artificial horizon has it is less pendulous, has the mercury level the roll cut-out speed is it is less aperiodic than
less errors during the take-off run because: a higher rotor speed and switches are more activated the air driven types
a linear acceleration cut sensitive than the
 out pendulous vanes fitted
to air driven types
644. The rate of turn indicator uses (i) which space gyroscope up and tied gyro anti- rate gyro up and away earth gyro Clockwise
spins (ii) i ii away from the pilot clockwise when viewed from the pilot
from above
645. The gyro in a rate of turn indicator has (1) lower, a higher rigidity is the same, it uses the a higher, a low variable, more than
operating speed than the gyros used in not required property of rigidity precession rate gives a one rate of turn is
other instruments because (ii) i ii greater operating range desired
646. When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator the calibrated spring is the force produced by the spring is providing a the spring is providing
shows a steady rate of turn: exerting a force about the spring is producing a force which produces a a force which produces
the lateral axis equal to precession equal to but precession equal to the a precession equal to
the rate of turn opposite to the rate of rate of turn (in the the rate of turn (in the
turn is correctly banked opposite direction). correct direction)
647. If the filter of the air driven rate of turn the aircraft will turn the instrument will the rate of turn the radius of the turn
indicator becomes partially blocked: faster than indicated overread indicated will be will decrease
unaffected
648. The radius of a turn at rate l, and TAS 360 kt 10nm 5nm 7.5nm 2nm
is:
649. The gimbal ring of a turn co-ordinator is make the rate of turn make the gyro sensitive make the gyro more have a higher rotor
inclined at about 30° with respect to the more accurate to banking of the effective during inverted speed which will
aircraft's longitudinal axis in order: aircraft as well as to flight prolong the life of the
turning instrument
650. A turn co-ordinator has (1) pivoted (ii) in the two gimbal rings a single gimbal ring one gimbal ring laterally two gimbal rings
case i ii orthogonally longitudinally mutually perpendicular
651. Regulatory Requirements state that the one degree for a remote three degrees for a ten degrees for a one degree for a direct
maximum permissible deviations after indicating compass and direct reading magnetic remote indicating reading magnetic
compensation are: ten degrees for a direct compass and one compass and one compass and eleven
reading magnetic degree for a remote degree for a direct degrees for a slaved
compass. indicating compass. reading magnetic compass.
compass.
652. Compass swings should be carried out: on the apron. only on the compass at the holding point. on the active runway.
swinging base or site.
653. Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical Soft varies with magnetic varies with magnetic it is not affected varies as the cosine of
 Iron: heading but not with latitude but not with magnetic latitude or the compass heading.
magnetic latitude. heading. heading.
654. Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard Iron: is not usually influenced varies directly with varies indirectly with is maximum on east
by the earth's magnetic magnetic latitude. magnetic latitude. and west.
field.
655. The aim of a compass swing is: to find deviation on the to eliminate or reduce to record any residual all of the above.
cardinal headings and to the coefficients found. deviation and to
calculate coefficients A, B prepare a compass
and C. correction card.
656. The detector unit of a remote indicating Fixed in the vertical Fixed in the azimuth Free in the vertical Free in the horizontal
compass is normally: plane only plane
657. In a remote indicating compass, the rotor of A levelling switch and pendulous suspension Bevel gears and gimbals A torque motor
the slaved gyro is automatically prevented torque motor
from wandering in the vertical plane by
means of:
658. Regulations state that the residual deviation 1 degree 3 degrees 2 degrees 5 degrees
of a remote indicating compass shall not
exceed;
659. What prevents the rotor of the slaved gyro A levelling switch An alignment switch A precession circuit A follow up amplifier
from wandering in the horizontal plane:
660. A DG flag appears on the pilots gyro unit Remote indicating The compass is The gyro is no longer The compass is aligned
What does it indicate to the pilot? compass in unserviceable misaligned being monitored by the with the detector unit
detector unit
661. The function of the follow up system in a Exercise a low rate if Maintain the master Ensure the two gyro To ensure that the
remote indicating compass is to; control over the gyro unit indicator aligned with units are in alignment annunciator unit is
the gyro unit working
662. The purpose of the annunciator circuit is to: Alternate irregularly Alternate regularly To indicate that the To show by a dot or a
system is synchronised cross independently
that the system is
synchronised
663. With reference to the flux valve of a remote The flux valve is The flux valve is not The flux valve is The flux valve is fixed
indicating compass; pendulously mounted subject to acceleration pendulously mounted to the aircraft and so
and is free to turn to errors and so it is not subject turns with the aircraft
 remain aligned with the to or affected by the to measure the angle
earth magnetic field earth's magnetic field between the aircraft
and the earth's
magnetic field
664. A partially blocked air filter will cause the under read the correct over read the correct read in the reverse indicate zero rate of
air-driven turn indicator to: rate of turn. rate of turn. sense. turn.
665. The rotor in an air driven Artificial Horizon inertia port up inertia starboard up precession port down precession starboard
rotates anti-clockwise when viewed from down
above On the aircraft accelerating, will cause
the bottom of the rotor axis to lag, resulting
in a wing indication The correct words to
complete the above statement are:
666. The rate of precession of a gyro varies:- directly inversely directly inversely inversely directly inversely directly
APPLIED FORCE ROTOR SPEED ROTOR MASS inversely directly inversely directly
667. An aircraft flying at a constant FL and increasing decrease decreasing increase decreasing decrease increasing increase
maintaining a constant TAS flies into an area
of warmer air The air density is causing the
CAS to
668. Referring to the turn and slip indicator more than 15 secs too more then 30 secs too less than 15 secs too less than 30 secs too
shown, the indications are that a 90° turn much G factor little radius of turn little TAS much IAS
will be completed in secs and there is bank
for the
669. In a climb the pitot line becomes blocked the original rate of too high a rate of clim too low a rate of climb. zero.
The vertical speed indicator (VSI) will climb.
indicate:
670. An aircraft accelerates on a westerly clockwise north anti-clockwise north clockwise south anti-clockwise south
heading in the N hemisphere The compass
needle rotates indicating a turn towards
671. An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent 6,500 ft less than 6,500 ft more than 6,500 ft zero
when the static line becomes blocked The
altimeter then reads:
672. In high speed flight at high altitude the static barometric error lag temperature error position error
source will suffer:
673. A VSI metering unit incorporates a capillary barometric error. position error. temperature and viscosity changes.
tube to compensate for: pressure changes with
height.
674. flux valve inductive pick- signal selsyn rotor stators rotor two way servo motor stator
off servo motor amplifier motor amplifier
675. If the pitot line becomes blocked in the an increasing CAS a decreasing CAS a steady CAS zero
descent, the ASI will indicate:
676. A gyroscope which utilises gravity to control tied gyro space gyro earth gyro rate gyro
a vertical reference is termed a:
677. The restricted choke in the VSI: will prevent the compensates for creates a differential compensates for time
instrument being changes in temperature pressure between the lag in the instrument.
damaged by high rates of and density only. capsule and the case as
climb and descent. its main function.
678. An aircraft is flying at a constant CAS If the falls fall decreasing rises rise increasing rises rise decreasing falls fall decreasing
ambient temperature , the TAS will due to density. density. density. pressure.
The words to correctly complete the above
statement are:
679. The latitude correcting device of an air an adjustable weight an adjustable weight the air jet which drives a chamber with four
driven directional gyro is: attached to the outer attached to the inner the rotor. exit slots half covered
gimbal of the DI. gimbal of the DI. by pendulous vanes.
680. An uncorrected gyro is set to read 100° The 106.3° 104.8° 093.7° 095.3°
gyro reading after 45 minutes when
stationary on the ground in latitude 25°S is:
681. If the static source to an altimeter becomes will over read by a continues to show the will progressively under pointer will return to
blocked during a descent, the instrument: constant amount. height at which the read. indicate a height
blockage occurred. equivalent to the sub-
scale setting.
682. An electrical Artificial Horizon employs and erection chamber fast erect buttons mercury switches precession circuit
to maintain its position in relation to Select pendulous vanes space micro switches local torque motors the local torque motor azimuth
the line of phrases given below that would longitude vertical
complete the above statement correctly:
683. The principle of operation of the turn and a space gyro which uses a single gimbal a single gimbal an earth gyro in which
slip indicator is best described as: the force of precession gyroscope whose gyroscope in which a a calibrated spring
 against a spring to give a primary precession is spring, opposing the ensures the tilt of the
reading of the aircraft opposed by a spring primary precession, in gyro is proportional to
rate of turn. which, in turn, produces turn produces a the aircraft rate of
a second precession secondary precession turn.
equal and opposite to equal to the aircraft rate
the aircraft rate of turn. of turn.
684. Compressibility error is caused by a false of decrease pitot positive increase dynamic decrease dynamic increase static
pressure, requiring a correction to the CAS negative positive negative
to obtain EAS The words to correctly
complete the sentence above are:
685. The subscale of an altimeter is set to 1030 3180 ft 3990 ft 5520 ft 3480 ft
mb and indicates 4500 ft when the QNH is
996 mb Assuming 1mb equals 30 ft, the true
height of the aircraft AMSL is:
686. An uncorrected DGI is set to read 339° when 346.7° 331.3° 326.1 351.9°
stationary on the ground in latitude 59N The
reading after 36 minutes will be:
687. During the take-off run, the air driven a climb due to the a climb due to the a right turn due to the a right turn due to the
artificial horizon will indicate: pendulosity of the inner action of the pendulous pendulosity of the outer action of the pendulous
gimbal. vanes. gimbal. vanes.
688. If a simple flux valve lies the earths field the in line with minimum at 90° to minimum half at 90° to maximum half inline with maximum
current induced in the pick-off coil will be twice twice
and the frequency will be the input
frequency The words to correctly complete
the sentence above are:
689. In the VSI, viscosity: affects the capillary tube affects the knife edge affects the bi-metallic is compensated for by
in the restricted choke. orifice in the restricted strip and compensating resetting the VSI to
choke. spring. read zero on the
ground before take-off.
690. The precession of a gyroscope varies: directly with the applied indirectly with the directly with the applied indirectly with the
force and directly with applied force and force and indirectly with applied force and
the inertia of the rotor. indirectly with the the inertia of the rotor. directly with the inertia
inertia of the rotor. of the rotor.
691. The air driven artificial horizon uses a free horizontal case an earth vertical a space horizontal a an earth vertical
gyroscope which is maintained by means of levelling pendulous vanes. pitch-bank erection torque motors
The words which correctly complete the system.
above sentence are:
692. In a turn from 045° to 315° through north in anticlockwise reduce clockwise increase anticlockwise increase clockwise reduce
the northern hemisphere, the movement of
the magnet system of a direct reading
compass, when viewed from above and the
effect of liquid swirl on the error caused by
the movement are: MAGNET SYSTEM
LIQUID SWIRL
693. The rotor of the pitch correction motor of the outer gimbal. the inner gimbal. the instrument case. the top of the gyro
the electrical artificial horizon is on: unit.
694. An aircraft flying at FL 100 and at a constant decreased increased increased increased decreased decreased increased decreased
CAS, flies from an area of warm air into an
area of cold air Assuming the QNH is the
same during the change of temperature, the
aircraft height AMSL and the TAS will have:
Height AMSL TAS
695. The main function of the annunciator in a to keep the gyro unit to maintain the gyro to indicate correct to ensure correct
gyro-magnetic compass is: aligned with the earths unit horizontal. functioning of the alignment with
field. compass system. compass north.
696. Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is: IAS corrected for IAS corrected for CAS corrected for CAS corrected for
compressibility. instrument error only. compressibility. position error.
697. The DI is set to read 100° in an aircraft 102.50° 092.05° 097.78° 103.75°
stationary on the ground in latitude 45°N
The reading after 45 minutes will be:
698. If during a climb, the static source becomes a decreased rate of a zero rate of clim an increased rate of a normal rate of climb.
blocked, the vertical speed indicator (VSI) climb. climb.
will show:
699. Dynamic pressure is: static pressure minus pitot pressure plus density and static pitot pressure minus
pitot pressure. static pressure. pressure. static pressure.
700. When accelerating on an easterly heading in turn clockwise, indicating turn anti-clockwise, turn clockwise, turn anti-clockwise,
 the N Hemisphere, the magnet system of a an apparent turn indicating an apparent indicating an apparent indicating an apparent
direct reading magnetic compass will: towards the north. turn towards the north. turn towards the south. turn towards the south.
701. Density varies: directly with pressure directly with inversely with inversely with pressure
and inversely with temperature and temperature and and directly with
temperature. pressure. pressure. temperature.
702. The deviating effect of vertical soft iron (VSI) increase decrease decrease increase decreases increase increases decrease
with decrease of magnetic latitude, due to increase decrease increase decrease.
the of H and the of Z The line containing the
words to correctly complete the above
statement is:
703. Angle of attack may be sensed by means of a stick pusher, adjacent an indexer, in the a conical slotted probe, a hinged vane sensor,
mounted to the flying controls. flight director. on the wing leading on the wing leading
edge. edge.
704. The speed at the upper end of the Green arc VRA VNO VNE VMC.
on the ASI is:
705. The rate gyro indicates the correct rate of secondary equal torqued opposite primary balanced by secondary opposite
turn when the precession due to the spring aircraft primary and equal aircraft aircraft
is to the rate of turn The line containing the
words to correctly complete the above
statement is:
706. The servo altimeter is superior to the it reduces barometric it reduces high altitude it reduces temperature all of the above are
sensitive altimeter because: error. error. error. correct.
707. The advantages of the electrical artificial random wander acceleration errors greater rigidity - fast erection button
horizon over the air-driven artificial horizon eliminated - greater reduced - less rigidity. acceleration errors fitted - quicker
are: rigidity. reduced - tuning errors precession allowing
reduced. faster indication - cut-
out switches reduce
turning errors.
708. The rotor of a rate gyroscope is over 3° per second. more than 3° per less than 3° per second. 6° per second
speeding The pilot carries out a turn with second.
the rate gyroscope indicating Rate 1 The
actual rate of turn will be:
709. The latitude nut of a directional indicator inner vertical outer vertical inner horizontal outer horizontal
 (DI) is on the gimbal and causes the
gyroscope to precess around its axis The
correct words to complete the above
sentence are:
710. If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip over read the correct under read the correct not indicate due to the indicate correctly.
indicator is higher than normal, the turn rate of turn. rate of turn. increased rigidity.
indicator will:
711. A space gyro has gimbal (s) and is so as to one gravity a horizontal two case levelled the one uncontrolled a two uncontrolled a
maintain alignment with earth reference horizontal fixed space reference fixed space reference
712. The rigidity (gyroscopic inertia) of a increasing the number of increasing the speed of increasing the speed of decreasing the speed
gyroscope may be increased by: gimbals and decreasing rotation and decreasing rotation and increasing of rotation and
the number of planes of the mass of the rotor. the mass of the rotor. increasing the mass of
rotation. the rotor.
713. An electrically driven artificial horizon being less pendulous being more rigid and using mercury switches increased gyro rpm
considerably reduces the acceleration errors and more rigid. incorporating erection and torque motors. and giving it the
of the air driven variety by: system cut-out switches. opposite rotation
direction.
714. A blockage in the static line to the VSI will a decreased rate of an increased rate of a zero rate of climb. an increased rate of
subsequently cause the instrument to climb. clim descent.
display:
715. Temperature error in the altimeter is due to: the difference between the difference between inaccurate calibration of the ambient
the actual mean the actual pressure the temperature temperature at which
temperature below the setting and 1013.2m compensating device. the aircraft is flying.
aircraft and the mean
temperature that would
be found in ISA.
716. An aircraft fitted with a direct-reading anti-clockwise reduce clockwise reduce anti-clockwise increase clockwise increase
compass is turning from 315° through north
on to 045° in the southern hemisphere The
direction of turn of the magnet system and
the effect of liquid swirl on the error due to
the turn are:TURN LIQUID SWIRL
717. The inertial platform in a north-referenced gyro drift errors are the platform will the platform remains answers b and c are
 inertial navigation system is torqued to cancelled out. always oscillate with level and aligned correct.
perform like a Schuler pendulum, so that respect to true north. regardless of any
when the platform moves over the earth: aircraft accelerations.
718. In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the most instrument. position. steep turn. missed approach
pronounced error is: manoeuvre.
719. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is: IAS corrected for CAS corrected for TAS corrected for TAS obtained from
compressibility. compressibility. compressibility. indicated Mach No.
corrected for pressure
and instrument error.
720. In a turn and slip indicator the largest errors yaw angle of bank primary torque reduced spring tension
will be induced by:
721. In a direct reading compass the maximum N/S high latitudes N/S low latitudes E/W low latitudes E/W high latitudes
errors will occur when turning through:
722. With reference to the flux valve of a the flux valve is the flux valve is fixed to the flux valve is not the flux valve is
gyromagnetic compass: pendulously mounted the aircraft and so turns subject to acceleration pendulously mounted
and is free to turn so that with the aircraft to errors. and so is not affected
it remains aligned with measure the angle by the vertical
the earth magnetic field. between the aircraft component of the
and the earths magnetic earths magnetic field.
field.
723. The purpose of the annunciator circuit in a to align the gyro unit to monitor the signals to indicate the correct to monitor the signals
remote indicating compass is: with the aircraft heading sent to the precession way to turn the sent to the precession
suing the output from coil to ensure the gyro is synchronising knob to coil to ensure the gyro
the rotor of the signal turned the correct way initially synchronise the is turned the correct
selsyn. to bring the rotor coil in way to make its axis
line with the earths line up with the
magnetic field. electrical field in the
signal selsyn.
724. Total air temperature is: the temperature of air the ambient air static air temperature true outside air
which has suffered the temperature. minus ram air temperature allowing
full effect of compression temperature. for cooling
heating.
725. An aircraft is carrying out a rate one turn at 2.5 nm 15 nm 5 nm 10 nm
 a TAS of 480 kt The diameter of the turn will
be:
726. Total Air Temperature is: the maximum the temperature the static air the recovery factor
temperature attainable indicated on the air temperature minus the plus the ram rise.
by the air when brought temperature recovery factor.
to rest, adiabatically. thermometer plus the
ram rise.
727. When using EHSI, weather radar may be MAP, centre map, plan, VOR/ILS, map, nav, nav, map, VOR/ILS, expanded nav, map,
displayed on following settings: nav, VOR/ILS. plan. plan. expanded VOR/ILS.
728. On the EHSI the following displays are ETA to way point and airspeed and altitude. way point and real drift. pitch and roll attitude.
available: distance to next way
point.
729. Ring laser gyros utilise a "Dither" motor to: prevent "lock-in" of the to reduce real wander. to prevent bounded to level and align the
laser beams. errors. gyros.
730. Select the correct statement: EAS = CAS corrected for EAS = IAS corrected for CAS = TAS corrected for TAS = EAS corrected
compressibility error. position error. density error. for compressibility
error.
731. An altimeter is accurate to ± one millibar so ± 30 feet ± 50 feet ± 50 feet ± 100 feet ± 100 feet ± 30 feet ± 40 feet ± 75 feet
at 20,000 feet and 40,000 feet it is accurate
to: 20,000 40,000
732. An aircraft flies an altitude of 3500 feet from 3500 feet 2810 feet 1690 feet 2670 feet
A, elevation 700 feet QNH 1015 mb to B,
elevation 1120 feet QNH 992 mb Assuming
the altimeter sub-scale is not changed, the
aircraft will arrive over B at a height:
733. The IVSI reduces (i) error by use of (ii) (i) (ii) time lag dashpots instrument jewelled density dashpots compressibility
bearings restricted choke
734. An aircraft turns left from 045°C to 315°C in clockwise clockwise clockwise anti- anti-clockwise anti-clockwise anti-
the Southern Hemisphere The magnets turn clockwise clockwise clockwise
(i) and liquid swirls (ii) causing the error (i)
(ii)
735. The rotational speed of the gyroscope in a 30 seconds. less than 30 seconds. more than 30 seconds. 30 seconds ± 10
turn indicator falls below the correct seconds either way.
 operational speed A 90° turn at an indicated
'rate one' on this turn indicator will take:
736. In gyroscopic theory the term 'Topple' is wander, real or wander, real or real wander, only, in the real wander, only, in
defined as: apparent, in the apparent, in the vertical horizontal plane. the vertical plane.
horizontal plane. plane.
737. An artificial horizon with an air driven the right wing going up the right wing going up the right wing going the right wing going
gyroscope, (spinning anti-clockwise seen and the nose going and the nose going up. down and the nose down and the nose
from above),is subjected to acceleration down. going up. going down.
during a take-off run As a result the
instrument indications will falsely show:
738. An uncorrected gyro is set to read 356° in an 339.1 16.1 12.9 335.9
aircraft which is stationary on the ground in
latitude 50N The reading after 1 hr 45 min is:
739. The purpose of the Annunciator unit of the show whether the display the indicate that the gyro is advise if the gyro is
Remote Indicating compass is to: compass is operating serviceability of the synchronised with the subject to excessive
either in the GYRO or compass. detector unit. wander.
COMPASS mode.
740. The aerodynamic angle of incidence (angle the angle between the the angle between the the angle between the the angle between the
of attack) is: longitudinal axis and the chord line of the wing chord line of the wing of wing and the chord
relative air flow. and the lateral axis. an aircraft and the line.
direction of the relative
air flow.
741. If an alert message is generated by the flight it appears in the middle it appears at the top of it appears in the scratch it appears in the
management system: of the CRT screen and a the CRT and an amber pad and the MSG scratch pad and an
red light flashes. light flashes. annunciator illuminates. amber light flashes
742. Vertical Speed Indicator indications may be a combination of time a combination of a combination of time manoeuvre induced
in error for some seconds after starting or lag and instrument error. position error and time lag and manoeuvre error only.
finishing a climb or descent This error is a lag. induced error.
result of:
743. The full International Standard Atmosphere the pressure altimeter the vertical speed the pressure altimeter the vertical speed
(ISA) is assumed in the calibration of: and the airspeed indicator and the only. indicator only.
indicator. machmeter.
744. An aircraft flies from A to B with QNH at A of over indicating by 120 over indicating by 180 indicating true altitude. under indicating by
 1019 mb set on the altimeter subscale feet. feet. 180 feet.
throughout the flight Assuming all other
errors are zero and that 1 mb = 30 feet,
when overhead B, QNH 1013 mbs, the
altimeter will be:
745. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and TAS will decrease and TAS will increase and TAS will decrease and TAS will increase and
FL is flying from a warm air mass into a true altitude will true altitude will true altitude will true altitude will
colder air mass The effect of the change of decrease. increase. increase. decrease.
temperature on the TAS and true altitude
will be:
746. The gyroscopic instrument which has its spin the turn indicator. the artificial horizon. the INS azimuth gyro. the directional gyro
axis tied to the earth's vertical is: indicator.
747. The rate of precession of a gyroscope varies rigidity/disturbing 1/(rigidity only) 1/(disturbing couple) disturbing couple/
as: couple only rigidity
748. An artificial horizon with an air driven the right wing going up the right wing going the right wing going the right wing going up
gyroscope (spinning anticlockwise as seen and the nose going down and the nose down and the nose and the nose going up.
from above), is subject to acceleration down. going up. going down.
during the take-off run As a result the
instrument indications will falsely show:
749. An artificial horizon with an electrical driven the gyro has greater it is fitted with a roll the gyro has greater the fast erection
gyroscope has greatly reduced take-off rigidity, is less bottom cut-out switch and a rigidity, is less bottom switch is used to
errors This is because: heavy and there is a linear cut-out switch. heavy and there is a roll overcome topple by
linear accelerometer cut- cut-out switch fitted. increasing the erection
out switch fitted. rate to a high value.
750. According to Joint Aviation requirements, 1° 3° 5° l0°
the maximum deviation on any heading
after correction of a direct reading magnetic
compass is:
751. The correct check for a turn and slip needle left, ball left. needle left, ball right. needle right, ball left. needle right, ball right.
indicator when taxying and turning left is:
752. The rotor in an electric artificial horizon is a jet of air from the mercury switches only. a jet of air from the torque motors and
tied to the vertical by; rotor impinging on a outer gimbal striking the level switches.
wedge plate which is on rotor buckets.
 the inner gimbal.
753. Compared to the VSI what errors are lag turning pressure temperature
eliminated by the IVSI?
754. In an INS the gyros should be strap down In always, never. always, always. never, always. never, never.
an IRS the gyros should be strap down
755. The airspeed indicator is calibrated to; ISA at mean sea level. ISA at 36,090 ft. ISA at the height the the full ISA.
aircraft is flying.
756. A DGI reads 300°T when the aircraft is 309° 287° 313° 291°
stationary at 60°S, what will the DGI read
after 40 minutes?
757. Aircraft magnetism; varies with aircraft varies with latitude but does not vary with does not vary with
heading and latitude does not vary with aircraft heading or aircraft latitude but
aircraft heading latitude does vary with aircraft
heading
758. An aircraft is flying a rate 1 turn at 480 kt 3nm 5nm 6nm 2nm
TAS What is the diameter of the turn?
759. In gyroscopic theory the term `Topple' is wander, real or real wander only in the wander, real or real wander only in the
defined as; apparent, in the vertical plane apparent, in the vertical horizontal plane
horizontal plane plane
760. On which of the displays can weather be B, D and E A, C and F B and D C, E and F
displayed?
761. Ring laser gyros utilise a `Dither' motor to; reduce real wander prevent unbounded level and align the gyros prevent lock in of the
errors laser beam
762. Which of the following is true regarding the It has a tied gyroscope. Its gyro is offset by 30° It gives angle of bank It responds to rate of
turn co-ordinator? to the longitudinal axis and rate of turn. turn only.
of the aircraft.
763. Compressibility is corrected for when EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the EAS from CAS and the CAS from IAS and the
obtaining; correction is always correction can be either correction is normally correction is normally
subtractive. additive or subtractive. subtractive. subtractive
764. The colour arcs of an ASI are in ascending green, yellow and red blue, yellow and red white, yellow and red white, green and
speed order? yellow
765. An altimeter has an error of 1 mb The error 30ft, 30ft 50ft, 100ft I Oft, 30ft 50ft, 80ft
 at 20,000ft will be _______, while at
40,000ft the error will be ________
766. A single axis autopilot system: Provides stabilisation Provides control about Is unsuitable for use in Provides control about
about the normal axis the pitch axis powered aircraft the roll axis
767. A single axis autopilot may also be called: Altitude hold Wing leveller Pitch control loop Auto stabilisation loop
768. An auto pilot: is a system which will is a system which will is an auto stabilisation is an outer loop control
maintain a preselected maintain a preselected system system
altitude airspeed
769. The fundamental components of an Rate gyro, servomotor, Rate gyro, servo motor, Torque limiter, error Servo motor, rate gyro,
autopilot control loop are: error signal generator torque limiter signal generator, torque limiter, error
servomotor signal generator
770. A device in a closed loop control system in An amplifier A servomechanism A powered flying control A rate gyro
which a small power input controls a much unit
larger power output in a strictly
proportionate manner is:
771. An automatic flight control system: Is another name for an Applies flight data to Is automatically Can only be used in
autopilot system the auto pilot system disengaged by a GPWS EFIS equipped aircraft
alert
772. An aircraft has yaw damping included in its A three axis autopilot Parallel connected Automatic maintenance INS inputs to the CADC
auto stabilisation system An essential system servo motors of c of g position
requirement of such a system is:
773. Automatic flight systems may be capable of Azimuth, elevation and Azimuth and velocity Azimuth only Azimuth and elevation
controlling the aircraft flight in: velocity only only
774. An automatic flight control system is fitted The autopilot must be Manoeuvring Manoeuvring The CWS is only there
with control wheel steering (CWS) disengaged before the commands may be input commands may be input for steering on the
pilot can input by applying normal using pitch and turn ground
manoeuvring commands forces to the control controls on the
yoke without first automatic flight system
disengaging the control panel, without
autopilot first disengaging the
autopilot
775. During an approach to an autoland at 1500 Off line channels are Localiser is controlling Localiser is controlling Provided both localiser
feet: manually engaged, flare the roll channel, off line the roll channel, and glideslope signals
 mode is armed channels are stabiliser is trimmed are valid LAND 3 will
automatically engaged nose up and roll out is illuminate
and flare mode is armed armed
776. Inputs to the rudder channels initially Servomotors Compass gyro and gyro Compass gyro and turn AH gyro and turn and
originate from: for AH and slip gyro slip gyro
777. An automatic flight system which can safely Fail redundant system Fail passive system Three axis system Fail operational system
continue with an automatic landing after a
system failure is a:
778. During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is Fail active or fail Fail passive Approaching decision Requiring a crew input
illuminated The system is: operational height
779. During an autoland approach: flare is engaged at localiser roll control is flare is disengaged prior glideslope is the
1500'agl disengaged just prior to to touchdown at 5'GA engaged pitch mode
touchdown until 5'GA
780. In an autoland at 1000' AGL with two the armed roll mode the engaged roll mode the engaged pitch mode the engaged roll mode
autopilots engaged: would be LOCALISER would be GLIDESLOPE would be FLARE would be LOCALISER.
781. An automatic flight control system in which control wheel steering touch control steering series connected system parallel connected
the application of normal forces on the system.
control column allows the ilot to input
demands to the autopilot is a:
782. If a fault develops in a Triplex auto-pilot fail passive and the fail control wheel fail operational. a manual disconnect.
system during an approach, the system will landing may continue. mode.
revert to;
783. Inner loop stability is obtained by; inputs from the Air Data manometric locks. 'I' bar displacement. raw data feed to the
Computer. data control bus bar.
784. The mode that enables the pilot to control wheel steering touch control steering control wheel steering the touch control
manoeuvre his aircraft in pitch and roll by (CWS )mode that allows that will permit the pilot mode which will steering mode which
use of the automatic control system is called the pilot to control the to control the aircraft disengage the will prevent the flaps
the; aircraft, and when the via the air data servomotors. retracting.
wheel is released, the computer.
aircraft holds the newly
established attitude.
785. Touch control steering; prevents aerodynamic will only operate while allows the pilot to engages the
feedback. the flaps are down. control the aircraft with servomotors during
 the servomotors manual operation in
disengaged. pitch and roll.
786. A system which can still function without fail passive ability. fail soft ability. fail operational ability. fail symbol ability.
degradation of performance after a failure
has;
787. Heading hold mode relates to control in ; the height lock via the the pitch channel via the roll channel via the the manometer mode
CADC. the inner loop. outer loop control of the CADC.
source.
788. The system which allows the pilot to control touch control steering. control wheel steering. the electronic inner / the outer loop control.
the aircraft with the servomotors engaged is outer axis loop.
called;
789. The type of automatic landing system which fail passive. fail safe. fail active. fail operational.
would necessitate a manual landing after a
system failure during an automatic approach
is
790. After a failure of one of the necessary continue the descent but carry out a missed disengage autoland and continue descent and
redundant systems below alert height you revert to a higher D.H. approach. take over manually. land automatically.
would;
791. When localiser and glide slope are captured touch down mode and flare mode arm and flare mode engage and flare mode arm and off
at 1,500 feet during an automatic landing roll out mode. touch down mode. roll out mode. line channels engaged.
sequence, two other functions will be
activated at the same time, they are;
792. A fundamental requirement of a closed loop a stable reference device. an interlock control. a tacho-generator. feedback.
servo-mechanism is;
793. ALT HOLD is an example of : Inner loop control in the Outer loop input to the Outer loop control Inner loop control in
roll axis pitch channel about the longitudinal the pitch axis
axis
794. A rate gyro: Has three degrees of Senses rate of turn and Supplies rate and Controls the outer loop
freedom, two gimbals positions an indicator on displacement inputs
and a transducer the EHSI information to the
computer
795. To prevent servo motor runaway from A gyro damper is fitted A torque limiter is fitted A gyro limiter is fitted A torque converter is
producing excessive demands to the control fitted
 surface :
796. With the Autopilot engaged engaged in the maintains its altitude changes its altitude in switches barometric trips out of altitude
Alt mode the Captain alters the barometric accordance with the input over to the 1 s` hold.
setting The aircraft change in pressure Pilot setting
setting
797. Control wheel steering enables a pilot to: taxy the aircraft on the manoeuvre the aircraft alter the flight path manoeuvre the aircraft
ground in the air while the while the autopilot is with the autopilot
autopilot is engaged engaged by applying a disengaged.
breakout force
798. Auto synchronization in an aircraft : requires that the ensures that, when the requires that the aircraft needs at least two
interlocks are made autopilot is engaged, the is trimmed out before alternators running in
before the autopilot will take-over is effected the autopilot can be parallel.
engage smoothly and without engaged
snatching on the control
system
799. The regulatory requirements for single pilot a single axis autopilot a two axis autopilot a three axis autopilot a two axis autopilot
operation under IFR state that the aircraft with autothrottle
must be fitted with:
800. Regulatory operational requirements for the Only statement A is Only statement B is Both statements are Neither statement is
installation of automatic pilot state that the correct correct correct correct.
system must have: A automatic
synchronisation B quick release controls on
both control wheels
801. The control laws for an autopilot are known normal law and alternate law and direct normal, alternate and normal, alternate and
as: emergency law law emergency laws direct laws.
802. An autoland system that, in the event of an fail passive fail safe fail operational duplex.
autopilot failure, continues to function
without degradation of performance beyond
the limits required automatic, would be one
with the status:
803. The Autoland sequence is considered to be reverse thrust is engaged the autopilot is the aircraft touches the aircraft reaches the
complete when: manually disengaged by down end of the runway.
the pilot
804. An aircraft on Autopilot is engaged in the automatically switches to decouples from the tunes to the next VOR decouples from the
VOR mode and loses the VOR signals as it Heading mode VOR and disconnects on the route VOR and flies the last
flies through the VOR cone of silence The heading for a fixed
autopilot: period.
805. For an aircraft with a non-synchronised the pilot ensuring that being in a straight and disengaging the switching on the yaw
autopilot system, `snatching' of the controls the aircraft is trimmed level position autotrim dampers.
by the autopilot when engaging or out before selecting or
disengaging can be prevented by: disengaging the autopilot
806. With the autopilot in CWS the pilot heading and altitude heading, speed and altitude and attitude attitude at the time of
manoeuvres the aircraft and releases attitude release.
control The aircraft will maintain
807. For a commercial aircraft operating with a three axes Heading mode Altitude Hold and Altitude Hold, Heading
single pilot in IFR the minimum requirement Heading mode mode and Speed.
is that the autopilot should have control in:
808. A 2 axis gyro, measuring vertical changes will one degree of freedom, two degrees of one degree of freedom, two degrees of
have: vertical axis freedom, vertical axis horizontal axis freedom, horizontal
axis
809. The properties of a gyro are: mass , rigidity & inertia rigidity & precession rigidity & inertia mass & inertia
810. An aircraft fitted with a Direct Reading no change oscillation about north a turn towards east a turn towards west
Magnetic Compass (DRMC) upon landing in
a northerly direction will indicate:
811. Which of the following will effect a direct ferrous metals only ferrous metals & ferrous metals & non- all of the above
reading compass? electrical equipment ferrous metals
812. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to friction hysterysis lag pressure error
overcome:
813. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated correct greater than the real less than the real oscillating around the
altitude, over a warm airmass The altimeter altitude altitude correct altitude
reading will be:
814. CAS is IAS corrected for: position and instrument instrument, pressure relative density only compressibility
error and density error
815. A DGI has; one degree of freedom & two degrees of freedom two degrees of freedom one degree of freedom
a horizontal spin axis & a vertical spin axis & a horizontal spin axis & a vertical spin axis
816. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude 16,200 ft 15,200 ft 18,600 ft 13,500 ft
of 16,000ft. The outside air temperature is -
30° C What is the true altitude of the
aircraft?
817. The main cause of error in a DRMC is: parallax in the rose turning magnetic deviation latitude
818. QNH is: the airfield barometric the setting that will give the equivalent sea level the setting that will
pressure zero indication on the pressure at the airfield indicate airfield height
airfield
819. What is the Schuler period? 21 minutes 84 minutes 1 oscillation in azimuth 63 minutes
820. The vertical reference of a data generation horizontal axis with 1 vertical axis with 1 horizontal axis with 2 vertical axis with 2
unit is: degree of freedom degree of freedom degree of freedom degree of freedom
821. The torque motor of a gyro stabilised precesses the directional takes its input from the moves the heading moves the Selsyn stator
magnetic compass: gyro flux valve pointer
822. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating crosswinds - particularly parallax due to acceleration on turning through
compass would be: on east/west headings oscillations of the east/west headings east/west headings
compass rose
823. What is VMO calculated from: CAS TAS COAS EAS
824. Descending from FL390 at maximum VMo initially then MMo MMO initially then VNE initially then MMO VNO initially then VNE
groundspeed, what will the pilot be limited at a specified altitude VMO at a specified at a specified altitude at a specified altitude
by: altitude
825. At constant weight, regardless of altitude, EAS TAS ground speed CAS
an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:
826. VFE is the maximum speed that: the flaps can be operated the flaps may be the flaps may be the flaps may be
extended in the take-off extended in the landing extended in a specified
configuration configuration configuration
827. The white arc on the ASI indicates: Vs1, at the lower end and Vso at the lower end Vso at thelower end and Vs1 at the lower end
VLE at the upper end and VLE at the upper VFE at the upper end and VFE at the upper
end end
828. An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. total pressure & static dynamic pressure static pressure total pressure
The Pitot Probe measures: pressure
829. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the ASI reading goes to zero ASI under reads ASI over reads ASI behaves like an
drain hole is blocked, but the static source is altimeter
 open, what will happen ?
830. In a turn at constant angle of bank, the rate independent of weight dependant on weight independent of weight dependant on weight
of turn is: and proportional a to TAS and inversely and inversely and proportional to
proportional to TAS proportional a to TAS TAS
831. The Turn Indicator is a useful gyroscopic angular velocity about direction of turn& angular velocity about angular velocity about
instrument. When used in association with the yaw axis& angular angular velocity about true vertical axis& speed the yaw axis &
an attitude indicator will show: velocity about true true vertical axis of turn direction of turn
vertical axis
832. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off a turn to the north oscillates about west no turn a turn to south
on a westerly heading, in the northern
hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:
833. When turning through 90° at constant nose up and correct attitude and bank angle nose up and bank angle nose up and bank angle
attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon angle of bank are correct too low too high
indicates:
834. The factors which will affect a Turn Indicator aircraft speed & aircraft angle of bank & aircraft angle of bank & aircraft all of the above
are: weight speed weight
835. The properties of a Turn Indicator are: One degree of freedom, two degrees of One degree of freedom, two degrees of
& spin axis horizontal freedom, & spin axis & spin axis in the freedom , & spin axis
parallel to the yaw axis longitudinal plane horizontal
836. A gravity erector system corrects errors on DGI artificial horizon turn indicator RIMC
a:
837. In a Gyro magnetic Compass the flux gate heading indicator amplifier error detector erecting system
transmits information to the:
838. VNO is the max speed which: the pilot can fully deflect should only be should never be must not be exceeded
the controls. exceeded in still air and exceeded. for flap/gear extension
with caution.
839. On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the turn to the right, not turn to the left, too turn to the left, not turn to the right, too
left and ball to the right indicates: enough bank. much bank. enough bank. much bank.
840. What is density altitude: altitude in the standard pressure altitude temperature altitude. pressure corrected
atmosphere at which the corrected for prevailing
prevailing density is temp.
equal to the density in
the standard atmosphere
841. An RMI rose is mechanically stuck on 090 225 degrees. 135 degrees. Cannot be determined. 000 degrees.
degrees. The ADF pointer indicates 225
degrees. What is the relative bearing to the
beacon?
842. Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the a/c Nose up, too much bank. Nose up, not enough Nose up, wings level. Bank and pitch correct.
performs a right turn through 270 degrees bank.
at a constant angle of bank and rate of turn.
The indication is:
843. In a DGI what error is caused by the gyro Earth Rate Transport Wander real wander latitude error
movement relative to the earth?
844. In a right turn while taxiing, the correct Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball right. Needle right, ball left.
indications are:
845. An aircraft is taking of on a runway heading compass moves to less compass moves to Compass stays on 045° if compass remains on
045°, in still air, with a compass having 0° than 045° more than 045° wings are kept level 045°
deviation The runway is on an agonic line
What are the northerly turning errors
(northern hemisphere) ?
846. True heading can be converted into A map with isogonal A map with isoclinal A deviation card. A deviation curve
magnetic heading using a compass and: lines. lines.
847. At sea level ISA, TAS: Equals CAS Is greater than CAS Is less than CAS None above is correct.
848. What will the altimeter read if the layers read lower than the real read higher then the read the correct altitude readings will fluctuate
beneath the aircraft are all colder than altitude real altitude
standard?
849. The flux valve in a RIMC is supplied with AC is fed with DC. is made of perm-alloy has its own self exciter
current (usually 487.5 magnetic steel. unit.
Hz).
850. An artificial horizon has: 1 degree of freedom and 2 degree of freedom 1 degree of freedom 2 degree of freedom
an horizontal axis. and an horizontal axis. and a vertical axis. and a vertical axis.
851. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by: Increasing RPM and Increasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and Decreasing RPM and
concentrating the mass concentrating the mass concentrating the mass concentrating the mass
on the periphery of the at the hub of the rotor. on the periphery of the at the hub of the rotor.
rotor. rotor.
852. What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA 644kts. 661 kts. 1059 kts 583kts.
853. What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft and 624kts. 618kts. 601 kts 610kts.
-28 degrees C.
854. What is the speed of sound at 30,000 ft and 562kts. 595kts. 590kts. 661 kts.
-40 degrees C.
855. A compass swing is used to: align compass north with align compass north align magnetic north get true north and
magnetic north. with true north. with true north. lubber line aligned.
856. The TAT probe measures TAT by: TAT = SAT + kinetic TAT = SAT - heating due TAT = SAT - kinetic TAT = SAT + heating
heating. to compressibility. heating. due to compressibility.
857. If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at read constant airspeed. under read. over read. show zero.
altitude by icing, during a descent the ASI
will:
858. What are the upper and lower limits of the lower limit VLO and lower limit VLE and lower limit VNO and lower limit VLO and
yellow arc on an ASI? upper limit VNE upper limit VNE upper limit VNE upper limit VLE
859. What does the blue line on an ASI of a twin VYSE VNOS V FE VMCA
propeller engined aircraft indicate ?
860. The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro directional gyro unit turn indicator artificial horizon gyromagnetic device
is used on which instrument;
861. In a VSI lag error is improved by: bi-metalic strip two use of an accelerometer return spring
system
862. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is landing in a 180° turn to east no apparent turn turn to west All above are correct
southerly direction, in the Southern
Hemisphere. What indications will be seen
on the DRMC ?
863. What is the maximum drift of a gyro, due to 90° per hour 180° per hour 15° per hour 5° per hour
earth rate:
864. When turning through 180° at constant nose up and correct attitude and bank angle nose up and bank angle nose up and bank angle
attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon angle of bank are correct too low too high
indicates:
865. What is the Schuler period? 48 minutes 84 seconds 48 seconds 84 minutes
866. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and remain approximately increase by 10 kts decrease by 10 kts will increase or
constant mach number. The total constant decrease depending on
 temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will: whether you are above
or below ISA.
867. An aircraft turns from south-west to south- 130° 115° 140° 155°
east when situated at 45°N, what heading
should you roll out on if using a DRMC ?
868. What is SAT ? relative temperature differential relative temperature ambient temperature
measured in K temperature measured measured in °C measured in °C
in K
869. Where is the earth rate wander, and the North Pole Equator 45° N 45° S
transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?
870. What happens when the static pressure reduces to zero overreads under reads indicates altitude at
supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked which blockage
during a descent ? occurred
871. What happens when the static vent ASI acts opposite to an ASI always over reads / ASI always under reads / ASI acts like an
supplying an ASI is blocked, and the ram air altimeter reads a higher value reads a lower value altimeter
inlet remains clear ?
872. In a left turn while taxiing, the correct Needle left, ball right. Needle left, ball left. Needle right, ball right. Needle right, ball left.
indications are:
873. VNE is defined as: the speed which must the speed above which the speed which must the maximum speed
not be exceeded in still the landing gear may never be exceeded for normal flap
air, or without caution not be extended extension to be
selected
874. In a left turn, the ball of the turn co- more right rudder less right bank more left bank more left rudder
ordinator is out to the right, what corrective
action is required?
875. In a gyro magnetic compass, where does the the flux gate error detector the rotor gimbal amplifier
torque motor get its information from'?
876. What are the advantages of a laser gyro has a longer cycle life takes longer to set up/ uses more power takes longer to align
compared to a conventional gyro ? spin up
877. Which instrument has a 2° rotation in the artificial horizon flux detector directional gyro turn indicator
horizontal axis? indicator
878. The maximum drift error sensed by an 15° per hour 30° per hour 45° per hour 60° per hour
uncompensated DGI will be:
879. The green arc on the ASI is used to identify Vso to VNO VS1 to VFE VS1 to V NO VS1 to VLO
which speed range:
880. Pressure altitude may be defined as: lowest forecast regional pressure measured in altitude indicated with altitude indicated with
pressure the standard QFE set on the altimeter QNH set on the
atmosphere altimeter
881. Which of the following gyro instruments has artificial horizon turn indicator directional gyro slaved gyro compass
one degree of freedom?
882. If a large aircraft is slide slipped to under read read correctly Over read fluctuate
starboard, and the port static vent is
blocked, what will the altimeter read ?
883. The right static vent is blocked, when the Over read under read unaffected None of the above
aircraft yaws to the right. Does the
altimeter:
884. If the radio altimeter fails: height information aural warning given radio alt flag, red lamp, radio alt flag and red
disappears and aural warning given lamp activates.
885. VNO is defined as: maximum structural never exceed speed manoeuvring speed maximum operating
cruising speed speed
886. If the left static vent is blocked, and the right read correctly whatever under read if side slipping to the if side slipping to the
static vent is clear. What will the altimeter the situation left, altimeter will over right, altimeter will
read if the aircraft maintains constant level? read. over read.
887. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated greater than the real standard altitude same as the real altitude less than the real
altitude, over a cold airmass. The altimeter altitude altitude
reading will be:
888. An aircraft is accelerating to take-off on a less than 45° more than 45° correct if wings are level correct
runway with a QDM of 045°. Which way
does the DRMC move, if the aircraft is in the
Northern Hemisphere ?
889. When turning right onto north, through 90°, 020° 360° 340° 320°
what heading on your DIC should you roll
out on, if the aircraft is in the Northern
Hemisphere?
890. What does a radio altimeter, for an aircraft height of aircraft wheels height of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft altitude of the aircraft
in the landing configuration, measure: above the ground above the ground wheels
891. Why is a servo altimeter better than a it has a pick-off coil it is more accurate at it has ambient pressure it is fitted with a
sensitive altimeter/ low level in the capsule knocking device
892. In an altimeter what is fed to: the capsule (i) vacuum static input static input vacuum pitot input static input total input ambient
and to the case (ii)? (i) (ii) input
893. What principle does the radio altimeter pulse modulation amplitude modulation pulse modulation and frequency modulation
work on ? carrier wave and carrier wave
894. What is indicated on the ASI when the static under reads reads correctly over reads reads zero
vent blocks during a descent ?
895. A rate integrating gyro is used in: inertial attitude unit autopilot system inertial navigation a rate of turn indicator
system
896. The error in a Directional Gyro due to the 10.6° Clockwise 10.6° Anti-clockwise 7.6° Clockwise 7.6° Anti-clockwise
earth's rotation, at a mean latitude of 45° N,
will cause the spin axis to move by:
897. What are the components of a Ring Laser mirrors and 2 cavities 2 anodes and 2 2 beams of laser light horizontal gryo axis and
Gyro ? cathodes 1 degree of freedom
898. Where on the earth's surface is the earth 15° 30° 0° 90°
rate drift of a DGI equal to 15.04° per hour ?
899. The pendulous type correction detector torque on the sensitive two torque motors on pendulous internal one torque motor
fitted to the DGI provides: axis the horizontal axis nozzle on the outer
gimbal
900. An aircraft is fitted with two altimeters. One ATC will receive at high speed the non- provided that the ADC is at high speed the non-
is corrected for position error, the other is erroneous information of compensated altimeter working normally, there compensated altimeter
not corrected for position error flight level will show a lower will be no error to either will show a higher
altitude altimeter altitude
901. Density altitude is defined as: the altitude of the the altitude reading on the altitude the altitude showing on
airfield elevation the altimeter which has corresponding to the the altimeter with the
corrected for Lapse Rate QNH set on it standard atmosphere lowest regional QNH
compensated for set
ambient density
902. The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct static pressure total & static pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
reading of:
903. When descending from FL230 to FL50 at VMO VMO then MMO MMO then VMO MMO
maximum speed, the limitations which apply
 are:
904. The pressure measured at the forward face dynamic pressure static pressure total pressure total pressure + static
of the Pitot probe is: pressure
905. What has inputs from the flux valve; error detector heading indicator amplifier precession motor
906. Sound propagates at a speed which depends density temperature temperature & pressure pressure
only on;
907. What aircraft system uses a frequency of SSR radio altimeter weather radar ATC radar
4,400 MHz ?
908. A low altitude Radio Altimeter, used in 1540MHz to 1660 MHz frequency modulation frequency modulation pulse transmissions
precision approaches, has the following range and an accuracy of and height range and an accuracy of +/- and frequency
characteristics: +/- 2ft between 0 and between 0 and 5,000ft 2ft between 0 and 500ft modulation
500ft
909. A modern low altitude Radio Altimeter uses pulse modulated waves, Frequency modulated Wave modulation, with Triangular wave, with
the principle of: with the difference waves, where the frequency shift due to the frequency shift of
between the transmitted difference between the Doppler effect of the the ground reflected
and received waves transmitted wave and ground reflected wave wave being measured
displayed on a circular the received wave is being measured
screen. measured.
910. The frequencies used in a low altitude Radio 5 GHz to 6 GHz 5400 MHz and 9400 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz
Altimeter are: MHz
911. The difference between Magnetic North and deviation curve deviation card map with isoclinic lines map with isogonal lines
True North can be derived by:
912. A direction gyro gets its directional air data computer direct reading magnetic flight director flux valve
information from: compass
913. What is the principle of operation of a VSI: differential pressure total pressure in a static pressure in a dynamic pressure in a
across a capsule capsule capsule capsule
914. In a Remote Indicating Compass, what gyro precession signal flux valve annunciator error detector
component feeds the Amplifier?
915. An aircraft turns right, through 90o, onto 010° 030° 330° 350°
North, at 48N, using a direct indicating
compass. The aircraft is turning at rate 2.
What heading should the aircraft roll out
 on?
916. What is the normal operating range of a low 0 to 2,500ft 50ft to 2500ft 0 to 10,000ft 0 to 7,500ft
altitude Radio Altimeter?
917. What is a radio altimeter used for? to determine aircraft to determine aircraft to determine pressure to detennine aircraft
height above mean sea height above ground altitude altitude
level level
918. You commence a rate 2 turn from south- 240° 255° 235° 205°
east to south-west, in the Northern
Hemisphere. On what heading do you stop
the turn ?
919. A directional gyro is valid only for a short earth rotation , a/c earth rotation, a/c earth rotation , all of the above
period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy motion over the earth & motion over the earth & longitudinal
are; gyro mass mechanical defects accelerations & a/c
motion over the earth
920. A VMO / MMO alarm system, on an airline subjected to static subjected to dynamic subjected to static subjected to dynamic
aircraft, is fitted with an aneroid capsule pressure and an pressure and an pressure and an pressure and an
which is: anemometer subjected anemometer subjected anemometer subjected anemometer subjected
to dynamic pressure to static pressure to static pressure to dynamic pressure
921. An aircraft, in the southern hemisphere, is an apparent turn to an apparent turn to correctly an oscillation about
decelerating to land on a westerly heading. north south west
The direct reading magnetic compass will
indicate:
922. What is the input to a VSI ? static pressure differential pressure total pressure dynamic pressure
923. The component(s) used to align an inertial Accelerometers and Accelerometers Flow inductors Gyroscopes
strap-down unit in the horizontal plane gyroscopes
is/are:
924. A ring laser gyro consists of ; A gyro with 2 degrees of Two moving cavities A laser split into two Two electrodes
freedom using mirrors beams (anodes and cathodes)
925. The Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) can: not align itself with can automatically align have 1° of freedom have 2° of freedom
magnetic north itself with magnetic
north
926. The Pitot tube comprises a mast to position avoid disturbance from position it outside the anti-ice protection easy access for
 it below the skin of the aircraft for: aerodynamic flow about boundary layer maintenance
the aircraft
927. Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the a/c Nose up, too much bank. Nose up, not enough Nose up, wings level. Bank and pitch correct.
performs a right turn through 360 degrees bank.
at a constant angle of bank and rate of turn.
The indication is:
928. Find the correct answer : The inner gimbal of V.G The outer gimbal of V.G The inner gimbal of V.G The V.G gives pitch
show roll. show pitch. show pitch while the D.G gives roll
and heading
information.
929. In the turn and slip indicator : Rate gyro is used for turn Rate gyro is used for Rate gyro is used for Rate gyro is used for
indication while gravity is slip indication while turn indication while bank indication while
used for slip indication. gravity is used for turn gravity is used for bank gravity is used for turn
indication. indication. indication.
930. The rate gyro used in a turn indicator has its The longitudinal axis The athwartship axis The vertical axis The fore and aft axis.
axis aligned in :
931. In a capacitor type fuel quantity indicator : The capacitance decrease The capacitance The capacitance will None of the above.
if fuel is decreased. increase if fuel is change with fuel
decreased. quantity and
temperature.
932. If an aircraft turns East from Northerly The Easterly deviation The Westerly deviation The dip will increase. The dip will decrease.
heading in the northern hemisphere, increase with no change increase with no change
in dip. in dip.
933. An accelerometer usually measures In one direction only. In two directions at a In all three directions none of the above
acceleration : time. (X,Y,Z) at a time.
934. The magnetic equator is : An agonic line. An isoclinic line. An aclinic line. An isogonic line.
935. Compass deviation is due to : Aircraft magnetic field. Earth’s magnetic field. Magnetic storm. None of the above.
936. A gyro will not precess when an external force is when the rotor is when there is friction in when an external force
applied perpendicular to unbalanced but there is the bearings but no is applied along the
the spin axis. no gravitational force. external force is spin axis.
present.
937. The strength of the horizontal component of varies with the sine of does not vary with varies with cosine of dip. vary with latitude but
 earth’s magnetic field : dip. latitude. does not vary with the
cosine of dip.
938. If in an altimeter, the setting (mBar) is increase decrease remain unaffected become unstable.
decreased the reading of the altimeter will :
939. The cause of apparent precession is : Earth’s rotation. Change of latitude and Both (a) and (b) are Mechanical
longitude. correct. imperfections of the
gyro.
940. During entry of initial co-ordinates, the accepts wrong latitude. accepts wrong accepts both wrong does not accept wrong
inertial navigation system : longitude. latitude and longitude. latitude or longitude.
941. When an aircraft flies 2 dots below gives a “GLIDESLOPE” gives a “GLIDESLOPE” does not give any does not give any GPW
glideslope, the GPWS : hard warning. soft warning. “GLIDESLOPE” warning. warning.
942. Find the incorrect statement : The amplifier of an AP The servometer acts as The detector detects the The detector detects
strengthens the signal a muscle to move the position of the control the change in attitude
from the detector to control surfaces. surfaces. of the aircraft.
operate the servometer.
943. The auto pilot when engaged : can maintain aircraft can capture a new can capture a new All of the above are
heading and altitude. selected heading. selected altitude. correct.
944. The auto pilot : relieves the human pilot assists in navigation improves safety but All of the above are
of flying fatigue. with the help of other does not replace the correct.
instruments. human pilot.
945. The flight director command bars on the fly up and left fly down and right fly down and left fly up and right
display shown are commanding
946. Where are the flight director modes PFD ND EICAM FD control panel
displayed ?
947. The autopilot is in heading select mode, and roll command bar goes roll command bar the heading command roll command bar
the aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°. If full deflection right and moves to right and bar will disappear and moves to the right and
you change heading to 360°, the flight then doesn't move until centres when AFDS the heading hold will then progressively
director command bars will; the aircraft heading is angle of bank to disengage returns to the centre as
within 30° of the selected intercept has been the deviation from the
heading achieved selected heading
reduces
948. What are the basic functions of an Heading hold &Speed Maintain pitch attitude Maintain wings level & all of the above
autopilot? hold & Maintain wings level Altitude hold
949. At 50 feet agl during an autoland, what continues to be actioned is disconnected is factored for range is used to flare the
happens to the glideslope signal ? aircraft
950. What is the wavelength of an ILS signal Centimetric Hectometric Metric Decimetric
951. The interception of the localiser beam by on a constant magnetic a mode using an a mode using an on a constant heading
the autopilot is: course interception verses interception verses
range computation radio deviation law
952. Engagement of the autopilot is not possible electrical supply is the turn control knob is there is a fault in the all of the above
when: faulty&there is a not set to centre off attitude reference unit
synchronisation fault
953. On which instrument are the flight director Primary EICAS ADI ND EHSI
bars normally present?
954. What happens at 50ft whilst carrying out an glideslope and localiser radio altimeter controls radio altimeter controls glideslope disconnects
autolanding? disconnect and aircraft the rate of descent the angle of attack and aircraft continues
continues to land descent
955. If you have selected a heading of 180° and only if aircraft is subject only if aircraft is subject cannot be centralised will only be central
are flying aircraft on heading of 160° to to 20° port drift to 20° starboard drift when flying correct
intercept the correct course, the ADI vertical attitude to intercept
bar be central when? desired heading
956. If the autopilot is selected to VOR mode, Temporarily follows VOR disengages and The pilot must select an The pilot manually flies
what happens if the aircraft flies over the current heading until Heading hold engages alternate roll mode the aircraft following
cone of confusion`? exiting the cone of flight director roll
confusion commands.
957. The autopilot disconnects (or the autoland is 100 ft decision height flare roll out
completed) at:
958. The control law in a fly-by-wire system is a how the pilot's control input and output at the computer input the versine signal
relationship between: demands are translated amplifier level deviation data and flap between the ailerons
into control surface respectively control the position modification and elevators
movements. deviation data
959. What are the autopilot minimum Two axis autopilot with Two axis autopilot with Single axis autopilot Single axis autopilot
requirements in order to fly single pilot altitude hold and heading altitude hold, heading with Altitude hold only with Heading select
operations in IFR conditions or at night ? hold. hold, VOR tracking and and VS
Alt acquire
960. When flying level in the cruise the .............. Autopilot, Autopilot Auto-throttle, Auto- Auto-throttle, Autopilot Autopilot, Auto-
holds height and the .............. holds the throttle throttle
speed:
961. At what height during a semi-automatic 100 ft 45 ft Decision height 14 ft
landing is the autopilot disengaged:
962. At the missed approach point the TOGA GA power selected & Autopilot selects max. Autopilot selects max. GA power selected &
switch on the throttles is depressed. Which Pilot manually fly’s power & Pilot manually power & Autopilot fly’s Aircraft automatically
of the following statements are correct : manoeuvre fly’s manoeuvre the GA manoeuvre cleans up
963. If a Go-Around is initiated from an auto- the pilot retracts the flap the auto throttle selects both a & b none of the above
approach : and the landing gear to maximum power as
reduce drag & the soon as the TOGA switch
autopilot monitors the is pressed & the pilot
climb performs the climb
964. An auto-land system which can continue to Fail passive Fail Soft Fail Safe Fail active
automatically land the aircraft after a single
failure is called :
965. Where can the pilot look to see the PFD overhead panel throttle control panel EICAS
autothrottle mode ?
966. Where can the pilot look to see the thrust PFD Overhead panel Throttle control panel Primary EICAS
limit mode ?
967. The autopilot is engaged with no modes wing leveling altitude hold Auto-stability with auto- LNAV and VNAV
selected. What is the autopilot providing: trim
968. When is an Autoland procedure complete At the markers At the beginning of the At decision height At the flare
ground roll
969. During aCAT2 approach, what is providing Capsule stack Radio Altimeter Captain's barometric Central Air Data
the height information altimeter Computer
970. Autoland Flare is initiated at 1500 ft 330 ft 50 ft 5 ft
971. An autopilot capable of altitude hold and Single pilot operation in Single pilot operation Aircraft over 5700kg. Dual pilot operation (in
heading hold is a minimum requirement for: VMC and IMC. under IFR and at night. IFR).
972. During a fully automatic landing the and the auto-throttle and the auto-throttle and the auto-throttle controls the approach
autopilot: control the approach at control the approach at control the approach at (at least) until the roll-
least until the flare. least until the roll-out. least until decision out, the pilot controls
 height. the power.
973. A landing is considered to be Automatic autothrottle maintains autothrottle disengages autopilot flies the ILS none of the above
when: speed until Decision thrust at 50ft & the until the flare & the
Height, and then flare is automatic flare is automatic
disengages
974. In an autopilot system, modes for stabilising Yaw damper , Pitch Yaw damper , Pitch Yaw damper , Horizontal Pitch attitude holding ,
the a/c include which of the following: attitude holding & ASI & attitude holding & wing holding & Altitude ASI & Mach hold &
Mach hold Horizontal wing holding holding Altitude holding
975. In an autopilot system, a/c flight path modes Pitch attitude holding , Pitch attitude holding , Horizontal wing holding VOR axis holding
include which of the following: Horizontal wing holding Horizontal wing holding , Inertial heading ,Inertial heading
& Inertial heading & ASI and Mach hold holding & Yaw damper holding & ASI and
holding Mach hold
976. An autopilot system whereby if one A/P fails passive. safe. operational. redundant.
cannot carry out an auto-land is called fail
977. In a yaw damper: ailerons are moved in ailerons are moved in rudder is moved in rudder is moved in
proportion to Mach No. proportion to rate of proportion to Mach No. proportion to rate of
angular velocity. angular velocity.
978. LOC ARMED lights up on the annunciator, localiser beam captured. localiser armed and localiser alarm is on. ILS is captured
this means: awaiting capture.
979. What is the most basic function of an altitude hold heading hold wing leveller altitude and heading
autopilot? hold
980. What does the autopilot pitch / rotate centre of gravity manoeuvre point centre of pressure neutral point
around?
981. During a semi-automatic landing the A/P is disengaged at the A/T flies airspeed the A/P flies the the A/T flies approach
DH having followed the down to approximately approach and flare and speed and disengages
ILS. 30 ft and automatically roll-out. automatically at DH
disengages.
982. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise it is fail passive with it is fail operational and it is fail soft and will not it is fail safe and will
and approach; following a failure: redundancy. will not disconnect. disconnect. disconnect.
983. In heading select the autopilot delivers roll proportional to TAS, but Proportional to the Set bank of 15 degrees both a and b
commands to the controls to bank the not beyond a specified deviation from the & Proportional to the
aircraft: maximum. selected heading. deviation from the
selected heading
984. Auto-trim is fitted to an autopilot: To provide control about To prevent snatching on To prevent snatching on To correct for Mach
lateral axis. disengaging A/P. engaging A/P tuck
985. What is the purpose of the synchronisation Prevents snatch on Prevents snatch on Pevents snatch on Cancels rudder control
in an autopilot (list) disengagement &Pevents disengagement & engagement & May not inputs & May not allow
snatch on engagement Cancels rudder control allow the autopilot to the autopilot to engage
inputs engage if unserviceable if unserviceable
986. When operating with the autopilot in ALT ALT hold disengages Nothing The aeroplane will climb The aeroplane will
hold mode what happens if the Captain's descend
barometric altimeter pressure setting is
increased
987. TO/GA is engaged automatically at GS automatically when an by the pilot pressing a by the pilot selecting
capture autopilot fails button on or near the flare
throttles
988. On crossing the cone of confusion of a VOR Always coupled to the Temporarily Damped by a trim input Temporarily switches
when in VOR mode of the autopilot what selected VOR radial disconnected from the lateral trim to heading mode
will happen to the roll channel system
989. The function of autotrim is to synchronise the to relieve forces on the to react to altitude to relieve forces on the
longitudinal loop autopilot servomotor changes in ALT HOLD control column before
prior to hand over mode hand over
990. The Flight Director horizontal and vertical Increase pitch angle, turn Decrease pitch angle, Increase pitch angle, Decrease pitch angle,
bars are up and left of aircraft symbol on the left turn left turn right turn right
ADI, these indications are directing the pilot
to:
991. What does FADEC do? engine limitation automatic engine manual engine starting all of the above
protection&power starting sequence sequence
management
992. The autosynchronisation system does which prevents snatching on prevents snatching on prevents snatching on cancels rudder input &
of the following? engagement & prevents disengagement & engagement & works in works in climb, cruise
snatching on cancels rudder input climb, cruise and and descent
disengagement descent
993. When turning into a desired radial, FD bars a 45° angle of bank a 30° angle of bank a 15° angle of bank correct attitude to
indicate: intercept radial
994. If a pilot was to carry out a roll maneuver, Roll wing level and Maintain attitude only Maintain track and Roll wing level and
 on release of CWS what does the AP do ? maintain heading only attitude only maintain MCP selected
roll
995. The input to a basic stall warning system Angle of attack IAS Slat/flap position Mmo
are:
996. A stall warning system fitted to a large Various inputs including Various inputs including Various inputs including Stick shakers and/or
aircraft will always include: speed brake position, a landing gear micro EGT, a warning module stick push
warning module and a switch, a warning and an aural warning
visual or aural warning module and an aural
warning
997. What type of sensor is used to measure the bourdon tube aneroid capsule bellows differential capsule
output of a low pressure booster pump
998. A vibration meter measures frequency in Hz amplitude at a given period in seconds acceleration in g
frequency
999. Which of the following are used to measure thermocouple , thermocouple , both a and b none of the above
temperature reactance& mercury resistance & mercury
1000. A millivoltmeter measuring electromotive the hot junction is kept the cold junction is the hot junction is the cold junction is
force between a hot and a cold junction of a at a constant maintained at 15 maintained at 15 maintained at a
thermocouple can be graduated to read temperature degrees C. degrees C. constant temperature
temperature if -
1001. If both displays of an EICAS system fail what N1 , EPR , N2 N1, EPR, EGT N2 , EPR , EGT EGT , N1 , FF
information will be displayed on the standby
engine indicator
1002. A capacitive type gauging system may fuel dielectric constant fuel dielectric constant fuel dielectric constant fuel dielectric constant
measure mass due to: being equal to that of air being equal to that of air being twice that of air being twice that of air
and proportional to and proportional and proportional to and proportional to
density to1/density density 1./density
1003. If the intake probe of an EPR system under-read during take over-read during take be unaffected read zero
becomes blocked with ice this will cause the off off
EPR gauge to
1004. The power output of a turbo-propeller Newton metres, PSI, EPR Percentage, Pounds Newton metres, Newton metres, PSI,
aircraft is measured by the amount of feet, EPR Percentage, EPR Percentage
torque being produced. The indication can
be in which of the following units
1005. If one probe of a multi-sensor T.G.T system increase by 20 - 30 decrease by 20 - 30 be practically fall to zero.
failed , the reading would: degrees C degrees C unaffected
1006. During the take-off run , the effect of remain constant increase decrease increase and
increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR subsequently decrease
indication to
1007. An advisory message on the EICAS system displayed in amber on displayed in red, displayed in amber, displayed in amber,
screen would be: the lower screen with normally on the upper normally on the upper normally on the upper
associated caution lights screen , and requiring screen with aural screen, indented one
and aural tones immediate corrective warnings . space to the right.
action
1008. A supercharged aircraft is climbing at its 18 in Hg 33 in Hg 41 in Hg 46 in Hg
maximum permitted boost of 8 psi (16in.Hg)
from sea level to its full throttle height of
10,000 feet. If sea level pressure is
29.92in.Hg , when the aircraft reaches 5000
feet, where the pressure is 24.72in.Hg, what
will be the approximate indication on the
MAP gauge
1009. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance increased by 5% increased by 10% decreased by 5% remained the same
fuel contents gauging system and is
refuelled so that the total fuel contents are
76000kg at a temperature of 18 degrees C
and an S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is
parked the temperature increases to 26
degrees C and the S.G. becomes 0.80 The
indicated fuel contents have:
1010. The working principle of a capacitive fuel volume of fuel changes in capacitance height of fuel dielectric value
contents gauging system is based upon
1011. A volumetric fuel flow meter is different to a dielectric density volume pressure
mass flow meter because the mass flow
meter compensates for:
1012. Cylinder head temperature measurement differential expansion wheat stone bridge ratiometer thermocouple
works on the principle of
1013. The electrical tacho generator system uses single phase a.c. whose three phase a.c. whose A tacho probe and Single phase d.c. whose
frequency varies with the frequency varies with phonic wheel measuring frequency varies with
speed of the engine the speed of the engine speed and sending speed of the engine
delivered to a single delivered to a three information to a squirrel converted to a square
phase synchronous phase synchronous cage motor and drag wave pulse delivered to
motor and drag cup. motor (squirrel cage) cup a servo driven
and drag cup. instrument
1014. Where very accurate temperature indication galvanometer direct reading moving coil ratiometer
is required the indicator used will be:
1015. Total Air Temperature (TAT) is equal to: SAT + ram rise RAT + friction rise SAT - RAT RAT + ram rise
1016. To measure the fuel quantity on a heavy capacitor gauges, the electric gauges with electric gauges with capacitor gauges, the
aircraft we use: indication can not be round floats , the round floats , the indication can directly
indicated as a mass indication can directly indication can not be be indicated as a mass
be indicated as a mass indicated as a mass
1017. For a capacitor gauge: the probes are the fuel dielectric value fuel dielectric value all of the above
connected in parallel, the varies proportionally to varies inversely with the
gauge accuracy is within the temperature of the fuel level
2% fuel
1018. The capacitor gauge principle is based on: variation of capacitance variation of capacitance variation of the EMF in variation of outflow
of a capacitor with the by volume measure at a wheastone bridge and couple in the
nature of the dielectric the probe system
1019. Among the following parameters:EGT EPR FF EGT, N1, N2, oil pressure EGT, N 1, FF, EPR EGT, EPR, FF, High- fuel pressure, N1, N2,
N1 N2 Oil pressure Fuel pressure The ones pressure fuel oil pressure
that can be used to monitor a gas turbine
thrust setting are:
1020. The most significant parameters and the EGT or N2 N2 and FF FF and EGT N1 and EPR
most important that express the thrust of a
gas turbine engine are;
1021. On a modern twin spool turbofan, the main the temperature a rotational speed and a The rotational speed of The rotational speed of
handling parameter is : upstream the turbine or temperature the high-pressure the low-pressure
EGT compressor compressor
1022. Two main indications used to evaluate a rotational speed of the fan rotational speed fan rotational speed high pressure turbine
turbojet thrust are: fan (N1) or the total (N1) or total pressure at (N1) or EPR rotational speed or EPR
 pressure at the outlet of the high-pressure
the low-pressure turbine compressor outlet
1023. The measure of a torque can be made by oil pressure at a fixed the a the frequency of a the frequency
measuring: crown of an epicyclical phonic wheel linked to a difference between
reduction gear of the transmission shaft two phonic wheels
transmission box linked to a transmission
shaft
1024. Among these instruments, which one uses oil thermometer air intake pressure oil pressure sensor fuel pressure sensor
aneroid capsules? sensor
1025. In a three phase tachometer the transmitter is a DC we measure an EMF the transmitter is a DC we measure a
installation:Transmitter generator , we measure proportional to the generator , the receiver frequency proportional
an EMF proportional to driving speed of the is a galvometer to the driving speed of
the driving speed of the transmitter , the the transmitter , the
Transmitter receiver is an receiver is an
synchronised motor synchronised motor
driving a magnetic driving a magnetic
tachometer tachometer
1026. The working principle of mass flow meters the volume and viscosity the temperature and volume mass and kinetic energy
mostly used now days, is to measure in their of the fuel pressure of the fuel dielectric value of fuel transmitted
system:
1027. The advantage of a ratiometer is doesn't require an does not suffer from is calibrated at sea level it requires an ac
electrical supply errors due to variations and will be inaccurate at voltage and therefore
of supply voltage high altitudes has no commutator.
1028. What is a synchroscope used for reducing vibration putting the propellers in allowing the pilot to viewing the underside
phase adjust several engines to of the aircraft during
the same RPM flight
1029. On an EICAS display what does the yellow Forbidden operating Exceptional operating Normal operating range Frequent operating
arc on the temperature gauge signify, range range range
1030. An RPM gauge has a red line at the upper it indicates an RPM that it is maximum it is the RPM at which it indicates an RPM
end of the green arc, in the middle of the must not be used continuous RPM there is an increased that must not be used
green arc is a smaller red arc What is the continuously because of likelihood of oil leakage continuously because
significance of this smaller red arc the increased vibration there is insufficient
level from the cooling air for the
 engine/propeller engine
1031. A cylinder head temperature measuring One in each cylinder One in the coolest One in the hottest One in each of the two
system in a piston engine has a sensor head to average the running cylinder running cylinder banks of cylinders in a
temperature horizontally opposed
engine.
1032. The principles used in an electrical RPM Tacho probe and phonic Tacho probe and phonic DC generator producing DC generator
indicating system are: wheel and Single phase wheel and 3 phase AC AC and 3 phase AC producing AC and
AC generator driving a generator driving a 3 generator driving a 3 Single phase AC
single phase AC motor phase AC motor phase AC motor generator driving a
single phase AC motor
1033. What does the yellow band on an EICAS Precautionary operating Maximum operating Warning limit Normal range
generated engine gauge indicate? range range
1034. Advantage of a ratiometer type measuring Very Accurate Simple Changes indication if No external power
circuit is voltage changes supply is required
1035. In a Turbojet thrust is measured by Fan Speed (N1) and N 1 and EPR Compressor outlet Compressor inlet
Turbine Inlet Pressure pressure and jet pipe pressure and
pressure combustion chamber
pressure
1036. How will a system failure warning be shown The failure will appear as The master warning The master warning will The Engine parameter
to the pilot in the ECAM system a wording on the screen caption will illuminate illuminate and the displays will be
and the pilot will primary screen will replaced by the Flight
manually select failure display a check list while Mode screen.
mode the secondary shows a
graphical display of the
problem
1037. What is used to measure gas turbine inlet Bourdon Tube Differential capsule Aneroid capsule Bellows
pressure
1038. What does a bourdon tube measure Temperature Quantity Capacitance Pressure
1039. What are the disadvantages of an electrical Attitude , Acceleration , Attitude , Acceleration , Attitude , Temperature , all of the above
float fuel quantity measuring system Ambient pressure Temperature Needs an AC power
supply
1040. How can temperature be measured Resistance , Resistance , Mercury, Resistance, Mercury , all of the above
 Thermocouple, Reactance Thermocouple
Reactance
1041. A Thermocouple would normally be used to Turbine Exterior Cabin Oil
measure the temperature of the:
1042. The Bourdon Tube is used in: Temperature probes in Smok detectors Pressure measurement Vibration detectors
front of the engine
1043. The principle upon which flowmeters (mass The Volume and Viscosity The Pressure and Density and Dielectric The Kinetic energy
flow) most commonly used today work, is to of the fuel Temperature of the fuel constant of the fuel transferred
measure:
1044. A small turbine placed in the flow of fuel to Volume of flow by the Mass flow by the Mass flow by the Volume flow by the
the burners of a Gas Turbine engine measurement of measurement of measurement of measurement of
measures: magnetic impulses magnetic impulses frequency reactance
1045. The torquemeter is an instrument: Allowing automatic Giving the power Giving the power from Allowing the
synchronisation of the available by the engine the propeller by direct determination of the
engines reading power from the
propeller by using a
formula which is a
function of the RPM
1046. Torque can be calculated in a torquemeter Of the oil pressure Of the amount of light Of the frequency of a Of the difference
system by the measurement: resisting lateral through a gear wheel phonic wheel connected between 2 phonic
movement of the gearing connected to the to the planet gears of an wheels connected to
in an epicyclic reduction transmission epicyclic gearbox the transmission
gearbox
1047. A modern Radio Altimeter uses the a.VHF 30 - 300 Mhz SHF 3000 Mhz - 30 Ghz UHF 300 Mhz - 3 Ghz HF 3 Mhz - 30 Mhz
frequency band:
1048. The true altitude of an aircraft in flight is the standard atmosphere pressure altitude density altitude temperature altitude
shown from:
1049. On a Turn and Slip indicator, needle to the right turn left turn left turn right turn
left and ball to the right indicates:
1050. What is Density Altitude? temperature altitude pressure altitude the altitude in the pressure altitude
corrected for the International Standard corrected for Total Air
prevailing temperature Atmosphere at which Temperature
the prevailing density
 would be found
1051. A Radio Altimeter is: ground based and ground based and aircraft based and aircraft based and
measures true altitude measures true height measures true altitude measures true height
1052. An aircraft is travelling at 120 kt, what angle 30° 12° 19° 35°
of bank would be required for a rate one
turn?
1053. An aircraft is travelling at 100 kt forward 500 ft/min 300 ft/min 250 ft/min 500 ft/sec
speed on a 3° glideslope What is its rate of
descent?
1054. If the Total Pressure sensor supply line leaks, under - read over - read over - read in the climb under - read in the
and with the drain element blocked, in a and under - read in the climb and over - read in
nonpressurised aircraft this will cause the descent the descent
ASI to:
1055. Using a Classic Attitude Indicator, an aircraft nose up bank right nose up bank left nose up wings level bank and pitch correct
performs a turn through 270° at a constant
angle of bank and rate of turn The indication
is:
1056. The needle and ball of a Turn Indicator are a left turn with too much a left turn with too little a right turn with too a right turn with too
both to the left of the datum This indicates: bank bank little bank much bank
1057. Under conditions determined by the greater than CAS less than CAS equals CAS is indeterminate due to
International Standard Atmosphere, at MSL the variation in
True Air Speed is: temperature
1058. What is another name for fail active? fail soft fail operational fail safe fail passive
1059. Why must an autopilot be synchronised to ensure fail operational to allow automatic to secure against abrupt to allow for FD coupling
when you wish to disconnect ? landings can continue pitch trimming to reset changes in aircraft
safely attitude
1060. What is used for EGT measurement? helical bi-metallic strips thermistors radiation pyrometry thermoemf
thermocouples
1061. When accelerating on a northerly heading no change north a turn to the west a turn to the east
what does the Direct Reading Magnetic
Compass indicate?
1062. Why is there a vibration device in a pressure to prevent hysteresis ,to to prevent hysteresis , to prevent lag in a to prevent icing , to
 altimeter? keep pilots happy during to prevent lag in a mechanical system , to overcome dither
long flights mechanical system prevent icing
1063. What does the white arc on a temperature never exceed maximum start and normal operating minimum temperature
scale indicate? acceleration temperature
temperature
1064. The rate of turn indicator is a very useful angle of bank rate of turn about the rate of climb rate of turn
gyroscopic instrument When used in yaw axis athwartships
conjunction with the Attitude Indicator it
provides:
1065. With the aircraft weight constant but equivalent airspeed calibrated airspeed groundspeed true air speed
variations in airfield altitude, take-off will
always be at a constant:
1066. Total Air Temperature is than static air warmer altitude colder altitude warmer CAS colder CAS
temperature and the difference varies with
1067. An aircraft flies into a colder airmass This over-read under-read read the correct altitude the indication will
will cause the altimeter to: depend on the
hemisphere of
operation
1068. A gravity-erecting device is utilised in: an artificial horizon a directional gyroscopic vertical speed indicator a turn and slip
indicator
1069. The rigidity of a gyroscope can be improved increasing the angular increasing the angular decreasing the angular decreasing the angular
by: momentum and momentum and momentum and momentum and
concentrating the mass concentrating the mass concentrating the mass concentrating the mass
on the periphery of the at the hub of the rotor on the periphery of the at the hub of the rotor
rotor rotor
1070. The outputs of a flux valve are initially sent an amplifier an error detector a compass card a feedback loop
to:
1071. In a solid state gyroscope the purpose of the enhance the acceleration overcome laser lock compensate for stabilise the laser
dither motor is to: of the gyro at all transport wander frequencies
rotational rates
1072. Which of the following correctly describes 1 degree of freedom , its 2 degrees of freedom , 1 degree of freedom , 1 degree of freedom ,
the gyroscope of a Rate of Turn Indicator? spin axis is parallel to the its frame is held by two the spin axis is parallel the spin axis is
pitch axis springs to the yaw axis horizontal
1073. A blockage occurs in the ram air source and read a little low read a little high act like an altimeter freeze at zero
the drain-hole The ASI in a non-pressurised
aircraft will:
1074. The errors associated with the Directional transport wander , banking when pitched earth rate , annual earth rate , transport
Indicator are: annual movement of the up, annual movement of movement of the poles wander, mechanical
poles the poles problems
1075. A rate integrating gyroscope is used in: inertial attitude system , inertial attitude system automatic flight control inertial navigation
automatic flight control , inertial navigation systems ,inertial systems, rate of turn
systems systems navigation systems indicators
1076. Rate of turn is affected by: aircraft speed , angle of aircraft speed , aircraft angle of bank , aircraft none of the above
bank weight weight
1077. The ability of a gyroscope to indicate aircraft one degree of freedom in two degrees of freedom two degrees of freedom one degree of freedom
heading is based on it having: the vertical axis in the vertical axis in the horizontal in the horizontal
1078. When measuring different pressures bourdon tube , bellows aneroid capsule , bourdon tube , aneroid bellows type , aneroid
(low/med/high) which of the following has type , aneroid capsule bellows type , bourdon capsule , bellows type capsule , bourdon tube
the three types of sensing devices in tube
ascending order of pressure measurement ?
1079. Sound is propagated at a velocity which is barometric pressure density static pressure temperature
dependent upon:
1080. The local speed of sound at mean sea level 661 kt 650 kt 673 kt 680 kt
at ISA -10°C is:
1081. What would the compass heading be given a 255° 244° 247° 266°
true heading of 247° in an area where the
variation is 8°W and a compass deviation of
11°E ?
1082. An aircraft is flying at flight level 350 at a TAS 498kt Mach 0.885 TAS 520kt Mach 0.882 TAS 481kt Mach 0.855 TAS 507kt Mach 0.86
CAS of 290 kt and a temperature deviation
of ISA -10°C The TAS and MN will be:
1083. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere lands a turn north no turn will be an oscillation a turn south
and decelerates on a westerly heading The indicated
compass will indicate:
1084. The angle formed between the directive variation deviation dip isoclinal
force and the total magnetic force is called:
1085. Regarding magnetism; which of the lines of flux run from unlike poles repel, like like poles repel , unlike none of the above
following statements is correct ? blue pole to red pole poles attract poles attract
1086. The output of a double integration N/S is: velocity departure distance longitude
1087. A solid state gyro is: a rate gyro a rate sensor an earth gyro a tied gyro
1088. The magnetic heading reference unit has a 1°/min 2°/min 5°/min 3°/min
precession rate of
1089. In which of the following modes may plan , expanded ILS , full plan , map , full VOR , expanded ILS , map , expanded ILS , map ,
information from the AWR be displayed ? nav , full VOR expanded VOR , centre expanded nav , full ILS , full VOR ,
map expanded VOR , centre centre map
map
1090. On an EADI radio altitude is displayed: digitally between 2500 ft on an analogue scale digitally between 2500 as an analogue display
and 100 ft below 2500 ft ft and 1000 ft and between 2500 ft and
thereafter as an 1000 ft and thereafter
analogue/digital display as a digital display
1091. In the ILS mode, one dot on the lateral 1 nm 2 nm 1° 2°
deviation scale on the EHSI indicates:
1092. On a standard 2-dot EHSI in the en-route 1 nm 2 nm 5 nm 10 nm
mode each dot represents:
1093. Given the following information calculate +20 ft +30 ft +40 ft +10 ft
the instrument error of a pre-flight altimeter
check i aerodrome elevation: 235 ft ii apron
elevation: 225 ft iii height of altimeter above
apron: 20 ft iv altimeter reading with QFE
set: 40 ft-
1094. An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and CAS will increase EAS will decrease TAS will increase TAS will decrease
altitude is flying from a cold airmass into
warmer air The effect of the change of
temperature on the speed will be:
1095. Select the correct statement: EAS = CAS corrected for EAS = IAS corrected for CAS = TAS corrected for TAS = EAS corrected for
compressibility error position error density error compressibility error
1096. VLO is defined as: the maximum speed at the maximum speed at the maximum speed at the minimum speed at
which to fly with the which the landing gear which to fly with the which to fly with the
 landing gear retracted may be retracted or landing gear extended landing gear extended
extended
1097. An aircraft taking off from an airfield with Read the airfield Indicate the aircraft Read the height of the Show only a very small
QNH set in the altimeter has both static elevation height amsl aircraft above the increase in height
vents blocked by ice As the aircraft climbs airfield
away the altimeter will:
1098. With reference to the flux valve of a remote The flux valve is The flux valve is not The flux valve is The flux valve is fixed
indicating compass: pendulously mounted subject to acceleration pendulously mounted to the aircraft and so
and is free to turn to errors and so it is not subject turns with the aircraft
remain aligned with the to or affected by the to measure the angle
earth magnetic field earth's magnetic field between the aircraft
and the earth's
magnetic field
1099. Altitude select and altitude hold are Inner loop functions in Manometric functions Interlocking functions Outer loop functions in
examples of pitch from the ADC roll
1100. At 200ft on an auto-land: The LOC mode is The LOC mode is The ROLL OUT mode is The auto-throttle is
engaged in the roll engaged in the roll engaged in the Roll maintaining the speed
channel and the G/S channel and the FLARE channel and the G/S and the pitch channel is
mode is engaged in pitch. mode is engaged in the mode is engaged in maintaining the height.
pitch channel pitch.
1101. During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is GPS Radio Altimeter Marker Barometric
indicated by:
1102. LOC ARMED lights up on the FMA part of the localiser beam captured localiser beam armed localiser alarm is on a/c is on localiser
PFD, this means: and awaiting capture centerline
1103. What is the purpose of the auto- Prevents snatching on Prevents snatching on both a and b none of the above
synchronisation system in an A/P: engagement & May not disengagement &
allow the A/P to engage Displays the control
if unserviceable positions
1104. What type of autoland system would be Fail soft Fail passive Fail operation or fail Land 2 system
required for the landing to continue active
following a single failure below alert height?
1105. Which of the following apply to the a Yaw May aid the pilot in the Applies measured Increases lateral stability 1 , 4 & 5
damper event of asymmetric amounts of aileron to to stop dutch roll & Can
 thrust after engine counter dutch roll & Is automatically help in
failure & Is required at required at high altitude turn co-ordination
high altitude
1106. TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C TA only. TA and RA in horizontal TA and RA in vertical RA only.
transponder may give: plane. plane.
1107. An aircraft equipped with digital avionics cancel the warning analyse initially the reset the warning apply the immediate
includes an ECAM system This centralised failure and only respond display after noting the actions as directed by
system, if a failure in one of the monitored to a level 1 warning failure on the left screen the checklist on the left
systems is displayed, the crew must: of the two screens
1108. An aircraft has a compensated capacitance increased by 10% remained the same increased by 5% decreased by 5%
fuel contents gauging system and is
refuelled so that the total fuel contents are
76000kg at a temperature of 18°C and an S
G of 0 81 Whilst the aircraft is parked the
temperature increases to 26°C and the S G
becomes 0 80 The indicated fuel contents
have:
1109. EPR is the ratio of, The compressor outlet Jet pipe pressure to Jet pipe pressure to the Jet pipe pressure to the
pressure to the compressor inlet compressor inlet compressor outlet
compressor inlet pressure on a turbo- pressure on a gas pressure on a gas
pressure prop engine only turbine engine turbine engine
1110. If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system Increase by between Decrease by between Fall to zero Be largely unaffected
became disconnected, the reading would: 20°C to 30°C 20°C to 30°C
1111. The principle of the fuel-monitoring device multiplying flight time by capacitance variation of difference of indication integration of
giving an indication of the total fuel burnt is: fuel consumption a capacitor according to departure instantaneous flow
value
1112. The red arc in the middle of the green band Maximum RPM Minimum RPM RPM at which a greater RPM that must never
of a piston engine RPM indicator signifies: level of vibration is be exceeded in the
encountered cruise
1113. Torque meters provide a reliable measure of A turbo jet engine A noise suppression A turbo-propeller An APU
power output from: unit engine
1114. Which of the following types of pressure aneroid capsule bourdon tube bellows dynamic probe
gauge would be best suited to a high
 pressure input?
1115. What is the purpose of the wing main spar To withstand bending To withstand To withstand To withstand bending
and torsional loads compressive and compressive and shear and shear loads
torsional loads loads
1116. What is the purpose of wing ribs To withstand the fatigue To shape the wing and To house the fuel and To provide local
stresses support the skin the landing gear support for the skin
1117. What is the purpose of stringers To absorb the torsional To produce stress risers To prevent buckling and To support the primary
and compressive stresses and support the fatigue bending by supporting control surfaces
metres and stiffening the skin
1118. The airframe structure must remain The design ultimate load The design limit load Three times the safety The design limit load
substantially intact after experiencing: times a 1.5 safety factor plus the design ultimate factor times a 1.5 factor of
load safety
1119. In the construction of airframes the primary Provide a means of Oppose hoop stresses Form the entrance door Support the wings
purpose of frames or formers is to: attaching the stringers and provide shape and posts
and skin panels form to the fuselage
1120. How can wing bending moments be By using aileron 'up- By using aileron 'up- By having tail-mounted By having wing-
reduced in flight? float' and keeping the float' and using the fuel engines and using mounted engines and
centre section fuel tanks in the wings last aileron 'down-float' using the wing fuel first
full for as long as possible
1121. Regarding a safe life structure: Has a programmed Is changed before its Both a and b None of the above
inspection cycle to detect predicted life is reached
and rectify faults
1122. A fail safe structure Is changed before its Has a programmed Is secondary structure of all of the above
predicted life is reached inspection cycle to no structural
detect and rectify faults significance
1123. The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft Is made up of light alloy Houses the crew and the Provides aerodynamic Is primary load bearing
steel sheets built on the payload lift and prevents structure carrying
monocoque principle corrosion by keeping much of the structural
out adverse weather loads
1124. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to: Support the wings House the crew and Keep out adverse Provide access to the
payload weather cockpit
1125. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) A means of locating Passenger seat locations Runway markings for Compass alignment
are: airframe structure and guiding the aircraft to markings
 components the terminal
1126. Flight deck windows are constructed from An amalgam of Strengthened glass with Strengthened clear vinyl Strengthened glass
strengthened glass and shock absorbing clear with an electrical with rubber seals
vinyl with rubber vinyl interlayer and conducting coat for de-
pressure seals rubber pressure seals icing and rubber
pressure seals
1127. A cantilever wing: Is externally braced with Is supported at one end Has both an upper an Folds at the root
either struts and/or only with no external lower airfoil section section to ease storage
bracing wires bracing in confined spaces
1128. A torsion box: Is a structure within the Is a structure formed Is a structure within the Is a structure designed
fuselage to withstand between the wing spars, wing for housing the to reduce the weight
compression, bending skin and ribs to resist fuel tanks, flight
and twisting loads. bending and twisting controls and landing
loads gear
1129. A lightening hole in a rib Prevents lightning strikes Provides a means of Collects and disposes of Lightens and stiffens
damaging the fuselage passing cables and electrical charges the structure
controls through a
pressure bulkhead
1130. A damage tolérant structure Has degree of structural Is light, non load bearing Is replaced when it Need not be repaired
strength redundancy structure, damage to reaches its predicted life until the aircraft
spread over a large area which will not adversely undergoes deep
affect the aircraft maintenance
1131. Aircraft structures consists mainly of Light alloy steel sheets Magnesium alloy sheets Aluminium alloy sheets Aluminium sheets and
with copper rivets and with aluminium rivets and rivets with titanium rivets with titanium or
titanium or steel and titanium or steel at or steel materials at steel materials at
materials at points points requiring high points requiring high points requiring high
requiring high strength strength strength strength
1132. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an The maximum The maximum The maximum The maximum
aircraft is permissible take off mass permissible mass of an permissible mass of an permissible landing
of the aircraft. aircraft with no useable aircraft with zero mass
fuel payload
1133. One of the following devices is used to Vortex generators. Wing fences Wing let Leading edge flap
divert the spanwise flow of air to chordwise
 over the top surface of an aerofoil:
1134. The wing tip vortices is less: when pressure difference when the angle of when the aircraft speed both a) and b) are
is less attack is low is high correct
1135. The purpose of the aileron trim tab is to : maintain straight and reposition the aileron to maintain wing level in none of the above
level flight without maintain wing level case of primary control
pressure on the control failure.
wheel.
1136. Effect of tail plane is considered mainly in Lateral stability Longitudinal stability Directional Stability all the above are
maintaining: correct.
1137. As the airspeed increases: The wing shock-wave The wing shock-wave The wing shock-wave The wing shock-wave
moves backward moves forward remains in the same suddenly disappears
position
1138. An aircraft using flaps can land at lower pitching up moment additional lift. increasing drag and flap acts as an air
speed because of: decreasing lift. brake.
1139. An aircraft integral fuel tank is: removable from the a self sealing tank a part of the aircraft usually located in the
aircraft. structure bottom of the fuselage
1140. In semi monocoque fuselage primary bulkhead formers longerons stringers
bending loads are taken by:
1141. The function of the spoilers is to: break the airflow and create more lift create a smoother decrease airspeed
destroy lift airflow over the wing during steep descent
1142. A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate The smaller jack will The smaller jack will Both jacks will move at Both have the same
jacks, the area of one is 0.02M² and the exert a pressure of exert a pressure of 5000 the same speed. load.
other is 0.04m²: 2000Pa and the larger Pa and the larger 2500
4000 Pa Pa
1143. A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is 500 bar 1000 bar 1500 bar 2500 bar
shown on the accumulator gauge. The
system is then pressurized to 1500 bar, so
the accumulator will read:
1144. The pressure gauge of a hydraulic system the air in the the air and hydraulic the proportional the hydraulic fluid in
provides information regarding the pressure accumulator. fluid in the system. pressure in the system. the system.
of:
1145. A shuttle valve: is used to replace NRVs. allows two supply allows one source to acts as a non-return
 sources to operate one operate two units valve
unit
1146. Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- red, mineral red , synthetic green, mineral purple, synthetic
based:
1147. A restrictor valve: is used to restrict the controls the rate of controls the rate of controls the distance a
number of services movement of a service build up of pressure in jack moves
available after loss of the system
system pressure.
1148. With a hydraulic lock there is: flow, but no jack no flow but jack no flow, jack is constant flow
movement continues to move stationary
under gravitational
effects.
1149. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the high operating fluid system failure from seal damage and jack normal operation
wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to: temperature leaks and blocked filters, corrosion
high temp and possible
corrosion.
1150. Accumulator floating piston: pushes the fluid up when pushes the fluid down provides a seal between prevents a hydraulic
being charged. when being charged the gas and fluid lock
1151. A relief valve: relieves below system maintains pressure to a relieves at its designed prevents excessive
pressure. priority circuit. pressure. pressure through
increased fluid
temperature.
1152. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir to compensate for leaks, to allow a space into to indicate system to maintain fluid
is: displacement and which spare fluid may contents. between a jack and the
expansion. be stored. accumulator.
1153. With air in the hydraulic system you would: ignore it because normal bleed the air out of the allow the accumulator expect it to operate
operation would remove system. to automatically adjust faster.
it. itself.
1154. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system: filters the fluid returning is fitted down stream of can be by passed when clears the fluid as it
to the tank. the pump. maximum flow is leaves the reservoir.
required.
1155. Pascal's law states that pressure is inversely liquid is compressible oxygen can be used to applied force acts
proportional to load charge the equally in all directions.
 accumulators.
1156. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is an automatic cut out. engine RPM. a control piston. a swash plate that
governed by: senses the fluid
temperature.
1157. A high pressure hydraulic pump: needs a positive fluid does not need a positive outlet pressure is does not need a
supply. fluid supply. governed by centrifugal cooling fluid flow.
force.
1158. Case drain filters are fitted to prevent debris designed to allow to enable pump fitted in the reservoir
from the reservoir hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to be outlet
reaching the system lubricating fluid to drain used to monitor pump
to atmosphere condition
1159. The purpose of an accumulator is to: relieve excess pressure. store fluid under store compressed gas remove air from the
pressure. for tyre inflation. system.
1160. With a one way check valve (NRV): flow stops when input flow stops when the flow starts when input flow stops when input
pressure is greater than thermal relief valve off pressure is less than pressure is less than
output pressure. loads the hand pump. output pressure. output pressure.
1161. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the: u/c up line and flap up u/c down line and flap u/c down line and flap supply line to the a/c
line. up line. down line. retraction actuator.
1162. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve: a full flow relief valve is a full flow relief valve is a full flow relief valve is the terminal pressure
fitted down stream of it. fitted upstream of it. not required. will be controlled by
adjusting the pump
RPM.
1163. Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to both have the same both jacks will move at the smaller jack will the smaller jack will
an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02 force. the same speed. exert a force of 600N exert a force of 60N
and the same pressure is exerted on and the larger 1200N and the larger 120N
actuator whose area is 0.04
1164. A separator in an accumulator: isolates the gas from the reduces the size of the removes the dissolved maintains the fluid
fluid. accumulator required. gases from the fluid. level in the reservoir.
1165. In an operating hydraulic actuator the greatest near to the greatest at the opposite high initially, falling as the same at all points.
pressure of the fluid will be: actuator due to the load end to the actuator due the actuator completes
imposed on the jack. to the load imposed on its travel.
the actuator
1166. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir fall below the "full" mark. fall to a position marked remain at the same rise above the "full"
are checked. They indicate that the reservoir 'full accumulators level. mark.
is at the full level. The system is then charged'.
pressurized. Will the contents level:
1167. A pressure maintaining or priority valve: enables ground is used to ensure is used to control is used to increase
operation of services available pressure is pressure to services pressure in the sys
when the engines are off. directed to essential requiring less than
services. system pressure.
1168. A hydraulic lock occurs: when the thermal RV when fluid by passes a when flow is stopped when fluid and air
operates. system and returns to and the actuator is not enters the cylinder and
the tank. able to move . only fluid is allowed to
bypass to the reservoir.
1169. In an enclosed system pressure is felt: more at the piston head more at the cylinder end more when the piston is the same at both ends
than the rest of the than the piston head. moving than when it is between the piston
cylinder. stationary. and the cylinder head.
1170. A non return valve: can only be fitted if closes if inlet pressure opens if inlet pressure closes if inlet pressure
provided with a by pass exceeds outlet pressure. equals, outlet pressure. ceases.
selector.
1171. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes: rapid jack movements. no effect on system. rapid pressure rapid and smooth
fluctuations while operation of system.
system is operating.
1172. Hammering in system: is normal and does not is caused by pipe is an indication that a is detrimental to the
affect the systems diameter fluctuations. further selection is system.
efficiency. necessary.
1173. The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, always distinguishable by generally distinguishable generally distinguishable cannot be
vegetable or ester based) is: taste and smell. by colour. by colour only if they distinguished by colour
are from the same alone.
manufacturer.
1174. An Automatic cut-off Valve(ACOV) will: provide an idling circuit extend the life of the provide an idling circuit ensure the pump is
when a selection is accumulator. when the accumulator is always on load.
made. fully charged.
1175. A shuttle valve will allow: the accumulator to be the pressure pump to two independent high pressure fluid to
emptied after engine off-load when the pressure sources to return to the reservoir
 shut down. system pressure is operate a if the Full Flow Relief
reached. system/component. Valve fails.
1176. The purpose of a reservoir is to: compensates for compensates for small compensates for fluid to minimize pump
temperature changes. leaks, expansion and loss. cavitation.
jack displacement.
1177. When the hydraulic system pressure is reservoir air pressure will reservoir fluid contents reservoir fluid contents reservoir contents are
released increase. will rise if reservoir is will fall if reservoir is the dumped overboard.
lower than other highest point in the
components in the system.
system.
1178. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system: is greater in pipes of is greater in pipes of does not vary with pipe varies in direct
larger diameters. smaller diameters. diameter. proportion to the
system demands.
1179. Skydrol hydraulic fluid: needs no special safety is flame resistant but is is highly flammable and is highly flammable but
precautions or harmful to skin, eyes harmful to skin, eyes not harmful in any
treatment. and some paints. and some paints. other way.
1180. Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to any hydraulic system hydraulic systems that any hydraulic system in hydraulic systems that
replenish: without restriction. have butyl rubber seals an emergency. have neopropane seals
only. only.
1181. A variable displacement pump on system minimum stroke. an optimized position maximum stroke. mid stroke.
startup will be at: depending on fluid
viscosity.
1182. The purpose of a reservoir is: to provide a housing for to enable the contents to allow for fluid to provide a housing
the instrument to be checked. displacements, small for the main system
transmitters. leaks, thermal pumps and so obviate
expansion and contents the need for backing
monitoring. pumps.
1183. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted: to release all the to release half the to relieve excess in isolated lines only to
pressure back to return pressure back to return pressure back to the relieve excess pressure
in an overheat situation. in an overheat situation. actuator in an overheat caused by temperature
situation. rises.
1184. A main system hydraulic pump: does not need a positive always needs a positive does not need a positive can be run dry without
fluid supply if primed fluid supply in order to fluid supply in order to causing any damage.
 before startup. prevent cavitation. prevent cavitation.
1185. Different diameter actuators supplied with exert the same force. will lift equal loads. will move at the same exert different forces.
the same pressure at same rate: speed.
1186. The function of an accumulator is to: Store fluid under Dampen pressure Allow for fluid All of the above
pressure fluctuations expansion
1187. Oil is used in an oleo strut to : Support the weight of Limit the speed of Lubricate the piston Limit the speed of
the aircraft compression of the strut within the cylinder extension and
compression of the
strut
1188. The nose wheel assembly must be centered There is limited space in The aircraft may swerve The tyres may be It will remove any slush
before retraction because: the nose wheel bay on the next landing if damaged on landing if or debris which may
the nose wheel is not the nose wheel is not have accumulated on
straight straight take-off
1189. The movement of the gear on lowering is Prevent the fluid Counteract the force of Make the lowering time Prevent the hydraulic
normally damped to: becoming aerated gravity which would greater than the raising fluid becoming
bring the gear down too time overheated
fast
1190. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on Not possible because the prevented by the always a danger after the responsibility of the
the ground is : system is not powerful ground/air logic system the ground locks have first officer when he is
enough been removed on the aircraft
1191. Creep or Slippage(slight movement of the is not a problem with refers to the movement can rip out the inflation can be prevented by
tyre relative to the wheel): tubeless tyres of the aircraft against valve and deflate the painting lines on the
the brakes tyre wheel and tyre.
1192. Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced : restricting the use of taxying at less than 40 staying on the taxying at less than 25
brakes and using thrust kph smoothest parts of the knots
reversers taxiway
1193. To prevent scrubbing the tyres while use tyres with fusible make sharp turns only if turn no sharper than the deflate the tyres to a
taxying, you should : plugs you have high speed minimum specified minimum pressure
tyres fitted radius
1194. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or CO2 Dry powder Freon Water
brake fire is :
1195. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, 1Opsi 10% 4psi 4%
the tyre pressure reading on the gauge
 should be modified by :
1196. The formula which gives the minimum speed VP= 9 X ÖP where P is VP= 9 X ÖP where P is VP= 9 X ÖP where P is VP= 34 X ÖP where P is
(VP) at which aquaplaning may occur is: kg/cm2 and VP is in knots psi and VP is in mph. psi and VP is in knots kg/cm2- and VP is in
mph
1197. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi , its 135 mph 135 knots 145 knots 145 mph
minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
1198. Landing gear ground locking pins are: fitted before flight to removed prior to flight fitted after flight to removed prior to flight
ensure the landing gear and returned to stores maintain a hydraulic and stowed on the
locks are fully cocked. lock in the down lock aircraft where they are
jack visible to the crew.
1199. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging dirt between the rotor grease on the rotor the brake pressure incorrect operation of
is: and stator assemblies assembly being too high the adjuster
assemblies.
1200. On a ground pressurization test, if the cabin the temperature will rise water precipitation will damage to hull may duct relief valve may
suffers a rapid de-pressurization: suddenly occur occur jam open