Final Test Series For Neet-2021

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 28

18/06/2021 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 3

Topics covered :
Physics : xq#Rokd"kZ.k] Bkslksa rFkk rjyksa ds ;kaf=d xq.k] nzO; ds rkih; xq.k
Chemistry : Å"ekxfrdh] lkE;
Botany : dksf'kdk % thou dh bdkbZ] dksf'kdk pØ o dksf'kdk foHkktu
Zoology : ikpu ,oa vo'kks"k.k] 'olu vkSj xSlksa dk fofue;
funs'Z k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsaA
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft;s%


1. Two particles of equal mass m go round a circle of 1. leku nzO;eku m ds nks d.k vius ijLij xq#Rokd"kZ.k
radius R under the action of their mutual
dh fØ;k ds izHkko esa R f=T;k ds ,d o`Ùk ds pkjksa
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
is vksj xfr djrs gSaA izR;sd d.k dh pky gSA
1 1 Gm 1 1 Gm
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2R Gm 2R 2R Gm 2R

1 Gm 4Gm 1 Gm 4Gm
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 R R 2 R R
2. The escape velocity for a planet is ve. A particle 2. fdlh xzg ds fy, iyk;u osx ve gSA ,d d.k xzg ls
starts from rest at a large distance from vR;f/kd nwjh ij fojke ls xfr djuk izkjEHk djrk
the planet, reaches the planet only under gS] ;g dsoy xq#Rokd"kZ.k ds izHkko esa xzg ij igq¡prk
gravitational attraction, and passes through a gS rFkk blds dsUnz ls xqtjrs gq, ,d fpduh lqjx a
smooth tunnel through its centre. Its speed at the ls xqtjrk gSA xzg ds dsUnz ij bldh pky gksxh
centre of the planet will be
ve
ve (1) 1.5v e (2)
(1) 1.5v e (2) 2
2
(3) ve (4) Zero (3) ve (4) 'kwU;
(1)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

3. A particle is projected vertically upwards from the 3. ,d d.k dks i`Foh (f=T;k Re) dh lrg ls iyk;u
surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed equal osx ds ,d pkSFkkbZ ds cjkcj pky ls ÅèokZ/kj :i ls
to one fourth of escape velocity. What is the Åij dh vksj iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA blds }kjk
maximum height attained by it from the surface of i`Foh dh lrg ls izkIr dh xbZ vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ D;k
the earth? gS\
16 Re 16 Re
(1) Re (2) (1) Re (2)
15 15 15 15
4 Re 4 Re
(3) Re (4) (3) Re (4)
15 2 15 2
4. Gravitational potential difference between a point 4. xzg dh lrg ij ,d fcanq rFkk blls 10 m Åij
on surface of planet and another point 10 m vU; fcanq ds eè; xq#Roh; foHkokUrj 4 J/kg gSA
above is 4 J/kg. Considering gravitational field to xq#Roh; {ks= dks ,dleku ekurs gq,] 2 kg ds ,d
be uniform, how much work is done in moving a nzO;eku dks lrg ls lrg ds Åij 5 m ij fLFkr
mass of 2 kg from the surface to a point 5 m ,d fcanq rd xfr djkus esa fdruk dk;Z fd;k tkrk
above the surface? gS\
(1) 4 J (2) 5 J (1) 4 J (2) 5 J
(3) 6 J (4) 7 J (3) 6 J (4) 7 J
5. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m 5. fp= esa lw;Z S ds lkis{k ,d xzg m dh nh?kZoÙ` kkdkj
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice d{kk n'kkZ;h xbZ gSA Nk;kafdr {ks=Qy SCD,
the shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the Nk;kafdr {ks=Qy SAB dk nksxquk gSA ;fn t1 xzg }kjk
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to C ls D rd xfr djus esa fy;k x;k le; gS rFkk t2
move from A to B, then blds }kjk A ls B rd xfr djus esa fy;k x;k le;
gS] rc

(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2


(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
6. Which of the following statements is true about 6. i`Foh }kjk xq#Roh; Roj.k ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls
acceleration due to gravity by Earth? dkSulk dFku lgh gS\
(1) ‘g’ increases in moving away from the centre if (1) ;fn r > R, rc dsUnz ls nwj xfr djus esa ‘g’ c<+rk
r>R gS
(2) ‘g’ decreases in moving away from the centre (2) ;fn r < R, rc dsUnz ls nwj xfr djus esa ‘g’ ?kVrk
if r < R gS
(3) ‘g’ is zero at the centre of earth (3) i`Foh ds dsUnz ij ‘g’ 'kwU; gS
(4) ‘g’ decreases if earth stops rotating on its axis (4) ;fn i`Foh vius v{k ij ?kw.kZu djuk can dj
7. An astronaut, inside an earth satellite experiences nsrh gS] rc ‘g’ ?kVrk gS
weightlessness because 7. i`Foh ds ,d mixzg ds vanj ,d vUrfj{k;k=h
(1) He is falling freely Hkkjghurk dk vuqHko djrk gS] D;ksfa d
(1) og eqDr :i ls fxj jgk gS
(2) No external force is acting on him
(2) ml ij dksbZ cká cy dk;Zjr ugha gS
(3) A reaction is exerted only by floor of the
(3) izfrfØ;k] dsoy mixzg ds Q'kZ }kjk vkjksfir dh
satellite
tkrh gS
(4) He is far away from the earth surface
(4) og i`Foh dh lrg ls cgqr nwj gS

(2)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

8. Three identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg 8. leku nzO;eku 1 kg ds rhu ,dleku fcanq nzO;eku
lie in the x–y plane at points (0, 0) (0, 0.2 m) and x–y ry esa fcanqvksa (0, 0) (0, 0.2 m) rFkk (0.2 m, 0) ij
(0.2 m, 0). The gravitational force on the mass at
the origin is
fLFkr gSA ewy fcanq ij nzO;eku ij xq#Roh; cy gS
(1) 1.67  1011(iˆ  jˆ) N (2) 3.34  1010 (iˆ  jˆ) N
(1) 1.67  1011(iˆ  jˆ) N (2) 3.34  1010 (iˆ  jˆ) N
(3) 1.67  109 (iˆ  jˆ) N (4) 3.34  1010 (iˆ  jˆ) N
(3) 1.67  109 (iˆ  jˆ) N (4) 3.34  1010 (iˆ  jˆ) N
9. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is 9. x-fn'kk esa fdlh nzO;eku forj.k ds dkj.k xq#Roh;
K
K
E  3 in the x-direction. (K is a constant). {ks= E gS (K ,d fu;rkad gS)A xq#Roh; foHko
x x3
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at dks vuUr ij 'kwU; ysus ij] x nwjh ij bldk eku gS
infinity, its value at the distance x is K K
(1) (2)
K K x 2x
(1) (2)
x 2x K K
(3) (4)
K K x2 2x 2
(3) 2 (4)
x 2x 2 10. m rFkk M nzO;ekuksa ds nks fi.Mksa dks ,d nwljs ls d
10. Two bodies of masses m and M are placed at nwjh ij j[kk tkrk gSA fLFkfr] tgk¡ buds dkj.k
distance d apart. The gravitational potential (V) at xq#Roh; {ks= 'kwU; gS] ij xq#Roh; foHko (V) gS
the position where the gravitational field due to
them is zero V is G
(1) V   (m  M )
d
G
(1) V   (m  M )
d G
(2) V  
d
G
(2) V  
d GM
(3) V  
d
GM
(3) V   G
d (4) V   ( m  M )2
d
G
(4) V   ( m  M )2 11. tc ,d mixzg ds ?kw.kZu dh fn'kk i`Foh ds foijhr
d
11. A satellite is seen after each 8 hours over equator
gS] rc bl mixzg dks i`Foh ij fdlh LFkku ij
at a place on the Earth when its sense of rotation fo"kqor~ ij izR;sd 8 ?k.Vksa ds ckn ns[kk tkrk gSA tc
is opposite to the Earth. The time interval after i`Foh rFkk mixzg ds ?kw.kZu dh fn'kk leku gS] rc
which it can be seen at the same place when the fdrus le; varjky ds ckn ;g leku LFkku ij
sense of rotation of Earth and satellite is same will fn[kkbZ ns ldrk gS\
be
(1) 8 ?k.Vs (2) 12 ?k.Vs
(1) 8 hours (2) 12 hours
(3) 24 hours (4) 6 hours (3) 24 ?k.Vs (4) 6 ?k.Vs
12. Two identical satellites are at the heights R and 12. nks ,dleku mixzg i`Foh dh lrg ls R rFkk 7R dh
7R from the Earth's surface. Then which of the Å¡pkbZ;ksa ij gSaA rc fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr
following statement is incorrect (r = radius of the gS (r = i`Foh dh f=T;k)?
Earth)?
(1) nksuksa dh dqy ÅtkZ dk vuqikr 5 gS
(1) Ratio of total energy of both is 5
(2) nksuksa dh xfrt ÅtkZ dk vuqikr 4 gS
(2) Ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4
(3) Ratio of potential energy of both 4 (3) nksuksa dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ dk vuqikr 4 gS
(4) Ratio of total energy of both is 4 and ratio of (4) nksuksa dh dqy ÅtkZ dk vuqikr 4 gS rFkk fLFkfrt
magnitude of potential to kinetic energy is 2 ÅtkZ o xfrt ÅtkZ ds ifjek.k dk vuqikr 2 gS

(3)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

13. During blood transfusion the needle is inserted in 13. #f/kj vk/kku ds nkSjku] ,d ul esa lqbZ yxk;h tkrh
a vein where the gauge pressure is 2000 Pa. At gS] tgk¡ xSt nkc 2000 Pa gSA #f/kj ds ik= dks
what height must the blood container be placed so fdl Å¡pkbZ ij j[kk tkuk pkfg, rkfd #f/kj ul esa
that blood may just enter the vein?
Bhd izo's k dj lds\
[Density of blood = 1.06 × 103 kg m–3 and
[#f/kj dk ?kuRo = 1.06 × 103 kg m–3 rFkk
g = 9.8 m/s2].
g = 9.8 m/s2].
(1) 0.192 m (2) 0.182 m (1) 0.192 m (2) 0.182 m
(3) 0.172 m (4) 0.152 m (3) 0.172 m (4) 0.152 m

14. A tank full of water has a small hole at its bottom. 14. ty ls Hkjs ,d VSad ds iSans ij ,d NksVk fNæ gSA
Let t1 be the time taken to empty first one third of ekuk t1 VSad ds izFke ,d frgkbZ dks [kkyh djus esa
the tank and t2 be the time taken to empty second fy;k x;k le; gS rFkk t2 VSad ds f}rh; ,d frgkbZ
one third of the tank and t3 be the time taken to dks [kkyh djus esa fy;k x;k le; gS rFkk t3 VSad ds
empty rest of the tank then
'ks"k Hkkx dks [kkyh djus esa fy;k x;k le; gS] rc
(1) t1 = t2 = t3 (2) t1 > t2 > t3 (1) t1 = t2 = t3 (2) t1 > t2 > t3
(3) t1 < t2 < t3 (4) t1 > t2 < t3 (3) t1 < t2 < t3 (4) t1 > t2 < t3
15. A piece of cork starts from rest at the bottom of a 15. dkWdZ dk ,d VqdM+k fdlh >hy dh ryh ij fojke
lake and floats up. Its velocity v is plotted against ls xfr djuk izkjEHk djrk gS rFkk Åij dh vksj
time t. Which of the following best represents the rSjrk gSA blds osx v rFkk le; t ds eè; vkjs[k
resulting curve?
[khapk x;k gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulk ifj.kkeh oØ dks
lgh :i ls iznf'kZr djrk gS\

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

16. A 2 m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from


one end is given a twist of 0.8 radians. The shear 16. ,d fljs ls n`f<+r 1 cm f=T;k dh 2 m yEch NM+ dks
strain developed will be 0.8 jsfM;u dh ,saBu iznku dh tkrh gSA mRiUu
(1) 0.002 (2) 0.004 vi:i.k foÑfr gksxh
(3) 0.008 (4) 0.016 (1) 0.002 (2) 0.004
(3) 0.008 (4) 0.016
17. The following four wires are made of the same
material. Which of these will have the largest 17. fuEu pkj rkjksa dks leku inkFkZ ls cuk;k x;k gSA
extension when the same tension is applied? tc bu ij leku ruko vkjksfir fd;k tkrk gS] rc
(1) Length 50 cm and diameter 2 mm
buesa ls fdldk izlkj vf/kdre gksxk\
(1) 50 cm yEckbZ rFkk 2 mm O;kl okys rkj dk
(2) Length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(2) 100 cm yEckbZ rFkk 1 mm O;kl okys rkj dk
(3) Length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm
(3) 200 cm yEckbZ rFkk 2 mm O;kl okys rkj dk
(4) Length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm
(4) 300 cm yEckbZ rFkk 3 mm O;kl okys rkj dk

(4)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

18. An increase in pressure required to decrease the 18. ik= esa fdlh nzo ds 200 yhVj vk;ru esa 0.004%
200 litres volume of a liquid by 0.004% in dh deh djus ds fy, vko';d nkc esa o`f) gS
container is
(nzo dk vk;ru izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad = 2100 MPa)
(Bulk modulus of the liquid = 2100 MPa)
(1) 188 kPa (2) 8.4 kPa
(1) 188 kPa (2) 8.4 kPa (3) 18.8 kPa (4) 84 kPa
(3) 18.8 kPa (4) 84 kPa 19. lkcqu ds ,d cqycqys dh f=T;k r gSA lkcqu ds
19. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The surface foy;u dk i`"B ruko T gSA rki dks fu;r j[kdj]
tension of soap solution is T. Keeping temperature lkcqu ds cqycqys dh f=T;k dks nksxquk fd;k tkrk
constant, the radius of the soap bubble is gS] rc blds fy, vko';d ÅtkZ gksxh
doubled, the energy necessary for this will be (1) 24r2T (2) 8r2T
2 2
(1) 24r T (2) 8r T (3) 12r2T (4) 16r2T
(3) 12r2T (4) 16r2T 20. fuokZr esa lkcqu ds ,d cqycqys dh f=T;k 3 cm gS
20. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 3 cm rFkk fuokZr esa lkcqu ds vU; cqycqys dh f=T;k 4 cm
and another soap bubble in vacuum has a radius gSA ;fn nksuksa cqycqys lerkih; voLFkk ds izHkko esa
of 4 cm. If the two bubbles coalesce under lfEefyr gksrs gSa] rc uohu cqycqys dh f=T;k gS
isothermal condition, then the radius of the new
bubble is (1) 2.3 cm (2) 4.5 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 7 cm
(1) 2.3 cm (2) 4.5 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 7 cm
21. ,d dsf'kdk uyh iz;ksx es]a ,d ÅèokZ/kj 30 cm yEch
dsf'kdk uyh dks ty esa Mqck;k tkrk gSA dsf'kdkRo
21. In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm fØ;k ds dkj.k ty 10 cm dh Å¡pkbZ rd Åij
long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water
rises up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary mBrk gSA ;fn bl iz;ksx dks Lora= :i ls fxj jgh
action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely fy¶V esa lEiUu fd;k tkrk gS] rc ty LrEHk dh
falling elevator, the length of the water column yEckbZ gks tkrh gS
becomes (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 30 cm 'kwU;
(4)
(3) 30 cm (4) Zero 22. 5 m Å¡pkbZ okyk ,d VSad ty ls Hkjk gSA blds iSans
22. A tank of height 5 m is full of water. There is a esa vuqiLz Fk dkV {ks=Qy 1 cm2 dk ,d fNæ gSA bl
hole of cross sectional area 1 cm 2 in its bottom. fNæ ls izfr lsd.M ckgj fudyus okys ty dk
The initial volume of water that will come out from
this hole per second is (g = 10 m/s2)
izkjfEHkd vk;ru gS (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10–3 m3/s (2) 10–4 m3/s
(1) 10–3 m3/s (2) 10–4 m3/s
(3) 10 m3/s (4) 10–2 m3/s
(3) 10 m3/s (4) 10–2 m3/s
23. leku f=T;k dh nks cw¡nsa 5 cm/s ds fu;r osx ls ok;q
23. Two drops of equal radius are falling through air
with a steady velocity of 5 cm/s. If the two drops
ls fxj jgh gSA ;fn nksuksa cw¡nsa lfEefyr gks tkrh gS a]
coalesce, then its terminal velocity will be rc bldk VfeZuy osx gksxk
1 1
1 1
(1) 4  5 cm/s
3 3
(2) 4 cm/s (1) 4 3  5 cm/s (2) 43 cm/s
1 2
(3) 5 3  4 cm/s (4) 4 3  5 cm/s
1 2
(3) 5  4 cm/s
3
(4) 4  5 cm/s
3

24. The total weight of a piece of wood is 6 kg. In the


24. ydM+h ds ,d VqdM+s dk dqy Hkkj 6 kg gSA ty esa
floating state in water its 1/3 part remains inside rSjrh gqbZ voLFkk es]a bldk 1/3 Hkkx ty ds vanj
the water. On this floating wood, what maximum jgrk gSA bl rSjrs gq, ydM+h ds VqdM+s ij] fdruk
weight is to be put such that the whole of the vf/kdre Hkkj j[kk tk, rkfd lEiw.kZ ydM+h dk
piece of wood is to be downed in the water? VqdM+k ty esa Mwc tk,\
(1) 12 kg (2) 10 kg (1) 12 kg (2) 10 kg
(3) 14 kg (4) 15 kg (3) 14 kg (4) 15 kg

(5)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
4
25. An aeroplane of mass 3 × 10 kg and total wing 25. nzO;eku 3 × 104 kg rFkk dqy ia[kqMh {ks=Qy 120 m2
area of 120 m2 is in a level flight at some height. dk ,d ok;q;ku dqN Å¡pkbZ ij lery mM+ku esa gSA
The difference in pressure between the upper and
lower surfaces of its wings (in kilo pascal) is
bldh ia[kqfM+;ksa dh Åijh rFkk fupyh lrgksa ds eè;
(g = 10 m/s2) nkc (fdyks ikLdy esa) esa varj gS (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0
(3) 10.0 (4) 12.5
(3) 10.0 (4) 12.5
26. ,d ck¡èk dh ÅèokZ/kj nhokj ds ihNs ty h Å¡pkbZ
26. Water stands upto a height h behind the vertical
wall of a dam. What is the net horizontal force rd Hkjk gSA ;fn ck¡èk dh pkSM+kbZ gS] rc ty /kkjk
pushing the dam down by the stream, if width of }kjk ck¡èk dks fdrus usV {kSfrt cy ls uhps dh vksj
the dam is ? ( = density of water) /kdsyk tkrk gS? ( = ty dk ?kuRo)
h 2 g h 2 g
(1) 2hg (2) (1) 2hg (2)
2 2
h 2 g hg h 2 g hg
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 4 4 4
27. Water rises in a capillary upto a height h. If now 27. ,d ds f 'kdk esa ty h Å¡pkbZ rd Åij mBrk gSA
this capillary is tilted by an angle of 45°, then the ;fn vc bl dsf'kdk dks 45° dks.k ls >qdk;k tkrk
length of the water column in the capillary gS] rc dsf'kdk esa ty LrEHk dh yEckbZ gks tkrh gS
becomes h
(1) 2h (2)
h 2
(1) 2h (2)
2 h
(3) (4) h 2
h 2
(3) (4) h 2
2 28. 20 m xgjh >hy es]a ryh 4°C ds fu;r rki ij gSA
28. In a 20 m deep lake, the bottom is at a constant ok;q dk rki –10°C ij fu;r gSA ;fn cQZ dh
temperature of 4°C. The air temperature is rkih; pkydrk ty dh rkih; pkydrk dh 4 xquh
constant at –10°C. If the thermal conductivity of
gS] teus ij ty ds izlkj dks ux.; ekuus ij] cQZ
ice is 4 times that of water, Neglecting the
expansion of water on freezing, the maximum
dh vf/kdre eksVkbZ gksxh
thickness of ice will be 20 200
(1) m (2) m
20 200 11 11
(1) m (2) m (3) 20 m (4) 10 m
11 11
29. tc ,d fi.M dks Å"ek dh fuf'pr ek=k iznku dh
(3) 20 m (4) 10 m
29. The temperature of a body rises by 44°C when a
tkrh gS] rc fi.M dk rki 44°C rd c<+ tkrk gSA
certain amount of heat is given to it. The same tc – 8°C rki okyh 22 g cQZ dks leku Å"ek vkiwrZ
heat when supplied to 22 g of ice at – 8°C, raises dh tkrh gS] rc bldk rki 16°C rd c<+ tkrk gSA
its temperature by 16°C. The water equivalent of fi.M dk ty rqY;kad gS
the body is [fn;k gS : sty = 1 cal/g°C rFkk Lf = 80 cal/g,
[Given : swater = 1 cal/g°C and Lf = 80 cal/g,
scQZ = 0.5 cal/g°C]
sice = 0.5 cal/g°C]
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g (3) 80 g (4) 100 g
(3) 80 g (4) 100 g 30. ,d jsfÝtjsVj ,d ?k.Vs 50 feuV esa 25°C rki okys
30. A refrigerator converts 100 g of water at 25°C into 100 g ty dks – 10°C rki okyh cQZ esa :ikUrfjr
ice at – 10°C in one hour and 50 minutes. The
quantity of heat removed per minute is (specific
djrk gSA izfr feuV fu"dkflr Å"ek dh ek=k gS
heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g°C, latent heat of fusion = 80 (cQZ dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 0.5 cal/g°C, xyu dh xqIr
cal/g) Å"ek = 80 cal/g)
(1) 50 cal (2) 100 cal (1) 50 cal (2) 100 cal
(3) 200 cal (4) 75 cal (3) 200 cal (4) 75 cal

(6)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

31. 540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water at 31. 0°C rki okyh 540 g cQZ dks 80°C rki okys 540 g
80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is
ty ds lkFk fefJr fd;k tkrk gSA feJ.k dk vafre
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g and
specific heat capacity of water = 1 cal/g0C)
rki gS (fn;k gS cQZ ds xyu dh xqIr Å"ek = 80
cal/g rFkk ty dh fof'k"V Å"ek /kkfjrk = 1 cal/g0C)
(1) 0°C (2) 40°C
(1) 0°C (2) 40°C
(3) 80°C (4) Less than 0°C
32. A brass rod of cross-sectional area 1 cm2 and (3) 80°C (4) 0°C ls de
length 0.2 m is compressed lengthwise by a 32. vuqiLz Fk&dkV {ks=Qy 1 cm2 rFkk yEckbZ 0.2 m dh
weight of 5 kg. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of ihry dh ,d NM+ dks 5 kg ds ,d Hkkj }kjk bldh
brass is 1 × 1011 N/m2 and g = 10 m/s2, then
yEckbZ ls lEihfM+r fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn ihry dk
increase in the energy of the rod will be
;ax izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad 1 × 1011 N/m2 gS rFkk g = 10
(1) 10–5 J (2) 2.5 × 10–5 J
m/s2, rc NM+ dh ÅtkZ esa o`f) gksxh
(3) 5 × 10–5 J (4) 2.5 × 10–4 J
(1) 10–5 J (2) 2.5 × 10–5 J
33. The unit of Stefan’s constant is
(3) 5 × 10–5 J (4) 2.5 × 10–4 J
(1) W m2 K4 (2) W m2 K–4
33. LVhQu fu;rkad dk ek=d gS
(3) W m–1 K–1 (4) W m–2 K–4
(1) W m2 K4 (2) W m2 K–4
34. Which one of the following process depends on
gravity? (3) W m–1 K–1 (4) W m–2 K–4
(1) Conduction (2) Radiation 34. fuEu esa ls dkSulk izØe xq#Ro ij fuHkZj djrk gS\
(3) Convection (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) pkyu (2) fofdj.k
35. The ratio of coefficient of thermal conductivity of (3) laogu (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
two different materials is 5 : 3. If the thermal
resistance of the two rods of these materials of 35. nks fHkUu&fHkUu inkFkks± ds rkih; pkydrk xq.kkad dk
same area is same, then the ratio of the length of vuqikr 5 : 3 gSA ;fn leku {ks=Qy ds bu inkFkks±
these rods will be dh nks NM+ksa dk rkih; izfrjks/k leku gS] rc bu
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5 NM+ksa dh yEckbZ dk vuqikr gksxk
(3) 9 : 25 (4) 25 : 9 (1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5
36. On centigrade scale the temperature of a body (3) 9 : 25 (4) 25 : 9
increases by 30 degrees. The increase in
36. lsUVhxzsM iSekus ij] ,d fi.M dk rki 30 fMxzh rd
temperature on Fahrenheit scale is
c<+ tkrk gSA QkWjus gkbV iSekus ij rki esa o`f) gS
(1) 50° (2) 40°
(1) 50° (2) 40°
(3) 30° (4) 54°
(3) 30° (4) 54°
37. A constant volume gas thermometer shows
pressure reading of 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury 37. ,d fu;r vk;ru xSl rkiekih Øe'k% 0°C rFkk
at 0°C and 100°C respectively. When the 100°C ij edZjh ds 50 cm rFkk 90 cm dk nkc
pressure reading is 60 cm of mercury, the ikB~;kad n'kkZrk gSA tc nkc dk ikB~;kad 60 cm
temperature is edZjh gS] rc rki gS
(1) 25°C (2) 40°C
(1) 25°C (2) 40°C
(3) 15°C (4) 12.5°C (3) 15°C (4) 12.5°C
38. The coefficient of volume expansion of a liquid is
38. fdlh nzo dk vk;ru izlkj xq.kkad 49 × 10–5 K–1 gSA
49 × 10–5 K–1. Calculate the fractional change in
its density when the temperature is raised by tc rki esa 30°C dh o`f) dh tkrh gS] rc blds
30°C. ?kuRo esa vkaf'kd ifjorZu dh x.kuk dhft,A
(1) 7.5 × 10–2 (2) 3.0 × 10–2 (1) 7.5 × 10–2 (2) 3.0 × 10–2
(3) 1.5 × 10–2 (4) 1.1 × 10–2 (3) 1.5 × 10–2 (4) 1.1 × 10–2

(7)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
39. A hammer of mass 1 kg having speed of 50 m/s, 39. 1 kg nzO;eku ds ,d gFkkSM+s ls 200 g nzO;eku dh
hit an iron nail of mass 200 g. If specific heat of ykSgs dh ,d dhy ij 50 m/s dh pky ls izgkj
iron is 0.105 cal/g°C and half the energy is
converted into heat, the raise in temperature of
fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn ykSgs dh fof'k"V Å"ek 0.105
nail is cal/g°C gS rFkk vk/kh ÅtkZ] Å"ek esa :ikUrfjr gks
(1) 7.1°C (2) 9.2°C tkrh gS] rc dhy ds rki esa o`f) gS
(1) 7.1°C (2) 9.2°C
(3) 10.5°C (4) 12.1°C
(3) 10.5°C (4) 12.1°C
40. 1 gram of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 gram of steam
40. 0°C rki okyh 1 xzke cQZ dks 100°C rki
okyh 1 xzke
at 100°C. At thermal equilibrium, the temperature
of the mixture is Hkki ds lkFk fefJr fd;k tkrk gSA rkih;
(1) 100°C (2) 55°C lkE;koLFkk ij] feJ.k dk rki gS
(1) 100°C (2) 55°C
(3) 0°C (4) 50°C
(3) 0°C (4) 50°C
41. Surface of the lake is at 2°C. Find the temperature
of the bottom of the lake
41. >hy dh lrg 2°C ij gSA >hy dh ryh dk rki
(1) 2°C (2) 3°C
Kkr dhft,A
(1) 2°C (2) 3°C
(3) 4°C (4) 1°C
(3) 4°C (4) 1°C
42. A metal plate 4 mm thick has a temperature 42. 4 mm eksVh ,d /kkfRod IysV dh Qydksa ds eè; rki
difference of 32°C between its faces. It transmits
200 kcal/h through an area of 5 cm2. Thermal dk varj 32°C gSA ;g 5 cm2 ds {ks=Qy ls 200
conductivity of the material is kcal/h LFkkukUrfjr djrk gSA inkFkZ dh rkih;
(1) 58.33 W m–1 °C–1 (2) 33.58 W m–1 °C–1 pkydrk gS
(3) 5 × 10–4 W m–1 °C–1 (4) None of these (1) 58.33 W m–1 °C–1 (2) 33.58 W m–1 °C–1
–4 –1
(3) 5 × 10 W m °C –1
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
43. Consider a compound slab consisting of two
different material having equal thickness and 43. ekuk fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj ,d la;qDr ifV~Vdk
thermal conductivities k and 3k respectively as leku eksVkbZ rFkk rkih; pkydrkvksa Øe'k% k rFkk 3k
shown in figure. The equivalent thermal okys nks fHkUu&fHkUu inkFkZ ls feydj cuh gSA
conductivity of the slab is ifV~Vdk dh rqY; rkih; pkydrk gS

3k 4k 3k 4k
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 3 2 3
k k
(3) (4) 4k (3) (4) 4k
2 2
44. Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal 44. leku foekvksa okyh rhu NM+ksa dh rkih; pkydrk,sa
conductivities 3k, 2k and k. They are arranged as 3k, 2k rFkk k gSaA bUgsa n'kkZ, vuqlkj O;ofLFkr fd;k
shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. tkrk gS rFkk buds fljs 100°C, 50°C rFkk 0°Cij gSaA
The temperature of their junction is budh laf/k dk rki gS

200 200
(1) 75°C (2) C (1) 75°C (2) C
3 3
100 100
(3) 40°C (4) C (3) 40°C (4) C
3 3

(8)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

45. Two identical masses of 5 kg each fall on a wheel 45. 5 kg ds nks ,dleku nzO;eku 10 m dh Å¡pkbZ ls
from a height of 10 m. If the wheel disturbs a ,d ifg;s ij fxjrs gSaA ;fn ifg;k 2 kg ty ds
mass of 2 kg water, the rise in temperature of nzO;eku dks fopfyr djrk gS] rc ty ds rki esa
water will be
o`f) gksxh
(1) 2.6°C (2) 1.2°C
(1) 2.6°C (2) 1.2°C
(3) 0.32°C (4) 0.12°C (3) 0.32°C (4) 0.12°C

CHEMISTRY
46. Which among the following is a path function? 46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d iFk Qyu gS\
(1) Temperature (2) Pressure (1) rki (2) nkc
(3) Work (4) Enthalpy (3) dk;Z (4) ,UFkSYih
47. A sample of 10 mol gas expands isothermally
47. 10 eksy xSl dk uewuk lerkih; o mRØe.kh; :i
reversibly to double its volume from 1 L to 2 L.
The U for the process is ls vius vk;ru ds nksxqus vFkkZr 1 L ls 2 L rd
(1) 0 (2) 20 L atm
izlkfjr gksrk gSA izØe ds fy, U gS
(3) –20 L atm (4) –10 L atm (1) 0 (2) 20 L atm
(3) –20 L atm (4) –10 L atm
48. Minimum temperature above which the process
will became spontaneous if H = 10 kJ mol–1 while 48. ;fn H = 10 kJ mol , tcfd S = 10 JK–1 gks] rks
–1

S = 10 JK–1 is fdl U;wure rki ds Åij izØe Lor% gks tk,xk\


(1) 0°C (2) 1 K (1) 0°C (2) 1 K
(3) 10 K (4) 1000 K (3) 10 K (4) 1000 K
49. If enthalpy of combustion of methane 49. ;fn esFksu dh ngu ,UFkSYih –x kJ mol–1 gks] rks 8g
is –x kJ mol–1 then heat evolved by the CH4 ds ngu ij eqDr Å"ek gS
combustion of 8 g CH4 is
x
x (1) kJ (2) x kJ
(1) kJ (2) x kJ 2
2
(3) 8x kJ (4) 16x kJ
(3) 8x kJ (4) 16x kJ

 50. fdl vfHkfØ;k ds fy, rH  f HCO gS\
50. The reaction for which rH  f HCO is 2
2
(1) CH4 (g)  2O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  2H2O( )
(1) CH4 (g)  2O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  2H2O( )
1
1 (2) CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(2) CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g) 2
2
(3) C( xQ
zs kbV)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(3) C(graphite)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(4) C(diamond)  O2 (g)  CO2(g) (4) C( ghjk )  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)

51. 10 moles of gas compressed reversible from 10 L 51. fu;r rki ij 10 eksy xSl dks mRØe.kh; :i ls
to 1 L at constant temperature. The entropy 10 L ls 1 L rd laihfMr fd;k tkrk gSA izØe ds
change during the process is nkSjku ,UVªkWih ifjorZu gS
(1) 10 R (2) –10 R (1) 10 R (2) –10 R
(3) 23.03 R (4) –23.03 R (3) 23.03 R (4) –23.03 R
52. If during a process, 50 J heat is supplied to the 52. ;fn ,d izØe ds nkSjku] fudk; dks 50 J Å"ek dh
system while 20 J work is done by the system
vkiwfrZ dh tkrh gS tcfd fudk; }kjk fd;k x;k
then U for the net process is
dk;Z 20 J gks] rks usV izØe ds fy, U gS
(1) 30 J (2) –30 J
(1) 30 J (2) –30 J
(3) 70 J (4) –70 J
(3) 70 J (4) –70 J

(9)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
–1
53. Lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 788 kJ mol , enthalpy 53. NaCl dh tkyd ,UFkSYih 788 kJ mol–1, NaCl foy;u
of solution of NaCl is 4 kJ mol –1. Calculate dh ,UFkSYih 4 kJ mol–1 gks] rks NaCl ds ty;kstu
hydration enthalpy of NaCl.
,UFkSYih dh x.kuk dhft,A
(1) –792 kJ mol–1 (2) 792 kJ mol–1
(1) –792 kJ mol–1 (2) 792 kJ mol–1
–1 –1
(3) –784 kJ mol (4) 784 kJ mol (3) –784 kJ mol–1 (4) 784 kJ mol–1
54. If enthalpy of combustion of C(s), H2(g) and 54. ;fn C(s), H2(g) rFkk C2H6(g) dh ngu ,UFkSYih Øe'k%
C2H6(g) are –x, –y and –z kJ mol–1 respectively –x, –y rFkk –z kJ mol–1 gksa] rks ,Fksu dh laHkou
then enthalpy of formation of ethane will be
,UFkSYih gksxh
(1) x + y – z (2) z – x – y
(1) x + y – z (2) z – x – y
(3) z – 2x – 3y (4) 2x + 3y – z
(3) z – 2x – 3y (4) 2x + 3y – z
55. Bomb calorimeter is experimentally used to find 55. izk;ksfxd :i ls ce dSyksjhehVj dk mi;ksx fdldks
(1) G (2) S Kkr djus esa fd;k tkrk gS\
(3) H (4) U (1) G (2) S
56. For which of the following reaction, H = U? (3) H (4) U
(1) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g) 56. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k ds fy,] H =
(2) CO(g)  H2O(g)  CO2 (g)  H2 (g) U?
(1) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
(3) CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s)  CO2 (g)
(2) CO(g)  H2O(g)  CO2 (g)  H2 (g)
(4) N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
(3) CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s)  CO2 (g)
57. According to third law of thermodynamics which (4) N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
property of any pure crystalline substances
approaches zero as the temperature approaches 57. Å"ekxfrdh ds r`rh; fu;e ds vuqlkj rki dk eku
absolute zero? yxHkx ije 'kwU; gksus ij fdlh 'kq) fØLVyh;
(1) U (2) H inkFkZ dk dkSulk xq.k/keZ yxHkx 'kwU; gksrk gS\
(3) G (4) S (1) U (2) H
58. At 100 K temperature, A2(g) is 50% dissociated (3) G (4) S
into B(g) and C(g) as per the reaction 58. 100 K rki o 1 atm nkc ij A2(g) vfHkfØ;k A2(g)
A2(g)  B(g) + C(g) at 1 atm pressure. The Gibbs  B(g) + C(g) ds vuqlkj B(g) rFkk C(g) esa
energy change at this temperature is 50% fo;ksftr gksrk gSA bl rki ij fxCl ÅtkZ
(1) –100 Rln3 (2) 100Rln3 ifjorZu gS
(3) –230.3Rln3 (4) 230.3Rln3 (1) –100 Rln3 (2) 100Rln3
59. For which of the following acid base pair, enthalpy (3) –230.3Rln3 (4) 230.3Rln3
of neutralisation is –13.7 kcal? 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vEy {kkj ;qXe ds fy,
(1) CH3COOH + NaOH mnklhuhdj.k ,UFkSYih –13.7 kcal gS\
(2) CH3COOH + NH4OH (1)
CH3COOH + NaOH
(2)
CH3COOH + NH4OH
(3) NH4OH + HCl
(3)
NH4OH + HCl
(4) NaOH + HCl
(4)
NaOH + HCl
60. Ha and Hsub are same for 60. fdlds fy, Ha o HÅèoZikru ds eku leku gksrs s gSa\
(1) C(s) (2) Br2() (1) C(s) (2) Br2()
(3) O2(g) (4) S8(s) (3) O2(g) (4) S8(s)
61. Maximum mean single bond enthalpy at 298 K is 61. 298 K ij fdldh ekè; ,dy ca/k ,UFkSYih vf/kdre
of gksrh gS\
(1) H – H (2) H – N (1) H – H (2) H – N
(3) H – O (4) H – F (3) H – O (4) H – F

(10)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)
62. The standard lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 62. NaCl dh ekud tkyd ,UFkSYih gS
[subH°(Na) = 108.4, iH°(Na) = 496, bondH°(Cl2) [ÅèoZikruH°(Na) = 108.4, iH°(Na) = 496,
= 242, egH°(Cl) = – 348.6 and fH(NaCl) ca/kH°(Cl2) = 242, egH°(Cl) = – 348.6 rFkk
= – 411.2] fH(NaCl)
(All data is in kJ mol–1) = – 411.2]
(1) 514 kJ mol-–1 (2) 642 kJ mol-–1 (lHkh vk¡dM+s kJ mol–1 esa gSa)
(3) 788 kJ mol-–1 (4) 927 kJ mol-–1 (1) 514 kJ mol-–1 (2) 642 kJ mol-–1
-–1
(3) 788 kJ mol (4) 927 kJ mol-–1
63. If rH for the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is –a
63. ;fn vfHkfØ;k N2 + 3H2  2NH3 ds fy, rH = –a
1 3
then rH for the reaction NH3  N2  H2 is
2 2 gks] rks vfHkfØ;k NH3  1 N2  3 H2 ds fy, rH gS
2 2
a a
(1) a (2) (1) a (2)
2 2
a a
(3)  (4) – 2a (3)  (4) – 2a
2 2
64. Using the following diagram, select the correct 64. uhps fn;s x;s vkjs[k dk mi;ksx djds lgh lEcUèk
relation. dk p;u dhft,A

(1) H1 = H2 + H3 + H4 (1) H1 = H2 + H3 + H4
(2) H1 + H3 = H2 + H4 (2) H1 + H3 = H2 + H4
(3) H4 = H1 + H2 – H3
(3) H4 = H1 + H2 – H3
(4) H4 – H3 = H1 + H2
(4) H4 – H3 = H1 + H2
65. fu;r nkc ij fofue; Å"ek fdlds cjkcj gksrh gS\
65. Heat exchange at constant pressure is equal to
(1) U (2) H
(1) U (2) H (3) G (4) S
(3) G (4) S 66. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
66. Select the incorrect statement (1) Bksl  nzo lkE; ds fy, 1 atm ij dsoy ,d
(1) For solid  liquid equilibrium, there is only rki ij nksuksa izkoLFkkvksa dk lgvfLrRo gks
one temperature at 1 atm at which both the ldrk gS
phases can coexist (2) ok"i nkc rki ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(2) Vapour pressure depends on temperature (3) Bkslksa dh nzoksa esa ?kqykoV ds fy,] ,d fn;s x;s
(3) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the rki ij foys;rk fu;r gksrh gS
solubility is constant at a given temperature
(4) xSlksa dh nzoksa esa ?kqykoV ds fy,] nzo esa xSl dh
(4) For dissolution of gases in liquids, the lkUnzrk nzo ij xSl ds nkc ij fuHkZj ugha djrh
concentration of a gas in liquid is independent
to the pressure of the gas over the liquid
gS
67. Equilibrium constant expression for the equilibrium
67. uhps fn;s x;s lkE; ds fy, lkE; fu;rkad dk
O;atd gS
CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g) is
CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g)
[CO] [3H2 ] [CH4 ] [H2O]
(1) (2) [CO] [3H2 ] [CH4 ] [H2O]
[CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [3H2 ] (1) (2)
[CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [3H2 ]
[CO] [H2 ]3 [CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [H2 ]3 [CH4 ] [H2O]
(3) (4) (3) (4)
[CH4 ] [H2O] 3
[CO] [H2 ] [CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [H2 ]3

(11)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

68. If KC for the equilibrium N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is x 68. ;fn lkE; N2 + 3H2  2NH3 ds fy, KC = x gks] rks
1 3 1 3
then KC for the equilibrium NH3 N2  H2 is lkE; NH3 N2  H2 ds fy, KC gS
2 2 2 2
x x
(1) (2) 2x (1) (2) 2x
2 2
1 1
(3) x (4) (3) x (4)
x x
69. Unit of KC for the equilibrium 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  69. lkE; 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) ds
4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) is fy, KC dk ek=d gS
(1) mol L–1 (2) L mol–1 (1) mol L–1 (2) L mol–1
(3) mol5 L–5 (4) L5 mol–5 (3) mol5 L–5 (4) L5 mol–5
70. Equilibrium for which KP = KC is 70. fdl lkE; ds fy, KP = KC gS\
(1) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) (1) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(s) + Cl2(g)
(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(s) + Cl2(g)
(3) 2SO3(g)  2SO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) 2SO3(g)  2SO2(g) + O2(g)
(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
71. ;fn lkE; PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ds fy,]
71. If for the equilibrium PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
izkjEHk esa 1 eksyj PCl5 mifLFkr gS rFkk lkE; ij 0.6
1 molar PCl5 is present initially and at equilibrium
M Cl2 curk gS] rks nh x;h vfHkfØ;k ds fy, Kc dk
0.6 M Cl2 is formed than the value of Kc for the
given reaction is eku gS
1 11 1 11
(1) (2) (1) (2)
10 10 10 10
9 9 10
10 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 10 11
10 11
72. Example of homogeneous equilibrium is
72. lekaxh lkE; dk mnkgj.k gS
(1) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g)
(1) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g)
(2) H2O()  H2O(g)
(2) H2O()  H2O(g)
(3) Ca(OH)2(s) + (aq)  Ca2+(aq) + 2OH(aq)
(3) Ca(OH)2(s) + (aq)  Ca2+(aq) + 2OH(aq)
(4) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)
(4) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)
73. ;fn KC dk eku = 6.8 × 10–27 gks] rks fuEufyf[kr esa
73. If value of KC = 6.8 × 10–27 then which of the
ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS\
following statement is correct?
(1) vfHkfØ;k dfBurk ls vxzlfjr gksrh gS
(1) Reaction hardly proceeds
(2) Reaction proceeds almost to completion (2) vfHkfØ;k yxHkx iw.kZrk dh vksj vxzlfjr gksrh gS
(3) Both the reactants and products are present in (3) lkE; ij vfHkdkjd rFkk mRikn nksuksa i;kZIr
appreciable amount at equilibrium ek=k esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa
(4) Extent of reaction is very large (4) vfHkfØ;k dh lhek cgqr vf/kd gS
74. Equilibrium 2A(g)  B(g) + C(s) will shift in 74. lkE; 2A(g)  B(g) + C(s) vxz fn'kk esa foLFkkfir
forward direction by gksxk
(1) Adding inert gas at constant pressure (1) fu;r nkc ij vfØ; xSl feykus ij
(2) Adding inert gas at constant volume (2) fu;r vk;ru ij vfØ; xSl feykus ij
(3) Adding more C (3) vf/kd C feykus ij
(4) Removing B (4) B dks fu"dkflr djus ij

(12)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

75. Value of equilibrium constant depends on 75. lkE; fu;rkad dk eku fuHkZj djrk gS
(1) Moles of reactants and products (1) vfHkdkjdksa o mRiknksa ds eksyksa ij
(2) Volume of reactants and products (2) vfHkdkjdksa o mRiknksa ds vk;ru ij
(3) Pressure (3) nkc ij
(4) Temperature
(4) rki ij
76. Conjugate base of H2PO4 is
76. H2PO4 dk la;qXeh {kkj gS
(1) H3PO4 (2) HPO24 (1) H3PO4 (2) HPO24
(3) PO34 (4) H3PO3 (3) PO34 (4) H3PO3
77. If at t°C, Kw = 10–12 then the pH of pure water at 77. ;fn t°C ij Kw = 10 –12
gks] rks t°C ij 'kq) ty dk
t°C will be
pH gksxk
(1) 6 (2) 7
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 12 (3) 8 (4) 12
78. Common ion effect will observed in the aqueous 78. fdlds tyh; foy;u esa levk;u izHkko izsf{kr
solution of
gksxk\
(1) NaCl + HCl
(1)NaCl + HCl
(2) NaCl + CH3COOH (2)NaCl + CH3COOH
(3) CH3COONa + NaOH (3)CH3COONa + NaOH
(4) CH3COOH + HCl (4)CH3COOH + HCl
79. pH of 0.2 M aqueous solution of weak acid is 79. nqcy
Z vEy ds 0.2 M tyh; foy;u dk pH gS [pKa
[pKa = 4] = 4]
(1) 2.35 (2) 1.65 (1) 2.35 (2) 1.65
(3) 4.9 (4) 6.9 (3) 4.9 (4) 6.9
80. Lewis acid among the following is 80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls yqbl Z vEy gS
(1) HCl (2) CH3COOH (1) HCl (2) CH3COOH
(3) BF3 (4) NH3 (3) BF3 (4) NH3
81. pH of the resultant solution made by mixing 81. 500 mL, 0.2 M NH4OH o 500 mL, 0.1 M HCl
500 mL of 0.2 M NH4OH with 500 mL of 0.1 M HCl foy;u dks feykus ij izkIr ifj.kkeh foy;u dh pH
solution is [pKb NH4OH = 4.7] gS [pKb NH4OH = 4.7]
(1) 4.7 (2) 3.4 (1) 4.7 (2) 3.4
(3) 10.6 (4) 9.3 (3) 10.6 (4) 9.3
82. If Ksp of the salt A3B is 2.7 × 10–11 then solubility of 82. ;fn yo.k A3B dk Ksp = 2.7 × 10–11 gks] rks yo.k dh
the salt (in mol L–1) will be
foys;rk (mol L–1 es)a gksxh
(1) 2.7 × 10–3 M (2) 2.7 × 10–4 M (1) 2.7 × 10–3 M (2) 2.7 × 10–4 M
(3) 10–3 M (4) 10–4 M (3) 10–3 M (4) 10–4 M
83. Solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M aqueous NaCl solution 83. 0.1 M tyh; NaCl foy;u esa AgCl dh foys;rk gS
is [Ksp for AgCl = 1.2 × 10–10]
[AgCl ds fy, Ksp = 1.2 × 10–10]
(1) 1 × 10–5 M (2) 1.2 × 10–9 M
(1) 1 × 10–5 M (2) 1.2 × 10–9 M
(3) 1.2 × 10–5 M (4) 10–9 M –5
(3) 1.2 × 10 M (4) 10–9 M
84. If for weak acid HA, Ka = 10–8 then value of pKb for 84. ;fn nqcy Z vEy HA ds fy, Ka = 10–8 gks] rks blds
its conjugate base is
la;qXeh {kkj ds fy, pKb dk eku gS
(1) 6 (2) 8
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 12
(3) 7 (4) 12
85. Correct order of acidic strength is
85. vEyh; lkeF;Z dk lgh Øe gS
(1) CH4 > NH3 > H2O (2) H2O > NH3 > CH4
(1) CH4 > NH3 > H2O (2) H2O > NH3 > CH4
(3) NH3 > H2O > CH4 (4) NH3 > CH4 > H2O (3) NH3 > H2O > CH4 (4) NH3 > CH4 > H2O

(13)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
86. Cationic salt hydrolysis is shown by 86. fdlds }kjk /kuk;fud yo.k tyvi?kVu n'kkZ;k
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl tkrk gS\
(3) CH3COONa (4) NaCN (1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl
87. pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is (3) CH3COONa (4) NaCN
(1) 6 (2) 6.98 87. 10–8 M HCl foy;u dh pH gS
(3) 7 (4) 8 (1) 6 (2) 6.98
88. Which of the following is not always correct at (3) 7 (4) 8
equilibrium? 88. lkE; ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk lnSo lgh ugha
(1) G = 0 (2) K = Q gksrk\
(3) G° = 0 (4) All of these (1) G = 0 (2) K = Q
89. Select the incorrect statement at equilibrium. (3) G° = 0 buesa ls lHkh
(4)
(1) Equilibrium is possible in closed system only 89. lkE; ij xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(2) Both the opposing processes occur at the (1) lkE; dsoy can fudk; esa laHko gS
same rate (2) nksuksa fojks/kh izØe leku osx ls gksrs gSa
(3) Concentration of reactants always become (3) vfHkdkjdksa dh lkanzrk mRiknksa dh lkanzrk ds
equal to the concentration of products cjkcj gks tkrh gS
(4) All measurable properties of the system (4) fudk; ds lHkh ekiuh; xq.k fu;r jgrs gSa
remain constant
90. nqcy
Z vEy o nqcy Z {kkj ls cus yo.k ds tyh;
90. pH of the aqueous solution of salt of weak acid foy;u dk pH gS
with weak base is
1 1
1 1 (1) 7  (pKa  pKb ) (2) 7  (pKa  pKb )
(1) 7  (pKa  pKb ) (2) 7  (pKa  pKb ) 2 2
2 2
1
1 (3) 7  (pKa  pKb ) (4) 7  (pKb  pKa )
(3) 7  (pKa  pKb ) (4) 7  (pKb  pKa ) 2
2

BOTANY

91. Match the column-I with column-II and select the 91. dkWye-I dk dkWye-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh
correct option. fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. ,UVkWu okWu (i) dsna zd ds lehi
a. Anton Von (i) First observed
Y;wous gkWd l?ku:i ls
Leeuwenhoek densely stained
vfHkjaftr
reticular structures
tkfydkor lajpuk
near the nucleus
dks loZizFke
b. Camillo Golgi (ii) Gave the name voyksfdr fd;k
Chromatin b. dSfeyks xkWYth (ii) ØkseSfVu uke fn;k
c. George Palade (iii) First saw and c. tkWtZ iykMs (iii) loZiFz ke thfor
described a live cell dksf'kdk dks ns[kk o
mldh O;k[;k dh
d. Flemming (iv) First observed
ribosome under d. ¶ysfeax (iv) bysDVªkWu lw{en'khZ
electron microscope ls jkbckslkse dks
loZiFz ke ns[kk
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(14)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

92. Theodore Schwann, a British Zoologist has a 92. fFk;ksMksj 'oku ,d fczfV'k tarq oSKkfud us dksf'kdk
great contribution in formulation of cell theory. fl)kar ds fu:i.k esa vR;f/kd ;ksxnku fn;kA muds
Select the correct statement w.r.t. the hypothesis }kjk izfrosfnr dh x;h ifjdYiuk ds lanHkZ esa lgh
proposed by him. dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) All plants are composed of different kinds of (1) lHkh ikni fofHkUu izdkj dh dksf'kdkvksa ds cus
cells which form the tissues of the plant gksrs s gSa tks ikni ds ÅÙkdksa dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa
(2) Bodies of animals and plants are composed of (2) tarq o ikni ds dk; dksf'kdkvksa o dksf'kdkvksa
cells and products of cells
ds mRiknksa ds cus gksrs gSa
(3) New cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
(3) ubZ dksf'kdk,¡ igys ls fo|eku dksf'kdkvksa ls
(4) Omnis cellula – e-cellula
cuh gksrh gSa
93. Which of the given cell organelles is found in both
(4) vkseful lsyqyk&b-lsyqyk
prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cells?
(1) Mitochondria 93. fn;k x;k dkSulk dksf'kdkax izksdSfj;ksfVd o
(2) Microbodies
;wdSfj;ksfVd nksuksa dksf'kdkvksa esa ik;k tkrk gS\
(3) Vacuoles (1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k (2) lw{edk;
(4) Ribosome (3) jl/kkuh (4) jkbckslkse
94. Within the cell, ribosomes are found not only in the 94. dksf'kdk esa jkbckslkse dsoy dksf'kdknzO; esa ugha ik;k
cytoplasm but also in/on cell organelles, that tkrk gS ijarq dksf'kdkax es@ a ij Hkh ik;k tkrk gS
includes ftlesa lfEefyr gS
(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast (A) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k (B) gfjryod
(C) Rough ER (D) Golgi body (C) [kqjnqjh ER (D) xkWYth dk;
The correct set of options is: fodYiksa dk lgh leqPp; gS%
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) Only (C)
(1) dsoy (A) rFkk (B) (2) dsoy (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (D)
(3) (A), (B) rFkk (C) (4) dsoy (D)
95. Arrange the following in ascending order of their
sizes
95. fuEufyf[kr dks muds vkdkj ds vk/kkj ij c<+rs Øe
P. Red blood cells
esa O;ofLFkr dhft,A
Q. Mycoplasma P. yky jDr dksf'kdk,¡
R. Bacteria Q. ekbdksIykTek
(1) Q < R < P (2) Q < P < R R. thok.kq
(3) P < R < Q (4) R < Q < P (1) Q < R < P (2) Q < P < R
96. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cells and their (3) P < R < Q (4) R < Q < P
shapes. 96. dksf'kdk o muds vkÑfr ds lanHkZ esa vlqesfyr dk
(1) White blood cells – Round and biconcave p;u dhft,A
(2) A tracheid – Elongated (1) 'osr jDr dksf'kdk – xksy o mHk;kory
(3) Nerve cell – Branched and long (2) okfgfudk – nhf?kZr
(4) Columnar epithelial cells – Long and narrow (3) raf=dk dksf'kdk – 'kkf[kr o yach
97. (A) A specialised differentiated form of cell (4) LraHkh; midyk dksf'kdk – yach o ladh.kZ
membrane.
97. (A) dksf'kdk f>Yyh dk fof'k"V foHksfnr :i gSA
(B) These are essentially infoldings of cell
(B) ;s dksf'kdk f>Yyh ds vko';d varoyZu gSa A
membrane.
(C) Helps in cell wall formation, respiration, (C) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk fuekZ.k] 'olu] L=ko.k izfØ;k esa
secretion process, to increase surface area of lgk;d gksrk gS] IykTek f>Yyh ds lrgh {ks= o
plasma membrane and enzymatic content. ,atkbe dh ek=k dks c<+kus esa lgk;d gksrk gSA
The above features (A-C) are attributed to which mijksDr fo'ks"krk,¡ (A-C) izksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk dh nh
of the given structures of prokaryotic cell? x;h fdu lajpukvksa ds xq.k gSa\
(1) Nucleoid (2) Plasmid (1) U;wfDykW;M (2) IykfTeM
(3) Mesosome (4) Pilus (3) ehlkstkse (4) ikbyl

(15)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

98. Refer the given statements, stating them true (T) 98. fn, x, dFkuksa dks fufnZ"V dhft,] lgh (T) ;k xyr
or false (F) and select the correct option. (F) crkb, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
A. The ribosomes of polysome translate the A. ikWyhlkse dk jkbckslkse mRNA dks izksVhu esa
mRNA into proteins. vuqokfnr djrk gSA
B. Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and B. xSl jl/kkuh uhy gfjr o cSaxuh rFkk gfjr
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria. izdk'kla'ys"kh thok.kq esa ik, tkrs gSa A
C. Centrioles are present in all plant cells. C. rkjddsn a z lHkh ikni dksf'kdkvksa esa mifLFkr gksrs
D. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are made of two gSaA
subunits 50 S and 40 S. D. izksdSfj;ksV~l esa jkbckslkse nks mibdkb;ksa 50 S o
(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F (2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T 40 S ds cus gksrs gSaA
(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F (2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F (4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F (4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T
99. Consider the given diagram and select the correct
99. fn, x, vkjs[k dks lef>, rFkk ukekafdr ?kVdksa (A-
option w.r.t labelled components (A-D). D) ds lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

A B C D A B C D
(1) Lipid Cholesterol Peripheral Integral (1) fyfiM dkWysLVªkWyifj/kh; izkVs hu vaxHkwr
protein protein izkVs hu
(2) dkWysLVªkWy vaxHkwr izkVs hu 'kdZjk ifj/kh;
(2) Cholesterol Integral protein Sugar Peripheral izkVs hu
protein
(3) 'kdZjk ifj/kh; izkVs hu QkWLQksfyfiM vaxHkwr
(3) Sugar Peripheral Phospholipid Integral f}ijr izkVs hu
protein bilayer protein (4) 'kdZjk vaxHkwr izkVs hu dkWysLVªkWy fyfiM
(4) Sugar Integral protein Cholesterol Lipid 100. dkWye-I dk dkWye-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh
100. Match the column-I with column-II and select the fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
correct option. dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. xkWYth ladqy (i) ;wdfS j;ksfVd dksf'kdkvksa
Column-I Column-II
ds lHkh fØ;kfof/k dks
a. Golgi complex (i) Controls all the activities fu;af=r djrk gS
of eukaryotic cells b. varnzZO;h (ii) vk/kkjhdk; ds fuekZ.k esa
b. Endoplasmic (ii) Helps in formation of tkfydk lgk;d gksrk gS tks
reticulum basal bodies which gives i{ekHk o d'kkHk dks
rise to cilia and flagella mRiUu djrk gS
c. Nucleus (iii) Important site of c. dsn
a zd (iii) XykbdksizksVhu ds fuekZ.k
formation of glycoprotein dk egRoiw.kZ LFky gksrk
gS
d. Centriole (iv) Often shows ribosomes
d. rkjddsn a z (iv) izk;% vius cká lrg ls
attached to their outer
surface
tqM+s jkbckslkse dks
n'kkZrk gS
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(16)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

101. Which of the given components of oxysome 101. vkWDlhlkse ds fn, x, fdl ?kVd esa ATP flUFkst
contain ATP synthase enzyme? ,atkbe gksrk gS\
(1) Base (2) Stalk (1) vk/kkj (2) o`ar
(3) Headpiece (4) F0 (3) eq[;'kh"kZ (4) F0
102. Which of the given components w.r.t. 102. xq.klw=ksa ds lanHkZ esa fn;k x;k dkSulk ?kVd buds
chromosomes seal their ends and prevent
fdukjksa dks can dj bUgsa NksVk gksus o xq.klw=h; gkfu
shortening or chromosome loss?
dks jksdrk gS\
(1) Telomere (2) Kinetochore
(1) Vhyksej (2) dkbusVksdksj
(3) Centromere (4) Primary constriction
(3) xq.klw=fcanq (4) izkFkfed ladqpu
103. Which of the given plastids store proteins?
103. fn;k x;k dkSulk IykfLVM izksVhu lafpr djrk gS \
(1) Amyloplast (2) Elaioplast
(1) ,ekbyksIykLV (2) bfy;ksIykLV
(3) Aleuroplast (4) Chromoplast
(3) ,Y;wjksIykLV (4) ØkseksIykLV
104. Which of the following statements w.r.t.
chloroplast is incorrect? 104. gfjryod ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk

(1) Stores starch


dFku xyr gS\
(1) eaM dks lafpr djrk gS
(2) Performs photosynthesis
(2) izdk'kla'ys"k.k n'kkZrk gS
(3) Outer membrane is relatively less permeable
to substances than inner membrane (3) cká f>Yyh] vkarfjd f>Yyh dh rqyuk esa inkFkks±

(4) Contains 70 S ribosomes ds izfr vkisf{kd :i ls vYi ikjxE; gksrk gS


105. In which of the given chromosomes, centromere is (4) blesa 70 S jkbckslkse gksrs gSa
present at the centre? 105. fn, x, fdu xq.klw=ksa esa xq.klw=fcanq dsn a z esa mifLFkr
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric gksrk gS\
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric (1) eè;dsn a zh (2) mi&eè;dsn a zh
106. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in all of the (3) vxzfcanq (4) vaR;dsna zh
given functions, except 106. fdlds vfrfjDr ,d dksf'kdk esa dksf'kdkiatj fn,
(1) Maintenance of shape of cells x, lHkh dk;ks± esa lfEefyr gksrs gSa\
(2) Mechanical support to cell (1) dksf'kdkvksa ds vkdkj dks cuk, j[kuk
(3) -oxidation of fats (2) dksf'kdk dks ;kaf=d lgk;rk iznku djuk
(4) Motility (3) olk dk-vkWDlhdj.k djuk
107. How many centrioles are associated with a (4) xfr'khyrk iznku djuk
centrosome? 107. buesa ls fdrus rkjddsUnz rkjddk; ds lkFk tqM+s
(1) 5 (2) 3 gksrs gSa\
(3) 2 (4) 4 (1) 5 (2) 3
108. Which of the given are formed by the process of (3) 2 (4) 4
packaging in the Golgi apparatus? 108. fn, x, esa ls dkSulk ,d xkWYth midj.k esa laos"Vu
(1) Lysosome (2) Mitochondria dh izfØ;k }kjk curk gS\
(3) Centrioles (4) Chloroplast (1) ykblkslkse (2) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k
109. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte (3) rkjddsUnz (4) gfjryod
has approximately A percent proteins and B 109. ekuoksa esa bfjFkzkslkbV dh f>Yyh esa yxHkx A
percent lipids. izfr'kr izksVhu o B izfr'kr fyfiM gksrk gSA
(1) A - 60, B - 40 (2) A - 52, B - 40
(1) A - 60, B - 40 (2) A - 52, B - 40
(3) A - 40, B - 52 (4) A - 40, B - 60 (3) A - 40, B - 52 (4) A - 40, B - 60

(17)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
110. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. various 110. thokf.od dksf'kdkvksa esa dksf'kdk vkoj.k ds fofHkUu
layers of cell envelope in bacterial cells. ijrksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) The outermost layer determines the shape of (1) ckáijr dksf'kdkvksa dh vkÑfr dks fu/kkZfjr
cells
djrh gS
(2) Glycocalyx is followed by cell wall
(2) XykbdksdsfyDl ds ckn dksf'kdk fHkfÙk gksr h gS
(3) Glycocalyx can be seen either in the form of
slime layer or capsule in different types of (3) XykbdksdsfyDl fHkUu izdkj ds thok.kq esa voiad
bacteria ijr ;k dSIlwy ds :i esa gks ldrk gS
(4) Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan (4) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk isfIVMksXykbdsu dh cuh gksrh gS
111. A prokaryotic cell divides every 25 minutes. If a 111. ,d izksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk izR;sd 25 feuV esa
culture containing 105 cells per mL is grown for foHkkftr gksrh gSA ;fn ,d lao/kZu esa izfr mL 105
125 minutes, what will be the cell concentration dksf'kdk dks 125 feuV rd o`f) djok;k tkrk gS rks
per mL after 125 minutes?
125 feuV ckn izfr mL dksf'kdk lkanzrk D;k gksxh\
(1) 5 × 105 cells (2) 25 × 105 cells
(1) 5 × 105 dksf'kdk (2) 25 × 105 dksf'kdk
(3) 32 × 105 cells (4) 125 × 105 cells
(3) 32 × 105 dksf'kdk (4) 125 × 105 dksf'kdk
112. G1 phase
112. G1 izkoLFkk
(1) Is also called quiescent stage
(1) 'kkar izkoLFkk Hkh dgykrh gS
(2) Starts with separation of daughter
chromosomes (2) iq=h xq.klw= ds foikVu ds lkFk vkjaHk gksr h gS
(3) Is part of interphase (3) varjkoLFkk dk Hkkx gksrh gS
(4) Corresponds to interval between initiation of (4) DNA izfrÑrh;u o ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k ds f}xq.ku ds
DNA replication and duplication of vkjaHk ds chp ds varjky ds vuq:i gksrh gS
mitochondria 113. ,d ;hLV dksf'kdk dks foHkkftr gksus rFkk nksxquh
113. A yeast cell divides and get double in gksus esa fdruk le; yxrk gS\
(1) 90 minutes (2) 60 minutes (1) 90 feuV (2) 60 feuV
(3) 18 minutes (4) 24 hours (3) 18 feuV (4) 24 feuV
114. How many mitotic divisions occur in formation of 114. ,d dksf'kdk ls 64 dksf'kdkvksa ds fuekZ.k esa fdrus
64 cells from one cell?
lelw=h foHkktu gksrs gSa\
(1) 6 (2) 32
(1) 6 (2) 32
(3) 16 (4) 63 (3) 16 (4) 63
115. Which of the given events are correct w.r.t. 115. nh x;h dkSulh ifj?kVuk G2 izkoLFkkds lanHkZ esa lgh
G2 phase?
gS\
A. Duplication of centriole
A. rkjddsUnz dk f}xq.ku
B. Proteins are synthesized
B. izksVhuksa dk la'ys"k.k
C. Replication of DNA
C. DNA dk izfrÑrh;u
D. Duplication of chloroplast
D. gfjryod dk f}xq.ku
(1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C
(1) A o B nksuksa (2) A o C nksuksa
(3) Both B and C (4) Both B and D
(3) B o C nksuksa (4) B o D nksuksa
116. If a diploid cell with 20 chromosomes and 32 C
DNA enters a cell cycle then what will be the 116. ;fn 20 xq.klw= o 32 C DNA ;qDr ,d f}xqf.kr
number of chromosomes and DNA after dksf'kdk dksf'kdk pØ esa izos'k djrh gS rks
S-phase? S-izkoLFkk ds ckn xq.klw= o DNA dh la[;k D;k gksxh\
(1) 20 chromosomes and 32 C DNA (1) 20 xq.klw= o 32 C DNA
(2) 20 chromosomes and 64 C DNA (2) 20 xq.klw= o 64 C DNA
(3) 40 chromosomes and 32 C DNA (3) 40 xq.klw= o 32 C DNA
(4) 40 chromosomes and 64 C DNA (4) 40 xq.klw= o 64 C DNA

(18)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

117. During which phase of karyokinesis, 117. dSfjvksdkbusfll ds fdl izkoLFkk ds nkSjku xq.klw=
chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles foijhr rdqZ èkzqoksa dh vksj ,df=r gks tkrs gSa vkSj
and their identity is lost as discrete elements?
budh i`Fkd igpku lekIr gks tkrh gS\
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(1) iwokZoLFkk (2) eè;koLFkk
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
118. How many generations of mitosis are required to (3) i'pkoLFkk (4) vaR;koLFkk
produce 32 cells? 118. 32 dksf'kdkvksa dks mRiUu djus ds fy, lelw=h
(1) 31 (2) 8 foHkktu ds fdrus ih<+h dh vko';drk gksrh gS\
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 31 (2) 8
119. How many asters together with spindle fibres (3) 4 (4) 5
forms mitotic apparatus? 119. rdqZ rarqvksa ds lkFk fdrus rkjd lelw=h midj.k
(1) 1 (2) 2 dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa\
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 1 (2) 2
120. The initiation of second phase of mitosis is marked (3) 3 (4) 4
by which of the given events?
120. lelw=h foHkktu ds f}rh;d izkoLFkk dk vkjaHku nh
(1) Formation of asters and spindle fibres
x;h fdl izkoLFkk }kjk fpfUgr gksrk gS\
(2) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
(1) rkjd o rdqZ rarqvksa dk fuekZ.k
(3) Movement of chromosomes to spindle equator
(4) Splitting of centromere and separation of (2) dsn a zdh; vkoj.k dk iw.kZ fo?kVu
chromatids (3) rdqZ eè;js[kk dh vksj xq.klw= dh xfr
121. Plants grew continuously throughout their life (4) xq.klw=fcanq dk foikVu rFkk ØkseSfVM~l dk
because of the occurrence of mitotic divisions in
i`FkDdj.k
A. Apical meristem B. Lateral meristems
121. ____esa lelw=h foHkktu gksus ds dkj.k ikni vius
C. Parenchyma D. Collenchyma
lai.w kZ thou esa yxkrkj o`f) djrk gS
(1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C
A. 'kh"kZ esfjLVse B. ik'ohZ esfjLVse
(3) Both B and C (4) Both C and D
C. iSjad s kbek D. dkWydsa kbek
122. In oocytes of some vertebrates, which of the given (1) A o B nksuksa (2) A o C nksuksa
sub-stages of prophase-I can last for months or
years? (3) B o C nksuksa (4) C o D nksuksa
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene 122. dqN d'ks#fd;ksa dh vaMdksf'kdk esa iwokZoLFkk -I dh nh
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
x;h dkSulh mi&izkoLFkk eghuksa ;k o"kks± rd gks
ldrh gS\
123. Match column-I with column-II and select the
(1) ruqiV~V ¼fyIVksVhu½ (2) ;qXeiV~V ¼tkbxksVhu½
correct option.
(3) LFkwyiV~V ¼iSdsVhu½ (4) f}iV~V ¼fMIyksVhu½
Column-I Column-II
123. dkWye-I dk dkWye-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh
a. Leptotene (i) Chromosomes start fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
paring together dkWye-I dkWye-II
b. Zygotene (ii) Terminalisation of a. ruqiV~V (i) xq.klw= dk ;qXeu vkjaHk
chiasmata gksrk gS
c. Pachytene (iii) Compaction of b. ;qXeiV~V (ii) dk,TesVk dk mikarhHkou
chromosomes gksrk gS
continues
c. LFkwyiV~V (iii) xq.klw= dk la?kuu yxkrkj
d. Diakinesis (iv) Appearance of gksrk gS
recombination d. ikjxfrØe (iv) iqu;kst Z u xzafFk iqu% fn[kus
nodules
yxrh gS
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(19)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

124. Which of the following is significance of mitosis? 124. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d lelw=h foHkktu dk
(1) Cell repair egRo gS\
(1) dksf'kdk dk ejEer
(2) Increases genetic variability in population
(2) lef"V esa vkuqoaf'kd fofo/krk esa o`f)
(3) Produces recombinants
(3) iqu;ksx Z t dk mRiknu
(4) Bringing variations among offsprings (4) larfr;ksa ds chp fofo/krk mRiUu djuk
125. The best stage to study shapes of chromosomes 125. xq.klw= dh vkÑfr ds v/;;u dh mÙke izkoLFkk
is dkSulh gS\
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) iwokZoLFkk (2) eè;koLFkk
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) i'pkoLFkk (4) vaR;koLFkk
126. Select the correct option w.r.t. events which lead 126. og ?kVuk,¡ ftlds dkj.k ladksf'kdk ¼fludkbfV;e½
to formation of syncytium. dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS] mlds lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk
p;u dhft,A
(1) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis
(1) dSfjvksdkbusfll ds ckn dksf'kdknzO; foHkktu
(2) Karyokinesis not followed by disappearance of ugha gksrk gS
nuclear membrane
(2) dSfjvksdkbusfll ds ckn dsanzdh; f>Yyh vn`';
(3) Nuclear division without DNA duplication ugha gksrk gS
(4) Cytokinesis followed by karyokinesis (3) DNA ds f}xq.ku ds fcuk dsn a zdh; foHkktu gksrk
127. Which of the given can be considered as gS
precursor of middle lamella during cytokinesis in (4) dksf'kdknzO; foHkktu ds ckn dSfjvksdkbusfll
plant cell? gksrk gS
127. fn, x, esa ls fdls ikni dksf'kdk esa dksf'kdknzO;
(1) Cell furrow (2) Cell plate
foHkktu ds nkSjku eè; iVfydk dk iwoZxkeh ekuk tk
(3) Cell wall (4) Cell membrane ldrk gS\
128. Read the given statements and select the correct (1) dksf'kdk [kk¡p (2) dksf'kdk iV~Vh
option. (3) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk (4) dksf'kdk f>Yyh
Statement A : Cells divide to restore nucleo- 128. fn, x, dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u
cytoplasmic ratio. dhft,A
Statement B : Four haploid cells are formed at the dFku A : dksf'kdk,¡ U;wfDyvkslkbVksIykfTed vuqikr
end of meiosis I. dks iqu%lafpr djus ds fy, foHkkftr gksrh gSA
(1) Only statement A is correct dFku B : pkj vxqf.kr dksf'kdk,¡ v/kZlw=h foHkktu I
(2) Only statement B is correct
ds var esa curh gSaA
(1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(3) Both statements are correct
(2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
129. If average duration of cell cycle of a normally (4) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
dividing cell is 130 minutes then, what should be 129. ;fn lkekU; :i ls foHkkftr gksus okyh dksf'kdkvksa
the duration of interphase in it? ds dksf'kdk pØ dh vkSlr vof/k 130 feuV gksrh gS
(1) 120 minutes rks blesa varjkoLFkk dh vof/k fdruh gksuh pkfg,\
(2) More than 114 minutes (1) 120 feuV
(3) 60 minutes (2) 114 feuV ls vf/kd
(3) 60 feuV
(4) Less than 30 minutes
(4) 30 feuV ls de
130. The short-lived resting stage between two meiotic
130. nks v/kZlw=h foHkktu ds chp dh y?kq&dkfyd
divisions is called
foJkekoLFkk D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Interphase (2) Interkinesis
(1) varjkoLFkk (2) varjkykoLFkk
(3) Telophase-I (4) Karyokinesis (3) vaR;koLFkk-I (4) dSfjvksdkbusfll

(20)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

131. When a cell does not divide, it enters 131. tc ,d dksf'kdk foHkkftr ugha gksrh gS rks og
A. G1 phase B. Quiscent stage A. G1 izkoLFkk esa izo's k djrh gSA
B. 'kkar izkoLFkk esa izo's k djrh gSA
C. S-shape D. G2 phase
C. S-izkoLFkk esa izo's k djrh gSA
(1) Both A and C (2) Both B and C
D. G2 izkoLFkk esa izo's k djrh gSA
(3) Only B (4) Only D (1) A o C nksuksa (2) B o C nksuksa
132. Examine the phase from graph given below which (3) dsoy B (4) dsoy D
shows the change in amount of DNA during 132. uhps fn, x, xzkQ dh izkoLFkk dk fujh{k.k dhft,
various phases (A-D) of meiotic division. tks v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fofHkUu izkoLFkkvksa (A-D) ds
nkSjku DNA dh ek=k esa ifjorZu n'kkZrk gSA

A B C D E A B C D E

(1) v/kZlw=h v/kZlw=h G2 S G1


(1) Meiosis-I Meiosis-II G2 S G1 foHkktu-I foHkktu -II

(2) G1 S G2 Meiosis-I Meiosis-II (2) G1 S G2 v/kZlw=h v/kZlw=h


foHkktu -I foHkktu -II
(3) S G2 Meiosis-I G1 Meiosis-II (3) S G2 v/kZlw=h G1 v/kZlw=h
foHkktu -I foHkktu -II
(4) G2 Meiosis-I S G1 Meiosis-I
(4) G2 v/kZlw=h S G1 v/kZlw=h
133. Mitosis is also known as equational divisions, foHkktu -I foHkktu -I
because 133. lelw=h foHkktu lefoHkktu Hkh dgykrk gS] D;ksfa d
(1) Parent cell forms two daughter cells (1) tud dksf'kdk nks iq=h dksf'kdkvksa dk fuekZ.k
(2) Number of chromosomes in parent and djrh gS
progeny cells remains the same (2) tud o larfr dksf'kdkvksa dh la[;k leku cuh
(3) There is an equal cytokinesis jgrh gS
(4) Number of chromosomes becomes half in (3) ;g ,d le dksf'kdknzO;h foHkktu gS
progeny as of the parent cell (4) tud dksf'kdk dh rqyuk esa larfr esa xq.klw= dh
134. How many meiotic divisions are required to la[;k vk/kh gks tkrh gS
produce 20 seeds in a flowering plant? 134. iq"ih ikniksa esa 20 chtksa dks mRiUu djus ds fy,
(1) 20 (2) 5 fdrus v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh vko';drk gksrh gS\
(3) 25 (4) 30 (1) 20 (2) 5
(3) 25 (4) 30
135. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex is seen in
135. flusIVksusey ladqy dk fo;kstu fdlesa gksrk gS\
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(1) ruqiV~V (2) ;qXeiV~V
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(3) f}iV~V (4) ikjxfrØe

(21)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

ZOOLOGY
136. Identify the correct set of enzymes which perform 136. ,atkbeksa ds ml lgh leqPp; dh igpku dhft, tks
their enzymatic action in lumen of small intestine NksVh vkar ds Y;wesu esa ,atkbe dh fØ;k dks n'kkZrs gSa
(1) Trypsin, pepsin, chymotrypsin (1) fVªfIlu] isfIlu] dkbeksfVªfIlu
(2) Maltase, sucrase, nucleases (2) ekYVst] lqØst] U;wfDy,t
(3) Amylase, nucleosidase, salivary amylase
(3) ,ekbyst] U;wfDy;kslkbMsl] ykj ,ekbyst
(4) Pepsin, lactase, nucleotidase
137. Match the following columns and choose the (4) isfIlu] ySDVst] U;wfDy;ksVkbMst
correct answer. 137. fuEufyf[kr dkWye dk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh
Column-I Column-II mÙkj dk p;u dhft,A
(Hormones) (Target organ) dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Somatostatin (i) Stomach (gkeksu
Z ) (y{; vax)
a. lksesVksLVsfVu (i) vkek'k;
b. Cholecystokinin (ii) Liver
c. Secretin (iii) Gall bladder b. dksfyflLVksdkbfuu (ii) ;Ñr

d. Gastrin (iv) Pancreas c. lsØsfVu (iii) fiÙkk'k;

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) d. xSfLVªu (iv) vXuk'k;
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
138. A digestive juice that does not contain any (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
digestive enzyme but important for emulsification 138. ,d ikpd jl ftlesa dksbZ ikpd ,atkbe ugha gksrk
of lipids is secreted from gS] ysfdu fyfDoM ds beYlhdj.k ds fy, egRoiw.kZ
(1) Small Intestine (2) Liver
gS] fdlls L=kfor gksrk gS\
(3) Gall bladder (4) Pancreas
(1) NksVh vkar (2) ;Ñr
139. Read the following statements
a. Kwashiorkar is produced only by protein (3) fiÙkk'k; (4) vXuk'k;
deficiency in children more than one year in 139. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+;s
age a. Dokf'kvksjdj ,d o"kZ ls vf/kd mez okys cPpksa esa
b. Malnutrition is a term which covers problems dsoy izksVhu dh deh ds dkj.k mRiUu gksrk gSA
of undernutrition b. dqiks"k.k ,d ,slk 'kCn gS tks vYiiks"k.k dh
c. Inflammation of liver is called cholecystitis. leL;kvksa dks 'kkfey djrk gSA
Select the option which contain only correct
c. ;Ñr dh 'kksFk dks fiÙkk'k; 'kksFk dgk tkrk gSA
statements
(1) a and b (2) b and c dsoy lgh dFkuksa okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(3) a and c (4) All a, b and c (1) a rFkk b (2) b rFkk c
140. Procarboxypeptidase is converted into carboxy- (3) a rFkk c (4) lHkh a, b rFkk c
peptidase by the action of enzyme which is 140. ,atkbe dh fØ;k }kjk izksdkcksDZ lhisfIVMst
present in dkcksDZ lhisfIVMst esa cny tkrk gS tks ik;k tkrk gS
(1) Intestinal lumen (2) Succus entericus (1) vkar Y;wesu esa (2) lDdl ,saVsfjdl esa
(3) Saliva (4) Gastric juice (3) ykj esa (4) tBj jl esa
141. Identify the below given diagram and choose the
141. uhps fn, x, fp= dh igpku dhft, rFkk ml
labelled part which contains rugae in stomach and
villi in intestine fpfUgr Hkkx dk p;u dhft, ftlds vkek'k; esa
>qfjZ;ka ¼jx½ rFkk vkar esa vadqj gksrk gS

(1) P (2) Q (1) P (2) Q


(3) R (4) S (3) R (4) S

(22)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

142. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of 142. fdlds [kqyus dks vksMh vojksf/kuh }kjk fu;af=r fd;k
(1) Hepatopancreatic duct tkrk gS\
(2) Cystic duct (1) ;Ñr vXuk'k; okfguh
(3) Common bile duct (2) fiÙkk'k; okfguh
(3) ewy fiÙk okfguh
(4) Hepatic duct
(4) ;Ñr okfguh
143. Which of the following cell secretions of gastric
143. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh dksf'kdk tBj xzafFk;ksa ds
glands play an important role in erythropoiesis?
L=ko esa jDrk.kq mRifÙk esa egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrh
(1) Parietal cells (2) Chief cells
gS\
(3) Peptic cells (4) Mucus neck cells (1) fHkÙkh; dksf'kdk,¡
144. Dental formula for the diphyodont teeth of human (2) eq[;dksf'kdk,¡
is (3) isfIVd dksf'kdk,¡
0021 2103 (4) 'ys"ek xzhok dksf'kdk,¡
(1) (2)
0021 2103 144. euq"; ds f}ckjnarh nkar ds fy, naR; lw= gS
2102 2123 0021 2103
(3) (4) (1) (2)
2102 2123 0021 2103
2102 2123
145. The amount of heat liberated from complete (3) (4)
2102 2123
combustion of 1 gm fat in a bomb calorimeter is
145. ,d ce dSyksjhehVj esa ,d xzke olk ds iw.kZ ngu ls
(1) 4.1 kcal/g and called physiologic value
fdruh ek=k esa Å"ek eqDr gksrh gS\
(2) 5.65 kcal/g and called gross calorific value
(1) 4.1 kcal/g rFkk dkf;Zdh eku dgykrh gS
(3) 4 kcal/gm and called physiologic value (2) 5.65 kcal/g rFkk LFkwy Å"eh; eku dgykrh gS
(4) 9.45 kcal/gm and called gross calorific value (3) 4 kcal/gm rFkk dkf;Zdh eku dgykrh gS
146. Identify the cells/structures from given below box (4) 9.45 kcal/gm rFkk LFkwy Å"eh; eku dgykrh gS
which are exclusively present in mucosa of 146. uhps fn, x, ckWDl ls mu dksf'kdkvks@ a lajpukvksa
intestine dh igpku dhft, tks eq[; :i ls vkar dh 'ys"ek
Paneth cells, Peyer's patches, Brunner's gland, esa ik;h tkrh gS
mucus secreting cells isusFk dksf'kdk,a] is;j iSap] czwuj xzafFk] 'ys"ek L=kfor
(1) Two (2) Three
djus okyh dksf'kdk,sa
(1) nks (2) rhu
(3) Four (4) One
(3) pkj (4) ,d
147. Read the following statements w.r.t. human
147. euq"; ds narfoU;kl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa
dentition and choose the correct answer.
dks if<+;s rFkk lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,A
Statement-A : All thecodonts are diphyodont and
dFku-A : lHkh xrZnarh f}ckjnarh gksrs gSa rFkk blds
vice versa.
foijhr Hkh lghs gSaA
Statement-B : All incisor teeth are thecodont and
dFku-B : lHkh d`ard nkar xrZnarh rFkk f}ckjnarh
diphyodont.
gksrs gSaA
(1) Both statements are correct (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
148. Pernicious anaemia is caused due to 148. fdlds dkj.k ?kkrd ,uhfe;k gksrk gS\
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency a. foVkfeu B12 dh deh
b. Vitamin B6 deficiency b. foVkfeu B6 dh deh
c. Malfunctioning of gastric glands c. tBj xzafFk;ksa dh dqlafØ;k
d. Over secretion of succus entericus d. lDdl ,saVsfjdl ds vfr L=ko
(1) a and b (2) a and c (1) a rFkk b (2) a rFkk c
(3) b and c (4) c and d (3) b rFkk c (4) c rFkk d

(23)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

149. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t absorption in 149. vkgkj uky esa vo'kks"k.k ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk
alimentary canal p;u dhft,A
(1) Glucose is absorbed in the stomach and small (1) vkek'k; vkSj NksVh vkar esa Xywdkst dk vo'kks"k.k
intestine gksrk gS
(2) Absorption of water occurs in stomach, small
(2) vkek'k;] NksVh vkar vkSj cM+h vkar esa ty dk
intestine and large intestine
vo'kks"k.k gksrk gS
(3) Absorption of alcohol does not occur in
(3) ,YdksgkWy dk vo'kks"k.k vkek'k; esa ugha gksrk gS
stomach
(4) dqN vkS"kf/k;ksa dk vo'kks"k.k eq[k dh 'ys"ek rFkk
(4) Certain drugs are absorbed through mucosa
of mouth and lower side of the tongue
thHk ds fupys Hkkx ds ekè;e ls gksrk gS
150. Choose the correct food component which 150. ;fn vXuk'k; dh dks"Bd 'kksFk vXuk'k; jl dks
remains completed undigested in digestive tract if L=kfor djus esa vlQy jgrh gS rks ml [kk| ?kVd
acini of pancreas fail to secrete pancreatic juice dks pqfu, tks ikpd iFk esa vikfpr jgrk gS
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Protein (1) U;wfDyd vEy (2) izksVhu

(3) Starch (4) Fat (3) LVkpZ (4) olk


151. Identify the mismatch w.r.t. vitamins and related 151. foVkfeu rFkk budh deh ls lacaf/kr jksxksa ds lanHkZ esa
deficiency diseases. vlqesfyr dh igpku dhft,A
(1) Niacin – Pellagra (1) fu;klhu – iSysxzk
(2) Thiamine – Cheilosis (2) Fkk;ehu – dhyksfll
(3) Folic acid – Megaloblastic anemia (3) QkWfyd vEy – esxkyksCykfLVd ,uhfe;k
(4) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy (4) ,LdkWfcZd vEy – LdohZ
152. Choose the odd one out w.r.t function of liver 152. ;Ñr ds dk;Z ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Carbohydrate and protein metabolism (1) dkcksg Z kbMªsV rFkk izksVhu mikip;
(2) Erythropoiesis during embryonic development
(2) Hkzw.kh; ifjo/kZu ds nkSjku jDrk.kq dh mRifÙk
(3) Storage of iron as ferritin
(3) QSfjfVu ds :i esa yksgs dk lap;
(4) Formation of bile pigments from globin part of
(4) gheksXyksfcu ds Xyksfcu Hkkx ls fiÙk o.kZdksa dk
haemoglobin
fuekZ.k
153. Which one of the following disorder of digestive
system is associated with accessory glands of 153. ikpu ra= dk fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk fodkj ekuo
human body? 'kjhj dh lgk;d xzafFk;ksa ls lacfa /kr gS\
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation (1) izokfgdk (2) dks"Bc)rk ¼dCt½
(3) Vomiting (4) Jaundice (3) oeu (4) ihfy;k
154. Enzyme lipases are present in secretion of 154. ,atkbe ykbist fdlds L=ko esa gksrk gS\
(1) Only pancreatic acini (1) dsoy vXuk'k; dks"Bd 'kksFk ¼,fduh½
(2) Only intestinal gland (2) dsoy vkar xzafFk
(3) Gastric glands, pancreatic acini and intestinal
(3) tBj xzafFk] vXuk'k; dks"Bd 'kksFk vkSj vkar xzafFk
gland
(4) dsoy vXuk'k; dks"Bd 'kksFk vkSj vkar xzafFk
(4) Only pancreatic acini and intestinal gland
155. olk dk ikpu] vehuksa vEyksa dk vo'kks"k.k vkSj
155. The processes such as digestion of fat, absorption
of amino acids and secretion of hormones occur in gkeksuZ ds L=ko tSlh izfd;k,a gksrh gSa
(1) Stomach (2) Small intestine (1) vkek'k; esa (2) NksVh vkar esa

(3) Large intestine (4) Buccal cavity (3) cM+h vkar esa (4) eq[k xqgk esa

(24)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

156. Identify the statements as True (T) or False (F) 156. lR; (T) vFkok vlR; (F) dFkuksa dh igpku dhft,
and choose the correct option. rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
A. Amphibians can respire through lungs in their A. mHk;pj viuh o;Ld voLFkk esa QsQM+ksa ds
adult stage. ekè;e ls 'olu dj ldrs gSaA
B. Earthworms exhibit cutaneous respiration. B. dspq,a ue Ropk }kjk 'olu djrs gSaA
C. Fishes use gills for respiration. C. eNfy;k¡ 'olu ds fy, fxy dk mi;ksx djrh gSaA
A B C A B C
(1) T T F (1) T T F
(2) T F T (2) T F T
(3) T T T (3) T T T
(4) F T T (4) F T T
157. Read the following statements and choose the 157. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk lgh mÙkj dk
correct answer. p;u dhft,A
A. 1000 ml oxygenated blood carries about A. 1000 feyh vkWDlhtfur jDr esa yxHkx
200 ml O2 out of which 5 ml is delivered to 200 feyh O2 gksrk gS ftlesa 5 feyh dks lkekU;
tissue under normal physiological conditions. fØ;kRed fLFkfr;ksa esa Ård rd igq¡pk;k tkrk gS A
B. At tissue level, the enzyme carbonic B. Ård Lrj ij ,atkbe dkcZfud ,ugkbMªst
anhydrase stimulates the breakdown of –
H2CO3 dks HCO3 rFkk H+ esa VwVus dks izsfjr

H2CO3 into HCO3 and H+. djrk gS
(1) Both statements are correct (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
158. For oxygen - dissociation curve, which of the 158. vkWDlhtu ds fy,&fo;kstu oØ dk fuEufyf[kr esa
following factors favour right side shifting? ls dkSulk dkjd nkbZa rjQ f[kldkus esa lgk;d gS\
(1) High pO2 and high pH (1) mPp pO2 vkSj mPp pH
(2) High pCO2 and low pH (2) mPp pCO2 vkSj fuEu pH
(3) Low pCO2 and low pH (3) fuEu pCO2 vkSj fuEu pH
(4) High pO2 and low pH (4) mPp pO2 vkSj fuEu pH
159. How many structures from given in box have pO 2
159. ckWDl esa nh xbZ fdruh lajpukvksa esa pO2 40 feeh Hg
more than 40 mm Hg? ls vf/kd gksrk gS\
Pulmonary artery, Hepatic vein, Alveoli, Tissues, Qq¶Qql /keuh] ;Ñr f'kjk] dwfidk] Ård]
Aorta egk/keuh
(1) Two (2) Three (1) nks (2) rhu
(3) Four (4) Five (3) pkj (4) ik¡p
160. Complete the analogy w.r.t. ratio of respiratory
160. 'olu vk;ru ds vuqikr ds lanHkZ esa vuq:irk dks
volume.
iw.kZ dhft,A
Tidal volume : Functional Residual capacity : : 1 :
Tokjh; vk;ru : fØ;k'khy vof'k"V {kerk : : 1 :
_____. _____.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 7 (3) 5 (4) 7
161. The volume of sum of TV, ERV and RV is almost 161. TV, ERV vkSj RV ds ;ksx dk vk;ru yxHkx gksrk gS
(1) Equal to FRC (2) Half of the TLC (1) FRC ds leku (2) TLC dk vk/kk
(3) More than VC (4) Equal to EC (3) VC ls vf/kd (4) EC ds leku

(25)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

162. Which of the following additional muscles present 162. o{kh; fiatj esa ik;s tkus okyh fuEufyf[kr esa ls
in thoracic cage contract to help in increasing the dkSulh vfrfjDr isf'k;k¡ cyiwoZd fu%'olu ds nkSjku
strength of breathing during forceful expiration? 'olu dh {kerk c<+kus esa lgk;rk djus ds fy,
(1) External intercostal muscles fldqM+ tkrh gS\
(2) Internal intercostal muscles (1) cká baVjdksLVy isf'k;k¡
(3) Abdominal muscles (2) var% baVjdksLVy isf'k;k¡
(4) Diaphragm (3) mnjh; isf'k;k¡
163. Identify the below given diagram of mechanism of (4) Mk;kÝke
breathing with labelled structures/process and 163. ukekafdr lajpukvks@a izfØ;kvksa ds lkFk 'olu dh
select the correct answer. fØ;kfofèk dk uhps fn, x, fp= dh igpku dhft,
rFkk lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,A

(1) P showing the contracted condition of fu%'olu ds nkSjku Mk;kÝke dh ladqfpr fLFkfr
(1)
diaphragm during expiration dks P iznf'kZr djrk gS
(2) R indicating increased volume of thorax during (2) var%'olu ds nkSjku o{k ds vk;ru eas o`f) dks
inspiration R bafxr djrk gS
(3) S is present on mid ventral line of thorax (3) o{k ds eè; v/kjh; vkLrj eè; v/kj js[kk ij S
(4) Process T occurs only in forceful inspiration gksrk gS
164. Bulk of carbon dioxide is transported as (4) izfØ;k T dsoy cyiwoZd var%'olu esa gksrk gS
bicarbonate ion in X and about 20 to 25 164. dkcZu MkbZ vkWDlkbM dk cM+k fgLlk X esa
percent CO2 is transported as carbamino-
ckbdkcksuZ sV ds :i esa ifjogu gksrk gS rFkk yxHkx
20 ls 25 izfr'kr CO2 Y esa dkckZehuksgheksXyksfcu
haemoglobin in Y .
ds :i esa ifjogu gksrk gSA
Choose the correct option for X and Y.
ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks X rFkk Y ds fy,
X Y lgh gS
(1) Blood plasma Blood plasma X Y
(2) RBC Blood plasma (1) jDr IykTek jDr IykTek
(3) Blood plasma RBC (2) RBC jDr IykTek
(4) RBC RBC (3) jDr IykTek RBC
165. Select the structure from given below four options (4) RBC RBC
that does not participate in gaseous exchange but 165. uhps fn, x, pkj fodYi esa ls ml lajpuk dk p;u
possess “C” shape cartilaginous rings
dhft, tks xSlh; fofue; esa Hkkx ugha ysrk gS ysfdu
mldk “C” vkdkj dk mikfLFke; oy; gksrk gS
(1) Respiratory bronchioles
(1) 'olu 'ofludk,sa
(2) Terminal bronchioles
(2) varLFk 'olfudk,sa
(3) Alveolar duct
(3) dwfidk okfguh
(4) Terminal bronchi
(4) varLFk 'oluh
166. How much additional volume of air, a healthy 166. ,d LoLFk O;fDr lkekU; var%'olu ds ckn izR;sd
person can expire by a forcible expiration in each 'olu esa cyiwoZd fu%'olu }kjk ok;q dh fdruh
breath after normal inspiration? vfrfjDr ek=k dks fu%'okflr dj ldrk gS\
(1) 500 ml (2) 2500 – 3000 ml (1) 500 ml (2) 2500 – 3000 ml
(3) 1000 – 1100 ml (4) 4600 ml (3) 1000 – 1100 ml (4) 4600 ml

(26)
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

167. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the 167. 'okl izHkkoh dsUnz tks 'olu y; dsna z ds dk;ks± dks
functions of respiratory rhythm centre is present in la;r dj ldrk gS] og gksrk gS
(1) Pons (2) Medulla oblongata (1) iksl
a esa (2) esM;wyk vkWCykaxsVk esa
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Midbrain (3) gkbiksFkSysel (4) eè; efLr"d esa
168. Which of the following is an allergic disease 168. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d ,ythZ jksx gS tks
characterised by difficulty in breathing causing 'olu rFkk 'olfudkvksa dh 'kksFk ls 'olu leL;k
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and }kjk ?kj?kjkgV mRiUu djrk gS\
bronchioles? (1) okrLQhfr (2) 'oluh 'kksFk
(1) Emphysema (2) Bronchitis (3) nek (4) U;weksfu;k
(3) Asthma (4) Pneumonia 169. pO2 vkWDlhtu ds lkFk gheksXyksfcu dh yxHkx 75
169. Almost 75% saturation of haemoglobin with izfr'kr lar`fIr fdlds cjkcj gksrh gS\
oxygen occurs at pO2 equal to (1) 40 mm Hg (2) 60 mm Hg
(1) 40 mm Hg (2) 60 mm Hg (3) 95 mm Hg (4) 25 mm Hg
(3) 95 mm Hg (4) 25 mm Hg 170. vkWDlhtfur rFkk vukWDlhtfur jDr ds pO2 ds chp
170. The difference in between pO2 of oxygenated and esa yxHkx fdruk varj gS\
deoxygenated blood is about (1) 25 mm Hg (2) 45 mm Hg
(1) 25 mm Hg (2) 45 mm Hg (3) 55 mm Hg (4) 90 mm Hg
(3) 55 mm Hg (4) 90 mm Hg 171. ,d jksx ftlesa cyiwoZd fu%'olu ds ckotwn
171. The lungs alveoli remain inflated even after
Qq¶Qql dwfidk Qwyh gqbZ jgrh gS] tks fd eq[;r%
forceful expiration in a disease which is mainly flxjsV /kweziku ls gksrh gS] ;g jksx gS
caused due to cigarette smoking. The disease is (1) okrLQhfr
(1) Emphysema (2) 'oluh 'kksFk
(2) Bronchitis (3) O;kolkf;d 'olu jksx
(3) Occupational respiratory disorders (4) nek
(4) Asthma 172. dwfidk rFkk Ård ij O2 ds folj.k dh nj Lora=
172. Rate of diffusion of O2 at alveoli and tissue is gksrh gS
independent of (1) vkaf'kd nkc ls
(1) Partial pressure (2) ?kqyu'khyrk ls
(2) Solubility (3) folj.k f>Yyh dh eksVkbZ ls
(3) Thickness of diffusion membrane
(4) CO2 ds folj.k dh nj ls
(4) Rate of diffusion of CO2
173. ckgjh Qq¶Qqlkoj.kh f>Yyh fdlds vfrfjDr
173. The outer pleural membrane is found in close
fuEufyf[kr lHkh ds fudV laidZ esa ikbZ tkrh gS\
contact with all of the following except
(1) Mk;kÝke (2) ilfy;k¡
(1) Diaphragm (2) Ribs
(3) dfV d'ks#dk (4) mjksfLFk
(3) Lumbar vertebrae (4) Sternum
174. ;wfu;ks tSls tyh; eksyLd ;qDr gksrs gSa
174. Aquatic molluscs like Unio possess
(1) Cutaneous respiration (1) Roph; 'olu ls
(2) Pulmonary respiration (2) Qq¶Qqlh; 'olu ls
(3) Branchial respiration (3) 'olfudk 'olu ls
(4) Buccopharyngeal respiration (4) eq[kxzluh 'olu ls
175. Glottis is a opening of 175. fdldk [kqyuk XykWfVl dgykrk gS\
(1) Pharynx (2) Larynx (1) xzluh (2) daB
(3) Oral cavity (4) Oesophagus (3) eq[k xqgk (4) xzfldk
176. What will be pO2 and pCO2 of oxygenated blood 176. Årdksa dh rqyuk esa vkWDlhtfur jDr dk pO2 rFkk
as compared to tissues respectively? pCO2 Øe'k% D;k jgsxk\
(1) High, high (2) Low, high (1) mPp] mPp (2) fuEu] mPp
(3) Low, low (4) High, low (3) fuEu] fuEu (4) mPp] fuEu

(27)
Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
177. Contraction of diaphragm 177. Mk;kÝke ladqpu djrk gS
(1) Increases the volume of thoracic cavity in (1) i`"B /kkj v{k esa o{k xqgk ds vk;ru dks c<+k
dorso-ventral axis nsrk gS
(2) Increases the volume of thoracic cavity in (2) vxz i'p v{k esa o{k xqgk dk vk;ru c<+k nsrk
antero-posterior axis gS
(3) Decreases the volume of thoracic cavity in (3) i`"B /kkj v{k esa o{k xqgk ds vk;ru dks de dj
dorso-ventral axis nsrk gS
(4) Decreases the volume of thoracic cavity in (4) vxz i'p v{k esa o{k xqgk ds vk;ru dks de
antero-posterior axis dj nsrk gS
178. Secretion of parotid gland contains 178. iSjksfVM xzafFk ds L=ko esa gksrk gS
(1) Lipase (2) Amylase (1) ykbist (2) ,ekbyst
(3) Protease (4) Nucleases (3) izksfV,st (4) U;wfDy,st
179. Which of the following structure is exclusively 179. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh lajpuk fo'ks"k :i ls vkar
present in villi of intestine? ds vadqj esa gksrh gS\
(1) Lacteals (2) Blood capillaries (1) ysfDV;y (2) jDr dsf'kdk
(3) Mucous glands (4) Submucosa (3) E;wdl xzafFk (4) lc E;wdkslk
180. Choose the odd one w.r.t. structural constituents 180. cM+h vkar ds lajpukRed ?kVdksa ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke dk
of large intestine p;u dhft,A
(1) Rectum (2) Jejunum (1) ey}kj (2) vxz{kqnka=
(3) Descending colon (4) Caecum (3) vojksgh eyk'k; (4) va/kuky



(28)

You might also like