57. A. need B. grow C. express D.

pass
58. A. main B. certain C. full D. most
59. A. talk B. say C. pass D. send
60. A. show B. ask C. understand D. know
Question2. Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct.
What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may
die. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological
change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change
and a species may not be adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes,
which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may
become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death
of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth.
Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the
same time - a mass extinction. One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65
million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest
mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent
of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the
environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example,
something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen
content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change
would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million
years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be
due to intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative.
Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain
species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival
may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history
may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
61. The word “it” in line 2 refers to ________.
A. environment B. species C. extinction D. 99 percent
62. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
D. They are no longer in existence.
63. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological
change?

A. Availability of food resources B. Introduction of new species C.

Temperature changes D. Competition among species
64. The underlined word “ultimately” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. exceptionally B. unfortunately C. finally D. dramatically
65. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that ________.
A. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
B. Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
C. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
D. Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
66. The word “demise” is closest in meaning to________.
A. help B. death C. recovery D. change
67. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species
occurred________.

A. 65 million years ago B. 250 million years ago

C. 225 million years ago D. 26 million years ago
68. Why is “plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the
ocean
C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct
D. To demonstrate the interrelationship of different species
69. The underlined word “finding” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. published information B. research method
C. scientific discovery D. ongoing experiment
70. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in
paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
C. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.

SECTION E. WRITING ( 20 pts)

Question1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same
as the sentence printed before it.
81. Why were you so impatient in such a situation?
-You are supposed ………………………………………………..…………………………
82.It’s hardly possible to reach the peak of the mountain.
- It’s nearly ……………………………………………
83.I wish you hadn’t breathed a word about his private life to anyone.
- I would like you……………………………………………
84. Jane has a habit of working hard.
- Jane is...........................................................................................
85.Celia had no other alternative but take a huge loan from the bank.
-The only ……………………………………………
Question2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the
first one, using the given word. Do not change the given word.
86. His arrival was completely unexpected. (TOOK)
→His …………………………………………………………
87.I think we ought to permit him to do whatever he chooses. (HAND)
→I think ……………………………………………………
88. I haven’t decided yet whether to move or not. (made)
→ I haven’t ………………………………………………..………………………. whether to move or
not yet.
89. They have postponed the match until the end of August. (put)
→The match………………………………………………..………………………. until the end of
August.
90. George never pays any attention to his father’s advice. (notice)
→George ………………………………………………..…………………………. of his father’s
advice.
Question3: Paragraph writing.
With around 150 words, write a paragraph to talk about the benefits of students doing
volunteer work.
--- THE END ---
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HÓA NĂM HỌC 2017-2018

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: Tiếng Anh9- THCS

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Số báo danh
Ngày thi: 10/ 3/ 2018
.....................
Đề này có 06 trang.

SECTION A – LISTENING (15 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu
và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

* Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín
hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part I.Listen to the passage and complete the form below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)

FACTS ABOUT THE PANDA

Habitat: (0) lives in high mountains in China
Food: mainly (1) ____________________
Eating time: (2) ___________ hours a day
Number: about (3) __________ in the wild and 100 in captivity
Cubs: more than (4) _________ die after birth
Solution: (5) _________________________

Part II. Listen to Sarah doing a survey on reading habits and decide whether each of the
following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)
6. Sarah's first question is about what type of books Charlie likes reading.  T/F 
7. Charlie likes science fiction, romance and Westerns.    T/F
8. Charlie spends about $50 a month on books.    T/F
9. Charlie buys books from the internet.   T/F
10. Charlie went to The Regal Bookstore last week.    T/F
Part III. You will hear a radio interview with Jack Williams, who is talking about a town
called Swanton. Answer the questions by choosing A, B, or C. (5 pts)
11. Where is the town of Swanton located?
A. Near the sea. B. By a lake. C. On a hill.
12. What does Jack like most about living in Swanton?
A. There are opportunities for climbing nearby.
B. There are lots of activities in the town.
C. There is interesting wildlife near the town.
13. Jack is worried about the environment of Swanton because_______
A. the water in the river is dirty.
B. there are few wild birds around today.
C. pollution has destroyed the plants in one area.
14. What does Jack say about the way Swanton has changed?
A. He is sorry that there are fewer jobs available.
B. He thinks it is a more interesting place.
C. He preferred the town when it was smaller.
15. Jack is positive about the future of Swanton because _______
A. there will soon be a new airport.
B. there is a successful new shopping centre.
C. a new university is opening.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16.A. purse B. nervous C. surprise D. worse
17.A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology
18. A. precious B. preparation C. pretty D. repetition
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
19. A. invent B. literacy C. inventory D. stationery
20. A.dormitory B. handicap C. minority D. voluntary

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)

21.“Go on, finish the desert. It needs _______ up because it won’t stay fresh until tomorrow.”
A. eat B. eating C. to eat D. eaten
22. My parents lent me the money. ________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise
23. Her face turned _______when she heard that her mother met with an accident.
A. red B. blue C.white D. grey
24.That is the last _______ I am leaving.
A. straw B. pain C. limit D. nuisance
25.-“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “______________”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please
C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
26.Florida _______ Georgia to the North.
A. borders B. stretches C. frontiers D. boundaries
27. The new school complex cost _______ the city council had budgeted for.
A. twice more by far than B. twice much more than
C. almost twice as much as D. just twice as much as
28.When the electricity failed, he _________ a match to find the candle.
A. rubbed B.struck C. scratched D. started
29.I usually buy my clothes _________. It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.
A. on the house B.in public C. off the peg D. on the shelf
30.I know this is a big disappointment but don’t take it to _______
A. soul B. mind C. spirit D. heart
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(8 pts)
31. I (follow)_________his advice, I wouldn’t be in dangerous now.
32.I don’t know what the matter is with him. He (act)______ funny since you were away.
33.He was the only student (award)_______ the special prize in reciting poetry competition.
34.He is planning (complete)________ all his coursework by next week.
35.If you felt lonely, you ( give)_______ me a ring
36.They (have)_________English from nine to ten in this room. Don’t let anyone disturb them
then.
37.Three days ago, Mr Brown ran out of money so he sold his car and one day later he won a
lotterry ticket. He (sell)_________ it.
38.Just as I (wonder)_________ what to do next, the phone rang.
Question III. Supply the correct form of the wordsgiven. (7 pts)
39.When you travel into space, you can eat and drink in ______. (WEIGHT)
40.How do you ________ the real painting from the fake one ? (DIFFERENT)
41. He __________and fell into the water. (BALANCE)
42.All the ________from the last lecture were not allowed to attend (ABSENCE)
the interview for the coming project.
43.Ann _______ and picked up her riding hat. (MOUNT)
44. Jim is very disorganized and not very ________ . (BUSINESS)
45. You look rather _______ . Are you worried about something? (OCCUPY)
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each mistake,
write it down and give your correction. (5pts)
As far back as 700 B.C, man has talked about childrencared for by wolves. 27. ___
Romulus and Remus, the legendarytwin founders of Rome, are purported to 28. ___
have been cared for by wolves. It is believed that wherea she-wolf loses her 29. __
litter, she seeks a human child to take its place.
This seeming preposterous idea did not becomecredibleuntil the late nineteenth 30. ___
century when a French doctor actually founda naked ten-year-old boy 31. ___
wandering in the woods. He did not walk erectly, could not speak intelligibly, or 32. ___
could he relate to people. He only growled and stared at them. Finally, the doctor 33. ___
won the boy's confidence and began to work withhim. After many long years of 34. ___
devoted and patient instruction, the doctor was able to have the boy to clothe 35. ___
and feed him, recognize and utter a number of words, as well as write letters and 36. ___
form words.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space (10pts)
There is growing evidence that urbanizationhas a sharp impact on (51)_____, causing
changesthat(52)______wreak havocon precipitation patterns that supply the precious resource
of water. The heavy amounts of heat and pollution rising from cities (53)_____delay and
stimulate thefallof precipitation, deprivingsome areas of rain whiledrenching others.
Cities are(54)_____averageone to ten degrees warmerthan surrounding
underdeveloped areas. Cities also produce large amounts of (55)_____called aerosols,
gaseous suspensions of dust particles or byproducts from the(56)_____of fossil fuels. Both heat
and aerosols (57)_____ the dynamics of clouds. When hoisted (58)______ in the sky, the
microscopic particles act as multiple surfaces on whichthe (59)_____in clouds can condense as
 tiny droplets. This can prevent or delay the formation of larger raindrops that fall more easily
from the sky, (60)_____ it can cause the rain to fall in another location.

Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. (10 pts)
Sound Advice for Language Learners
            A recent issue of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the
(61) ____ of second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those (62)____
a language course. One suggestion is that you (63) ____  whether you are likely to be successful
at learning a language? Did you enjoy studying languages at school, for example? Do you have
enough time to learn a language? The major (64)____will be your own time and effort.
Therefore, you must be sure that the course on offer leads to a (65)_____ qualification. Also, be
realistic in your (66)______. If you don't set achievable aims, you are more likely to give up. Do
not be deceived (67)______thinking that the most expensive courses are the best. (68) ______
around to get the best possible value for money. You should also bear in mind that the quicker
you learn a language, the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to
teach herself German by enrolling on a (69)______course. Already fluent in four languages and
with a sound knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of (70)______ progress were
high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest mistake was not to follow
up her first experience. "I should have consolidated what I'd learn by continuing to study, even if
it were by myself."
61.A. branch B. field C. area D. domain
62.A. wondering B. thinking C. looking D. considering
63. A. assess          B. review C. balance D. survey
64. A. chance    B. cost C. price D. evaluation
65.A. recognized  B. understood C. valued D. regarded
66. A. sights        B. ends C. objects D. goals    
67. A. by             B. about C. into D. in   
68.A. nose          B. push C. run D. shop
69. A. rapid           B. crash C. quick D. fast
70. A. achieving         B. doing C. making D. gaining
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10
pts)
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour waveand is used as the scientific term for
seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landslide or volcanic
eruption. When the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar
to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate
along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32.500 kilometres long that encircles
the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands.
A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of
kilometres across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour.
Upon entering shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre
high out at sea,suddenly grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it may be 15 m high
or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected.
They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements.
Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise
underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach
land. Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and
accompanying storm surge killed an estimated 500.000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The
tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.

71.Scientifically, tsunami is the term for _______.

A. seismic sea wave. B. undersea earthquake.
C. undersea landslide. D.volcanic eruption.
72.What does the word “concentric” mean?
A.Wavy B.Having many centres
C.Having a common centre D.A ring
73.Which of the following may be a reason for a tsunami?
A.An inactive volcano. B.A landslide on the seashore.
C.An undersea earthquake. D.A storm.
74.What will happen when an object is dropped into the water?
A.Volcanic eruption may be a consequence. B.Some concentric waves will be generated.
C.There will be seismic activity. D. Earthquake may happen.
75. What is the zone of volcanoes and seismic activity in the world called?
A.The concentric wave. B.The tsunami.
C.The Pacific Ocean. D.The Ring of Fire.
76. What is the greatest speed of tsunamis travelling across the deep ocean?
A.200 kilometres an hour. B.700 kilometres an hour.
C. 800 kilometres an hour. D.150.000 kilometres an hour.
77. How high is the wave of the tsunami when it reaches the shore?
A.100 metres. B.200 metres. C.Half a metre. D.Fifteen metres.
78. How are tsunamis capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A.They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B.They are a metre high or more.
C.They travel hundreds of kilometres.
D.They can strike the shore fifteen metres high.
79.What killed an estimated 500.000 people in Bangladesh?
A.A tsunami. B. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge.
C.A high tide. D.Flooding.

80.Which of the following is NOT true?

A.Tsunamis only occur in Asia.
B.A cyclone along with storm surge happened in Asia in 1970.
C.Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. The company presents a gold watch to each of its retiring employees.
Each ______________________________________________________.
82. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam.
With _______________________________________________________.
83. On his way home Terry had an unfortunate accident .
Terry met _________________________________________________.
84.The Pacific Ocean is averagely deeper than the Atlantic.
The average _________________________________________________.
85.Peter said “I wish I were in your place”.
 Peter said ___________________________________________________.
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first
one, using the words given. You MUST use between TWO and FIVE words. (5 pts)
86. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. (DO)
 A quiet holiday___________________.
87. By chance I was in that town when the earthquake started. (HAPPENED)
 I _________________that town when the earthquake started.
88. Despite knowing this place very well, I got lost. (THOUGH)
 I got lost_________________________very well.
89. Were Jack not so affluent a man, she would not be dating with him. (BUT)
__________________, she would not be dating with him.
90. They listened eagerly and attentively to the President’s speech. (EARS)
 They____________________ to the President’s speech.
Question III. Write a paragraph 120-150 words (10 pts)
Should lower secondary school students play video games?Use specific examples and reasons
to support your idea.

……………….. THE END ………………

 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HOÁ Năm học: 2017 – 2018

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HD CHẤM Môn thi: Tiếng Anh9- THCS

(HDC gồm 03 trang) Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 10/ 3/ 2018

SECTION A – LISTENING (15 pts)

Part I.Listen to the passage and complete the form below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. (5 pts)

1.bamboo shoots, leave 2.12 3. 600 4. half 5. cloning (the panda)

Part II. Listen to Sarah doing a survey on reading habits and decide whether each of the
following statements is True (T) or False (F).(5 pts)

6. F 7. F 8. T 9. T 10. F

Part III. You will hear a radio interview with Jack Williams, who is talking about a town
called Swanton. Answer the questions by choosing A, B, or C. (5 pts)

11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B

SECTION B- PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)

16.C 17.B 18.C

Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet.(2pts)

19.A 20.C

SECTION C- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.B 22.D 23.C 24.A 25.B
26.A 27.C 28.B 29.C 30.D

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your
answer sheet .(8 pts)
31. had I followed 35. should have given
 32. has been acting (has acted) 36. will be having
33. to be awarded 37. needn’t have sold
34. to have completed 38. was wondering

Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on
your answer sheet. (7pts)
39. weightlessness 43. dismounted
40. differentiate 44. businesslike
41. overbalanced 45. preoccupied
42. absentees

Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text. Identify each mistake, write it down and
give your correction. (5pts)

46. Line 2 : are →were

47. Line 3:where →when
48. Line 4: seeming →seemingly
49. Line 6: or→nor
50. Line 10: him →himself

SECTION D - READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I.Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the
answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

51. climate 52. can 53. both 54. on 55. pollutants

56. burning 57. change 58. up 59. moisture 60. or

QuestionII. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
61. B 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. A
66. D 67. C 68. D 69. B 70. C
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
71.A 72.C 73.C 74.B 75.D
76.C 77.D 78.A 79.B 80.A

SECTION E - WRITING (20 pts)

Question I.Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. Each of the company’s retiring employees is presented with a gold watch.
82. With a view to passing the exam, they tried hard
83. Terry met with an unfortunate accident on his way home.
84. The average depth of the Pacific Ocean is greater than that of the Altlantic.
85. Peter said he wished he were in my place.
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first
one, using the words given. You MUST use between TWO and FIVE words. (5 pts)
86. would do you good
87.happenedto be in
88. though I know this place
89. But for Jack’s affluence
80. were all ears to listen
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme:
1.Format (2 pts)
The paragraph must include a topic sentence, supporting ideas and a concluding sentence.

2. Content ( 5 pts)
Ideas are presented with coherence and cohesion, style and clarity.

3. Language (3 pts)
A provision of a variety of vocabulary, good use and control of grammatical structures, good
punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
 UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 24 tháng 3 năm 2016
(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang) ==========

Điểm bài thi Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách

Bằng số: Họ tên: Hä tên:

Bằng chữ: Chữ ký: Chữ ký:

* Ghi chú: Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.

PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 POINT)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. (0.5 pt)
1. A. relaxed B. reached C. supposedly D. crossed
2. A. machine B. stomach C. architecture D. chorus
3. A. mature B. pasture C. gesture D. creature
4. A. individual B. considerate C. education D. procedure
5. A. laugh B. though C. tough D. enough
Your answers:
1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. (0.5 pt)
1. A. politics B. literature C. chemistry D. statistics
2. A. likeable B. oxygen C. museum D. energy
3. A. apology B. stupidity C. generously D. astronomy
4. A. television B. distinguish C. immediate D. acquaintance
5. A. experience B. introduce C. determine D. appliance
Your answers:
1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. (2.5 pts)
1. She put ______ speaking to him as long as possible.
A. off B. over C. away D. back
2. She ______ her neighbour’s children for the broken window.
A. accused B. complained C. blamed D. denied
3. _____ Internet can be used as _______ means of education and communication.
A. An - a B. The - a C. The - the D.  - a
4. She is traveling to work by bus today because her car is being ______.
A. stopped B. broken C. serviced D. rented
5. Tony’s boss doesn’t want him to _______ a habit of using the office phone for his personal
calls.
A. make B. do C. have D. increase
6. My parents were so disappointed when I ______ college.
A. got out of B. fell out of C. dropped out of D. moved out of
7. The noisy children ______ my nerves. I wish they’d quiet down!
A. get out of B. get in C. get into D. get on
8. On the table _______.
A. the disks layB. did the disks lie C. lay the disks D. lied the disks
9. She wondered _______ her father looked like now after so many years away.
A. how B. whose C. that D. what
10. The company was finally safe ______ bankruptcy.
A. with B. by C. from D. in
11. All the boys are good at cooking, but _______ is as good as the girls.
A. either B. none C. neither D. every
12. The bank is reported in the local newpapers ______ in the broad daylight.
A. to be robbed B. robbed
C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed
13. Clothing made of plastic fibers has certain advantages over _______ made of natural fibers
like cotton, wool, or silk.
A. that B. the one C. what D. which
14. The government would be forced to use its emergency powers ______ further rioting to
occur.
A. should B. did C. were D. had
15. _______ we have finished the course, we shall start doing more revision work.
A. For now B. Now that C. Ever since D. By now
16. Go on. Tell me the gossips. I’m all _______.
A. full B. head C. eyes D. ears
17. If only motorists _______ drive more carefully.
A. might B. shall C. would D. should
18. He lost control of his temper and ______ his anger.
A. lost sight of B. took note of C. made room for D. gave way to
19. Mr. Nixon refused to answer the questions on the _______ that the matter was confidential.
A. reason B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations
20. _______ at his lessons, he couldn’t catch up with his classmates.
A. Hardly as he worked B. Hard as he worked
C. Hard as he does D. Hard as he was
21. _______ is more interested in rhythm than in melody is apparent from his compositions.
A. That Philip Glass B. Philip Glass, who C. Philip Glass D. Because Philip Glass
22. ______ invisible to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways.
A. Although is B. Despite C. Even though it D. Although
23. In fact, the criminals _____ in because the front door was wide open and they just walked in.
A. needn’t have broken B. shouldn’t have break
C. didn’t need to break D. couldn’t have broken
24. Nam: In my opinion, computer is one of the most wonderful inventions.
Lan: _______.
A. There is no doubt about it. B. Yes. Congratulations!
C. You shouldn’t have said that. D. Pardon?
25. Nga: Would you mind if I closed the door? It’s too cold outside.
Lan: _______.
A. I’d rather you didn’t. It’s stuffy. B. No, I don’t like.
C. No, never mind. D. Why not do it?
Your answers:
1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.___7.____8.___9.______ 10.____

11.___12.___ 13.___ 14.___ 15.___ 16.___ 17.___ 18.___ 19.__ 20.____

21.___ 22.___ 23.___ 24.___ 25.____

II. Supply the correct tense or form of the verb in each of the following brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. I’d rather you (not wear) ___________ jeans to the office.
2. The money (steal) ___________ in the robbery was never found.
3. This building (finish) ___________ by the end of 2018.
4. It was our fault to keep you waiting so long. We (inform) _________ you in advance.
5. You look tired. You (work) __________ hard?
6. A: “Was Carol at the party last night?”
B: “Yes, she (wear) ___________ a really nice dress.”
7. I remember (give) ___________ a toy drum on my fifth birthday.
8. It was urgent that she (leave) ___________ at once.
9. Minh (steal) ________ your money yesterday because we went out together all yesterday.
10. Jim hurt his arm while (play) _________ tennis.
Your answers:
1._________________ 2._________________ 3._________________

4._________________ 5._________________ 6._________________

7._________________ 8._________________ 9._________________

10._________________

III. Give the correct form of the word in each bracket in the following passage. (2.0 pts)
You may know that Asian, Middle Eastern and Mediterranean cultures have (1.
TRADITION) ___________ used garlic in their dishes. What you may not know is that garlic is
also thought of as a (2. VALUE) ________ medicine by many ancient civilizations. Today, (3.
PROFESSION) ________ in the field of nutrition have come up with new information which is
indeed quite (4. SURPRISE) __________. Apparently, not only is garlic good for you but it also
helps overcome various (5. ILL) _______. The main (6. ADVANTAGE) ________ to eating
garlic is of course bad (7. BREATHE) ________. Cooking it reduces the strong smell and eating
parsley, which is a natural deodorizer, also helps (8. MINIMUM) ______ the smell. Thus, it’s time
we took the benefits of garlic (9. SERIOUS) ________. Why not add it to some of your (10.
FAVOR) ________ dishes.
Your answers:
1._________________ 2._________________ 3._________________

4._________________ 5._________________ 6._________________

7._________________ 8._________________ 9._________________

10._________________

IV. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.0 pt)
In many countries in the process of industrialize, overcrowded cities present a major
problem. The underpopulation of towns is mainly caused by the drift of great numbers of people
in the rural areas. The only long-term solution is make life in the areas more attractively, which
would encourage people to stay here. This could be achieved by providing incentives to people
to go and work in the villages. Moreover, facilities in the rural areas, so as transportation, health,
and educational services should be improved.
Your answers:
N Line Mistake Correction
o
1
2
3
4
 5
6
7
8
9
10
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
SPECTACULAR SPORTS
A surprising number of popular spectator sports, for example, football or baseball, (1)
_______ in Europe or the USA in the 19 th century. This did not happen by chance. It was the
result of changes in the (2) ______ people lived in those places at that time. Until then more
people lived in the country than in towns. They worked in small groups and had no (3) ______
time off. All this changed with the growth of factories and industry in the 19 th century, first in
Europe and then in the USA. For the first time most people began to live in towns, and they (4)
_______ themselves with regular free time. They had more leisure time than (5) ______ before.
This resulted (6) _______ the need for the organized entertainment. Suitable games were
developed or invented, typically team games, in which the crowds could (7) ______ sides and
become involved. This gave people some of the entertainment they needed in their free time.
The (8) ______ explosion in TV, with the introduction of satellite and cable channels, has caused
an increase in (9) _______ for sports as entertainment. The money TV has brought to games
such as football, tennis, and baseball (10) ______that spectator sports will certainly go on
playing an important part in our lives.
1. A. started B. stemmed C. came D. appeared
2. A. manner B. style C. method D. way
3. A. steady B. square C. regular D. normal
4. A. found B. realised C. presented D. noticed
5. A. just B. having C. ever D. previously
6. A. from B. by C. with D. in
7. A. choose B. take C. select D. decide
8. A. recent B. late C. lately D. later
9. A. need B. requirement C. request D. demand
10. A. signifies B. concludes C. means D. states
Your answers:
1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____8.____ 9.____ 10.____
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
At sixteen, Henry Vincent was separated from his family as a result of the war. He
wandered aimlessly from one country to another (1) ________ finally settling down in Australia,
(2) _______ he was trained as an electronics engineer. He established his own business but it
called for so much work that marriage was out of the (3) ________ .
His retirement suddenly (4) _______ him realize how lonely he was and he decided to (5)
______ up a hobby. With his interest in electronics, amateur radio seemed a natural choice. He
installed his own equipment and obtained a licence and his call sign, which is the set of letters
and numbers used to identify oneself when making radio contact (6)_____ other radio amateurs
all over the world.
Soon Henry had a great many contacts in far-off places. One in particular was a man in
California with (7) ________ he had much in common. One night the man in California happened
to mention the village in Europe he had come from. Suddenly, Henry realised that this man was,
in fact, his younger brother, Peter. At first, the two brothers were at a (8) ______ for words but
then little by little they filled (9) _______ the details of their past lives and not long afterwards
Henry Vincent flew to California to (10) ________ reunited with his brother.
Your answers:
1.____________2._____________3._____________4._____________ 5.____________

6._____________ 7._____________8._____________ 9._____________

10.____________

III. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to
each of the following questions. (2.0 pts)
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums
devoted to the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a
great collection displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a
single family, Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the
extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family
residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The
impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if they were
vacated only a short while ago - whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most
recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains,
then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled.
Like an English country house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and
manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided
with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors
and students, and a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room
displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a
private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the
years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and
would give them more meaning for the viewers. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural
history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting
manner and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of
manufacture.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned.
B. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum.
C. How Winterthur compares to English country houses.
D. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur.
2. The phrase “devoted to” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. surrounded by B. sentimental about C. successful with D. specializing in
3. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931?
A. The owners moved out. B. The old furniture was replaced.
C. The house was repaired. D. The estate became a museum.
4. What does the author mean by stating “The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to
the visitor” in paragraph 1?
A. Winterthur is very old. B. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum.
C. Few people visit Winterthur. D. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable
5. The word “assembled” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. developed B. appreciated C. brought together D. fundamentally
changed
6. The word “it” in bold in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. Winterthur Museum B. collection
C. English country house D. visitor
7. The word “developing” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. traditional B. exhibiting C. informative D. evolving
8. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT
_______.
A. date B. style C. place of manufacture D. past ownership
9. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
A. The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the first paragraph.
B. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum.
C. The second paragraph explains a philosophy art appreciation that contrasts with the
philosophy explained in the first paragraph.
D. Each paragraph describes a different historical period.
10. Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed?
A. Lines 1-3 B. Lines 5-6 C. Lines 7-10 D. Lines 11-13
Your answers:
1.____ 2.____ 3.____ 4.____ 5.____ 6.____ 7.____ 8.____ 9.____

10.____

PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0 POINTS)

I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (2.0 pts)
1. My protests were ignored by everybody.
 Nobody ___________________________________________________________________
2. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.
 It came ___________________________________________________________________
3. It was the fog that caused the traffic problem.
 If it _______________________________________________________________________
4. We haven’t received the confirmation of our hotel booking yet.
 Our hotel booking __________________________________________________________
5. She didn’t inherit anything under her uncle’s will.
 Her uncle didn’t ____________________________________________________________
6. Betty is very happy to look after handicapped people.
 Betty is devoted ___________________________________________________________
7. Nicky runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her four children.
 Not only _________________________________________________________________
8. He said that he had been a long way from the scene of the crime at the time.
 He denied _________________________________________________________________
9. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
 They stole ________________________________________________________________
10. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
 All dogs __________________________________________________________________

II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the
brackets. Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
1. I’ll lend you the money on condition that you pay it back next week. (long)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
2. Bill was about to speed when he saw the patrolman. (verge)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
3. It is necessary for me to finish this homework tonight. (got)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
4. She was cheated when she sold the jewelry at such a low price. (ride)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
5. They arrived at their destination alive and kicking. (sound)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
6. It was the telephonist’s fault that they didn’t get the message. (blame)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
7. The disagreement is a lot of fuss about nothing. (teacup)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
8. There’s nothing new about defence alliances. (hills)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
9. They couldn’t decide where to go on holiday. (reach)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________
10. Why didn’t they tell me about these changes earlier? (should)
 ____________ ______________________________________________________________

III. (2.0 pts) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
“Watching TV is a waste of time for children”.
Write an essay of about 200 words to express your opinion, using specific details and
examples to support your answer.

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--------THE END--------
 UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9
===============

PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 pt)

I. (0,5p) 1.C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B

II. (0,5p) 1.D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B

PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0 pts)

I. (2.5 pts)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7.D 8.
C 9. D
10.C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. C
18. D
19. C 20. B 21. A 22.D 23.C 24. A 25. A

II. (1.5 pt)

1. didn’t wear 2. stolen 3. will have been finished
4. should have informed 5. Have …. been working 6. was wearing
7. being given 8. (should) leave 9. can’t/ couldn’t have stolen
10. playing

III. (2.0 pt)

1. traditionally 2. valuable 3. professionals 4. surprising
5. illnesses 6. Disadvantage 7. breath 8. minimize/minimise
9. seriously 10. favorite/ favourite

IV. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.0 pt)
In many countries in the process of (1. industrialize industrialization), overcrowded
cities present a major problem. The (2. underpopulation  overpopulation) of towns is mainly
caused by the drift of (3. great  large) numbers of people (4. in  from) the rural areas. The
only long-term solution is (5. make to make) life in the areas more (6. attractively
attractive), which would encourage people to stay (7. here  there). This could be achieved
by providing incentives (8. to  for) people to go and work in the villages. Moreover, facilities in
the rural areas, (9. so as  such as) transportation, health, and (10. educational 
education) services should be improved.

PART THREE: READING (6.0 PTS)

I. (2.0 pts)
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. CII. (2.0 pts)
1. before 2. where 3. question 4. made 5. take
6. with 7. whom 8. loss 9. in 10.be
III. (2.0 pts)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. D

PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0 PTS)

I. (2.0 pts)
1. ……. took any notice of my protests.
Or ……. took note of my protests.
Or …….. paid any attention to my protests
2. ……. as no surprise to me to hear that Harry …..
3. ……. hadn’t been for the fog, there wouldn’t have been traffic problem.
4. ……. hasn’t been confirmed yet.
5. ….… leave her anything in his will.
Or ……. leave anything to her in his will.
6. ……. to looking after handicapped people.
7. ……. does Nicky run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her four
children./ but she manages …. as well.
8. ……. having witnessed the crime. / Having been at the scene of the crime at the time.
9. ……. everything but / except (for) the television.
10. ….… are thought/ believed / said to have evolved/ descended from wolves.

II. (2.0 pts)

1. I’ll lend you the money as / so long as you pay it back next week.
2. Bill was on the verge of speeding when he saw the patrolman.
3. I have got to finish this homework tonight.
4. She was taken for a ride when she sold the jewelry at such a low price.
5. They arrived at their destination safe and sound.
6. The telephonist was to blame for the fact that they didn’t get the message.
7. The disagreement is a storm in a teacup.
8. Defence alliances are as old as the hills.
9. They couldn’t reach a decision on/about where to go on holiday.
10. I should have been told about these changes earlier.

III. (2.0 pts) Marking scheme

The mark given to part III is based on the following scheme:

Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa

1. Bố cục 0.40
 Câu đề dẫn phải thể hiện được rõ ý kiến của người viết 0.10
 Bố cục hợp lí, rõ ràng phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài và đầy đủ 3
phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận. 0.15
 Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
0.15
2. Phát triển ý 0.40
  Phát triển ý có trình tự logic và mạch lạc 0.20
 Có giải thích, dẫn chứng, ví dụ xác thực đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của 0.20
người viết
3. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.40
 Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung của bài viết 0.10
 Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và 0.15
cấu trúc.
 Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 0.15

4. Nội dung 0.40

 Đủ thuyết phục người đọc 0.15
 Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận 0.15

 Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 10 % 0.10

5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.40

 Sử dụng đúng dấu câu 0.10
 Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm 0.10
của bài viết)
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
 Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp
gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.) 0.20

Tổng 2.00
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before
marking the papers.
Bài thi môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 – BẢNG A
Thời gian làm bài 150 phút (bao gồm cả phần nghe)

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách

Bằng số: ………………………. Giám khảo 1: …………………………….
……. ………………
Bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2: …………………………….
…………………………… ………………

SECTION A. LISTENING

Part 1 (20 points). Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
John Frank Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln lived in different times. Kennedy was born in
(1)_____, whereas Lincoln was born more than 100 years earlier. As for their family
backgrounds, Kennedy came from a rich family. He was able to attend (2)_____ private schools.
He graduated from (3)_____ University. Lincoln had only one year of formal schooling. In spite of
his lack of formal schooling, he became a well-known (4)_____. He was a self-educated man. In
spite of these differences in their backgrounds, some interesting (5)_____ between the two men
are evident. For example, take their political careers. Both of them began their political careers
as a (6)_____. They went to the Congress just one hundred years apart. Another interesting
coincidence is that each man was elected President of the United States in a year (7)_____ with
the number 60. Furthermore, both men were presidents during the years of civil unrest in the
country. Both of them were assassinated while in (8)_____. They were (9)_____ while they were
sitting next to their (10)_____.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2 (20 points). Listen to the talk and indicate whether the following statements are true
or false by writing T for true and F for false in the boxes below.

1. Sports play an important part in British life.

2. Sailing and rowing are more popular in winter.

3. Squash can be played all year round on outdoor courts.

4. All colleges have their own impressive sports facilities.
5. The most popular outdoor sports are football and tennis.
6. Motor racing is one of the popular sports in Britain.
7. There are many English idioms coming from the world of sports.
8. "That's not cricket" means "to be fair".
9. The most popular sport in Britain is football.
10. People support their local clubs on Sunday afternoons.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3 (10 points).

Questions 1 - 4
You will hear a woman talking to some students about her job. Complete the notes with
words from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Job: (1)_____________________________for five years.

Studied (2)_______________________________ at university.
Interested in (3)__________________________ side, not theory.
Accepted for (4)____________________________ after graduating.

Questions 5 - 7
Now you will hear the next part of the talk. Choose THREE answers from A - F.

What does the speaker think are the disadvantages of police work?
A. danger of being attacked
B. protecting the public
C. not being available for family celebrations
D. special training in avoiding trouble
E. working difficult hours
F. working with the public

Your answers:
5. 6. 7.

Questions 8 - 10
Listen to the last part of the talk and answer the questions. Write no more than TWO
WORDS.

8. What does the speaker think about the financial rewards of police work?
9. What kind of people do the police sometimes have to protect?
10. What does the speaker want to be in the future?

Your answers:
8. 9. 10.

SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Part 1 (15 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the
following sentences. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part.

1. It says in the program that the show______ at 7:30.

A. starts B. has started C. will start D. started
2. Two students ______ at a bus-stop were kidnapped yesterday.
A. wait B. waited C. waiting D. were waiting
3. ______ anything suspicious arise, please phone me immediately.
A. Should B. If C. Would D. Could
4. Most American people don’t object ______ them by their first names.
A. that I call B. that I am called C. for calling D. to my calling
5. In my opinion, young ______ must be punished, but education is the best cure.
A. crime B. criminals C. crimes D. criminality
6. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city into a(n)
______ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly
C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
7. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
8. Jane: “It was really kind of you to give me a lift home.” Peter: “______”
28. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house anyway.
29. I’m not pleased.
C. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house anyway.
D. As a matter of fact, you’re pretty nice.
9. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in the following sentence.
I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money from me.
A. making me impatient         B. praising me too much        
C. making me feel worse D. elevating me        
10. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in the following sentence.
I think we ought to give him a free hand and let him carry out the scheme as he thinks best
without any interference from us.
A. permit B. support C. control D. forbid
11. You need to be more ______ if you want to become a novelist.
A. imaginary B. imagination C. imaginative D. imaginatively
12. A person who is concerned only ______ his own interests cannot be a true friend.
A. about B. in C. for D. with
13. Patient: “Excuse me! Could you tell me when Dr. Smith has office hours?”
Nurse: “______.”
A. Yes, I could B. Not really, but there’s a sign on the door I think
C. By no means D. When he’s not busy
14. “______ bad weather we are having this summer!”, said the woman.
A. What a B. How C. How this D. What
15. The reporters thought that the football coach would be depressed by his dismissal, but he
just _____.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. laughed it off D. turned it down

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 2 (10 points). There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Identify the mistakes
and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an
example.
Example: Line (0): the  a

0 Stress is often called the 21st century illness, but it has always
1 been with us perhaps with different names. Those days we often
2 consider stress is a necessary evil of modern life. However, stress
is
 3 not negative and without it we will certainly not enjoy some of the
4 highpoints in life just as the anticipation before a date or the
5 tension leading up to an important match. All these situations
6 produce stress, but if you can control it and not the other
7 way round you will feel stimulated, not worn out. Like these
8 situations, which are generally positive but easier to deal with,
9 sitting in a train that is late, being stuck in a traffic jam, working
1 to a tight deadline is much harder to manage and control. Stress
0
1 is now recognized as a medical problem and as a significant
1
1 factor in causing coronary heart disease, high blooded pressure
2
1 and high cholesterol count. The fact is that patients are often willing
3 to
1 admit to stress problems because they feel they are a form of
4
1 society failure and it is important that symptoms should be identified
5 in
1 order to avoid unnecessary sufferings. So why should we be
6
1 looking out for as danger signals? Some common signs of stress
7 are
1 increased tiredness, irritability and the inability to solve certain
8 situations.

Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections Line Mistakes Corrections
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10
.

SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D)
best fits each gap. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.

SMOKING

Smoking is harmful to health. This is known to many people worldwide. But men and
women who began to smoke some thirty years ago or so did not have much research on how
smoking can (1)______ the body and threaten health. It was known that smoking could
(2)______ the teeth and fingers, dull the appetite, and be a very expensive (3)______ to
maintain. But people who began to smoke did not know that smoking, (4)______ cigarette
smoking, could be extremely (5)______ to their health.
Medical studies have shown that smoking is a great health hazard because of its effects
on the body. These studies show that the (6)______ life expectancy of a smoker is three to four
years less than (7)______ of a nonsmoker. The life expectancy of a person who smokes two or
more (8)______ of cigarettes a day may be as much as eight years (9)______ than that of a
nonsmoker. In addition, research has shown that people who smoke are more (10)______ to
develop lung cancer and other serious diseases than nonsmokers.
(11)______ warnings that cigarettes are a health hazard, smoking gains (12)______
among youth. Frequently, young people tend to ignore the warnings about smoking because
they plan to stop in five years or so. “I can always (13)______ before real damage is done” is the
reason they give. But recent experiments prove that damage (14)______ the lungs becomes
measurable almost (15)______ a person starts to smoke.

1. A. afford B. effect C. affect D. effort

2. A. discolor B. disorder C. disable D. disqualify
3. A. custom B. way C. rule D. habit
4. A. especially B. fundamentally C. principally D. generally
5. A. bitter B. dangerous C. harsh D. hard
6. A. frequent B. average C. common D. constant
7. A. these B. this C. those D. that
8. A. boxes B. cases C. packs D. plates
9. A. fewer B. shorter C. narrower D. smaller
10. A. possible B. probable C. likely D. feasible
11. A. Despite B. Though C. With respect to D. In case of
12. A. reputation B. popularity C. respect D. prosperity
13. A. dismiss B. rid C. drop D. quit
14. A. for B. to C. of D. with
15. A. as soon as B. as far as C. as long as D. as much as

Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Part 2 (15 points). You are going to read an article in which four people describe their best
teacher. For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D). The people may be chosen
more than once.

Which person had a teacher who…

taught more than one member of the same family? 1.______
might have wished their pupils to choose a different career? 2.______
was popular with all the pupils? 3. ______
had to overcome a disadvantage when teaching? 4. ______
made contact after their pupils left school? 5. ______
taught in an unusual physical position? 6. ______
changed their pupils’ behavior? 7. ______
became their teacher as a result of a personal contact? 8. ______
developed their pupils’ physical and mental skills? 9. ______
pointed their pupils in the direction of a successful career? 10. ______
demonstrated a sense of humor? 11. ______
decided what to teach by responding to their pupils’ interests? 12. ______
showed what was necessary instead of talking about it? 13. ______
was also doing another job? 14. ______
 put an emphasis on what pupils expressed, not the way they expressed it? 15. ______

MY BEST TEACHER

A She knew I was interested in acting, but it

Sandy Ross just wasn’t an option in my world. My father
Brian Earle, my English teacher was a very was a driving examiner and I wasn’t
intense man with thick glasses, and the fact exposed to acting as a career. It was Miss
that he taught a lot of his classes standing on Young who told me about the National
his head was also seen as extremely Youth Theatre, which was an organization I
peculiar. He taught me for just one year and was unaware of. She suggested I look into it
it was probably one of the most creative and think about going there. About ten years
years of my life. He didn’t believe in giving after I left school, when I was with the Royal
marks for grammar or punctuation; he Shakespeare Company and playing fairly
implied that the mechanics of writing were high-profile parts, I got a letter from Miss
not important if you had something to say. Young saying she was following my career
When I wrote a short story for him called with interest, but as far as I know, she never
‘Army’, he simply wrote across the bottom: came to see me perform. She certainly
'You’ve just got to keep on writing.’ Those never came to see me backstage.
few words of support had a fantastic effect D
on me in terms of wanting to write and be Sarah Parker
involved in writing. Brian Earle had a love for Tae Kwon Do is a martial art which has
teaching and his subject. become popular as a sporting activity in
B recent years. I started learning it in the Ivory
Rajah Ishtiak Coast in Africa when I was about 13, and
My mother was an editor of Pakistan’s
later became the country’s first black belt.
largest newspaper and she knew and liked
My teacher, Park Min Ho, had been sent by
its librarian, Atif Burkhi. Atif was well-
the Tae Kwon Do federation in Korea to
educated and when I was about 12, my
open a club. It was very successful. When
mother decided I should learn more about
he arrived he didn’t know a word of French,
the region’s history and she chose Atif as my
so he used to demonstrate rather than
tutor. It turned out to be an inspiring move.
explain. At the time my brother and I started
He would come to our house once a week to
learning Tae Kwon Do, we were fighting like
teach me, from the end of school until
mad. But we quickly understood we had to
supper. He took me through a lot of history,
stop fighting because we realized that
but after a few lessons I got bored. ‘I know
fighting was about self-defense, not
you’re being paid by my parents to teach me
aggression. Tae Kwon Do teaches you to
this stuff,’ I said, ‘but there are other things in
control your anger and control your body. It
the world.’ He burst out laughing as he so
is very good for your memory, co-ordination
often did and asked: ‘What do you want to
and self-discipline. And you are acquiring a
talk about then?’ And so we would discuss
philosophy. Later on, Park opened a
global issues and world literature.
restaurant and then moved back to Korea.
C
Jennifer Pitt We had a very friendly relationship, but
Everyone loved Miss Young. She taught me somehow I feel like I was a disappointment
between the ages of 13 and 17 and was to him. He thought I had a future in the
instrumental in my becoming an actress. sport. But when I was 17, I decided it was
not what I wanted to do.
Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each
question.
Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually
been a series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873,
P.T. Barnum built Barnum’s Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of
Madison Avenue and 26th Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later, the
bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the property, added statues and fountains, and renamed it
Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt bought the property in 1879, it was renamed
Madison Square Garden.
A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with
a ballroom, a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000.
However, this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to
make way for a forty-storey skyscraper.
When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from
Madison Square Park, the boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new
Madison Square Garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different
location, on 8th Avenue and 50th Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and
Madison Avenue. Rickard’s Madison Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing
prize fights and circus events until it outgrew its usefulness by the late 1950s.
A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, a top Pennsylvania
Railroad Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice,
which includes a huge sports arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-
nine-storey office building, does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However,
the name is actually quite a misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor
does it have the flowery gardens that contributed to the original name.
1. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden ________.
A. has had a varied history in various locations B. was P.T. Barnum’s major
accomplishment
C. is home to many different sporting events D. was named after and adjacent
park
2. Which paragraph discusses the third location of Madison Square Garden?
A. The third paragraph. B. The second paragraph.
C. The first paragraph. D. The last paragraph.
3. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he ________.
A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26 th Street
B. made improvements to the property that he bought
C. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden
D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt
4. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. simple B. modern C. elaborate D. outlandish
5. How long did the second Madison Square garden last?
A. 11 years B. 34 years C. 45 years D. 60 years
6. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square
Garden?
A. A balloon dance B. A theater production C. A basketball game D. a
tiger show
7. An “edifice” in paragraph 3 is most likely________.
A. an address B. an association C. a competition D. a building
8. Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome was renamed Gilmore’s Gardens in ________.
A. 1890 B. 1879 C. 1875 D. 1874
9. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?
A. It is on Madison Avenue. B. It is across from Madison Square
Park.
C. It has incredible gardens. D. It is above a transportation
center.
10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Madison Square Garden has been rebuilt for the fourth time.
B. Lots of flowers have been planted inside Madison Square Garden.
C. The Madison Square Garden building is far from Madison Square.
D. Madison Square Garden still has its original name.

Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Part 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. Write your answers
in ‘Your answers’ part.
NEIL ARMSTRONG

Neil Armstrong was (1) ______ on 5 August 1930, in Ohio, United States. He was (2)
______ in flying from an early age. When he was only eight years old, he (3) ______ his first
model plane. When he was ten years old, he got a part-time job mowing grass so that he could
have (4) ______ money to purchase newer and bigger planes.
When Armstrong was a high school student, he continued to (5) ______ up different part-
time work. He wanted to earn more money (6) ______ was needed to pay for his flying lessons.
On his (7)______ birthday in 1946, Armstrong was (8)______ exhilarated on learning that he had
gained his pilot’s license.
The (9) ______ year, 1947, Armstrong finished high school and went to Purdue University
to study aeronautical engineering. (10)______, before he could finish his university studies, he
was called up by the Navy to fight in the Korean War.
In 1952, Armstrong returned to the USA to (11) ______ his studies at Purdue. He
graduated from the university in 1955 and worked (12) ______ a research pilot, testing new
aircraft.
In 1962, Armstrong was selected by National Aeronautics and (13)______ Administration
(NASA) to be an astronaut. He and several others had to go (14)______an intensive program of
training to prepare (15) ______ for America’s first mission to land on the moon. He is still famous
for his saying “It’s only a small step of ours, but it is a giant leap of the human”.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 5 (10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each part (1-
5) of the article. There are TWO extra headings which you do not need to use. The first
has been done as an example.
 Lists of Headings

A. Making friends during exams D. Vary the way you revise G. Set yourself
targets
B. Remembering the difficult bits E. Reward yourself H. Write down the
main points
C. Keep calm F. Be organized

HOT TIPS FOR STAYING COOL AT EXAM TIME

0. _____G_____
It’s always good to know what you’re aiming for so that you know if and when you get there. By
having an aim for each week, or even each day, it will help you check your progress and show
you if you need to change your plans.

1. ___________
Rather than have to work through masses of notes every time you revise something, try noting
down things you want to remember on a piece of paper. It doesn’t seem much to learn that way,
but it makes sure you don’t miss out anything important. Once you’ve learnt the main points,
rewrite them on another piece of paper without looking at your notes.

2. ___________
There is nothing worse than being confused about what you need to prepare for your coming
exam. If you have a plan and stick to it, you won’t end up cramming all your revision into the last
few hours! Make a list of your exams and what you need to learn beforehand, and then drew up
a timetable covering all the topics. You can then work out what you need to do on a weekly basis
and when you are going to do it.

3. ___________
By now you’ll probably have discovered the method of revision which suits you best. But every
now and then it might be helpful to try a different method. You could try working with a group of
friends, or using a different book which covers things from a new angle. Whatever it is, just try
something different occasionally.

4. ___________
Some things are almost impossible to remember, so you may need to do something unusual to
help you remember. Try writing them down in large letters and bright colors and sticking them on
the fridge, on a mirror or on the bathroom door. Try recording them onto a cassette player and
keep playing it back to yourself - on a personal stereo if you have got one!

5. ___________
Not too many people like exams and most of us get nervous before and during exams. But if
you’ve followed your plan and put the effort into revising, then there is no need to worry or panic.
Hopefully these tips will have helped you. Give it your best shot - that’s all that anyone can
expect from you.

SECTION D. WRITING
Part 1 (10 points). Use the word in brackets, complete the second sentence so that it has
a similar meaning to the first one. DO NOT change the word given.

1. The boy was about to cry when he was punished by his mother. (point)
The boy was _______________________________________ when he was punished by his
mother.
2. There aren’t many other books which discuss this problem so well. (discussed)
In few other books
_____________________________________________________________.
3. I thought about what had happened all those years before. (mind)
I cast
________________________________________________________________________.
4. I’m sure it wasn’t Mrs. Smith you saw because she’s in Singapore. (been)
It ___________________________________________________because she’s in Singapore.
5. Andrew is said to be a very good cook. (reputation)
Andrew ________________________________________________a very good cook.

Part 2 (20 points). This is part of a letter you receive from an English-speaking friend, Tim,
who is coming on holiday to your country.

We will be spending a day in your town during our coach tour. Do you think we must meet? If so,
what should we do? As this will be my first visit to your area, I want to give your parents a
present, can you give me a suggestion?

Write your letter (about 80-100 words), suggesting how you will both spend the day together. DO
NOT write any addresses.
Dear Tim,
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………........................

…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………

Best wishes,
Nam

Part 3 (30 points). Your English teacher has asked you to write a story (100-120 words) for
your school story writing competition. Your story MUST begin with the following
sentence:
It was a contest for secondary students and I knew that was my chance to win.

……………………..………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………...

………………….................................................................................................................................

...............

_THE END_

SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 CẤP THCS NĂM
HỌC 2017 – 2018
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Bảng A

SECTION A. LISTENING
Part 1 (10 x 2 = 20 points). Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR
A NUMBER.
1. 1917 2. expensive 3. Harvard 4. lawyer 5. similarities
6.
congressman 7. ending 8. office 9. shot 10. wives
Part 2 (10 x 2 = 20 points). Write T for true and F for false in the boxes below.
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. F 5. F 6. T 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F
Part 3 (10 points).
Questions 1 - 4
1.police officer 2. law 3. practical 4. training
Questions 5 - 7
5. A 6. C 7. E
Questions 8 - 10
8. well-paid 9. famous people/ 10. (a) detective
celebrities
SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1 (15 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
A C A D B B C A B D C D B D C
Part 2 (10 points). Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the numbered boxes.
Line Mistakes Corrections
1 2 is 
 2 3 will would
3 4 just such
4 7 Like Unlike
5 8 but and
6 10 is are
7 12 blooded blood
8 13 willing unwilling
9 15 society social
1 16 why what
0
SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer best fits each gap.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C A D A B B D C B C A B D B A
Part 2 (15 points). For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D).
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
D D C D C A D B D C B B D B A
Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each
question.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C C B D D C D B
Part 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank.
1. born 2. interested 3. made 4. enough 5. take
6. 7. sixteenth/ 8. really/ very/ 9. 10. However/
th
which/that 16 extremely/ next/following Nevertheless
absolutely
11. continue 12. as 13. Space 14. through 15. themselves
Part 5 (5 x 2 = 10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each
part
1. H 2. F 3. D 4. B 5. C
SECTION D. WRITING
Part 1 (5 x 2 = 10 points). Use the word in brackets, complete the second sentence.
1. The boy was on the point ][ of crying when he was punished by his mother.
2. In few other books is this problem ][ discussed so well./ will we see this problem ][ so well
discussed.
3. I cast my mind ][ back to what had happened all those years before.
4. It can’t have ][ been Mrs. Smith you saw because she’s in Singapore.
5. Andrew has a reputation ][ for being a very good cook.
Part 2 (20 points). Write your letter (about 80-100 words), suggesting how you will both spend
the day together.
+ Cover all information: 10 + Style: 5 points + Content: 15
points. points + Grammar
+ Grammar and vocabulary: 8 and vocabulary: 10 points
points. Total: 200/10 = 20 points.
+ Style and format: 2 points.

Part 3 (30 points).

 PHÒNG GD&ĐT PHÚC YÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG 9 CẤP THÀNH PHỐ MÔN
THCS HAI BÀ TRƯNG 2019 THI: TIẾNG ANH 9
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ 1 Ngày thi: …./…../2019
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao
đề) (Đề thi gồm 9 trang)
PART A. LISTENING (40 POINTS): You will listen TWICE
Section 1: Complete the notes below: Write ONE WORD for each answer.
Question 1 - 6
SELF-DRIVE TOURS IN THE USA
Example:
Name: Andrea Brown

Address: 24 (1) Road

Postcode: BH5 2OP
Phone: (mobile) 077 8664 3091
Heard about company from: (2)
Possible self-drive tours:
parks with her children.
Trip 1:
.
 Los Angeles customer wants to visit: (3)
 Yosemite Park customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a (4)
Trip 2:

 Customer wants to see the (5) on the way to Cambria.

 At Santa Minoca: not interested in shopping.
 At San Diego, wants to spend time on the (6) .
Question 7-10. Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Number of days Total distance Price (per person) Includes

Trip 1 12 days (7) £525  accommodation
 car
 one (8)
Trip 2 9 days 980 km (9) £  accommodation
 car
 (10)
SECTION 2: QUESTION 11-20
Question 11-15: Choose the best correct letter A, B, or C.
MANHAM PORT
11. Why did a port originally develop at Manham?

A. It was safe from enemy attack. B. It was convenient for river transport.
C. It had a good position on the sea coast.
 12. What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution?
A. the improvement in mining technologies. B. the increase in demand for metals.
C. the discovery of tin in the sea.
13. Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed?
A. shortage of fuel B. poor transport system C. lack of skills among local people
14. What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century?
A. The workers went away. B. Traditional skills were lost.
C. Buildings were used for new purposes.
15. What did the Manham Trust hope to do?
A. discover the location of the original port B. provide jobs for the unemployed
C. rebuild the port complex

Question 16-20: Answer the following questions WITH NO MORE THAN THREE WORD OR A NUMBER.
16. Where should visitors start their visit?
17. Who shouldn’t be taken into the mine?
18. Where should visitors visit next?
19. What is the name of the beautiful old sailing ketch near the school?
20. By whom was the ship’s wheel dredged out of the silt?
PART B: LEXICO AND GRAMMAR.
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentence.
1. Money was short and people survived by and saving.
A. scrimping B. scavenging C. scouring D. scrounging
2. Drug-taking is a crime which society simply cannot .
A. approve B. acknowledge C. consent D. condone
3. Mr. Henson’s bitter comments on the management’s mistakes gave to the conflict which
has already lasted for four months.
A. cause B. ground C. goal D. rise
4. There will of necessity be a to the amount of money put at the new manager’s disposal.
A. ceiling B. roof C. hard D. solid
5. Though he faced many difficulties, he could not be from his goal.
A. hindered B. obstructed C. prevented D. deflected
6. The are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal.
A. chances B. bets C. prospects D. odds
7. References can have a considerable on employment prospects.
A. cause B. decision C. weight D. bearing
8. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now .
A. thin B. narrow C. slim D. restricted
9. From time to time he himself to a weekend in a five-star hotel.
A. craves B. indulges C. treats D. benefits
10. Men still expect their jobs to take .
A. superiority B. imposition C. priority D. seniority
11. I offer you my most apologies for offending you as I did.
A. repentant B. servile C. candid D. abject
12. Having decided to rent a flat, we contacting all the accommodation agencies in the city.
A. set to B. set off C. set out D. set about
13. When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of .
A. proportion B. introspection C. relativity D. comparison
14. We’re depending on you to come up with some ideas. We need inspiration.
A. bright` B. proficient C. talented D. gifted
15. This quiet village is of the one I grew up in.
A. remnant B. similar C. reminiscent D. identical
16. Patrick is too a gambler to resist placing a bet on the final game.
A. instant B. spontaneous C. compulsive D. continuous
17. Although Zachary is much too inexperienced for the managerial position, he is a willful young man
and obdurately refuses to withdraw his application.
A. foolishly B. reluctantly C. constantly D. stubbornly
18. The editor of the newspaper needed to be sure the article presented the right information, so his
review was meticulous.
A. delicate B. painstaking C. superficial D. objective
19. The scientist was both and ; she was always careful to test each hypothesis and
cautious not to jump to conclusions.
A. painstaking/ despondent B. nostalgic/sentimental
C. meticulous/ prudent D. recalcitrant/ presumptuous
20. Cell phones seem to be , so prevalent are they that they seem to be everywhere.
A. anomalies B. anachronistic C. ubiquitous D. obsolete
21. She hadn’t eaten all day, and by the time she got home she was .
A. blighted B. blissful C. ravenous D. ostentatious
22. The movie offended many of the parents of its younger viewers by including unnecessary
in the dialogue.
A. vulgarity B. verbosity C. vocalizations D. garishness
23. His neighbors found his manner bossy and irritating, and they stopped inviting him to
backyard barbeques.
A. insensate B. magisterial C. modest D. restorative
24. Steven is always about showing up for work because he feels that tardiness is a sign of
irresponsibility.
A. legible B. tolerable C. punctual D. belligerent
25. Candace would her little sister into an argument by teasing her and calling her names.
A. provoke B. perforate C.advocate D. expunge
26. by despair at her situation, she tried in vain to rob the local bank and ended up in prison for five
years.
A. Compelled B. Forced C. Desperate D. Driven
 27. After the storm caused raw sewage to seep into the ground water, the Water Department had to
take measures to decontaminate the city’s water supply.
A. refine B. revive C. freshen D. purify
28. Paradoxically, this successful politician is sometimes very sociable and other times very .
A. aloof B. genial C. trite D. pragmatic
29. General MacArthur’s bold disregard for popular conventions and time-honored military
strategies earned him a reputation for .
A. acquiescence B. prudence C. ambivalence D. audacity
30. This beach is nowhere as good as the one we went to yesterday.
A. close B. much C. half D. near
II. Supply the word in bracket with the correct form.
1. Pentecostalism and jazz are undeniably siblings, with all the and (SANGUINE)
rivalry such a blood link always brings with it.
2. She said she had assisted in , accident and surgical cases. (WIFE)
3. There is a description of life in the war zone. (WRENCH)
4. In the woman, however, adulthood is punctuated by the , which can (PAUSE)
have a deep psychological effect.
5. She just hoped she would be spared a pressing invitation to his . (OBSERVE)
6. From that moment, it was doomed to become a huge, sprawling, one- (URBAN)
story , hopelessly dependent on the automobile.
7. Around 250,000 have not paid the tax. (REFUSE)
8. The priest is a representative of his people, making for their sin. (TONE)
9. It will be impossible to raise that amount of money. (NEAR)
10. We had a double-page spread with a statue of one of the leaders across the (FOLD)
, which is absolutely forbidden.
III. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find and correct them.
I cannot stress too much the importance on watching your opponent, of knowing exactly where he is
on the tennis court and what he is doing. It is usually possible to work on the pattern of his game very early
in a match. Test him at the front of the court. Try hitting one or two balls up high to see how shots are like.
The more quickly you discover his weakness, the easier the match should become.
Again and again it may be a good idea to give your opponent an opportunity of making a mistake.
When, early in the match, it seems that he is a very inaccurate player, but not a forceful one, then you
should tempt him to play a winning shot. Give him the opening, for there are some players who simply
cannot hit winners. They will try to play an attacking game but they can quite finish it off. The way to break
down their steady game may be by putting them into the front of the court.
It is obviously wiser to try to decide at the beginning of the match whether your opponent is weaker on
his left-hand or on his right-hand-side, and then play a little more than fifty per cent of your shots down that
side. Play a normal attacking game, or the game you think you will win, but concentrate the weaker side. A
number of players experience more trouble than another in the back corners of the court- always be ready to
recognize this weakness. Perhaps an opponent has a favorite backhand shot, but lacks certainty with his
forehand shot. Tempt him to play the forehand shot.
PART C: READING
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D that is the most suitable for each space.
NEREA DE CLIFFORD
Nerea De Clifford, who has died aged 82, was a doughty champion of British cats and a (0)……..B…….
of The Cat Protection League which she (1)..................................................shortly after its foundation in
1927 and served as president from the 1970s until the time of her death.
Among her many (2)…...................to welfare of cats-and to our knowledge of their ways-were the
establishment of a sanctuary for them at New Malden, and the publication of such reports as What British
Cats Think About Television, in which she noted that ‘most cats (3)....................................an interest of
some kind, though it is often of hostility; ‘a significant reaction is the display of excitement when any
picture, especially of birds, moves quickly across the (4)……….
Nerea Elizabeth de Clifford was born in West London in 1905, and as a young woman was a
distinguished (5).................of cats. During the Second World War she devoted herself to the rescue of
cats, trapped in the rubble of the blitz, and (6)…..............................to vigorous campaigns for free feline
birth (7)…………
She (Cool…................an adoption scheme for which her “Homes Wanted” list contained some notably
frank character (9)…...............- “a little fiend in feline form”; “willing to do light mouse-work and very
good at it, non-union”; “a rough old (10)………..”, and so on - and made a (11)…............................of feeding
London’s cats at Christmas, a favourite repast apparently being fish and chips. She also plumbed the
mysteries of why cats (12)..................…- some because they have just murdered the Pekinese next door,
others “for no good (13)....................at all.”
De Clifford was also a much respected (14)…....................at cat shoes around the country, and gave a
series of lecture tours at schools on the (15)….......................and care of cats.
0. A. post B. pillar C. staff D. pole
1. A. met B. enrolled C. joined D. entered
2. A. contributions B. donations C. gifts D. dedications
3. A. make B. give C. show D. have
4. A. screen B. box C. film D. view
5. A. farmer B. grower C. trainer D. breeder
6. A. therein B. thereby C. thereafter D. therefore
7. A. control B. check C. limitation D. restriction
8. A. made B. ran C. held D. gave
9. A. sketches B. drawings C. pictures D. paintings
10. A. drifter B. ranger C. rover D. stray
11. A. rule B. point C. round D. custom
12. A. snore B. hum C. purr D. rumble
13. A. purpose B. use C. reason D. point
14. A. judge B. referee C. arbitrator D. umpire
15. A. coaching B. guidance C. training D. preparation
II. Read the text and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of
women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States.
Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force
in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren
produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail
Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John,
the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During
these centuries, women remained invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors
writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their
writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping
records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s organizations
compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were
saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the
United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the
Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later
Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth century, most of the
writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just as much of mainstream
American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that women were making significant
contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else
important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the
great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American
histories being published.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The role of literature in early American histories
(B) The place of American women in written histories
(C) The keen sense of history shown by American women
(D)The “great women” approach to history used by American historians
2. The word “contemporary” means that the history was .
(A) informative (B) written at that time
(C) thoughtful (D) faultfinding
3. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that .
(A) a woman’s status was changed by marriage
(B) even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
(C) only three women were able to get their writing published
(D) poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
4. The word “celebratory” means that the writings referred to were .
(A) related to parties (B) religious (C) serious (D) full of praise
5. The word “they” refers to .
(A) efforts (B) authors (C) counterparts (D) sources
6. In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?
(A) They put too much emphasis on daily activities
(B) They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
(C) The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
(D) They were printed on poor-quality paper.
 7. On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely have been
collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
(A) Newspaper accounts of presidential election results
(B) Biographies of John Adams
(C) Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem
(D) Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college
8. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the Schlesinger
Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
(A) They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia
(B) They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
(C) They provided valuable information for twentieth—century historical researchers.
(D) They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States.
9. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth
century “great women” EXCEPT .
(A) authors (B) reformers
(C) activists for women’s rights (D) politicians
10. The word “representative” is closest in meaning to .
(A) typical (B) satisfied (C) supportive (D) distinctive
III. Insert ONE word that best fits in the numbered blank.
In (1) of the efforts of the media in recent years to disillusion us, the general picture
which the ordinary public has of the ‘author’ is of somebody sitting hunched at a typewriter in solitude in
a garret or some other place away from (2) eyes. And not just that, but
‘royalties’, that name given historically to the financial rewards of the writing profession, (3)
seem to be more than just ‘wages’ or ‘a salary’. And (4) that’s just (5)
royalties are: they are certainly not the ‘bonus’ that my children always imagined them to be
when they arrived from a publisher. My fault for not educating them properly, I suppose, but the receipt of a
royal cheque would always bring with it appeals from the children (6) extras, which they brought of
as something akin (7) Christmas or birthday presents: it certainly
wasn’t money that needed to be apportioned in the same way as others apportion their wages or salary.
Indeed, (8) I not learned very early on in my writing career to see royalties as my ‘salary’ and apportion
(9) carefully – much more carefully than any other people, since they are an irregular form of
income – I would long ago have been in (10)
financial straits!
IV. Read the text and choose the correct heading for sections 1—7 from the list of headings below.
There are more extra headings which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the numbered
boxes.
C. This type sells best in the
A. Common objections B. Who's planning what
shops
F. They can't get in without
D. The figures say it all E. Early trials these
G. How does it work? H. Fighting fraud I. Systems to avoid
J. Accepting the inevitable
Paragraph 0: F
Students who want to enter the University of Montreal's Athletic Complex need more than just a
conventional ID card — their identities must be authenticated by an electronic hand scanner. In some
California housing estates, a key alone is insufficient to get someone in the door; his or her voiceprint must
also be verified. And soon, customers at some Japanese banks will have to present their faces for scanning
before they can enter the building and withdraw their money.

Paragraph 1:
All of these are applications of biometrics, a little-known but fast-growing technology that involves the use of
physical or biological characteristics to identify individuals. In use for more than a decade at some high-
security government institutions in the United States and Canada, biometrics are now rapidly popping up in
the everyday world. Already, more than 10,000 facilities, from prisons to daycare centres, monitor people's
fingerprints or other physical parts to ensure that they are who they claim to be. Some 60 biometric
companies around the world pulled in at least $22 million last year and that grand total is expected to
mushroom to at least $50 million by 1999.

Paragraph 2:
Biometric security systems operate by storing a digitised record of some unique human feature. When an
authorised user wishes to enter or use the facility, the system scans the person's corresponding
characteristics and attempts to match them against those on record. Systems using fingerprints, hands,
voices, irises, retinas and faces are already on the market. Others using typing patterns and even body
odours are in various stages of development.

Paragraph 3:
Fingerprint scanners are currently the most widely deployed type of biometric application, thanks to their
growing use over the last 20 years by law-enforcement agencies. Sixteen American states now use
biometric fingerprint verification systems to check that people claiming welfare payments are genuine. In
June, politicians in Toronto voted to do the same, with a pilot project beginning next year.

Paragraph 4:
To date, the most widely used commercial biometric system is the handkey, a type of hand scanner which
reads the unique shape, size and irregularities of people's hands. Originally developed for nuclear power
plants, the handkey received its big break when it was used to control access to the Olympic Village in
Atlanta by more than 65,000 athletes, trainers and support staff. Now there are scores of other
applications.

Paragraph 5:
Around the world, the market is growing rapidly. Malaysia, for example, is preparing to equip all of its
airports with biometric face scanners to match passengers with luggage. And Japan's largest maker of cash
dispensers is developing new machines that incorporate iris scanners. The first commercial biometric, a
hand reader used by an American firm to monitor employee attendance, was introduced in 1974. But only in
the past few years has the technology improved enough for the prices to drop sufficiently to make them
commercially viable. `When we started four years ago, I had to explain to everyone what a biometric is,' says
one marketing expert. 'Now, there's much more awareness out there.'
Paragraph 6:
Not surprisingly, biometrics raise thorny questions about privacy and the potential for
abuse. Some worry that governments and industry will be tempted to use the
technology to monitor individual behaviour. `If someone used your fingerprints to
match your health-insurance records with a creditcard record showing you regularly
bought lots of cigarettes and fatty foods,' says one policy analyst, 'you would see your
insurance payments go through the roof.' In Toronto, critics of the welfare fingerprint
plan complained that it would stigmatise recipients by forcing them to submit to a
procedure widely identified with criminals.
Paragraph 7:
Nonetheless, support for biometrics is growing in Toronto as it is in many other
communities. In an increasingly crowded and complicated world, biometrics may
well be a technology whose time has come.

PART 4: WRITING
I. Complete the sentences without changing the meaning of the given
sentences.
1. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
→ The inhabitants are nowhere near
2. Nowadays I consider taking up a hobby to be far less important than I used to.
→ Nowadays I don’t attach nearly
3. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems.
→ Mass tourism is
4. That makes me think of something that happened to me.
→ That brings
5. The new deal has introduced many changes in the cooperation
→ Many a
Part 2. Rewrite each sentence using the word in brackets so that the meaning stays the
same. Do not change the word in bracket in any way.
6. When they started their trek, they had no idea how bad the weather would
become. (OUTSET)
→ Nobody realized
7. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins. (SHOWERED)
→ She will
8. It's one thing to think there's a demand for your product and another to make a
sale. (WORLD)
→ There is
9. In this area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (HEAD)
→In this area, Thailand
10. The train should have left 30 minutes ago. (MEANT)
→ The train
III. “The number of overweight children in developed countries is increasing.
Some people think this is due to problems such as the growing number of fast
food outlets. Others believe that parents are to blame for not looking after their
children's health.”
To what extent do you agree or disagree with these views?
 Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your
own knowledge or experience. Write in an essay of at least 200 words.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 1 ĐỀ THI MÔN Tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2020

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists about a coach
trip. For each question put a tick in the correct box.
1. What is the change of plan?
A. They will visit two towns.
B. They will look round a university.
C. They will visit a wild life park.
2. Where will they stop for coffee?
A. near a waterfall B. by a lake C. on a mountain
3. The town of Brampton became well known because of its ___________.
A. shops B. university C. museum
4. What animals will they see in the wildlife park?
A. lions B. monkeys C. tigers
5. What time will they arrive back at the hotel?
A. 5.30 B. 6.45 C. 7.15
Part 2. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a competition. For each
question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
This month's competition
Prize: a computer and a (6) ………………………….. printer
Write a story
• length: fewer than (7) ………………………….. words
• subject: a short (8) ………………………….. story which takes place in the future
Write your name, address, telephone number and (9) ………………………….. at the end.
Story must arrive on or before (10) …………………………..
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. embarrassed B. blessed C. naked D. adopted
12. A. instead B. breakfast C. already D. breathe
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that o f the rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. photographer B. destination C. participant D. professional
14. A. geographical B. biological C. agricultural  D.
environmental
15. A. campfire B. provide C. destroy D. conserve
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”
- Anne: “___________”
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you.
C. Thank you so much D. Don’t mention it!
17. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”.
- Pete: “______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. B. Well, I’d rather not.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t. D. Well, if only you didn’t.
18. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.
- Mr. Smith: "Could you bring me some water?" - Waiter: "_________."
 A. No, thanks. B. Of course you can.
C. I'm afraid not. D. Certainly, sir.
19. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.
- Mary: "What a lovely house you have" - John: "_________."
A. Thanks. Hope you will drop in. B. I think so.
C. No problem. D. Of course, thanks.
20. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”. - Pete:
“______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. B. Well, I’d rather not.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t. D. Well, if only you didn’t.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Thanks to the invention of microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the
nature of the human cell.
A. deep understanding B. far-sighted views C. spectacular sightings D. in-depth
studies
22. Laws on military service since 1960 still hold good.
A. remains for good B. is still in good condition
C. stands in life D. remains in effect
23. In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are
made at general assemblies in schools and churches.
A. concerts B. public libraries C. gatherings D. prayer
services
Task 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.
A. defeat B. nourish C. help D. treat
25. The young are now far more materialistic than their precedents years ago.
A. monetary B. greedy C. spiritual D. object -
oriented
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. The doctor _______ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
27. The school was closed for a month because of serious _______ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
28. I agree with most of what you said, but I can't _______ your idea of letting children
leave school at the age of 14.
 A. go along with B. put up with C. keep up with D. come up
with
29. The climate of China is similar in many ways to _______.
A. which of the United States B. that of the United states
C. the United States D. this of the United States
30. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of
considerable _______.
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future
31. These old houses are going to be _______ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
32. The stolen jewels were _______ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
33. Whether you stay or leave is a matter of total _______to me.
A. disinterest B. importance C. indifference D. interest
34. I’m terribly sorry! I didn’t break that vase on _______.
A. my mind B. time C. purpose D. intention
35. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful _______in computer
software.
A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer
36. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no _______for them.
A. request B. claim C. requirement D. demand
37. One wonders whether the current political _______ is right for such a move.
A. environment B. climate C. state D. standpoint
38. She _______ modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for C. fixes up with D. comes up
against
39. The judge _______ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
40. She got up early; otherwise she ________ her bus.
A. would have missed B. would miss C. missed D. had missed
41. She believes that all countries should _______ the death penalty as it is
inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away
with
42. What an excellent student she is! She almost has no _________ the exercise.
A. difficult to finish B. difficulty to finish C. difficulty in finishing D. difficult
finishing
43. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
44. Staying in a hotel costs ______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. twice as much as B. as much as twice C. twice more than D. twice as
45. In spite of his abilities, Peter has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
 A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitiveness D. repetitive
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. I hadn't been to the city for 20 years and it was almost …………………………..………... recognize
47. His boss told him off because he had behaved ……………………….……………... responsible
48. They all cheered ……………………….……………..as their team came out. enthusiasm
49. Jim is one of the most ……………………….……………..members of the committee. speak
50. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was ………………………….…. estimate
by the government. The real figures go up every minute.
51. We always have a bed ready in the spare room in case visitors arrive expect
……………………….……………...

52. ……………….……..energy sources such as wind and wave power are pollution-free. new
53. Barbara is very ……………………….………..about birds. She knows a lot about them. know
54. She is one of the greatest ……………………….……………..to appear in this theatre. perform
55. I’m sorry for my ……………………….……………..but I hate being kept waiting. patient
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 The other day, when I was in London, I ran out an old friend of mine
2 who had been at university with me. Although we hadn’t seen each other
3 since ages and had lost touch, it was just like old times, and he told me all his
4 news. He moved to London after leaving university, and started to train as a
5 accountant. He left after a few months because he didn’t find it very
6 interesting, and he didn’t feel like spending the rest of his life in an office. His
7 parents were very helpful – they didn’t try to make him carrying on training as
8 a chartered accountant, and said they would continue to support him though
9 the fact that he didn’t have a job to go to. He soon found work doing what he
10 really wanted – writing for a TV show. After the first series, the producer let
him have his own TV show even though he was relative young, and it turned
out to be a great success.

Line Error Correction

00. out  into
56. 
57. 
58. 
59. 
60. 
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. Tom was absent four days at school last month because his grandmother passed
………………….

62. I’ll see you ………………… tomorrow, so I can drive you to the airport.
63. I am too young to settle …………………. I want to travel around the world before I get
married.
64. I bought this skirt without trying it …………………. I hope it's OK.
65. Fortunately, Marie getting ………………… with her new co-workers.
66. I really need to go on a diet. I put ………………… weight over the holidays.
67. I just needed a bit of time to think it ………………… before I told him what I had decided.
68. I need to get a new passport. It runs ………………… next month.
69. When I went to the bank to ask for a loan, I had to fill ………………… hundreds of forms.
70. You have to face ………………… your problems rather than avoid them.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
Men are lazy in the home, according to an official survey (71) _______ today.
They have about six hours' a week more free time than wives, but play a very little (72)
_______ in cooking, cleaning, washing, and ironing, according to the Social Trends
Survey by the Central (73) _______ Office.
Nearly three quarters of married women (74) _______ to do all or most of the
housework, and among married men the proportion who admitted that their wives did
all or most of the housework was only slightly lower. The survey (75) _______ that
washing and ironing was the least popular task among men, with only one per cent
(76) _______ this duty, compared with 89 per cent of women, and 10 per cent sharing
equally.Only 5 per cent of men (77) _______ the evening meal, 3 percent carry out
household cleaning duties, 5 per cent do household shopping, and 17 per cent wash
the evening dishes.
But when household gadgets break down, (78) _______ are carried out by 82 per
cent of husbands. The survey says that, despite our economic problems, the majority
of Britons are substantially better (79) _______ than a decade ago. We're healthier,
too - eating healthier foods and smoking less.The (80) _______ Briton, not
surprisingly, is more widely-traveled than a decade ago. More people are going
abroad for holidays, with Spain the favorite destination.
71. A. furnished B. emerged C. published D. edited
72. A. work B. role C. section D. part
73. A. Statistical B. Cardinal C. Ordinal D. Numerical
74. A. emitted B. pronounced C. claimed D. uttered
75. A. pointed B. evolved C. planned D. showed
76. A. burdening B. forming C. performing D.
formulating
77. A. prepare B. undertake C. process D. fit
78. A. fittings B. fixings C. amendments D. repairs
79. A. on B. through C. over D. off
80. A. medium B. average C. popular D. normal
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly
by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals,
vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that
permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in
England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could
be seen or smelled-a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known
today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various
chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even
water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon
monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the
concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they
became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification
scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a
global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human
activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a
city.
In this localized region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily
overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased
concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the
adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants
would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be
large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we
know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur
naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08
parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide,
however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level
reaches about 15 ppm.
81. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause D. The effects of compounds added to the
atmosphere
82. The word "adversely" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
 A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
83. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
84. The word "altered" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. eliminated B. caused C. slowed D. changed
85. Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of
the following reasons?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
86. According to the passage, which of the following is true about human generated air
pollution in localized regions?
A. It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region.
B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants.
C. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions.
D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.
87. The word "noxious" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak
88. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a
substance is only useful if ________.
A. the other substances in the area are known
B. it is in a localized area
C. the naturally occurring level is also known
D. it can be calculated quickly
89. The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
90. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air
pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air
pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air
pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain
unchanged, using the words given.
91. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
 At the foot ..........................................................................................................
92.While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
 Despite my ..........................................................................................................
93. If I were you, I wouldn't take too many classes this semester. (shoes)
 .............................................................................................................................
94. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. (no)
 ...........................................................................................................................
95. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her. (for)
 ...............................................................................................................................................................................................
VII. WRITING (1 pt)
In about 100- 150 words, write a paragraph about the disadvantages of
television
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2020
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A. LISTENING (1 pt)
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
Part 1. You will hear a conversation, between two men talking on the radio about
job. Choose the correct answer from A, B or C for each question.
1. When did Toby get a job with Atkins Engineering?
A. when he was a university student
B. as soon as he finished university
C. six months after he finished university
2. What is Toby working on at the moment?
A. a new motorway B. houses and flats C. a new airport
3. When Toby began working, he was surprised to spend so much time ________.
A. talking to other people. B. sitting in an officc. C. designing
buildings.
4. Young people often don't choosc engineering because they think ________.
A. it’s hard to get a job. B. it's probably boring. C. it’s not very
well paid.
5. What is a disadvantage of the job for Toby?
A. He finds it difficult to take holidays.
B. He can't organise his spare time.
C. He works too many hours.
Part 2. You will hear a man talking on the radio about a new sports and fitness
centre.
Fill in each blank with no more than two words or numbers.

Crossways sports and fitness centre

- The sports centre opens on (6) _______________
- The fitness centre has a view across the (7) _______________
- The indoor sports offered are squash, volleyball, (8) _______________and table tennis.
- The new swimming pool is (9) _______________metres in length.
- You can book a class at (10) _______________or by phone.
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. advent B. invent C. decent D. percent
12. A. pursue B. hesitate C. comparison D. poster
13. A. ragged B. sacred C. dogged D. scared
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.
14. A. questionaire B. introduce C. recommend D. concentrate
15. A. continuous B. scandalous C. malicious D. delicious
Your answers:
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. John: “Could I just do it right now?”- Jane: “_________.”
A. Yes, you could. B. Why not? Go ahead.
C. Not for me. D. Yes, let’s.
17. Mike: “ I have passed all my examinations!” – Joan: “_________.”
A. My dear! B. Well done!
C. Best wishes! D. That’s very well!
18. “_________.” – “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your child is just adorable! B. Can we ask your child to take a
photo?
C. Your kid is naughty. D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
19. -“The test results will be released at 9 am tomorrow!” - “Will it? _________.”
A. Can I wait for it? B. Could it wait?
C. Yes, please. D. I can’t wait!
20. “_________.” - “I love it. It’s great, especially at night.”
A. When do you often listen to classical music?
B. How do you like classical music?
C. What kind of music do you like?
D. How often do you listen to classical music?
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. As the enemy forces were so overwhelming, our troops had to retreat to a safer
position.
A. powerful B. dreadful C. overflowing D. outgrowing
22. The twentieth century saw a rapid rise in life expectancy due to improvement in
public health, nutrition and medicine.
A. anticipation B. expectation C. span D. prospect
23. The tiny irrigation channels were everywhere and along some of them the water
was running.
A. flushing out with water B. supplying water
C. cleaning with water D. washing out with water
Task 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. revealed  B. frequented C. accessible  D. lively
25. They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners.
A. vicious  B. warmhearted  C. callous  D. coldblooded
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. Take the number 5 bus and get __________ at Times Square.
A. outside B. down C. up D. off
27. The report would have been accepted ____________ in checking its accuracy.
A. if more care B. more care had been taken
C. had taken more care D. had more
care been taken
28. No longer __________ do all the housework with their hands.
A. have women to B. do women have C. do women have to D. women
have to
29. In many ways, riding a bicycle is similar _____________.
A. to the driving of a car B. when you drive a car
C. to when driving a car D. to driving a car
30. Today many serious childhood diseases _____________by early immunisation.
A. are preventing B. can be prevented C. prevent D. can prevent
31. The dress Arid wore _______ with small, glassy beads, creating a shimmering
effect.
A. titillated B. reiterated C. scintillated D. enthralled
32. Being able to afford this luxury car will ______ getting a better- paying job.
A. maximize B. recombinant C. reiterate D. necessitate
33. Levina unknowingly ______ the thief by holding open the elevator doors and
ensuring his escape.
A. coerced B. proclaimed C. abetted D. sanctioned
34. Shakespeare, a(n) ______writer, entertained audiences by writing many tragic and
comic plays.
A. numeric B. obstinate C. generic D. prolific
35. I had the ________ experience of sitting next to an over-talkative passenger on my
flight home from Brussels.
A. satisfactory B. commendable C. galling D. acceptable
36. Mary failed in her exams because she played computer games a lot. She _______
too much.
A. shouldn’t have played B. shouldn’t play
C. should play D. wouldn’t have played
37. My father dislikes ___________ while he is speaking.
A. to be interrupting B. being interrupted C. to interrupt D. to interrupt
38. ___________ all the exercises, Nam handed in the paper.
A. Having done B. Doing C. He has done D. After had
done
39. I hate him. I have ___________ of meeting him again.
A. no intentions B. no intention C. not intended D. intended
40. Friendship is a ___________ affair; it lives by give-and-take.
A. two-sided B. two-side C. two sides D. two-sides
41. I saw a wad of dollar notes exactly ___________ the ones my father had given
me.
A. as B. the same C. alike D. like
42. A: “Are you coming on Saturday?” – B: “____________.”
A. I’m afraid not B. I’m afraid not to C. I’m afraid to D. I’m afraid I
don’t
43. He was the first visitor ____________ to our house.
A. invited B. inviting C. who invite D. to be invited
44. ________my mother's encouragement, I wouldn't have made such a daring
decision.
A. In spite of B. Providing C. But for D. Due to
45. The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair________her back.
A. streaming down B. fallen against C. flowed down D. running over
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. Nobody ge ts _______________treatment in this office. PREFER
47. She won the first prize in the contest due to her _______________. PERSUADE
48. Meiling signed up for the _______________course. ECONOMY
49. She took the job to be _______________independent. FINANCE
50. Our education must put an end to _______________. LITERATE
51. Please _______________our letter of the 14th. We have not had a reply. KNOW
52. I was late because I _______________how much time I would need. ESTIMATE
53. The unresponsive audience made the lecturer somewhat HEART
_______________. What a shame!
54. _______________children will not be allowed to cross busy roads. ACCOMPANY
55. She complained about his rudeness _______________. CEASE
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 The habits of those who constant play video games are very important
2 to people working in video-game industry. If video games are going to be
3 one of the more attractive features of future interactive systems, it is
4 essential for producers to know what types of games to make, how best to
5 present so games on interactive video and how to ensure that such games
6 maintain their fascination for people. Above all, it is vital to build up
7 detailed profiles of people who are addicted to video games. Until recently,
8 the chief market for video games has been boys age eight to fifteen. The
9 fascination for interactive video games is seen in its purest form in this
10 group. Video games appeal to some deep instinct in boys who find it
11 impossibly to tear themselves away from them. Schoolwork is ignored,
12 health is damaged and even eating habits are affected. Girls of the
13 same age, however, are entirely different, demonstrating far greater
freedom from the hold of video games. Quiet simply, they can take video
games in their stride, being able to play them when they want and then leave
them alone.

Line Error Correction

1 00. constant  constantly
2 56. 
4 57. 
7 58. 
9 59. 
 12 60. 
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. The car is in quite good condition but you can try it _____before you make any
decision to buy.
62. According _____what he says, he wasn’t even there when the crime was
committed.
63. According to a recent survey, most people are on good terms _____their
neighbours.
64. As he wanted to go to university, David decided to turn _____a new leaf and study
harder.
65. _____arriving at the airport, I was very worried to find that no one had waited for
me.
66. Environmental organisations have been set _____to inform people and gain their
support.
67. I can't understand why you have to make such a fuss _____something so
unimportant.
68. I’m afraid Mr. Logan isn’t in the office today, but I can put you _____to his
secretary. 
69. I've asked _____but nobody knows what time the concert will finish on Saturday.
70. On hearing the news of his mother's death, the boy broke _____and couldn't be
consoled.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
Health and fitness are not just for young people. They are for anyone willing to
accept the (71) ______ for a good diet and (72) ________ exercise. With age, there is
a tendency to feelthat the body is no longer able to (73) ________. Aches and pains
are (74) ________ normal. Instead of pushing the body to do (75) ________, activities
become limited. Yet examples after examples have shown us that older people can –
and should – be (76) ________. Men and women in their sixties have run in
marathons, races of more than twenty-six miles. Some professional athletes stay (77)
________ into their forties and fifties. For most people, simple activities like walking
and swimming are all that is needed to stay in (78) ________. It’s important to include
exercise in your daily routine.In the winter, (79) ________ push-ups, sit-ups, and other
indoor exercises. Of course, such exercises will be of little use (80) ________ you
follow them with soda and chips.
71. A. discipline B. ruling C. strictness D. regulation
72. A. useful B. regular C. much D. little
73. A. run B. malfunction C. operate D. perform
74. A. believed B. thought C. considered D. made
75. A. weaker B. more C. greater D. faster
76. A. eager B. bold C. active D. passive
77. A. competitive B. passive C. equal D. comparative
78. A. need B. form C. contact D. shape
79. A. make B. get C. work D. do
80. A. although B. unless C. if D. otherwise
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local
governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their
homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries,
several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement
was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization
and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who
was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief
measures, but one of the programs - Social Security - has become an American
institution. Paid for by deductions fromthe paychecks of working people, Social
Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also
provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those
who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age62, but many
wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been
concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its
obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected
to increase dramatically. Policy makershave proposed various ways to make up the
anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established
assistance programs. These include Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates
that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal
expense and made available to persons on low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A
broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available.
Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is
estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans overage 18 do volunteer work, and
nearly 75 percent of U.S. households contribute money to charity.
81. New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
82. It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast
growth of ______.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population
83. The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. executed B. studied C. introduced D. enforced
84. The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ______.
A. deductions from wages B. people’s willingness to work
C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws
85. Most of the public assistance programs ______ after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions
86. That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that
______.
A. elderly people ask for more money B. the program discourages working
people
C. the number of elderly people is growing D. younger people do not want to
work
87. Persons on low incomes can access public housing through ______.
 A. low rents B. state spending C. donations D. federal
expenditure
88. Americans on low incomes can seek help from ______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
89. Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the ______.
A. young people’s voluntarism only B. volunteer organizations
C. people’s growing commitment to charity D. innovations in the tax system
90. The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain
unchanged, using the words given.
91. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
 If it hadn’t
______________________________________________________________
92. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
 They stole
______________________________________________________________
93. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
 No
sooner______________________________________________________________
94. The deaths of almost sixty people were caused by the tornado. (resulted)
 The tornado ___________________________________________almost sixty
people.
95. Someone paid five thousands pounds for the painting. (went)
 The painting ___________________________________________
Part 2:
In about 140 words, write a paragraph about why is it important to protect our
environment? What should we do to fulfill this task?
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 3 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019

Họ và tên thí sinh:...............................................................số báo danh:....................

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear an interview, with a teenager called Amy Manero, who is
talking about her interest in music, particularly jazz piano. Choose the correct
answer from A, B or C for each question.
1. When did Amy have lessons with a piano teacher?
A. at the age of four.
B. before she started secondary school.
C. after getting advice from her school music teacher.
2. How did Amy feel at her first big public event?
A. excited because she was wearing a wonderful costume.
B. nervous because it was her first time on stage.
C. surprised because the audience was very big.
3. What does Amy say about playing jazz with the school band?
A. She put lots of effort into learning about it.
B. She was better at it than the rest of the players.
C. She enjoyed it as soon as she started.
4. Amy gives piano lessons so that she can _______.
 A. help people who couldn’t normally afford them .
B. encourage lots of young people to play the piano.
C. improve her own playing technique.
5. Why does Amy write a blog on the internet?
A. to get some experience for becoming a journalist.
B. to tell people about her daily life as a musician.
C. to recommend events for people to go to.
Part 2. You will hear a boy, called Adam telling his class, about a hot air balloon
flight he went on. Fill in each blank with no more than two words.
ADAM’S HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHT
6. The flight in the balloon lasted for ………………………….
7. Adam could see as far as the ………………………….from the balloon.
8. Adam didn't recognize a ………………………….from the air.
9. Adam was surprised that it was ………………………….in the balloon basket.
10. Adam didn't like having to ………………………….in the basket.
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. patient B. quotient C. ancient D. question
12. A. forbade B. cellmate C. consolidate D. lemonade
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. avenue B. residue C. continue D. barbecue
14. A. nutrient B. consistent C. continent D. sentiment
15. A. interview B. calculate C. politics D. determine
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?” Peter:
“_________.”
A. Sorry for this inconvenience B. Not at all
C. Sorry, I’m a new comer here D. I have no clue
17. Jane: “Thank you for a lovely evening.” Barbara: “_________.”
A. Thanks! B. Cheer!
C. Have a good day D. You are welcome.
18. Anne: "Make yourself at home". John: “_________.”
A. Thanks! Same to you. B. That's very kind. Thank you.
C. Not at all. Don't mention it. D. Yes, Can I help you?
19. Dave: “This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!”
Eva: “___________ but I think it’s quite easy.”
A. You’re right B. I couldn’t agree more
C. I understand what you’re saying D. I don’t see in that way
20. Vicky: “_________.” Josep: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
B. When have you got this beautiful dress?
 C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my
house twice.
A. being considerate of things B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things
22. Many young children are spending large amounts of time watching the TV without
being aware of its detriment to their school work.
A. harm B. advantage C. support D. benefit
23. Ms Stanford is an unusually prolific author. She has written a large number of
books these years, some of which are best-sellers.
A. reflective B. productive C. exhausted D. critical
Task 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but
most, like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with ribs B. without ribs C. without backbones D. with
backbones
25. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. Peter: “Why did you ride your bike?”
John: “Because it’s more ______ than driving my car.”
A. economically B. economic C. economy D. economical
27. The unemployment rate of the area ______ every year until 2003 and then started
to fall.
A. raised B. rose C. dropped D. decreased
28. ______ the fact that many companies are going bankrupt, ours has made a good
profit.
A. Although B. Even though C. Despite D. Because of
29. Some vegetables are grown without soil and under ______ light.
A. artificial B. false C. fake D. unreal
30. My dog as well as my cats ______ twice a day.
A. eat B. has eaten C. have eaten D. eats
31. All volcanoes ______ smoke, ash, and lava.
A. blow B. emit C. erupt D. release
32. As I can earn money by myself. I am independent ______ my parents financially.
A. on B. of C. upon D. from
33. Napoleon ______ the West Indian island of Santo Domingo in 1801.
A. attacked B. has attacked C. was attacked D. attacking
34. ______ of my family, I would like to thank you very much for your help.
A. On behalf B. On account C. In person D. Instead
35. The accident ______ was the mistake of the driver.
 A. causing many people to die B. caused great human loss
C. to cause many people die D. which causes many people to die
36. It was clear that the young couple were ______ of taking charge of the new
restaurant.
A. responsible B. reliable C. capable D. able
37. She was guilty ______ cheating in the examination.
A. to B. with C. of D. for
38. ______ during the storm.
A. They were collapsed the fence B. the fence was collapsed
C. They collapsed the fence D. The fence collapsed
39. The family could not ______ because they had forgotten their passports.
A. check up B. check out C. check through D. check in
40. You’d better drive. I’m too ______ for such traffic.
A. experienced B. experiencing C. inexperienced D.
inexperiencing
41. In water polo, a shot is successful if the ball completely passes between the goal
posts and underneath the ______.
A. net B. crossbar C. ball D. goalie
42. No ______ water polo player except the goalie can hold the ball with both hands.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
43. The reviewer ______ Mathew's new novel as a new style of modern science
fiction.
A. chewed B. digested C. described D. drew
44. If it’s raining tomorrow afternoon, we’ll have to ______ the match till next Sunday.
A. put out B. put off C. put up D. put away
45. It was so foggy that the climbers couldn’t ______ the nearest shelter.
A. make out B. break out C. take out D. run out
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. The manag er was sacked after he tried to ………………………….his accounts. (false)
47. I’ve never known such a ………………………….person. (quarrel)
48. Like oil, gas is a fossil fuel and is thus a ………………………….source of energy. (new)
49. Sam was accused of stealing some …………………………. documents. (confidence
)
50. She uses a good-quality oil for proper ………………………….. (lubricate)
51. My car is too much ………………………….to take on a long journey. (rely)
52. I don’t care if you’d had too much to drink. Your behaviour last night was quite (defend)
…………………………..
53. This leads to more pressure being put on the ………………………….public transport (adequate)
system.
54. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………………………….role. (advice)
55. We like our staff to show their ………………………….rather than wear a uniform. (individual)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
 Line Passage
1 When I injured my back I had to bring a break from my running
2 career. I decided to introduce more women to the sport, to show them how
3 many fun it can be and to give them the confidence to get out and run. I
4 decided to start a running club for women in my area because I was annoyed
5 by the attitude of many race organizers. They complain about the lack of
6 women in the sport but also use this as an excuse for not provide separate
7 changing facilities. I put up posters and 40 women, young and old, fit and
8 unfit, joined. All of them were attracted by the idea of losing weigh but I don’t
9 think they had really thought about running before. When or if they did, they
10 had a picture of painful training. They didn’t think of chatting and smiling
11 while running in beautiful places, like next a river. At first they ran for only a
12 minute - now they can run for thirty minutes. They’ve also learned from other
13 runners about diet and keeping fit in generally. I want to do something for
14 women’s running and I have had so much pleasure watching their progress –
almost as much as they’ve had themselves.

Line Error Correction

1 00. bring 
2 56. 
6 57. 
8 58. 
11 59. 
13 60. 
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. You look tired. Are you ……………………. the weather?
62. His illness made him incapable ……………………. concentration.
63. The scientist made an amazing discovery ……………………. accident.
64. The negative campaign did damage ……………………. our company’s reputation.
65. She's very pleased that they were able to sell their house ……………………. a profit.
66. He came ……………………. a large sum of money when his uncle died.
67. Don't smoke in the forest. Fires break ……………………. easily at this time of the year.
68. The city will take a long time to recover ……………………. the damage done by the
earthquake.
69. We're going to have to concentrate ……………. improving customer service from my
point of view.
70. He dedicated this music video …………. the audience for understanding about his
compositions.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
Alexander Graham Bell was born in 1847 in Edinburgh, Scotland. His father
was an expert in phonetics. (71) ________ a boy, Alexander became interested in
sounds and speech. In 1870, the Bells decided to (72) ________ to America. They
lived in Boston, (73) ________ Alexander taught in a school for the deaf. There he
began experimenting with a machine (74) ________ help the deaf hear. While
experimenting with this machine, Bell had an idea, “Why do not use electricity to (75)
________ the human voice from one place to another?” He began to work on a new
(76) ________. For years, Bell and his assistant, Thomas Watson, worked day (77)
________ night. They rented rooms in a boarding house. Bell was on one floor, and
Watson was on (78) ________. They tried to send (79) ________ through a wire.
Finally, on March 19, 1876, Watson heard these words very clearly: “Mr. Watson,
come here. I want you.” Watson rushed upstairs, ran (80) ________ Bell’s room, and
shouted, “I heard you!”
71. A. During B. As C. Be D. Despite
72. A. take B. leave C. move D. return
73. A. why B. where C. when D. which
74. A. in order B. for C. to D. so that
75. A. change B. get C. send D. go
76. A. inventor B. invent C. inventive D. invention
77. A. after B. by C. and D. or
78. A. the others B. other C. others D. another
79. A. speech B. telegram C. speaking D. letters
80. A. in B. onto C. to D. into
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
A pilot cannot fly by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and
landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since
human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar
can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is
exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds
against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however,
the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed
of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of
radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off
objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a
trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and other objects.
The word “radar”, in fact, gets its name from the term “radio detection and ranging”.
“Ranging” is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar
set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic
control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
81. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The nature of radar B. History of radar C. Alternatives to radar D. Types of
ranging
82. According to the passage, what can radar detect besides location of objects?
A. Shape B. Size C. Speed D. Weight
83. The word “exemplified” in the passage can be replaced by _______.
A. specified B. resembled C. illustrated D. justified
84. The word “shouts” in the passage most closely means _______.
A. exclaims B. yells C. shoots D. whispers
85. Which of the following words best describes the tone of this passage?
A. argumentative B. explanatory C. humorous D. imaginative
86. According to the passage, the distance between a radar set and an object can be
determined by _______.
A. the time it takes for a burst of radio waves to produce echoes when the waves
bounce off the object
B. the term “ranging” used for detection of the distance between an object and the
radar set
C. the time it takes for the radio waves to produce echoes and bounce off the
object
D. the time it takes for the echoes produced by the radio waves to return to the
radar set
87. Which type of waves does radar use?
A. tidal B. sound C. heat D. radio
88. The word “tracking” in the passage most closely means _______.
A. sending B. searching for C. ranging D. repairing
89. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. A history of flying B. Other uses of radar
C. The technology used by pilots D. Uses of some technology
90. What might be inferred about radar?
A. It takes the place of a radio.
B. It has improved navigational safety.
C. It was developed from a study of sound waves.
D. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain
unchanged, using the words given.
91. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
 She reminded
.................................................................................................................
92. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
 The man .................................................................................................................
93. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
 At the foot .................................................................................................................
94. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club .
 Were .................................................................................................................
95. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
 He
..................................................................................................................................
96. I couldn't go to work because of the transport strike. (prevented)
 I ………………………………………………………………………………….. to work by transport strike.
97. He made unsuccessful attempt to buy the company. (without)
 He………………………………………………………………………………….. success.
98. No matter what happens. Jane will never forgive Mark for what he did. (ever)
 Under ………………………………………………………………………………….. Mark for what he did.
99. "Get this dog out of the house now!" he shouted at me. (demanded)
 He ………………………………………………………………………………….. the dog out of the house immediately.
100. "I got better marks in the test than you did." she said.
 She ………………………………………………………………………………….. in the test than I had. (about)
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 4 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019
Họ và tên thí sinh:...............................................................số báo danh:....................
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear an interview with a girl, called Maria Shaw, who went on an
outdoor adventure trip, with girls from her school. Choose the correct answer A,
B or C for each question.
1. Maria didn’t think she’d find the trip hard because _______.
A. she’d had experience o f cam ping with her family.
B. she’d always cycled a long way to school every day.
C. she’d been on walking trips with the school.
2. What was Maria worried about during the first day’s activities?
A. She wouldn’t complete everything in time.
B. She’d be very cold while she was there.
C. She wouldn’t manage to sail in the right direction.
3. What made the climb up the rocks so slow?
A. The group kept slipping on the slopes.
B. Several students fell and hurt themselves.
C. Parts of the climb were extremely steep.
4. When M aria’s group got to the top of the rocks, they _______.
A. were given a talk on the environment.
B. to o k photos of each other.
C. ate a big meal.
5. Maria says that by the end of the trip the girls were _______.
A. feeling keen to go home again.
B. working together better.
C. cooking food for each other.
Part 3: You will hear a boy, called Josh talking to his class, about a trip he
recently went on. Fill in each blank with no more than two words or numbers.

JOSH’S WHEATHER CENTRE TRIP

- Josh went to the Weather Centre with his (6) …………………….………….. .
- Josh says the Centre first reported strong winds in (7) …………………….…………...
- The Centre later put forecasts in (8) …………………….………….. for everyone to see.
- Lots of weather information now comes from (9) …………………….………….. according to Josh.
- Josh thinks people need to know how much (10) …………………….………….. there'll be.
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. agreed B. believed C. remarkedly D. smiled
12. A. exterminate B.contemplate C. considerate D. exaggerate
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. comeuppance B. chalartan C. ignominy D. desultory
14. A. communication B. media C. current D. homework
15. A. sensitive B. compliment C. vertical D. assurance
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. - Linda: "Could you turn down the radio, please?" -Henry: “_________.”
A. I feel sorry. B. Yes, I can.
C. I am, of course. D. Yes, with pleasure.
17. - Peter: “_________! it is nearly 11 p.m. and we have to go home now.” –
Thomas: “I see.”
A. Come in for B. Come over
C. Come on D. Come across
18. - Tom: “Goodbye. It was great to meet you, Mary.” - Mary: “__________ guys.”
A. Later, B. What’s the matter?
C. That’s too bad, D. What a pity,
19. – Vicky: “_________.” – Mary: “Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there.”
A. Good luck B. Have a go
C. Have a good trip D. Good bye
20. – Nancy: “_________.” – Bill: “Yes. I'd like to buy a camera."
A. Do you look for something? B. Excuse me. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it? D. Excuse me. Can you help me buy
something?
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. She simply took it for granted that the check was good and did not ask him any
questions about it.
A. objected to it B. permitted it
C. looked it over D. accepted it without investigation
22. I think we have solved this problem once and for all.
A. in the end B. temporarily C. forever D. for
goods
23. The rains of 1993 causing the Missouri river to overflow resulted in one of the
worst floods of the 20th century.
A. stopped B. lessened C. caused D. overcame
Task 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. At first, our problems seemed insurmountable. However, now I think we'll be able
to find solutions.
A. able to be solved B. not able to be discussed
C. able to be discussed D. not able to be solved
25. Dalat is famous for various ideal excursion places such as Xuan Huong lake, pine
forests and waterfalls.
A. similar B. different C. unique D. likely
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. There was a huge decline ________the number of tigers.
A. in B. for C. of D. out
27. I’d rather you ________anything about the garden until the weather improves.
A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make
28. A part – time job gives me the freedom to ________my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
29. The new road currently under ________will solve the traffic problems in the town.
A. design B. progress C. construction D. work
30. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “________.”
A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem
31. According to the boss, John is the most ________ for the position of executive
secretary.
A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable
32. The children went ________with excitement.
A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife
33. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very
________position.
A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed
34. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I ________fish, please.
A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe
35. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and ________when being asked about
their future.
A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing
36. She awoke with an _______sense of foreboding which she could find no reason
for.
A. intelligible B. intensive C. indelible D. intangible
37. His behaviour was always beyond _______.
A. criticism B. recrimination C. fault D. reproach
38. When you win the race, you can _______in the glory of your achievement.
A. stand B. bask C. bathe D. lie
39. Don’t _______over the main points so quickly - they’re important.
A. slide B. slip C. skate D. ski
40. The two boys really _______it off from the moment they met.
A. hit B. struck C. made D. put
41. I for one am not sorry. He should have _______than to lend them money.
A. thought more B. been better C. know more D. known
better
42. “Last I heard, she was working in South Africa.” “_______?”
A. Why did she B. How come C. How did she D. Why come
43. No, thank you. I don’t really like wine, or any kind of alcohol _______.
A. it matters B. in this matter C. for the matter D. for that
matter
44. I heard he passed his exams, but _______that I know little else.
A. other than B. more of C. instead of D. in addition
45. “I’ll never finish this by five.” “If _______, I’ll work overtime.”
A. is needed B. need to be C. needing D. need be
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. These …………………….………….. clothes cannot catch fire easily. (flame)
47. He’s more …………………….………….. than expected. (tolerate)
48. The museum doesn’t charge for …………………….………….. on Sundays. (admit)
49. We can look forward to a period of …………………….…………... (prosper)
50.The firm has an annual …………………….………….. of $10,000. (turn)
51. The cat is …………………….………….. in the sunshine. (luxury)
52. Tom spoke …………………….………….. because he was so excited. (breath)
53. It's sometimes hard to …………………….………….. one sample from another. (different
)
54. …………………….………….. and overpopulation are two of the most difficult (forest)
problems in the Third World countries.
55. A list of …………………….………….. events will be posted on the notice board. (come)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 Thomas Edison was bore in Milan, Ohio, in 1847. His family
2 moved to Port Huron, Michigan, when he was seven years old. Surprising, he
3 attended school for only two months. His mother, a former teacher, taught
4 him a few things, but Thomas was mostly self-educated. His natural curiosity
5 led him to start experimenting at a young age. Thomas Edison lit out the
6 world with his invention of the electric light. Although the electric light was the
7 most useful, it was not his only invention. He also invented the record player,
8 the motion picture camera, and above 1,200 other things. About every two
9 weeks he created something new. He worked 16 out of every 24 hours.
10 Sometimes he worked so intensely that his wife had to remind him sleep and
eat. Thomas Edison died in 1931, in West Orange, New Jersey. He left
numerous inventions that improved the quantity of life all over the world.

Line Error Correction

1 00. bore  born
……….. 56. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 57. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 58. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 59. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 60. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. There's a choice …….………….. flying to London Heathrow or Stansted.
62. Local residents were disappointed …….………….. the decision of the local authority.
63. His belief …….………….. not harming animals was something he learned from his
mother.
64. The people next door are annoyed …….………….. us for making so much noise last
night.
65. The process …….………….. painting such a large mural is more complicated than you
might think.
66. Several people went …….………….. the pickpocket, but couldn’t catch him.
67. The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach made up …….………….. our
disappointment.
68. If it wasn’t an accident, he must have done it on purpose.
69. I hate being looked …….………….. on whenever I make mistakes at work.
70. The new magazine about maintenance comes …….………….. tomorrow.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
Many parents believe that their children (71) ________ be taught to read right after
they have learnt to walk. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but (72)
________ a child could be counter-productive if she or he isn't ready. Wise parents will
have a relaxed (73) ________ and take the lead from their child. What they should
provide is a selection of (74) ________ toys, books and other activities. Nowadays
there is plenty of good (75) ________ available for young children, and of course,
seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also (76) ________ them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only (77) ________ of stories and information.
There is also a huge range of videos, which can (78) ________ and extend the
pleasure a child finds in a book and are (79) ________ valuable in helping to increase
vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad press as far as children are
concerned, mainly because too many (80) ________ too much time watching
programmes not intended for their age group.
71. A. should B. could not C. had to D. must not
72. A. insisting B. making C. forcing D. starting
73. A. pastime B. attitude C. decision D. competition
74. A. bright B. expensive C. adult D. stimulating
75. A. amusement B. produce C. sense D. games
76. A. provide B. encourage C. provoke D. attract
77. A. search B. source C. site D. basis
78. A. enjoy B. watch C. reinforce D. assist
79. A. properly B. perfectly C. worthily D. equally
80. A. devote B. spend C. pay D. save
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it
as more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary
and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can
tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for
much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although
imperfectly. Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form.
Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is
not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human
being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort
to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not
acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems
never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so
only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the
latter. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes
possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us
human, writing makes us civilized.
81. We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because ________.
A. it has become very important in our culture
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years
C. writing is secondary to language
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings
82. The author of the passage argues that ________.
A. all languages should have a written form
B. writing has become too important in today’s society
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write
D. speech is more basic to language than writing
83. Normal human beings ________.
A. learn to talk after learning to write B. learn to write before learning to
talk
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time D. learn to talk before learning to
write
84. According to the passage, writing ________.
A. is represented perfectly by speech B. represents speech, but not
perfectly
C. developed from imperfect speech D. is imperfect, but less so than
speech
85. Learning to write is ________.
A. too difficult B. easy C. not easy D. very easy
86. In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example
of ________.
A. severely handicapped children B. people who learn the rudiments of
speech
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write D. people who speak many languages
87. In the author’s judgment, ________.
A. writing is more real than speech
B. writing has more advantages than speech
C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does
D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits
88. According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it ________.
A. keeps written records B. affirms the primacy of speech over
writing
C. teaches its children to speak perfectly D. affirms the primacy of writing over
speech
89. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. It is easy to acquire the writing skill.
B. Writing has become so important in our culture.
C. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly.
D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits.
90. The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means ________.
A. skill B. rudiments C. domination D. benefit
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain
unchanged, using the words given.
91. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
 If I ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

92. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Bill you saw because he’s in New York.
 It can’t ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

93. The best solution was thought of by Sally. (came)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

94. Most people regard him as the best man for the job. (widely)
 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
95. The suspect could not explain why he had sand on his boots. (account)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………......

Part 2. Paragraph writing

“Child sexual abuse is one of the social problems”. In about 140 words, write a
paragraph, Give reasons and solutions to lessen it.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 5 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019
Họ và tên thí sinh:...............................................................số báo danh:....................
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear a man, called Paul Hart, talking about his trip to Africa, with
a team of scientists. Choose the best answer from A, B or C for each question.
1. Why did Paul choose the part of Africa he visited?
A. It is good for walking.
B. It will soon change.
C. He had been there before.
2. What made the team's journey slow?
A. clearing paths through the forest
B. finding somewhere safe to camp
C. carrying heavy equipment
3. What did Paul worry about during the trip?
A. the number of dangerous animals
B. getting the information he needed
C. being responsible for a team of people
4. Paul says that the team didn't have enough food because
A. some people ate more than they should.
B. the walk took longer than expected.
C. some of the food went bad too quickly.
5. Why were the team grateful to a fisherman they met?
A. He let everyone rest on his boat.
B. He helped one of them who was ill.
C. He told them which direction to take.
Part 2. You will hear a woman, talking about flights, in a hot-air balloon. Fill in
each blank with no more than two words or numbers.
Hot-air Balloon Flights
- Children under 12 must be with an adult.
- All passengers need to be fit
- Balloon flights are best when there are light winds, no (6) …………….….. and a clear
sky.
- Passengers need to wear outdoor clothes and (7) …………….………………………
- Flights travel between 5 and 30 kilometres.
- Passengers return to the airfield in a (8) …………….………………………
- Flights are available from the month of (9) …………….………………………each year.
- For booking and information, phone (10) …………….………………………
or visit
www.hotairballoons.com
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. pyramid B. hygiene C. nylon D. lifestyle
12. A. cheese B. psychology C. change D. church
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. international B. interpersonal C. intelligently D. intellectually
14. A. determined B. examine C. reliant D. medicine
15. A. incapable B. interest C. quality D. personal
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. – Josep: “I can’t see the stage very well from here.” – Joe: “_________.”
A. Neither can’t I. B. So do I
C. Neither I can D. Nor can I
17. – Blair: “Don’t forget to do as I have told you.” – Nick: “_________.”
A. Yes, I won’t B. Yes, I will
C. No, I won’t D. No, I will remember
18. – Mill: “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” – Sarah: “_________.”
A. Well, you did, so it’s no use crying over spilt milk.
B. All right. You will be OK.
C. Sorry, I have no idea.
D. I’m afraid you will have to do it.
19. – Piere: "Would you like another coffee?" – Sophie: “_________.”
A. I'd love one B. Willingly
C. Very kind of your part D. It's a pleasure
20. – The girl: “Do you have a minute, Dr Keith?” – Dr. Keith: “_________.”
A. Well. I’m not sure when B. Good, I hope so
C. Sure. What’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Who can predict his comings and goings?
A. foretell B. decide C. prevent D. discover
22. Did anyone acknowledge responsibility for the outbreak of the fire?
A. admit B. report C. find out D. inquire
about
23. They detested each other on sight.
A. argued with B. hated C. discovered D. revealed
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. There is a Vietnamese proverb which states that if you want to gather a lot of
knowledge, act as if you are ignorant.
A. collect B. miss C. save D. recall
25. The teacher is simply too lenient with her students and is passing people who
ought to fail.
A. occupied B. satisfied C. disappointed D. strict
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. Young ________ he was, he was equal to the task.
A. unless B. because C. as D. if
27. “Didn’t you go to the party?” - “________.”
A. No, I went there with my friends. B. I did, but I didn’t stay long.
C. That sounds nice, but I can’t. D. Don’t worry. I’ll go there.
28. Mary’s father approved of________in the US for another year in order to work
toward her M.A.
A. she to stay B. her to stay C. her staying D. her to stay
29. To generate income, magazine publishers must decide whether to increase the
subscription price or ________.
A. sold advertising B. to sell advertising
C. if they should sell advertising D. selling advertising
30. Rarely________remove the entire root of a dandelion because of its length and
sturdiness.
A. can the casual gardener B. the casual gardener
C. the casual gardener will D. does the casual gardener’s
31. Her room is very large. She is dreaming of a
A. round big wooden table B. wooden big round table
C. big round wooden table D. table big wooden round
32. I always get _______ in my stomach before visiting the dentist.
A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. hedgehogs
33. Those smart phones are selling like ________. If you want one, you’d better buy
one now before that are all gone.
A. shooting stars B. fresh bread C. hot cakes D. wild oats
34. Kelly wanted to have a live band________at her wedding.
A. to be played B. play C. played D. been
playing
35. It is better to try to work________rather than against nature.
A. along B. with C. by D. for
36. Prince Phillip had to choose: marry the woman he loved and ______ his right to
the throne, or marry Lady Fiona and inherit the crown.
A. abdicate B. upbraid C. reprimand D. winnow
37. If you will not do your work of your own ______ I have no choice but to penalize
you if it is not done on time.
A. predilection B. infusion C. excursion D. volition
38. After sitting in the sink for several days, the dirty food-encrusted dishes became
_____ .
A. malodorous B. prevalent C. imposing D. perforated
39. Giulia soon discovered the source of the ______ smell in the room: a week-old
tuna sandwich that one of the children had hidden in the closet.
A. quaint B. fastidious C. clandestine D. fetid
40. I am never keen________ going out in the snow; I can't understand why people
get
so excited________it
A. on / in B. on / about C. for / about' D. with / of
42. The police detective had been in _____________of the suspect for two days.
A. employment B. pursuit C. expedition D. chase
43. From the _________expression on his mother’s face, Roy realized that he
wouldn’t be able to persuade her.
A. tall B. firm C. weak D. hasty
44. In the summertime, tomatoes are __________available, since it is the best season
for them to mature in.
A. solely B. shortly C. warmly D. readily
45. Every year, the day before they are due to leave, Margot runs from store to store
trying to ___________ with all the shopping for the vacation.
A. catch up B. write down C. sell out D. make up
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. The two nations finally agreed to sign an …………….………………………pact AGGRESSIVE
to normalize their diplomatic relations.
47. As a result of her …………….………………………, Ethel has strong sense of BRING
the difference between right and wrong.
48. The sun and the moon arc often …………….………………………in poetry. PERSON
49. This statue …………….………………………the soldiers who died in the war. MEMORY
50. Jim is one of the most …………….………………………members of the SPEAK
committee.
51. Earth Hour is a …………….………………………event organized to raise WORLD
people’s awareness.
52. All …………….………………………must be received before July 20th 2007. APPLY
53. Alison’s …………….………………………made it hard for her to speak in SHY
public.
54. The police took …………….………………………action against that player, DISCIPLINE
who was involved in the match-fixing scandal.
55. The president …………….………………………drew his conclusions from that ERROR
ill-founded evidence.
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 Television is one of man’s important mean of communication. It brings
 2 events and sounds around the world into millions of homes. A person with
3 the television set can sit in his house and watch the president doing a speech
4 or visit a foreign country. He can see a war being fought and watch
5 statesmen try to bring peaceful. Through TV, home viewers can see and
6 learn about people, places, and things in faraway lands. Television even
7 takes their viewers out of this world. It brings them coverage of America’s
8 astronauts as the astronauts explore outer space. In addition to these things,
9 TV brings its viewers a steady stream of programs that are designing to
10 entertain. In fact, TV provides many more entertainment programs than any
11 another kinds. The programs include action packed dramas, lights comedies,
sporting events and motion pictures.

Line Error Correction

1 00. mean  means
56. 
57. 
58. 
59. 
60. 
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. A part of the building has been subdivided …………….…offices.
62. I’m sorry, but I just can’t put up …………….…your behaviour any longer.
63. The relationship …………….…the two friends was very strong.
64. Her anxiety …………….…speaking in public caused her to lose the job.
65. He became an orphan at 12, and has learnt to stand …………….…his own feet since
then
66. Will you look …………….…my essay, please, to find out whether I made any mistakes?
67. If you want to telephone him you will have to look …………….…the number in the book.
68. The examiner made a difficult question, but at last, Mike came up ……………a good
answer.
69. It was after dark when the two children were knocked …………….…on the safety-
crossing.
70. Well-mannered children have usually been properly brought …………….…by their
parents.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
 The heart has long been considered to be (71) ______ feelings of love dwell. In
love songs throughout the ages, love almost always goes together (72) ______ the
heart. The heart has continuously been viewed (73) ______ the place where love
begins and develops. Even the Bible gives (74) ______ to love and the heart. The role
of the heart in love must come from what happens to it when a person feels strongly
(75) ______ to someone. The strong feelings (76) ______ the other person,especially
in the early stages of a relationship, have the results that the heart starts beating faster
and breathing starts speeding (77) ______. According to psychologists, a love
relationship is a situation that (78) ______ a lot of stress and the body reacts to this by
getting ready to face the unknown. This has been called the "fight or flight" (79)
______, meeting danger by fighting it or running away. So with love, the heart
accelerates and (80) ______ becomes
quick.
71. A. when B. where C. that D. what
72. A. to B. from C. with D. at
73. A. as B. as though C. like D. as if
74. A. reference B. citation C. preference D. quote
75. A. attracting B. attractive C. attract D. attracted
76. A. of B. for C. to D. with
77. A. up B. forward C. on D. upon
78. A. comprises B. arouses C. involves D. includes
79. A. reactionary B. reactor C. reacting D. reaction
80. A. exhaling B. breathing C. inhaling D. sweating
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars
of the classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term
“reading” undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did
silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply
because reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinationsof factors related to
the historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual
mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in
character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increasein literacy and thus in the number
of readers. As the number of readers increased, the number of potential listeners
declined and thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for
the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a
private activity in such public places aslibraries, railway carriages and offices, where
reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over
whether books should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether
the reading of materials such as newspapers was in some way mentally weakening.
Indeed, this argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever its virtues,
the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media
on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialised readership on the
other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt
attitudes to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible,
for the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had
greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.
81. Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because ______.
A. people relied on reading for entertainment
B. silent reading had not been discovered
C. there were few places available for private reading
D. few people could read to themselves
82. The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______”.
A. for everybody’s use B. most preferable
C. attracting attention D. widely used
83. The development of silent reading during the last century indicated ______.
A. an increase in the average age of readers B. an increase
in the number of books
C. a change in the nature of reading D. a change in the status of literate
people
84. Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of ______.
A. the decreasing need to read aloud B. the development of libraries
C. the increase in literacy D. the decreasing number of listeners
85. It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialised reading
materials was an indication of ______.
A. a decline of standards of literacy B. a change in the readers’ interest
C. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes D. an improvement of printing
techniques
86. The phrase “a specialised readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______”.
A. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge
B. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge
C. a reading volume for particular professionals
D. a status for readers specialised in mass media
87. The phrase “oral reader” in the last paragraph mostly means “a person who
______”.
A. is good at public speaking B. practises reading to an audience
C. takes part in an audition D. is interested in spoken language
88. All of the following might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old
shared literacy culture EXCEPT ______.
A. the inappropriate reading skills B. the specialised readership
 C. the diversity of reading materials D. the printed mass media
89. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today.
B. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud.
C. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect.
D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and
technological changes.
90. The writer of this passage is attempting to ______.
A. explain how reading habits have developed
B. change people’s attitudes to reading
C. show how reading methods have improved
D. encourage the growth of reading
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain
unchanged, using the words given.
91. Would you mind not smoking in my house?
 I’d .............................................................................................................
92. Henry regretted buying the second-hand car.
 Henry wishes that
.............................................................................................................
93. You must try to accept that you will never be famous! (terms)
 You must ……………………………………………………………………………. fact that you will never be famous.
94. No one really expected John to do so well in his exams. (taken)
 Everyone ……………………………………………………………………………. did so well in his exams.
95. Do you think your father was offended by what I said? (exception)
 Do you think ……………………………………………………………………………. comments?
Part 2:
What cause some students to cheat in their exams. Write a paragraph about 140
words to give your appropriate reasons.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 6 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019
Họ và tên thí sinh:...............................................................số báo danh:....................
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. Listen to Helen and Alex talking about going shopping.
1. Alex has seen a nice, but expensive ________.
A. skirt B. dress C. shirt D. sweater
2. What does Helen suggest Ajex buy?
A. trousers B. jeans C. T-shirt D. pants
3. How many skirts does Alex have?
A. four B. three C. two D. one
4. What is the name of the new shop on George street?
A. Shooz B. Raw C. Sonic D. Peaky
5. What colour of the shoes will Helen wear?
A. black B. blue C. white D. pink
Part 2. You will hear a man talking about a special sports school on the radio.
For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
International Sports Academy (ISA)
For students aged 12-18.
Interviews
The interviews for new students are on (6) ……………………..
To arrange an interview call Leo (7) …………………….. on 0998 354678.
Programme
Students choose one main sport (ISA are offering hockey as a new sport).
Students must do sports training and (8) …………………….. each week after school.
To perform well in competitions, students must also learn to train their (9)
……………………..

The personal coach helps students with organising their (10) ……………………...
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
1. A. drought B. sought C. wrought D. nought
2. A. resign B. resound C. resonant D. resource
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
3. A. expert B. contrast C. postpone D. product
4. A. necessary B. benefit C. vulnerable D. parade
5. A. relationship B. equipment C. customer D. deliver
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. John”: “Would you like me to get a taxi for you?” – Mary: “____”
A. Well, let’s see B. Yes, please, if it’s no bother
C. That would be delightful. Thanks D. Yes, I see
17. Mrs Ha is at the clothing store
Shop assistant: “Can I help you?” _Mrs. Ha: “ ___________”.
A. No, thanks. I’m just looking B. No, I’m seeing
C. Yes, I’m watching D. Yes, I’m thinking
18. Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.” Kate: “Uh, really?
_____!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Lucky as you are
C. You are always lucky D. Congratulations
19. Jane: “Would you mind if I use you computer for an hour?” Tony: “________”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, It’s all right
20. Mike: “Would you mind getting me a cup of coffee ?” -Cathy: “_____________”
A. No, I’d be glad to. B. Cream and sugar, please.
C. Yes, I’d love to, thanks D. I never drink coffee.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Have you ever tried using hydrogen peroxide as a person to induce vomiting
instead of the good old traditional methods?
A. control B. clean C. cause D. stop
22. He was mystified by my experience, though perhaps not particularly envious.
A. perplexed B. shocked C. upset D. excited
23. I was horrified to find a drug tablet which had been left on purpose in my room
yesterday.
A. ashamed B. shocked C. nervous D. surprised
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. He wants to find a temporary job or a seasonal one.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
25. The names of the participants in the survey were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. reveal
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. I’m sorry, but I just can’t ________ your behaviour any longer.
A. go along with B. get on with C. keep up with D. put up with
27. It is doubtful whether newspapers ________ governments to any great degree.
A. draw B. influence C. catch D. attract
28. Many companies ________ to take part in illegal logging.
A. denied B. rejected C. protested D. refused
29. The music ________ the composer’s joy of life.
A. arouses B. appeals C. expresses D. attracts
30. The Grand Canyon is the product of centuries of ________.
A. erosion B. decay C. crumbling D.
deterioration
31. The Keep Environment Clean campaign raised far more than the ________.
A. target B. object C. goal D. aim.
32. The other day I came ________ a really beautiful old house in the back streets of
London.
A. over B. down C. by D. across
33. Black, red, and even bright pink diamonds________.
A. occasionally found B. have occasionally been found
C. have occasionally found D. occasionally to find
34. Before________, they used horse drawn wooden carts
A. farmers had tractors B. farmers have had tractors
C. tractors owned by farmers D. having tractors farmers
35. The door is unlocked; ________ here last night.
A. Something strange was happened B. Something strange should have
happened
C. Something strange had happened D. Something strange could have
happened
36. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learnt that gunpowder could ________ propel an object
with incredible force.
A. using it to B. used to C. be used to D. been used
to
37. Tennessee has about 140 newspapers, ________ 25 are issued daily.
A. of which about B. which is about C. about which D. which are
about
38. When consumers cannot have everything that they want, they have to choose
________ most.
A. they want what B. what they want C. they want it D. that they
want
39. Rodney ________ for the company for very long before he was promoted.
A. hadn’t been working B. hasn’t been working
C. didn’t used to work D. didn’t work.
40. “Do you think Harry will want something to eat after he gets here?”
“I hope not. It’ll probably be after midnight, and we ________.”
A. be sleeping B. are sleeping C. will be sleeping D. have been
sleeping
41. Mr. Lee was upset by ________ him the truth.
A. us not tell B. we didn’t tell C. not to tell D. our not
having told.
42. ________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped win the
project.
A. Had it been B. Hadn’t it been C. If it hadn’t been D. If it had
been
43. “Could you please turn off the stove? The potatoes ________ for at least thirty
minutes.”
A. are boiling B. were boiling C. boiling D. have been
boiling
44. I didn’t see anyone but I felt as though I ________.
A. am watched B. have been watched C. was being watched D. be watched
45. Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk
________in heavy traffic during rush hour.
A. to hold up B. holding up C. having held up D. being held
up
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. Due to the clerk’s …………………………….. we missed the train. (stubborn
47. Very few countries have corporal …………………………….. in schools. (punish)
48. We are trying to find some suitable methods to teach the kids good …………………..……... (sport)
49. He completed the report with the …………………………….. of his secretary. (assist)
50. The happy beggar thanked the passer-by for his ……………………………... (generou
51. It was a terrible game. Our team played very ……………………………… (imagine)
52. A Iist of ………………………….. meetings will be posted on the noticeboard in the corridor. (come)
53. You look rather ……………………………... Are you worried about something? (occupy)
54. You do have some good ideas but your work is very ……………………………... (organise
55. The traffic problem has improved ……………………………... (expect)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 One of the most important discovery of the nineteenth century was a
2 method of using natural gas for cooking and heating. Large amounts of
3 natural gas are found in the United States, usually several feet over the
4 surface of the earth. Natural gas is most often found in places where
5 petroleum, the oil from which gasoline is made, is found. Often the natural
6 gas must be remove before the oil itself can be reached. For many years
7 after natural gas was first discovered, it was thought to have no valuable.
8 Finally, however, people began to understand its use and to find ways of
9 storing it and moving it from place to place. Today natural gas is stored in
10 large tanks and used for lighting, cooking and heat. It has also been used for
11 electric generators and hybrid cars recently. In many ways natural gas is one
12 of our finest fuels. It can be used for cooking without making the room hot. It
is cheap and can be moved easily from one place to another through long
pipelines, some of that are hundreds of miles in length.

Line Error Correction

1 00. discovery  discoveries
………… 56. ……………………………………  ……………………………………
………… 57. ……………………………………  ……………………………………
………… 58. ……………………………………  ……………………………………
………… 59. ……………………………………  ……………………………………
………… 60. ……………………………………  ……………………………………
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. Every student has to looked up …………their teachers. They give them moral lessons
everyday.
62. They put ………… the cricket match because of the hurricane.
63. The room was so hot and stuffy that he passed ………….
64. He asked her to marry him but she turned him …………. She said she didn't really
love him.
65. She should not to use so much sweet food. She put ……… so much weight in the last
two months.
66. He finally turned ………… at my house half an hour late.
67. I tried to get on ………… him but he was rude I found it impossible to be friends with
him.
68. I want to talk things ………… with Freddie first. He always gives good advice.
69. I had to take my coat ………… when the sun came out, it was so warm.
70. The wet clay fell ………… in the water. The pot was ruined and she had to start again.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
The Industrial Revolution in Britain was built on the use of machines in factories.
Since then, Britain's (71) _______ industries have replaced machine operators with
computers, and this (72) _______ has led to a decline in the number of (73)
_______ in many factories. Goods are bought and used much more than ever before
but a lot of these goods are importe By the beginning of the th century, other industrial
countries like the USA were (74) _______ with Britain's exports, and countries in the
Far East have been able to provide cheaper (75) _______ since the s. Areas located
with heavy industries are suffering high unemployment. During the last years, there
has been a constant rise in smaller industries (76) _______ as "light industries".
These ones use electricity and are not (77) _______ on raw materials such as coal
so they are "footloose", i.e. they can be located anywhere. They produce such things
as washing machines or spare (78) _______ . Some of these industries produce
nothing at all, but provide services like distribution. The consumer boom of the s and
the increased leisure time of most Britons have led to rapid (79) _______ in service
industries like banking, tourism, retailing and information processing, and in industries
which distribute, maintain, and repair (80) _______ consumer goods.
71. A. manufacturing B. running C. large D. big
72. A. change B. automation C. replacement D. exchange
73. A. employers B. servers C. labours D. employees
74. A. working B. familiar C. competing D. fed up
75. A. products B. things C. imports D. produce
76. A. worked B. considered C. regarded D. known
77. A. dependent B. command C. dependable D. reliable
78. A. details B. parts C. sections D. gadgets
79. A. extension B. expansion C. growth D. increase
80. A. everyday B. household C. expensive D. home
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
While most desert animals will drink water if confronted with it, for many of them
the opportunity never comes. Yet all living things must have water, or they will expire.
The herbivores find it in desert plants. The carnivores slake their thirst with the flesh
and blood of living prey. One of the most remarkable adjustments, however, has been
made by the tiny kangaroo rat, who not only lives without drinking but subsists on a
diet of dry seeds containing about 5% free water.
Like other animals, he has the ability to manufacture water in his body by a
metabolic conversion of carbohydrates. But he is notable for the parsimony with
which he conserves his small supply by every possible means, expending only
minuscule amounts in his excreta and through evaporation from his respiratory tract.
Investigation into how the kangaroo rat can live without drinking water has
involved various experiments with these small animals. Could kangaroo rats somehow
store water in their bodies and slowly utilize these resources in the long periods when
no free water is available from dew or rain? The simplest way to settle this question
was to determine the total water content in the animals to see if it decreases as they
are kept for long periods on a dry diet. If they slowly use up their water, the body
should become increasingly dehydrated, and if they begin with a store of water, this
should be evident from an initial high water content. Results of such experiments with
kangaroo rats on dry diets for more than 7 weeks showed that the rats maintained
their body weight. There was no trend toward a decrease in water content during the
long period of water deprivation. When the kangaroo rats were given free access to
water, they did not drink water. They did nibble on small pieces of watermelon, but this
did not change appreciably the water content in their bodies, which remained at 66.3
to 67.2 during this period.
This is very close to the water content of dry-fed animals (66.5), and the
availability of free water, therefore, did not lead to any “storage” that could be
meaningful as a water reserve. This makes it reasonable to conclude that
physiological storage of water is not a factor in the kangaroo rat’s ability to live on dry
food.
81. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Kangaroo rats B. Water in the desert
C. Desert life D. Physiological experiments
82. The word “expire” is closest in meaning to
A. become ill B. die C. shrink D. dehydrate
83. Which of the following is NOT a source of water for the desert animals?
A. Desert plants
B. Metabolic conversion of carbohydrates in the body
C. The blood of other animals D. Streams
84. The word “it” refers to
A. water B. the desert C. the opportunity D. a living thing
85. The author states that the kangaroo rat is known for all of the following EXCEPT
A. the economy with which it uses available water
B. living without drinking water
C. breathing slowly and infrequently D. manufacturing water internally
86. The word “parsimony” is closest in meaning to
A. intelligence B. desire C. frugality D. skill
87. It is implied by the author that desert animals can exist with little or no water
because of ________.
A. less need for water than other animals
B. their ability to adjust to the desert environment
 C. their ability to eat plants
D. many opportunities for them to find water
88. The word “deprivation” is closest in meaning to
A. preservation B. renewal C. examination D. loss
89. According to the passage, the results of the experiments with kangaroo rats
showed that
A. kangaroo rats store water for use during dry periods.
B. kangaroo rats took advantage of free access to water.
C. gthere was no significant change in body weight due to lack of water or accessibility
to water.
D. a dry diet seems detrimental to the kangaroo rat’s health.
90. The tone of the passage is ________.
A. critical B. scientific C. optimistic D. negative
PART 2: WRITING (2.0points)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.1/ each)
For questions 1–5, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
has the same meaning as the first sentence
91. He left school and then he joined the army.
 After..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
92. People believe that he speaks six languages fluently.
 He.......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
93. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
 Urgent............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
94. The teachers agreed to introduce the new methods.
 There was an.........................................................................................................................................................................................................................
95. But for his contributions, the project woul dn’t have been completed successfully.
 Had it...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
For questions 6–10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word
given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given.
96. The previous manager wasn't running the club well, so he was replaced. (badly)
 The club ………………………………………….……………………… the previous manager, so he was
replaced.
97. You got lost because you didn't do what I told you. (instructions)
 If ………………………………………….……………………… you wouldn't have got lost.
98. We were all surprised when she suddenly left the job. (found)
 All ………………………………………….……………………… when she suddenly left the job.
99. He doesn't often find it difficult to earn money. (trouble)
 He seldom ………………………………………….……………………… money.
100. Could you deliver the goods to my home? (delivered)
 Could I………………………………………….……………………… to my home?
Part 2: PARAGRAPH WRITING (1.0 pt)
Some students prefer to study alone. Others prefer to study with a group of students.
Which do you prefer? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Write a paragraph in about 120-150 words to express your ideas.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 7 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019

A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. Listen to the dialogue between Jake and Robert. Choose the correct
answer from A, B, C or D for each of the following questions.
1. The CD is by the ________.
 A. Bees B. Trees C. Thieves D. Blues
2. Selectadisc is near a ________.
A. hardware store B. chemist C. department store D. Toystore
3. The shop's address is ________.
A. 21 George Street B. 21 Johnson Street
C. 21 Howard's Street D. 21 Hillton Street
4. What do you get for free?
A. a book B. a cassette C. a poster D. a magazine
5. How much did the CD cost?
A. £ 19 B. £ 16 C. £ 12 D. £ 9
Part 2. You will hear some information, about a café for young people. Fill in
each blank with no more than one word or numbers.
NOTES ABOUT THE RAINBOW CAFÉ
- This is a special café for teenagers which opened last month.
- The café is run by a (6) ……………………….. of ten local teenagers.
- The teenagers got a grant worth £ 3,000 to start the café.
- They need some more teenagers to work as (7) …………………….. in the café.
- The café is currently open every (8) ………………..……….. from 1.30 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
- The café serves a range of hot and cold drinks and some (9) ………….……………..
- To get more information, call (10) …………………….…………….. or visit www.youthcafe.com.
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
11. A. thunder B. prefer C. grocer D. louder
12. A. heart B. heard C. search D. learn
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. institute B. pesticide C. paragraph D. magazine
14. A. embarrassed B. comfortable C. magnificent D. compulsory
15. A. entertain B. comprehend C. continue D. correspond
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. Tim and Tom are talking about the next vacation.
- Tim: “What are you going to do for the vacation?“ - Tom: “____________ .“
A. That sounds great
B. How about you ? What will you do ?
C. I will take some tests.
D. I’m not sure, but I might go camping for a few days.
17. Linda attended Michael’s enjoyable birthday party last Sunday and thanked him for it.
- Linda: “It was very kind of you to invite me to your party.” - Michael: “_________.”
 A. It’s my pleasure B. No, thanks C. Ok, that’s’ great D. Good idea,
thanks
18. Two friends are talking to each other.
~ Jack: "________________" ~ Jane: "OK. I'll join you in some minutes."
A. Let's go and have lunch now. B. Would you like to go out for lunch?
C. You can have lunch in our new canteen. D. Why don't you stop to have lunch?
19. Two friends are talking about their schoolwork.
~ Jennifer: "I'm giving a presentation on global warming on Friday and I'm so
nervous."
~ Mary: "________________"
A. You should think about how to present the subject matter effectively.
B. There are a lot of things you can do to make you feel more confident.
C. It is easier to convince the audience and to hold their attention with actual data.
D. In order for you to succeed, you need to keep the audience interested and
involved.
20. Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
~ Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
~ James: "_____________. We had sweet memories together then."
A. I'm afraid so B. Absolutely C. That's nonsense D. I doubt it
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. This property is owned communally now, so everyone must take care of it.
A. kept by one member B. shared by roommates
C. saved one by one D. used by everyone
22. "Do you think it's OK for me to wear jeans to a job interview or do I need
something a bit more upmarket?"
A. being trendy and fashionable B. high quality or expensive
C. cheap with decent quality D. bought from overseas
23. There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are
turning to digitalised reading materials.
A. scarcity B. deficiency C. popularity D. intensity
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. "If you had studied instead of goofing off all semester, then you wouldn't be so
worried about tomorrow's exam."
A. to behave not very well B. to pass time studying
C. to hardly try to work D. to pass time in a relaxed way
25. ~Marx: "Monash University has offered you a scholarship to study a commerce degree
there."
~ Mike: "It sounds really good, but I would need to move house...I'll have to think
about it."
A. to think carefully about it B. to reject it in a polite way
C. to ask someone for advice D. to take it immediately
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. I don't think it is fair to__________ a comparison between the two sisters
A. do B. draw C. take D. strike
27. We__________ a table as the restaurant was almost empty.
A. shouldn't have booked B. can't have booked
C. mustn't have booked D. needn't
have booked
28. Come on! I can't believe the guy's managed to hurt your feelings again. Maybe you
should try and quit being so__________.
A. thin-skinned B. tongue-tied C. thick-skinned D. cool-headed
29. I would like to take this opportunity to__________ my gratitude for your ongoing
support.
A. expand B. extend C. convey D. enlarge
30. She's so_________; you really have to watch what you say or she will walk out of
the room.
A. sick and tired B. rough and ready C. prim and proper D. high and dry
31. The team had ben trying to win the competition for years. Last year they finally
________.
A. carried away B. carried it on C. brought it off D. brought it on
32. The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity
received_________ support from the school administrators.
A. light-hearted B. warm-hearted C. big-hearted D. whole-
hearted
33. Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they
will_________ success in the future.
A. gather B. collect C. master D. achieve
36. The school drama club is_________ a play for the school's anniversary, which is
due to take place next month.
A. turning up B. making off C. putting on D. bringing
down
37. John congratulated us__________ our exam with high marks.
A. on passing B. for passing C. to pass D. on pass
38. We expected him at eight, but he finally__________ at midnight.
A. turned up B. came off C. came to D. turned in
st
39. The 1 week of classes at university is a little__________ because so many
students get lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious
40. The U23 Vietnamese football team’s performnce has garnered__________ from
around the world and shown promise for Vietnam’s soccer horizon.
A. attentive B. attention C. attend D. attentively
41. The joke would not be funny if it__________ into French.
A. has been translated B. be translated C. was be
translated D. were translated
42. Although he is my friend, I find it hard to__________ his selfishness
A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down
with
43. The authorities__________ actions to stop illegal purchase of wild animals and
their associated products effectively. However, they didn’t do so.
A. must have taken B. had to take C. needed have taken D. should
have taken
44. Paul is a very__________ character, he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-satisfied C. self-directed D. self-
confident
45. All__________ barristers are expected to study at the Inns of Court
A. hopeful B. wishful C. willing D. prospective
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. The strikers of our home team played ……………………………….well during the last (stand)
match. We scored four goals.
47. Compared to foreign universities, Vietnamese universities are still (equip)
………………………………. to meet a great number of students.

48. I am afraid that you have been ……………………………….about the schedule. The (inform)
key speech will be on Friday, not today.
49. You’d better drive, I am too ……………………………….for such traffic. (experience)
50. After hours of going from one hotel to another, we ………………………………. found (event)
one which was not fully booked.
51. He has very high ……………………………….of his only son. (expect)
52. Please don’t be so ………………………………., I can’t do all the work by myself. (reason)
53. I am sorry about the mistakes, I ……………………………….the instructions you gave (understand)
me.
54. After the children had gone back to school, the house was …………………………. (compare)
quiet.
55. They complained about the physical and psychological ……………………………. of (treat)
prisoners.
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 When we was in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter.
2 Early in the morning we were sitting quiet by the side of a lake when we had
3 an unpleasant surprise. We saw a duck come along with three ducklings
4 paddling cheerfully behind her. As we watched them, there was a sudden
5 swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike-a fish
6 which is rather like a freshwater shark-and one of the ducklings was dragged
7 below the surface. This incident do Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike.
8 One three successive mornings we returned to the vicinity and used several
9 different kinds of bait. On the three day Peter was lucky. Using an artificial
10 frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a desperate fight
11 but Peter was determined capturing the pike and he succeeded. When he
had got it ashore and killed it, he weighed the fish and found that it scaled
nearly thirty pound a record for that district.

Line Error Correction

1 00. was  were
……….. 56. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 57. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 58. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 59. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
……….. 60. ……………………………………..  ……………………………………..
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. We had to contend …………………….some difficult driving conditions in Lapland.
62. After retiring, I decided to take …………………….gardening.
63. Each picture is associated …………………….one incident in my life.
64. My brother hurt himself while he was showing …………………….on his new bike.
65. Fortunately, the demonstration turned …………………….to be quite peaceful.
66. I need to tidy …………………….the kitchen before I start making the dinner.
67. Before you hand in your essay, go …………………….it and try to spot any spelling
mistakes.
68. Helen's mum said she'd talk it …………………….with Helen's dad.
69. Her mum's really tall. With those long legs, she certainly takes …………………….her
mother.
70. Breaking his leg a second time put Peter’s football career …………………….jeopardy.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following
passage.
VOLUNTEERING
When Pamela Janett left university to become a primary school teacher, it was
by no (71) ________ easy to find a job. She therefore decided to go abroad as a
volunteer teacher for a year. When she realized she would be teaching deaf and blind
children, she was a (72) ________taken aback. But after a month's training she felt
more confident that she would be able to cope with the situation. The basic living
conditions also (73) ________as something of a shock.
Pamela's school was situated in a remote Ethiopian village, where her
accommodation (74) ________ of one room and a shared bathroom. Not only was the
space cramped, but there was no electricity, Internet or telephone access, so she felt
totally cut (75) ________from the outside world. Now back home in Britain, Pamela
has used her (76) ________ experience to set up a similar school for the deaf and
blind which has made a huge (77) ________ to dozens of children who would (78)
________ find themselves struggling to learn. She is now concentrating her efforts on
(79) ________ her school to cater for children with other learning difficulties, too. It
seems as if the more people get to know her, the (80) ________ the demand is for her
skills.
71. A. means B. extent C. ways D. account
72. A. rather B. quite C. little D. somewhat
73. A. appeared B. came C. proved D. arrived
74. A. combined B. consisted C. contained D. composed
75.A. down B. away C. out D. off
76. A. worthy B. valuable C. priceless D. precious
77. A. contrast B. difference C. change D.
transformation
78. A. furthermore B. nonetheless C. otherwise D. however
79. A. growing B. widening C. expanding D. stretching
80. A. greater B. larger C. steeper D. taller
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny,
congested nose.People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing
and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose theừ sense of smell. Some victims
of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer
from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a smus
infection. The allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions
because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are controlled by the
independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the
independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional-response center and may
cause the feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction
to allergy-causing substances.
The most conunon cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms
during the summer and autumn. When airbome pollen particles, as well as mold, come
into contact with the victim’s membranes, they can cause allergic reactions that
release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever
or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be
reduced. Although some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that
cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been successful because airbome
pollen can travel considerable distances. Anti-histamine can help with short but severe
attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of
injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity
and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
(Resource: TOEFL test strategies by Eli
Hinkel, Ph.D)
81. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to
________.
A. fodder for cattle B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria D. a lung disease
82. According to the passage， the symptoms of the allergy are
predominantly________.
A. abdominal B. intestinal C. respiratory D. chronic
83. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined,
C. "The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
84. According to the passage， patients suffering from hay fever may also experience
________.
A. hunger pains B. mood swings C. nervous blockages D. sensory
perceptions
85. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to________.
A. reprieve B. reprisal C. irritation D. grief
86. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by ________.
A. wind B. food C. travelers D. air
passages
87. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. obstruction B. bleeding C. enlargement D. dryness
88. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need
to________.
A. avoid interactions with other patients B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. mcrease their self-confidence D. take doses of prescribed
medicine.
89. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen B. mold C. flowers D. injections
90. A paragraph followmg this passage would most probably discuss________.
A. how the nervous system alerts patients.
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. what flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
PART 2: WRITING (2.0points)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.1/ each)
For questions 1–5, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
has the same meaning as the first sentence
91. Their teacher is making them study hard.
 They
..................................................................................................................................
92. She had never been so unhappy before.
 She was unhappier
............................................................................................................
93. He forgot about the dictionary until he got home.
 Not until
............................................................................................................................
94. He failed the test because of the difficult questions.
 Had
...................................................................................................................................
95. He said to me, “Did you send her my book yesterday?”
 He asked
..........................................................................................................................
For questions 6–10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word
given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given.
96. I didn’t know who painted this, but he was a genius. (artist)
 Whoever
...........................................................................................................................
97. Bad salary is usually the reason for the workers’ threat to the strike. (account)
 The workers usually go
....................................................................................................
98. If only I had told the star how much I enjoyed meeting him. (pleasure)
 I regret
..............................................................................................................................
99. The young girl stopped working though the salary was very high. (gave)
 No matter
.........................................................................................................................
100. After he had sent me the note, he left the town forever. (good)
 Having
..............................................................................................................................
Part 2: PARAGRAPH WRITING (1.0 pt)
In 140 words, write a paragraph about the subject you consider most important.
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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 8 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
Part 1. You will hear part of an interview, with a girl called Elena, a young film-
maker who wrote, directed and starred in her own film. For each question,
choose the correct answer A, B or C.
1. What does Elena say about the character she played in her film?
A. She has a very similar personality to Elena’s.
B. She worries too much about people.
C. She is easily hurt by other people’s actions.
2. What message does Elena want her film to communicate?
A. Value your background.
B. Believe in your own abilities.
C. Be realistic about the choices you make.
3. While filming the atmosphere was _______.
A. difficult because it was hard to get people to work.
B. sad because o f the subject matter of the film.
C. close because the difficulty of the work brought them together.
4. What does Elena say about filming?
A. The days tended to start and end at the same time.
B. They had to work every day of the week to get the film finished.
C. She filmed a similar number of scenes each day.
5. What did Elena find most challenging about making the film?
A. controlling large groups of actors when filming.
B. telling people what she wanted them to do.
C. having so many different jobs to do herself.
Part 2. You will hear some information about a special science lesson. Fill in
each blank space with no more than two words or numbers.
SPECIAL SCIENCE LESSON
This school will speak to an astronaut working on the International Space Station!
* The lesson:
7th August at 9.20 a.m.
for the whole school
will take place in the (6) …………………………….. .
all questions and answers sent and received by (7) ……………………………...
* The astronaut:
name: Harry Burton
length of time on Space Station: (8) ……………………………...
work Harry is doing: (9) …………………………….. on sleep while living in space.
* The Space Station:
travels at (10) …………………………….. miles per hour
takes 90 minutes to go round the world.
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
11. A. eliminate B. equal C. elaborate D. ejection
12. A. carriage B. dosage C. massage D. voyage
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. ignorant B. decisive C. horizon D. museum
14. A. suffice B. product C. nuclear D. province
15. A. neurosis B. nocturnal C. nostalgia D. nominate
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. John and Mike are talking about Mike’s new car.
~ John: "_______________"
~ Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that."
A. Where did you buy your car? B. What a nice car!
C. Your car is new, isn't it? D. My car is very expensive.
17. This is the communicative exchange at an electric shop.
The shop assistants: "This is my last portable CD player. I'll let you have it for fifty
dollars."
Stevenson: "___________________?"
A. Could you give me your last CD B. Could you give me a disccount
C. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars D. Can you tell me your favourite type of
music
18. Customer: "Can I try this jumper on?" Salesgirl: "__________________"
A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars D. Sure, the changing rooms are
over there
19. Barack: I’m terribly sorry. I just forgot to call you yesterday.
Bill: ”_________________”
A. Never mind B. It’s alright.We can talk about it
today
C. You’re welcome D. What a pity!
20. Daisy is asking the seller about what she intends to buy at the shop.
Daisy: “Can I try your new camera?” Seller: “_______________.”
A. Sure. But please be careful with it. B. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now.
C. I’m sorry. I’m home late. D. Sure. I’d love to.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is
not suitable for daily use.
A. polluted B. pure C. cleaned D. deadly
22. Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the
lunar calendar to manage their crops, the start of the year.
A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people
23. The government decided to pull down the old building adter asking for the ideas
from the local resident.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. The research findings were reliable since modem technology was used to increase
the precision of the sampling procedure.
A. exactness B. inaccuracy C. insecurity D. flexibility
25. Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of
time just before the check-in counter closed.
A. with all our luggage B. in a terrible condition
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. I couldn't quite _______what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
27. The bank is reported in the local newspaper _______ in broad daylight yesterday.
A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been
robbed
28. ________ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to
adopt them.
A. Although B. However C. Because D. On account
of
29. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
30. We are going to have a trip to Hanoi Capital. We need to________ arrangements
for the trip carefully.
A. do B. make C. get D. pay
31. ________ that we had to ask a police officer for directions.
A. So confusing was the map B. was so confusing the map
C. The map was such confusing D. Such confusing was the map
32. By the end of this year, Chen __________ English for three years, but he will still
need more training and experience before he masters the language.
A. will have been studying B. has been studying
C. has studied D. will be studying
33. It is necessary that a life-guard ________ the swimming pool while the children are
taking their swimming lessons.
A. monitored B. monitors C. monitor D. monitoring
34. George wouldn't have met Mary________ to his brother’s graduation party.
A. hadn't he gone B. had he not gone
C. if he has not gone D. if he should not have gone
35. In spite of our big effort, we have not managed to _______ enough money for the
renovation of the school buildings.
A. raise B. take C. rear D. score
36. She’s just bought three new dresses, _______ her if she gains weight.
A. none of them will fit B. that won’t fit
C. which none of them fit D. none of which will fit
37. Thomas received a warning for speeding. He _________ so fast.
A. shouldn’t have driven C. should have driven
B. would have driven D. might have driven
38. _______ learning a foreign language, John is smarter than Tim although they are
twins.
A. On account of B. Instead of C. In terms of D. In place of
39. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were
destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy
40. I don’t remember ________ of your decision to change our vacation plan.
A. to tell B. being told C. telling D. to be told
41. Not having written about the required topic, ________ a low mark.
A. my presentation was given B. the teacher gives me
C. the teacher gave me D. I was given
42. I’d rather you _______at my party last night.
A. be B. were C. had been D. have been
43. I know it’s not a huge corporation to work for - but it’s better to be __________.
A. other fish to try B. a big fish in a small pond
C. a fish out of water D. plenty more fish in the sea
44. I was all set to take the job in Tokyo, but at the last minute I _______ and decided
to stay in Britain.
A. pulled my finger out B. got cold feet B. held my horses D. called it
a day
45. I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been ________ for a long time. It was bound
to affect his health sooner or later.
A. having his cake and eating it B. burning the candle at both ends
C. playing with fire D. going to town
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. These students voluntarily spent their summer vacation helping (advantage)
the …………………………. .
47. Globalization is the ongoing process that deepens and broadens (depend)
the relationships and …………………………. among countries.
48. This morning I …………………………. and was late for school. (sleep)
49. The cost of …………………………. to the show is quite reasonable. (admit)
50. It is …………………………. to write by hand instead of using computer. (efficiency)
51. Barbara is very …………………………. about birds. She knows a lot about (know)
them.
 52. He was a ………………………. adventurous person. There is no question (decide)
about it.
53. Travelling in big cities is becoming more and more ……………………. (trouble)
every day.
54. They all cheered …………………………. as their team came out. (enthusiasm)
55. I had to look up the number in the telephone ………………………….. (direct)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 Do you want to plan for some kind of excited trip? Do you have a
2 million dollars? Are you very health? Are you good a traveler? Do you want
3 to go nowhere? Then you can have a trip to space. If you decide to take the
4 trip, you will have to get ready a few months before the fly. You must be in
5 excellent physical condition. You shouldn't run a lot, swim every day, and
6 make aerobics and push-ups. You must get a letter from the doctor that
7 shows you are in perfect health. Once you get on the trip, you will be in a
8 different world. You will see pictures the Earth. You may also find your
9 country and other interested places. You will be able to see the oceans, the
10 big rivers, the height mountains. You will be able to see them many times
because you will orbit the Earth 16 times a day.
Line Error Correction
1 00. excited  exciting
……….. 56. ………..………..………..………..………..………..  ………..………..………..………..………..………..
……….. 57. ………..………..………..………..………..………..  ………..………..………..………..………..………..
……….. 58. ………..………..………..………..………..………..  ………..………..………..………..………..………..
……….. 59. ………..………..………..………..………..………..  ………..………..………..………..………..………..
……….. 60. ………..………..………..………..………..………..  ………..………..………..………..………..………..
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. Don’t interfere ………..……….. matters that do not concern you!
62. She didn't inherit anything ………..……….. her uncle's will.
63. He was always very nervous ………..……….. taking the exam.
64. It took her quite a long time to recover ………..……….. her illness.
65. Whenever problems come ………..……….., we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.
66. I lost my wallet but went to the police station where someone had handed it ………..
………...

67. A lot of research in medical science has been carried ………..……….. to improve human
health.
68. On hearing the news she fainted and it was half an hour before she came round
again.
69. Could you look ………..……….. these old newspapers for articles about the environment.
70. The car's in quite good condition but you can try it ……….. before you make any decision
to buy.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following
passage.
POST IN HISTORY
Although it may come as a surprise (71) _____ people, postal services have
existed in some parts of the world for thousands of years. There is ample evidence
that a postal service existed among the Assyrians and Babylonians. In China a regular
postal service (72) _____ in the seventh century BC, and over the centuries attained
such a high level of efficiency that some 2,000 years after its (73) _____ it won the
admiration of travelers like Marco Polo. Efficient and highly (74) _____ postal services
were also established in the Persian and Roman empires. In ancient tinles, these
services were mainly confined to the use of representatives of (75) _____ state;
private citizens made use of slaves, merchants and the (76) _____ to send their
messages and documents. In Medieval Europe, postal services were organized by
emperors and by the papacy, (77) _____ private citizens continued to entrust their
correspondence to various travelers. Later, around the 13th century, universities and
towns came to have their own messengers. However, it was not until the 14th century
(78) _____ merchants, the private citizens who had the greatest need for a speedy
and regular exchange of correspondence, began to set (79) _____ regular courier
services. The needs of business (80) _____ to the development of the postal service
as we know it today.
71. A. to B. for C. with D. among
72. A. were established B. has established C. established D. was
established
73. A. introduction B. institution C. application D. occurrence
74. A. appeared B. built C. developed D. enriched
75. A. a B. the C. some D. no article
76. A. such B. likely C. like D. same
77. A. until B. and C. when D. while
78. A. when B. which C. that D. in which
79. A. up B. out C. off D. in
80. A. resulted B. came C. brought D. led
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
(1) On the night of September 2, 1666, a fire broke out in a baker's shop near Fish
Street Hill in London. Before the flames were finally extinguished, nearty the entreaty
had been reduced to ashes. Over thirteen thousand homes, fifty churches and
numerous public buildings and hospitals were lost in the blaze. For all practical
purposes, London was destroyed.
(5) The Great Fire was not seen as a total tragedy, however. The deplorable
conditions of the city had been attacked by physicians and humanitarians for years
before the fire; thus, with the opportunity dearly presented to create a shining new dty,
artists and craftsmen from all over England hurried to submit their designs for the
rebuilding of London.
Among those who submitted plans was Sir Christopher Wren, one of England's
leading architects and the
(10) Surveyor of London. The task of rebuilding the city was given to him. Wren
realized that the Great Fire would not have been so damaging if the city had been
better laid out: broader streets were needed to replace the crooked, narrow alleys
overhung with dilapidated wooden houses and shops. He also felt that redesigning the
main thoroughfares of London would result in increased and more effective
transportation within the city.
Shortly after Wren began working on his first drafts for the rebuilding. King Charles I
issued a proclamation (15) prohibiting the construction of any house or shop within
the city limits until after the plans were completed. When the plans were unveiled to
the citizens of London, however, they were overwhelmingly rejected. The most vocal
leaders of the opposition were the landlords, who feared that such a drastic widening
of the streets would reduce the amount of land available for development.
(20) Winter was approaching; consequently, it was necessary for the rebuilding to
proceed at once. Permission was, therefore, granted for the townspeople and
landlords to commence reconstruction of their houses and shops at the sites where
they had been before the fire. Had the need for immediate action not been so
pressing, some kind of compromise could likely have been reached. This was not to
be, however, and the ideas that could (25) have made London one of the world's most
beautiful cities never came to pass.
81. The probable meaning of “reduced to ashes” (line 2) is ________.
A. made unbearably hot B. discolored by the fire and smote
C. covered with ashes D. destroyed by fire
82. Which of the followings was probably among the deplorable conditions of the city?
A. lack of adequate lightning
B. the rough streets and alleys
C. the run-down condition of many houses and shops
D. all of the above
83. What did Sir Christopher Wren describe as the reason for the damage of the city?
A. the configuration B. the construction C. the landscape D. the pathway
84. The word thoroughfares (line 13) refers to ________.
A. public buildings B. streets C. alleys D. houses and
shops
85. The word proclamation (line 14) refers to ________.
A. promulgation B. speech C. request D. law
86. The word unveiled (line 16) refers to ________.
A. concealed B. disclosed C. obscured D. edipsed
87. What became of the plans for the rebuilding of London?
A. Nothing - they were never finished.
B. They were adopted in modified form.
C. They were followed and London was rebuilt at once.
D. Nothing - London was rebuilt as it had been before the fire.
88. To whom or what does they (line 23) refer to________?
A. the original building sites B. the townspeople
C. the burned-down houses and shops D. the landlords
89. Which of the following describes the author's probable attitude toward Sir
Christopher Wren's plans?
A. He feels it would have been a mistake to rebuild London according to Wren's
designs.
B. He feels it was a mistake for London not to have been rebuilt according to Wren's
designs.
C. He feels that someone rather than Wren should have been chosen to plan the
rebuilding.
D. He feels that Wren's ideas had much more influence than commonly
acknowledged.
90. Which of the following would be an appropriate title for the passage?
A. "The Life and Times of Sir Christopher Wren"
B. "The Rebuilding of London"
C. "The Holocaust of Fish Street Hill"
D. "The London That Might Have Been"
PART 2: WRITING (2.0 points)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.1/ each)
For questions 91–95, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
has the same meaning as the first sentence
91. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.
 It
........................................................................................................................................
92. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one.
 The blue dress is three
......................................................................................................
93. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaint about it.
 Should
..............................................................................................................................
94. Her success went beyond her expectation.
 Never
................................................................................................................................
95. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
 The more
..........................................................................................................................
For questions 96–100, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word
given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given.
96. I didn't realise what she would suffer in the first place. (did)
 Little ………………………………………………………………………………. would suffer in the first place.
97. Unfortunately, she's not lucky these days. (out)
 Unfortunately, she's …………………………………………………these days.
98. Thomas never pays much attention to what his mother says. (notice)
 Thomas doesn't ever ………………………………………………………………………………. what his mother says.
99. Having even a small quantity of drugs in your possession is illegal. (law)
 It ………………………………………………………………………………. have even a small quantity of drugs in
your possession.
100. Everybody knows that the president died in a plane crash. (knowledge)
 It is ………………………………………………………………………………. the president died in a plane crash.
Part 2: PARAGRAPH WRITING (1.0 pt)
Write a paragraph of about 150 words about this topic:
“Should students be allowed to use cell phone at school?”
Give specific examples and reasons to support your idea.
Note: You are not allowed to include any personal information such as your name,
your school’s name, your address ... in your writing.
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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 9 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019

Họ và tên thí sinh:...............................................................số báo danh:....................

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
------
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear a teacher, talking to a group of new students, who are
going on a tour of a college. Choose the correct answer from A, B or C for each
question.
1. What do students joining the college need to do quickly?
A. make new friends B. find their way around C. get to know
their teachers
2. How many students are starting at the college this year?
A. 430 B. 520 C. 970
3. What takes placc in the Robinson Building every month?
A. an exhibition B. a film show C. a talk by an
artist
4. What has the college introduced this year?
A. rules for using the computers
B. student identity cards
C. higher book tines
5. Students cannot use the Sports Centre for part of next term because of
A. building work
B. national competitions
C. students taking exams there
Part 2. You will hear a man, talking on the radio, about a film festival. Fill in each
blank with no more than two words or number.
CITY FILM FESTIVAL
Dates of Festival
• opens on 15th (6) ………………………….. for three weeks
New prize-winning films
• short films
• documentaries
• (7) …………………………..
Locations showing festival films
• Gifford Road Cinema
• Riverside Arts Centre
• outdoor screenings in (8) …………………………..
• Talk by guest speaker, Paul Greenwood
• about the career of Marco Rossi who was a (9) …………………………..
 • followed by the film
• Three Colours
Tickets
• in person at Sifford Road Cinema
• by telephone on (10) …………………………..
• online at www.cityfilmfest.co.uk
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. matchmaking B. face C. dating D. teenager
12. A. advice B. reconciled C. incident D. decisive
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that o f the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. supervisor B. catastrophe C. agriculture D. dictionary
14. A. convenient B. significant C. traditional D. fashionable
15. A. innocent B. initial C. abnormal D. impatient
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. – Mary: “I will never go mountaineering again.” – Linda: “Me_________.”
A. so B. too C. neither D. either
17. – Mary: “Thanks a lot for your help.” – John:  “_________.”
A. My happiness B. My excitement C. My delight D. My pleasure
18. – Tom: “When are we leaving for the concert?” – Kyle : “_________.”
A. No problem B. Certainly C. That’s right D. Straight awa
y
19. – Keith: “Have you got the time ?” – Piere: “_________.”
A. About half past ten. B. Sorry, I’m busy right now?
C. Yeah, help yourself. D. Next Tuesday.
20. – Mary: “________ is your car?” – John: “Honda.”
A. What kind B. How C. What trade D. What make
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Though he’s rich, he prefers to live in a modest little house.
A. attractive B. clever C. current D. humble
22. An elderly woman in a nearby farm house heard a car stop, an unusual occurrence
in so remote an area.
A. automatic B. distant C. savage D. mean
23. She had no idea what made him angry one minute and jovial the next.
A. incredulous B. merry C. revolting D. dizzy
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. With people having fewer kids these days, the local school can easily accommodate all
the children in the area.
A. discourage B. reject C. lay off D. sack
25. I don't want to change jobs. I'm quite content with my present position.
A. disappointed B. unsatisfied C. happy D. concerned
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. I__________ do that if I were you.
A. won't B. don't C. shan't D. wouldn't
27. While studying he was financially dependent__________ his wife.
A. of B. to C. from D. on
28. He often__________ about his expensive car.
A. boasts B. shows C. prides D. praised
29. She isn't__________ well with the new manager.
A. going on B. getting on C. keeping on D. taking on
30. What do you mean, he's watching television? He's__________ to be washing the
car.
A. hoped B. thought C. supposed D. expected
31. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is B. is known as C. known as D. that is
known as
32. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are C. Are giant pandas D. Giant
panda is
33. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She's a completed _______ child.
A. wounded B. spoilt C. damaged D. destroyed
34. _______ my experience, very few people really understand the problem.
A. To B. In C. With D. From
35. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. away B. out C. on D. off
36. Advances in special effects have brought a new _______ of life to the film industry.
A. surge B. lease C. time D. flash
37. The horror film scared the small child out of her _______.
A. skin B. nerves C. brain D. wits
38. There is a rumour that the National Bank is going to ________the company I am
working for.
A. take on B. take out of C. take off D. take over
39. The old woman came in, ________by a young man.
A. accompany B. to be accompanied C.
accompanying D. accompanied
40. No, I didn't know his number; ________I'd have phoned him.
 A. otherwise B. so C. therefore D. unless
41. Some people regard a sentence of Community Service as a very _______option.
A. light B. soft C. simple D. comfortable
42. The computer has changed the world _______.
A. irreplaceably B. irrevocably C. irredeemably D. irreparably
43. He tried to persuade his wife to go to the Antarctic for their holiday but to no
_______.
A. avail B. result C. benefit D. good
44. The controversy has been _______by the arrival of foreign businesses which are
seen as a threat to the local economy.
A. spurred B. charged C. inspired D. fuelled
45. If you don’t make a move soon, you’ll find yourself stuck in a _______and you’ll
never get anywhere.
A. trough B. hole C. groove D. rut
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. I felt that turning up at the wedding in jeans and a T-shirt was appropriacy
rather ………………………………. .
47. Dr. Smith, a famous ………………………………., has just published a book crime
about murder.
48. It's an ………………………………. and dangerous policy. logic
49. It is ………………………………. how any tournament player can make such explain
a mistake.
50. The ………………………………. problem should be solved before the end of theory
this month.
51. The ………………………………. of the employees have university degrees. major
52. This is one of the collections of clothes that ………………………………. the type
1930s.
53. He is too ………………………………. to want to borrow from anyone. rely
54. The bride was ………………………………. dressed in white. style
55. The student failed the math exam because he forgot the formulaic
………………………………..

PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)

There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
Line Passage
1 An artist went to a beautifully part of a country for a holiday and
2 stayed with a farmer. Everyday he went out with his paints and his brushs
3 and painted from morning to evening, and then when it got dark, he went
4 back to the farm and had a good dinner before go to bed. At the end of his
5 holiday he wanted to pay the farmer, but the farmer said: "No, I do not want
 6 money, but give me one of your pictures. What is money? In a week it will all
7 be finished, but your painting will be still here." The artist was very pleased
8 and thanked the farmer for saying so kind of things. The farmer still smiled
9 and answer "It is not that. I have a son in London. He wants to become a
artist. When he comes here next month, I will show him your picture, and
then he will no want to become an artist any more. I think."
Line Error Correction
1 00. …………………………………………..  …………………………………………..
……….. 56. …………………………………………..  …………………………………………..
……….. 57. …………………………………………..  …………………………………………..
……….. 58. …………………………………………..  …………………………………………..
……….. 59. …………………………………………..  …………………………………………..
……….. 60. …………………………………………..  …………………………………………..
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. Stop talking and concentrate ……………….…..your work.
62. There has been a steady decrease ……………….…..the number of visitors.
63. I don't think he'll ever get ……………….…..the shock of his wife's death.
64. I'm afraid a rise in salary is ……………….…..of the question just now.
65. Take the number 7 bus and get ……………….…..at Forest Road.
66. These old houses are going to be pulled ……………….…..soon.
67. He often boasts ……………….…..his expensive car.
68. I took someone else's coat from the cloakroom ……………….…..mistake.
69. If you want to be healthy, you should cut ……………….…..on your smoking.
70. David was angry with himself ……………….…..letting the others see his true feelings.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
How men first learnt to (71) ________ words is unknown; in other words, the origin
of language is a (72) ________. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (73)
________ invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and
things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (74)
________ certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those
sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (75) ________ spoken or
written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have great
thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that (76) ________ powerfully to
our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary
(77) ________. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can (78) ________
his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and
association can (79) ________ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose
our words carefully, (80) ________ they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
71. A. invent B. create C. make D. discover
72. A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend
73. A. whatever B. however C. somewhat D. somehow
74. A. at B. upon C. with D. to
75. A. if B. however C. whether D. though
76. A. interest B. appeal C. attract D. lure
77. A. prose B. work C. form D. style
78. A. carry B. convey C. transfer D. transmit
79. A. take B. send C. break D. move
80. A. or B. so C. although D. because
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions
nearits center that convert hydrogen to helium. The Sun has existed in its present
state for about four billion six hundred million years and is thousands of times larger
than the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest ofthe Sun’s life will
be like. About five billion years from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become
hotter. The surface temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the center will
increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of the Sun will expand
approximately 35 million miles,about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest
planet to the Sun. The Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will
become too high for life to exist.
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to
shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth, it will become a white dwarf star. The
Sun may throw off huge amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions
as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and
will have lost its heat. Such a star is called a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a
black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere remains there, it will
have frozen over the Earth’s surface.
81. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun ______.
A. is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
B. will continue to be a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
C. has been in existence for 10 billion years
D. is rapidly changing in size and brightness
82. What will probably be the first stage of change for the Sun to become a red giant?
A. Its surface will become hotter and shrink
B. It will throw off huge amounts of gases
C. Its central part will grow smaller and hotter
D. Its core will cool off and use less fuel
83. When the Sun becomes a red giant, whatwill the atmosphere be like on the Earth?
A. It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the sun.
B. It will become too hot for life to exist.
 C. It will be almost destroyed by nova explosions.
D. It will freeze and become solid.
84. When the Sun has used up its energy as a red giant, it will ______.
A. get frozen B. cease to exist C. stop to expand D. become
smaller
85. Large amounts of gases may be released fromthe Sun at the end of its life as a
______.
A. black dwarf B. white dwarf C. red giant D. yellow dwarf
86. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be ______.
A. the same size as the planet Mercury B. around 35 million miles in
diameter
C. a cool and habitable planet D. thousands of times smaller than it
is today
87. The Sun will become a black dwarf when ______.
A. the Sun moves nearer to the Earth B. it has used up all its fuel as a
white dwarf
C. the core of the Sun becomes hotter D. the outer regions of the Sun
expand
88. The word “there” in the last sentence of paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the planet Mercury B. the core of a black dwarf
C. our own planet D. the outer surface of the Sun
89. This passage is intended to ______.
A. describe the changes thatthe Sun will go through
B. present a theory about red giant stars
C. alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
D. discuss conditions on the Earth in the far future
90. The passage has probably been taken from ______.
A. a scientific journal B. a news report
C. a work of science fiction D. a scientific chronicle
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
For questions 91–95, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
has the same meaning as the first sentence
91. The hurricane blew the roof off the house.
 The house
......................................................................................................................................
92. Just after solving one problem, I was faced with another.
 Scarcely
......................................................................................................................................
93. No students in my class can speak English as fluently as she does.
 She speaks
....................................................................................................................................
94. “I don’t want to be criticized by non-professionals”, said the film star. 
 The film star objected
..............................................................................................................
95. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease.
 Enormous
....................................................................................................................................
For questions 96–100, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word
given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given.
96. He should think about applicants’ experience when hiring new staff. (into)
 He should ……………………………………………………………………………………… when hiring new staff.
97. Brain was really interested in American history in his school days. (interest)
 Brain ………………………………………………………………………………… American history in his school days.
98. They were keen to hear the president's speech. (ears)
 They are ……………………………………………………………………………… the president's speeh.
99. Do you feel that your English is getting better? (progress)
 Do you think you …………………………………………………………………………… in English?
100. It was your mistake for you to insult Mike. (should)
 You ……………………………………………………………………………………… Mike.
Part 2:
Write a paragraph of about 150 words about this topic:
“Should supermarkets charge for plastic bags in order to encourage the use of
reusable bags?”
Give specific examples and reasons to support your idea.
Note: You are not allowed to include any personal information such as your name,
your school’s name, your address ... in your writing.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

BÌNH PHƯỚC NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 10 ĐỀ THI MÔN tiếngAnh (Chuyên)
(Đề thi này gồm có 08 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút Ngày thi: …../2019

Họ và tên thí sinh: ......................................................................................... số báo danh: ....................

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
Part 1. You will hear a man, called Martin Carter, talking on the radio, about a
trip he is going to make in a balloon. Choose the correct answer from A, B or C
for each question.
1. When is the balloon flight most likely to begin?
A. January B. August C. December
2. What is different about his new balloon?
A. It is easier to land. B. It is lighter. C. It can carry
more fuel.
3. What did he find difficult on his last flight?
A. He couldn't eat the food. B. His radio didn’t work properly. C. He got too little
sleep.
4. What will he leave behind this time?
A. maps B. books C. his sleeping
bag
5. What does he enjoy most on his trips?
A. the views B. being alone C. the silcnce
Part 2. You will hear a woman, talking on the radio, about hostels in the Easton
area. Fill in each blank with no more than two words or numbers.
Recommended hostels
in the East on area
Hostel Nova
- In town centre, not far from the (6) …………………………….
- Has a new (7) …………………………….
Carney Hostel
- 1 Km from town centre
- Has view across the park
- (8) …………………………….provided at the hostel
Tidbury Hostel
- New hostel in village of Tidbury
- In the old (9) …………………………….on a hill
- Will open on (10) …………………………….
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from
that of the rest in each of the following questions.
11. A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. reliable
12. A. changeable B. manage C. average D. singer
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different
from that of the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. attitude B. argument C. relevant D. assistant
14. A. interact B. concentrate C. counsellor D. influence
15. A. mosquito B. elephant C. buffalo D. dinosaur
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
16. On the street:
– The man: “Have you found a good place to eat yet?
– The woman: “Yes, there’s a wonderful restaurant right down the street from the
school.”
– The man: “___________?”
– The woman: “Yes. And the food is good too.”
A. Is it really like that B. Are the prices reasonable
C. Do you like good food D. Do they often go there
17. – “I think the teacher should give us more exercise.” – “_________.”
A. Yes, let’s B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish D. That’s just what I was thinking
18. – “Must we do it now?” – “No, you __________.”
A. won’t B. needn’t C. can’t D. mustn’t
19. – Harry: "_________." – Kate: "Yes. I'd like to buy a computer."
A. Do you look for something? B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it? D. Can you help me buy something?
20. – Peter: “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.” – Kate: “Uh,
really? _______!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations
C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. He was met by a throng of journalists and photographers.
A. crowd B. barrier C. group D. few
22. Some of the business practices of that chemical company make it a menace in
this area.
A. large employer B. major producer C. leader D. threat
23. Newspapers are often guilty of distorting the truth.
A. abusing B. breaking C. twisting D. harming
Task 2: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. We did a thorough search of the house, but we couldn't find my car keys.
A. complete B. careless C. funny D. smooth
25. It is difficult to tolerate person who continually lies.
A. welcome B. reject C. dismiss D. get rid of
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
26. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She’s a completely________child.
A. destroyed B. damaged C. wounded D. spoilt
27. I’d ________you didn’t practice playing the trumpet while I’m trying to study.
A. rather B. prefer C. like D. better
28. ________you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?
A. Should B. Were C. Had D. Provided
that
29. When the bombing started, plans were made for an immediate ________of the
city.
A. vacation B. departure C. exodus D. evacuation
30. In blank verse, ________of ten syllables, five of which are accented.
A. consists of each line B. line consists of each
C. it consists of each line D. each line consists
31. Did you see the ________envelop?
A. small brown square B. small square brown
C. brown small square D. square brown small
32. The police are going to take a much tougher________towards crimes like
burglary.
A. method B. procedure C. approach D. behavior
33. In order to cut ________, the company will no longer allow employees to claim for
first- class travel on their expenses.
A. prices B. fees C. charges D. costs
34. Tony seemed remarkably devoid of ________sense and did the most ridiculous
things.
A. common B. ordinary C. average D. everyday
35. A young tourist has been declared ________after he got lost in the mountains last
Monday.
A. absent B. deserter C. missing D. vanished
36. I am in a ________as how to use this CD Rom.
A. loss B. difficulty C. quandary D. mind- game
37. I hope this headache ________soon.
A. goes out B. comes away C. wears off D. passes
away
38. It is important to ________your qualifications to use.
A. turn B. let C. get D. put
39. It cannot be denied that fireworks are a serious fire ________.
A. accident B. mishap C. danger D. hazard
40. My parents always had a happily _______attitude to my staying out late in the
evening.
 A. cold- blooded B. long- suffering C. easy- going D. thick-
skinned
41. They are unlikely to find any new evidence because so much time has ________
since the crime.
A. spanned B. postponed C. lapsed D. elapsed
42. Mai is a student in Ms Lan's writing class. She is asking for Ms Lan's comments on
her last essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
- Mai: "You must have found reading my essay very tiring." - Ms Lan: "________. I
enjoyed it."
A. You are welcome B. Just in case C. At all costs D. Not in the
least
43. The ________against your having that kind of accident are about 500 to 1.
A. possibilities B. figures C. opportunities D. odds
44. ________ the two sisters, Mary is ________.
A. Of/ the prettier B. Between/ the prettiest
C. Of/ prettier D. Between/ the prettier
45. A: Do you think it will rain tonight? B: ________. I am attending the evening class.
A. I don't hope so B. I hope so C. I hope not D. I am not
hoping
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
46. The soldiers swore their …………………………….to the king. (loyal)
47. The leaders gave an …………………………….welcome to all the guests (enthusiasm)
48. He loved Mona for her honesty, her modesty and her (selfish)
……………………………..

49. She had a …………………………….that Mr. Engel was not completely (suspect)
honest
50. When you can …………………………….with somebody, you have partly (sympathy)
gained his or her trust.
51. Moving house would be …………………………….expensive. (prohibit)
52. The ecological consequences of a nuclear war are (calculate)
……………………………..

53. It was highly …………………………….of him to leave the children on their (responsible)
own in the pool.
54. He does a brilliant …………………………….of Charles. (person)
55. He …………………………….the envelope, so I couldn’t receive his mail. (addresses)
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line
number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below.
Number (00.) is done as an example.
 Line Passage
1 The second half of the twenty century saw more changes in
2 technology than in previous two hundred years. Penicillin has already been
3 discovered and used to treatment infections; there have been many remark
4 advances in medicine that have helped to increase our average life
5 expectancy way beyond that of our ancestors. Incredible innovations so as
6 television have changed the way we spend our leisure hours. Perhaps the
7 most important breakthrough, however, has been the microchip. Nobody
8 could have imagined, when it was first invented, that within a matter of years,
9 this tiny piece of silicon and circuit would be found in almost every household
10 object from the kettle to the video recorder. And nobody could have predicted
11 the sudden proliferation of computers that would completely change our lives,
12 allowing us accessing information from the other side of the world via the
13 Internet or send massages around the world by e-mail at the touch of a
button. Meanwhile, research into other aspects of information technology is
doing it easier and cheaper for us to talk to friends and relations around the
world.

Line Error Correction

1 00. twenty  twentieth
………. 56. …………………………………………………….  …………………………………………………….
………. 57. …………………………………………………….  …………………………………………………….
………. 58. …………………………………………………….  …………………………………………………….
………. 59. …………………………………………………….  …………………………………………………….
………. 60. …………………………………………………….  …………………………………………………….
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete
each of the following sentences.
61. The hotels were all full so we offered to put Carla ……………….….for the night.
62. An enquiry was set ……………….….into the use of chemicals in farming.
63. How are they going to make up ……………….….the time they wasted playing cards in the
barracks?
64. They turned me ……………….….for the job. I was really disappointed not to get it.
65. As you’ve arrived late, you’ll have to make ……………….….for the time you’ve lost.
66. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked it ……………….….and no wit's fine.
67. I consulted my lawyer about the matter and I shall act ……………….….his advice.
68. We have finally reached agreement ……………….….changing the contract terms with our
suppliers.
69. Please note that there is no connection ……………….….our company and the distributor.
70. Everyone in this town will benefit ……………….….the new hospital.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the
following passage.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (71) ________
complicated as it is serious. It is complicated (72) ________ much pollution is caused
by things that benefit people. (73) ________, exhaust from automobiles causes a
large percentage of air pollution.But the automobile (74) ________ transportation for
millions of people. Factories discharge much (75) ________ the material that pollutes
the air and water, but factories give employment to a large number of people. Thus, to
end (76) ________ greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (77)
________ using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do
that, of course. But pollution can be (78) ________ reduced in several ways. Scientists
and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the (79) ________ of pollution that
such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce
laws that (80) ________ businesses and traffic to stop, orto cut down on certain
polluting activities.
71. A. as B. more C. less D. like
72. A. so B. while C. though D. because
73. A. Specific B. For example C. Such as D. Like
74. A. takes B. affords C. carries D. provides
75. A. about B. for C. of D. with
76. A. or B. and C. as well D. then
77. A. start B. continue C. stop D. go on
78. A. carefully B. unexpectedly C. gradually D. little
79. A. way B. amount C. number D. figure
80. A. forbid B. prevent C. request D. require
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
At the beginning of the nineteenth century, the American educational system was
desperately in need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich.
There were very few public schools because of the strong sentiment that children who
would grow up to be laborers should not “waste” their time on education but should
instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this public
sentiment that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the
most famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any
citizen to be uneducated. As Superintendent of Education in the state of
Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various changes, which were soon
matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school year
from five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher
education and raising teacher salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a
sudden improvement in the educational system, they at least increased
publicawareness as to the need for a further strengthening of the system.
81. The best title for the passage could be ______.
A. A Flight for Change
B. American Education in the Beginning of the 19th Century
C. Nineteenth - the Century of Reform
D. The Beginnings of Reform in American Education
82. The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed ______.
A. a high level of intelligence B. a strong educational background
C. a lot of money D. good grades
83. The word “desperately” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. partly B. urgently C. completely D. obviously
84. The author of the passage puts the word “waste” in quotation marks because he
______.
A. does not want students to waste their time on education
B. is quoting someone else who said that education was a waste of time
C. wants to emphasize how much time is wasted on education
D. thinks that education is not really a waste of time
85. According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for
Americans because ______.
A. education at the time was so cheap
B. people had nothing else to do except go to school
C. Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
D. all citizens should be educated in a republic
86. The word “reformers” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. people who work for the government
B. people who really enjoy teaching
C. people who try to change things for the better
D. people who believe that education is wasted
87. The word “citizen” in the passage mostly means ______.
A. a person who lives in a particular city
B. a person who works in a particular place
C. a person who has the legal right to belong to a particular country
D. a person who works, especially one who does a particular kind of work
88. From 1837 to 1848, Horace Mann ______.
A. worked as a headmaster in a schoolin the state of Massachusetts
B. raised money for the educational development in Massachusetts
C. funded many projects to improve the educational system for Americans
D. managed education in the state of Massachusetts
89. According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE?
A. Horace Mann began raising teachers’ salaries.
B. Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work.
C. Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the United States.
D. Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.
90. According to the passage, which of the following is a change that Horace Mann
instituted?
A. The five-month school year. B. Better teacher training.
C. Increased pay for students. D. The matching of other districts’
policies.
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
For questions 91–95, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
has the same meaning as the first sentence
91. The living-room hasn’t been painted for many years.
 We ………………………………………………………………………..............................................................................................
92. Harry broke his leg, and also injured his shoulder.
 Not only ………………………………………………………………………................................................................................
93. The course finished with a big party.
 At the end
94. I wish I hadn’t heard that!
 I’d rather you ………………………………………………………………………....................................................................
95. There is a rumour that you stole it.
 It ………………………………………………………………………...................................................................................................
For questions 96–100, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word
given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given.
96. “I am sorry I didn’t ring you earlier,” Tom said to you. (apologized)
 Tom ………………………………………………………………………me earlier
97. Because he didn’t follow his father’s instruction in the first place, he is in trouble
now. (been)
 Had ………………………………………………………………………in the first place, he wouldn’t be in trouble
now.
98. The man was unsuccessful in rescueing the victims in the flood. (vain)
 The man ………………………………………………………………………the victims in the flood.
99. She didn’t pay any attention to his suggestions. (notice)
 She did ………………………………………………………………………his suggestions.
100. Because of his illness he could not work effectively. (impossible)
 His illness ………………………………………………………………………to work effectively.
PART 2: PARAGRAPH WRITING
Write a paragraph (140 words) about the limitations of the Internet.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………
UBND HUYỆN HÀ TRUNG
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN
Năm học: 2018 - 2019 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 25 tháng 09 năm 2018
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Họ tên thí sinh: ......................................................Phòng thi số:..........Số báo
danh:.............
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from the rest in the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. curriculum B. particular C. flexible D.
economics
2. A. naked B. checked C. booked D. ticked
3. A. result B. destroy C. simple D.
construct
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the
other three words in each question. (3 pts)
1. A. primary B. religion C. tropical D.
friendliness
2. A. magazine B. understand C. embroider D.
entertain
PART B: VOCABULARY AND
GRAMMAR (40 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.
(10 pts)
1. “ Would you like me to get you a taxi ?” “......................................
”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother. D. Yes, I see.
2.home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in
the benifits of traditional schooling.
A. Despite that B. Because C. Inspite of D. Even though
3. Put all the toys away...............................someone slips and falls on them
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. as long as
4. There’s almost no place.....................................that isn’t affected by pollution.
A. on earth B. on the world C. on the earth D. in the
earth
5. Marie Curie was the first woman....................................two Nobel prizes.
A. who awarded B. to be awarded C. awarding D. that was
awarding
6. “Would you mind putting the parcel in the post for me?” “........................................
”
A. Don’t mention it B. Yes, I would. I’ll do it now.
C. Not at all. I’ll do it today D. Yes, of course
7. “ I don’t think we should exercise late at night.” “..................................................
”
A. Neither do I B. I think so, too C. So do I D. I don’t,
 neither.
8. If you agree, I would like to........................a suggestion.
A. show B. set up C. reach D. make
9. Never....................till tomorrow what you can do today.
A. put out B. put off C. put away D. put down
10. It’s hard to...................well with him. He’s got such a difficult character.
A. get over B. get on C. get into D. get in
11. You look exhausted..........................a long way?
A. Did you run C. Have you run
B. Have you been running D. Had you been running
12. “Would you be willing to travel as part of your job?” “.......................................
”
A. That would be great B. I don’t mind it
C. I’d rather not D. A, B or C
13. There are only two seats left, and I don’t want to seat near the door. I’ll take.
…………….
A. another one B.each other one C. other one D. the other one
 14.two and one half hours to climb to the top of the Empire State Building.
A. Typically taking it B. Typically takes it
C. It typically takes D. To take it typically
15. Alfalfa is..........................for livestock.
A. a primarily grown crop C. a grown crop primarily
B. grown primarily a crop D. a crop grown primarily
16. I really like Venice because it is.........................unique city with a lot of manmade rivers.
A. the B. an C. a D. no article
17. He was….........George in the examination list.
A. on B. above C. over D. up
18.the newspapers have revealed so far can justify the action taken by the Army.
A. Nothing of that B. Nothing that C. Nothing as D. Nothing what
19. When you go out, will you get me........................of Newsweek?
A. a copy B. an edition C. a paper D. a publication
20. They said they could order it for me because they didn’t have my size in………………
A. shop B. hold C. store D. stock
Question II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
1. I didn’t go out last night because I was ... and I didn’t want to see anyone. DEPRESS
2. You’re always …………… Isn’t there anything that makes you happy? MISERY
3. We can only catch criminals if we have the full ……of the general public. COOPERATE
4. She gave me a very……look when she saw that I wasn’t wearing the correct. APPROVE
5. The bloodstain on her dress was very……………………… NOTICE
6. You shouldn’t interrupt someone in ……………………... . SENTENCE
7. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the ………… of the newspaper. COME
8. If your work is ……….you won’t get a raise. SATISFY
9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ………… . SPORT
10. I am afraid you have been ………… .She no longer works for us. INFORM
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
Dear Jane,
I’m sorry I haven’t written to you for so long, but I (BE)…(1)…very busy lately. All last month I
(HAVE)…(2)…exams, and I haven’t done anything else but study for ages. Anyway, I (STOP)
…(3)…studying now, and I (WAIT)…(4)…for my exam results. As you can see from this letter, I
(CHANGE)…(5)…my address and (LIVE)…(6)…in Croydon now. I decided that I wanted a
change from central London because it has become so expensive. A friend of mine (TELL)
…(7)…me about this flat, and I moved here about two months ago. When you (COME)…(8)…to
London this Summer, please visit me. I (STAY)…(9)…here until the middle of August. Then I
(GO)…(10)…on holiday to Sctoland.
Please write to me soon,
Margaret.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Question I: Fill in the blanks with one suitable word. The first letter of the word has been
provided (10pts)
A story is a work of imagination. The people…(1)…write stories write them in order to give
pleasure to…(2)…who read stories. Story-readers are, generally…(3)…, women of all ages and
younger men. Readers love the start of a story, where there are new and sometimes strange people
to be…(4)...for the first time. They enjoy the story itself, the gentleness and the violence, the loves
and the…(5)… , with which a good writer interests his…(6)…. . They enjoy the end of the story,
whether it is happy or…(7)… . The reader’s chief purpose in all this is to…(8)...from ordinary life
for a short…(9)… . Older men, as a rule, find their ordinary lives…(10)...pleasant to run away
from.

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Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. (10 pts)
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life.
…(1)…human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world…(2)…on
consuming two- thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so…(3)…to
stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the…(4)…resource we have by which all people can survive
and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is…(5)…built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources
are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover…(6)… . We discharge pollutants into
the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result, the planet’s ability to support
people is being…(7)…at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are…(8)…
increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need
food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to…(9)…us fed, comfortable,
healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will…(10)…indefinitely.
But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
1. A. Yet B. Still C. Although D. Despite
2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely
4. A. only B. individual C. lone D. alone
5. A. sooner B. either C. neither D. rather
6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely
7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut
8. A. making B. having C. taking D. doing
9. A. hold B. maintain C. keep D. stay
10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (5 pts)
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in
season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of
fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in
1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of
canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and
preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but
supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had
fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all
kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their
daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers
to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship
perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern
city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously
available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of
iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had
been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice
plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and
remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly
foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat.
Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and
dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

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 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage B. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
C. Commercial production of ice D. Population movements in the nineteenth century
2. The phrase "in season" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
3. During the 1860's, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet
4. The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances
5. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives

PART D: WRITING (30 pts)

Question I: Complete the second sentence with the same meaning as the first one. (10 pts)
1. People always laugh at his face, and he dislikes it.
 He hates ……………………………………………………………………………….
2. I am sorry I forgot to phone grandma.
 I apologise …………………………………………………………………………….
3. Given fair warning, I could have avoided that date.
 If you had told me ..........................................................................................................
4. All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
 No matter what their ……………..…………………………………..……………….
5. Except for the inspector, everyone was in uniform.
 The inspector was the ……………………………………………..………………….
6. Bill found a job very quickly.
 It didn’t ……………………………………………………………………………….
7. You will have to spend at least $500 to get that sort of camera.
 You won’t get ……………………………………………………………..………….
8. They cancelled the flight because of the heavy rain.
 So heavily....................................................................................................................
9. Working for this travel agency will not be possible without a good command of English.
 Unless you have ...........................................................................................................
10. How well I sleep depends on how late I go to bed.
 The later.....................................................................................................................
Question II: Using the word given and other words, complete the second sentences so that it
has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the word given (10 pts)
1. I supposed you were very tired after your long walk. (MUST)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
2. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
3. Flooding in this region was the result of the heavy rain. (RESULTED)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
4. He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee. (EARNED)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
5. Anna has improved a lot this term. (PROGRESS)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
6. Martin had difficulty in accepting the loss of his money. (HARD)
 …………………………………………………….……………………

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 7. Although her leg hurt, Jill finished the race. (PAIN)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
8. Everyone but Jane failed to produce the correct answer. (SUCCEEDED)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
9. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievement. (MUCH)
 …………………………………………………….……………………
10. Quite by chance, Alice met Peter at the station. (RAN)
 …………………………………………………….……………………

Question III: Write a paragraph of 120-150 words to support the argument that secondary
school students shouldn’t spend too much time playing computer games. (10 points)

(THE END)
HSG 9.
A.LISTENING

Part 1: (14 points) There are seven questions in this part. For each question there are three pictures and
a short recording. Choose the correct picture and put a tick (√) in the box below it

1
2
 Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Part 2: (12 points)You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer
about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. For each question, put a tick ( √) in the
correct box.

8. How long has Britta lived in Berlin? A.  four years

A.  six years
B.  twenty years

9. What does Britta say about living in Berlin? A  She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic
noise.
B  She misses the museums and theatres
in Bonn. C  She likes living in a big, busy
city.

10. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is A  a rather expensive place to live.
B  a good place to eat out.
C  a long way from the city centre.

11. How does Britta usually travel around in Berlin?A  She walks
B  She uses her bicycle.
C  She uses her tram or bus.

12. Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, A  to the park with her.
likes going B  to the shops with his parents.
C  to a gallery with her.
13. Britta has lots of friends who A  live near her.
B  work with
her.
C  are still in England.
Your answers:

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 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

Part 3: (12 points) You will hear a man called Stephen Millas talking to a group of people about a
trip to India to see tigers. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered
space.

THE TIGER TOUR

Stephen’s profession: (14) Date of departure: (15) _ Number of tourists

in group: (16) Type of accommodation: (17)
Means of transport in the park: - Open truck in the north, (18) in the south. Meal NOT include: (19)

Your answers:
14. 15. 16.
17. 18. 19.

Part 4: (12 points) You will hear a conversation between a boy, Carl, and a girl, Susanna,
about a school concert. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, put a
tick (√) in the box under A for YES. If it is not correct, put a tick (√) in the box under B for NO.
A B
YES NO
20. Susanna feels shy about playing violin in public  
21. Carl and Susanna share the same opinion about
practising their instruments regularly.  
22. Susanna’s parents refuse to allow her to give up violin lessons.  
23. Carl aim is to have a career in music.  
24. Susanna thinks she would enjoy working in another country.  
25. Carl persuades Susanna to take part in the concert.  
Your answers:
20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

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 B. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1: (15 points) Read the following passage and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D)
best fits each gap. Write your answer in the space provided.
Stressful situations that emerge almost every day in life (1) to be unavoidable. However, we can do
little sometimes to ward off a misfortune or unpleasant occurrence which may befall us (2) as only it
can. At such a moment, one may hit the roof give into the (3) of the situation or, ideally, put a
brave face on it trying to bear the burden.
Can you (4) in your mind an hour spent in a traffic jam, say, this morning? Do you light one cigarette
after (5) ? Do you sound the horn every few seconds like the other neurotics? Or do you take a
stance and different good use of the time drawing up a schedule for the days to come?
(6)
To withstand the stressful moment you can also (7) a crossword puzzle, listen to your
favorite music or even (8) a menu for your Sunday dinner. In fact, whatever way you (9) to
the annoying situation, you can exert no impact (10) it as the traffic jam will only reduce in due
course. Nevertheless, your reaction might (11) influence your disposition for the (12) of the day.
The inability to confront a stressful occurrence like that with a deal of composure and sensibility
adds (13) more strain to your life and in this way puts your well-being in jeopardy. (14) , it’s the
seemingly negligible hardships we stumble on daily that run double the risk of developing serious
health disorders rather than our isolated tragedies however painful they may be.
Given that so many of those wretched stress (15) troubles affect us in a day, we should, at
best, try to avoid them or possibly make radical alterations in the way we lead our daily lifestyles.

1. A. have B. need C. want D. seem

2. A. expectedly B. expected C. unexpectedly D.
unexpected
3. A.carelessness B. helplessness C. happiness D. kindness
4. A. envision B. observe C. picture D. conclude
5. A. another B. other C. one another D. one other
6. A. take B. make C. get D. have

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 7. A. study B. play C. take D. do
8. A. compose B. draw C. read D. pay
9. A. confront B. deal C. respond D. challenge
10. A. in B. at C. on D. with
11. A. considerably B. considered C. considering D. considerable
12. A. work B. rest C. whole D. time
13. A. any B. many C. no D. much
14. A. Surprisedly B. Surprisingly C. Surprised D. Surprising
15. A. included B. includes C. including D. includes

Your anwers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 2: (15 points) Fill ONE suitable word into each of the numbered blanks in the following
passage. Write your answers in the space provided.
ARE ZOOS A GOOD THING?
Zoos are hugely popular attractions (16) adults and children alike. But are they actually a good
thing?

Critics of zoos would argue that animals often suffer

(17) and mentally by being enclosed. Even the best
artificial environments can't come close to matching the space, diversity, and freedom that animals
have in
(18) natural habitats. This deprivation causes many zoo animals to become stressed or
mentally ill.
Capturing animals in the wild also causes much suffering by splitting up families. Some zoos make
animals behave unnaturally: for example, marine parks often force dolphins and whales to perform
tricks. These mammals may die decades earlier (19) their wild relatives, and some even try to
commit suicide.
On the other hand, by bringing people and animals (20) , zoos have the potential to educate
the public about conservation issues and inspire people to protect animals and their habitats. Some
zoos provide a safe environment for (21) which have been mistreated in circuses, or pets which have
been abandoned. Zoos also carry out important research into subjects like animal behaviour and how
to (22) illnesses.
One of the most important modern functions of zoos (23) supporting international
breeding
programmes, particularly for endangered species. In the wild, some of the rarest species have
difficulty (24) finding mates and breeding, and they might also be threatened (25) poachers, loss of
their habitat and predators. A good zoo will enable these species to live and breed in a secure
environment. In addition, as numbers of some wild species drop, there is an increased danger of
populations becoming too genetically similar. Breeding programmes provide a safeguard: zoo-bred
animals can be released into the wild to increase genetic diversity.
(26) , opponents of zoos say that the vast majority of captive breeding programmes do not
release animals back into the wild. Surplus animals are sold not only to other zoos but (27) to
circuses or hunting ranches in the US or South Africa, (28) some people are willing to pay a lot of
money for the chance to kill an animal in a fenced enclosure. Often, these animals are familiar with
humans and have very little chance of escaping.

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 So, are zoos good for animals or not? Perhaps it all (29) on how well individual zoos are
managed, and the benefits of zoos can surely outweigh their harmful effects. However, it is
understandable (30) many people believe imprisoning animals for any reason is simply wrong.
Your anwers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

Part 3: (20 points) Read the passage and choose the correct answer (from A, B, C or D) for
each question. Write your answers in the space provided.
The biologist’s role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the
discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value
systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned
the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved. This
emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values
that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of
society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions,
particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man’s control of his
environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary development.
As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by
which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to be,
such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for example, which
traits should be selected for change? In case of genetic deficiencies and diseases, the desirability of
the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far
outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find
ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant efforts to improve the
quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the problem of
surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modern
industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of
how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate
the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to
determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet. For although
many of man’s present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic
in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself.
31. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about .
A. his basic research B. the development of new ideas
C. his manipulation of genes D. the consequences of his discoveries
32. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. an accomplishment B. a reality C. genetic engineering D. hereditary mechanism
33. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering .
A. may do us more harm than good B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. will change all human traits
34. The pronoun “they” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. cases of genetic deficiencies B. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanism
C. possibilities for genetic deficiencies D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
35. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage?

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 A. social and economic deficiencies B. manipulation of genes
C. genetic engineering misuse D. environmental pollution
36. The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. serious environmental pollution B. activities of an overpopulated society’s industry
C. activities of surplus human population D. the waste products dumped into our environment
37. The word “underlying” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by .
A. noticing B. causing C. finding D. depriving
38. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work .
A. harder and harder B. accurately and objectively

C. on social and political purposes D. with other social scientists

31. Which of the following is closest meaning to the word “ramifications” in paragraph 4?
A. useful experiments B. effective techniques
C. harmful consequences D. latest developments
32. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
A. To conduct a survey of the biologist’s role in society.
B. To urge biologists to solve the problems of surplus human population.
C. To emphasize the biologist’s role in solving the world’s problems.
D. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering.
- Your answers:
31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
Part 4: (10 points)
Task 1: (6 points) Match each paragraph to the correct heading. The first one has been
done for you. There are two extra paragraph headings that you DO NOT need.

A. FIRST PUBLIC APPEARANCES

B. SUCCESS AS A WRITER
C. JAMIE’S PRIVATE LIFE
D. AVOIDING FOREIGN CUISINE
E. WHO IS JAMIE OLIVER? - EXAMPLE
F. AN INTEREST BEGINS
G. HIS EDUCATION AT HOME AND ABROAD
H. THE PRICE OF SUCCESS
I. COOKING FOR PUBLIC FIGURES
Example: E
James Trevor “Jamie” Oliver, born 27 May 1975, is a British celebrity, chef, restaurateur, media
personality, known for his food-focused television shows, cookbooks and his global campaign for
better food education. He has attracted all generations of food lovers with his ultra-tasty receipts
shown on television.

33. : Restaurants and cooking are in his blood because his parents own and operate a
successful pub and restaurant in Cambridge, where he grew up. At the age of eight he started
cooking and helping the chefs prepare lunch for the pub’s customers.
34. : After uninteresting school years, he decided he wanted to cook and went on to study at
Westminster catering college, where he completed his formal training. After college, he travelled to
France to find out more about cooking and famous French cuisine. He also wanted to find his own
style
35. : Then, one day a producer saw him while he was working in the River Cafộ and his life
changed. He appeared in a documentary on the cafộ, and later he was contacted by the top

8
 production companies in England and the first series of films on his cooking were made. Soon he
was well-known by the public because he often featured in magazine articles
36. : To accompany the television series, Jamie’s first book came out, and it was number one
on the best-seller list for more than ten weeks. Then at the age of twenty-six, he became food editor
for a magazine.
37. : Jamie is even more popular with the British government. On one occasion he was
invited to 10 Downing Street to prepare a lunch for the British Prime Minister, who was entertaining
the Italian Prime Minister.
38. : Jamie’s passions are pasta and making bread. He also plays the drums with old school
friends in a band. He lives in London, where he travels around by motorbike. In July 2000, Oliver
married Juliette Norton. The couple met in 1993 and have four children.

Your answer:
41. 42. 43.
44. 45. 46.

Task 2. (4 points ) Read the six paragraphs again and write to complete the sentences with
NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS.
39. Jamie began cooking and helping the chefs in his parents’ pub in Cambridge in
40. In the River Cafộ Jamie was a producer.
41. Jamie for the British Priminister.
42. Juliette Norton is
Your answer:
47. 48. 49. 50.

Part 5: (10 points) You are going to read an article about history and storytelling. Five
sentences have been removed from the article. From the sentences A-F, choose the one
which fits each gap 51 – 55. There is one extra sentence you do not need to use. Write your
answers in the space provided.

WORLD TEACHERS' DAY

Who shapes the person you are the most? Parents or other family members are probably at the top
of the list for many people. (51) . Some of the most influential and successful people in the
world have a teacher in their childhood to thank for their success.
Can you imagine life without the personal computer? Well, without two of Bill Gates's high school
teachers, that could be our world today. Gates's maths teacher, Fred Wright, asked him to push
himself just a little bit harder. Maybe that's why the founder of Microsoft sometimes slept under his
desk in the office instead of going home to relax after work. (52) . Gates thanked his teachers,
saying, 'There's no way there would be a Microsoft without them doing what they did.' And he's not
the only one. Oprah Winfrey, talk show host, actress and TV producer, was inspired by her fourth
grade (age 9–10) teacher, Mrs. Duncan. Because of her, Oprah says, 'I felt I could take on the world.
You did exactly what teachers are supposed to do. They create a spark for learning that lives with
you from then on. It's why I have a talk show today.'

(53) . Antwone Fisher, a best-selling writer, grew up in foster homes, and didn't have
many adults that he could trust. But a primary school teacher, Mrs. Profitt, was the first adult he ever

9
trusted. 'She spoke to all of us the same way – with respect. No one spoke to me that way before. I
think that being with her for three years made all the difference.'

There are thousands more stories like this, (54) . That's why UNESCO celebrates teachers
on 5 October every year. UNESCO wants us to remember that education is a basic human right and
every child should have free education. UNESCO hopes to train 69 million new teachers by 2030 so
that everyone can go to school, because, sadly, 264 million children in the world today are not in
school because there aren't enough teachers. (55) .
A. from famous people and ordinary people all across the world

B. The chances are high that you'll find a teacher's words have helped you achieve these
things.

C. For some children, teachers are the only positively influential people in their lives.

A. And his drama teacher, Anne Stephens, helped him discover a love of the spotlight
when she made the sometimes withdrawn schoolboy the star of the school play.

B. They are often in places where life is already very difficult because they live in poor
areas or far away from cities and towns, or they are escaping war in their own countries.

C. But a close second place is very likely to go to a teacher.

Your answers:
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

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