ACT Crack Physics

Made by: Shahd A.
Gaber
(Test 2-1)
Some physics students conducted experiments to study forces and springs. They used
several identical springs attached to the bottom of a level platform, shown below in
Figure 1.
Figure 1
The length of each spring was 0.30 m when there were no weights attached. The
springs had identical spring constants. When weights were attached, the length of the
springs increased as the force of the weights stretched the springs downward. The
length the springs stretched was proportional to the force of the weight.
Experiment 1
The students attached different weights to two springs at once. When the springs
stopped oscillating and came to a rest, the students measured their length. In Trial 1, a
10.0 N weight was attached to Spring A and Spring B, which were attached 0.25 m
apart on the board. In Trial 2, a 15.0 N weight was attached to Spring A and Spring B. In
Trial 3, a 20.0 N weight was attached to Spring A and Spring B. The effects of the
weights on Springs A and B for the three trials are shown below in Figure 2.
Made by: Shahd A.Gaber
Figure 2
Experiment 2
The students attached a 0.25 m board with a high friction surface to Spring B and
Spring C (see Figure 3). The students then placed a 5.0 N weight at different locations
along the board. Because of the high friction surface, the weights stayed in place when
the board was at an angle.
Figure 3
In each of these 3 trials, a 5.0 N weight was placed at various distances along the board
from the attachment with Spring B (see Figure 4). In Trial 4, the weight was placed so
its center was 0.075 m along the board from the attachment with Spring B. In Trial 5, the
weight was placed so its center was 0.125 m along the board from the attachment with
Spring B. In Trial 6, the weight was placed so its center was 0.200 m along the board
from the attachment with Spring B. The effects of the weight position on the lengths of
Springs B and C for the 3 trials are also shown in Figure 4.
Figure 4
1. In a new study, suppose the students had placed a 10.0 N weight on Spring A only.
Which of the following drawings most likely represents the results of this experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2. In Experiment 2, as the distance between the 5.0 N weight and the attachment of the
board to Spring B increased, the force exerted on Spring B:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only.
H. increased, then decreased.
J. decreased, then increased.
3. Which of the following statements is most likely the reason that the students used
identical springs in Trials 1-3?
A. To ensure that the springs stretched similarly when a weight was attached.
B. To ensure that the springs did not share the weight evenly.
C. To compensate for the effects of oscillation on the results of the experiment.
D. To compensate for the weight of the board exerted on each of the springs.
4. Based on the results of Trials 1 and 5, the weight of the board used in Experiment 2
was:
F. 0 N.
G. 2.5 N.
H. 5.0 N.
J. 10.0 N.
5. In which of the following trials in Experiment 2, if any, was the force exerted by the
weight and the board equally distributed between Springs B and C?
A. Trial 4
B. Trial 5
C. Trial 6
D. None of the trials
6. Assume that when a spring is stretched from its normal length, it stores the energy to
return to its normal state as potential energy. Assume also that the greater the force of
the weight stretching the spring, the more the spring will stretch. Was the potential
energy stored by Spring C higher in Trial 5 or Trial 6?
F. In Trial 5, because the force of the weight on Spring C was greater in Trial 5.
G. In Trial 5, because the force of the weight on Spring C was less in Trial 5.
H. In Trial 6, because the force of the weight on Spring C was greater in Trial 6.
J. In Trial 6, because the force of the weight on Spring C was less in Trial 6.
(Test 5-2)
A mass suspended by a lightweight thread and swinging back and forth approximates
the motion of a simple gravity pendulum, a system in which gravity is the only force
acting on the mass, causing an acceleration of 9.8 m/sec2. The time to complete one
cycle of swinging back and forth is the period and is inversely related to gravitational
acceleration.
Using the same type and length of thread, 2 cubes were suspended, lifted to the same
starting angle, and let go. The amount of time required for each pendulum to complete
one swinging cycle (1 period) was recorded with a timer capable of reading to the
nearest 0.01 sec. The measured times were used to calculate acceleration.
Experiment 1
A cube of lead (11.3 grams) and a cube of tin (7.4 grams) were suspended from a 0.5 m
length of thread. Both cubes had the same length. (Note: A cube's volume is
proportional to its length cubed; its surface area is proportional to its length squared.)
The cubes were set in motion from a fixed starting angle, and the period for each was
recorded.
The average periods were 1.46 sec and 1.48 sec for the lead and tin cubes,
respectively. The average accelerations were 9.3 m/sec2 for lead and 9.1 m/sec2 for tin.
Experiment 2
The same procedures used in Experiment 1 were repeated using a thread length of 1.0
m and the same fixed starting angle. Results were recorded in Table 2.
The average periods were 2.06 sec and 2.09 sec for the lead and tin cubes,
respectively. The average accelerations were 9.3 m/sec2 for lead and 9.0 m/sec2 for tin.
Experiment 3
Given the results of the first 2 experiments, the accuracy of the timer was tested. The
procedures of Experiment 1 were repeated using only the lead cube. The trials were
recorded on digital video at 100 frames per second. The video was then reviewed to
obtain precise measurements of the period for each trial and results are shown in Table
3.
The average period recorded in Table 3 was 1.47 sec.
6. To demonstrate that a pendulum’s acceleration is reduced by drag force from air

resistance, which additional experiment can be performed in addition to those in the
passage?
F. The cubes are suspended by 0.5 m and 1 m springs and set in motion by
extending the spring 9.8 cm and letting go in a vacuum chamber with no air pressure.
G. The cubes are suspended by 0.5 m and 1 m threads and set in motion from the
same starting angle in a vacuum chamber with no air pressure.
H. The cubes are suspended by 0.5 m and 1 m springs and set in motion by
extending the spring 9.8 cm and letting go in a vacuum chamber at 1 atmosphere of
pressure.
J. The cubes are suspended by 0.5 m and 1 m threads and set in motion from the
same starting angle in a vacuum chamber at 1 atmosphere of pressure.
7. In Experiment 1, could a timer that reads to the nearest second be used to obtain
similar results, and why?
A. No, because the period of both pendulums was between 1 and 2 seconds.
B. No, because the pendulums would have traveled farther in 1 second than they
did in 1 period.
C. Yes, because the period of both pendulums was approximately 1.5 seconds.
D. Yes, because the pendulums would not have traveled as far in 1 second as they
did in 1 period.
8. The results of the experiments indicate that forces other than gravity are acting on the
pendulums because the calculated values of acceleration were:
F. the same for pendulums of different lengths.
G. the same for cubes of different mass.
H. lower than the expected 9.8 m/sec2 from gravity alone.
J. greater than the expected 9.8 m/sec2 from gravity alone.
9. Based on the passage, if a tin cube is suspended from a 2.0 m thread and set in
motion multiple times from the same starting angle, the average measured period will
most likely be:
A. less than 1.48 sec.
B. approximately 1.48 sec.
C. approximately 2.09 sec.
D. greater than 2.09 sec.
10. In Experiment 2, if an additional trial were conducted using the lead cube, the cube’s
measured period would most likely be nearest:
F. 1.90 sec.
G. 2.05 sec.
H. 2.15 sec.
J. 2.20 sec.
11. Experiments 1 and 2 were conducted using lead and tin cubes most likely to
determine whether a pendulum’s period was altered by the material attached to the
string and the cube’s:
A. length.
B. surface area.
C. starting angle.
D. mass.
(Test 14-2)
Students studying gravity and motion were given the following information:
o Gravity is an attractive force between two bodies that is directly related to
their mass and indirectly related to the square of the distance between their centers.
o Acceleration due to gravity is the acceleration of an object that results from
the force of gravity.
o Weight is the force on an object that results from gravity, and is not the same
as mass.
o Drag is a force directly related to the velocity of a moving object and which results
from air resistance and acts to slow an object down.
o When the drag on a free falling object is equivalent to the weight of that object, the
object maintains a constant velocity called terminal velocity.
The students' teacher then described the following experiment:
The experimenter dropped a ball from a known height and recorded the time it took to
hit the ground. In a second location, a second ball was dropped from the same height
and the experimenter observed that it took a longer time to fall to the ground.
Providing no additional information, the teacher asked her three students to provide
an explanation of the experimental conditions that would account for the different times
it took the two balls to fall.
Student 1
Both trials were conducted in air with the same atmospheric properties. The balls had
the same mass and weight, but the second ball had a larger radius and surface area.
Therefore, the second ball was subjected to more drag and reached a lower terminal
velocity than the first. This resulted in an increased fall time.
Student 2
Each ball had identical dimensions, but the first ball was made of a denser material
giving it both greater mass and weight. Each ball was dropped through air with the same
atmospheric properties. Since the second ball was subjected to less gravitational force
and weighed less, it reached a lower terminal velocity compared to the first. Therefore,
the second ball took more time to hit the ground.
Student 3
Both balls had the same dimensions and mass. The first ball was dropped above the
Earth, while the second ball was dropped above the Moon. The first ball reached terminal
velocity in the Earth's atmosphere. The second ball was not subjected to any atmosphere
or air resistance. However, there was substantially less gravitational force on the second
ball and subsequently it weighed less than the first ball. The overall net result was that
the second ball fell more slowly and took longer to hit the ground.
7. Based on Student 1's explanation, the velocity of the first ball as it landed most likely
equaled:
F. the product of acceleration of gravity and the time it took to fall.
G. the product of one-half the acceleration of gravity and the time it took to fall
squared.
H. the velocity of the ball directly before it landed.
J. zero.
8. The teacher added another question to the students' assignment: Suppose the
experimenter repeated the experiment by dropping two balls at the same time from the
same height in a single vacuum, where no air resistance was present. The balls have
different dimensions but identical weights, and they hit the ground at the same time.
This new result is consistent with the explanations of which student(s)?
A. Student 1 only
B. Student 2 only
C. Students 1 and 2 only
D. Students 1, 2, and 3
9. According to Student 1, which of the following graphs demonstrates the velocity of

the two balls as time increases?
F.
G.
H.
J
10. According to Student 1, did the surface area of the second ball have an effect on
its terminal velocity?
A. Yes; as the surface area of a ball decreases, its terminal velocity decreases only.
B. Yes; as the surface area of a ball increases, its terminal velocity decreases only.
C. No; as the surface area of a ball increases, its terminal velocity decreases, then
increases.
D. No; as the surface area of a ball increases, its terminal velocity is not affected.
11. Assuming that Student 3's explanation is correct, once the second ball starts falling,
does it reach terminal velocity?
F. Yes, because the weight of the ball was constant and drag force increased.
G. Yes, because the weight of the ball decreased and no drag force was present.
H. No, because the weight of the ball decreased and drag force was constant.
J. No, because the weight of the ball was constant and no drag force was present.
12. The 3 explanations of the motion of the balls are similar to each other in that all 3
explanations suggest that:
A. differences in the gravitational force are responsible for the change in falling
times.
B. increases in velocity result from gravity.
C. drag plays only a small part in determining how long it takes an object to fall.
D. a lead ball would have fallen faster.
13. Based on the explanations of the 3 students, what did all 3 students assume about
the first ball?
F. The velocity did not change.
G. The velocity increased only.
H. The velocity decreased only.
J. The velocity increased for a time, and then reached terminal velocity.
(Test 16-2)
Three studies were conducted to analyze the content of cake mix.
Study 1
Samples of 3 different cake mixes (X, Y, and Z) weighing 500.0 g
were desiccated (thoroughly dried) in a 350°F oven for 36 hours and then passed through
a sieve with 0.045 cm holes. Each sample was evenly spread in a trough 0.100 cm deep
with a fan at one end and a secured piece of dark colored paper at the other end,
downwind from the fan, as shown in Figure 1. Fan speed was slowly increased from 0
m/s until cake mix particles could be seen on the paper. This speed is called the maximum
immovable speed. The maximum immovable speed was recorded for each sample.
Figure 1
This procedure was repeated with 35.0 g of cornmeal, a heavier ingredient, added to
the cake mix prior to drying. The results are shown in Table 1.
Study 2
Samples of each cake mix were prepared as in Study 1. Each sample was mixed with
500 mL of water then allowed to rest for 6 hours to ensure equal saturation of all particles
in the sample. The samples were then evenly spread in a trough in an apparatus identical
to that of Study 1. The fan was set to 10 m/s. Once the fan had dried the sample
sufficiently, particles began to appear on the dark paper. At this point, the water content
of the sample was calculated. This procedure was repeated with the 16 m/s fan speed.
This set of procedures was then repeated with samples of each cake mix to which 35.0 g
of cornmeal had been added. Figure 2 displays the results.
Figure 2
Study 3
Samples of each cake mix, without any preparation, were analyzed for flour particle,
sugar particle, gelatin particle, and water content. The results are shown in Table 2.
8. Based on Study 3, the water content of cake mix Z after being allowed the 6 hours to
saturate with water in Study 2 was most likely:
A. greater than 10%.
B. between 6% and 10%.
C. between 1% and 6%.
D. less than 1%.
9. Which of the following statements about the maximum immovable speed in the trials
without cornmeal is best supported by the results of Study 1 for the three cake mixes?
F. The maximum immovable speed for all cake mixes was 0 m/s.
G. The maximum immovable speeds for all cake mixes were roughly equal.
H. The maximum immovable speed for cake mix Y was three times the maximum
immovable speed for cake mix X.
J. The maximum immovable speed for cake mix Y was half the maximum
immovable speeds of cake mixes X and Z.
10. Based on the results of Study 1 for a given cake mix, the addition of cornmeal to the
cake mix caused a maximum immovable speed that was approximately:
A. half as high as the maximum immovable speed when no cornmeal was added to
the cake mix.
B. twice as high as the maximum immovable speed when no cornmeal was added
to the cake mix.
C. between two and two and a half times as high as the immovable speed when no
cornmeal was added to the cake mix.
D. between two and a half and three and a half times as high as the immovable
speed when no cornmeal was added to the cake mix.
11. If equal amounts of cake mixes Y and Z were blended and then prepared as in
Study 1, then tested under the conditions of Study 1 with cornmeal added, the
maximum immovable speed for this sample would most likely be:
F. between 0.23 m/s and 0.25 m/s.
G. between 0.28 m/s and 0.33 m/s.
H. between 0.36 m/s and 0.38 m/s.
J. between 0.39 m/s and 0.43 m/s.
12. A food scientist hypothesized that cake mixes with higher dry particle contents of
gelatin will have a higher water content than cake mixes with lower dry particle contents
of gelatin. Is this hypothesis supported by Study 3?
A. Yes, because as gelatin content of cake mixes X, Y, and Z increased, water
content decreased.
B. Yes, because as gelatin content of cake mixes X, Y, and Z increased, water
content increased.
C. No, because as gelatin content of cake mixes X, Y, and Z increased, water

content decreased.
D. No, because as gelatin content of cake mixes X, Y, and Z increased, water
content increased.
13. A fourth cake mix, cake mix Q, was analyzed as in Study 3. It was determined to
contain 61% flour, 28% sugar, and 10% gelatin. Based on Study 3, what range would
most likely be the water content of cake mix Q?
F. Less than 3.3%
G. Between 3.3% and 6.1%
H. Between 6.1% and 10.1%
J. Greater than 10.1%
(Test 17-1)
Metals differ in their relative abilities to conduct electricity. Resistance is a measurement
in ohms (Ω) of how much a metal opposes electric current at a particular voltage.
A scientist performed 3 experiments using the circuit shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
The metal resistor consisted of a coil of metallic wire with a known cross-sectional area
and length (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
At the outset, the switch was open and no current flowed through the circuit. A 9-volt
battery was used, and the black and red test leads of the circuit were attached to a metal
resistor. When the switch was closed, electrons (negatively charged) flowed away from
the negative battery terminal, through the circuit, and back to the positive battery terminal.
The magnitude of current (charge per unit time) from this electron flow was measured by
an ammeter, and was 1.0 × 10-3 coulombs/second for the first trial of each experiment.
The resistance (R) of the metal resistor was calculated in ohms (?) from the resulting
values for voltage (V) and current (I).
Experiment 1
Three nickel resistor coils, each with a cross-sectional area of 7.61×× 10-10 m2 but with
different lengths, were attached separately to the circuit. Results were recorded in Table
1.
Experiment 2
Three gold resistor coils of varying cross-sectional areas were tested. Each resistor coil
had a measured length of 100 m. The results were recorded in Table 2.
Experiment 3
Three coils made of different metals were tested. Each resistor had a cross-sectional
area of 2.67 × 10-10 m2 and a length of 100 m. The value ρ is related to each metal's
inherent resistivity to current flow. Results were recorded in Table 3.
1. In Experiment 2, the scientist varied which of the following aspects of the metal
resistor?
A. Identity of the metal coil
B. Cross-sectional area of the coil
C. Length of the coil
D. Value ρ of the metal composing the coil
2. Assume that as ρ increases, a metal's ability to conduct current decreases. Based on

the results of Experiment 3, which of the following correctly lists gold, nickel, and tin in
order of increasing ability to conduct electrons when shaped as a wire coil?
F. Gold, nickel, tin
G. Gold, tin, nickel
H. Tin, nickel, gold
J. Tin, gold, nickel
3. In the first trial of Experiments 1-3, once the resistor was attached and the switch
closed, what charge returned to the positive battery terminal each second?
A. -1.0×× 10-3 coulombs
B. -2.0 ××10-3 coulombs
C. -3.0×× 10-3 coulombs
D. -4.0×× 10-3 coulombs
4. Based on the results of the 3 experiments, the resistor with which of the following
values of length, cross-sectional area, and metal type will have the highest current at a
given voltage?
Length (m)
F. 100
G. 50
H. 50
J. 50
5. In Experiment 1, the current across the circuit increased and the resistance of the
resistor decreased as the:
A. value ρ of the metal resistor increased.
B. cross-sectional area of the metal resistor decreased.
C. length of the metal resistor increased.
D. length of the metal resistor decreased.
6. When the switch is closed in the circuit described in the passage, the battery caused
electrons to flow in the direction(s) shown by which of the following diagrams?
F.
G.
H.
J.
(Test 18-1)
An experiment is set up to look at the physics of bouncing a ball, as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
When the ball is dropped, its initial velocity is 0 m/s. Velocity will increase until impact
with the ground, at which point the ball's velocity immediately drops to 0 m/s again. After
impact, velocity almost immediately increases to maximum post-impact velocity, and then
begins to fall again as gravity works against it, slowing it down. The ball's velocity returns
to 0 m/s when the ball is at its apex, or highest vertical point, post impact.
When a ball bounces, it deforms and becomes flatter. This is called elasticity. The
more elasticity a material has, the better it is able to act like a spring and absorb force by
being compressed, then use this force to "spring" back into the air. Post-impact velocity
and the amount of time between velocity of 0 m/s at impact and velocity of 0 m/s at post-
impact apex are affected by elasticity. Figure 2 shows the velocity of a ball versus time
for balls with various elasticities and weights dropped from 1 meter height. Because
gravity causes all objects to fall at the same speed regardless of weight, pre-impact
velocities are identical for all balls.
Figure 2
1. Based on the data in Figure 2, the maximum post-impact velocity of a ball will be
smallest if the elasticity of the ball is:
F. 1.5 Pa.
G. between 1 and 1.5 Pa.
H. between 0.5 and 1 Pa.
J. 0.5 Pa.
2. Based on the information in Figure 2, a ball being dropped from 1 meter height with
an elasticity of 0.2 Pa and a weight of 0.5 kg would have a maximum post-impact
velocity of:
A. less than 0.50 m/s.
B. 0.75 m/s.
C. 1.0 m/s.
D. greater than 1.25 m/s.
3. Consider a ball as it completes one bounce, from drop to post-impact apex. If this ball
has a weight of 2 kg and an elasticity of 0.50 Pa, based on the data in Figure 2, how
many times does the ball have a velocity of 1.00 m/s ?
F. One time
G. Two times
H. Three times
J. Four times
4. Based on the data in Figure 2, how does the velocity of a ball change as it goes from
impact to apex?
Drop to Impact
A. Increases only
B. Decreases only
C. Increases then decreases
D. Decreases then increases
5. A ball will deform permanently and not spring back off the ground if the velocity with
which it hits the ground exceeds the ball's elastic limit. Based on the data in Figure 2, if
a ball is dropped from one meter and has a weight of 3 kg, an elasticity of 0.8 Pa, and
an elastic limit of 2.75 m/s, will the ball deform permanently?
F. Yes, because the velocity with which the ball hits the ground is less than its
elastic limit.
G. Yes, because the velocity with which the ball hits the ground is greater than its
elastic limit.
H. No, because the velocity with which the ball hits the ground is less than its elastic
limit.
J. No, because the velocity with which the ball hits the ground is greater than its
elastic limit.
(Test 18-2)
A group of students studied the frictional forces involved on stationary objects.
In a series of experiments, the students used rectangular shaped objects of various
materials that all had identical masses. One end of a plastic board coated with a
polymer film was fastened to a table surface by a hinge so the angle θ between the
board and table could be changed, as shown in Figure 1.
Objects were placed on the opposite end of the board, and the angle θ at which the
object started to slide was recorded. The tangent of this angle represents the coefficient
of static friction between the object and the polymer surface. This coefficient is
proportional to the force required to move a stationary object. Higher coefficients mean
that greater forces of friction must be overcome to initiate movement.
The dimensions of the objects gave them 3 distinct faces of unequal area as shown in
Figure 2. Unless otherwise stated, the objects were placed on the ramp with Face A down.
Experiment 1
Four objects made of different materials were placed on the ramp at a temperature of
25°C. The ramp was gradually raised and as soon as the object started to move, the
angle θ of the ramp was recorded in Table 1.
Table 1
Object material θ (degrees)
Granite 12.1
Copper 16.8
Wood 22.0
Brick 31.1
Experiment 2
The procedure for Experiment 1 was repeated with the wooden object, varying which
face was placed down on the ramp. Results were recorded in Table 2.
Table 2
Face θ (degrees)
A 22.0
B 22.0
C 22.0
Experiment 3
The procedure for Experiment 1 was repeated with the wooden object, varying the
temperature of the polymer ramp. Results for 5 temperatures were recorded in Table 3.
Table 3
Temperature (°C) θ (degrees)
0 18.5
25 22.0
50 25.4
75 29.0
100 32.5
Experiment 4
The procedure for Experiment 1 was repeated with multiple wooden objects. For each
trial, the objects were stacked on top of each other before raising the ramp. The angle θ
where the stack started to slide was recorded in Table 4.
Table 4
Number of objects θ (degrees)
2 22.0
3 22.0
4 22.0
6. If the procedure used in Experiment 3 had been repeated at a temperature of 62.5°C,

the angle required for the object to start moving down the ramp most likely would have
been closest to which of the following?
A. 27.2 degrees
B. 29.2 degrees
C. 30.3 degrees
D. 31.4 degrees
7. Suppose the students had placed the 4 objects used in Experiment 1 on the ramp
when it was flat and pushed each of the objects, such that the amount of force applied
to each object gradually increased until it moved. Based on the results of Experiment 1,
the object made of which material would most likely have taken the greatest amount of
force to start moving?
F. Brick
G. Wood
H. Copper
J. Granite
8. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 4, what was the effect, if any, of the
weight of the object on the coefficient of static friction?
A. The coefficient of static friction always increased as the object's weight
increased.
B. The coefficient of static friction always decreased as the object's weight
increased.
C. The coefficient of static friction increased and then decreased as the object's
weight increased.
D. The coefficient of static friction was not affected by the weight of the object.
9. In Experiment 1, the reason the students used objects made of different materials
was most likely to vary the amount of frictional force between the:
F. plastic board and the polymer surface.
G. various objects and the polymer surface.
H. objects made of different materials when brought into contact with each other.
J. stacked objects, so that the objects would not fall over when the angle of the
ramp was raised high enough to cause motion.
10. Which of the following ranks the different types of objects used, in order, from the
material that presented the greatest resistance to movement to the material that
presented the least resistance to movement?
A. Granite, copper, wood, brick
B. Copper, wood, granite, brick
C. Granite, wood, brick, copper
D. Brick, wood, copper, granite
11. The main purpose of Experiment 3 was to determine the effects of temperature on
which of the following variables?
F. Coefficient of static friction between wood and wood
G. Coefficient of static friction between wood and polymer
H. Mass of the wooden object
J. Total frictional force of the polymer on all objects placed on the ramp
(Test 22-1)
In recent years, the technology of magnetic levitation ("maglev") has been investigated
to provide an alternative rapid transportation option. Using repulsion of magnetic fields,
maglev trains can be pushed forward at speeds of up to 300 miles per hour. One
specific type of magnetic levitation currently being investigated is electrodynamic
suspension (EDS).
In EDS, magnetic rods are located at the bottom of the maglev train and within the track
underneath the train. An electric current can induce a magnetic field in the magnets of
the track. If this magnetic field can be induced to repel constantly the magnet in the
maglev train, then the train will maintain a distance above the track known as an “air
gap” and move forward. Theoretically, the maglev train in EDS should travel at least 4
inches above the track, so there would be virtually no energy lost to friction. If the
system does lose energy, it will be in the form of thermal energy.
Figure 1
Under controlled conditions, scientists conducted tests on an experimental maglev track
oriented in an east-to-west direction.
Study 1
A maglev train with magnetic rods of fixed length was moved along the experimental
track from east to west at various velocities v. The current I in the track required to
induce these velocities was measured in amperes (A).
Study 2
The maglev train was run in five trials with varying lengths, L, of the magnetic rods, and
run at a constant velocity of 40 m/s. The current I in the track required to induce this
velocity given the different lengths of the rods was recorded.
Study 3
The magnetic field, B, measured in tesla (T), was varied in the maglev track. The
current running through the maglev track was then measured in five new trials.
Throughout these trials, the lengths of the magnetic rods and the maglev train velocities
were kept constant.
Study 4
The maglev train with magnetic rods of fixed length was moved along the experimental
track from west to east at various velocities, and the current in the track required to
induce these velocities was measured. The magnetic field was kept constant for each of
these trials.
1. In Study 1, I would most likely have equaled 500 A if v had been:

A. 40 m/s.
B. 125 m/s.
C. 200 m/s.
D. 400 m/s.
2. In Study 2, as the length of the magnetic rods in the maglev train increased, the
amount of the current required to induce the train's velocity:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only.
H. remained constant.
J. varied, but with no consistent trend.
3. In Study 3, I would most likely have equaled 570 A if B had equaled which of the
following?
A. 6.00 × 10?4 T
B. 8.00 × 10?4 T
C. 1.00 × 10?3 T
D. 1.50 × 10?3 T
4. During each trial, an electrical current moves through the magnetic track because a
nonzero voltage was produced in the track. During which of the following trials in Study
3 was the voltage greatest?
F. Trial 11
G. Trial 12
H. Trial 13
J. Trial 14
-
5. In which of the studies, if any, did the electrical current flow in the opposite direction
as compared with the other studies?
A. Study 1 only
B. Study 4 only
C. Studies 1, 2, and 3 only
D. None of these studies
6. The results of Study 3 are best represented by which of the following graphs?
F.
G.
H.
J.
(Test 23-3)
For a science fair, a middle school student tested the hypothesis that bubbles in liquids
would affect how far a water gun could shoot. To do this, she set up a holding device so
that the water gun would always shoot at the same angle (the angle of inclination) and
from the same place. She then measured the horizontal distance from the holding device
to the furthest observable trace of liquid (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
The angle of inclination was 30° in all experiments. The same metal water gun was
used in Experiments 1 and 2.
Experiment 1
The student filled the metallic water canister of a water gun to 80% of its capacity with
water from her tap (water with no bubbles in it) and measured how far from the holding
device the water gun shot. Then, she again filled the canister to 80% of its capacity with
tap water, shook the water gun, and immediately measured how far it shot. She
repeated these tests with water mixed with laundry detergent, which contained many
bubbles, and a flat-tasting cola beverage that showed no visible bubbles. Table 1 shows
the results of these trials.
Experiment 2
Next, the student filled the water gun canister to 80% of its capacity with the flat-tasting
cola, shook it to create bubbles and then let it sit, undisturbed. When 10 minutes had
elapsed, she tested how far the water gun shot the cola, before and after shaking it
(Trial 4). She then let it sit undisturbed for an hour before again testing how far it shot
before and after shaking it (Trial 5). Table 2 shows the results of these trials.
Experiment 3
For the third experiment, the student used an old-fashioned, plastic water gun, with
transparent walls and the water container in the handle of the water gun. The student
added the flat-tasting cola to fill the water container to 80% of its capacity, shot the
water gun, and observed that no bubbles formed upon shooting. She then shook the
water gun, which caused bubbles to form. After 10 minutes, there were still some visible
bubbles in the cola; however, after an hour had passed, there were no visible bubbles.
11. In Experiment 3, what is the most likely reason the student chose to use an old-
fashioned plastic water gun rather than a metal water gun? Compared to the metal
water gun, the plastic water gun:
A. exhibited different effects of bubbles on shooting distance.
B. did not shoot as far as the metal gun.
C. allowed the student to view the bubbles in the liquid.
D. was easier to fit into the holding device.
12. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, in which of the following two trials,
before shaking the water gun, were the distances shot the same?
F. Trials 1 and 4
G. Trials 2 and 3
H. Trials 3 and 4
J. Trials 3 and 5
13. In Experiment 2, a result of shaking the water gun containing the flat-tasting cola
was that the:
A. density of the liquid increased.
B. bubbles in the liquid disappeared.
C. distance the liquid was shot increased.
D. distance the liquid was shot decreased.
14. In Trial 5, is it likely that bubbles were present in large numbers in the cola
immediately before the can was shaken?
F. Yes; based on the results of Experiment 1, the bubbles generated in Trial 4
probably lasted for less than 10 minutes.
G. Yes; based on the results of Experiment 1, the bubbles generated in Trial 4
probably lasted for more than 1 hour.
H. No; based on the results of Experiment 3, the bubbles generated in Trial 4
probably lasted for less than 1 hour.
J. No; based on the results of Experiment 3, the bubbles generated in Trial 4
probably lasted for more than 2 hours.
15. Suppose that in Experiment 2, the student had decided to measure the distance the
water gun shot the cola one hour after finishing Trial 5 without shaking the water gun
again. Based on the observations made in Trials 4 and 5, the horizontal distance the
cola was shot would most likely have been:
A. less than 5.49 meters.
B. between 5.49 and 5.51 meters.
C. between 5.52 and 5.98 meters.
D. greater than 5.98 meters.
16. Based on the results of Trials 3-5, if the student filled the metal water gun to 80% of
its capacity with the flat-tasting cola and shook it, the time it would take for the bubbles
in the cola to disappear to the point that they would have no effect on the distance of the
shot would most likely have been:
F. greater than 1 hour.
G. between 10 minutes and 1 hour.
H. between 3 minutes and 9 minutes.
J. less than 3 minutes.
(Test 25)
Four basic aerodynamic forces act on an airplane, whether it is a passenger jet or a
model made of paper. Thrust is the forward force and drag is the backward force, both
of which act parallel to the airplane's motion. Lift is the upward force that acts
perpendicular to the airplane's motion. Gravity is the downward force.
Students performed three experiments to determine the effects of different physical
modifications on the flying ability of paper airplanes. In each experiment, students used
printer paper to create a set of identical paper dart planes. They then modified the
airplanes' design to investigate the effect on flight distance.
In each experiment, a single student gently threw each airplane. A second student then
measured the horizontal distance covered by each plane. The students performed each
experiment three times for each airplane.
Experiment 1
Students created three identical paper airplanes. The first plane's flat wings were left
unaltered. The second plane's wings were modified to curve upward in a U shape. The
third plane's wings were modified to curve downward in an inverted U shape. The
results are shown in Table 1.3.
TABLE 1.3 Airplane Wing Curvature Data
Experiment 2
Students created three identical paper airplanes. They left the first plane's flat wings
unaltered. The second plane's wingtips were bent slightly upward. The third plane's
wingtips were bent slightly downward. The results are shown in Table 1.4.
TABLE 1.4 Airplane Wingtip Position Data
Experiment 3
Students created four identical paper airplanes. The first plane remained unaltered. Two
paperclips were placed on either side of the second plane's nose. Two paperclips were
placed on either side of the third plane at midwing. Two paperclips were placed on
either side of the fourth plane's tail. The results are shown in Table 1.5.
TABLE 1.5 Airplane Paperclip Position Data
1. Which aerodynamic force is the result of friction as an airplane moves through the
air?
A. Thrust
B. Lift
C. Drag
D. Gravity
2. Which pair of aerodynamic forces directly oppose each other?

A. Lift and drag
B. Thrust and lift
C. Gravity and thrust
D. Drag and thrust
3. To keep a paper airplane in the air, the forces of thrust and lift:
A. cannot be less than the forces of drag and gravity.
B. must be equal to each other.
C. cannot be equal to each other.
D. must be less than the forces of drag and gravity.
4. Experiments 1 and 3 differed in the:

A. type of paper used.
B. number of airplanes tested.
C. number of students involved.
D. number of trials performed.
5. Which of the following statements about Experiment 1 is most accurate?

A. Curving the wings slightly upward appears to improve airplane performance.
B. Altering the curvature of the wings appears to have little impact on airplane
performance.
C. Curving the wings slightly downward appears to impede airplane performance.
D. Flat wings appear to result in poor airplane performance.
6. In Experiment 2, bending the wingtips slightly downward most likely increased the
effect of which force?
A. Drag
B. Lift
C. Thrust
D. Gravity
7. Which condition represents the control group in Experiment 2?

A. Wingtips bent down
B. Wingtips bent up
C. Flat wingtips
D. No wingtips
8. Based on the data from Experiment 3, which paperclip placement had the least effect
on flight distance?
A. At the tail
B. On the wingtips
C. At the nose
D. Midwing
9. Based on the data from the three experiments, which of the following is the
approximate average horizontal distance traveled by an unaltered airplane?
A. 9.5 m
B. 10.0 m
C. 10.5 m
D. 11.5 m
10. Which modification had the most positive effect on airplane performance?
A. Bending wingtips slightly upward
B. Adding paperclips to the midwing
C. Curving wings upward
D. Bending wingtips slightly downward
11. A student produces the graph shown in Figure 1.2. This graph best represents the
data contained in:
Figure 1.2
A. Table 1.3.
B. Table 1.4.
C. Table 1.5.
D. all three tables.
12. An object's center of gravity identifies the average location of the object's weight. In
which experiment did students alter the center of gravity of the paper airplanes?
A. All three experiments
B. Experiment 2
C. Experiment 1
D. Experiment 3
13. Which modification changed an airplane's average horizontal distance the most?
A. Adding paperclips to the tail
B. Adding paperclips to the nose
C. Curving wings downward
D. Bending wingtips slightly downward
14. In Table 1.3, the horizontal distance of each individual airplane is shown to increase
with each subsequent trial. The most reasonable explanation for this trend is that the:
A. student measuring the distance used different meter sticks with each trial.
B. three airplanes became more aerodynamic with each trial.
C. student throwing increased the amount of initial thrust with each trial.
D. effects of gravity on all three airplanes were decreased with each trial.
15. Based on the data from the three experiments, which combination of features would
be expected to produce the longest flight?
A. Wings curved down, flat wingtips, and paperclips at the nose
B. Flat wings, wingtips bent up, and no paperclips
C. Wings curved up, wingtips bent down, and paperclips at the tail
D. Flat wings, flat wingtips, and no paperclips
(Test 37)
A rollercoaster car is often used as a model of energy transformations. Resting at its
starting point, the car has gravitational potential energy. As it moves along the track, the
potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and then back to potential energy as the
car approaches the rollercoaster's ending point.
An object's gravitational potential energy can be calculated as the product of the
object's mass, acceleration due to gravity, and the object's height above the ground
(PEg = m × g × h). In a frictionless system, the amount of potential energy at the
beginning and end of the rollercoaster would be equal. However, friction between the
car and the track causes frictional dissipation to transform some of the energy to heat
and sound. The amount of energy dissipated due to friction can be calculated as the
product of the frictional force on an object and the distance traveled by the object (F fd).
A group of students built a marble rollercoaster out of foam pipe insulation tubing and
tried to determine the conditions that would maximize the height of the rollercoaster's
hill. The students conducted two experiments to study the effects of gravitational
potential energy and frictional dissipation on the marble.
Experiment 1
Figure 5.1 shows the initial setup for the marble rollercoaster. A indicates the starting
height (drop height) and C indicates the ending height (hill height) of the marble. B is the
lowest point located halfway between A and C.
Figure 5.1
Students started with a drop height of 0.6 m and stretched the rollercoaster tubing out to
a horizontal length of 1 m. They then varied the hill height until the marble was able to
successfully reach the top of the hill without going over. To study the effects of the
marble's initial gravitational potential energy, students conducted three more trials using
different drop heights. Table 5.3 shows the results for each trial.
TABLE 5.3 Experiment 1
Experiment 2
Students started with a drop height of 1.2 m and stretched the rollercoaster tubing out to
a horizontal length of 1.0 m. Students then varied the hill height until the marble was
able to reach the top of the hill successfully without going over. To study the effects of
frictional dissipation, students conducted two more trials using different horizontal track
lengths. Table 5.4 shows the results for each trial.
TABLE 5.4 Experiment 2
1. When determining the gravitational potential energy of various objects on Earth,

which variable would be considered a constant?
A. h
B. m
C. PEg
D. g
2. According to the formula provided in the passage, doubling the height of an object
should:
A. double that object's potential energy.
B. half that object's mass.
C. double that object's mass.
D. halve that object's potential energy.
3. In a frictionless environment, with a drop height of A1 the marble should be able to

reach a hill height (C in Figure 5.1) of:
A. 1.0 m.
B. 0.6 m.
C. 1.2 m.
D. 0.5 m.
4. In Experiment 1, students altered the drop height of the marble to test the effect of
which of the following variables on hill height?
A. Frictional dissipation
B. Horizontal distance traveled
C. Initial gravitational potential energy
D. Mass of the marble
5. What was the maximum drop height used in either experiment?

A. 0.6 m
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.15 m
D. 1.5 m
6. Which of the following graphs best represents the relationship between drop height
and hill height in Experiment 1?
A.
Figure 5.2
B.
Figure 5.3
C.
Figure 5.4
D.
Figure 5.5
7. The data in Table 5.4 indicate that lengthening the rollercoaster's track:
A. causes the effects of frictional dissipation to increase.
B. causes the effects of frictional dissipation to decrease, then increase.
C. has no effect on the amount of frictional dissipation.
D. causes the effects of frictional dissipation to decrease.
8. What was the smallest hill height recorded by the students in Experiment 2?
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.06 m
D. 0.97 m
9. The students used drop height as the dependent variable in:

A. Experiment 1 only.
B. Experiment 2 only.
C. both Experiments 1 and 2.
D. neither Experiment 1 nor 2.
10. If the students were to carry out a third experiment to study the relationship between
marble mass and hill height, how would the data table for this new experiment compare
to Table 5.3?
A. They would need to add an extra column between drop height and hill height for
marble mass.
B. They would need to replace the hill height column with a column for marble mass.
C. They would need to add extra rows to the bottom of the table for additional trials.
D. They would need to replace the horizontal distance column with a column for
marble mass.
11. Based on the data for the two experiments, at which point in Figure 5.1 does the
marble have the greatest gravitational potential energy?
A. Point A
B. Between points A and B
C. Point C
D. Point B
12. Which of the following is a similarity between Experiments 1 and 2?

A. Both experiments began with an initial drop height of 0.6 m.
B. The effect of the independent variable was studied by measuring hill height.
C. Horizontal distance traveled was held constant in both experiments.
D. The initial gravitational potential energy increased with each trial.
13. Which of the following energy transformations is not demonstrated by the marble
rollercoaster in either Experiment 1 or Experiment 2?
A. Mechanical energy to thermal energy
B. Mechanical energy to sound
C. Mechanical energy to chemical energy
D. Potential energy to kinetic energy
14. In Experiment 2, a fourth trial using a horizontal distance of 1.75 m would most likely
result in a hill height:
A. greater than the hill height recorded in Trial 2.
B. less than the hill height recorded in Trial 3.
C. close to the hill height recorded in Trial 1.
D. between the hill heights recorded in Trials 2 and 3.
(Test42)
Lenses are made of transparent materials such as glass and plastic and are used in
eyeglasses, cameras, and telescopes, as well as other applications. When light rays
enter a curved lens from a distant object, the rays are bent into new angles. A convex
lens, which is thicker in the middle, takes parallel light rays and converges them toward
a common point called the focal point. The focal length is defined as the distance from
the center of the lens to the point where the bent rays converge. A concave lens, on the
other hand, is thinner in the middle and diverges parallel light rays as if they came from
a point ahead of the lens (this point is one focal length from the lens). Both lenses are
shown in Figure 7.1.
Figure 7.1
In conventional ray diagrams, the source of light (the object) is to the left
of the lens and the rays move to the right through the lens. Light rays
leave objects at various angles and are bent by the lens to form an
image of the distant object. Real images are formed when actual light
rays converge to a common point to the right of the lens. Virtual images
are formed when the observer looks backward through the lens and sees
an image on the same side of the lens as the object. Table 7.1
summarizes the images observed by these lenses.
TABLE 7.1
1- When the human eye views distant objects, the light rays go through
a lens that is thicker in the middle. An image forms on the retina,
which is the inner back surface of the eye. Which of the following best
identifies the eye's lens and the characteristics of the image?
A. Convex; real, inverted, and smaller
B. Concave; virtual, upright, and smaller
C. Convex; virtual, upright, and larger
D. Concave; real, inverted, and smaller
2. According to the information provided in the passage and Table

7.1, which of the following statements is true?
A. A lens that is thinner in the middle is capable of forming inverted

images.
B. Convex lenses form a real image when the object is one focal length
to the left of the lens.
C. Concave lenses can form images with many characteristics.
D. All real images are inverted.
3. A particular convex lens in a camera has a focal length of 10 cm. If

the object for the picture is 30 cm from the lens, what type of image will
form on the film?
A. A real, inverted, smaller image
B. A real, inverted, larger image
C. A real, inverted, same-size image
D. A virtual, upright, smaller image

4. Rays of light from the distant sun reach the earth nearly parallel
with each other. A child wishes to take these rays of light and use them
to burn a piece of paper. What type of lens should the child use, and how
far from the center of the lens should the paper be?
A. A convex lens two focal lengths away from the paper
B. A concave lens two focal lengths away from the paper
C. A convex lens one focal length away from the paper
D. A concave lens one focal length away from the paper
5. A slide projector uses a convex lens with a focal length of 120

mm. A small picture on a transparent slide is placed upside down in the
projector, 125 mm in front of the lens. What will the image on the screen
look like?
A. Larger than the slide and right side up
B. Larger than the slide and upside-down
C. Same size as the slide and right side up
D. Same size as the slide and upside-down
6. Eyeglass lenses may be used to correct both nearsighted and

farsighted vision. Someone who is farsighted has difficulty seeing tiny
objects that are close to the lens. As farsighted patients look through
corrective lenses toward the object, they are able to see a larger image
clearly on the same side of the lens as the object. What type of lens
corrects farsighted vision, and what is the orientation of the image to that
of the object?
A. Convex; inverted
B. Convex; upright
C. Concave; inverted
D. Concave; upright
7. A copy machine has a lens with a focal length of 30 cm. How far
from the lens must a document (the object) be placed if the copy (the
image) is to be exactly the same size?
A. More than 60 cm from the lens
B. 60 cm from the lens
C. Between 30 and 60 cm from the lens
D. 30 cm from the lens
8. A child looks through a lens at the distant trees, and the trees still
look distant but appear smaller. What type of lens is the child looking
through, and is the image upright or inverted?
A. Convex; upright
B. Convex; inverted
C. Concave; upright
D. Concave; inverted
9. A 15-cm focal-length lens is used to focus a sharp image on a

piece of paper that is 20 cm to the right of the lens. What information
is known about the lens and the object? A. The lens is convex, and
the object is 30 cm to the left of the lens.
B. The lens is concave, and the object may be any distance from the
lens.
C. The lens is convex, and the object is between 15 and 30 cm to the left
of the lens.
D. The lens is convex, and the object is more than 30 cm to the left of the
lens.
10. In Figure 7.2, Point "F" represents the focal point of the lens. If the
candle is placed as shown in the figure, what type of image will be seen?
Figure 7.2
A. A real, inverted, smaller image
B. A real, inverted larger image
C. A virtual, upright, larger image
D. A virtual, upright, smaller image
(Test 44)
A group of students gathered data to determine the factors that affect the
speed of a wave pulse as it travels down a spring. They studied springs
with their coils stretched out (high tension) against springs with looser
coils (low tension) to determine how changing the characteristics of the
medium affect wave speed. They also studied the effect of wave
amplitude on the speed of the wave. Amplitude is the size of the
disturbance.
The students conducted slow-motion video analysis of a wave pulse
traveling down the spring and graphed the total distance the pulse
traveled versus the total travel time, as shown in Figure.
Figure 7.3
1. To properly determine the effect of wave amplitude on wave speed,
the students must: A. make the spring tighter as they change the
amplitude.
B. keep the tension the same but change the amplitude.
C. keep the amplitude and tension the same.

D. change both the tension and the amplitude.

2. According to Figure 7.3, the average speed of the high-tension/high-
amplitude wave is closest in value to:
A. 0.50 m/s.
B. 0.72 m/s.
C. 0.91 m/s.
D. 1.10 m/s.
3. According to Figure 7.3, the low-tension/low-amplitude wave: A.

gained speed with time.
B. lost speed with time.
C. maintained a constant speed.
D. accelerated at first and then slowed down.
4. According to Figure 7.3, what is the effect of the tension of the spring
on wave speed?
A. An increase in tension results in a greater wave speed.
B. An increase in tension results in a smaller wave speed.
C. Tension has no significant effect on wave speed.
D. Tension increases the amplitude of the wave.
5. What is the effect of amplitude on wave speed?
A. An increase in amplitude results in a greater wave speed.
B. An increase in amplitude results in a smaller wave speed.
C. Amplitude has no significant effect on wave speed.
D. Amplitude increases the tension of the wave.

6. Because sound behaves like a wave, one can infer from the results in
Figure 7.3 that loud sounds:
A. travel at the same speed as soft sounds.
B. travel faster than soft sounds.
C. gain speed as they move through the air.
D. lose speed as they move through the air.
7. It is believed that light has the same characteristics as waves. From

the results in Figure 7.3, one can infer that:
A. the speed of light depends on the characteristics of the material it goes

through.
B. the speed of light depends on the brightness of the light.
C. light loses speed as it moves away from its source.
D. increased light frequency increases wave speed.

8. Water waves behave like spring waves in many ways. From the
results in Figure 7.3, one can conclude that a water wave:
A. gains speed as it travels.
B. loses speed as it travels.
C. gains speed at first before slowing down to rest.
D. maintains a constant speed as it travels.
9. Assuming the low-tension/low-amplitude wave was able to keep

moving, what is the approximate distance it would travel in 6.0
seconds?
A. 0.77 m
B. 1.6 m
C. 4.8 m
D. 6.4 m
10. Inanother experiment with springs, a large wave travels 10.2 m along
a spring in 5.3
seconds. Approximately how much time would it take a small ripple to
travel the same distance?
A. 1.9 seconds
B. 4.9 seconds
C. 5.3 seconds
D. 10.2 seconds
(Test 46)
The sun is a source of many wavelengths of radiation that reach the
earth. The earth's atmosphere absorbs some of these wavelengths,
while others are able to penetrate and reach the planet's surface.
Ultraviolet radiation from the sun comes in three different categories
based on wavelength and penetration: UVA, UVB, and UVC.
UVB radiation has wavelengths of 280 to 320 nm and is partially
absorbed by the earth's ozone layer. The UVB rays that do reach the
surface can be absorbed by human skin and have been known to cause
sunburn and many forms of skin cancer. Many products, from glasses to
sunscreen, have been created to help protect humans from UVB
radiation. Two groups of students set out to test the ability of materials to
block UVB light, using a computer and a sensor specifically designed to
detect UVB radiation.
Group 1
The members of Group 1 placed a sensor in full sunlight and shielded
the sensor with a variety of sunglasses claiming to offer UVB protection.
A reading was taken on the UVB sensor for each product, and the data
were recorded in Table 8.1.
TABLE 8.1
Group 2
The members of Group 2 placed a sensor in the sun and shielded that
sensor with a piece of glass. They tested sunscreens of increasing SPF
(sun protection factor) on the glass, and the data were recorded in Table
8.2.
TABLE 8.2
1. In Group 2's experiment, SPF is the independent variable being

manipulated and UVB is the dependent variable being measured. Which
of the following graphs best represents the relationship between the SPF
and UVB data from this experiment?
A.
Figure 8.1
B.
Figure 8.2
C.
Figure 8.3
D.
Figure 8.4
2. Which of the following questions could the students in Group 2 be

attempting to answer using the data from their experiment?
Does the cost of sunscreen affect the amount of UVB that is

A.
blocked?
B. Which brand of sunscreen is the best?
C.Is there a relationship between SPF and the amount of UVA

radiation blocked?
D. Can sunscreen protect humans from skin cancer?
3. According to the findings of Group 1:
A.there is a negative correlation between price and the ability to

protect from UVB radiation.
B.there is a positive correlation between price and the ability to

protect from UVB radiation.
there is no correlation between the price of a pair of sunglasses

C.
and their ability to protect the eyes from UVB radiation.
D. sunglasses do not protect the eyes from UVB radiation.
4. Assuming that the sunscreen being tested was purchased in 10-oz

bottles, which sunscreen had the best cost for the amount of UVB
protection (use the formula $/mW/m2 of UVB blocked)?
A. SPF 50
B. SPF 30
C. SPF 8
D. SPF 4
5. Which of the following is MOST likely to represent a control that would

have been used to ensure reliability of data in the experiment done by
Group 2?
A. The distance from the sunglasses to the sensor
B. The ingredients in the sunscreen being used
C. A longer time for the sensor readings as SPF increased
D. The amount and thickness of sunscreen being spread on the glass
6. According to the results of Group 1's experiment, what percentage of

UVB rays would a $200 pair of sunglasses block?
A. 99.50%
B. 99.70%
C. 99.60%
D. There is not enough information to determine this answer.
7. Based on the results of Group 2's experiment, what would the UVB
reading most likely be if SPF 60 sunscreen were to be tested?
A. 18 mW/m2
B. 19.25 mW/m2
C. 9.25 mW/m2
D. 4.5 mW/m2
8. Which of the following is the experimental variable that Group 1

manipulated?
A. The time of day
B. The type of sunglasses

C. The amount of UVB rays
D. The distance of the materials from the sensor
9. Which of the following implies the correct relationship between SPF

and UVB blockage?
Sunscreens with SPFs higher than 30 provide only a marginal

A.
increase in sun protection over their counterparts with lower SPFs.
B. As SPF increases, the ability to block UVB light decreases.
C. There is no correlation between SPF and UVB blockage.
D. Sunscreens with higher SPFs provide less sun protection than

those with low SPFs.
10. What other experiment could the students in Group 2 conduct using
the same equipment?
A. The effect of sunscreen on shielding UVA rays
B. The ability of sunscreen to prevent cancer
C. How the amount of sunscreen applied can impact the SPF
D. The margin of benefit of SPF sunscreens higher than 60

(Test 47)
A study was conducted to identify the factors that affect the evaporation
rates of various liquids in air. Throughout the experiment, the amount of
liquid was varied, and the surface area exposed to the air was also
manipulated. Table 8.3 displays the results. TABLE 8.3
1The liquid bleach was approximately 5% sodium hypochlorite and 95% water
The experiment was continued over a period of seven weeks for water
and alcohol. Figure 8.5 shows the results graphically.
Figure 8.5
1. Based on the data for water in Table 8.3, which of the following
statements do the data NOT support?
A. The trials with larger surface areas of exposed water had greater
evaporation rates.
B. The evaporation rate for water is less than that for rubbing alcohol.
C. Water had approximately the same evaporation rate as orange juice.
D. Larger amounts of water correlate to higher evaporation rates.
2. In the experiment, 80 mL of orange juice with 4 cm 2 exposed was left

in the open for one week. Using the data in Table 8.3, how much of the
original liquid was left at the end of the week?
A. 3.0 mL
B. 77.0 mL
C. 80.0 mL
D. 83.0 mL
3. Before the experiment, students made the following hypotheses:

Student 1: "Since I can smell rubbing alcohol as soon as I open the
bottle, I expect it to have a greater rate of evaporation in air."
Student 2: "Since orange juice and liquid bleach are composed primarily
of water, their evaporation rates will be close to that of water."
Student 3: "Surface area should not affect the rate of evaporation of a
liquid because only the total amount of liquid affects evaporation rates."
Which of the hypotheses are supported by the data collected?
A. Student 1 only
B. Students 1 and 2
C. Students 1, 2, and 3
D. None of the students' hypotheses are supported by the data.
4. If 80.0 mL of rubbing alcohol are placed in a container with 20 cm 2

exposed, what would be the approximate amount of liquid left in the
container after one week?
A. 9 mL
B. 15 mL
C. 35 mL
D. 45 mL
5. Using Figure 8.5, what is the approximate number of weeks required

for 80 mL of rubbing alcohol to evaporate completely from a container
with a 4 cm2 exposure?
A. 9 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 28 weeks
D. The data does not provide enough evidence to make a reasonable

prediction.
6. According to Figure 8.5, what is the rate of evaporation of water with a

4 cm2 exposed surface area?
A. 3 mL of water each week
B. 10 mL of water each week
C. 20 mL of water each week
D. 80 mL of water each week
7. Which of the following conclusions may be supported by Figure 8.5? A.

The rate of evaporation for alcohol increases with time.
B. The rate of evaporation for alcohol decreases with time.
C. The rate of evaporation for alcohol is fairly steady with time.
D. The rate of evaporation for water is greater than that for alcohol.
8. If data for vegetable oil were added to Figure 8.5, one would most
likely see: A. data with a steeper negative slope than that of rubbing
alcohol.
B. data very similar to the line for water.
C. data with a flat line.

D. data very similar to the line for rubbing alcohol.

9. Which of the following statements about rubbing alcohol is supported
by the data?
A. The variability between the trials increases with the surface area
exposed.
B. A decrease in surface area of exposure increases the evaporation

rate.
C. An increased amount of liquid in the container increases the

evaporation rate.
D. The rate of evaporation for rubbing alcohol is greater than that for ethyl
alcohol.
10. Although the graph for rubbing alcohol displays a general

downward trend, the variations in the data could possibly be attributed
to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. fluctuations in temperature in the room in which the containers were

located.
B. variations in the air flow in the room in which the containers were
located.
C. inaccuracies in the measurement of liquid volume.

Figure 8.6
D. varying amounts of initial liquid in the containers

(Test 48)
A simple pendulum consists of a mass (the pendulum bob) suspended

by a string, as shown in Figure 8.6. In an experiment, the mass of the
bob, the radius of the arc, and the release height (measured vertically
from the bottom of the swing) were varied. Rather than measuring the
speed at the bottom of
the swing, energy analysis was used to predict the speed of the
pendulum bob at the bottom of the swing. The results are shown in
Table 8.4.
TABLE 8.4
A second experiment used the same scenario, but it included the

measurement of the centripetal force and calculation of centripetal
acceleration. Centripetal force is a real, unbalanced force pointed
toward the center of an object's circular motion. Likewise, centripetal
acceleration is defined as the component of acceleration directed

toward the center. As a pendulum bob swings through the bottom of its
arc, the string force dominates the gravitational force, thus providing the
centripetal force that gives the pendulum bob its upward centripetal
acceleration. The results are shown in Table 8.5. TABLE 8.5
1. According to the data in Table 8.4, increasing the mass of the

pendulum bob: A. has no effect on the gravitational energy at the top
of the swing.
B. decreases the gravitational energy at the top of the swing.
C. increases the radius of the arc.
D. has no effect on the speed at the bottom of the swing.

2. A 0.010-kg pendulum has an arc radius of 0.40 m. Using the data

trends shown in Table 8.4, predict the kinetic energy at the bottom of
the swing if it is released from a height of 0.35 m. A. 0.025 J
B. 0.030 J
C. 0.035 J
D. 0.040 J
3. According to Table 8.4, when the release height doubles, the

gravitational energy at the top of the swing:
A. doubles.
B. quadruples.
C. decreases to one-half its value.
D. decreases to one-fourth its value.
4. Which of the following conclusions about energy is supported by

Table 8.4?
Kinetic energy at the bottom of the swing is directly proportional to

A.
speed.
Gravitational energy at the top of the swing is inversely

B.
proportional to release height.
C.Kinetic energy at the bottom of the swing is directly proportional to

the radius of the arc.
D.Gravitational energy at the top of the swing equals kinetic energy

at the bottom of the swing.
5. When the mass of the pendulum bob doubles, the kinetic energy at
the bottom of the swing: A. doubles.
B. quadruples.
6. When the pendulum bob's kinetic energy doubles, its speed: A.

doubles.
B. decreases to one-half its value.
C. increases by a factor of 1.4.
D. increases by a factor of 2.2.
7. According to Table 8.5, centripetal acceleration is A. independent of

mass.
B. directly proportional to mass.
C. inversely proportional to mass.
D. directly proportional to the radius of the arc.
8. When the radius of the arc doubles, the centripetal force: A. doubles.
B. quadruples.

9. A car approaches a school zone with a speed limit of 20 miles per

hour. Using the data trends shown in Table 8.4, how does the kinetic
energy of a car speeding at 40 miles per hour compare to that of a car
moving at the speed limit?
A. The speeding car's kinetic energy is one-half that of the other car.
B. The speeding car's kinetic energy is one-fourth that of the other car.
C. The speeding car's kinetic energy is twice that of the other car.
D. The speeding car's kinetic energy is four times that of the other car.
10. Using Table 8.5, predict the centripetal force on a 0.060-kg bob
with a 0.40-m arc radius that is released from a height of 0.25 m.
A. 0.613 N
B. 0.736 N
C. 1.226 N
d. 9.800 N
(Test 51)
Every time a lightbulb is switched on, an electrical circuit is formed.
When plugged into outlets that provide a certain voltage, current begins
to flow through the bulbs. Current depends on the resistance of the bulb
and the voltage of the power supply. The power output of a bulb is a
measure of the amount of energy the bulb requires each second. Power
is calculated by multiplying current and voltage. Table 9.3 contains data
that relate these variables for a basic circuit consisting of one lightbulb
and a power supply.
TABLE 9.3
Figure 9.2 shows three configurations of bulbs. When the bulbs are
connected in series, they form one path to the power supply. If any bulb
in the pathway breaks, all the lights go out because the circuit is no
longer complete. In contrast, bulbs connected in parallel are all
independently connected to the power supply-in essence, forming their
own circuits. Bulbs wired in parallel across a power supply continue to
work even when one bulb goes out because each branch forms an
independent circuit.
Figure 9.2
Table 9.4 shows how the number of bulbs in series and parallel affect the
current and power values. It gives data for 240-ohm bulbs connected to a
120-V power supply.
TABLE 9.4
1. Based on the data in Table 9.3, describe the relationship between

current, voltage, and resistance.
A. Current is the ratio of voltage to resistance.
B. Current is the product of voltage and resistance.
C. Current is the ratio of resistance to voltage.
D. Current is proportional to the square of voltage and independent of

resistance.
2. Using information provided in the passage, determine the power output

of a 50.0-ohm bulb connected to a 150-V socket that has 3.0 A flowing
through it.
A. 3W
B. 50 W
C. 150 W
D. 450 W
3. For a fixed voltage, what happens to the power output of a bulb when
its resistance triples? A. The power triples.
B. The power increases by a factor of 9.
C. The power decreases to one-third of its value.
D. The power decreases to one-ninth of its value.
4. For a bulb with a given resistance, what happens to the flow of current
through the bulb when the voltage of the power supply doubles? A.
The current doubles.
B. The current quadruples.
C. The current decreases to one-half its value.
D. The current decreases to one-fourth its value
5. A 480-ohm bulb is screwed into a 120-V socket. How much energy

does it need to stay lit for four hours?
A. 108 kJ
B. 120 kJ
C. 216 kJ
D. 432 kJ
6. Predict the power required to operate a 600-ohm light bulb when it is

plugged into a 120-V outlet.
A. 20 W
B. 24 W
C. 30 W
D. 120 W
7. According to Tables 9.3 and 9.4, when a fifth bulb is added to a parallel
circuit, each bulb will: A. output the same amount of energy per
second as a bulb in a basic circuit.
B. output more energy per second than a bulb in a basic circuit.
C. output less energy per second than a bulb in a basic circuit.
D. make the other bulbs get brighter.
8. When a fifth bulb is added to a series circuit, how will the bulb's power
output compare to that of a bulb in a four-bulb series circuit?
A. It will produce the same amount of power.
B. It will produce twice the power.
C. It will produce less power.
D. It will produce no power.
9. According to the information in Tables 9.3 and 9.4, adding an

additional bulb to a parallel circuit:
A.increases the circuit's power output by decreasing the total

resistance of the entire circuit.
B.decreases the circuit's power output by decreasing the total

C.increases the circuit's power output by increasing the total

D.decreases the circuit's power output by increasing the total

10. The circuit in Figure 9.3 shows Bulbs 2 and 3 wired in parallel. That
combination is wired in series with Bulb 1 and the battery. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?
Figure 9.3
A. If Bulb 1 breaks, the other two bulbs will go out.
B. If Bulb 2 breaks, the other two bulbs will go out.
C. If both Bulbs 2 and 3 break, Bulb 1 will go out.
D. If Bulb 3 breaks, the other bulbs will stay lit.
11. As bulbs are added to a parallel circuit:
A. more current flows through each bulb.
B. less current flows through each bulb.
C. less power is output from the circuit.
D. more current flows through the battery.
12. A child noticed that five bulbs in her electric toy went out
simultaneously, but four other bulbs remained lit. What is the most
likely circuit arrangement in the toy? A. The five bulbs that went out
are wired in parallel.
B. Each of the five bulbs that went out are broken.
C. The five bulbs that went out are wired in series.
D. All nine bulbs are wired in parallel.

13. Adding additional bulbs to a series circuit:
A. increases the resistance of the entire circuit.
B. decreases the resistance of the entire circuit.
C. decreases the power output of the entire circuit.
D. increases the flow of current in each bulb.
14. A watt (W) of power is the total joules (J) of electrical energy
transferred by a circuit element each second. Given a circuit with
three 240-ohm bulbs wired in series to a 120-V power supply, how
much energy is transferred by the circuit if it operates for 10 seconds?
A. 6.7 J
B. 67 J
C. 150 J
D. 200 J
15. How much power does a parallel circuit require if it has six 240-ohm
resistors connected to a 120-V power supply?
A. 60 W
B. 120 W
C. 360 W
D. 1,440 W
(Test 53)
The moon is the earth's only natural satellite and is the fifth-largest moon
in the solar system. Believed to be around 4.5 billion years old, the moon
was a deity worshipped by ancient civilizations and the first object in the
solar system besides Earth that human beings set foot on. It has played
a special role in human history, yet despite its ubiquity, the origin of this
celestial body remains surrounded by mystery. Theories about the origin
of the moon have long been debated among scientists. The following are
summaries of the most recent major theories of moon formation. The first
three theories are known as the Big Three and represent the
predominant ideas before the mid-1970s. The fourth theory represents
the most recent school of thought, developed in light of evidence gained
from the Apollo space program.
Theory 1: Fission
The moon was spun off from the earth when the planet was young and
rotating rapidly on its axis. The empty space the moon left behind
became the Pacific Ocean basin.
Theory 2: Capture
The moon formed elsewhere in the universe. At some point, it came near
enough to be affected by the earth's gravitational field. The moon was
pulled into permanent orbit by the earth's gravity.
Theory 3: Coaccretion
The earth and moon and all other bodies of the solar system condensed
independently out of the huge cloud of cold gases and solid particles that
constituted the primordial solar nebula. The moon then fell into orbit
around the earth.
Theory 4: Giant Impact

The earth was struck by a body about the size of Mars very early in its
history. A ring of debris from the impact containing primarily Earth
materials and some materials from the impacting object eventually
coalesced to form the moon.
1. In which of the theories would the rocks on the moon NOT necessarily
bear any similarity to the rocks on the earth?
A. Fission
B. Capture
C. Both fission and coaccretion
D. Both capture and fission
2. In which two of the theories would the rocks on the moon be nearly
identical to those on the earth?
A. Capture and fission
B. Capture and coaccretion
C. Coaccretion and fission
D. Giant impact and capture
3. Which of the following statements would best support the argument of

a proponent of the capture theory?
A. Planets are incredibly small compared to the vastness of space.
B. Jupiter and Saturn (the giant gas planets) have captured moons.
C. The moon and the earth have the same oxygen isotope composition.
D. The moon does not have a regular-size core.
4. The Big Three theories have cleverly been dubbed the Daughter
theory, the Sister theory, and the Spouse theory by scientists who
compared the relationship of the moon and the earth to familial
relationships. Based on the information in the passage, which of the
following would most accurately associate the theories to their
nickname: Daughter, Sister, and Spouse?
A. Fission, coaccretion, and capture
B. Capture, fission, and coaccretion
C. Capture, coaccretion, and fission
D. Fission, capture, and coaccretion
5. The following description of the formation of the moon is from a

children's radio program in the 1930s. Which of the four moon theories
does this seem to illustrate?
Once upon a time-a billion or so years ago-when the earth was still
young-a remarkable romance developed between the earth and the sun-
according to some of our ablest scientists.… In those days, the earth
was a spirited maiden who danced about the princely sun, was charmed
by him, yielded to his attraction, and became his bride.… The sun's
attraction raised great tides upon the earth's surface… the huge crest of
a bulge broke away with such momentum that it could not return to the
body of Mother Earth. And this is the way the moon was born!
A. Fission
B. Capture
C. Condensation
D. Giant impact
6. The fission theory is refuted by which of the following pieces of

evidence? A. The moon lacks a large core.
B.There is a striking similarity between the oxygen isotopes present

on the earth and those on the moon.
Studies of isotopes found in rocks put the age of the earth and
C.
moon at 4.5 billion years.
D. The Pacific Ocean basin was formed 70 million years ago.

7. The moon's crust is thinner on the side nearest the earth. Scientists
believe that this is because the moon was close to the earth when it
formed. As the moon's mantle cooled, the earth's gravitational field
pulled slightly more mantle closer to the planet before it "set." A thicker
mantle made for a thinner crust on the side nearest the earth. This
piece of evidence contradicts the capture theory because:
A. in the capture theory, the moon broke off from the earth.
B. in the capture theory, the moon formed close to the earth.
C. in the capture theory, the moon formed in another part of the solar
system.
D. this piece of evidence supports the coaccretion theory.
8. The evidence that rock samples from the moon match rocks from the
earth's crust and mantle but bear no resemblance to the earth's
interior rock refutes all of the following theories except: A. fission.
B. capture.
C. coaccretion.
D. giant impact.
E.
9. The giant impact theory:
A. is not likely to change with the discovery of new evidence.
B. completely explains the origin of the moon.
C. is unable to account for why the moon is made mostly of rock.
D. is the theory best supported by the most current scientific evidence.

10. Which of the theories is best supported by the evidence that the
earth and moon are both 4.5 billion years old and provide isotopic
evidence that indicates they were formed in the same "neighborhood"
of the solar system?
A. Fission
B. Capture
C. Coaccretion
D. Giant impact
11. A fifth theory of moon formation, called the colliding planetesimals

theory, exists. In this theory, an asteroid-like chunk of rock orbiting the
sun collided with an asteroid-like chunk of rock orbiting the earth. The
moon then condensed from the debris of this collision. This theory
would be weakened by which of the following pieces of evidence?
A. Moon rock matches the rock from the earth's crust and mantle.
B. The moon's crust is thinner on the side nearest the earth.
C. The moon is made of mostly rock.
D. Isotopes indicate that the earth and moon formed in the same area of
the solar system.
(Test 54)
When the effect of air on a falling object is negligible and gravity is the
only significant force on that object, the object is considered to be in
freefall. A scientist can create a freefall scenario by removing all air from
a chamber (thus creating a vacuum) and allowing an object to drop
freely. When objects are not falling freely, air affects them in different
ways, depending on variables such as speed, mass, and size. If objects
are able to fall for enough time through the air, they will eventually reach
terminal velocity, a point at which their velocity stops increasing. Table
10.1 and Figures 10.1 and 10.2 show the effect of air on falling balls of
different mass and radius.
TABLE 10.1
Figure 10.1
Figure 10.2
1. According to Table 10.1, which of the following is a correct statement
about the velocity of a
10-g freefalling ball?
A. The velocity is constant.
B. The velocity increases 9.8 m/s each second.
C. The velocity increases 4.9 m/s each second.
D. The velocity steadily decreases.

2. According to Table 10.1, which of the following is a correct statement

about the distance a 10-g ball freefalls?
A. The distance increases constantly.
B. The distance increases 9.8 m each second.
C. The distance increases more each second compared to the

previous second.
D. The distance increases 4.9 m each second.
3. According to Table 10.1, how much does the air drag force on the ball
(10 g, 1 cm) increase during the fourth second of falling through air?
A. 0.000 N
B. 0.019 N
C. 0.061 N
D. 0.080 N
4. Using the trends in Table 10.1, predict the velocity of the 10-g ball at
the instant it has fallen freely from rest for 14 seconds.
A. 9.8 m/s
B. 19.6 m/s
C. 118.0 m/s
D. 138.0 m/s
5. After comparing the data for the falling ball with and without air, which
of the following is a correct statement about the effect of air on
velocity?
A. The presence of air reduces the rate at which velocity

increases.
B. The presence of air increases the rate at which velocity

increases.
C. When air is not present, the velocity eventually stops

increasing.
D. When air is present, the velocity eventually stops decreasing.
6. For the 10-g ball falling with air, Table 10.1 indicates that the force of
air drag: A. increases steadily with time.
B. plateaus initially and then decreases.
C. increases more each second compared to the previous

second.
D. increases more rapidly early in the fall and eventually

plateaus.
7. According to Figure 10.1, what is the effect of mass on the velocity of

a falling object during the first five seconds as it falls through air?
A. Smaller masses lose speed more rapidly than larger masses.
B. Larger masses lose speed more rapidly than smaller masses.
C. Smaller masses gain speed more rapidly than larger masses.
D. Larger masses gain speed more rapidly than smaller masses.

8. As an object falls, the effect of air on its motion:
A. is more pronounced during the first few seconds.
B. is more pronounced later in the fall.
C. is minimal.
D. eventually dissipates.
9. When air is present, what is the effect of the radius of the ball on the
velocity of a falling object during the first five seconds?
A. Smaller radii lose speed more rapidly than larger radii.
B. Larger radii lose speed more rapidly than smaller radii.
C. Smaller radii gain speed more rapidly than larger radii.
D. Larger radii gain speed more rapidly than smaller radii.
10. According to Figures 10.1 and 10.2, the terminal velocity of the 10-g
ball with the 0.05-cm radius is most nearly: A. 9.8 m/s.
B. 32 m/s.
C. 55 m/s.
D. 62 m/s.
11. In the absence of air drag, a ball with a larger radius:
A. has the same motion as one with a smaller radius.
B. reaches terminal velocity sooner than one with a smaller

radius.
C. obtains a larger terminal velocity.
D. obtains a smaller terminal velocity.

12. Accordingto Figures 10.1 and 10.2, the ball with less mass (but the
same radius) falling through the air:
A. reaches terminal velocity later than a ball with more mass.
B. reaches terminal velocity within the first second it is dropped.
C. reaches terminal velocity sooner than a ball with more mass.
D. has the same terminal velocity as the ball with more mass.
13. Suppose one skydiver jumps out of an airplane feet first toward the
ground. Her identical twin sister jumps out at the same time with her
arms and legs extended and her stomach parallel to the ground.
According to the passage, what can you infer about their subsequent
motion?
A. The feet-first twin will reach terminal velocity first.
B. The belly-first twin will reach terminal velocity first.
C. Both twins will reach terminal velocity at the same time.
D. The belly-first twin will obtain a greater terminal velocity.
14. A table-tennis ball with a mass of 3 g is dropped side by side with an

identical-sized wooden ball with a mass of 30 g. Based on the
information provided, what can you conclude if the balls fall in a
vacuum (no air)?
A. The 30-g ball will hit the ground first.
B. The 3-g ball will hit the ground first.
C. Both balls will hit the ground at the same time.
D. The 3-g ball will speed up more at first.

15. Atable-tennis ball with a mass of 3 g is dropped side by side with an

identical-sized wooden ball with a mass of 30 g. If both balls are
dropped from rest and fall through the air, what can you conclude?
A. The 30-g ball will hit the ground first.
B. The 3-g ball will hit the ground first.
C. Both balls will hit the ground at the same time.
D. The 3-g ball will speed up more at first.
16. Accordingto the data trends illustrated in the passage, a ball dropped
in a vacuum without air will:
A. eventually reach terminal velocity as it's falling.
B. speed up at a steady rate as long as it has room to drop.
C. speed up at greater rate if it's more massive.
D. speed up at lesser rate if it's more massive.
(Test 56)
Astronomers have identified more than 170 moons in the solar system.
For centuries, many of these scientists have used telescopic
observations to measure the time it takes each moon to complete each
orbit (the period). Using proportions and geometry, the radius of each
orbit has also been determined. With these data in place, the speed of
each moon in its orbit may be found by taking the circumference of each
orbit (2 × π × radius, assuming a circular orbit, with π, or pi,
approximately equal to 3.14159) divided by the period. The acceleration
of each moon in its respective orbit is equivalent to its centripetal
acceleration, which is found by dividing the square of its speed by the
radius of its orbit. Table 10.4 provides data for various moons in our solar
system.
TABLE 10.4
In an attempt to find the relationships in the data, the gravitational

acceleration versus the inverse of the orbital radius squared was
graphed in Figure 10.3.
Figure 10.3
1. Which moon has a period closest in value to the period of Earth's
moon?
A. Andrastea
B. Miranda
C. Rhea
D. Hyperion
2. Given just the data in the table, which two moons are most appropriate
for studying the effect of central planet mass on gravitational
acceleration?
A. The moon and Atlas
B. Andrastea and Miranda

C. Atlas and Phoebe
D. Iapetus and Arial
3. What is the best description of the relationship between radius of orbit

and the period of the moon?
A. The period is independent of the radius of orbit.
B. The period has no consistent relationship with the radius of orbit.
C. The larger the radius of orbit, the less the period.
D. The larger the radius of orbit, the greater the period.
4. Figure 10.3 indicates that the gravitational acceleration of moons is:
A. inversely proportional to the square of the radius.
B. directly proportional to the radius.
C. directly proportional to the square of the radius.
D. independent of planet mass.
5. A particular moon orbits a planet that is 318 times more massive than
Earth. If that moon has a radius of orbit of 422 million meters, what is a
possible value for the moon's speed?
A. 52 km/s
B. 31 km/s
C. 26 km/s
D. 17 km/s
6. Using Figure 10.3, along with information in Table 10.4, what

conclusion can be made about the effect of a planet's mass on the
acceleration of its moons?
A. Greater planet masses result in greater gravitational acceleration.
B. Greater planet masses result in lesser gravitational acceleration.
C. Gravitational acceleration is independent of planet mass.
D. Gravitational acceleration is directly proportional to the inverse-square

of planet mass.
7. According to the passage, which columns were calculated from data

gathered by scientists?
A. Period of moon orbit and central planet mass
B. Central planet mass and radius of orbit
C. Speed and gravitational acceleration
D. Gravitational acceleration and period
8. About how many times does the moon orbit the earth while Phoebe
completes one orbit of Saturn?
A. 1.7
B. 34
C. 20
D. 27
9. How far does Helene travel in 15 seconds?
A. 10 km
B. 41 km
C. 150 km
D. 2,400 km
10. If the moons of Mars (a planet with a mass 0.107 times that of
Earth) were placed on the graph in Figure 10.3, where would they most
likely appear?
A. Above the line for the moons of Jupiter
B. Below the line for the moons of Jupiter but above the line for the
moons of Saturn
C. Above the line for the moons of Jupiter initially, but then below that
same line
D. Below the line for the moons of Saturn.
(Test 60)
In the late 1600s, scientists developed theories about the nature of light.
Sir Isaac Newton theorized that light consisted of tiny particles.
Christiaan Huygens, on the other hand, believed that light consisted of
waves. What do we know about particles? Particles are small, localized
objects that typically have certain physical properties like mass, color, or
volume. They move in straight lines unless some outside force is acting
on them.
Waves, on the other hand, consist of energy that moves through a
medium (material). When waves hit a boundary from one material into
another, some of that energy bounces back into the original material
(reflection); some of the energy moves into the new material (refraction
or transmission); and some of the energy transfers to thermal energy
through heating (absorption). When waves encounter one another, they
will increase in size and strength if similar parts of them overlap
(constructive interference) and will decrease in size and strength if
opposite parts of them overlap (destructive interference); after the
interference, the waves continue moving in their original direction. Waves
also spread out (diffract) when they hit a sharp edge or a tiny opening.
1. The front view in Figure 11.2 shows the image projected on a screen
by the light from a tiny lightbulb placed in front of a square card. What
can you conclude about the nature of light from the image shown?
Figure 11.2
A. Light behaves like a wave because it moves in all directions from

the lightbulb.
B. Light behaves like a wave because it does not move through the
card.
C. Light behaves like a particle because it moves in straight lines

from the bulb to form the larger shadow on the screen.
D. Light behaves like a particle because it reflects, refracts, and

absorbs in this scenario.
2. Which of the following does NOT support Huygens's wave theory of

light?
A. A laser light reflects off a mirror and strikes the wall in the back of
the lab.
B. Light hits a black shirt and heats it up.

C. Sunlight transmits through a thick pane of glass, illuminating a

room.
D. The smallest unit of light is a bundle of energy called a photon.
3. In
the 1600s, it was believed that waves required a medium to travel.
Which of the following observations did Huygens have difficulty
explaining with his wave theory?
A. Light travels from the sun to the earth through the vacuum of
space.
B. Light spreads out when it encounters a thin slit in a sheet of paper.
C. When light hits an opaque surface, the surface heats up.
D. White light separates into a rainbow of colors when it strikes a

prism.
4. Inthe early 1800s, Thomas Young shone light through two tiny slits
and observed an image on the screen that consisted of many regions
of alternating bright and dark patterns. This provided evidence that
light is:
A. a wave because the light from one slit overlapped with the light
from the other slit in areas that were strong and weak.
B. a particle because it was able to make it through the two slits.
C. a wave because it refracted through the slits, bent in multiple

directions, and reflected and absorbed at the screen.
D. multiple particles bouncing off the slits and moving to certain

locations on the screen to make the bright areas and avoiding the dark
areas.
5. When a laser beam of light strikes a penny, one might expect a sharp
shadow to form. Instead, a circular, fuzzy-edged shadow forms with a
bright spot in the middle. Which of the following best explains this
phenomenon?
A.Laser light particles move in straight lines, and some of those

particles are blocked by the penny.
B.The beam of laser light is a result of stimulated emission of

electrons, and the electron particles are able to travel through the
material of the penny.
The light bounces off the edge of the penny and hits the middle of
C.
the shadow, causing the bright spot.
D.The light diffracts around the sharp edge of the penny and
interferes constructively at the center of the penny.
6. Figure 11.3 was most likely created by Huygens because:
Figure 11.3
A. the circles show the pathways that particles take when they leave the
candle flame.
B. light is moving in all directions from the candle flame.
C. the circles coming from Points A, B, and C are like ripples in a pond.
D. light is coming from different points on the candle flame.
7. Isthe following more likely to be attributed to Newton or Huygens and

why?
If you consider the extreme speed with which light spreads on every
side, as well as the fact that when it comes from different regions-even
those directly opposite-the rays traverse one another without being
hindered, you may well understand that when a person sees a luminous
object, it cannot be by any transport of matter coming to that person from
the object, in the same way that a shot or an arrow flies through the air.
Therefore, light must spread in some other way, and that which can lead
us to comprehend it is the knowledge we have of the spreading of sound
in the air.
A. Newton, because of the reference to the way light spreads
B. Huygens, because it claims that light cannot travel like matter

does
C. Newton, because the emphasis is on the extreme speed of light
D. Huygens, because it explains how we can see images of luminous

objects
8. Inthe 1900s, Albert Einstein and others determined that the basic unit
of light consists of a photon. Among other properties, this unit has a
fixed amount of energy, depending on its location on the visible color
spectrum. The fact that light can be broken down to fixed units is most
consistent with:
A. Newton's particle theory of light.
B. Huygens's wave theory of light.
C. Newton's wave theory of light.
D. Huygens's particle theory of light.

9. A beam of direct sunlight moves along an axis through the middle of

two polarizing filters, where the axis remains perpendicular to the
filters. When the light passes through the first polarizing filter, its
brightness reduces to 50%, regardless of its orientation. The light will
remain at the same brightness after the second polarizing filter if that
filter is aligned the same way as the first. If the second filter twists,
however, the light passing through it will gradually be eliminated.
Which of the following statements CANNOT be supported by this
information?
A. Because wave energy may be absorbed at a boundary, it is

feasible that only 50% of the light energy passes through the first filter.
B. Light particles may be blocked by objects; therefore it is feasible

that only 50% of the light passes through the first filter.
C. Polarizing filters may be used to control the intensity of light.
D. The change in the light intensity as the second filter is rotated may
be explained by the particle theory of light.
(Test 64)
Many companies advertise that their brand of battery outlasts the competitors' batteries.
A series of experiments were conducted to compare batteries from different
manufacturers. Figure 12.3 shows the results of tests of four different brands of
batteries. Two AA batteries were tested in an incandescent bulb flashlight, and the
combined voltage was tested for continuous use over time. The flashlight operated
effectively for voltage values greater than 2.2 V.
Figure 12.3
Table 12.2 compares how Brands D and E alkaline batteries performed in different
devices. The table displays the time the combined voltage of two batteries remained
above 2.2 V. The voltages were checked every quarter-hour.
TABLE 12.2
1. According to Figure 12.3, how did the performance of Brands D and E alkaline
batteries compare?
A. Brand E performed significantly better than Brand D.
B. Brand D performed significantly better than Brand E.
C. There was no significant difference between the performance of the brands.
D. Neither Brand D nor Brand E was capable of lighting the flashlight for more than
an hour.
2. According to Figure 12.3, the Brand P battery was capable of operating the
incandescent flashlight for approximately:
A. 0.5 hours.
B. 2.0 hours.
C. 3.5 hours.
D. 6.5 hours.
3. Which of the following conclusions is plausible from the information provided in

Figure 12.3?
A. Heavy-duty batteries perform better than alkaline batteries when used in medium-
drain devices such as incandescent bulb flashlights.
B. In the experiment, there was more consistency in the performance of alkaline
batteries than in that of heavy-duty batteries.
C. Alkaline batteries perform better than heavy-duty batteries in high-drain devices

such as camera flashes.
D. The Brand P heavy-duty battery is the best value for the money spent.
4. What can one conclude about the performance of Brands D and E batteries when
they were used in the remote-control car?
A. Brand E performed significantly better than Brand D.
B. Brand D performed significantly better than Brand E.
C. The two brand's performances were approximately the same.
D. The variability of the data prevents any valid comparison.
5. When used in the incandescent bulb flashlight, how much time did Brand K's heavy-
duty battery sustain a voltage between 2 and 3 V?
A. 0.5 hours
B. 2.0 hours
C. 3.0 hours
D. 6.5 hours
6. Using the data in Table 12.2, how do the averages of the three trials compare when
Brands D and E are used in the plug-and-play video game?
A. Brand D's average was 0.75 hours more than Brand E's.
B. Brand E's average was 0.5 hours more than Brand D's.
C. Brand E's average was 1.5 hours more than Brand D's.
D. Brands E and D had the same average.
7. Which of the following statements is true according to Figure 12.3?

A. In the first few hours of testing, the voltage drop for Brand D was greater than
that for Brand K.
B. Brand P's performance over the first four hours was nearly identical to that of
Brand E.
C. At voltages under 2.2 V, the voltage of Brand E drops more rapidly than that of
Brand P.
D. Brand K lasts longer than Brand P.
8. Which of the following steps in the experimental procedure is MOST IMPORTANT in

the comparison of battery performance between brands?
A. The batteries tested were manufactured in the same year.
B. The batteries tested were not previously used in any other device.
C. The temperature was controlled in the testing room.
D. The time intervals for measuring voltages were the same for each brand.
9. Which of the following devices is most likely classified as a low-drain device?

A. Incandescent bulb flashlight
B. LED bulb flashlight
C. Remote-control toy car
D. Plug-and-play video game
10. Approximately how much longer than the incandescent bulb flashlight does the LED
bulb flashlight last?
A. Twice as long
B. Four times as long
C. Six times as long
D. Twenty-four times as long
11. In terms of just the Brand E tests, which of the following devices is most likely
classified as a high-drain device?
A. Incandescent bulb flashlight
B. LED bulb flashlight
C. Remote-control toy car
D. Plug-and-play video game
-
(Test 66-1)
Ohm’s law states that V = I × R and WRC/L where V = voltage, I = current, R =
resistance, C = cross-sectional area of the wire, W = resistivity of the wire, and L =
length of the wire. Using the circuit pictured in Figure 1, a student performed two
experiments.
Figure 1
Experiment 1
A 5 V battery was used and the resistance was varied. Table 1 displays the results.
Table 1
Experiment 2
A battery of 1 volt was used and three different wires, each with the same resistivity and
length, were used to complete the circuit. Table 2 shows the results and Figure 2 shows
the relationship between the diameter of the wire and the measured resistance of each
wire.
Table 2
Figure 2
1. In Table 1, what is true about the relationship between current and resistance?
F. As resistance increased, current increased.
G. As resistance increased, current was unchanged.
H. As resistance increased, current decreased.
J. There is no relationship between current and resistance.
2. Based on Table 2 and Figure 1, it could be determined that a wire with a diameter of
.5 mm would have a resistance close to:
A. 2.6 ohms.
B. 1.0 ohms.
C. .5 ohms.
D. .25 ohms.
3. In Experiment 2, which of the following factors was varied?

F. Voltage of the battery
G. Diameter of the wire
H. Length of the wire
J. The material of the wire
4. The following hypothesis was put forth prior to the experiments: Current is inversely
related to resistance. An inverse relationship implies that when one quantity increases,
the other decreases. Do Tables 1 and 2 support this hypothesis?
A. No. Experiment 1 contradicts the hypothesis and shows a direct relationship
between current and resistance. The current increases with the resistance.
B. No. Experiment 2 contradicts the hypothesis and shows a direct relationship
between current and resistance. The current increases with resistance.
C. Yes. The results of both experiments show an inverse relationship between
current and resistance. When the resistance increases, current decreases.
D. No. Neither experiment shows any relationship between current and resistance.
5. Using the circuit in Figure 1 and the results of both experiments, which of the
following conditions would result in the largest current?
F. 5-volt battery, .5-mm wire
G. 5-volt battery, .25-mm wire
H. 2.5-volt battery, .5-mm wire
J. 2-volt battery, .25-mm wire
6. Based on the information in the passage, figures, and tables, which of the following
sets of conditions would most likely produce a current of about 5 amperes (assume the
wire used is the same wire in Experiment 2)?
A. Voltage: 5 volts; wire diameter: .7 mm
B. Voltage: 10 volts; wire diameter: 1 mm
C. Voltage: 1 volt; wire diameter: .2 mm
D. None of the above conditions would produce a current near 5 amperes.
(Test 68-2)
Scientists examined several ingredients commonly used as active agents in sunscreen.
The goal of the study was to determine which ingredients are most effective at blocking
harmful UV rays.
Scientists used PABA, oxybenzone, octyl salicylate, and a broad-spectrum commercial
sunscreen (SPF 45). The samples were exposed to sunlight with wavelengths ranging
from 240 to 440 nm. The percent transmittance of UV rays at each wavelength was
recorded. The data was collected manually using a spectrophotometer. The results, in
20-nm increments, are shown in Table 1.
Table 1
Figure 1 displays the intensity of sunlight across the spectrum.
Figure 1
In 1975, Thomas B. Fitzpatrick, MD, Ph.D., of Harvard Medical School, developed a
classification system for skin type. This system was based on a person's complexion
and responses to sun exposure. Table 2 lists the skin types and their characteristics.
Table 2
7. According to Table 1, which substance had the highest percent transmittance of UV

rays for sunlight with a wavelength of 260 nm?
A. Octyl salicylate
B. PABA
C. Oxybenzone
D. Commercial sunscreen
8. Based on the information in Figure 1, sunlight is most intense at which of the

following wavelengths?
F. 290 nm
G. 300 nm
H. 320 nm
J. 340 nm
9. A person with fair skin tone, whose skin burns but also tans slowly, likely has which of
the following skin types?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
10. Experts state that anyone whose skin is sensitive or very sensitive to UVA should
always wear sunscreen. According to Table 2, people with which skin types should
always wear sunscreen?
F. Types I and II
G. Types I, II, and III
H. Types II, III, and IV
J. Types V and VI
11. In sunlight with an irradiance of 0.01 W/m2/nm, oxybenzone would be expected to

have a UV ray percent transmittance of:
A. 3.8
B. 5
C. 9.7
D. 100
SUBMIT
(Test 75-1)
Students studying mirrors and reflection were given the following information:
There is a definite relationship between image characteristics and the distance an
object is placed with regard to a concave mirror (see Figure 1). If an object is located
beyond the center of curvature (C), its reflected image will be inverted (upside down)
and smaller than the object itself. If an object is located precisely at C, the image will
also be located at C; it will appear inverted and true to the object’s actual size. When
the object is placed between C and the focal length (F), the image will be inverted and
larger than the object. When the object is located precisely at F, no image is formed
whatsoever. Lastly, if an object is placed between F and the mirror, its image will appear
upright and larger than the object.
Figure 1
Given no further information, the students were asked to explain how the following
magic trick is performed:
A famous Chinese magician conducts a classic magic trick utilizing a concave mirror
with a focal length (F) of 1.6 m and a center of curvature (C) of 2.2 m. He is able to
utilize the mirror in such a manner as to produce an image of a light bulb at the same
location and of the same size as the actual light bulb itself.
Student 1
The light bulb must have been placed exactly 1.6 m in front of the mirror, creating a
perfect reflection. The image would thus be in the same location as the light bulb, have
the same dimensions as the light bulb, and be an upright image.
Student 2
The light bulb must have been placed exactly 2.2 m in front of the mirror. The image
would then be in the same location and have the same dimensions as the actual light
bulb, although it would be inverted.
1. The students disagreed about which aspect of the light bulb’s image?
F. Its size
G. Its location
H. Its orientation
J. Its shape
2. The two explanations were similar to each other in that both explanations:
A. assumed that the image was upright.
B. assumed that the exact positioning of the light bulb was important.
C. correctly interpreted the information provided by the teacher.
D. incorrectly interpreted the information provided by the teacher.
3. Placing the light bulb in front of the mirror at which of the following distances would
have resulted in an upright image?
F. 1.0 m
G. 1.6 m
H. 2.2 m
J. 2.6 m
4. Did Student 2 provide an adequate explanation of the magic trick?

A. No. Student 2’s explanation included an image that was upside down.
B. No. if the light bulb were placed at 2.2 m, it would not have produced an image.
C. Yes. 2.2 m is the center of curvature. Placing an object at C results in an image
of the same size in the same place.
D. Yes. The magician specified that the image was inverted; Student 2 was the only
student to account for this.
5. All of the following statements concerning concave mirror reflections are true
EXCEPT:
F. an object placed anywhere in front of C (closer to the mirror) will produce a
reflected image that is larger than the actual object.
G. an object placed anywhere in front of F (closer to the mirror) will produce an
upright reflection.
H. an object placed anywhere beyond F (farther from the mirror) will produce an
inverted reflection.
J. the only possible way to produce a reflected image equal in size to the actual
object is to place the object precisely at C.
6. The teacher posed another question to the students. The students were told that the
magician performed another trick in which he relocated the light bulb so as to create the
illusion that it had disappeared completely. How far in front of the mirror must the light
bulb have been placed in order to NOT produce a reflection?
A. 1.3 m
B. 1.6 m
C. 2.0 m
D. 2.2 m
7. Assume that Student 2’s explanation is correct. If the magician wanted to create an
image of the light bulb that was smaller than the light bulb itself, at which of the following
distances in front of the mirror could he place the light bulb?
F. 1.6 m
G. 2.0 m
H. 2.2 m
J. 2.5 m
(Test 75-2)
Friction is the force that resists movement when two surfaces are in contact and is
represented by Ff. The coefficient of friction (COF, symbolized by μ) is a quantity used
to measure the force of friction based on the normal force (FN). There are two COF’s for
a given surface-to-surface contact: static COF (μs) and kinetic COF (μk). μs is used for
objects at rest and μk is used for objects in motion. The normal force is an upward force,
perpendicular to the surface the object is either resting on or moving on.
The basic equation for calculating the coefficient of friction is:
Figure 1 is a diagram of a block resting on an inclined plane. The forces shown are
defined above. FG represents the force of gravity.
Figure 1
Scientists performed an experiment using several different materials to determine
μs and μk for each pair of materials. Figures 2 and 3 show the results.
Figure 2
Figure 3
8. Based on the results of the experiment, which combination of materials has the
largest static COF?
A. Plastic on plastic
B. Plastic on steel
C. Rubber on concrete
D. Rubber on asphalt
9. A comparison of the COFs given in Figure 2 shows that, relative to the COF for
rubber on concrete, the COF for plastic on plastic is approximately:
F. 1/100 as high.
G. 1/2 as high.
H. 2 times as high.
J. 10 times as high.
10. Which of the following ranks the materials used in the experiment from lowest static
COF to highest static COF?
A. Plastic on plastic, steel on steel, plastic on steel, rubber on asphalt, rubber on
concrete
B. Rubber on concrete, rubber on asphalt, steel on steel, plastic on steel, plastic on
plastic
C. Plastic on steel, plastic on plastic, rubber on asphalt, rubber on concrete, steel on
steel
D. Plastic on plastic, plastic on steel, steel on steel, rubber on asphalt, rubber on
concrete
11. A student theorized that the higher the static COF for a material, the higher the
kinetic COF would be. Do the results of the experiment support this theory?
F. Yes. The materials with the highest static COF also had the highest kinetic COF.
G. Yes. Plastic on steel had both the highest static COF and the highest kinetic
COF.
H. No. Plastic on plastic had both the lowest static COF and the lowest kinetic COF.
J. No. There is no relationship between static COF and kinetic COF for any of the
materials.
12. According to Figures 1, 2, and 3, which block would most likely slide down the
incline the fastest?
A. A steel block on a steel incline
B. A plastic block on a plastic incline
C. A rubber block on a concrete incline
D. A plastic block on a steel incline
(Test 81-1)
Two experiments were performed to study Newton’s laws of motion using air track
gliders. The friction between the gliders and the air track is nearly zero. Each glider has
a spring attached on each end.
Experiment 1
Two identical gliders were placed on an air track as shown in Figure 1. The gliders’
springs were then compressed completely together along with the gliders and released.
When the gliders were pushed apart by their springs, the data in Table 1 was recorded.
The zero position was recorded as the far-left point where Glider 1 is shown in Figure 1.
Table 1
Figure 1
Experiment 2
The same experiment was performed but Glider 3 was a double-weight glider in the first
trial. In the second trial, Glider 4, a triple-weight glider, was tested.
Table 2
The velocity for each trial was calculated and the ratio of Glider 1 to the other glider was
graphed and shown in Figure 2.
Figure 2
1. Suppose another trial was run with Glider 1 and a Glider 4 that weighs 4 times Glider
1. The ratio of the velocities would be closest to what number?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2. In Experiment 1, how many times a second did the experimenters record the position
of the gliders?
F. Once per second
G. Twice per second
H. Three times per second
J. Four times per second
3. Based on Tables 1 and 2, how did the total distance traveled by both gliders vary
against the weight of the gliders?
Total Distance----Total Weight
A. Decreased Increased
B. Increased Decreased
C. Increased Increased
D. Unchanged Increased
4. Based on Table 2, how far had Glider 4 traveled after 1.5 seconds?
F. .02 m
G. .06 m
H. .80 m
J. .86 m
5. What distance was separating the gliders before they were released in each
experiment?
A. 0 m
B. .02 m
C. .05 m
D. .08 m
(Test 85-1)
Students conducted experiments to determine what factors affect the period of
a pendulum. A pendulum is a swinging weight, or bob, attached to a string (see Figure
1). When released from an angle, a pendulum will move back and forth. One complete
back-and-forth movement is called a period.
Figure 1
Three variables may affect the period of a pendulum: swing amplitude, measured as the
angle at which the bob is released; the length of the string; and the mass of the bob.
Students created pendulums by attaching a string to the ceiling and then tying a bob
onto the other end of the string. They conducted three experiments. In each experiment
all variables except the one tested were kept constant.
Experiment 1
In this experiment students varied the mass of the bob. Bobs of 20g, 100g, and 200g
were tested for three trials each. The string length was 1m and the amplitude was 45
degrees. The results are shown in Table 1.
Table 1
Experiment 2
The second variable tested was amplitude. Bobs were dropped from 15-, 45-, and 75-
degree angles for three trials each. The string length was 1 m and the bobs used were
100 g. Figure 2 displays the average results.
Figure 2
Experiment 3
Next the students tested the effect of varying the string length. Strings of 1 m, 0.6 m,
and 0.3 m were tested in three trials each; 100 g bobs were used and the amplitude
was 45 degrees. The results are displayed in Table 2 and Figure 3
Table 2
Figure 3
1. Based on the results of Experiment 1, the average period for a bob of 100 g was:
A. 1.79 s.
B. 1.83 s.
C. 1.89 s.
D. 1.91 s.
2. If an additional trial had been conducted in Experiment 3 with the length of the string
being 1.4 m, the average period would most likely have been:
F. 2.21.
G. 1.75.
H. 1.33.
J. 0.87.
3. For each trial in Experiment 1, as the mass of the bob increased, the time of the
period:
A. stayed the same.
B. increased.
C. decreased.
D. increased and then decreased.
4. Based on the information presented in Figure 2, which of the following pendulums
would have the longest average period? Assume that the string length and bob weight
are equal.
F. Pendulum A
G. Pendulum B
H. The average period would be about the same.
J. It is impossible to determine from the information given.
5. In Experiment 3, Trial 2, how long did it take the pendulum with the string length of
0.6 m to complete one back-and-forth movement?
A. 1.06 s
B. 1.44 s
C. 1.47 s
D. 1.84 s
6. Which of the following variables was NOT tested during the experiments conducted
by the students?
F. Mass of the bob
G. Length of string
H. Size of bob
J. Swing amplitude
(Test 89-1)
Engineers studied the trajectories of a cannonball launched from a cannon under
various conditions.
Study 1
On a level surface during a mild day, engineers launched a cannonball from a cannon
as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
A camera was fixed atop the cannon so that it would point in the direction of the
cannonball's launch. A receiver was also fixed to the cannon to record the cannonball's
position as recorded by the camera.
As the cannonball traveled through the air, angle θ, which is defined in Figure 1,
consistently changed. The change in θ was captured by the camera every 0.25 seconds
after launch until the cannonball landed. For each recorded image, θ was measured
(Figure 2).
Figure 2
Furthermore, every 0.25 sec after launch, the receiver sent out a radar pulse, part of
which was reflected by the cannonball to the receiver. The roundtrip travel time of each
pulse was recorded to determine the distance, d, between the receiver and the ball at
any given time (see Figure 3).
Figure 3
Using d and θ, the engineers determined the ball's height, h, and distance, r, at the end
of each 0.25 sec interval. A curve plotting h versus r was constructed.
This procedure was followed using cannonball launch starting speeds of 135 ft/sec, 150
ft/sec, and 180 ft/sec. For each launch speed, the ball was launched at θ = 30°. The
curves representing h and r for each of the launch speeds were connected by lines for
time, t = 2 sec, 3 sec, 4 sec, and 5 sec after launch (see Figure 4).
Figure 4
Study 2
Using an algorithm, the engineers calculated h and r at 0.25 sec intervals for the same
cannonball launched in a vacuum in otherwise similar conditions to those in Study 1.
The results are plotted in Figure 5.
Figure 5
1. Suppose the cannonball were launched at 30° in a vacuum from a height of 5 ft.
Based on Figure 5, the cannonball would land approximately how many feet farther
from the cannon if it were launched at 150 ft/sec than if it were launched at 135 ft/sec?
A. 50 ft
B. 150 ft
C. 500 ft
D. 650 ft
2. While the cannonball was in flight, how often did the camera record the position of the
ball?
F. Once per second
G. Twice per second
H. Three times per second
J. Four times per second
3. The cannon was an instrumental weapon used during the Ottoman invasion of the
city of Constantinople in 1453. Assume that cannonballs identical to those used in Study
1 were launched on a windless day with a starting height of 5 ft above the ground and
an angle of θ = 30°. If the launch speed of each cannonball were 180 ft/sec, how close
would the cannon have needed to be to the 40-ft-tall wall surrounding Constantinople in
order to travel over it?
A. 425 ft
B. 575 ft
C. 700 ft
D. 850 ft
4. Based on Figure 4, as the initial speed of the launched cannonball was increased,
how did the values of h and r change at t = 4 sec?
hr
F. decreased decreased
G. decreased increased
H. increased decreased
J. increased increased
5. Based on Figure 5, if the ball were launched in a vacuum from a height of 5 ft at 135
ft/sec and θ = 30°, how long would the cannonball most likely be in flight from launch to
landing?
A. Between 4 sec and 5 sec
B. Between 5 sec and 6 sec
C. Between 6 sec and 7 sec
D. Between 7 sec and 8 sec
6. Based on Figure 3, if c represents the speed of light, which of the following

represents the time taken by each radar pulse to make the roundtrip between the
receiver and the ball?
F. 2c/d
G. 2d/c
H. c/r
J. r/c
(Test 90-2)
To help design a carnival game, bowling balls at rest on the ground are launched along
a track by a constant force spring apparatus as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
To win the game, the ball must pass Point Y but not Point Z. A total of 5 trials were done
to determine the best design. For each combination of ball friction coefficient, μ, and
ramp angle, θ, Point W was put at a distance, d, from Point X such that the ball will just
barely reach Point Z before rolling back toward the ramp.
The ball's kinetic energy (KE) at Points X and Y along with its potential energy (PE) at
Point Y are shown in joules (J) in Table 1 for each trial. The mechanical energy (ME) of
the ball at any given point is the sum of its kinetic and potential energies. It should
remain constant provided no energy is lost in the form of heat from friction or drag
forces.
7. Which of the following ranks Points X, Y, and Z from where the bowling ball had the
slowest velocity to where the bowling ball had the fastest velocity during any trial?
F. Point X, Point Y, Point Z
G. Point X, Point Z, Point Y
H. Point Z, Point X, Point Y

J. Point Z, Point Y, Point X
8. In Trial 4, at the point immediately before climbing the ramp, the bowling
ball's ME was closest to which of the following?
A. 0 J
B. 11.6 J
C. 24.2 J
D. 29.1 J
9. Based on the results of Trials 1–3, if an additional trial is performed with μ = 0.2 and θ
= 50°, PE at Point Y will most likely be:
F. greater than 12.6 J.
G. between 9.8 J and 12.6 J.
H. between 6.7 J and 9.8 J.
J. less than 6.7 J.
10. The results of Trials 3–5 indicate that as the coefficient of friction increases, the
minimum distance of Point W from Point X required for the bowling ball to barely reach
Point Z:
A. only increases.
B. only decreases.
C. remains the same.
D. varies, but with no general trend.
11. The law of conservation of energy states that the total amount of energy in an
isolated system remains constant. In which of the trials, if any, was mechanical energy
transformed to heat energy?
F. Only Trial 1
G. Only Trial 5
H. All trials had mechanical to heat energy transfers.
J. No trials had mechanical to heat energy transfers.
(Test 91-2)
A solenoid is a device that creates a magnetic field from electric current and can be
used to exert a force on a nearby bar magnet to activate a mechanical device.
Scientists performed experiments on the solenoid apparatus shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
A wire carrying current from a voltage source was coiled into a hollow cylinder to form a
solenoid with a length of XY. A solid cylinder bar magnet was suspended near the top of
the solenoid as shown in Figure 2.
Figure 2
When the voltage source was turned on, the solenoid exerted a measurable force on
the suspended bar magnet.
The bar magnet was attached to a digital suspension scale that measured weight in
newtons (N). With the voltage source off, the scale read 4.7 N. Prior to the start of each
experimental trial, the scale was adjusted to read 5.0000 N.
Experiment 1
The scientists applied various levels of voltage in volts (V) to the circuit and recorded
the weight indicated by the suspension scale for each trial. Results were recorded in
Table 1.
Table 1
Voltage (V) Weight (N)
7.25 5.0078
8.00 5.0095
8.75 5.0113
Experiment 2
The scientists removed the bar magnet, inverted it, and reattached it to the suspension
scale so that the opposite end was now facing the solenoid. The procedures of
Experiment 1 were repeated and results were recorded in Table 2.
Table 2
Voltage (V) Weight (N)
7.25 4.9922
8.00 4.9905
8.75 4.9887
Experiment 3
The bar magnet was returned to the original alignment it was in during Experiment 1.
The length XY of the solenoid coil was varied while a voltage of 8.00 V was applied to
the circuit. Weights were recorded in Table 3.
Table 3
Solenoid length XY (cm) Weight (N)
9.50 5.0105
8.50 5.0131
7.50 5.0169
6. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 3, the length XY of the solenoid coil in
Experiment 1 was most likely:
F. shorter than 7.50 cm.
G. between 7.50 cm and 8.50 cm.
H. between 8.50 cm and 9.50 cm.
J. longer than 9.50 cm.
7. In Experiments 1 and 2, the orientation of the bar magnet relative to the solenoid
opening determined which of the following?
A. Solenoid length XY
B. Direction of the force exerted by the solenoid on the bar magnet
C. Density of the bar magnet
D. Magnetic field strength of the solenoid
8. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the results of Experiment 3 ?
The force exerted on the bar magnet by the solenoid magnetic field:
F. decreased as the voltage applied to the circuit decreased.
G. increased as the voltage applied to the circuit decreased.
H. decreased as the length XY of the solenoid decreased.
J. increased as the length XY of the solenoid decreased.
9. Suppose the scientists maintained the same bar magnet orientation in Experiment 3
as in Experiment 2. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, with the solenoid
length XY equal to 9.50 cm, the weight on the scale would most likely have been:
A. 5.0169
B. 5.0105
C. 4.9895
D. 4.9831
10. Prior to all experiments, the suspension scale was calibrated to read exactly 0 N
when nothing was attached. Once the bar magnet was attached, the scientists made
which of the following adjustments to the scale reading for each of the experimental
trials?
F. The displayed weight was adjusted downward by approximately 1.3 N.
G. The displayed weight was adjusted upward by approximately 1.3 N.
H. The displayed weight was adjusted downward by approximately 0.3 N.
J. The displayed weight was adjusted upward by approximately 0.3 N.
11. Which of the following graphs best depicts the results of Experiment 3 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
(Test 95)
Students conducted an experiment to determine the insulating properties of certain
materials. In each trial, "blankets" made of different materials of different thicknesses
were wrapped around an aluminum capsule filled with 0.250 L of water at a known initial
temperature, Ti, and placed into an oven preheated to a certain temperature. Heat was
transferred through the insulating materials from the oven to the water inside the
capsule. After 5 minutes, the temperature of the water inside the capsule, Tf, was
recorded. The heat flow, measured in joules per second (J/s), is shown in Table 1.
(Note: In each trial, the same size and shape of aluminum capsule were used. One trial
was done with no insulation around the aluminum capsule.)
1. According to the information provided, heat flowed from the water in the capsule at
temperature Ti to the surrounding oven in which of the following trials?
A. Trial 1
B. Trial 5
C. Trial 9
D. Trial 12
2. The best insulators are those that are the poorest heat conductors. According to
Trials 3 through 11, which of the following materials would likely provide the best
insulation between a room and the outdoors?
F. Fiberglass
G. Cellulose
H. Asbestos
J. Rubber
3. According to Table 1, which of the following combinations of insulating material and

insulator thickness resulted in the greatest heat flow?
A. Fiberglass, 1.5 in
B. Fiberglass, 1.0 in
C. Cellulose, 1.5 in
D. Cellulose, 1.0 in
4. Materials differ in their thermal conductivity: the higher the thermal conductivity, the
greater the heat flow through the corresponding thickness of the insulating material.
According to Trials 4 through 11, which of the following statements about relative
thermal conductivities is NOT true?
F. Fiberglass has a higher thermal conductivity value than asbestos.
G. Rubber has a higher thermal conductivity value than cellulose.
H. Cellulose has a lower thermal conductivity value than fiberglass.
J. Fiberglass has a lower thermal conductivity value than rubber.
5. Trials 3 and 5 provide evidence that heat flow depends on which of the following
factors?
A. Type of insulating material.
B. Temperature of oven.
C. Contact area.
D. Thickness of insulating material.
(Test 96)
A group of students conducted several experiments using a variety of nonstick
cookware, a spring scale, and several objects with different mass. Their goal was to
determine which brand of cookware products had the best nonstick surface by
measuring the coefficient of static friction, which is a measure of how resistant a
stationary object is to movement.
Experiment 1
A student connected the spring scale to a weighted object that was placed inside a
piece of nonstick cookware as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
The students planned to calculate the coefficient of static friction by determining the
force required to disturb an object from rest. During the experiment, one student
anchored the nonstick cookware by holding tightly to the handle while the other student
attached a weighted, smooth steel object to the spring scale. The student pulled on the
spring until the object began to move. A third student recorded the force in newtons, N,
indicated on the spring scale at the moment the object began to move across the
nonstick surface.
This procedure was repeated for 3 different brands of cookware; each brand of
cookware was tested with various weighted objects. The coefficient of static friction was
calculated and the results are shown in Table 1.
Experiment 2
The students performed an experiment similar to Experiment 1, except three different
brands of cooking spray were applied to the same cookware surface before the weights
were put in place. The results are shown in Table 2.
1. The results of the 2 experiments support the conclusion that as the mass of an object
increases, the average force required to move it from rest generally:
F. decreases.
G. increases.
H. varies, with no particular trend.
J. remains constant.
2. If Experiment 1 was repeated for Brand B cookware with a 200 gram object, the
average force needed to disturb the object from rest would be closest to:
A. 0.03 N.
B. 0.06 N.
C. 0.12 N.
D. 0.18 N.
3. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of the following combinations

would result in the surface with the least coefficient of static friction?
F. Cookware brand A and cooking spray brand X.
G. Cookware brand B and cooking spray brand Y.
H. Cookware brand C and cooking spray brand Y.
J. Cookware brand C and cooking spray brand Z.

4. Which brand(s) of cooking spray was/were tested with only 2 different objects in
Experiment 2?
A. Brand Y only.
B. Brand Z only.
C. Brands X and Y only.
D. Brands X and Z only.
5. According to the passage, for the students to accurately measure the coefficient of
static friction, which force would have to be overcome?
F. The weight of the object.
G. The force between the spring scale and the object.
H. The force of applying the cooking spray to the surface.
J. The force required to disturb the object from rest.
6. The students' instructor gave them one piece of nonstick cookware and asked them
to identify the brand. The students repeated the procedures followed in Experiment 1
and obtained average forces of 0.088 N for the 150 gram object and 0.149 N for the 250
gram object. Which of the following brands would most likely have produced these
results?
A. Brand B only.
B. Brand C only.
C. Brand A and C only.
D. Brand B and C only.
SUBMIT
(Test 100)
Friction is the resistance to the movement of one object past another object with which
the first object is in contact. A group of students performed several experiments using
rectangular blocks of various materials and a smooth inclined plane 2 meters in length.
To compare how different materials are affected by friction, the blocks were placed at
the top of the plane and released to travel the 2-meter distance. The time in seconds (s)
that it took for each block to reach the end of the inclined plane was recorded.
Experiment 1
The group of students wanted to know which materials moved down the plane in the
shortest amount of time. The students used blocks of wood, steel, aluminum, glass,
plastic, and concrete. The dimensions of each block were the same, the volume of each
block remained constant, and the mass of the blocks was varied. The incline of the
plane was set at 45° for each trial. The students conducted 3 trials for each material,
and recorded the results in Table 1.
Experiment 2
The students conducted a similar experiment as in Experiment 1 to test the effect of
volume on the time that it took for the blocks to move down the inclined plane. The
results are shown in Table 2.
Experiment 3
Objects can be rated according to their ability to move efficiently. The students created
a scale from 5 to 30 (least to most resistant to motion due to friction) and tested four
objects of a known rating. Three trials were conducted for each object, using the same
methods as in Experiment 1. The results are shown in Table 3.
1. If Experiment 1 were repeated with a plane length of 4 meters, the movement time for
the wood block, in seconds, would be closest to:
A. 3.28
B. 1.64
C. 1.32
D. 0.82
2. What value would the plastic object used in Experiment 2 likely have on the scale
described in Experiment 3?
F. Less than 5
G. Between 5 and 9
H. Between 9 and 13
J. Between 13 and 19
3. A furniture maker wants to build a chair whose legs can move more easily across a
smooth wooden floor. Based on Experiment 3, which of the following object ratings
should the chair material have to best accomplish that goal?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 13
D. 19
4. In which of the following ways are the designs of Experiments 1 and 2 different?
F. In Experiment 1 mass was held constant, while in Experiment 2 it varied.
G. In Experiment 1 volume varied, while in Experiment 2 it was held constant.
H. In Experiment 1 volume was held constant, while in Experiment 2 mass was
varied.
J. In Experiment 1 volume was held constant, while in Experiment 2 mass was held
constant.
5. Based on the assumption that the loss in speed that is due to friction is responsible
for longer travel times down the inclined plane, which of the following lists of objects
used in Experiment 2 is in order of increasing loss of speed due to friction?
A. Plastic, aluminum, wood, concrete
B. Glass, aluminum, wood, concrete
C. Aluminum, steel, wood, concrete
D. Concrete, wood, glass, aluminum
6. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, as the volume of the blocks increased,
the average time it took each block to move down the inclined plane:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only.
H. increased for some blocks and decreased for other blocks.
J. remained the same.
SUBMIT
(Test 104)
Some students performed 3 studies to measure the average speed on a flat surface of a
gas-powered golf cart. Each study was conducted on a fair day with no wind. A 500-foot
long flat surface was measured, and the cart's travel time was measured from start to
finish with a stopwatch. The cart was not modified in any way, the same driver was used
each time, and the cart's fuel tank was filled before each trial.
Study 1
The students first drove the cart on a smooth asphalt road. One student drove the cart
as the other student started the stopwatch. The student stopped the stopwatch as the
cart crossed the 500-foot mark. The students calculated the results of three separate
trials and averaged the results (see Table 1).
Study 2
The students repeated the procedure used in Study 1, except the cart was driven on the
fairway (very short, well-groomed grass). The results are shown in Table 2.
Study 3
The students repeated the procedure used in Study 1, except they drove the cart
through the rough (thick, long grass). The results are shown in Table 3.
1. The highest average speeds resulted from using which surface?

A. Fairway
B. Rough
C. Asphalt
D. The speeds remained constant.
2. According to Table 1, the average speed for all three trials is:
F. less than the speed measured in Trial 1.
G. greater than the speed measured in Trial 3.
H. greater than the speed measured in Trial 2.
J. less than the speed measured in Trial 3.
3. According to Tables 1, 2, and 3:

A. the average speed of the cart in the rough is approximately two-thirds of the
average speed of the cart on asphalt.
B. the average speed of the cart on the fairway is approximately one-third of the
average speed of the cart on asphalt.
C. the average speed of the cart in the rough is approximately two-thirds of the
average speed of the cart on the fairway.
D. the average speed of the cart on asphalt is approximately two-thirds of the
average speed of the cart in the rough.
4. According to the passage, which of the following was the independent variable in
each of the studies?
F. The surface upon which the golf cart was driven.
G. The amount of fuel in the tank of the golf cart.
H. The average speed of the golf cart.
J. The number of trials conducted.
5. During which of the following was the average travel time of the car the slowest?
A. Study 1, Trial 2.
B. Study 2, Trial 2.
C. Study 3, Trial 2.
D. Study 3, Trial 3.
SUBMIT
(Test 111)
Near the end of the 19th century, British engineer Osborne Reynolds ran a set of
experiments to observe and predict the transition between laminar (steady) and
turbulent flow of a liquid through a pipe. In Reynolds' experiments, dye was forced
through a liquid to show visually when the flow changed from laminar to turbulent.
Laminar flow is common only in cases in which the flow channel is relatively small, the
fluid is moving slowly, and its viscosity (the degree to which a fluid resists flow under an
applied force) is relatively high. In turbulent flow, the speed of the fluid at any given
point is continuously undergoing changes in both magnitude and direction. Reynolds
demonstrated that the transition from laminar to turbulent flow in a pipe depends upon
the value of a mathematical quantity equal to the velocity of flow (V) times the diameter
of the tube (D) times the mass density (ρ) of the fluid divided by its absolute viscosity
(μ). The "Reynolds number," as it is called, is determined by the following equation:
Several students designed similar experiments to observe flow rates of different liquids.
To conduct the experiments, the students were given the following apparatus:
o Liquid supply tank with clear test section tube and 'bell mouth' entrance
o 1 Rotameter to measure the velocity of flow (flow rate)
o Tap water
o Motor oil
o 4, 10-ft long smooth pipes of various diameters: 0.25-inch, 0.50-inch, 0.75-inch, 1.0-
inch
Figure 1 illustrates an approximation of the set-up of each experiment.
Figure 1
Figure 2 shows approximate viscosities of the water and motor oils used in the
experiments.
Figure 2
Experiment 1
In Experiment 1, students began with a pipe of diameter 0.25 inches. The pipe was set
first at a 15° angle and tap water was released steadily from the tank into the pipe. The
velocity of flow (V) was measured. The pipe was then set at a 30° angle, a 45° angle,
and a 60° angle, water was released steadily from the tank into the pipe, and the
velocity of flow was measured. The process was then repeated for each diameter of
pipe using the same amount of water each time. All data were recorded in Table 1.
Temperature of the water was held constant at 20°C.
Experiment 2
In the second experiment, the tap water was replaced by Motor Oil A and the processes
were repeated. The results are given in Table 2.
Experiment 3
In a third experiment, the tap water was replaced by Motor Oil B and the processes
were repeated.
1. Information in the passage and the results of the experiments indicate which of the
following? Compared to tap water, Motor Oil A:
A. has a lower viscosity.
B. has a higher viscosity.
C. has an overall higher flow rate.
D. does not exhibit laminar flow.
2. Based on Experiment 1, the relationship between the angle of the pipe and the
velocity of flow:
F. is indirect.
G. is direct.
H. varies, but with no general trend.
J. cannot be determined.
3. According to the passage, laminar flow was most likely to be observed under which of
the following conditions?
A. Experiment 1, pipe diameter of 0.50 in, pipe angle of 45°.
B. Experiment 3, pipe diameter of 0.50 in, pipe angle of 15°.
C. Experiment 1, pipe diameter of 1.0 in, pipe angle of 30°.
D. Experiment 3, pipe diameter of 1.0 in, pipe angle of 60°.
4. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by information in the passage?

As viscosity increases:
A. laminar flow decreases.
B. velocity of flow increases.
C. velocity of flow decreases.
D. laminar flow cannot be measured.
5. In Experiment 1, at a 30° angle, flow rate would most likely have been approximately
6.0 ft/s for which new pipe diameter?
A. 0.4 in
B. 0.6 in
C. 0.8 in
D. 1.2 in
6. All of the experimental factors were identical EXCEPT:

F. the length of the pipes.
G. the amount of liquid released into each pipe.
H. the type of liquid used.
J. the apparatus used to measure flow rate.

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Made by: Shahd A.

The average period recorded in Table 3 was 1.47 sec.

6. To demonstrate that a pendulum’s acceleration is reduced by drag force from air

The students' teacher then described the following experiment:

9. According to Student 1, which of the following graphs demonstrates the velocity of

C. No, because as gelatin content of cake mixes X, Y, and Z increased, water

A scientist performed 3 experiments using the circuit shown in Figure 1.

2. Assume that as ρ increases, a metal's ability to conduct current decreases. Based on

An experiment is set up to look at the physics of bouncing a ball, as shown in Figure 1.

6. If the procedure used in Experiment 3 had been repeated at a temperature of 62.5°C,

1. In Study 1, I would most likely have equaled 500 A if v had been:

TABLE 1.3 Airplane Wing Curvature Data

2. Which pair of aerodynamic forces directly oppose each other?

4. Experiments 1 and 3 differed in the:

5. Which of the following statements about Experiment 1 is most accurate?

7. Which condition represents the control group in Experiment 2?

TABLE 5.3 Experiment 1

1. When determining the gravitational potential energy of various objects on Earth,

3. In a frictionless environment, with a drop height of A1 the marble should be able to

5. What was the maximum drop height used in either experiment?

9. The students used drop height as the dependent variable in:

12. Which of the following is a similarity between Experiments 1 and 2?

A. Convex; real, inverted, and smaller

B. Concave; virtual, upright, and smaller

C. Convex; virtual, upright, and larger

D. Concave; real, inverted, and smaller

2. According to the information provided in the passage and Table

A. A lens that is thinner in the middle is capable of forming inverted

C. Concave lenses can form images with many characteristics.

D. All real images are inverted.

3. A particular convex lens in a camera has a focal length of 10 cm. If

A. A real, inverted, smaller image

B. A real, inverted, larger image

C. A real, inverted, same-size image

D. A virtual, upright, smaller image

A. A convex lens two focal lengths away from the paper

B. A concave lens two focal lengths away from the paper

C. A convex lens one focal length away from the paper

D. A concave lens one focal length away from the paper

5. A slide projector uses a convex lens with a focal length of 120

A. Larger than the slide and right side up

B. Larger than the slide and upside-down

C. Same size as the slide and right side up

D. Same size as the slide and upside-down

6. Eyeglass lenses may be used to correct both nearsighted and

A. More than 60 cm from the lens

B. 60 cm from the lens

C. Between 30 and 60 cm from the lens

D. 30 cm from the lens

9. A 15-cm focal-length lens is used to focus a sharp image on a

A. A real, inverted, smaller image

B. A real, inverted larger image

C. A virtual, upright, larger image

D. A virtual, upright, smaller image

B. keep the tension the same but change the amplitude.

C. keep the amplitude and tension the same.

D. change both the tension and the amplitude.

3. According to Figure 7.3, the low-tension/low-amplitude wave: A.

B. lost speed with time.