Murielle Joseph

250 Pharmacology Questions & Answers

1. The nurse is administering the drug losartan (Cozaar) to a client with impaired liver
function. Recognizing this medication is a prodrug, the nurse monitors what effect?
Reduction in the desired effect
2. What pharmacokinetic property makes it difficult to treat a patient's brain tumor?
blood-brain barrier
3. A client with renal failure is at particular risk for what condition? ​rapid development of
drug toxicity
4. The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient who has received one last dose of a
medication that has a half-life of 7 days. What should the nurse tell the client?
T​hat they might continue to experience the effects of the drug for several days
5. A client is started on a thyroid hormone and has blood drawn to measure the plasma
concentration of the drug. The nurse explains that this will identify if: ​the drug is in the
therapeutic range
6. In situations in which it is critical to raise a client's drug plasma level quickly, what
should the nurse be prepared to administer? ​loading dose
7. When administering oral medications to a client, the nurse recognizes that some drugs
might be completely metabolized by the liver circulation before entering general
circulation. This effect is known as:​ first-pass effect
8. If the nurse administers medications to a client with renal failure, it is imperative that the
client be assessed for what development? ​drug toxicity
9. It is important that the nurse recognize that the standard or average dose predicts a
satisfactory therapeutic response in ​_50___​% of the population.
10. The preferred site for injections in an infant is the : ​vastus lateralis
11. A client prefers to purchase over-the-counter medications rather than prescription
medications whenever possible. The nurse informs the client that advantages to using
over-the-counter (OTC) medications include which of the following? ​Access is easier
12. The nurse explains to a client that during the FDA drug approval process, clinical
investigators from many different medical specialties address concerns such as: ​whether
the drug is effective
13. The elderly client has gastrointestinal bleeding. The client says to the nurse "I don't
understand this. All I did was take ibuprofen (Advil) for my arthritis." Which plan would
be best as it relates to the nurse's education of this client?
A plan to teach the advantages and disadvantages of ibuprofen (Advil)
14. The client says to the nurse, "My wife and I take the same drug, but we have different
side effects. Are we doing something wrong?" What is the best response by the nurse?
“No. Differences such as your sex can result in different side effects."
15. The client comes to the emergency department with a myocardial infarction. The client's
husband tells the nurse that his wife has been taking calcium carbonate (Tums) for years
for what she thought was indigestion. What is the best response by the nurse? ​"Your
wife was self-diagnosing, which is generally not a good idea."
16. The nurse is teaching a class for clients about over-the-counter (OTC) medications. The
nurse determines that education has been effective when the clients make which
statement?​ "We must read all the directions on the label and call the doctor's office if
they are not clear."
17. A patient is taking two prescription medications that both cause bradycardia. The nurse
should monitor the patient for which type of effect? ​An increased adverse effect
18. Which individual is at the highest risk for a drug-drug interaction? ​An adult who takes
eight prescription medications for a chronic condition
19. The nurse cares for a patient who is taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension.
The nurse should be most concerned if the patient makes which statement? ​"I drink a
glass of grapefruit juice each evening."
20. A patient is prescribed a medication to be taken on an empty stomach. Which statement
should the nurse include when providing patient teaching? ​"Take the medication 1 hour
before eating."
21. Which drugs decrease gastric acid secretion?​ ranitidine, misoprostol, PGE1 analog, H2
receptor antagonist
22. Which drug is used to treat cardiac arrhythmias?​ sotalol
23. What is NOT a significant physiological action of 5-HT serotonin? ​alteration of
bleeding time
24. Which drug should not be combined with an ACE inhibitor?​ spironolactone
25. Which diuretic has the largest diuretic effect, at least initially? ​loop of henle diuretics
26. What drug increases GI movement? ​metoclopramide
27. High-ceiling (loop) diuretics: ​can be used for acute pulmonary edema because they
are potent and fast acting
28. When therapeutic doses of atropine is given IV to a resting animal, the most likely effect
is: ​tachycardia because atropine blocks muscarinic receptors in the heart
29. How does succinylcholine work? ​depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Binds and
activates nicotinic receptors, causes desensitization of receptors
30. A client diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia has been prescribed asparaginase
(Elspar). Which finding represents possible medication toxicity? ​Prolonged blood
clotting times
31. The nurse is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client who is currently prescribed
probenecid (Benemid). Which food should the nurse encourage the client to continue to
eat? ​Spinach
32. The nurse is preparing a subcutaneous dose of bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)
prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Before giving the dose, the nurse checks to
see that which medication is available on the emergency cart? ​Atropine Sulfate
33. A glucocorticoid is prescribed for a client with adrenal insufficiency, and the nurse
reinforces medication instructions to the client. The nurse determines that the client needs
further teaching if the client states which action is necessary? ​Discontinue the
medication when symptoms subside.
34. A client with a history of spinal cord injury is receiving baclofen (Lioresal) for muscle
spasms. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a side effect of this
medication if the client experiences which sign/symptom? ​Drowsiness
35. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf).
Which laboratory result should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an
adverse effect of the medication? ​Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
36. The client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine
(d4t, Zerit). Which should the nurse monitor closely while the client is taking this
medication? ​Gait
37. The nurse is monitoring a client receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) for adverse
effects to the medication. Which sign/symptom indicates the presence of an adverse
effect? ​Drowsiness
38. The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome has begun therapy with zidovudine
(Retrovir). The nurse should carefully monitor which laboratory result during treatment
with this medication? ​Complete blood count
39. Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) is prescribed for a client following an allogenic kidney
transplant. The nurse reinforces which instructions to the client regarding the medication?
Blood levels of the medication will need to be measured periodically.
40. A client diagnosed with hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The client
returns to the clinic 1 week after beginning the medication and tells the nurse that the
medication has not helped. The appropriate nursing response to the client is based on
which information?​ Full therapeutic effect may take 1 to 3 weeks.
41. The nurse has a prescription to give a client albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and
beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (two puffs), by metered-dose inhaler. How should
the nurse administer these medications? ​Give albuterol first and then the
beclomethasone dipropionate.
42. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When
applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which is
the most appropriate nursing action? ​Informing the client that this is normal
43. A client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control
seizures. A phenytoin blood level is drawn, and the results reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL.
Which symptom would be expected as a result of this laboratory result? ​Slurred speech
44. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has been taking clozapine (Clozaril) for
the treatment of a schizophrenic disorder. Which laboratory study prescribed for the
client should the nurse specifically review to monitor for an adverse effect associated
with the use of this medication? ​White blood cell
45. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a
child. The nurse should administer this vaccine by which method? ​Subcutaneously in
the outer aspect of the upper arm
46. Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse
reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client to avoid which while taking this
medication? ​Alcohol
47. A client who takes a diuretic every evening expresses frustration with the medication and
wants to stop therapy. When the nurse explores the reasoning, the client says, "It keeps
me up all night. I feel as though I should bring my pillow into the bathroom!" Which
action can the nurse suggest to assist the client in successfully adapting to this therapy?
Switching to a morning administration of the medication
48. The nurse is assisting in reinforcing a teaching plan for a client given a prescription for
pioglitazone (Actos). The nurse plans to reinforce instructions to the client about which
information related to this medication? ​Signs of hypoglycemia
49. Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg orally three times daily, has been prescribed for a client for
seizure control. The nurse reinforces instructions regarding the medication to the client.
Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? ​"I will use
a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
50. A client with acute nonlymphocytic anemia receives treatment with cytarabine (ARA-C).
The nurse reinforces medication instructions to the client and tells the client that it is
important to report which adverse effect to the health care provider? ​Sore throat
51. A health care provider prescribes auranofin (Ridaura) for a client with rheumatoid
arthritis. Which data would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing toxicity
related to the medication? ​Complaints of a metallic taste in the mouth
52. The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client about the use of ceftriaxone, an antibiotic,
for treating cervical gonorrhea. There is a need for further teaching if the client makes
which statement? ​"I will take the pills for 20 full days."
53. A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum
calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as
prescribed to the client? ​Calcitonin
54. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia.
The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item? ​Orange
juice
55. Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors
the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic
toxicity from this medication? ​Tinnitus
56. The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied
sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective
when applied: ​At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun
57. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When
applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of
the following is the most appropriate nursing action? ​Informing the client that this is
normal
58. The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the
site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following
indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? ​Hyperventilation
59. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this
medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?
Triglyceride level
60. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP)
prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would
contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication? ​Vitamin A
61. The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would
monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the
medication were being applied to which of the following body areas? ​Axilla
62. The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that
the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the
nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for: ​acne
63. The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with
a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The
nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement
made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments? "​The
medication will permanently stain my skin."
64. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an
antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the
insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and
that the rate of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which
appropriate action? ​Notify RN
65. The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin
intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will
be prescribed?​ Pulmonary function studies
66. The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran).
Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this
medication? ​Uric acid
67. The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The
nurse who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that
which side effect is specifically associated with this medication? ​Orthostatic
hypotension
68. The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic
medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client: ​Consult with health
care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
69. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse
monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to
this medication?​ Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
70. The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be
receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the
registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following
is documented in the client's history? ​Pancreatitis
71. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse
understands that the primary action of this medication is to: ​Compete with estradiol for
binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.
72. Which immunosuppressant drug is the only one to treat ACTIVE organ rejection?
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone)
73. What are the 3 side effects of the immunosuppressant, Imuran? ​Leukopenia (Low WBC
count), Hepatotoxicity, Thrombocytopenia
74. Which immunosuppressant drug is used primarily for prevention of organ transplant
rejection? ​Cyclosporine
75. Benadryl, Dramamine, and Antivert are all antihistamines that cause what effects on the
body? ​Dry up secretions; may cause drowsiness and confusion
76. Which prokinetic antiemetic needs to be given 30mins before a meal due to its peristalsis
stimulation? ​Reglan
77. Which neuroleptic antiemetic must be diluted, given slowly IV push and used to dry up
secretions? ​Phenergan
78. Which serotonin blocker antiemetic is used for chemo & post-op nausea/vomiting?
Zofran
79. Which THC antiemetic gives chemo patients munchies, acting as a synthetic marijuana?
Marinol
80. Prilosec (omeprazole) is a proton pump inhibitor that should be used for how long? ​Short
term 4-8 weeks
81. Which drug is used to create a protective lining for the stomach? ​Carafate
82. What is an adsorbent used to treat diarrhea, can cause bleeding, and should not be given
to children with flu-like symptoms? ​Pepto-Bismol
83. Which hyperosmotic laxative can be given to patients for a laxative or ammonia levels?
Chronulac
84. How do saline laxatives, milk of mag, loosen stool? ​Draws salt and water into colon
85. The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically
monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?​calcium
86. A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is
prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed
to:​ Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
87. A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with
daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out
plans for discharge? ​Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
88. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH
insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client,
indicates the need for further teaching? ​Withdraws the NPH insulin first
89. A home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking
Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of
insulin. The nurse tells the client to:​ Refrigerate the insulin.
90. The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1
diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse knows that which of the following is the
appropriate intervention? ​The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to
question the prescription for the client.
91. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces
instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic
reaction to occur is: ​4 to 12 hours after administration
92. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus
previously had been well controlled with glyburide (DiaBeta) daily, but recently the
fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to
the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? ​Prednisone
93. A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been
prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the
medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is
necessary? ​"I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it."
94. A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab
(Remicade). The nurse assisting in caring for the client should take which action to
monitor the effectiveness of treatment?​Checking the frequency and consistency of
bowel movements
95. The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse
understands that this medication is used for which condition? ​Diarrhea
96. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse
evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client
reports the absence of which symptom? ​Heartburn
97. A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal
saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use after
giving this medication? ​Suction equipment
98. A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The
nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if
the client states that he or she will: ​Take the tablet with a full glass of water.
99. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to
teach the client to: ​Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
100. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse
teaches the client that the medication: ​Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears,
urine, and feces
101. Selegiline is used primarily to treat: ​Parkinson's disease
102. Valproic acid is used primarily to treat: ​seizures
103. Mometasone is used primarily to treat: ​asthma
104. Gabapentin is FDA-approved primarily to treat: ​seizures
105. Atenolol is classed as a(n): ​beta blocker
106. Pseudoephedrine is classed as a(n):​ non-specific adrenergic agonist
107. Tolterodine and oxybutynin are used to treat: ​urinary incontinence
108. Tolterodine and oxybutynin are used to treat: ​Organophosphate poisoning
109. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as:
Pharmacokinetics
110. The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to
as: ​contraindication
111. An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as: ​idiosyncrasy
112. The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to
as the: ​trade name
113. The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the:
onset of action
114. A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement
agency is classified as a: ​controlled substance
115. the study of the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect:
posology
116. a medication that does not require a physician’s service to obtain is referred to as:
nonprescription
117. The time a drug continues to produce effects is its: ​duration of action
118. Drug administration route demonstrating slowest onset of action: ​transdermal
119. In order for drugs to cross the blood brain barrier they must be: ​lipid soluble
120. First pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the: ​liver
121. Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as
Pregnancy Category:​ X
122. when a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, it is called ​enzyme
induction
123. rate of drug absorption increased by ​lipid solubility
124. Factor of individual variation is dependent upon patients attitude toward treatment:
placebo effect
125. A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She
notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the
antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of
omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in
releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through
this mechanism are called ​suicide substrates.
126. A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His
oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel
anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit
ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the
selectivity of a given drug is​ its target receptor cell-type distribution.
127. A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with
several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for
some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a
rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is
called ​tachyphylaxis.
128. Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to
endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular
mechanism is called ​downregulation
129. The main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha 1 receptors is
vasoconstriction
130. The mechanism of action of methyldopa is: ​formation of a false transmitter in
adrenergic nerve ending
131. The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is ​epinephrine
132. Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are
classified as ​muscarinic
133. The nurse teaches a client about which common side effect of analeptics?
Nervousness
134. The nurse who is teaching the client to self-administer medications explains to the
client that which drug treats narcolepsy? ​Modafinil
135. A newborn client is in respiratory distress. The nurse anticipates preparation for
which medication to be given? ​Theophylline
136. It is important for the nurse teaching the client regarding secobarbital (Seconal) to
include which information about secobarbital? ​It is a short-acting drug that may cause
one to awaken early in the morning.
137. A client taking lorazepam (Ativan) asks the nurse how this drug works. The nurse
should respond by stating that it is a benzodiazepine that acts by which mechanism?
Increasing the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid
(GABA) to GABA receptors
138. A client is taking zolpidem (Ambien) for insomnia. The nurse prepares a care plan
that includes monitoring of the client for side effects/adverse reactions of this drug.
Which is a side effect? ​Headache
139. An 86-year-old patient is being discharged to home on digitalis therapy and has very
little information regarding the medication. Which statement best reflects a realistic
outcome of patient teaching activities? ​The patient and patient's daughter will state
the proper way to take the drug.
140. A patient has a new prescription for a blood pressure medication that may cause him
to feel dizzy during the first few days of therapy. Which is the best nursing diagnosis for
this situation? ​Risk for injury
141. A patient's chart includes an order that reads as follows: "Lanoxin 250 mcg once daily
at 0900." Which action by the nurse is correct? ​The nurse contacts the prescriber to
clarify the dosage route.
142. A 77-year-old man who has been diagnosed with an upper respiratory tract infection
tells the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. Which is the most appropriate response by
the nurse? ​ "What type of reaction did you have when you took penicillin?"
143. The nurse is compiling a drug history for a patient. Which question from the nurse
will obtain the most information from the patient? ​ "When you have pain, what do you
do to relieve it?"
144. Neurotoxicity s/s include?​ Drowsiness, auditory/visual disturbances, restlessness,
and seizures
145. Hepatotoxicity s/s include? ​Hepatitis, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes
146. Nephrotoxicity s/s include? ​Oliguria, elevated creatinine, elevated BUN, and
acid-base imbalances
147. Ototoxicity s/s include? ​Tinnitus, hearing loss, lightheadedness, and vertigo
148. What are examples of nitrosoureas?​ Carmustine (BiCNU, Gliadel)
149. What is the primary dose-limiting adverse effect of Alkylating Agents? ​Bone
marrow suppression (neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)
150. Why should fluids be increased with alkylating agents? ​To decrease renal irritation.
151. What are some common examples of Antimetabolics? ​Methotrexate (Rhematrex,
Trexall), Flouracil (5-FU, Adrucil, Carac, Efudex)
152. What are Anetimetabolics highly toxic for?​ Rapidly dividing normal tissues.
153. What is the primary dose-limiting adverse effect of Antitumor Antibiotics? ​Bone
marrow suppression (neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)
154. Which Antitumor Antibiotic is NOT a vesicant? ​Bleomycin
155. When is an EKG indicated with Antitumor Agents? ​prior to therapy and at regular
intervals
156. What characteristic sets the Hormones and Hormone Antagonists apart from other
Antineoplastic agents? ​They are not cytotoxic and produce few severe adverse effects.
157. What is normal AST: ​Aspartate aminotransferase 7-40 U/L
158. What is the normal range for sodium? ​135-145
159. What is the normal range for potassium? ​3.5-5.0
160. What are the three types of blood cells?​ 1) RBC's also known as erythrocytes, 2)
WBC's also known as leukocytes, 3) platelets also known as thrombocytes
161. What type of anemia does iron deficiency cause? ​Microcytic anemia
162. what is megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia caused by? ​By either vitamin B12
malabsorption or deficiency or by folic acid deficiency
163. What are some Side effects of iron medication? ​Heartburn, nausea, diarrhea,
constipation, metallic taste in mouth (Iron dextran), staining of teeth (liquid form),
and Fetal iron toxicity (overdose in children)
164. What is one precaution to use when administering iron to children? ​Do not give them
more than 2-20g due to iron toxicity in children.
165. If toxicity occurs related to overdose of iron what should you do? ​administer a
chelating agent such as Deferoxamine (Desferal) parentally.
166. What drug therapies are used for anemia? ​Iron, vitamin b12 , and folic acid.
167. What drug therapies are used for bleeding disorders?​ Factor VIII(8) and IX(9) and
desmopressin.
168. What type of anemia does vit. b12 cause? ​megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia
169. What are some Vit. B12 medications?​ cyanocobalamin ( Nascobal)
170. What are the side effects of Vit. B12 use?​ diarrhea and hypokalemia
171. What medications are used for folate deficiencies? ​Folic acid (vit. B9)
172. What is folic acid necessary for?​ DNA synthesis.
173. What is desmopressin indicated for? ​Mild hemophilia A
174. What medications are under desmopressin? ​DDAVP and stimate
175. what medications are under the antiplatelet category?(subgroup under drug therapy to
prevent and dissolve thrombi) ​salicylics and ADP inhibitors
176. what medications are under the thrombolytic category? (subgroup under drug therapy
to prevent and dissolve thrombi) ​Thrombolytic (no subgroups)
177. Side effects related to vit. K inhibitors? ​Hemorrhage and toxicity
178. What insulins are short duration: rapid acting?​ Insulin lispro (Humalog); Insulin
aspart (novolog); Insulin gluisine (Apidra)
179. What insulins are short duration: slow acting? ​Regular insulin (Humulin R, Novolin
R)
180. What insulins are intermediate duration? ​NPH insulin (Humulin N, Novolin N);
Insulin detemir (Levemir)
181. What insulins are long duration? ​Insulin glargine (Lantus)
182. What does hemoglobin A1c represent? ​average blood glucose levels over the
previous 2 to 3 months
183. Which insulin is cloudy? ​NPH insulin (Humulin N, Novolin N)
184. What are the signs & symptoms of rapid hypoglycemia? ​tachycardia, palpitations,
sweating, nervousness
185. What can severe hypoglycemia cause? ​brain damage, convulsions, coma, death
186. What does "clear before cloudy" refer to? ​You draw up clear insulin before cloudy
insulin.
187. ______ can occur when insulin dosage is excessive, and causes dysrhythmia & leg
cramps. ​hypokalemia
188. How does Actos lower glucose levels? ​It decreases insulin resistance.
189. How does Glucophage (Metformin) lower glucose levels? ​Decreases glucose
production by the liver & increases tissue response to insulin.
190. How does Precose lower glucose levels? ​Delays absorption of dietary carbs, which
decreases the rise in blood glucose after a meal.
191. ______ is the first line treatment for hypoglycemia. ​Glucophage (Metformin)
192. How does Byetta (Exenatide) lower glucose levels? ​It slows gastric emptying,
stimulating glucose dependent insulin release, suppressing postprandial glucagon
release, and reducing appetite.
193. What is the prototype drug for hypothyroidism?​ Levothyroxine
194. What are the therapeutic uses for testosterone? ​Male hypogonadism; Male
replacement therapy; Delayed puberty; Replacement therapy in menopausal women
195. What is the main use for cyclosporine? ​Patients receiving organ transplants
196. You should use cyclosporine cautiously in what circumstances? ​With K sparing
diuretics; In those with: intestinal malabsorption, HTN, hyperkalemia, active
infection, renal or hepatic malfunction
197. What are the side effects of antihistamines?​ sedation, dry mucus membranes,
palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias
198. What are the adverse effects of intranasal glucocorticoids?​ Drying of nasal mucosa,
Burning or itching sensation, Sore throat, Epistaxis, Headache
199. Decongestants should not be used in those with ______. ​Hypertension
200. What is lactulose used for? ​chronic constipation
201. ______ is the drug of choice to empty bowels for surgery. ​GoLytely
202. What is Immodium used for? ​It treats diarrhea and reduces the volume of
discharge from ileostomies.
203. What are the main antibiotic anti-ulcer drugs? ​Amoxicillin (Amoxil), Metronidazole
(Flagyl)
204. What are the main mucosal protectant anti-ulcer drugs? ​Sucralfate (Carafate,
Sulcrate)
205. How would a penicillin allergy manifest? ​From a mild rash to anaphylaxis
206. About 1% of those allergic to penicillin are also allergic to ______. They should not
be given these drugs if their PCN allergic rxn was severe. ​cephalosporins
207. What is the painful adverse effect of ciprofloxacin?​ tendon rupture
208. How are antibiotics misused? ​Overprescribed, improper dosage, tx without
adequate bacterial info
209. How is a mild or moderate initial episode of C. diff treated? ​Metronidazole
210. How is a severe initial episode of C. diff treated?​ Vancomycin
211. ______ is the leading cause of death among AIDS patients. ​Tuberculosis
212. How does Nitrofurantoin work? ​Injures bacteria by damaging DNA
213. What adverse effect of Nitrofurantoin did Lisa make a point of mentioning?
Peripheral neuropathy
214. What is the preferred drug for lice? ​Permethrin (Nix)
215. What is the preferred drug for mites (scabies)? ​Permethrin
216. What is the oral medication for lice & mites? ​Ivermectin
217. What does a bactericidal do to bacteria? ​It kills the bacteria.
218. What does a bacteriostatic do to bacteria? ​It slows the growth.
219. What do you ALWAYS do before you give antibiotic?​ Get a culture and sensitivity.
Even if it's order for STAT or now
220. What do we teach women taking antibiotics/oral contraceptives? ​To use an
alternative type of birth control like a condom.
221. What is nitrofurantoin (macrobid) contraindicated in? ​Renal failure/hepatic function
impairment
222. After giving INH and Rifampin what should your evaluation show? ​Clear breath
sounds, no night sweats, increased appetite, no afternoon peaks in temperatures.
223. How do you know your TB antibiotics worked on your patient? ​They have THREE
negative sputum cultures over 3-6 months.
224. What is the only insulin you can give IV? ​Regular
225. What are symptoms of hypoglycemia?​ Tachycardia, sweating, palpitations,
headache, tremors, weakness.
226. What insulins do NOT you mix with other insulin? ​Insulin glargine and detemir
(can give if sugar is regular)
227. What meds interact with insulin? ​Oral antidiabetics, betas, and alcohol
228. What should the patient do if they have a procedure coming up and they are taking
Metformin? ​Discontinue 24-48 hours prior to procedure, and resume 48 hours after.
229. What is a benefit of Buspirone (Buspar)? ​There's a less likely chance of
dependency and less CNS depression.
230. What do you need to watch out for with dantrolene (dantrium)? ​Malignant
hyperthermia
231. What are Scopolamine and diphenhydramine used for? ​Motion sickness
232. What does docusate do to stool? ​Softens it.
233. Who can't have antidiarrheals? ​People with infection diarrhea (C.Diff) or
inflammatory bowels
234. What is a long acting CNS stimulant for children with ADHD or conduct disorder?
Concerta or Ritalin LA
235. When should medication reconciliation happen? ​On admission, transferring and at
discharge.
236. What do you do in the event of a hemorrhage? ​Check PT/INR and give vitamin K
237. What are two antiplatelet drugs?​ -Aspirin, plavix
238. What does COX 1 have an effect on? What can result from that?​ It effects
inflammation and platelets. So bleeding is a possibility. Kidney damage can also
result.
239. When should you use non-opioids?​ For reduction in inflammation, fever, relief of
MILD to MODERATE pain, and absence of injury.
240. What kind of problems do sodium deficiencies cause?​ It causes fluid and neuro
problems.
241. When drawing up insulin draw up which first? ​Draw up short- or rapid acting
insulin first as to not contaminate the short - or rapid insulin with the intermediate
acting insulin
242. Oxytocin administration? ​stimulates contractions, hold if contractions are less
than 2 min apart or last longer than 60 to 90 secs,or if there is a significant change
in fetal heart rate
243. A patient is undergoing major surgery and asks the nurse about a living will. He
states, "I don't want anybody making decisions for me. And I don't want to prolong my
life." The patient is demonstrating ​autonomy
244. During the medication administration process, it is important that the nurse
remembers which guideline? ​If a patient expresses a concern about a drug, stop, listen
and investigate the concerns.
245. A 47-year-old patient with diabetes is being discharged to home and must take insulin
injections twice a day. The nurse keeps in mind which concepts when considering patient
teaching? ​Teaching needs to begin at the time of diagnosis or admission and is
individualized to the patient's reading level.
246. The nurse is responsible for preoperative teaching for a patient who is mildly anxious
about receiving pain medications postoperatively. The nurse recognizes that this level of
anxiety: ​may result in learning by increasing the patient's motivation to learn.
247. What action by the nurse is the best way to assess a patient's learning needs? ​Begin
with validations of the patient's present level of knowledge.
248. Which technique would be most appropriate to use when the nurse is teaching a
patient with a language barrier?​ Obtain an interpreter who can speak in the patient's
native tongue for teaching sessions.
249. When educating patients about the safe use of herbal products, the nurse remembers
to include which concept? ​Take the product with caution because labels may not
contain reliable information.
250. The nurse is reviewing medication orders. Which digoxin dose is written correctly?
digoxin 0.25 mg